KVPY
INDEX
CLASS-XII
S. NO.
PAGE NO.
KVPY TEST PAPER FOR STREAM-SB+2
1.
Year-2007
1-16
2.
Year-2008
17-31
3.
Year-2009
32-46
4.
Year-2010
47-67
5.
Year-2011
68-84
6.
Year-2012
85-100
7.
Year-2013
101-116
8.
Year-2014
117-130
HINTS & SOLUTIONS
1.
Year-2007
131-151
2.
Year-2008
152-171
3.
Year-2009
172-195
4.
Year-2010
196-218
5.
Year-2011
219-236
6.
Year-2012
237-253
7.
Year-2013
254-272
8.
Year-2014
273-283
15RDLP
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Subject to Kota Jurisdiction only
1.
In Year 2007, Question Number 1-80 each carries 1 (one) mark, Maths(1-20), Physics
(21-40), Chemistry(41-60), Biology(61-80) & Question Number 81 to 125 each carries
2 marks, Maths(81-90),Physics(91-100), Chemistry(101-110), Biology(111-120)
2.
Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other
electronic gadgets in any form is not allowed.
3.
Write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.
4.
Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in
the answer sheet.
5.
Do not forget to mention your roll number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided
in the answer sheet.
6.
In case of any dispute, the answer filled in the OMR sheet available with the institute
shall be final.
1.
In Year 2008, Question Number 1-80 each carries 1 (one) mark, Maths(1-20), Physics
(21-40), Chemistry(41-60), Biology(61-80) & Question Number 81 to 125 each carries
2 marks, Maths(81-90), Physics(91-100), Chemistry(101-110), Biology(111-120)
2.
Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other
electronic gadgets in any form is not allowed.
3.
Write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.
4.
Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in
the answer sheet.
5.
Do not forget to mention your roll number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided
in the answer sheet.
6.
In case of any dispute, the answer filled in the OMR sheet available with the institute
shall be final.
1.
In Year 2009, Question Number 1-80 each carries 1 (one) mark, Maths(1-20), Physics
(21-40), Chemistry(41-60), Biology(61-80) & Question Number 81 to 125 each carries
2 marks, Maths(81-90), Physics(91-100), Chemistry(101-110), Biology(111-120)
2.
Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other
electronic gadgets in any form is not allowed.
3.
Write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.
4.
Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in
the answer sheet.
5.
Do not forget to mention your roll number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided
in the answer sheet.
6.
In case of any dispute, the answer filled in the OMR sheet available with the institute
shall be final.
1.
The Question paper consists of two parts (both contain only multiple choice question) for 100
marks. There will be four sections in Part-I (each containing 20 questions) four sections in
Part-II (each containing 10 questions). Answer any THREE of the four sections in Part-I and
any TWO of the four sections in Part-II.
2.
Subject
Part-I
Part-II
Mathematics
Physics
Chemistry
Biology
3.
The answer paper is machine readable. Do not forget to mention your paper code and Roll
Number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided in the Objective Response Sheet
(ORS)/Answer Sheet.
4.
For each question, indicate your answer by filling the corresponding oval with a HB pencil only.
5.
For each question there will be four choices given and only one of them is the correct answer. Fill
only one oval per question. If you mark more than one oval, it will be considered as an incorrect
answer.
6.
There is negative marking for wrong answers. Unanswered questions will not be evaluated and
will not be penalized as a wrong answer.
7.
In Part-I each correct answer gets 1 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be
deducted. In Part-II each correct answer gets 2 marks and for each incorrect answer 0.5 mark
will be deducted.
8.
9.
Candidates are permitted to carry their question paper after the examination.
1.
The Question paper consists of two parts (both contain only multiple choice question) for 100
marks. There will be four sections in Part-I (each containing 20 questions) four sections in
Part-II (each containing 10 questions). Answer any THREE of the four sections in Part-I and
any TWO of the four sections in Part-II.
2.
Subject
Part-I
Part-II
Mathematics
Physics
Chemistry
Biology
3.
The answer paper is machine readable. Do not forget to mention your paper code and Roll
Number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided in the Objective Response Sheet
(ORS)/Answer Sheet.
4.
For each question, indicate your answer by filling the corresponding oval with a HB pencil only.
5.
For each question there will be four choices given and only one of them is the correct answer. Fill
only one oval per question. If you mark more than one oval, it will be considered as an incorrect
answer.
6.
There is negative marking for wrong answers. Unanswered questions will not be evaluated and
will not be penalized as a wrong answer.
7.
In Part-I each correct answer gets 1 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be
deducted. In Part-II each correct answer gets 2 marks and for each incorrect answer 0.5 mark
will be deducted.
8.
9.
Candidates are permitted to carry their question paper after the examination.
1.
The Question paper consists of two parts (both contain only multiple choice question) for 100
marks. There will be four sections in Part-I (each containing 20 questions) four sections in
Part-II (each containing 10 questions). Answer any THREE of the four sections in Part-I and
any TWO of the four sections in Part-II.
2.
Subject
Part-I
Part-II
Mathematics
Physics
Chemistry
Biology
3.
The answer paper is machine readable. Do not forget to mention your paper code and Roll
Number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided in the Objective Response Sheet
(ORS)/Answer Sheet.
4.
For each question, indicate your answer by filling the corresponding oval with a HB pencil only.
5.
For each question there will be four choices given and only one of them is the correct answer. Fill
only one oval per question. If you mark more than one oval, it will be considered as an incorrect
answer.
6.
There is negative marking for wrong answers. Unanswered questions will not be evaluated and
will not be penalized as a wrong answer.
7.
In Part-I each correct answer gets 1 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be
deducted. In Part-II each correct answer gets 2 marks and for each incorrect answer 0.5 mark
will be deducted.
8.
9.
Candidates are permitted to carry their question paper after the examination.
YEAR-2007 (KVPY-STREAM-SB+2)
PART-I (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1.
z
2.
3.
(B) 4
z
z = 1 and | z | = 1 is :
(C) 6
(D) 8
35 37
Let A be an invertible 2 2 real matrix. If A1 =
then det (12A) equals :
41 43
(A) 1728
4.
(D) 35
Given
(B) 1
n 1
n 1
(D) 1/2
(C) 4 6 1
(D) 2/6
2
: the value of
6
1 3 5 ... ( 2n 1)
(C) 12
23 3 3 ..... n3
(A) 22/3
is :
(B) 42 /3
5.
If the slope of one of the lines represented by 4ax2 + xy + 4y2 = 0 is the square of the other then a equals:
(A) 1/8
(B) 1/4
(C) 1/4
(D) 1/8
6.
Let A and B be two points on the parabola y = 2x2 + x 2 such that the origin is the midpoint of the line
segment joining A to B. The length of AB is :
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 2 3
(D) 2 2
7.
The triangle formed by x-axis, y - axis and the line 3x + 4y + c = 0 has inradius 1. Then the value of |c| is :
(A) 12
(B) 7
(C) 5
(D) 1
8.
Let p, q and r denote the lengths of the sides QR, PR and PQ of a triangle PQR respectively. Then
pcos2(R/2) + rcos2(P/2)
(A) equals q
(C) equals
9.
pqr
4
(B) equals
pqr
2
The number of solutions of the equation : 3cos2 xsin2 x sin4 x cos2 x = 0 in the interval [0, 2] is :
(A) 8
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 3
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 1
1
sin1 (1/4) then 64sin + 64cos 8sec 8cose + tan + cot equals :
2
(A) 8
(B) 4
(C) 0
(D) 1
10.
If =
11.
Let
lim
1
1
1
2
n
L = x 0 x sin x x sin 2 .... x sin n
x
x
Then
(A) L does not exist
(C) L = 0
12.
(B) L = 1
(D) L = 1
x 3
for x 1
f(x) = 2
ax bx c for x 1
where a, b and c are constants such that f(x) has second derivative at x = 1. Then a equals :
(A) 6
(B) 3
(C) 6
(D) 3
13.
If the function f(x) = x3 3ax2 + b is strictly increasing derivative for x > 0, then which of the following is
always true ?
(A) a can take any real value
(B) a 0
(C) a < 0
(D) a 0
3
14.
xcos 2 x xdx where [x] denotes the largest integer not exceeding x is :
1
(A) 6
15.
16.
(B) 1/6
(D) 6/
1
{(2n + 1) (2n + 2) ------- (2n + n)}1/n, then nlim
f(n) equals :
n
(A) 4/e
(B) 27/ 4e
(C) 27 e/4
If f(n) =
(D) 4e
17.
(C) /6
A fair coin is tossed five times. If the out comes are 2 heads and 3 tails (in some order), then what is the
probability that the fourth toss is a head ?
(A)
1
4
(B)
2
5
(C)
1
2
(D)
3
5
18.
The number of three element subsets of {1, 2 ......10} sum of whose elements is even is :
(A) 50
(B) 60
(C) 70
(D) 90
19.
Suppose x, y are positive real numbers such that 2 log (x 2y) = logx + logy. Then value of
(A) 1
(B)
3
2
(C)
2
3
x
is :
y
(D) 4
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 2
20.
Let x,y and z be positive integers such that gcd(x, y, z) = 1 : x < y < z and x2 + y2 = z2. Then which of the
following is always true ?
(A) 2 does not divide x
(B) 2 does not divide z(x + y)
(C) 4 divides x + y + z
(D) 8 does not divide x + y + z
PHYSICS
21.
A block of mass m sliding down an incline at constant speed is initially at a height h above the ground.
The coefficient of kinetic friction between the incline is . If the mass continues to slide down the incline
at a constant speed, the energy dissipated by friction by the time the mass reaches the bottom of the
incline is (A) mgh/
(B) mgh
(C) p mgh/sin 0
(D) mgh sin 0
22.
The energy required to remove both electrons from the helium atom in its ground state is 79.0 eV. The
energy required to ionize helium (i.e. to remove one electron) is (A) 24/6 eV
(B) 39.5 eV
(C) 51.8 eV
(D) 54.4 eV
23.
A proton moves in the +ve z- direction after being accelerated from rest through a potential difference V.
The proton then passes through a region with uniform electric field E in the +x direction and a uniform
magnetic field B in the + y-direction, but the protons trajectory is not affected. If the experiment is
repeated using a potential difference of 2V, the proton will be (A) deflected in the +ve x- direction
(B) deflected in the ve x-direction
(C) deflected in the +ve y- direction
(D) deflected in the ve y- direction
24.
The displacement (y) of an electric wave as a function of position (x) and time (l) is given by :
y = cosx sint + cos2x sin2t
where the units of x and r are metre (m) and of time, second (s). The equation describes.
(A) a monochromatic (i.e. of fixed wavelength) wave traveling along the positive x-direction with speed 1
ms1.
(B) a traveling wave along the positive x-direction with speed 1 ms1, that is a supper position of two
harmonic waves.
(C) a stationary monochromic wave of wavelength 2 metre and angular frequency 1s1
(D) a superposition of two stationary waves of wavelengths 2 metre and metre and equal amplitudes.
25.
Two polaroids are placed 90 to each other and the transmitted intensity is zero. One more polaroid is
placed between them bisecting the angle between them. Let l be the intensity of light just after the first
polaroid. The fraction of l transmitted by the system is (A) 0
(B)
1
4
(C)
1
2
(D)
1
8
26.
A hydrogen gas filled ballon left free in a fast but uniformly moving bus (with closed doors and windows, so
not air currents) rises and touches against the ceiling of the bus. If the bus slow down quickly with uniform
retardation of magnitude
(A) The ballon displace in the direction of motion of the bus.
(B) The ballon displaces opposite to the direction of motion of the bus.
(C) The ballon remains where it was before.
(D) The ballon displaces along to the vertical determined by the ratio /g.
27.
Blamer lines of deuterium atoms, compared to those of hydrogen atom, are observed to be of (A) higher frequency
(B) higher wavelength
(C) same wavelength but reduced intensity
(D) same wavelength and intensity
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 3
28.
Cv
The isothermal bulk modulus of an ideal gas is - ( = C )
v
(A) P
29.
(B) P
(D)
2 1 P
Unpolarized light is incident at a plane interface from medium 1 to medium 2. With refractive indies 1 and
2 respectively. The angle of incidence l for which the reflected ray is totally plane polarized is -
2
(A) tan1
1
30.
(C) ( 1) P
2
(B) sin1
1
1
(C) sin1
2
1
(D) tan1
2
The velocity v of waves on the surface of a pool of liquid is given by the formula
(A) v2 =
g 2
(B) v2 =
g 2
(C) v2 =
g
2
(D) v2 =
1
g
31.
A statelite orbits around the earth at a distance r from the centre of the earth. Taking the zero of gravitational potential energy at infinity (K.E. and P.F. mean kinetic energy and potential energy respectively)
(A) Etotal = K.E. + P.E. = O
(B) Etotal = K.E.
(C) Etotal =
1
P.E.
2
32.
When the armature coil in a motor rotates in a magnetic field, a back emf developes opposing the
applied potential v, causing a net current I in the coil. If R is the resistance the coil, the mechanical power
output of the motor is (A) I2R
(B) I
(C) VI
(D) VI + I2R
33.
A ball rolling on the floor of a uniformly moving train comes to a stop due to friction after traveling a
distance d, losing its initial kinetic energy k into heat H. For an outside observer on the ground, suppose
the same quantities have values d1, k1 and H1 respectively. Then
(A) K = K ; H = H ; d = d
(B) K K ; H = H ; d d
(C) K = K ; H H ; d = d
34.
(D) K K ; H H ; d d
A body is projected horizontal on the top of the Mount Everest with speed much greater than
2gr ,
where r is the distance of the projection point from the centre of the earth and g is the acceleration due to
gravity there. The trajectory of the body will be a (A) straight line
(B) parabola
(C) hyperbola
(D) ellipse
35.
Consider two stars A and B having equal radii but different surface temperature. The surface temperature
of A is 4000 K while that of B is 40000K. Which of the following statement is false ?
(A) A is less luminous than B.
(B) A emits more light at infrared wavelengths than it does at ultraviolet wavelength.
(C) B emits more light at ultraviolet wavelength than it does at infrared wavelength.
(D) In a given infrared wavelength bond, A emits more light than B.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 4
36.
Four stars A, B, C and and X are moving with velocities as shown with respect to the interstellar medium.
An observer on a planet of the star X measures the frequencies v of the same spectral line in stars A, B
and C and finds : (Ignore planetary velocity in comparison to stellar velocities)
2v
v
(A) VA < VB > VC
37.
38.
C
2v
(B) VA < VC < VB
1
The pressure P of an ideal gas is related to mean squared speed V 2 by the relation, P = n m V 2 .
3
Where n is the number density and m is the mass of a molecule of the gas. For a mixture of non-reactive
ideal gases 1,2, ---------- this equation becomes
(A) P =
1
(n + n2 + ----) (m1 + m2 + -----) V 2
3 1
(B) P =
1
(n m + n2m2 + -----) V 2
3 1 1
(C) P =
1
(n m + n2m2 + ------) V12 V22 .....
3 1 1
(D) P =
1
1
n1 m1 V12 +
n m V 2 + ---3
3 2 2 2
Figure shows two graphs (X) and (Y) related to a charged conducting sphere of radius a and charge Q
+Q
(A) X represents potential versus distance (from the centre) graph while Y represents electric field versus
distance graph.
(B) Y represents potential versus distance graph while X represents electric field versus distance graph
(C) Both graphs show that potential and electric field are continuous throughout.
(D) Both graphs show that potential and electric field have continuous first order derivatives.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 5
39.
Figure below show a charge disribution of three charge q, 2q and q located along the y-axis with the
charge 2q at centre and the other charges symetrically placed about it :
q
y
x
2q
q
The electric field along the x axis. for large x compared to the size of the distribution, varies as :
(A)
40.
1
x
(B)
(C)
x2
(D)
x3
1
x4
In a double silt experiment, two identical point sources S1 and S2 are placed on the line perpendicular to
the two slits P and Q as shown. (The figure is not to scale). The screen is placed for away compared to
the distance between the slits).
S2
S21
Screen
/////////////////////////////
When only S1 is switched on, there is an interference pattern with a peak intensity Ii. When only S2 is
switched on, there is an interference pattern with peak intensity I2 (2 < I1). When both S1 and S2 are
switched on.
(A) there will be a uniform intensity on the screen
(B) the intensity on the screen will vary from I1< I2 to I1 + I2
(C) the intensity on the screen will vary from 0 to ( 1 2 )2.
(D) the intensity on the screen will vary from 0 to (I1 + I2).
CHEMISTRY
41.
The pH of a 0.1M solution of a weak monoprotic acid having a degree of dissociation of 0.1 in water, is(A) 4.4
(B) 4.0
(C) 2.4
(D) 2.0
42.
43.
(C) NO2
(D) NH3
(D) CO32
44.
A molecule whose molar specific heat at high temperature assuming ideal behaviour is 9R. is
(A) C6H6
(B) NH3
(C) B2H6
(D) CH4
45.
The solubility of the hydroxide of Be, Mg, Ba and Ca in water follows the order
(A) Be > Mg > Ca > Ba
(B) Mg > Be > Ca > Ba
(C) Ca > Ba > Mg > Be
(D) Ba > Ca > Mg > Be
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 6
46.
The energy required to remove an electron from an isolated atom in the gas phase follows the order.
(A) C > B > Be > Li
(B) C > Be > B > Li
(C) B > C > Be > Li
(D) Be > Li > B > C
47.
(C) 0.0 D
(D) 1.8 D
(C) [PtCl4]2
(D) BCl3
48.
49.
Mass of a liquid is weighed correct to three decimal place and its volume is measured correct to one
decimal place. The density of the liquid calculated from the above data will be correct to
(A) three decimal place (B) two decimal place (C) one decimal place (D) four decimal place
50.
According to Bohrs theory, the angular momentum of the electron in the ground state of the hydrogen
atom is (A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
51.
(A)
(B)
Cl
Br
(C)
(D)
CO2H
52.
The acid strength of o-nitrophenol (I), m-nitrophenol (II) and p-nitrophenol (III) follows the order.
(A) I < II = III
(B) II < I < III
(C) III < I < II
(D) I < II < III
53.
In the polymerization of alkene by Zieglar-Natta reaction,the catalyst and the co-catalyst, respectively
are (A) TiCl4 and AlCl3
(B) Ti (III) and Et3Al
(C) Ti(Et)4 and Al(III)
(D) TiCl2 and Et3Al
54.
55.
(II)
(III)
(IV)
56.
57.
58.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 7
59.
A compound that shows a distinct colour change on treatment with alcoholic ferric chloride is (A) Anisole
(B) Aspirin
(C) Salicylic acid
(D) Methyl benzoate
60.
(I)
(II) H3CO
(III) O2N
CH2
CH2
CH2
(IV) H3C
CH2
BIOLOGY
61.
Exclusion of the thymus, the primary lymphoid organs in mammals, results in severe immunodeficiency.
This due to the absence of the following in the peripheral circulation.
(A) All nature leucocytes
(B) Mature T and B cells
(C) Mature T cells
(D) Mature B cells
62.
Which of the following organelle of a mammalian cell has the genetic material transferred only from the
mother to her offspring ?
(A) Nucleus
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Endoplasmic reticulum
(D) Centrosome
63.
64.
A patient suffering from splenomegaly undergoes splenectomy. Which of the following processes will be
affected ?
(A) RBC production will be stopped
(B) Removal of old RBC will be impaired
(C) Decreases in antibody production
(D) Generation of B cells will be stopped
65.
During exercise when body temperature rises, the skin capillaries dilate and receive more blood resulting
in increased heat loss. Which of the following is NOT associated with the maintenance of the body
temperature in general ?
(A) Exocrine and apocrine sweat glands.
(B) Release of bradykinin, a potent vasodilating peptide
(C) Sebum secretion from sebaceous glands
(D) Sub-cutancous fat
66.
In which of the following digestive juice are DNase and RNase found ?
(A) Gastric juice
(B)Intestinal juice
(C) Saliva
(D) Pancreatic juice
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 8
67.
68.
The hypersensitive reaction in response to a type I allergen which produces characteristic symptoms is
described as allergic response. Which of the following immunoglobulin is mostly involved in this type of
cellular response ?
(A) IgA
(B) IgM
(C) IgD
(D) IgE
69.
70.
If the blood group of father is A and that of mother is B . The blood group of their child could be (A) A or B or AB
(B) AB only
(C) A or B or AB or O
(D) A or B only
71.
Certain gases in the atmosphere known as green house gas which absorbs and emits heat and contribute to global warming. Which of the following gases is not considered in the list of gases known to have
green house effect ?
(A) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
(B) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC)
(C) Ozone (O3)
(D) Nitrous oxide (NO)
72.
73.
Many aquatic plants float on water during day time but sink during night because (A) During day evaporation of water increases the density of the impure water of the reservoir whereas
during night condensation of atmosphere moisture into the reservoir decreases the density of water.
(B) Accumulation of gaseous oxygen in plants makes them buoyant during day time. The oxygen is used
up during night making them heavier
(C) Lipid synthesis increases during dar time making them buoyant and the lipids are used up during the
night.
(D) Accumulation of starch by the end of the day makes them heavier and they sink into the water during
night time.
74.
75.
76.
(D) G2 phase
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 9
77.
78.
Bioluminescence involves the emission of light from biological systems. The energy source for this light
is primarily.
(A) Heat
(B) Chemical
(C) Magnetic
(D) Photosynthesis
79.
The volume of blood pumped out by ventricle during each beat is known as stroke volume. If a healthy
adult has a pulse rate of 72 and stroke volume of 70 ml, then the cardiac output is.
(A) 70 ml/min.
(B) 72 ml/min
(C) 5040 ml/min
(D) 140 ml/min
80.
Fats provide more energy than carbohydrates because (A) Fats contain higher percentage of C and H and lower percentage of O than carbohydrates
(B) Fats gets readily oxidized than carbohydrates
(C) Fats contain higher percentage of O than C
(D) Fats can be absorbed readily by our bodies than carbohydrates
PART-II (2 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
81.
If a, b, and c are nonzero real numbers such that ab = 2 (a + b), bc = 3( b + c) and ca = 4 (c + a) then the
value of 5a + 7b + c is :
(A) 18
(B) 72
(C) 108
(D) 120
82.
Let and be nonzero real roots of the quadratic equation x2 + ax + b = 0 and + , + and
be the roots of the equation x4 + ax3 + cx2 + dx + e = 0. Then which of the following statement is
false?
(A) a = 0
(B) c = 0
(C) d = 0
(D) e = 0
83.
A point P lies on the line y = 2x in the first quadrant. Another point Q lies on the line y = 3x in the first
quandrant. Suppose QP is perpendicular to the line y = 2x and QP = 5. The distance of P from the origin
is :
(A) 7 5
84.
(B) 1/2
(D) 39
B
C
cot
is :
2
2
(C) 1/3
(D) 3
Let ABCD be a square. E and F be points on AC such that AE = EF = FC = AC/3. Then tan (EBF) equals :
(A) 3/4
86.
(C) 35
85.
(B) 25
(B) 1 / 3
(C)1/2
(D) 1/3
An open box is constructed by netting squares of side length x from each the corners and of a square
sheet of side length equal to 2007. Then the sides are folded up to form a box. The volume of the resulting
box is maximum when x equals :
(A) 669
(B) 669/2
(C) 2007/2
(D) 2007/4
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 10
87.
The coordinates (x0,y0) of the point on the line y = x + 2 which is closed to the parabola y2 = 4x is :
(A) (0, 2)
(B) (1/2, 5/2)
(C) (5/2, 9/2)
(D) (1, 3)
88.
p( x )dx
2
and J =
p(x)dx . Then :
e
Let z1, z2 and z3 be three complex numbers on the unit circle |z| =1. Then |z1z2 + z2z3 + z3z1| equals :
2
2
2
(A) z1 z 2 z 3
(C)
90.
(B) z1 z 2 z3
1
z z z3 z 2 z 3 z1 z 3 z1 z 2
2 1 2
(D)
1 2
z1 z 22 z 32 z1z 2 z 2 z3 z3 z1
2
All the inner angles of a - 7 gon are obtuse, their sizes in degree being distinct integers divisible by 9.
What is the sum (in degree) of the largest two angles ?
(A) 300
(B) 315
(C) 330
(D) 335
PHYSICS
91.
A cylinder of mass M and the radius R has a radially dependent density. The cylinder starts from rest and
rolls without slipping down an inclined plane of height H. At the bottom of the plane its translational speed
is (8gH/7)1/2. The rotational inertia of the cylinder is (A)
1
MR2
2
(B)
3
MR2
4
(C)
7
MR2
8
(D) MR2
92.
If a 66 cm long air column closed at one resonates at a frequency 625 Hz, the number of other possible
frequencies for resonance less than 1 kHz will be :
(A) 8
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 3
93.
A copper pendulum of period T0 on the ground is taken down a mine shaft to a depth d. If the thermal
expansion co-efficient of copper is (C1) and the temperature in the mine is C higher than on the
T
ground, the period changes to T. where the ratio T is given (in te first order by)
0
1
d
(A) 1 1
2
R
(B) (1 + ) 1
R
(C) (1 + ) 1
R
1
d
(D) 1 1
2
2R
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 11
94.
A parallel monochromatic beam of yellow light ( = 6 107m) Next to be central bright maximum, the
angle of the first minimum in the diffraction pattern (with respect to the initial direction of the beam) is
approximately.
(A) 17
(B) 37
(C) 0
(D) 8.5
95.
In an oscillating LC circuit with negligible resistance, at a certain instant, energy is fully stored in the
capacitor. The least time it takes for the energy to be equally shared between the capacitor and the
inductor is (A)
96.
LC
4
(B)
(C)
LC
2
(D)
LC
4
A parallel plate capacitor has a plate separation d and plate area A. An u charged metal salb of thickness
a is inserted midway between the plates. The capacitance of the device is
(A) infinite
97.
LC
(B) zero
(C)
0 A
d
(D)
0 A
da
The vertical motion of a huge piston in a machine is approximately simple harmonic with a frequency f. A
block of mass m is placed on the piston. The maximum amplitude Amax of the pistons simple harmonic
motion that is possible, for the block and the piston to remain together, is given by (max : maximum
speed)
(A)
(B)
4 2 f 2
mg
f2
(C)
g
f2
2max
(D)
g
98.
In a certain region of space, electric field is along the positive z direction throughout. The field is, however,
non-uniform ; its magnitude increases uniformly along the positive z-direction at the rate of 105NC1m1.
The force and torque experienced by a system having a total dipole moment of 107 C m in the negative
z-direction are (A) 102 N in the negative z-direction ; torque = 0
(B) 102 N in the positive z-direction torque = 0
(C) Force = 0 ; torque = 102 Nm so as to decreases potential energy.
(D) Force = 102 N in the negative Z-direction, torque = 10-2 Nm so as to decrease the potential energy
99.
In one model of an atom, a positively charged point nucleus of charge Ze is surrounded by a uniform
density of negative charge up to a radius R. The atom as a whole is neutral. In this model the electric field
at a distance r from the nuelus is given by Ze r
(A) E(r) = 4
3 r <R
0 R
Ze
= 4 r 2 r > R
0
Zer
(B) E(r) =
4 0R 3
r<R
=0r>R
Ze 1
r
(C) E(r) = 4 2 3 r < R
r
R
0
=0
r>R
Ze
(D) E(r) = 4 r 2
0
1 , for all r
R
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 12
100.
A particular ideal gas is supplied 10.61 J of heat at a constant pressure of 1.01 105 Pa. If the volume of
the gas increases by 3 105 m3 , the gas consists of
(A) monatomic molecules.
(B) diatomic molecules.
(C) polyatomic molecules.
(D) a mixture of mono and diatomic molecules.
CHEMISTRY
101.
Optically pure 3-bromopent-1-ene upon addition of 1 mole of Br2 produces a tribromo compound. The
number of stereoisomers in the product is (A) 2
102.
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 3
The plot that is not valid for an ideal gas where P is the pressure and V is the volume of the gas, is -
(A) PV
(B) PV
1/V
(C)
(D)
1/P
103.
The volume of 0.1M acetic acid (pKa = 4.76) that should be added to 10ml of 0.2M sodium acetate
solution to prepare a buffer solution of pH 4.91 is (A) 14.2 ml
104.
(B) 4.0 ml
(C) 20.0 ml
(D) 70.0 ml
A hydrated salt of a bivalent metal when heated strongly produces a mixture of gases which when
bubbled through Ba(OH)2 solution produces a white solid. This solid on treatment with dilute HCl
dissolves a part of the solid leaving another part insoluble which is filtered. The filtrate on treatment with
Br2 water slowly precipitates another white solid, which is not soluble in HCl. The gas mixtures are (A) CO2 and CO
105.
An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential (V) and then diffracted on a Ni crystal to
measure its wavelength (). The wavelength is related to V as (A) V
(B) 1/V
(C) V1/2
(D) 1/V1/2
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 13
106.
A dilute aqueous solution of a polymer of known molecular weight shows an elevation of boiling point of
water by 0.052 K. The molar boiling point elevation constant of water is 0.52 K kg mol1. Using these data(A) it is possible to calculate the relative lowering of vapour pressure of water and the magnitude of
freezing point depression, but not the osmotic pressure at 300 K.
(B) it is possible to calculate the relative lowering of vapour pressure of water, but neither the magnitude
of freezing point depression nor the osmotic pressure at 300K.
(C) it is possible to calculate the relative lowering of vapour pressure but neither the magnitude of freezing
point depression nor the osomotic pressure at 300 K.
(D) it is possible to calculate the relative lowering of vapour pressure and the osmotic pressure at 300K
but not the magnitude of freezing point depression.
107.
An organic compound fused with metallic sodium dissolves in water and the solution is divided into two
parts. One part is treated with FeSO4, boiled and filtered. In the filtrate addition of FeCl3 does not
produce any precipitate. To the other part, addition of sodium nitro prusside produces violet color. The
organic compound contains.
108.
NH2
(CH3CO)2O
Me
Br2/CH3COOH
II
H2O/H
NH2
NHCOCH3
(A)
(B)
Me
Br
Me
Br
NH2
NHCOCH3
(C)
(D) Me
Br
109.
III
Br
A water droplet spreads on a clean gold surface. The droplet, however, does not spread onto a gold
surface which is pre-treated with a dilute solution of hexanethiol [CH3 (CH2)5-SH] and washed with
excess water. This is because (A) chemisorption of hexanethiol on gold surface renders it hydrophilic
(B) chemisorption of hexanethiol onto gold surface renders it hydrophobic
(C) physisorption of hexanethiol onto gold surface renders it hydrophobic
(D) physisorption of hexanethiol onto gold surface renders it hydrophilic.
110.
Ir (CO)Cl (PPh3) when reacts with O2, the oxidation state and coordination number of Iridium, respectively,
become.
(A) +1 and 5
(B) + 2 and 5
(C) + 4 and 6
(D) + 3and 6
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 14
BIOLOGY
111.
If our body fluid were alcohol instead of water, which of the following would happen to our body temperature if everthing else in the body remains the same (A) Temperature control would be maintained as well as it happens now
(B) We will maintain a constant temperature of 37C
(C) Fluctuations of body temperature will be more since alcohol has a lower specific heat capacity
(D) We will feel feverish all the time
112.
A gene has two alleles A and a with a frequency of p and q respectively the genotypic frequencies would
have the proportion :
(A) (p + q)2 = 1
(B) p2 q2 1
(C) pq = 1/2
(D) (p q)2 = 1
113.
At low concentrations sodium ions are good for the heart, but excess of the same results in hypertension
or high blood pressure. This is because.
(A) The balance between Na and K ions is destroyed
(B) Blood becomes thicker with excess of Na+ ions
(C) Na+ ions narrow down the artery
(D) Water retention in kidneys increases with excess Na ions and heart requires to pump more
114.
When Edward Jenner inoculated Joseph with the cow pox pustules from a milkmaid, the small boy did
not get small pox because (A) Pustules contained lgG against small pox which gave passive immunity to Joseph
(B) Pustules contained IFN which killed the small pox virus
(C) Pustules contained cow pox virus which gave protection against small pox
(D) Pustules contained immune cell which gave protection against small pox
115.
Camoulflage and Mimicry are adaptations in animals. Which of the following statement is NOT correct ?
(A) Camouflaging represents the ability of the animal to blend with surrounding.
(B) Mimicry means one specie imitates or resembles another species to gain some benefit.
(C) Mimicry helps to escape from predators
(D) Camouflaging is only meant for desert animals.
116.
Heparin secreted by the mast cells present in the inner walls of the blood vessels is known to inhibit blood
coagulation. Which of the following statement is NOT correct ?
(A) It help neutralizing the action of thrombin
(B) It prevents conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
(C) It prevents conversion of fibronogen to fibrin
(D) It was originally isolated from liver cells
117.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 15
118.
If the two genes A and B on a chromosome are located next to each other (A) Chances of crossing over between them are very low
(B) Chances of crossing over between them are very high
(C) The two genes serve as single unit when it comes to accumulation of mutations within them
(D) Then of the two genes one has to be nonfunctional gene for the crossover to occur in between the two
119.
120.
*****
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 16
1.
In Year 2007, Question Number 1-80 each carries 1 (one) mark, Maths(1-20), Physics
(21-40), Chemistry(41-60), Biology(61-80) & Question Number 81 to 125 each carries
2 marks, Maths(81-90),Physics(91-100), Chemistry(101-110), Biology(111-120)
2.
Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other
electronic gadgets in any form is not allowed.
3.
Write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.
4.
Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in
the answer sheet.
5.
Do not forget to mention your roll number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided
in the answer sheet.
6.
In case of any dispute, the answer filled in the OMR sheet available with the institute
shall be final.
1.
In Year 2008, Question Number 1-80 each carries 1 (one) mark, Maths(1-20), Physics
(21-40), Chemistry(41-60), Biology(61-80) & Question Number 81 to 125 each carries
2 marks, Maths(81-90), Physics(91-100), Chemistry(101-110), Biology(111-120)
2.
Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other
electronic gadgets in any form is not allowed.
3.
Write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.
4.
Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in
the answer sheet.
5.
Do not forget to mention your roll number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided
in the answer sheet.
6.
In case of any dispute, the answer filled in the OMR sheet available with the institute
shall be final.
1.
In Year 2009, Question Number 1-80 each carries 1 (one) mark, Maths(1-20), Physics
(21-40), Chemistry(41-60), Biology(61-80) & Question Number 81 to 125 each carries
2 marks, Maths(81-90), Physics(91-100), Chemistry(101-110), Biology(111-120)
2.
Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other
electronic gadgets in any form is not allowed.
3.
Write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.
4.
Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in
the answer sheet.
5.
Do not forget to mention your roll number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided
in the answer sheet.
6.
In case of any dispute, the answer filled in the OMR sheet available with the institute
shall be final.
1.
The Question paper consists of two parts (both contain only multiple choice question) for 100
marks. There will be four sections in Part-I (each containing 20 questions) four sections in
Part-II (each containing 10 questions). Answer any THREE of the four sections in Part-I and
any TWO of the four sections in Part-II.
2.
Subject
Part-I
Part-II
Mathematics
Physics
Chemistry
Biology
3.
The answer paper is machine readable. Do not forget to mention your paper code and Roll
Number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided in the Objective Response Sheet
(ORS)/Answer Sheet.
4.
For each question, indicate your answer by filling the corresponding oval with a HB pencil only.
5.
For each question there will be four choices given and only one of them is the correct answer. Fill
only one oval per question. If you mark more than one oval, it will be considered as an incorrect
answer.
6.
There is negative marking for wrong answers. Unanswered questions will not be evaluated and
will not be penalized as a wrong answer.
7.
In Part-I each correct answer gets 1 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be
deducted. In Part-II each correct answer gets 2 marks and for each incorrect answer 0.5 mark
will be deducted.
8.
9.
Candidates are permitted to carry their question paper after the examination.
1.
The Question paper consists of two parts (both contain only multiple choice question) for 100
marks. There will be four sections in Part-I (each containing 20 questions) four sections in
Part-II (each containing 10 questions). Answer any THREE of the four sections in Part-I and
any TWO of the four sections in Part-II.
2.
Subject
Part-I
Part-II
Mathematics
Physics
Chemistry
Biology
3.
The answer paper is machine readable. Do not forget to mention your paper code and Roll
Number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided in the Objective Response Sheet
(ORS)/Answer Sheet.
4.
For each question, indicate your answer by filling the corresponding oval with a HB pencil only.
5.
For each question there will be four choices given and only one of them is the correct answer. Fill
only one oval per question. If you mark more than one oval, it will be considered as an incorrect
answer.
6.
There is negative marking for wrong answers. Unanswered questions will not be evaluated and
will not be penalized as a wrong answer.
7.
In Part-I each correct answer gets 1 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be
deducted. In Part-II each correct answer gets 2 marks and for each incorrect answer 0.5 mark
will be deducted.
8.
9.
Candidates are permitted to carry their question paper after the examination.
1.
The Question paper consists of two parts (both contain only multiple choice question) for 100
marks. There will be four sections in Part-I (each containing 20 questions) four sections in
Part-II (each containing 10 questions). Answer any THREE of the four sections in Part-I and
any TWO of the four sections in Part-II.
2.
Subject
Part-I
Part-II
Mathematics
Physics
Chemistry
Biology
3.
The answer paper is machine readable. Do not forget to mention your paper code and Roll
Number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided in the Objective Response Sheet
(ORS)/Answer Sheet.
4.
For each question, indicate your answer by filling the corresponding oval with a HB pencil only.
5.
For each question there will be four choices given and only one of them is the correct answer. Fill
only one oval per question. If you mark more than one oval, it will be considered as an incorrect
answer.
6.
There is negative marking for wrong answers. Unanswered questions will not be evaluated and
will not be penalized as a wrong answer.
7.
In Part-I each correct answer gets 1 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be
deducted. In Part-II each correct answer gets 2 marks and for each incorrect answer 0.5 mark
will be deducted.
8.
9.
Candidates are permitted to carry their question paper after the examination.
YEAR-2008 (KVPY-STREAM-SB+2)
PART-I (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1.
10
2.
x 1
x 1
is :
The coefficient of the term independent of x in the expansion of 2 / 3
1/ 3
x 1 x x 1/ 2
x
(A) 35
3.
(B) 70
(C) 105
(B) a + b + c = 1
(D) 210
a a2
a3 1
b b2
b3 1
c3 1
c c
= 0, then :
(C) a + b + c = 0
(D) ab + bc + ca = 0
4.
If the slopes of one of the lines represented by ax2 6xy + y2 = 0 is the square of the other for some
positive value of a, then a is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 8
5.
The number of distinct points common to the curves x2 + 4y2 = 1 and 4x2 + y2 = 4 is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4
6.
An ellipse has its major axis equal to the diameter of a circle and the area of the ellipse is one-third the
area of the circle. The eccentricity of the ellipse is :
(A)
7.
9.
(B)
2
3
(C)
2 2
3
(D)
1
3
8.
2
3
5 17
2
(B) 5 17
(C) 20
(D) 10 5
In a square ABCD, points P on BC and Q on CD are such that AP = 4, PQ = 3 and QA = 5. The area of
ABCD is
(A)
256
15
(B) 16
(C)
256
17
(D)
256
18
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 17
10.
11.
12.
6
7
(B)
7
8
(C)
8
9
(D)
9
10
The sides of a triangle are 9x + 1, 6x + 2, 3x + 3, where x is a positive integer. If the area is also an integer,
the number of admissible values of x in the set {1, 2, 3........., 20} is :
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 12
f (1 h)
Suppose f is a real function defined on R and hlim
exists. Then :
0
h
(A) f is not continuous at 1
(B) f is not continuous at 1 but not differentiable at 1
(C) f is differentiable at 1
(D) f is differentiable at 0
13.
14.
sin[ x ]
, if [ x ] 0
If f(x) = [ x ]
. (Here [x] denotes the integer part of x.) Then xlim
f(x)
0
0,
if [ x ] 0
(A) is 1
15.
(B) is 0
16.
Let f(x) =
(B) [0, )
(C) { 1/4, )
(D) R
(B) ( 2, 1)
1
18.
The value of
(A)
x +
(A) ( , 2)
17.
(C) is sin 1
(C) (1, 2)
(D) (2, )
x | x |3 / 2 dx is :
4
7
(B)
4
5
(C)
4
3
(D) 0
Let fn(x) = log log ....log(x), where log is repeated n times. Then
x f ( x)f (x)......f
1
(A) f11(x) + c
1dx
10 ( x )
(B)
is equal to :
f11( x )
c
11
(C) 10f10(x) + c
(D) 11f11(x) + c
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 18
19.
The least value of x12 + x22 + x32 where x1, x2, x3 are real numbers satisfying x1 + 2x2 + 3x3 = 4 is
8
(A)
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 2
7
20.
A coin is tossed until one observes a sequence of exactly three tails. The probability that the experiment
comes to an end at 7-th toss is .
(A)
7
128
(B)
1
128
(C)
1
32
(D)
5
128
PHYSICS
21.
22.
1 V
V P T
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 19
24.
One end of a cylindrical solid rod of length L and radius r is clamped in a fixed positon. The other end is
turned by an external torque resulting in a twist . The sheer modulus is given by . The twist angle is
proportional to :
(A) r1/L2
(B) r4/L
(C) L/r4
(D) L /r4
25.
A particle of charge q and mass m moves in a cirular orbit with angular momentum given by l . The ratio
26.
q
m
(B) q
(C)
q
2m
(D) m q
Thermal motion of atoms in a gas causes the spectral line emitted by the atoms to be shifted at random
towards both the red and blue. This leads to Doppler broadening of the spectral lines. If f is the frequency
of the spectral line and f is a measure of broadening of the line, the ratio
f
is proportional to
f
m
(A)
kT
(B)
kT
m
(C)
mkT
(D)
1 kT
c m
27.
Consider a sinusoidal travelling wave along a string, with amplitude A and wave velocity v. The power
carried by the wave is proportonal to
(A) Av2
(B) AV
(C) A2v2
(D) A2 v
(The proportionality constant is not dimensionless)
28.
Monochromatic light falls on a pair of slits mounted 24 cm in front of a photographic film. After exposure,
the film shows a series of bright bands spaced 0.20 cm apart. The separation between the slits is 6.0
10-3 cm. The wavelength of light is :
(A) 600 nm
(B) 400 nm
(C) 500 nm
(D) 560 nm
29.
Two clean mercury droplets when pushed into contact spontaneously coalesce to form a single droplet.
The single droplet so formed will :
(A) Be slightly warmer than the separate pair of droplets
(B) Be slightly cooler than the separate pair droplets
(C) Have the same temperature as the separate pair of droplets
(D) Be warmer or cooler depending on the size of each initial droplet.
30.
The speed of a comet at perihelion (closest to the sun) is 5.6 104 ms1, while its distance from the sun
is 9.0 1010m. At aphelion (farthest from the sun) its distance is 5.6 1012m. The comets aphelion speed
is :
(A) 1.0 km s1
(B) 900 ms1
(C) 504 ms1
(D) 5.6 104 ms 1
31.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 20
32.
33.
In the following reaction, a proton bombards a lithium nucleus at rest producing two -particles :
Li7 + 1H1 2 2He4
3
The total rest mass of the products is less than the total rest mass of the reactants by 0.01864 atomic
mass unit (amu). By mass-energy conversion formula, 1 amu = 931 MeV approximately. This means that
(A) The kinetic energy of the proton 17.4 MeV
(B) The total kinetic energy of two - particles is more than the kinetic energy of the proton by 17.4 Mev
(C) Each -particle has a kinetic energy of 8.7 MeV.
(D) The protons kinetic energy is 8.7 MeV more than that of each -article
34.
The radius of the first (n = 1) orbit in Bohrs model of hydrogen atom is 0.53 1010 m. (Plancks constant
h = 6.63 1034 Js, mass of electron = 9.11 1031 kg). The speed of the electron in this orbit is
approximately
(A) 3.0 1010 m s1
(B) 1.4 107 m s 1
(C) 3.5 107 m s 1
(D) 2.2 107 m s 1
35.
In an electric motor, two parallel wires 60 cm long are separated by a distance of 1.5 cm. The wires have
non-magnetic insulation between them. A short circuit in the motor results suddenly in a large current of
4000 A. The currents flow in opposite directions in the two wires. Then
(A) There will be a repulsive force of 128 N on each wire
(B) There will be an attractive force of 128 N on each wire
(C) There will be no force experienced by any wire, since they are insulated.
(D) There will be a force along the length of each wire, of magnitude128 N.
36.
Let be the typical de Broglie wavelength associated with an He atom in helium gas at room temperature
T (20C) and pressure P(1 atmosphere).Let d be the mean separation between helium atoms under these
conditions.Then
(A) is greater than d under the given T and P.
(B) is less than d under the given T and P.
(C) is equal to d under the given T and P
(D) The ratio of to d has no relation to T or P.
37.
In a plane electromagnetic wave of frequency f traveling in free space with speed c, the electric field
magnitude E and magnetic field amplitude B are related ( In S.I. units) by
(A) B = fE
38.
(C) B =
E
c
(D) E = fB
A resistor R and a capacitor C are connected in series to a 220 V, 50 Hz a.c. source. Let VR and Vc be the
r.m.s. voltages across R and C respectively. Then
(A) VR = Vc = 220 V
39.
(B) B = cE
(B) VR Vc = 220 V
(C) Vc VR = 220 V
(D)
Two identical point sources P and Q vibrating in phase with the same amplitude generate sinusoidal
waves on a water surface.The sources are 6.5 cm apart. Two nearest points (from P) of destructive
interference along PQ are found to be at 0.7 cm and 2.4 cm from P. The total number of points of
destructive interference on the line segment PQ is
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 5
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 21
40.
4
3
1
4
(A)
(B)
P
2
2
3
3
1
1
4
4
(C)
(D)
CHEMISTRY
41.
Li metal is a better reducing agent than Na metal because (A) The ionization enthalpy of Li is lower than that of Na
(B) The hydration enthalpy of Li is lower than that of Na
(C) The ionization enthalpy of Li is higher than that of Na
(D) The hydration enthalpy of Li is higher than that of Na
42.
One mole each of the two gases X and Y are stored separately in two cylinders at 25C at pressures 1
atm. and 2 atm, respectively. The difference in the compressibilities of the two gases. (kx ky) is
(A) 0.1 atm1
(B) 0.5 atm1
(C) 1.0 atm1
(D) 2.0 atm1
43.
(S)-lactic acid is
OH
OH
(A)
(B)
CO2H
OH
OH
(C)
CO2H
(D)
CO2H
CO2H
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 22
44.
45.
The reaction between p-methylbenzaldehyde and NaOH is an example of (A) Aldol condensation reaction
A saturated solution of BaSO4 is heated from 25C to 35C and the conductance of the solution and the
solubility of BaSO4 are measured. It is found that :
(A) both conductance and solubility increase
(B) both conductance and solubility decrease
(C) conductance increases but solubility decreases
(D) conductance decreases but solubility increases.
46.
An ideal gas is subjected to a cyclic change as shown in the P-V diagram below :
A
P
V
The step in which the gas will cool down is along
(A) AB
47.
(B) BC
(A) (3Z)-hept-3-en-1-ol
(C) (3Z)-hept-4-en-7-ol
(D) (3E)-hept-4-en-7-ol
is
(B) (3E)-hept-3-en-1-ol
The Lewis acid strength of BF3, BCl3 and BBr3 follows the order.
(A) BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
49.
OH
48.
The total number of possible geometrical and optical isomers for [CoCl2(en)2]+ (en = 1, 2-diaminoethane)
is (A) 1
50.
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
51.
The overall order of a reaction involving two reactants, X and Y, which follows the rate expression,Rate
= k [X]1/3 [Y]2/3 . Where k is the specific rate and [ ] represents concentration, is (A) 2/3
(B) 0
(C) 1/3
(D) 1
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 23
52.
53.
In the pressure vs. molefraction of benzene curves/lines shown below, the total vapour pressure of an
ideal mixture of benzene and toluene will follow the curve/line.
0.5
2
P(bar)
3
4
0.0
0.0
(A) 1
54.
(D) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(B) SO2
(C) SO3
(D) O2
(B) Polyvinylchloride
(C) Teflon
(D) Bakelite
(B) 200 s
(C) 0.05 s
(D) 100 s
(C) 6
(D) 8
60.
(C) [FeCl4]2
The half-life of ammonia adsorbed on a Ni surface if the rate of desorption is 6.93 103 s1 , is (A) 0.01 s
59.
(B) [Fe(CN)6]3
58
(D) 4
57.
(C) 3
The gas formed when conc. H2SO4 is added to a mixture of NaCl and MnO2, is (A) Cl2
56.
(B) 2
55.
1.0
molefraction (benzene)
(B) 3
The maximum amount of work produced by a heat engine operating between 200 K and 800 K, if 100 J of
heat is absorbed from the hot reservoir, is (A) 100 J
(B) 75 J
(C) 50 J
(D) 25 J
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 24
BIOLOGY
61.
62.
(D) Diakinesis
63.
64.
What is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds possible involving a water molecule ?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
65.
66.
67.
68.
(D) Silurian
(D) Hirudin
69.
70.
Totipotent cell is
(A) A cell which can be differentiated into most of the cell types.
(B) A cell which can be differentiated to all cell types to form a complete organism
(C) A cell which can be differentiated into only a specific cell type
(D) A cell which does not differentiated at all
71.
You have an infection of pneumococcus (a bacteria). Which part of the bacteria may be toxic to your body
and causes immunological reaction ?
(A) The outer cell wall lipoplysaccharide
(B) The plasma membrane of the bacteria
(C) bacterial nucleus
(D) Polysomes
72.
Three nucleotides form a codon, which can code for a single amino acid. However, the same amino acid
can be coded by three different codons. These three codons are collectively called
(A) Puncture codons
(B) Degenerat codons
(C) Nonsense codons
(D) Termination codons
73.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 25
74.
If you start a bacterial culture with 100 E. coli cells and allow the culture to grow for 2 hours, approximately what would be the total number of E. coli in the culture considering E.coli has a doubling time of
20 minutes.
(A) 102
(B) 103
(C) 105
(D) 107
75.
76.
Which of the following bio-molecules is responsible for the prion infectious diseases
(A) DNA
(B) Protein
(C) RNA
(D) Lipid
77.
78.
Which one of the following chemical groups is not present in the nascent polypeptide chain of a protein ?
(A) Methine
(B) Methylene
(C) Amide
(D) Phosphate
79.
80.
How many peptide linkages are present in a protein with 176 residues ?
(A) 174
(B) 175
(C) 176
(D) 177
PART-II (2 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
81.
Suppose a, b, c are in arithmetic progression and a2, b2, c2 are in geometric progression. If a < b < c and
a + b + c = 3/2, the value of a is :
1
(A)
82.
(B)
1
1
2
2
(C)
(D)
1
1
3
3
Let y = g(x) be a function whose derivative g'(x) has the following graph. Which of the following values of
g is the largest ?
2
1
1
2
3
4
(A) g(2)
(B) g(3)
1 2 3 4 5
(C) g(4)
(D) g(5)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 26
83.
84.
If A is a 10 10 matrix with entries from the set {0, 1, 2, 3} and if AAT is of the form :
0 * * *
* 0 * *
* * 0 *
* * * 0
the number of such matrices A is :
(A) (43)10
(B) (42)10
85.
(A)
1 5
2
(C)
5 2
2
(B)
88.
[ x ]e x dx equals :
e
e 1
(B)
/2
2006
(A)
(C) 1
e 1
cos1003 xdx
(B)
x
x
2007
/2
1
e
(D)
1
e 1
(D)
2009
cos1004 xdx ?
(C)
2008
e f ( t ) f ( x ) dt is
(A) 0
90.
e2
Let f(x) and g(x) be real polynomials of degree 4 and 3 respectively with leading coefficients 4 and 3
respectively. Then
lim g( x )
89.
2 3
2
The integral
(A)
87.
(D) 1
In an ellipse, O is the centre, AB is the major axis and CD is the minor axis. Suppose the focus between
A and O is the ortho-centre of the triangle ACD. The eccentricity of the ellipse is
86.
(C) 410
(B)
(C)
3
16
(D)
The equation of the curve through the origin satisfying the differential equation
(A) log 1 tan
(x y)
=y
2
(x y)
=x
2
4
13
dy
= sin(x + y) + cos(x + y)
dx
Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} and f : A A be a bijection. What is the probability that f o f = id, i.e., f is its own
inverse ?
(A)
19
180
(B)
13
48
(C)
1
720
(D)
5
16
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 27
PHYSICS
91.
Two stars of masses M1 and M2 form a binary system. The distance between the centres of the stars is
d. The orbital period is given by
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2 d 3
G(M1 M2 )
2d3 / 2
G(M1 M2 )
2d3 / 2
G
M1 M2
, where is the reduced mass = M M
1
2
2 d 3
G
92.
A particle is stuck on the rim of a wheel of radius 50 cm. The wheel is rotating with an angular acceleration
of 20 rad s2. If at an instant the angular speed of the wheel is 10 rad s1, the total linear acceleration of the
particle is :
(A) 10 ms2
(B) 50 ms2
(C) 51 ms2
(D) 60 ms2
93.
A beam of 30 keV electrons strikes different targets in different experiments. The lowest wave length cut
-off of the continuous spectrum of X-rays generated by beam for any target is
94.
(A) 1.0 10 10 m
(B) 3.0 10 10 m
(C) 4.14 10 11 m
A bat flying towards a wall with a speed 9.0 m s1 emits ultrasound of frequency 90 kHz. (Speed of
ultrasonic waves is 340 ms1) The frequency of ultrasound received by the bat after reflection from the wall
is :
(A) 90 kHz
95.
(D) 99 kHz
A cylindrical glass vessel of height 18 cm and diameter 8 cm is 4 mm thick. It is covered with a1 mm thick
copper lid (Thermal conductivity of copper is 400 W K1m1) In a cold environment the water in the vessel
has got frozen into 0C ice. It is then immersed into a tank of 15C water. (Density of ice is 0.92 103 kgm3 and
latent heat of fusion of water is 333 x 103 J kg1) The time taken for the ice to melt completely is
(A) 9.2 s
96.
(B) 46 s
(C) 18.4 s
(D) 136 s
An upright cylinder of large base area is filled with water up to height H. Water is flowing out through holes
(1, 2 and 3) of equal diameter on the side of the cylinder at heights H/4, H/2 and 3H/4 respectively. Let x1,
x2 and x3 be the respective horizontal distance covered by the water flowing out of the holes before hitting
the ground. Then
(A) x3 > x2 > x1
97.
(C) x2 > x1 = x3
Ocean tides on the Earth are caused by the gravitational effects of the Moon (for lunar tides) as well as
the Sun (for solar tides). If the diameter of the earth were to increase by 20%, then
(A) Lunar tides would be strengthened but solar tides would be weakened
(B) Lunar tides would be weakened but solar tides would be strengthened
(C) Both lunar and solar tides would be strengthened with lunar tides strengthening more than solar tides
(D) Both lunar and solar tides would be weakened with lunar tides weakening more than solar tides.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 28
98.
The wavelength of radiation emitted by a hydrogen atom when it de-excites from its first excited state to
ground state (n = 2 to n = 1) is 121.7 nm. For the analogous transition in a positronium atom (bound state
of electron and its antiparticle called positron) the wavelength of radiation will be approximately
(A) 243.4
(B) 121.7
(C) 60.85
(D) 0.53
99.
The objective lens of a telescope has a diameter of 12.2 cm. The angular resolution of the telescope at the
wavelength of 500 nm is
(A) 2 10 9 rad
(B) 1.22 10 7 rad
(C) 4 10 5 rad
(D) 5 10 6 rad
100.
A conducting rod of length 80 cm rotates with its one end fixed at the centre of a circular metallic ring and
the other end in contact with the ring. The angular frequency of the rod is 300 s1. There is a uniform and
constant magnetic field of 1.0 T parallel to the axis of rotation. The emf developed between the centre and
the ring is :
(A) 48 V
(B) 192 V
(C) 36 V
(D) 96 V
CHEMISTRY
101.
The numbers of lone pairs of electrons in XeF2 and XeF4 respectively, are (A) 3 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 2
(D) 3 and 2
102.
When 4 moles of N2 gas reacts with 16 moles of H2 gas in 10 lit vessel, 4 moles of ammonia gas is
produced in the equilibrium mixture.
The equilibrium constant Kc for this reaction in mol2 lit2 is (A) 0.4
(B) 0.2
(C) 0.8
(D) 1.6
103.
The freezing point of pure benzene is 5.5 C. When 2.9 g of butane is dissolved in 200g of benzene, the
freezing point of benzene decreases to 4C. To lower the freezing point of benzene by another 1.5C, the
amount of butane that has to be added to mixture is (A) 5.8 g
(B) 2.9 g
(C) 1.5 g
(D) 8.7 g
104.
MgBr
(i)
+
cat
(ii) H3O
OH
(A) X =
Y=
Q
OH
(B) X =
Y=
OH
(C) X =
Y=
OH
Q
OH
(D) X =
Y=
Q = Phenyl group
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 29
105.
The configuration at C-2 and C-5 in the following compound, respectively, are
OH
2
5
OH
(A) 2R and 5R
106.
(B) 2S and 5S
(C) 2R and 5S
(D) 2S and 5R
(D) 1.55 V
107.
Methyl chloride reacts with X at high temperature in the presence of a catalyst Y to give Me2SiCl2 as one
of the products. The compound can also be formed by reaction of silicon tetrachloride with an organometallic reagent, Z.
X, Y, and Z respectively,are
(A) Si, Cu, MeMgBr
(B) SiO2, Cu, Me2Zn
(C) Si, Ni, MeMgBr
(D) SiO2, Fe, Me2Zn
108.
A chemical reaction takes place at 625 K with an activation energy barrier, E/R = 500 K. A catalyst when
used in the reaction reduces the activation energy barrier to 400 K. The temperature at which the rate
constant with and without the catalyst will be same is (A) 300 K
(B) 400 K
(C) 500 K
(D) 600 K
109.
A divalent transition metal ion with valence electron configuration 3d8 forms a complex with cyanide ion.
The correct identity of the metal ion, the complex and its geometry, respectively, are
(A) Fe2+, [Fe(CN)6]4 , and octahedral
(B) Ni2+, [Ni (CN)4]2 and tetrahedral
(C) Fe2+, [Fe(CN)6]3 and octahedral
(D) Ni2+, [Ni(CN)4]2 and square planar
110.
The number of and particles to be emitted by 238U92 to give 206Pb82 , respectively, are (A) 8 and 6
(B) 4 and 3
(C) 6 and 8
(D) 3 and 4
BIOLOGY
111.
In a double-stranded DNA coding for a protein, in principle, how many codon reading frames are possible?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 6
112.
113.
Plants obtain their nitrogen supply through bacteria of the soil because :
(A) Nitrogen is absent in the air and present in the soil
(B) Plants do not have a mechanism to absorb gaseous Nitrogen
(C) Bacteria are Nitrogen rich
(D) Getting nitrogen is a side-effect of a bacterial infection
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 30
114.
The number of genes in man (Homo sapiens) is X-fold more than in a fly (Drosophila melanogaster). The
value of X is
(A) 2
(B) 10
(C) 250
(D) 10000
115.
You are supposed to mix a 3000 bp DNA fragment and a 600 bp DNA fragment in 1 : 5 molar ratio. If you
take 100 ng of the 3000 bp fragment how much of the 600 bp fragment do you require to get desired ratio
(A) 10 ng
(B) 100 ng
(C) 500 ng
(D) 2500 ng
116.
An enzyme that cleaves DNA recognizes an 8 base-pair unique DNA sequence. The probable number of
times this enzyme will cleave a 70 kilobase pair random DNA sequence is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
117.
118.
119.
120.
(D) Lysozyme
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 31
1.
In Year 2007, Question Number 1-80 each carries 1 (one) mark, Maths(1-20), Physics
(21-40), Chemistry(41-60), Biology(61-80) & Question Number 81 to 125 each carries
2 marks, Maths(81-90),Physics(91-100), Chemistry(101-110), Biology(111-120)
2.
Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other
electronic gadgets in any form is not allowed.
3.
Write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.
4.
Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in
the answer sheet.
5.
Do not forget to mention your roll number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided
in the answer sheet.
6.
In case of any dispute, the answer filled in the OMR sheet available with the institute
shall be final.
1.
In Year 2008, Question Number 1-80 each carries 1 (one) mark, Maths(1-20), Physics
(21-40), Chemistry(41-60), Biology(61-80) & Question Number 81 to 125 each carries
2 marks, Maths(81-90), Physics(91-100), Chemistry(101-110), Biology(111-120)
2.
Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other
electronic gadgets in any form is not allowed.
3.
Write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.
4.
Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in
the answer sheet.
5.
Do not forget to mention your roll number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided
in the answer sheet.
6.
In case of any dispute, the answer filled in the OMR sheet available with the institute
shall be final.
1.
In Year 2009, Question Number 1-80 each carries 1 (one) mark, Maths(1-20), Physics
(21-40), Chemistry(41-60), Biology(61-80) & Question Number 81 to 125 each carries
2 marks, Maths(81-90), Physics(91-100), Chemistry(101-110), Biology(111-120)
2.
Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other
electronic gadgets in any form is not allowed.
3.
Write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.
4.
Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in
the answer sheet.
5.
Do not forget to mention your roll number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided
in the answer sheet.
6.
In case of any dispute, the answer filled in the OMR sheet available with the institute
shall be final.
1.
The Question paper consists of two parts (both contain only multiple choice question) for 100
marks. There will be four sections in Part-I (each containing 20 questions) four sections in
Part-II (each containing 10 questions). Answer any THREE of the four sections in Part-I and
any TWO of the four sections in Part-II.
2.
Subject
Part-I
Part-II
Mathematics
Physics
Chemistry
Biology
3.
The answer paper is machine readable. Do not forget to mention your paper code and Roll
Number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided in the Objective Response Sheet
(ORS)/Answer Sheet.
4.
For each question, indicate your answer by filling the corresponding oval with a HB pencil only.
5.
For each question there will be four choices given and only one of them is the correct answer. Fill
only one oval per question. If you mark more than one oval, it will be considered as an incorrect
answer.
6.
There is negative marking for wrong answers. Unanswered questions will not be evaluated and
will not be penalized as a wrong answer.
7.
In Part-I each correct answer gets 1 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be
deducted. In Part-II each correct answer gets 2 marks and for each incorrect answer 0.5 mark
will be deducted.
8.
9.
Candidates are permitted to carry their question paper after the examination.
1.
The Question paper consists of two parts (both contain only multiple choice question) for 100
marks. There will be four sections in Part-I (each containing 20 questions) four sections in
Part-II (each containing 10 questions). Answer any THREE of the four sections in Part-I and
any TWO of the four sections in Part-II.
2.
Subject
Part-I
Part-II
Mathematics
Physics
Chemistry
Biology
3.
The answer paper is machine readable. Do not forget to mention your paper code and Roll
Number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided in the Objective Response Sheet
(ORS)/Answer Sheet.
4.
For each question, indicate your answer by filling the corresponding oval with a HB pencil only.
5.
For each question there will be four choices given and only one of them is the correct answer. Fill
only one oval per question. If you mark more than one oval, it will be considered as an incorrect
answer.
6.
There is negative marking for wrong answers. Unanswered questions will not be evaluated and
will not be penalized as a wrong answer.
7.
In Part-I each correct answer gets 1 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be
deducted. In Part-II each correct answer gets 2 marks and for each incorrect answer 0.5 mark
will be deducted.
8.
9.
Candidates are permitted to carry their question paper after the examination.
1.
The Question paper consists of two parts (both contain only multiple choice question) for 100
marks. There will be four sections in Part-I (each containing 20 questions) four sections in
Part-II (each containing 10 questions). Answer any THREE of the four sections in Part-I and
any TWO of the four sections in Part-II.
2.
Subject
Part-I
Part-II
Mathematics
Physics
Chemistry
Biology
3.
The answer paper is machine readable. Do not forget to mention your paper code and Roll
Number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided in the Objective Response Sheet
(ORS)/Answer Sheet.
4.
For each question, indicate your answer by filling the corresponding oval with a HB pencil only.
5.
For each question there will be four choices given and only one of them is the correct answer. Fill
only one oval per question. If you mark more than one oval, it will be considered as an incorrect
answer.
6.
There is negative marking for wrong answers. Unanswered questions will not be evaluated and
will not be penalized as a wrong answer.
7.
In Part-I each correct answer gets 1 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be
deducted. In Part-II each correct answer gets 2 marks and for each incorrect answer 0.5 mark
will be deducted.
8.
9.
Candidates are permitted to carry their question paper after the examination.
YEAR-2009 (KVPY-STREAM-SB+2)
PART-I (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1.
Suppose the sequence a1, a2, a3 ...... is an arithmetic progression of distinct numbers such that the
sequence a1, a2, a4, a8...... is a geometric progression. The common ratio of the geometric progression is :
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) a1
(D) not determinable
2.
3.
(D) 101
Let p(x) = a0 + a1x + .......+ anxn be a zero polynomial with integer coefficients. If p( 2 3 6 ) = 0, the
smallest possible value of n is :
(A) 8
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 2
4.
Three players play a total of 9 games. In each game, one person wins and the other two lose ; the winner
gets 2 points and the losers get 1 each. The number of ways in which they can play all the 9 games and
finish each with a zero score is :
(A) 84
(B) 1680
(C) 7056
(D) 0
5.
In a triangle, two vertices are (2, 3) and (4, 0), and its circumcentre is (2, z) for some real number z. The
circumradius is :
6
(A)
6.
2 13
(B)
(C) 2
(D)
13
6
Consider an ellipse with foci at (5, 15) and (21, 15). If the x-axis is a tangent to the ellipse, then the length
of its major axis equals :
(A) 17
(B) 34
(C) 13
(D)
416
7.
Let the line 2x + 3y = 18 intersect the y-axis at B. Suppose C ( B), with coordinates (a, b), is a point on
the line such that PB = PC, where P = (10, 10). Then 8a + 2b equals :
(A) 60
(B) 62
(C) 66
(D) 79
8.
If cosec2( + ) sin2( ) + sin2(2 ) = cos2( ), where , (0, /2) then sin( ) is equal to :
(A)
9.
If sinx + siny =
(A)
10.
1
2
7
25
(B)
1
2
3
2
(D)
3
2
(D)
24
25
7
1
and cos x + cosy = , the sin(x + y) equals :
5
5
(B)
24
25
(C)
(B) 6
(C)
7
25
6
with 0 x 12 is :
x
(C) 10
(D) 12
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 32
11.
sin x 2
,
for x 0
f(x) = 2 x
x ax b, for x 0
(C) a = 0, b = 1
(D) a = 1, b = 1
(B)
(C) 5
(D)
13.
Ten trucks, numbered 1 to 10, are carrying packets of sugar. Each packet weighs either 999 gms or 1000
gms and each truck carries only the packets equal weights. The combined weight of 1 packet selected
from the first truck, 2 packets from the second, 4 packet from the third, and so on and 29 packets from the
tenth truck is1022870 gms. The trucks that have the lighter bags are :
(A) 1, 3, 5
(B) 2, 4, 5
(C) 1, 9
(D) 2, 8
14.
(A) 1
cos( x ) cos([2x]) dx ? (Here | t | denotes the integral part of the real number t)
0
(B) 1
1
15.
n 0
(A) 0
16.
(B)
(D)
(D) 1
(C)
17.
(C)
2
3
(B)
2 2
3
(C)
1
3
(D)
2
3
(A) 39 i 25 j 8k
5
(B) 3 i 5 j k
8
(C) 39 i 25 j 8k
5
(D) 3 i 5 j k
8
18.
An envelope has space for at most 3 stamps. If you are given three stamps of denomination 1, and three
stamps of denomination a (a > 1), the least positive integer for which there is no stamp value is :
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 10
19.
d/m
(A)
d < d
d/m
d/n
(C)
20.
d = d
d/m
d/n
d > d
d/m
(B)
d/n
The number of relation R from an m-element set A to an n-element set B satisfying the condition :
(a, b1) R, (a, b2) R b1 = b2 for a A, b1, b2 is :
(A) nm
(B) 2m + n 2m 2n
(C) mn
(D) (n + 1)m
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 33
PHYSICS
21.
The relation Cp Cv = R(Cp, Cv : Molar specific heats at constant pressure, volume) is exactly true for :
(A) an ideal mono-atomic gas
(B) any ideal gas, whether mono-dia polyatomic
(C) any real gas above its critical temperature
(D) all real gases
22.
The molecules of air in the room that you are sitting are all experiencing the force of gravity tending to
bring them down. The molecules are also frequently and randomly undergoing collisions, which tend to
oppose the effect of fall under gravity. The density of air is nearly uniform throughout the room because
(A) the mass of the molecules is very small
(B) the gravitational potential energy mgh is such lesser than the average thermal energy kT.
(C) the gravitational potential enrgy mgh is mush greater the the average thermal energy kT.
(D) mgh is nearly of the same magnitude as kT, which results in the cancellation of the two opposing
factors.
A parallel plate capacitor is charged fully by using a battery. Then without disconnecting the battery, the
plates are moved further apart. Then,
(A) the charge on the capacitor increases
(B) the voltage difference between the plates decreases
(C) the capacitance increases
(D) the electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor decreases
23.
24.
The five sides of a regular pentagon are represented by vectors A 1 , A 2 , A 3 , A 4 and A 5 , in cyclic order
as shown. Corresponding vertices are represented by B1 , B 2 , B 3 , B 4 and B 5 drawn from the centre of
the pentagon.
A2
A1
B1
B5
B2
A5
B4
B3
A3
A4
Then B 2 + B 3 + B 4 + B 5 =
(A) A 1
(B) A 1
25.
(C) B1
(D) B1
Four metallic plates each of surface area (of one side) A, are placed at a distance d apart from each other.
The two outer plates are connected to a point P and the two inner plates to another point Q as shown in
figure.
Q
A
2d
(B) 0
A
d
(C) 2 0
A
d
(D) 3 0
A
d
26.
A progressive wave travelling in positive x-direction given by y = a cos (kx t) meets a denser surface at
x = 0, t = 0. The reflected wave is then given by
(A) y = a sin(kx ax) (B) y = a cos(kx + ax) (C) y = a sin (t kx) (D) y = a cos (kx t)
27.
A charge Q is spread non uniformly on the surface of a hollow sphere of radius R, such that the charge
density is given by = 0 (1 sin), where is the usual polar angle. The potential at the centre of the
sphere is
Q
(A) 2 R
0
Q
(B) R
0
Q
(C) 8 R
0
Q
(D) 4 R
0
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 34
28.
An ideal diatomic gas is heated at constant pressure. The ratio of the work done to the heat supplied is
(A)
29.
2
5
(C)
2
7
(D)
4
7
5
27
(B)
5
48
(C)
27
5
(D)
1
3
Two identical conducting spheres carry identical charges. If the spheres are set at a certain distance
apart, they repel each other with a force F. A third conducting sphere, identical to the other two, but
initially uncharged, is then touched to one sphere, and then to the other before being removed. The forcebetween the original two spheres is now
(A)
31.
(B)
In the hydrogen spectrum, the ratio of the wavelengths for Lyman radiation to Balmer radiation is
(A)
30.
3
5
F
2
(B)
F
4
(C)
3F
4
(D)
3F
8
A small rectangular loop of wire in the plane of the paper is moved with uniform speed across a limited
region of uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of the paper, as shown.
Uniform magnetic field
Initial
position
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
Final
position
Which graph would best represent the variation of the electric current, I, in the wire with time t ?
(A)
(B)
I
t
(C)
32.
(D)
I=0
The moment of inertia of a solid disc made of thin metal of radius R and mass M about one of its diameter
is given by
MR 2
. What will be the moment of inertia about this axis if the disc is folded in half about this
4
diameter ?
(A)
33.
MR 2
8
(B)
MR 2
2
(C)
MR 2
4
(D) MR2
A plane electromagnetic weve propagating in the direction of the unit vector n with a speed c is described
by electric and magnetic field vectors E and B , respectively. Which of the following relations ( in SI units)
s)
n E
n B
(A) E =
(B) E cn B
(C) B
(D) n E B 0
c
c
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 35
34.
A point electric dipole placed at the origin has a potential given by V(r, ) =
p cos
4 0r 2
made by the position vector with the direction of the dipole. Then
(A) since the potential vanishes at =
A uniform non-deformable cylinder of mass m and radius R is rolling without slipping on a horizontal rough
surface. The force of friction is
(A) mg, where is the coefficient of sliding friction
(B) zero
(C) increases with time
(D) decreases with time
36.
Consider a one-dimensional potential V(x) as shown in the figure below. A classical particle of mass m
moves under its influence and has total energy E as shown.
V(x)
E
The motion is
(A) non-periodic
(C) periodic but not simple harmonic
(B) stationary
(D) simple harmonic
37.
A source of frequency f is emitting sound waves. If temperature of the medium increases, then
(A) wavelength of the sound wave increases
(B) speed of the sound wave decreases
(C) wavelength of the sound wave decreases
(D) amplitude of the sound wave increases
38.
A block of mass m is stationary on a rough plane of mass M inclined at an angle to the horizontal
while the whole set up is accelerating upwards at an acceleration a. If the coefficient of friction between
the block and the plane is , then the force that the plane exerts on the block is
(A) m (g + a) upwards
(B) mg cos normal to the plane
(C) resultant of mag cos normal to the plane and mg cos along the plane
(D) resultant of m (g + a) cos normal to the plane and mg cos along the plane.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 36
39.
A stream of charged particles enter into a region with crossed electric and magnetic fields as shown in
the figure. On the other side is a screen with a hole that is right on the original path of the particles
then,
E
Charged
Particles
E
can get through the hole
B
E
can get through the hole.
B
A small body is released from a height H of an inclined plane. At the bottom of the plane is a loop of
radius R as shown.
O
R
x
Ignoring friction, the minimum H required for the body to just complete the loop ( that is, reach the
point O) is
(A) 2R
(B)
5R
2
(C) 3R
(D)
7R
2
CHEMISTRY
41.
The gas that has the slowest rate of diffusion among O2, H2, CO2 and CH4 is
(A) O2
(B) H2
(C) CO2
(D) CH4
42.
Assuming ideal behaviour the ratio of kinetic energies of 3 g of H2 and 4g of O2 at any temperature is
(A) 3 : 4
(B) 1 : 16
(C) 4 : 3
(D) 12 : 1
43.
Cl
is
Me
Me
44.
(C) T-shape
(D) linear
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 37
45.
Among CO32, OH, NH3 and HCO3, the species that acts as a Bronsted acid as well as a Bronsted
base is
(A) Na2CO3
(B) NH3
(C) OH
(D) HCO3
46.
The ratio of the heat capacities Cp/Cv for one mole of a gas is 1.67. The gas is :
(A) He
(B) H2
(C) CO2
(D) CH4
47.
48.
49.
(D) N2+
(C) CN
Among CH4, CO2, H2O and SO2, the bond angle is the highest in
(A) CH4
(B) CO2
(C) H2O
(D) SO2
(D) ethanol
50.
51.
52.
Oxalic acid when treated with potassium permanganate in the presence of an acid, produces
(A) O2
(B) C
(C) CO
(D) CO2
53.
54.
In a one component second order reaction, if the concentration of the reactant is reduced to half, the
rate
(A) increases two times
(B) increases four times
(C) decreases to one half
(D) decreases to one fourth
55.
56.
S
CH2
I
II
the aromatic compounds are
(A) I & II
(B) I & III
57.
IV
III
(C) II & III
(D) II & IV
N
H
I
the order of basicity is
(A) I > III > II > IV
N
H
N
H
II
III
IV
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 38
58.
Me
H
H
is known as the
(A) eclipsed conformer
59.
The half-life of a first order reaction is 30 min. The time required for 75% completion of the same reactionwill be
(A) 45 min
(B) 60 min
(C) 75 min
(D) 90 min
60.
The hydrogen ion concentration in a mixture of 10 ml of 0.1 M H2SO4 and 10 ml of 0.1 M KOH solution
in water, is
(A) 0.1 M
(B) 0.05 M
(C) 0.2 M
(D) 0.02 M
BIOLOGY
61.
62.
(D) condensation
(D) hemoglobin
63.
64.
Glycolysis is :
(A) biosynthesis of glucose
(C) degradation of glucose
65.
(D) Thiamine
66.
During development, unspecified cells become cells having unique functions. This process is called :
(A) evolution
(B) differentiation
(C) translation
(D) replication
67.
(D) telomere
(D) Tuberculosis
68.
69.
This cell organelle consists of two granule-like centrioles and is found in animal cells only. It helps in
cell division. What is it called ?
(A) centrosome
(B) chromosome
(C) centromere
(D) chromatids
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 39
70.
71.
(C) Ovary
72.
ELISA, the standard screening test for HIV, detects which of the following ?
(A) HIV DNA
(B) HIV RNA
(C) HIV proteins
(D) Antibodies to HIV proteins
73.
(C) plants
74.
(D) animals
75.
76.
77.
The abnormal development of which of the following lymphoid organs would result in the most severe
immunodeficiency ?
(A) Spleen
(B) Thymus
(C) Tonsil
(D) Lymph node
78.
79.
The probability of having a girl child with blood group O when the parents have blood group A and B is :
(A) 0%
(B) at least 50%
(C) at most 25%
(D) exactly 75 %
80.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 40
PART-II (2 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
81.
Let p(x) = a0 + a1x + ........+ anxn. If p( 2) = 15, p( 1) = 1, p(0) = 7, p(1) = 9, p(2) = 13 and p(3) = 25,
then the smallest possible value of n is :
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
82.
Let a, b, c be the sides of triangle. If t denotes the expression (a2 + b2 + c2)/(ab + bc + ca), the set of all
possible values of t is :
(A) {x R| x > 1}
(B) {x R | 1 x < 2}
(C) {x R | 1 x < 2}
(D) {x R | 1 x 2}
83.
84.
(C) 49
1
( 6 2)
2
(B)
1
( 5 1)
2
87.
(C)
(D)
1 a n1
for n 1. a0 = cos1.
2
(D) 35 2
The lengths of the sides and the diagonal of an isosceles trapezium from a two-element set {a, b}. If
a > b, then a/b equals
(A)
85.
(B) 37
(C) /2
(D)
(D) [e1/e , 1]
Let A denote the area bounded by the curve y = 1/x and the lines y = 0, x = 1, x = 10, Let B = 1 +
1
1
1
1
, and let C =
+
+ ......+
. Then
9
3
10
2
(A) C < B < A
(C) C < A < B and A C < B A
1
+
2
....+
88.
Two points are randomly choses on the circumference of a circle of radius r. The probability that the
distance between the two points is at least r is equal to
(A)
(B) sin r
(C)
(D)
2
3
89.
Consider al natural numbers whose decimal expansion has only then even digits 0, 2, 4, 6, 8. Suppose
these are arranged in increasing order. If an denotes the n-th number in this sequence, then
lim n log an /log n equals :
(A) 0
(B) log510
(C) log210
(D) 2
90.
The sum of all absolute values of the differences of the numbers 1, 2, 3......., n, taken two at a time,
i.e.
i j
equals :
jin
(A)
n 1
3
(B)
n
3
(C)
n 1
3
(D)
n2
3
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 41
PHYSICS
91.
A spherical cavity of radius r is carved out of a uniform solid sphere of radius R as shown in the figure.
R
r
The distance of the center of mass of the resulting body from that of the solid sphere is given by
(A)
92.
(B)
Rr
2
(C) 0
(D)
r3
R 2 Rr r 2
A plano-convex lens made of material of refractive index with radius of curvature R is silvered on the
curved side. How far away from the lens-mirror must you place a point object so that the image coincides
with the object ?
(A)
93.
Rr
2
(B) R
(C)
R
1
(D) R
n2a
gas dependent constants, is made to undergo a cyclic process that is depicted by a rectangle in the PV
diagram as shown in the figure. What is the heat absorbed by the gas in one cycle?
P
P1
P2
V1
94.
V2
n 2a
n 2 a
n 2a
n 2 a
For what value of the resistor X will the equivalent resistance of the two circuits shown be the same ?
R
6x
(A) R
6x
6x
(B) 6R
R
x
R
6x
(C) 2R
6x
6x
(D)
6x
R
x
5 1
R
2
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 42
95.
2
MR2 rolls down a plane
5
inclined at an angle to the horizontal starting from rest. The coefficient of static friction between the
sphere and plane is . Then,
(A) the sphere will always roll without slipping
(B) the sphere will always slide
7
2
96.
A cubical box of side a sitting on a rough table-top is pushed horizontally with a gradually increasing force
until the box moves. If the force is applied at a height from the table top which is greater than a critical
height H, the box topples first. If it is appliced at a height less than H, the box starts sliding first. Then the
coefficient of friction between the box and the table top is :
(A)
97.
a
2H
(B)
2H
a
(C)
a
H
(D)
H
a
A vehicle is moving with speed v on a curved road of radius r. The coefficient of friction between the vehicle
and the road is . The angle of banking needed is given by
(A) tan =
98.
7
2
v2 r g
v2 r g
v2 r g
(B) tan =
v2 r g
(C) tan =
v2 r g
r g v2
(D) tan =
r g v2
r g v2
Two small identical speakers are connected in phase to the same source. The speakers are 3m apart and
at ear level. An observer stands at P, 4m in front of one speaker as shown. The sound she hears is least
intense when the wavelength is 1 and most intense when the wavelength is 2.
4m
3m
(B) 1 = 4m and 2 = 3m
(D) 1 = 0.5m and 2 = 0.25m
Two small blocks slide without losing contact with the surface along two frictionless tracks 1 and 2,
starting at the same time with same initial speed v. Track 1 is perfectly horizontal, while track 2 has a
dip in the middle, as shown.
V
2
Start
Finish
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 43
100.
Consider 1 kg of liquid water undergoing change in phase to water vapour at 100C. At 100C, the
vapour pressure 1.01 105 Nm2 and the latent heat of vaporization is 22.6 105 J kg1. The density of
liquid water is 103 kg m3 and that of vapour is
change is nearly.
(A) 1.8 105 J kg1
1
kg m3. The change in internal energy in this phase
1 .8
CHEMISTRY
101.
If the pH of a mixture of 10 ml of 0.1 M NH4OH and 10 ml of 1 M NH4Cl solution is 8, the pKb value of
NH4OH is then closest to
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 9
102.
A cylinder of cooking gas in a household contains 11.6 kg of butane.The thermochemical reaction for
the combustion of butane is
2C4H10(g) + 13O2(g) 8CO2(g) + 10H2O(); H = 2658 KJ/mol. If the household needs15000 KJ of
energy per day, the cooking gas cylinder will last for about
(A) 64 days
(B) 45 days
(C) 20 days
(D) 35 days
103.
The addition of 0.643 g of a compound to 50 ml of benzene (density = 0.879 g ml1) lowers the freezing
point from 5.51C to 5.03C. If the freezing point constant, Kf for benzene is 5.12 K Kg mol 1, the molar
mass of the compound is approximately
(A) 156 g mol1
(B) 88 g mol1
(C) 60 g mol1
(D) 312 g mol1
104.
105.
When Co(II) chloride is dissolved in concentrated HCl a blue solution is obtained. Upon dilution with
water, the color changes to pink because
(A) CoCl64 is converted to CoCl63
(B) CoCl42 is converted to Co(OH2)62 +
2+
3+
(C) Co(OH2)6 is converted to Co(OH2)6
(D) CoCl42 is converted to Co(OH2)63 +
106.
The rate constant for the reaction COCl2(g) CO(g) + Cl2(g) is given by ln [k/(min1)] = 11067/T K +
31.33. The temperature at which the rate of this reaction will be doubled from that at 25C is
(A) 75C
(B) 100C
(C) 31C
(D) 50C
107.
CuCl2Br2 + Br
CuClBr3 + Cl
K3
CuClBr32 + Br
CuBr42 + Cl
K4
The equilibrium constant, K for the reaction
CuCl42 + 3Br
CuClBr32 + 3 Cl, is
(B) K1K2K3K4
(C) K1 + K2 + K3
(A) K1K2K3
(D) 1/(K1K2K3)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 44
OH
Br2 in CS2
108.
NaOH
Me-I
OH
OMe
Br
(A) X =
OH
Br
(C) X =
(B) X =
OMe
Y=
OH
Y=
Br
(D) X =
Br
109.
234
110.
OH
Br
Y=
OH
OH
OH
Y=
Br
OH
Th90 gets converted to 206Pb82 through a series of radioactive decay processes. The number of alpha and
beta particles lost in this transformation respectively, are
(A) 6 and 6
(B) 6 and 7
(C) 4 and 2
(D) 7 and 6
O
O
OH
Me
CO2H
Reagent 1
Reagent 2
OMe
OMe
BIOLOGY
111.
112.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 45
113.
Instead of 3, if 2 bases code for an amino acid, the degeneracy of codons coding for the same amino acid
would have :
(A) increased
(B) decreased
(C) remained the same
(D) been uncertain
114.
Gregor Mendel showed that unit factors exist in pairs and exhibit as dominant-recessive relationship.
These unit factors, in modern terminology, are called :
(A) genes
(B) alleles
(C) Ioci
(D) determinants
115.
E.coli has optimal growh temperature of 37C. Which of the following in an INCORRECT explanation for
this ?
(A) The membrane is most permeable at this temperature
(B) DNA synthesis makes the least mistakes at this temperature
(C) Most enzymes in the cell have the highest activity at this temperature
(D) Protein synthesis is most efficient at this temperature
116.
Male offsprings of which of the following couples have the highest chance of haemophilia ?
(A) Haemophiliac father and normal, non-carrier mother
(B) Haemophiliac father and normal, carrier mother
(C) Normal father and normal, carrier mother
(D) Normal father and haemophiliac mother
117.
118.
119.
120.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 46
1.
In Year 2007, Question Number 1-80 each carries 1 (one) mark, Maths(1-20), Physics
(21-40), Chemistry(41-60), Biology(61-80) & Question Number 81 to 125 each carries
2 marks, Maths(81-90),Physics(91-100), Chemistry(101-110), Biology(111-120)
2.
Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other
electronic gadgets in any form is not allowed.
3.
Write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.
4.
Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in
the answer sheet.
5.
Do not forget to mention your roll number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided
in the answer sheet.
6.
In case of any dispute, the answer filled in the OMR sheet available with the institute
shall be final.
1.
In Year 2008, Question Number 1-80 each carries 1 (one) mark, Maths(1-20), Physics
(21-40), Chemistry(41-60), Biology(61-80) & Question Number 81 to 125 each carries
2 marks, Maths(81-90), Physics(91-100), Chemistry(101-110), Biology(111-120)
2.
Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other
electronic gadgets in any form is not allowed.
3.
Write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.
4.
Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in
the answer sheet.
5.
Do not forget to mention your roll number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided
in the answer sheet.
6.
In case of any dispute, the answer filled in the OMR sheet available with the institute
shall be final.
1.
In Year 2009, Question Number 1-80 each carries 1 (one) mark, Maths(1-20), Physics
(21-40), Chemistry(41-60), Biology(61-80) & Question Number 81 to 125 each carries
2 marks, Maths(81-90), Physics(91-100), Chemistry(101-110), Biology(111-120)
2.
Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other
electronic gadgets in any form is not allowed.
3.
Write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.
4.
Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in
the answer sheet.
5.
Do not forget to mention your roll number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided
in the answer sheet.
6.
In case of any dispute, the answer filled in the OMR sheet available with the institute
shall be final.
1.
The Question paper consists of two parts (both contain only multiple choice question) for 100
marks. There will be four sections in Part-I (each containing 20 questions) four sections in
Part-II (each containing 10 questions). Answer any THREE of the four sections in Part-I and
any TWO of the four sections in Part-II.
2.
Subject
Part-I
Part-II
Mathematics
Physics
Chemistry
Biology
3.
The answer paper is machine readable. Do not forget to mention your paper code and Roll
Number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided in the Objective Response Sheet
(ORS)/Answer Sheet.
4.
For each question, indicate your answer by filling the corresponding oval with a HB pencil only.
5.
For each question there will be four choices given and only one of them is the correct answer. Fill
only one oval per question. If you mark more than one oval, it will be considered as an incorrect
answer.
6.
There is negative marking for wrong answers. Unanswered questions will not be evaluated and
will not be penalized as a wrong answer.
7.
In Part-I each correct answer gets 1 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be
deducted. In Part-II each correct answer gets 2 marks and for each incorrect answer 0.5 mark
will be deducted.
8.
9.
Candidates are permitted to carry their question paper after the examination.
1.
The Question paper consists of two parts (both contain only multiple choice question) for 100
marks. There will be four sections in Part-I (each containing 20 questions) four sections in
Part-II (each containing 10 questions). Answer any THREE of the four sections in Part-I and
any TWO of the four sections in Part-II.
2.
Subject
Part-I
Part-II
Mathematics
Physics
Chemistry
Biology
3.
The answer paper is machine readable. Do not forget to mention your paper code and Roll
Number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided in the Objective Response Sheet
(ORS)/Answer Sheet.
4.
For each question, indicate your answer by filling the corresponding oval with a HB pencil only.
5.
For each question there will be four choices given and only one of them is the correct answer. Fill
only one oval per question. If you mark more than one oval, it will be considered as an incorrect
answer.
6.
There is negative marking for wrong answers. Unanswered questions will not be evaluated and
will not be penalized as a wrong answer.
7.
In Part-I each correct answer gets 1 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be
deducted. In Part-II each correct answer gets 2 marks and for each incorrect answer 0.5 mark
will be deducted.
8.
9.
Candidates are permitted to carry their question paper after the examination.
1.
The Question paper consists of two parts (both contain only multiple choice question) for 100
marks. There will be four sections in Part-I (each containing 20 questions) four sections in
Part-II (each containing 10 questions). Answer any THREE of the four sections in Part-I and
any TWO of the four sections in Part-II.
2.
Subject
Part-I
Part-II
Mathematics
Physics
Chemistry
Biology
3.
The answer paper is machine readable. Do not forget to mention your paper code and Roll
Number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided in the Objective Response Sheet
(ORS)/Answer Sheet.
4.
For each question, indicate your answer by filling the corresponding oval with a HB pencil only.
5.
For each question there will be four choices given and only one of them is the correct answer. Fill
only one oval per question. If you mark more than one oval, it will be considered as an incorrect
answer.
6.
There is negative marking for wrong answers. Unanswered questions will not be evaluated and
will not be penalized as a wrong answer.
7.
In Part-I each correct answer gets 1 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be
deducted. In Part-II each correct answer gets 2 marks and for each incorrect answer 0.5 mark
will be deducted.
8.
9.
Candidates are permitted to carry their question paper after the examination.
YEAR-2010 (KVPY-STREAM-SB+2)
PART-I (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1.
0 i
1 0
, where i2 = 1, and let I denote the identity matrix
. Then
Let denote the matrix
i 0
0 1
I + A + A2 + .............+ A2010 is
0 0
(A)
0 0
2.
0 i
(B)
i 0
1 i
(C)
i 1
1 0
(D)
0 1
Suppose the sides of a triangle from a geometric progression with common ratio r. Then r lies in the
interval
1 5
(A) 0,
2
1 5 2 5
(B) 2 , 2
1 5 1 5
(C)
2
2
2 5
(D) 2 ,
3.
The number of rectangles that can be obtained by joining four of the twelve vertices of a 12-sided regular
polygon is
(A) 66
(B) 30
(C) 24
(D) 15
4.
Let 1, and 2 be the cube roots of unity. The least possible degree of a polynomial, with real coefficients,
having 22, 3 + 4, 3 + 42 and 5 2 as roots is
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 8
5.
A circle touches the parabola y2 = 4x at (1, 2) and also touches its directrix. the y-coordinate of the point
of contact of the circle and the directrix is
(A) 2
6.
(B) 2
(C) 2 2
(D) 4
Let ABC be an equilateral triangle; let KLMN be a rectangle with K, L on BC, M on AC and N on AB.
Suppose AN / NB = 2 and the area of triangle BKN is 6. The area of the triangle ABC is
7.
(A) 54
(B) 108
(C) 48
x2
a2
y2
b2
ellipse. The locus of the centroid of the triangle PF1F2 as P moves on the ellipse is
(A) a circle
8.
(B) an ellipse
(C) a parabola
(D) a hyperbola
The number of roots of the equation cos7 sin6 = 1 that lie in the interval [0, 2] is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 8
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 47
9.
The product
(1 + tan 1) (1 + tan 2) (1 + tan 3) ... (1 + tan 45)
equals
(A) 221
10.
(B) 222
(C) 223
(D) 224
Let f : R R be a differentiable function such that f (a) = 0 = f (b) and f(a) f(b) > 0 for some a < b. Then
the minimum number of roots of f(x) = 0 in the interval (a, b) is
(A) 3
11.
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 0
12.
The figure shown below is the graph of the derivative of some function y = (x)
Then
(A) f has local minima at x = a, b and a local maximum at x = c
(B) f has local minima at x = b, c and a local maximum at x = a
(C) f has local minima at x = c, a and a local maximum at x = b
(D) the given figure is insufficient to conclude any thing about the local minima and local maxima of f
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 48
13.
The following figure shows the graph of continuous function y = (x) on the interval [1, 3]. The points A,
B, C have coordinates (1, 1), (3, 2), (2, 3) respectively, and the lines 1 and 2 are parallel, with 1 being
tangent to the curve at C. If the area under the graph of y = (x) from x = 1 to x = 3 is 4 square units, then
the area of the shaded region is :
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
14.
n
Let n (log x ) dx, where n is a non-negative integer..
15.
(D) 53 + 54 52
Consider the regions A = {(x, y) | x2 + y2 100} and B = {(x, y) | sin (x + y) > 0} in the plane. Then the area
of the region A B is
(A) 10
16.
(B) 100
(C) 100
(D) 50
Three vertices are chosen randomly from the seven vertices of a regular 7sided polygon. The probability
that they form the vertices of an isosceles triangle is
(A)
17.
(B)
1
3
(C)
3
7
(D)
3
5
18.
1
7
(B)
12
(C) 13
(D) 17
How many six-digit numbers are there in which no digit is repeated, even digits appear at even places,
odd digits appear at odd places and the number is divisible by 4?
(A) 3600
(B) 2700
(C) 2160
(D) 1440
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 49
19.
The number of natural number n in the interval [1005, 2010] for which the polynomial
1 + x + x2 + x3 +.......+ xn1 divides the polynomial 1 + x2 + x4 + x6 + .........+ x2010 is
(A) 0
20.
(B) 100
(C) 503
(D) 1006
Let a0 = 0 and an = 3 an1 + 1 for n 1. Then the remainder obtained on dividing a2010 by 11 is
(A) 0
(B) 7
(C) 3
(D) 4
PHYSICS
21.
A pen of mass m is lying on a piece of paper of mass M placed on a rough table. If the coefficients of
friction between the pen and paper, and, the paper and the table are 1 and 2 respectively, then the
minimum horizontal force with which the paper has to be pulled for the pen to start slipping is given by :
22.
(A) (m + M) (1 + 2)g
(B) (m 1 + M 2)g
(C) (m 1 + (m + M)2)g
Two masses m1 and m2 connected by a spring of spring constant k at rest on a frictionless surface. If the
masses are pulled apart and let go, the time period of oscillation is :
1 m1m 2
(A) T = 2 k m m
2
1
23.
m1 m 2
(B) T = 2 k m m
1 2
(C) T = 2 m1 (D) T = 2 m 2
k
k
A bead of mass m is attached to the midpoint of a taut, weightless string of length and placed on a
frictionless horizontal table.
Under a small transverse displacement x, as shown, if the tension in the string is T, then the frequency of
oscillation is :
(A)
24.
1 2T
2 m
(B)
1 4T
2 m
(C)
1 4T
2 m
(D)
1 2T
2 m
A comet (assumed to be in an elliptical orbit around the sun) is at a distance of 0.4 AU from the sun at the
perihelion. If the time period of the comet is 125 years, what is the aphelion distance ? AU : Astronomical
Unit.
(A) 50 AU
(B) 25 AU
(C) 49.6 AU
(D) 24.6 AU
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 50
25.
The circuit shown consists of a switch (S), a battery (B) of emf E, a resistance R, and an inductor L.
(C)
(D) 0
Consider a uniform spherical volume charge distribution of radius R. Which of the following graphs correctly
represents the magnitude of the electric field E at a distance r from the center of the sphere ?
(A)
27.
(B)
(C)
(D)
A charge +q is placed somewhere inside the cavity of a thick conducting spherical shell of inner radius R1
and outer radius R2. A charge +Q is placed at a distance r > R2 from the center of the shell. Then the
electric field in the hollow cavity.
28.
(B) is zero
29.
(D) unpolarized
A point source of light is placed at the bottom of a vessel which is filled with water of refractive index to
a height h. If a floating opaque disc has to be placed exactly above it so that the source is invisible from
above, the radius of the disc should be :
h
h
(A)
30.
(B)
h
(C)
(D)
2 1
Three transparent media of refractive indices 1,2, 3, respectively, are stacked as shown. A ray of light
follows the path shown. No light enters the third medium.
Then :
(A) 1 < 2 < 3
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 51
31.
A nucleus has a halflife of 30 minutes. At 3PM its decay rate was measured as 120,000 counts/sec.
What will be the decay rate at 5 PM ?
32.
A block is resting on a shelf that is undergoing vertical simple harmonic oscillations with an amplitude of
2.5 cm. What is the minimum frequency of oscillation of the shelf for which the book will lose contact with
the shelf ? (Assume that g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 20 Hz
33.
(C) 125.6 Hz
(D) 10 Hz
n2a
U = CT
34.
(B) 3.18 Hz
n2a
. The equation of a quasistatic adiabat for this gas is given by :
V
An ideal gas is made to undergo a cycle depicted by the PV diagram alongside. The curved line from A to
B is an adiabat.
Then :
(A) The efficiency of this cycle is given by unity as no heat is released during the cycle
(B) Heat is absorbed in the upper part of the straight line path and released in the lower part
(C) If T1 and T2 are the maximum and minimum temperatures reached during the cycle, then the efficiency
T2
is given by 1 T
1
(D) The cycle can only be carried out in the reverse of the direction shown in the figure
35.
A bus driving along at 39.6 kmph is approaching a person who is standing at the bus stop, while honking
repeatedly at an interval of 30 seconds. If the speed of sound is 330 ms1, at what interval will the person
hear the horn.
(A) 31 sec.
(B) 29 sec.
(C) 30 sec.
(D) The interval will depend on the distance of the bus from the passenger
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 52
36.
Velocity of sound measured at a given temperature in oxygen and hydrogen is in the ratio :
(A) 1 : 4
37.
(B) 4 : 1
(C) 1 : 1
(D) 32 : 1
In Young's double slit experiment, the distance between the two slits is 0.1 mm, the distance between
the slits and the screen is 1m and the wavelength of the light used is 600 nm. The intensity at a point on
the screen is 75% of the maximum intensity. What is the smallest distance of this point from the central
fringe?
(A) 1.0 mm
38.
(B) 2.0 mm
(C) 0.5 mm
(D) 1.5 mm
Two masses m1 and m2 are connected by a massless spring of spring constant k and unstretched length
. The masses are placed on a frictionless straight channel which we consider our x-axis. They are
initially at rest at x = 0 and x = , respectively. At t = 0, a velocity of v0 is suddenly imparted to the first
particle. At a later time t, the center of mass of the two masses is at :
39.
m2
(A) x = m m
1
2
m2 v 0 t
m1
(B) x = m m m m
1
2
1
2
m2 v 0 t
m2
(C) x = m m m m
1
2
1
2
m1v 0 t
m2
(D) x = m m m m
1
2
1
2
A charged particle of charge q and mass m, gets deflected through an angle upon passing through a
square region of side a which contains a uniform magnetic field B normal to its plane. Assuming that the
particle entered the square at right angles to one side, what is the speed of the particle ?
(A)
40.
qB
a cot
m
(B)
qB
a tan
m
(C)
qB
a cot 2
m
(D)
qB
a tan 2
m
A piece of hot copper at 100C is plunged into a pond at 30C. The copper cools down to 30C, while the
pond, being huge, stays at its initial temperature. Then :
(A) copper loses some entropy, the pond stays at the same entropy
(B) copper loses some entropy, and the pond gains exactly the same amount of entropy
(C) copper loses entropy, and the pond gains more than this amount of entropy
(D) both copper and the pond gain in entropy
CHEMISTRY
41.
42.
(C) 4
(D) 5
(B) NH3
(C) CN
(D) I
(B) 3
(C) 1.5
(D) 1
43.
(B) 3
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 53
44.
The energy of a photon of wavelength = 1 meter is (Planck's constant = 6.626 1034 J.s, speed of light
= 3 108 ms1)
(A) 1.988 1025 J
45.
The concentration of a substance undergoing a chemical reaction becomes one half of its original value
after time t, regardless of the initial concentration. The reaction is an example of a :
46.
47.
48.
49.
(C) pyramidal
(D) Y-shaped
FriedalCrafts acylation is :
(A) -acylation of a carbonyl compound
II
III
IV
(C)
(D)
(C) 11H
(D) 12 H
(A)
50.
(B) T-shaped
(B)
234
91
Pa + X
X is :
(A)
51.
0
1e
(B) 10 e
A concentrated solution of copper sulphate, which is dark blue in colour, is mixed at room temperature
with a dilute solution of copper sulphate, which is light blue. For this process
(A) Entropy change is positive, but enthalpy change is negative.
(B) Entropy and enthalpy changes are both positive.
(C) Entropy change is positive and enthalpy does not change.
(D) Entropy change is negative and enthalpy change is positive.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 54
52.
53.
Increasing the temperature increacses the rate of reaction but does not increase the :
(A) number of collisions
In metallic solids, the number of atoms for the face centred and the body-centered cubic unit cells, are,
respectively.
(A) 2,4
54.
(B) 2,2
(C) 4,2
CO +
H2 O
H2 +
1
O
2 2
1
O
2 2
(eq 1)
[ Kc
(eq 2)
(B) 2.0
CO + H2O
(C) 16.2
(D) 1.28
(C) [R0e]kt
(C)
(D)
(A)
57.
For a first order reaction R P, the rate constant is k. If the initial concentration of R is [R0], the
concentration of R at any time 't' is given by the expression.
(A) [R0] ekt
56.
(D) 4,4
(B)
II
III
IV
(A) I & II
(B) I & IV
(D) II & IV
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 55
58.
59.
Consider the reaction : 2NO2 (g) 2NO (g) + O2(g). In the figure below, identify the curves X,Y and Z
associated with the three species in the reaction
(C) X = NO2, Y = NO , Z = O2
(A)
60.
(B)
(C)
(D)
Cyclohexene is reacted with bromine in CCl4 in the dark. The product of the reaction is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 56
BIOLOGY
61.
Ribouncleic Acid (RNA) that catalyze enzymatic reactions are called ribozymes. Which one of the following acts as a ribozyme?
(A) Ribosome
62.
(B) Amylase
(C) tRNA
(D) Riboflavin
In 1670, Robert Boyle conducted an experiment wherein he placed a viper (a poisonous snake) in a
chamber and rapidly reduced the pressure in that chamber. Which of the following would be true?
(A) Gas bubble developed in the tissues of the snake
(B) The basal metabolic rate of the snake increased tremendously
(C) The venom of the snake was found to decrease in potency
(D) The venom of the snake was found to increase in potency
63.
Bacteria can survive by absorbing soluble nutrients via their outer body surface, but animals cannot,
because
(A) Bacteria cannot ingest particles but animals can
(B) Bacteria have cell walls and animals do not
(C) Animals have too small a surface area per unit volume as compared to bacteria
(D) Animals cannot metabolize soluble nutrients
64.
A horse has 64 chromosomes and a donkey has 62. Mules result from crossing a horse and donkey.
State which of the following is INCORRECT?
(A) Mules can have either 64, 63 or 62 chromosomes
(B) Mules are infertile
(C) Mules have well defined gender (male/female)
(D) Mules have 63 chromosomes
65.
If the total number of photons falling per unit area of a leaf per minute is kept constant, then which of the
following will result in maximum photosynthesis?
66.
67.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 57
68.
If you compare adults of two herbivore species of different sizes, but from the same geographical area, the
amount of faeces produced per kg body weight would be
(A) More in the smaller one than the larger one
(B) More in the larger one than the smaller one
(C) Roughly the same amount in both
(D) Not possible to predict which would be more
69.
Fruit wrapped in paper ripens faster than when kept in open air because
(A) Heat of respiration is retained better
(B) A chemical in the paper helps fruit ripening
(C) A volatile substance produced by the fruit is retained better and helps in ripening
(D) The fruit is cut off from the ambient oxygen which is an inhibitor to fruit ripening.
70.
When a person is suffering form high fever, it is sometimes observed that the skin has a reddish tinge.
Why does this happen?
(A) Red colour of the skin radiates more heat
(B) fever causes the release of a red pigment in the skin
(C) There is more blood circulation to the skin to keep the body warm
(D) There is more blood circulation to the skin to release heat from the body
71.
Bacteriochlorophylls are photosynthetic pigments found in phototrophic bacteria. Their function is distinct from the plant chlorophylls in that they
(A) do not produce oxygen
(B) do not conduct photosynthesis
(C) absorb only blue light
(D) function without a light source
72.
Athletes often experience muscle cramps. Which of the following statements is true about muscle cramps?
(A) Muscle cramp is caused due to conversion of pyruvic acid into lactic acid in the cytoplasm
(B) Muscle cramp is caused due to conversion of pyruvic acid into lactic acid in the mitochondria
(C) Muscle cramp is caused due to nonconversion of glucose to pyruvate in the cytoplasm
(D) Muscle cramp is caused due to conversion of pyruvic acid into ethanol in the cytoplasm
73.
A couple went to a doctor and reported that both of them are "carriers" for a particular disorder, their first
child is suffering from that disorder and that they are expecting their second child. What is the probability
that the new child would be affected by the same disorder?
(A) 100%
(B) 50%
(C) 25%
(D) 75%
74.
Of the following combinations of cell biological processes which one is associated with embryogenesis?
(A) Mitosis and Meiosis
(B) Mitosis and Differentiation
(C) Meiosis and Differentiation
(D) Differentiation and Reprogramming
75.
Conversion of the Bt toxin produced by Bacillus thuringienesis to its active form in the gut of the insects
is mediated by
(A) acidic pH of the gut
(B) alkaline pH of the gut
(C) lipid modification of the protein
(D) cleavage by chymotrypsin
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 58
76.
If you dip a sack full of paddy seeds in water overnight and then keep it out for a couple of days, it feels
warm. What generates this heat?
(A) Imbibation
(B) Exothermic reaction between water and seed coats
(C) Friction among seeds due to swelling
(D) Respiration
77.
Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that cleave DNA molecules into smaller fragments. Which type
of bond do they act on?
(A) N-glycosidic Bond
(B) Phosphodiester bond
(C) Hydrogen bond
(D) Disulfide bond
78.
The fluid part of blood flows in and out of capillaries in tissues to exchange nutrients and waste materials.
Under which of the following conditions will fluid flow out from the capillaries into the surrounding tissue?
(A) When arterial blood pressure exceeds blood osmotic pressure
(B) When arterial blood pressure is less than blood osmotic pressure
(C) When arterial blood pressure is equal to blood osmotic pressure
(D) Arterial blood pressure and blood osmotic pressure have nothing to do with the outflow of fluid from
capillaries
79.
The distance between two consecutive DNA base pairs is 0.34 nm. If the length of a chromosome is 1 mm
the number of base pairs in the chromosome is approximately
(A) 3 million
(B) 1.5 million
(C) 30 million
(D) 6 million
80.
Estimate the order of the speed of propagation of an action potential or nerve impulse
(A) nm/s
(B) micron/s
(C) cm/s
(D) m/s
PART-II (2 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
n
81.
1
1/ 2
Arrange the expansion of x 1/ 4 in decreasing powers of x. Suppose the coefficients of the first
2x
three terms form an arithmetic progression. Then the number of terms in the expansion having integer
powers of x is
(A) 1
82.
(B) 2
(C) 3
Let r be a real number and n N be such that the polynomial 2x2 + 2x +1 divides the polynomial (x + 1)n
r. Then (n, r) can be
(A) (4000, 41000)
1000 1
, 1000
(C) 4
4
(D) 4000,
4000
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 59
83.
Suppose a, b are real numbers such that ab 0. Which of the following four figures represents the curve
(y ax b) (bx2 + ay2 ab) = 0 ?
(A) Fig.1
84.
(B) Fig.2
(C) Fig.3
(D) Fig.4
Among all cyclic quadrilaterals inscribed in a circle of radius R with one of its angles equal to 120,
consider the one with maximum possible area. Its area is
(A)
85.
2 R2
(B) 2 R2
(C)
3 R2
(D) 2 3 R 2
The following figure shows the graph of a differentiable function y = (x) on the interval [a, b] (not
containing 0).
(A) Fig.1
(B) Fig.2
(C) Fig.3
(D) Fig.4
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 60
86.
Let V1 be the volume of a given right circular cone with O as the centre of the base and A as its apex. Let
V2 be the maximum volume of the right circular cone inscribed in the given cone whose apex is O and
whose base is parallel to the base of the given cone. Then the ratio V2 / V1 is
(A)
3
25
(B)
4
9
(C)
4
27
(D)
8
27
87.
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
88.
The value of
min| x |, cos
(cos x ) dx is
(A)
89.
2
4
(B)
2
2
(C)
2
8
(D) 2
Let ABC be a triangle and P be a point inside ABC such that PA 2PB 3PC 0 . The ratio of the area
of triangle ABC to that of APC is
(A) 2
90.
(B)
3
2
(C)
5
3
(D) 3
Suppose m, n are positive integers such that 6m + 2m+n 3m + 2n = 332. The value of the expression m2 + mn
+ n2 is
(A) 7
(B) 13
(C) 19
(D) 21
PHYSICS
91.
A ball is dropped vertically from a height of h onto a hard surface. If the ball rebounds from the surface with
a fraction r of the speed with which it strikes the latter on each impact, what is the net distance travelled
by the ball up to the 10th impact ?
(A) 2h
92.
1 r 10
1 r
(B) h
1 r 20
1 r 2
(C) 2h
1 r 22
1 r 2
(D) 2h
1 r 20
1 r 2
A certain planet completes one rotation about its axis in time T. The weight of an object placed at the
equator on the planet's surface is a fraction f (f is close to unity) of its weight recorded at a latitude of 60.
The density of the planet (assumed to be a uniform perfect sphere) is given by :
(A)
4 f 3
1 f 4GT 2
(B)
4 f 3
1 f 4GT 2
(C)
4 3f 3
1 f 4GT 2
(D)
4 2f 3
1 f 4GT 2
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 61
93.
Three equal charges +q are placed at the three vertices of an equilateral triangle centred at the origin.
They are held in equilibrium by a restoring force of magnitude F(r) = kr directed towards the origin, where
k is a constant. What is the distance of the three charges from the origin ?
1 q2
(A)
6 0 k
94.
1/ 3
3 q2
(B)
12 0 k
1/ 3
1 q2
(C)
6 0 k
2/3
3 q2
(D)
4 0 k
2/3
For which angular frequency will the circuit behave like a pure inductance ?
LC
(A)
95.
R(2 )
2( 1)
LC
(B)
R(2 )
2( 1)
(C)
R(2 )
2( 1)
(D)
R(2 )
2( 1)
x
1 2
kx V0cos ,
a
2
where V0,k, a are constants. If the amplitude of oscillation is much smaller than a, the time period is given
by
ma 2
ka 2 V0
(B) 2
m
k
(C) 2
ma 2
V0
(D) 2
ma 2
ka 2 V0
An ideal gas with heat capacity at constant volume CV undergoes a quasistatic process described by
PV in a PV diagram, where is a constant. The heat capacity of the gas during this process is given
by :
(A) CV
98.
LC
2L
(D)
(A) 2
97.
1
(C)
A narrow parallel beam of light falls on a glass sphere of radius R and refractive index at normal
incidence. The distance of the image from the outer edge is given by :
(A)
96.
2
(B)
(B) CV +
nR
1
(C) CV + nR
(D) CV +
nR
1 2
3
nR is made to carry out
2
a cycle that is depicted by a triangle in the figure given below :
The following statement is true about the cycle :
An ideal gas with constant heat capacity CV =
P1V1
(A) The efficiency is given by 1 P V
2
1 P1V1
(B) The efficiency is given by 1 2 P V
2
(C) Net heat absorbed in the cycle is (P2 P1) (V2 V1)
(D) Heat absorbed in part AC is given by 2(P2V2 P1V1) +
1
(P V P2V1)
2 1 2
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 62
99.
Two identical particles of mass m and charge q are shot at each other from a very great distance with an
initial speed v. The distance of closest approach of these charges is :
q2
(A)
100.
q2
(B)
8 0mv 2
q2
4 0mv 2
(C)
2 0mv 2
(D) 0
At time t = 0, a container has N0 radioactive atoms with a decay constant . In addition, c numbers of
atoms of the same type are being added to the container per unit time. How many atoms of this type are
there at t = T ?
(A)
c
exp(T) N0exp(T)
(B)
c
exp(T) + N0exp(T)
(C)
c
(1 exp(T)) + N0exp(T)
(D)
c
(1 + exp(T) + N0exp(T)
CHEMISTRY
101.
2.52 g of oxalic acid dihydrate was dissolved in 100 mL of water. 10 mL of this solution was diluted is 500
mL. The normality of the final solution and the amount of oxalic acid (mg/mL) in the solution are respectively.
(A) 0.16 N, 5.04
102.
II
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 63
103.
The number of possible enantiomeric pair(s) produced from the bromination of I and II, respectively, are
(A) 0, 1
104.
105.
(B) 1 , 0
(C) 0, 2
(D) 1, 1
For the reaction A B, H = 7.5 kJ mol1 and S = 25 J mol1, the value of G and the temperature,
at which the reaction reaches equilibrium are, respectively,
(A) 0 kJ mol1 and 400 K
The solubility product of Mg(OH)2 is 1.0 1012. Concentrated aqueous NaOH solution is added to a
0.01 M aqueous solution of MgCl2. The pH at which precipitation occurs is
(A) 7.2
106.
(B) 7.8
(C) 8.0
(D) 9.0
A metal with an atomic radius of 141.4 pm crystallizes in the face centred cubic structure. The volume
of the unit cell in pm3 is
(A) 2.74 107
107.
(A) [Si6O24]24
108.
(B) [Si6O18]18
(C) [Si6O18]12
(D) [Si6O24]12
... (1)
H10 = 44 kJ
H20 = 1273 kJ
H30 = 2035 kJ
H40 = 286 kJ
(D) 3550 kJ
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 64
109.
The Crystal Field stabilization Energy (CFSE) and the spin only magnetic moment in Bohr Magneton
(BM) for the complex K3[Fe(CN)6] are, respectively.
(A) 0.0 and
35 BM
110.
24 BM
3 BM
A solution containing 8.0 g of nicotine in 92 g of water freezes 0.925 degrees below the normal freezing
point of water. If the molal freezing point depression constant, Kf = 1.85C mol1 then the molar mass of
nicotine is :
(A) 16
(B) 80
(C) 320
(D) 160
BIOLOGY
111.
A host cell has intracellular bacterial symbionts. If the growth rate of the bacterial symbiont is always
10% higher than that of the host cell, after 10 generations of the host cell the density of bacteria in host
cells will increase
(A) by 10%
112.
(B) two-fold
(C) ten-fold
(D) hundred-fold
In a diploid organism, there are three different alleles for a particular gene. Of these three alleles one is
recessive and the other two alleles exhibit co-dominance. How many phenotypes are possible with this
set of alleles?
(A) 3
113.
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 2
Two students are given two different double stranded DNA molecules of equal length. They are asked to
denature the DNA molecules by heating. The DNA given to student A has a following composition of base
(A:G:T:C::35:15:35:15). While that given to student B is (A : G : T : C : : 12 : 38 : 12 : 38) Which of the
following statements is true?
(A) Both the DNA molecules would denature at the same rate
(B) The information given is insufficient to draw any conclusion
(C) DNA molecule given to student B would denature faster than that of student A
(D) DNA molecule given to student A would denature faster than that given to student B
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 65
114.
The amino acid sequences of a bacterial protein and a human protein carrying out similar function are
found to be 60% identical. However, the DNA sequences of the genes coding for these proteins are only
45% identical. This is possible because
(A) Protein sequence does not depend on DNA sequence
(B) DNA codons having different nucleotides in the third position can code for the same amino acids
(C) DNA codons having different nucleotides in the second position can code for the same amino acids
(D) Same DNA codons can code for multiple amino acids.
115.
The following DNA sequence (5 3) specifies part of a protein coding sequence, starting from position
1. Which of the following mutations will give rise to a protein that is shorter than the full-length protein?
10
11
12
13
14
15
116.
Which of the following correctly represents the results of an enzymatic reaction? Enzyme is E, Substrate
is S and Products are P1 and P2
117.
(A) P1 + S P2 + E
(B) E + S P1 + P2
(C) P1 + P2 + E S
(D) E + S P1 + P2 + E
Four species of birds have different egg colors: [1] while with no markings, [2] pale brown with no markings, [3] grey-brown with dark streaks and spots, [4] pale blue with dark blue-green spots. Based on egg
color, which species is most likely to nest in a deep tree hole?
(A) 1
118.
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Consider a locus with two alleles, A and a, If the frequency of AA is 0.25, what is the frequency of A under
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
(A) 1
(B) 0.25
(C) 0.5
(D) 0
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 66
119.
Which of the following graphs accurately represents the insulin levels (Y-axis) in the body as a function of
time (X-axis) after eating sugar and bread/roti?
120.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
You marked two ink-spots along the height at the base of a coconut tree and also at the top of the tree.
When you examine the spots next year when the tree has grown taller, you will see
(A) the two spots at the top have grown more apart than the two spots at the bottom
(B) the top two spots have grown less apart than the bottom two spots
(C) both sets of spots have grown apart to the same extent
(D) both sets of spots remain un-altered.
*****
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 67
1.
In Year 2007, Question Number 1-80 each carries 1 (one) mark, Maths(1-20), Physics
(21-40), Chemistry(41-60), Biology(61-80) & Question Number 81 to 125 each carries
2 marks, Maths(81-90),Physics(91-100), Chemistry(101-110), Biology(111-120)
2.
Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other
electronic gadgets in any form is not allowed.
3.
Write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.
4.
Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in
the answer sheet.
5.
Do not forget to mention your roll number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided
in the answer sheet.
6.
In case of any dispute, the answer filled in the OMR sheet available with the institute
shall be final.
1.
In Year 2008, Question Number 1-80 each carries 1 (one) mark, Maths(1-20), Physics
(21-40), Chemistry(41-60), Biology(61-80) & Question Number 81 to 125 each carries
2 marks, Maths(81-90), Physics(91-100), Chemistry(101-110), Biology(111-120)
2.
Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other
electronic gadgets in any form is not allowed.
3.
Write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.
4.
Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in
the answer sheet.
5.
Do not forget to mention your roll number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided
in the answer sheet.
6.
In case of any dispute, the answer filled in the OMR sheet available with the institute
shall be final.
1.
In Year 2009, Question Number 1-80 each carries 1 (one) mark, Maths(1-20), Physics
(21-40), Chemistry(41-60), Biology(61-80) & Question Number 81 to 125 each carries
2 marks, Maths(81-90), Physics(91-100), Chemistry(101-110), Biology(111-120)
2.
Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other
electronic gadgets in any form is not allowed.
3.
Write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.
4.
Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in
the answer sheet.
5.
Do not forget to mention your roll number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided
in the answer sheet.
6.
In case of any dispute, the answer filled in the OMR sheet available with the institute
shall be final.
1.
The Question paper consists of two parts (both contain only multiple choice question) for 100
marks. There will be four sections in Part-I (each containing 20 questions) four sections in
Part-II (each containing 10 questions). Answer any THREE of the four sections in Part-I and
any TWO of the four sections in Part-II.
2.
Subject
Part-I
Part-II
Mathematics
Physics
Chemistry
Biology
3.
The answer paper is machine readable. Do not forget to mention your paper code and Roll
Number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided in the Objective Response Sheet
(ORS)/Answer Sheet.
4.
For each question, indicate your answer by filling the corresponding oval with a HB pencil only.
5.
For each question there will be four choices given and only one of them is the correct answer. Fill
only one oval per question. If you mark more than one oval, it will be considered as an incorrect
answer.
6.
There is negative marking for wrong answers. Unanswered questions will not be evaluated and
will not be penalized as a wrong answer.
7.
In Part-I each correct answer gets 1 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be
deducted. In Part-II each correct answer gets 2 marks and for each incorrect answer 0.5 mark
will be deducted.
8.
9.
Candidates are permitted to carry their question paper after the examination.
1.
The Question paper consists of two parts (both contain only multiple choice question) for 100
marks. There will be four sections in Part-I (each containing 20 questions) four sections in
Part-II (each containing 10 questions). Answer any THREE of the four sections in Part-I and
any TWO of the four sections in Part-II.
2.
Subject
Part-I
Part-II
Mathematics
Physics
Chemistry
Biology
3.
The answer paper is machine readable. Do not forget to mention your paper code and Roll
Number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided in the Objective Response Sheet
(ORS)/Answer Sheet.
4.
For each question, indicate your answer by filling the corresponding oval with a HB pencil only.
5.
For each question there will be four choices given and only one of them is the correct answer. Fill
only one oval per question. If you mark more than one oval, it will be considered as an incorrect
answer.
6.
There is negative marking for wrong answers. Unanswered questions will not be evaluated and
will not be penalized as a wrong answer.
7.
In Part-I each correct answer gets 1 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be
deducted. In Part-II each correct answer gets 2 marks and for each incorrect answer 0.5 mark
will be deducted.
8.
9.
Candidates are permitted to carry their question paper after the examination.
1.
The Question paper consists of two parts (both contain only multiple choice question) for 100
marks. There will be four sections in Part-I (each containing 20 questions) four sections in
Part-II (each containing 10 questions). Answer any THREE of the four sections in Part-I and
any TWO of the four sections in Part-II.
2.
Subject
Part-I
Part-II
Mathematics
Physics
Chemistry
Biology
3.
The answer paper is machine readable. Do not forget to mention your paper code and Roll
Number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided in the Objective Response Sheet
(ORS)/Answer Sheet.
4.
For each question, indicate your answer by filling the corresponding oval with a HB pencil only.
5.
For each question there will be four choices given and only one of them is the correct answer. Fill
only one oval per question. If you mark more than one oval, it will be considered as an incorrect
answer.
6.
There is negative marking for wrong answers. Unanswered questions will not be evaluated and
will not be penalized as a wrong answer.
7.
In Part-I each correct answer gets 1 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be
deducted. In Part-II each correct answer gets 2 marks and for each incorrect answer 0.5 mark
will be deducted.
8.
9.
Candidates are permitted to carry their question paper after the examination.
YEAR-2011 (KVPY-STREAM-SB+2)
PART-I (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1.
Suppose logab + logb a= c. The smallest possible integer value of c for all a,b > 1 is
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1
2.
3.
(D) 72
(D) I + (2n1)P
4.
Consider the cubic equation x3 + ax2 + bx + c = 0 , where a,b,c are real numbers . Which of the following
statements is correct ?
(A) If a2 2b < 0 , then the equation has one real and two imaginary roots
(B) If a2 2b 0, then the equation has all real roots
(C) If a2 2b > 0, then the equation has all real and distinct roots
(D) If 4a3 27b2 > 0 , then the equation has real and distinct roots
5.
All the points (x,y) in the plane satisfying the equation x2 + 2x sin(xy) + 1 = 0 lie on
(A) a pair of straight lines
(B) a family of hyperbolas
(C) a parabola
(D) an ellipse
6.
Let A = (4,0) , B = (0,12) be two points in the plane . The locus of a point C such that the area of triangle
ABC is 18 sq.units is
(A) (y + 3x + 12)3 = 81
(B) (y + 3x + 81)2 = 12
2
(C) (y + 3x 12) = 81
(D) (y + 3x 81)2 = 12
7.
In a rectangle ABCD , the coordinates of A and B are (1,2) and (3,6) respectively and some diameter of the
circumscribing circle of ABCD has equation 2x y + 4 = 0. Then the area of the rectangle is
(A) 16
(B) 2 10
(C) 2 5
(D) 20
8.
In the xyplane , three distinct lines 1,2,3 concur at a point (,0). Further the lines 1,2,3 are normals
to the parabola y2 = 6x at the points A = (x1 , y1) , B (x2 , y2) , C = (x3 , y3) respectively . Then we have
(A) < 5
(B) > 3
(C) 5 < < 3
(D) 0 < < 3
9.
2
3
8
9
f
+ ..............+ f
f
Then T
T = f(0) f + f
5
5
5
5
5
(A) depends on A,B,C,D,E
(B) depends on A,C,E, but independent of B and D
(C) depends on B,D , but independent of A,C,E
(D) is independent of A,B,C,D,E
10.
In triangle ABC , we are given that 3sinA + 4 cosB = 6 and 4sinB + 3cosA = 1. Then the measured of the
angle C is
(A) 30
(B) 150
(C) 60
(D) 75
11.
Which of the following intervals is possible domain of the function f(x) = log{x} [x] + log[x] {x} , where [x] is
the greatest integer not exceeding x and {x} = x [x] ?
(A) (0,1)
(B) (1,2)
(C) (2,3)
(D) (3,5)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 68
12.
If f(x) = (2011 + x)n , where x is a real variable and n is a positive integer , then the value of f(0) + f(0) +
f " (0 )
f (n 1)(0)
+
......+
is
2!
(n 1)!
(A) (2011)n
13.
(B) (2012)n
(C) (2012)n 1
(D) n(2011)n
The minimum distance between a point on the curve y = ex and a point on the curve y = loge x is
1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) 2 2
14.
Let f : (2,) N be defined by f(x) = the largest prime factor of [x] , Then
f ( x) dx is equal to
2
(A) 17
15.
(B) 22
(C) 23
(D) 25
Let [x] denote the largest integer not exceeding x and {x} = x [x]. Then
2012
e cos( { x })
e cos( { x }) e cos( { x })
is equal to
(A) 0
16.
(A)
17.
1
4
(B)
(C) 2012
1
4n 2 4
.......... ..
12
(C)
(D) 2012
is
2
2
4n n
1
(D)
Two players play the following game : A writes 3,5,6 on three different cards ; B writes 8 ,9,10 on three
different cards . Both draw randomly two cards from their collections . Then A computes the product of
two numbers he/she has drawn , and B computes the sum of two numbers he/she has drawn . The player
getting the larger number wins. What is the probability that A wins ?
(A)
18.
(B) 1006
dx
1
3
(B)
5
9
(C)
4
9
(D)
1
9
Let a, b, c be three vectors in the xyz space such that a b = b c = c a 0 . If A,B,C are points with
position vectors a, b, c respectively , then the number of possible positions of the centriod of triangle ABC
is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 6
19.
20.
Let X be a nonempty set and let P(X) denote the collection of all subsets of X. Define f : X P(X) R by
1, x A
f(x,A) =
.Then f(x , A B) equals
0, x A
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 69
PHYSICS
21.
A narrow but tall cabin is falling freely near the earths surface. Inside the cabin, two small stones A and
B are released from rest (relative to the cabin). Initially A is much above the centre of mass and B much
below the centre of mass of the cabin. A close observation of the motion of A and B will reveal that :
(A) both A and B continue to be exactly at rest relative to the cabin
(B) A moves slowly upward and B moves slowly downward relative to the cabin
(C) both A and B fall to the bottom of the cabin with constant acceleration due to gravity
(D) A and B move slightly towards each other vertically.
22.
A weight W is put on the upper plate which compresses the spring further. When W is removed, the entire
assembly jumps up. The minimum weight W needed for the assembly to jump up when the weight is
removed is just more than :
(A) mg
(B) 2mg
(C) 3mg
(D) 4mg
23.
If the speed (v) of the bob in a simple pendulum is plotted against the tangential acceleration (a), the
correct graph will be represented by :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV
24.
A container with rigid walls is covered with perfectly insulating material. The container is divided into two
parts by a partition. One part contains a gas while the other is fully evacuated (vacuum). The partition is
suddenly removed. The gas rushes to fill the entire volume and comes to equilibrium after a little time. If
the gas is not ideal ,
(A) the initial internal energy of the gas equals its final internal energy
(B) the initial temperature of the gas equals its final temperature
(C) the initial pressure of the gas equals to its final pressure
(D) the initial entropy of the gas equals to its final entropy
25.
Two bulbs of identical volumes connected by a small capillary are initially filled with an ideal gas at
temperature T. Bulb 2 is heated to maintain a temperature 2T while bulb 1 remains at temperature T.
Assume throughout that the heat conduction by the capillary is negligible. Then the ratio of the final mass
of the gas in bulb 2 to the initial mass of the gas in the same bulb is close to :
(A) 1/3
(B) 2/3
(C) 1/3
(D) 1
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 70
26.
Two rods, one made of copper and the other steel of the same length and cross sectional area are joined
together. (The thermal conductivity of copper is 385 J.s1. m1. K1 and steel is 50 J.s1.m1.K1.) If the
copper end is held at 100C and the steel end is held at 0C, what is the junction temperature (assuming
no other heat losses) ?
(A) 12C
(B) 50C
(C) 73C
(D) 88C
27.
Jet aircrafts fly at altitudes above 30,000 ft where the air is very cold at 40C and the pressure is 0.28
atm. The cabin is maintained at 1 atm pressure by means of a compressor which exchanges air from
outside adiabatically. In order to have a comfortable cabin temperature of 25C, we will require in addition :
(A) a heater to warm the air injected into the cabin
(B) an air conditionaer to cool the air injected into the cabin
(C) neither a heater nor an air -conditioner : the compressor is sufficient
(D) alternatively heating and cooling in the two halves of the compressor cycle.
28.
A speaker emits a sound wave of frequency f0. When it moves towards a stationary observer with speed
u, the observer measures a frequency f1. If the speaker is stationary and the observer moves towards it
with speed u, the measured frequency is f2. Then :
(A) f1 = f2 < f0
(B) f1 > f2
(C) f1 < f2
(D) f1 = f2 > f0
29.
A plane polarized light passed through successive polarizers which are rotated by 30 with respect to
each other in the clockwise direction. Neglecting absorption by the polarizers and given that the first
polarizers axis is parallel to the plane of polarization of the incident light, the intensity of light at the exit
of the fifth polarizer is closest to :
(A) same as that of the incident light
(B) 17.5% of the incident light
(C) 30% of the incident light
(D) zero
30.
At 23C, a pipe open at both ends resonates at a frequency of 450 hertz. At what frequency does the same
pipe resonate on a hot day when the speed of sound is 4 percent higher than it would be at 23 C ?
(A) 446 Hz
(B) 454 Hz
(C) 468 Hz
(D) 459 Hz
31.
In a Youngs double slit set-up, light from a laser source falls on a pair of very narrow slits separated by
1.0 micrometer and bright fringes separated by 1.0 millimeter are observed on a distant screen. If the
frequency of the laser light is doubled, what will be the separation of the bright fringes ?
(A) 0.25 mm
(B) 0.5 mm
(C) 1.0 mm
(D) 2.0 mm
32.
For a domestic AC supply of 220 V at 50 cycles per second, the potential difference between the terminals of a two -pin electric outlet in a room is given by :
33.
In the circuit shown below the resistances are given in ohms and the battery is assumed ideal with emf
equal to 3.0 volts. The resistor that dissipates the most power is
(A) R1
34.
(B) R2
(C) R3
(D) R4
An electron collides with a free molecules initially in its ground state. The collision leaves the molecule in
a excited state that is metastable and does not decay to the ground state by radiation. Let K be the sum
of the initial kinetic energies of the electron and the molecule, and P the sum of their initial momenta. Let
K and P' represent the same physical quantities after the collision. Then
(A) K = K, P P'
(B) K < K, P P'
(C) K = K, P P'
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 71
35.
Which of the graphs shown below best reprsents the voltage across the inductor, as seen on an oscilloscope?
(I)
(II)
(III)
(IV)
(A) I
36.
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV
Given below are three schematic graphs of potential energy V(r) versus distance r for three atomic
particles electron (e), proton (p+) and neutron (n), in the presence of a nucleus at the origin O. The radius
of the nucleus is r0. The scale on the Vaxis may not be the same for all figures. The correct pairing of
each with the corresponding atomic particle is :
37.
Due to transitions among its first three energy levels, hydrogenic atom emits radiation at three discrete
wavelength 1,2 and 3(1 < 2 < 3). Then :
(A) 1 = 2 + 3
(B) 1 + 2 = 3
(C) 1/1 + 1/2 = 1/3
(D) 1/1 = 1/2 + 1/3
38.
The total radiative power emitted by spherical blackbody with radius R and temperature T is P. If the
radius is doubled and the temperature is halved then the radiative power will be :
(A) P/4
(B) P/2
(C) 2P
(D) 4P
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 72
39.
The Quantum Hall Resistance RH is a fundamental constant with dimensions of resistance. If h is Plancks
constant and e the electron charge, then the dimension of RH is the same as :
(A) e2/h
(B) h/e2
(C) h2/e
(D) e/h2
40.
Four students measure the height of a tower. Each student uses a different method and each measures
the height many different times. The data for each are plotted below. The measurement with highest precision is :
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV
CHEMISTRY
41.
Ther hybridizations of Ni (CO)4 and [Cr(H2O)6]2+, respectively (A) sp3 and d3sp2
(B) dsp2 and d2sp3
(C) sp3 and d2sp3
(D) dsp2 and sp3 d2
42.
Extraction of silver is achieved by initial complexation of the ore (Argentite) with X followed by
reaction with Y, X and Y, respectively, are (A) CN and Zn
(B) CN and Cu
(C) Cl and Zn
(D) Br and Zn
43.
Assuming ideal behaviour, the enthalpy and volume of mixing of two liquids, respectively, are (A) zero and zero
(B) +ve and zero
(C) ve and zero
(D) ve and ve
44.
At 298 K, the ratio of osmotic pressures of two solutions of a substance with concentrations of 0.01
M and 0.001 M, respectively, is (A) 1
(B) 100
(C) 10
(D) 1000
45.
The rate of gas phase chemical reactions generally increases rapidly with rise in temperature. This is
mainly because :
(A) the collision frequency increases with temperature.
(B) the fraction of molecules having energy in excess of the activation energy increases with temperature.
(C) the activation energy decreases with temperature.
(D) the average kinetic energy of molecules increases with temperature.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 73
46.
Among i-iv :
the compound that does not undergo polymerization under radical initiation, is :
(A) i
(B) ii
(C) iii
(D) iv
47.
are :
(A) enantiomers
(B) diastereomers
(C) conformers
(D) rotamers
48.
49.
When the size of a spherical nanoparticle decreases from 30 nm to 10 nm, the ratio surface area/volume
becomes
(A) 1/3 of the original
(B) 3 times the original (C) 1/9 of the original
(D) 9 times the original
50.
(A)
51.
(B)
(C)
(D)
(C) H3O+
(D) H2/Pt
(B) H3PO2
52.
The values of the limiting molar conductivity () for NaCl, HCl and NaOAc are 126.4. 425.9 and 91.0 S
cm2 mol1 respectively. For HOAC. in S cm2 mol1 is :
(A) 390.5
(B) 299.5
(C) 208.5
(D) 217.5
53.
To obtain a diffraction peak, for a crystalline solid with interplane distance equal to wavelength of incident
X-ray radiation, the angle of incidence should be :
(A) 90
(B) 0
(C) 30
(D) 60
54.
The standard Gibbs free energy change (G in kJ mol1), in a Daniel cell (Ecell = 1.1 V), when 2 moles
of Zn(s) is oxidized at 298 K, is closed to :
(A) 212.3
(B) 106.2
(C) 424.6
(D) 53.1
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 74
55.
56.
The spin-only magnetic moments of [Mn(CN)6]4 and [MnBr4]2 in Bohr Magneton, respectively, are :
(A) 5.92 and 5.92
(B) 4.89 and 1.73
(C) 1.73 and 5.92
(D) 1.73 and 1.73
57.
In a zero-order reaction, if the initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, the time required for half the
reactant to be consumed :
(A) increases two-fold (B) increases four-fold (C) decreases by half
(D) does not change
58.
The adsorption isothermal for a gas is given by the relation x = ap/(1 + bp) where x is moles of gas
adsorbed per gram of the adsorbent, p is the pressure of the gas, and a and b are constants. Then x :
(A) increases with p
(B) remains unchanged with p
(C) decreases with p
(D) increases with p at low pressure and the same at high pressure.
59.
The reaction
NaOH / Heat
+ CHCl3
is known as :
(A) Perkin reaction
(C) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
60.
Among i-iii
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 75
BIOLOGY
61.
62.
In which phase of the cell cycle are sister chromatids available as template for repair ?
(A) G1 phase
(B) G2 phase
(C) S phase
(D) M phase
63.
64.
65.
If you fractionate all the organelles from the cytoplasm of a plant cell. In which one of the following
sets of fractions will you find nucleic acids ?
(A) nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplast, cytoplasm
(B) nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplast, glyoxysome
(C) nucleus, chloroplast , cytoplasm and peroxisome
(D) nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplast, Golgi bodies
66.
A protein with 100 amino acid residues has been translated based on triplet genetic code. Had the
genetic code been quadruplet. the gene that codes for the protein would have been.
(A) same in size
(B) longer in size by 25%
(C) longer in size by 100%
(D) shorter in size
67.
If the sequence of base in DNA is 5'- ATGTATCTCAAT- 3', than the sequence of bases in its transcript
will be :
(A) 5' - TACATAGAGTTA - 3'
(B) 5' - UACAUAGAGUUA - 3'
(C) 5' - AUGUAUCUCAAU - 3'
(D) 5' - AUUGAGAUACAU - 3'
68.
The Na+/K+ pump is present in the plasma membrane of mammalian cells where it
(A) expels potassium from the cell
(B) expels sodium and potassium from the cell.
(C) pumps sodium into the cell.
(D) expels sodium from the cell.
69.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 76
70.
Patients who have undergone organ transplants are given anti-rejection medications to
(A) minimize infection
(B) stimulate B- macrophage cell interaction
(C) prevent T- lymphocyte proliferation
(D) adopt the HLA of donor
71.
72.
(D) 4
73.
Circadian Rhythm is an endogenously driven cycle for biochemical, physiological and behavioral
processes. In humans, the approximate duration of this 'biological clock' is :
(A) 1 Hours
(B) 6 Hours
(B) 12 Hours
(D) 24 Hours
74.
Modern evolutionary theory consists of the concepts of Darwin modified by knowledge concerning :
(A) population statistics
(B) Mendel's laws
(C) the idea of the survival of the fittest
(D) competition
75.
Soon after the three germ layers are formed in a developing embryo, the process of organogenesis
starts. The human brain is formed from the
(A) ectoderm
(B) endoderm
(C) mesoderm
(D) partly endoderm and partly mesoderm
76.
77.
78.
According to the original model of DNA. as proposed by Watson & Crick 1953, DNA is a
(A) left handed helix
(B) helix that makes a full turn every 70 nm.
(C) helix where one turn of DNA contains 20 basepairs
(D) two stranded helix where each strand has opposite polarity.
79.
80.
An electrode is placed in the axioplasm of a mammalian axon and another electrode is placed just
outside the axon. The potential difference measured will be
(A) 0
(B) 70mV
(B) 70V
(D) +70 V
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 77
PART-II (2 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
81.
Let A and B be any two n n matrices such that the following conditions hold : AB = BA and there exist
positive integers k and l such that Ak = I (the identity matrix) and B = 0 (the zero matrix), Then
(A) A + B = l
(B) det (AB) = 0
(C) det (A + B) 0
(D) (A + B)m = 0 for some integer m
82.
83.
2 2 4 2 6 2 ....... ( 2n)2
1 2 3 2 5 2 ....... ( 2n 1)2
(B) is 121
(C) is 151
< 1.01
(D) does not exist
The locus of the point P = (a , b) where a , b are real numbers such that the roots of x3 + ax2 + bx + a = 0
are in arithmetic progression is
84.
(A) an ellipse
(B) a circle
The smallest possible positive slope of a line whose yintercept is 5 and which has a common point with
he ellipse 9x2 + 16y2 = 144 is
(A)
85.
3
4
(B) 1
(C)
4
3
(D)
9
16
86.
Let f(x) = x3 + ax2 + bx + c , where a,b,c are real numbers. If f(x) has local minimum at x = 1 and a local
maximum at x =
1
1
and f(2) = 0 , then f ( x ) dx equals
3
(A)
87.
14
3
(B)
14
3
(C)
7
3
(D)
7
3
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 78
88.
x n (1 x )n
For each positive integers n, define fn(x) = minimum n! , n! , for 0 x 1. Let In = fn ( x ) dx, n 1 .
Then I n is equal to
n1
(A) 2 e 3
(B) 2 e 2
(C) 2 e 1
(D) 2 e
89.
90.
The arithemetic mean and the geometric mean of two distinct 2 digit numbers x and y are two integers
one of which can be obtained by reserving the digits of the other (in base 10 representation). Then x + y
equals
(A) 82
(B) 116
(C) 130
(D) 148
PHYSICS
91.
An isolated sphere of radius R contains uniform volume distribution of positive charge. Which of the
curves shown below correctly illustrates the dependence of the magnitude of the electric field of the
sphere as a function of the distance r from its centre ?
(A) I
92.
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV
The surface of a planet is found to be uniformly charged. When a particle of mass m and no charge is
thrown at an angle from the surface of the planet, it has a parabolic trajectory as in projectile motion with
horizontal range L. A particle of mass m and charge q, with the same initial conditions has a range L/2.
The range of particle of mass m and charge 2q with the same initial conditions is :
(A) L
(B) L/2
(C) L/3
(D) L/4
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 79
93.
Figure below shows a small mass connected to a string, which is attached to a vertical post.If the ball is
released when the string is horizontal as shown , the magnitude of the total acceleration (including radial
and tangential) of the mass as a function of the angle is
(A) g Sin
(B) g
3 Cos 2 1
(C) g Cos
(D) g
3Sin 2 1
94.
One mole of an ideal gas at intial temprature T, undergoes a quasistatic process during which the
volume V is doubled .During the process the internal energy U obeys the equation U = aV3, where a is a
constant .The work done during this process is
(A) 3RT / 2
(B) 5RT / 2
(C) 5RT / 3
(D) 7RT / 2
95.
A constant amount of an ideal gas undergoes the cyclic process ABCA in the PV diagram shown below.
The path BC is an isothermal .The work done by the gas during one complete cycle , beginning and
ending at A is nearly
(A) 600 KJ
(B) 300 KJ
(C) 300 KJ
(D) 600 KJ
96.
A material is embedded between two glass plates . Refractive index n of the material varies with thickness as shown below .The maximum incident angle (in degrees) on the material for which beam will pass
through the material is
(A) 60.0
(B) 53.1
(C) 43.5
(D) 32.3
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 80
97.
At a distance form a uniformly charged long wire , a charged particle is thrown radially outward with a
velocity u in the direction perpendicular to the wire . When the particle reaches a distance 2 from the wire
its speed is found to be
2u . The magnitude of the velocity , when it is a distance 4l away from the wire,
is (ignore gravity)
(A) 3u
98.
(B) 2 u
(C) 2 2 u
(D) 4 u
A rectangular loop of wire shown below is coplanar with a long wire carrying current I .
The loop is pulled to the right as indicated .What are the directions of the induced current in the loop and
the magnetic forces on the left and the right sides of the loop ?
Inducded Current
Force on left side
Force on right side
(A)
Counterclockwise
To the left
To the right
(B)
Clockwise
To the left
To the right
(C)
Counter clockwise
To the right
To the left
(D)
Clockwise
To the right
To the left
99.
y2
+
= 1. At point (0, b), the x-component
a2
b2
of velocity is u. the y-component of acceleration at this point is :
(A) bu2 / a2
(B) u2 / a2
(C) au2 / b2
(D) u2 / a
A particle moves in a plane along an eliptic path given by
x2
CHEMISTRY
101.
XeF6 hydrolyses to give an oxide. The structure of XeF6 and the oxide, respectively are
(A) octahedral and tetrahedral
(B) distorted octahedral pyramidal
(C) octahedral and pyramidal
(D) distorted octahedral and tetrahedral
102.
MnO4 oxidizes (i) oxalate ion in acidic medium at 333 K and (ii) HCl. For balanced chemical equations,
the rations [MnO4 : C2O42] in (i) and [MnO4 : HCl] in (ii), respectively, are :
(A) 1 : 5 and 2 : 5
(B) 2 : 5 and 1 : 8
(C) 2 : 5 and 1 : 5
(D) 5 : 2 and 1 : 8
103.
104.
The electron in hydrogen atom is in the first Bohr orbit (n = 1). The ratio of transition energies, E(n = 1
n = 3) to E (n = 1 n = 2), is
(A) 32/27
(B) 16/27
(C) 32/9
(D) 8/9
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 81
105.
NaOH / I
(ii) H3O
H3O
2
X
Y
106.
(A) i
(B) ii
The reaction sequence,
HNO2
X
(C) iii
(D) iv
(C) iii
(D) iv
(A) i
107.
(B) ii
Optically active (S)--methoxyacetaldehyde on reaction with MeMgX gave a mixture of alcohols. The
major diastereomer P on treatment with Me1/K2CO3 gave an optically inactive compound. P is :
(A) i
(B) ii
(C) iii
(D) iv
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 82
108.
At 300 K the vapour pressure of two pure liquids, A and B are 100 and 500 mm Hg, respectively. If in a
mixture of A and B, the vapour pressure is 300 mm Hg, the mole fractions of A in the liquid and in the
vapour phase, respectively, are :
(A) 1/2 and 1/10
(B) 1/4 and 1/6
(C) 1/4 and 1/10
(D) 1/2 and 1/6
109.
The crystal field stabilization energies (CFSE) of high spin and low spin d6 metal complexes in terms of
0, respectively, are :
(A) 0.4 and 2.4
(B) 2.4 and 0.4
(C) 0.4 and 0.0
(D) 2.4 and 0.0
110.
Emulsification of 10 ml of oil in water produces 2.4 1018 droplets. If the surfaces tension at the oil-water
interface is 0.03 Jm2 and the area of each droplet is 12.5 1016 m2, the energy spent in the formation of
oil droplets is :
(A) 90 J
(B) 30 J
(C) 900 J
(D) 10 J
BIOLOGY
111.
Which sequence of events gives rise to flaccid guard cells and stomatal closure at night ?
(A) low [Glucose ] low osmotic pressure low pH high pCO2
(B) low pH high pCO2 low [Glucose ] low osmotic pressure
(C) low osmotic pressure high pCO2 low pH low [Glucose]
(D) high pCO2 low pH low [Glucose] low osmotic pressure
112.
Rice has a diploid genome with 2n = 24. If crossing over is stopped in a rice plant and then selfed
seeds are collected, will all the offsprings be genetically identical to the parent plant ?
(A) yes, because crossing-over is the only source of genetic variation
(B) no, because stopping of crossing over automatically increases rate of point mutation
(C) yes, only if the parent plant was a completely inbred line
(D) yes, only if the parent plant was a hybrid between two prue-bred lines
113.
Rodents can distinguish between many different types of odours. The basis for odour discrimination
is that
(A) they have a small number of odorant receptors that bind to many different odorant molecules
(B) the mechanoreceptors in the nasal cavity are activated by different odorant molecules found in
the air passing through the nostrils
(C) the part of the brain that processes the sense of smell has many different receptors for odorant
molecules
(D) a large number of different chemoreceptors are present in the nasal cavity that binds a variety of
odorant molecules
114.
Although blood flows through large arteries at high pressure, when the blood reaches small capillaries
the pressure decreases because
(A) the valves in the arteries regulate at he rate of blood flow into the capillaries
(B) the volume of blood in the capillaries is much lesser than that in the arteries
(C) the total cross-sectional area of capillaries arising form an artery is much greater than that of
the artery
(D) elastin fibers in the capillaries help to reduce the arterial pressure
115.
E.coli about to replicate was pulsed with tritiated thymidine for 5 min and then transferred to normal
medium . After one cell division which one of the following observations would be correct ?
(A) both the strands of DNA will be radioactive
(B) one strand of DNA will be radioactive
(C) none of the strands will be radioactive
(D) half of one strand of DNA will be radioactive
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 83
116.
Selection of lysine auxotroph (bacteria which requires lysine for growth) from a mixed population of
bacteria can be done growing bacterial population in the presence of
(A) lysine
(B) penicillin
(B) lysine and penicillin
(D) glucose
117.
118.
119.
For a human male what is the probability that all the maternal chromosomes will end up in the
same gamete ?
(A) 1/23
(B) 223
46
(C) 2
(D) ()23
Nocturnal animal have retinas that contain
(A) a high percentage of rods to increase sensitivity to low light conditions
(B) a high percentage of cones so that nocturnal color vision can be improved in low light conditions
(C) an equal number of rods and cones so that vision can be optimized
(D) retinas with the photoreceptor layer present in the front of the eye to increase light sensitivity
120.
(A) 34 A
(B) 34 nm
(C) 3.4 A
(D) 3.4 m
*****
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 84
1.
In Year 2007, Question Number 1-80 each carries 1 (one) mark, Maths(1-20), Physics
(21-40), Chemistry(41-60), Biology(61-80) & Question Number 81 to 125 each carries
2 marks, Maths(81-90),Physics(91-100), Chemistry(101-110), Biology(111-120)
2.
Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other
electronic gadgets in any form is not allowed.
3.
Write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.
4.
Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in
the answer sheet.
5.
Do not forget to mention your roll number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided
in the answer sheet.
6.
In case of any dispute, the answer filled in the OMR sheet available with the institute
shall be final.
1.
In Year 2008, Question Number 1-80 each carries 1 (one) mark, Maths(1-20), Physics
(21-40), Chemistry(41-60), Biology(61-80) & Question Number 81 to 125 each carries
2 marks, Maths(81-90), Physics(91-100), Chemistry(101-110), Biology(111-120)
2.
Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other
electronic gadgets in any form is not allowed.
3.
Write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.
4.
Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in
the answer sheet.
5.
Do not forget to mention your roll number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided
in the answer sheet.
6.
In case of any dispute, the answer filled in the OMR sheet available with the institute
shall be final.
1.
In Year 2009, Question Number 1-80 each carries 1 (one) mark, Maths(1-20), Physics
(21-40), Chemistry(41-60), Biology(61-80) & Question Number 81 to 125 each carries
2 marks, Maths(81-90), Physics(91-100), Chemistry(101-110), Biology(111-120)
2.
Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other
electronic gadgets in any form is not allowed.
3.
Write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided in the bottom of this booklet.
4.
Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in
the answer sheet.
5.
Do not forget to mention your roll number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided
in the answer sheet.
6.
In case of any dispute, the answer filled in the OMR sheet available with the institute
shall be final.
1.
The Question paper consists of two parts (both contain only multiple choice question) for 100
marks. There will be four sections in Part-I (each containing 20 questions) four sections in
Part-II (each containing 10 questions). Answer any THREE of the four sections in Part-I and
any TWO of the four sections in Part-II.
2.
Subject
Part-I
Part-II
Mathematics
Physics
Chemistry
Biology
3.
The answer paper is machine readable. Do not forget to mention your paper code and Roll
Number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided in the Objective Response Sheet
(ORS)/Answer Sheet.
4.
For each question, indicate your answer by filling the corresponding oval with a HB pencil only.
5.
For each question there will be four choices given and only one of them is the correct answer. Fill
only one oval per question. If you mark more than one oval, it will be considered as an incorrect
answer.
6.
There is negative marking for wrong answers. Unanswered questions will not be evaluated and
will not be penalized as a wrong answer.
7.
In Part-I each correct answer gets 1 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be
deducted. In Part-II each correct answer gets 2 marks and for each incorrect answer 0.5 mark
will be deducted.
8.
9.
Candidates are permitted to carry their question paper after the examination.
1.
The Question paper consists of two parts (both contain only multiple choice question) for 100
marks. There will be four sections in Part-I (each containing 20 questions) four sections in
Part-II (each containing 10 questions). Answer any THREE of the four sections in Part-I and
any TWO of the four sections in Part-II.
2.
Subject
Part-I
Part-II
Mathematics
Physics
Chemistry
Biology
3.
The answer paper is machine readable. Do not forget to mention your paper code and Roll
Number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided in the Objective Response Sheet
(ORS)/Answer Sheet.
4.
For each question, indicate your answer by filling the corresponding oval with a HB pencil only.
5.
For each question there will be four choices given and only one of them is the correct answer. Fill
only one oval per question. If you mark more than one oval, it will be considered as an incorrect
answer.
6.
There is negative marking for wrong answers. Unanswered questions will not be evaluated and
will not be penalized as a wrong answer.
7.
In Part-I each correct answer gets 1 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be
deducted. In Part-II each correct answer gets 2 marks and for each incorrect answer 0.5 mark
will be deducted.
8.
9.
Candidates are permitted to carry their question paper after the examination.
1.
The Question paper consists of two parts (both contain only multiple choice question) for 100
marks. There will be four sections in Part-I (each containing 20 questions) four sections in
Part-II (each containing 10 questions). Answer any THREE of the four sections in Part-I and
any TWO of the four sections in Part-II.
2.
Subject
Part-I
Part-II
Mathematics
Physics
Chemistry
Biology
3.
The answer paper is machine readable. Do not forget to mention your paper code and Roll
Number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided in the Objective Response Sheet
(ORS)/Answer Sheet.
4.
For each question, indicate your answer by filling the corresponding oval with a HB pencil only.
5.
For each question there will be four choices given and only one of them is the correct answer. Fill
only one oval per question. If you mark more than one oval, it will be considered as an incorrect
answer.
6.
There is negative marking for wrong answers. Unanswered questions will not be evaluated and
will not be penalized as a wrong answer.
7.
In Part-I each correct answer gets 1 mark and for each incorrect answer 0.25 mark will be
deducted. In Part-II each correct answer gets 2 marks and for each incorrect answer 0.5 mark
will be deducted.
8.
9.
Candidates are permitted to carry their question paper after the examination.
YEAR-2012 (KVPY-STREAM-SB+2)
PART-I (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1.
Three children, each accompanied by a guardian, seek admission in a school. The principal wants to
interview all the 6 persons one after the other subject to the condition that no child is interviewed before
its guardian. In how many ways can this be done?
(A) 60
(B) 90
(C) 120
(D) 180
2.
x 3 4 x 1 + x 8 6 x 1 = 1 has
(B) exactly two distinct solutions
(D) infinitely many solutions
3.
4.
Suppose two perpendicular tangents can be drawn from the origin to the circle x2 + y2 6x 2py + 17 =
0, for some real p. Then |p| is equal to
(A) 0
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 17
5.
Let a, b, c be numbers in the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} such that the curves y = 2x3 + ax + b and y = 2x3 + cx
+ d have no point in common. The maximum possible value of (a c)2 + b d is
(A) 0
(B) 5
(C) 30
(D) 36
6.
Consider the conic ex2 + y2 2e2x 22y + e3 + 3 = e. Suppose P is any point on the conic and S1, S2
are the foci of the conic, then the maximum value of (PS1 + PS2) is
(A) e
(B)
(C) 2
sin( x a) sin( x a)
, then
cos( x a) cos( x a)
(A) f(x + 2) = f(x) but f(x + ) f(x) for any 0 < < 2
(B) f is a strictly increasing function
(C) f is strictly decreasing function
(D) f is a constant function
7.
Let f(x) =
8.
9.
(D) 2 e
1
4
(B)
3
2
(D) 4
4 2x 5 for real x is
(C)
2
3
(D)
2
5
10.
Let n be a natural number and let a be a real number. The number of zeros of x2n+1 (2n + 1) x + a = 0
in the interval [1, 1] is
(A) 2 if a > 0
(B) 2 if a < 0
(C) at most one for every vale of a
(D) at least three for every value of a
11.
Let f : R R be the function f(x) = (x a1) (x a2) + (x a2) (x a3)+ (x x3) (x x1) with a1, a2, a3 R.
Then f(x) 0 if and only if
(A) at least two of a1, a2, a3 are equal
(B) a1 = a2 = a3
(C) a1, a2, a3 are all distinct
(D) a1, a2, a3 are all positive and distinct
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 85
/2
12.
The value
(sin x )
2 1
(sin x )
2 1
dx
0
/2
is
dx
2 1
(A)
2 1
(B)
2 1
2 1
2 1
(C)
(D) 2 2
2012
13.
(sin( x
The value
) x 5 1) dx is
2012
(A) 2012
14.
(B) 2013
(C) 0
(D) 4024
Let [x] and {x} be the integer part and fractional part of a real number x respectively. The value of the
5
integral
[ x] { x} dx is
0
(A) 5/2
15.
Let Sn =
(B) 5
n
k 1
(C) 34.5
(D) 35.5
k denote the sum of the first n positive integers. The numbers S1, S2, S3, ....S99 are
written on 99 cards. The probability of drawing a cards with an even number written on it is
(A)
16.
(B)
49
100
(C)
49
99
(D)
48
99
A purse contains 4 copper coins and 3 silver coins. A second purse contains 6 coins and 4 silver coins.
A purse is chosen randomly and a coin is taken out of it. What is the probability that it is a copper coin?
(A)
17.
1
2
41
70
(B)
31
70
(C)
27
70
(D)
1
3
Let H be the orthocentre of an acuteangled triangle ABC and O be its circumcenter. Then HA HB HC
(A) is equal to HO
18.
The number of ordered pairs (m,n) where m, n {1, 2, 3, ......, 50}, such that 6m + 9n is a multiple of 5 is
(A) 1250
(B) 2500
(C) 625
(D) 500
19.
Suppose a1, a2, a3, ....., a2012 are integers arranged on a circle. Each number is equal to the average of
its two adjacent numbers. If the sum of all even indeced numbers is 3018, what is the sum of all
numbers?
(A) 0
(B) 1509
(C) 3018
(D) 6036
20.
(B) 2n
(C) 2n(n1)
(D) 2 n2
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 86
PHYSICS
21.
An ideal monatomic gas expands to twice its volume. If the process is isothermal, the magnitude of work
done by the gas is W i . If the process is adiabatic the magnitude of work done by the gas is W a . Which
of the following is true
(A) W i = W a > 0
(B) W i > W a > 0
(C) W i > W a = 0
(D) W a > W i = 0
22.
The capacitor of capacitance C in the circuit shown is fully charged initially, Resistance is R.
After the switch S is closed, the time taken to reduce the stored energy in the capacitor to half its initial
value is :
(A)
23.
RC
2
(B) RC ln 2
(C) 2RC ln 2
(D)
RC ln 2
2
A liquid drop placed on a horizontal plane has a near spherical shape (slightly flattened due to gravity). Let
R be the radius of its largest horizontal section. A small disturbance causes the drop to vibrate with
frequency v about its equilibrium shape. By dimensional analysis the ratio
can be (Here is
R 3
surface tension, is density, g is acceleration due to gravity, and k is an arbitrary dimensionless constant)
(A)
24.
kgR 2
(B)
k R 3
g
(C)
k R 2
g
k
(D) g
Seven identical coins are rigidly arranged on a flat table in the pattern shown below so that each coin
touches its neighbours. Each coin is a thin disc of mass m and radius r. Note that the moment of inertia
of an individual coin about an axis passing through center and perpendicular to the plane of the coin is
mr 2
.
2
The moment of inertia of the system of seven coins about an axis that passes through the point P (the
centre of the coin positioned directly to the right of the central coin) and perpendicular to the plane of the
coins is
(A)
55
mr2
2
(B)
127
mr2
2
(C)
111
mr2
2
(D) 55 mr2
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 87
25.
A planet orbits in an elliptical path of eccentricity e around a massive star considered fixed at one of the
foci. The point in space where it is closest to the star is denoted by P and the point where it is farthest is
denoted by A. Let vP and vA be the respective speeds at P and A. Then
vP 1 e
(A) v 1 e
A
26.
vP
(B) v = 1
A
(C)
vP 1 e2
vA
1 e
(D)
vP 1 e2
v A 1 e2
In a Young's double slit experiment the intensity of light at each slit is 0. Interference pattern is observed
along a direction parallel to the line S1 S2 on screen S.
The minimum, maximum, and the intensity averaged over the entire screen are respectively.
(A) 0, 40 , 20
(B) 0 , 20 , 30/2
(C) 0, 40 , 0
(D) 0, 20 , 0
27.
A loop carrying current has the shape of a regular polygon of n sides. If R is the distance from the centre
to any vertex, then the magnitude of the magnetic induction vector B at the centre of the loop is
(A) n
28.
tan
2 R
n
(B) n
0
2
tan
2 R
n
(C)
0
2R
(D)
tan
R
n
A conducting rod of mass m and length is free to move without friction on two parallel long conducting
rails, as shown below. There is a resistance R acorss the the rails. In the entire space around, there is a
uniform magnetic filed B normal to the plane of the rod and rails. The rod is given an impulsive velocity v0.
1
mv02
2
(A) will be converted fully into heat energy in the resistor
(B) will enable rod to continue to move eith velocity v0 since the rails are frictionless
(C) will be converted fully into magnetic energy due to induced current
(D) will be converted into the work done against the magnetic field
Finally, the initial energy
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 88
29.
A steady current flows through a wire of radius r, length L and resistivity . The current produces heat in
the wire. The rate of heat loss in a wire is proportional its surface area. The steady temperature of the wire
is independent of
(A) L
(B) r
(C)
(D)
30.
The ratio of the speed of sound to the average speed of an air molecule at 300K and 1 atmospheric
pressure is close to
(A) 1
31.
(B)
300
1
300
(C)
(D) 300
In one model of the election, tho electron of mass me is thought to be a uniformly charged shell of radius
R and total charge e, whose electrostatic energy E is equivalent to its mass me via Einstein's mass
energy relation E = mec2 . In this model, R is approximately (me = 9.1 1031 kg, c = 3 108 m.s1,
1
= 9 109 Farads m1, magnitude of the electron charge = 1.6 1019 C)
4 0
(A) 1.4 1015 m
(B) 2 1013 m
(C) 5.3 1011 m
(D) 2.8 1035 m
32.
A body is executing simple harmonic motion of amplitude a and period T about the equilibrium position
x = 0. Large numbers of snapshots are taken at random of this body in motion. The probability of the body
being found in a very small interval x to x + |dx| is highest at
(A) x = a
(B) x = 0
(C) x = a/2
(D) x =
a
2
33.
Two identical bodies are made of a material for which the heat capacity increases with temperature One
of these is held at a temperature of 100C while the other one is kept at 0C. If the two are brought into
contact, then, assuming no heat loss to the environment, the final temperature that they will reach is
(A) 50C
(B) more than 50C
(C) less than 50C
(D) 0C
34.
A particle is acted upon by a force given by F = x3 x4 where and are positive constants. At the
point x = 0, the particle is
(A) in stable equilibrium
(B) in unstable equiibrium
(C) in neutral equilibrium
(D) not in equilibrium
35.
The potential energy of a point particle is given by the expression V(x) = x + sin (x / ). A dimensionless
combination of the constants , and is
(A)
36.
(B)
(C)
(D)
A ball of mass m suspended from a rigid support by an inextensible massless string is released from a
height h above its lowest point. At its lowest point it colIides elastically with a block of mass 2m at rest on
a frictionless surface. Neglect the dimensions of the ball and the block. After the collision the ball rises to
a maximum height of
(A)
h
3
(B)
h
2
(C)
h
8
(D)
h
9
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 89
37.
A particle released from rest is falling through a thick fluid under gravity. The fluid exerts a resistive force
on the particle proportional to the square of its speed. Which one of the following graphs best depicts the
variation of is speed v with time t?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
38.
A cylindrical steel rod of length 0.10m and thermal conductivity 50 W.m1.K1 is welded end to end to
copper rod of thermal conductivity 400 W.m1.K1 and of the same area of cross section but 0.20 m long.
The free end of the steel rod is maintained at 100C and that of the copper rod at 0C. Assuming that the
rods are perfectly insulated from the surrounding the temperature at the junction of the two rods is
(A) 20C
(B) 30C
(C) 40C
(D) 50C
39.
A parent nucleus X is decaying into daughter nucleus Y which in turn decays to Z. The half lives of X and
Y are 4000 years and 20 years respectively. In a certain sample, it is found that the number of Y nuclei
hardly changes with time. If the number of X nuclei in the sample is 4 1020 , the number of Y nuclei
present in it is
(A) 2 1017
(B) 2 1020
(C) 4 1023
(D) 4 1020
40.
An unpolarized beam of light of intensity 0 passes through two linear polarizers making an angle of 30
with respect to each other. The emergent beam will have an intensity.
(A)
3 0
4
(B)
3 0
4
(C)
3 0
8
(D)
0
8
CHEMISTRY
41.
42.
43.
44.
Among the following, the species with the highest bond order is :
(A) O2
(B) F2
(C) O2+
(D) F2
(D) NCl3
(C) CCl4
(B) n = 1, = 1, m = 0, ms = +
(C) n = 1, = 0, m = 1, ms =
(D) n = 1, = 1, m = 1, ms =
In the reaction of benzene with an electrophile E+, the structure of the intermediate -complex can be
represented as :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 90
45.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
46.
Typical electronic energy gaps in molecules are about 1.0 eV. In terms of temperature, the gap is closest
to:
(A) 102 K
(B) 104 K
(C) 103 K
(D) 105 K
47.
3
CH3CH2CN
2) H3O
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
48.
A zero-order reaction, A Product, with an initial concentration [A]0 has a half-life of 0.2 s. If one starts
with the concentration 2[A]0, then the half-life is :
(A) 0.1 s
(B) 0.4 s
(C) 0.2 s
(D) 0.8 s
49.
50.
(C)
(D)
(C)
(D)
(A)
51.
(B)
(A)
(B)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 91
52.
(A) 3
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 0
53.
The pKa of a weak acid is 5.85. The concentrations of the acid and its conjugate base are equal at a pH
of:
(A) 6.85
(B) 5.85
(C) 4.85
(D) 7.85
54.
For a tetrahedral complex [MCl4]2, the spin-only magnetic moment is 3.83 BM. The element M is :
(A) Co
(B) Cu
(C) Mn
(D) Fe
55.
Among the following graphs showing variation of rate (k) with temperature (T) for a reaction, the one that
exhibits Arrhenius behavior over the entire temperature range is :
(A)
56.
57.
58.
(B)
(C)
(D)
The reaction that gives the following molecule as the major product is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The CO bond length in CO, CO2 and CO32 follows the order :
(A) CO < CO2 < CO32 (B) CO2 < CO32 < CO (C) CO > CO2 > CO32
The equilibrium constant for the following reactions are K1 and K2, respectively.
2P(g) + 3Cl2(g)
2PCl3(g)
PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
PCl5(g)
The the equilibrium constant for the reaction
2P(g) + 5Cl2(g)
2PCl5(g)
is :
(A) K1K2
(B) K1K22
(C) K12K22
(D) K12K2
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 92
59.
+ (CH3C)2CHCH2Cl
60.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
BIOLOGY
61.
The disorders that arise when the immune system destroys 'self' cells are called autoimmmune disorders. Which of the following would be classified under this
(A) rheumatoid arthritis (B) asthma
(C) rhintis
(D) eczema
62.
Which of the following class of immunoglobulins can trigger the complement cascade ?
(A) IgA
(B) IgM
(C) IgD
(D) IgE
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
Some animals excrete uric acid in urine (uricotelic) as it requires very little water. This is an adaptation to
conserve water loss. Which animals among the following are most likely to be uricotelic?
(A) fishes
(B) amphibians
(C) birds
(D) mammals
68.
A ripe mango, kept with unripe mangoes causes their ripening. This is due to the release of a gaseous
plant hormone
(A) auxin
(B) gibberlin
(C) cytokinine
(D) ethylene
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 93
69.
Human chromosomes undergo structural changes during the cell cycle. Chromosomal structure can be
best visualized if a chromosome is isolated from a cell at
(A) G1 phase
(B) S phase
(C) G2 phase
(D) M phase
70.
By which of the following mechanisms is glucose reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate by the kidney
tubule
(A) osmosis
(B) diffusion
(C) active transport
(D) passiver transport
71.
In mammals, the hormones secreted by the pituitary, the master gland, is itself regulated by
(A) Hypothalamus
(B) median cortex
(C) pineal gland
(D) cerebrum
72.
73.
A hormone molecule binds to a specific protein on the plasma membrane inducing a signal. The protein
it binds to it called
(A) ligand
(B) antibody
(C) receptor
(D) histone
74.
DNA mutations that do not cause my functional change in the protein product are known as
(A) nonsense mutations (B) missense mutations (C) deletion mutations (D) silent mutations
75.
Plant roots are usually devoid of chlorophyll and cannot perform photosynthesis. However, three are
exceptions. Which of the following plant root can perform photosynthesis
(A) Arabidopsis
(B) Tinospora
(C) Rice
(D) Hibiscus
76.
Vitamin A deficiency leads to night-blindness. Which of the following is the reason for the disease ?
(A) rod cells are not converted to cone cells
(B) rhodopsin pigment of rod cells is defective
(C) melanin pigment is not synthesized in cone cells
(D) cornea of eye gets dried
77.
In Dengue virus infection, patients often develop haemorrhagic fever due to internal bleeding. This happens due to the reduction of
(A) platelets
(B) RBCs
(C) WBCs
(D) lymphocytes
78.
If the sequence of bases in sense strand of DNA is 5'-GTTCATCG-3, then the sequence ofd bases in its
RNA transcript would be
(A) 5'-GTTCATCG-3'
(B) 5'GUUCAUCG-3
(C) 5'CAAGTAGC-3'
(D) 5'CAAGUAGC -3
79.
A refilex aciton is a quick involuntary response to stimulus. Which of the following is an example of
BOTH, unconditioned and conditioned reflex
(A) knee jerk reflex
(B) secretion of saliva in response to the aroma of food
(C) sneezing reflex
(D) contration of the pupil in response to bright light
80.
In a food chain such as grass deer lion, the energy cost of respiration as a proportion of total
assimilated energy at each level would be
(A) 60%- 30%-20%
(B) 20%- 30%-60%
(C) 20%- 60%-30%
(D) 30%- 30%-30%
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 94
PART-II (2 Marks)
MATHEMATICS
81.
Suppose a, b, c are real numbers, and each of the equations x2 + 2ax + b2 = 0 and x2 + 2bx + c2 = 0 has
two distinct real roots. Then the equation x2 + 2cx + a2 = 0 has
(A) two distinct positive real roots
(B) two equal roots
(C) one positive and one negative root
(D) no real roots
82.
(1 x 2 )(1 x )
(A) 2010
(B) 2011
83.
325
36
(B)
(B)
36
325
(C)
13
25
5
6
(D)
25
13
cosx = sin2(x + ) is
2
4
(C)
(D) 2
(B) P(1) 0
(C) P(1) 0
(D)
Define a sequence (an) by a1 = 5, an = a1a2 ... an1 + 4 for n > 1. Then lim
(A) equals
1
2
(B) equal 1
87.
(D) 2013
A polynomila P(x) with real coefficients has the property that P(x) 0 for all x. Suppose P(0) = 1 and
P(0) = 1. What can you say about P(1)?
(A) P(1) 0
86.
(C) 2012
85.
is
Let (x, y) be a variable point on the curve 4x2 + 9y2 8x 36y + 15 = 0. Then
min (x2 2x + y2 4y + 5) + max(x2 2x + y2 4y + 5) is
(A)
84.
1 x
cos 2 x
1 a
(C) equals
2
5
1
1
< P(1) <
2
2
an
an 1
(D) does not exists
dx , where a > 0, is
(A)
88.
(B) a
(C)
(D) 2
Consider
L=
2012 +
2013 + ... +
3011
R=
2013 +
2014 + ... +
3012
3012
and I =
3 x dx .
2012
(A) L + R < 2I
(B) L + R = 2I
(C) L + R > 2I
(D)
LR = I
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 95
89.
A man tosses a coin 10 times, scoring 1 point for each head and 2 points for each tail. Let P(K) be the
1
is
2
(D) 17
probability of scroing at least K points. The largest value of K such that P(K) >
(A) 14
90.
(B) 15
(C) 16
x 1
for all x 1. Let f1(x) = f(x), f2(x) = f (f(x)) and generally fn(x) = f(fn1(x)) for n > 1. Let P =
x 1
f1(2) f2(3) f3(4) f4(5) which of the following is a multiple of P
(A) 125
(B) 375
(C) 250
(D) 147
Let f(x) =
PHYSICS
91.
The total energy of a black body radiation source is collected for five minutes and used to heat water. The
temperature of the water increases from 10.0C to 11.0C. The absolute temperature of the black body is
doubled and its surface area halved and the experiment repeated for the same time. Which of the following
statements would be most nearly correct?
(A) The temperature of the water would increase from 10.0C to a final temperature of 12C
(B) The temperature of the water would increase from 10.0C to a final temperature of 18C
(C) The temperature of the water would increase from 10.0C to a final temperature of 14C
(D) The temperature of the water would increase from 10.0C to a final temperature of 11C
92.
A small asteroid is orbiting around the sun in a circular orbit of radius r0 with speed V0. A rocket is
launched from the asteroid with speed V = V0 where V is the speed relative to the sun. The highest
value of for which the rocket will remain bound to the solar system is (ignoring gravity due to the asteroid
and effect of other planets)
(A)
93.
(B) 2
(C)
(D) 1
A radioactive nucleus A has a single decay mode with half life A. Another radioactive nucleus B has two
decay modes 1 and 2. If decay mode 2 were absent, the half life of B would have been A/2. If decay mode
B
1 were absent, the half life of B would have been 3 A. If the actual half life of B is B , then the ratio
A
is
(A)
3
7
(B)
7
2
(C)
7
3
(D) 1
94.
A stream of photons having energy 3 eV each impinges on a potassium surface. The work function of
potassium is 2.3 eV. The emerging photo-electrons are slowed down by a copper plate placed 5 mm
away. If the potential difference between the two metal plates is 1V, the maximum distance the electrons
can move away from the potassium surface before being turned back is
(A) 3.5 mm
(B) 1.5 mm
(C) 2.5 mm
(D) 5.0 mm
95.
Consider three concentric metallic spheres A, B and C of radii a, b, c respectively where a<b<c. A and B
are connected whereas C is grounded. The potential of the middle sphere B is raised to V then the charge
on the sphere C is
(A) 40V
96.
bc
c b
(B) + 40V
bc
c b
(C) 40V
ac
ca
(D) zero
On a bright sunny day a diver of height h stands at the bottom of a lake of depth H. Looking upward, he
can see objects outside the lake in a circular region of radius R. Beyond this circle he sees the images
of objects lying on the floor of the lake. If refractive index of waler is 4/3, then the value of R is
(A)
3(H h)
7
(B) 3h 7
(C)
(H h)
7
3
(D)
(H h)
5
3
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 96
97.
As shown in the figure below, a cube is formed with ten indentical resistance R (thick lines) and two
shorting wires (dotted lines) along the arms AC and BD.
(C)
3R
4
(D) R
2
2
Two block (1 and 2) of equal mass m are connected by an ideal string (see figure below) over a frictionless
pulley. The blocks are attached to the ground by springs having spring constants k1 and k2 such that
k1 > k2 .
Initially, both springs are unstretched. The block 1 is slowly pulled down a distance x and released. Just
after the release the possible value of the magnitudes of the acceleration of the blocks a1 and a2 can be
(k 1 k 2 ) x
k x
k x
or a1 1 g and a 2 2 g
(A) either a1 a 2
2
m
m
m
(k 1 k 2 ) x
only
(B) a1 a 2
2m
(k 1 k 2 ) x
only
(C) a1 a 2
2m
(k 1k 2 ) x
(k 1 k 2 ) x
g
or a1 a 2
(D) either a1 a 2
(k 1 k 2 )m
2m
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 97
100.
A simple pendulum is released from rest at the horizontally stretched position. When the string makes an
angle with the vertical, the angle which the acceleration vector of the bob makes with the string is
given by
(A) = 0
tan
(B) = tan1
2
(D) =
CHEMISTRY
101.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
102.
In the DNA of E. Coli the mole ratio of adenine to cytosine is 0.7. If the number of moles of adenine in the
DNA is 350000, the number of moles of guanine is equal to :
(A) 350000
(B) 500000
(C) 225000
(D) 700000
103.
104.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Phenol on treatment with dil. HNO3 gives two products P and Q. P is steam volatile but Q is not. P and Q
are respectively
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 98
105.
A metal is irradiated with light of wavelength 660 nm. Given that the work function of the metal is 1.0 eV,
the de-Broglie wavelength of the ejected electron is close to :
(A) 6.6 107 m
(B) 8.9 1011 m
(C) 1.3 109 m
(D) 6.6 1013 m
106.
The inter-planar spacing between the (2 2 1) planes of a cubic lattice of length 450 pm is :
(A) 50 pm
(B) 150 pm
(C) 300 pm
(D) 450 pm
107.
The H for vaporization of a liquid is 20 kJ/mol. Assuming ideal behaviour, the change in internal energy
for the vaporization of 1 mole of the liquid at 60C and 1 bar is close to :
(A) 13.2 kJ/mol
(B) 17.2 kJ/mol
(C) 19.5 kJ/mol
(D) 20.0 kJ/mol
108.
Among the following, the species that is both tetrahedral and diamagnetic is :
(A) [NiCl4]2
(B) [Ni(CN)4]2
(C) Ni(CO)4
(D) [Ni(H2O)6]2+
109.
Three moles of an ideal gas expands reversibly under isothermal condition from 2 L to 20 L at 300 K. The
amount of heat-change (in kJ/mol) in the process is :
(A) 0
(B) 7.2
(C) 10.2
(D) 17.2
110.
(D) 5
BIOLOGY
111.
When hydrogen peroxide is applied on the wound as a disinfectant, there is frothing at the site of injury,
which is due to the presence of an enzyme in th skin that uses hydrogen peroxide as a substrate to
produce
(A) hydrogen
(B) carbon dioxide
(C) water
(D) oxygen
112.
Persons suffering from hypertension (high blood pressure) are advised a low-salt diet because
(A) more salt is absorbed in the body of a patient with hypertension
(B) high salt leads to water retention in the blood that further increases the blood pressure
(C) high salt increases nerve conduction and increases blood pressure
(D) high salt causes adrenaline release that increases blood pressure
113.
Insectivorous plants that mostly grow on swampy soil use insects as a source of
(A) carbon
(B) nitrogen
(C) phosphorous
(D) magnesium
114.
In cattle, the coat colour red and white are two dominant traits, which express equally in F1 to produce
roan (red and white clour in equal proportion). If F1 progeny are self-bred, the resulting progeny in F2 will
have phenotypic ratio (red:roan:white) is (A) 1 : 1 : 1
(B) 3 : 9 : 3
(C) 1 : 2 : 1
(D) 3 : 9 : 4
115.
The restriction endonuclease EcoR-I recognises and cleaves DNA sequence as shown below 5 G A A T T C 3
3 C T T A A G 5
What is the probable number of cleavage sites that can occur in a 10 kb long random DNA sequence?
(A) 10
(B) 2
(C) 100
(D) 50
116.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 99
117.
Vibrio cholerae causes cholera in humans. Ganga water was once used successfully to combat the
infection. The possible reason could be (A) high salt content of Ganga water
(B) low salt content of Ganga water
(C) presence of bacteriophages in Ganga water
(D) presence of antibiotics in Ganga water
118.
When a person begins to fast, after some time glycogen stored in the liver is mobilized as a source of
glucose. Which of the following graphs best represents the change of glucose level (y-axis) in his blood,
starting from the time (x-axis) when he begins to fast ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
119.
The following sequence contains the open reading frame of a polypeptide. How many amino acids will the
polypeptide consist of ?
5 AGCATATGATCGTTTCTCTGCTTTGAACT3
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 10
(D) 7
120.
Insects constitute the largest animal group on earth. About 25-30% of the insect species are known to be
herbivores. In spite of such huge herbiore perssure, globally, green plants have persisted. One possible
reason for this persistence is :
(A) food preference of insects has tended to change with time
(B) herbivore insects have become inefficient feeders of green plants
(C) herbivore population has been kept in control by predators
(D) decline in reproduction of herbivores with time
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 100
Duration : 3 Hours
STREAM - SB/SX
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
There are Two parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each
part is as under for each correct response.
MARKING SCHEME :
PART-I :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 1 to 20 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 21 to 40 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 41 to 60 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 61 to 80 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PART-II :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 81 to 90 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 91 to 100 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 101 to 110 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 111 to 120 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
YEAR-2013 (KVPY-STREAM-SB+2)
PART-I
One Mark Questions
MATHEMATICS
1.
2.
3.
Let be a cube root of unity not equal to 1. Then the maximum possible value of | a + bw + cw2 | where
a, b, c {+1, 1} is
(A) 0
(B) 2
(C)
(D) 1+ 3
4.
If a, b are positive real numbers such that the lines ax + 9y = 5 and 4x + by = 3 are parallel, then the
least possible value of a + b is
(A) 13
(B) 12
(C) 8
(D) 6
5.
Two line segments AB and CD are constrained to move along the x and y axes, respectively, in such a
way that the points A, B, C, D are concyclic. If AB = a and CD = b, then the locus of the centre of the
circle passing through A, B, C, D in polar coordinates is
(A) r 2
a2 b 2
4
(B) r 2 cos 2
a2 b2
4
6.
Consider a triangle ABC in the xy -plane with vertices A = (0,0), B = (1,1) and C = (9, 1). If the line
x = a divides the triangle into two parts of equal area, then a equals
(A) 3
(B) 3.5
(C) 4
(D) 4.5
7.
Let ABC be an acute-angled triangle and let D be the midpoint of BC. If AB = AD, then tan(B)/tan(C)
equals
(A)
(B)
(C) 2
(D) 3
8.
The angles , , of a triangle satisfy the equations 2sin + 3cos = 3 2 and 3sin + 2cos = 1. Then
angle equals
(A) 150
(B) 120
(C) 60
(D) 30
9.
Let f : R R be a function such that lim f(x) = M > 0. Then which of the following is false?
10.
(A) xlim
xsin(1/x) f(x) = M
(B) xlim
sin(f(x)) = sin M
(C) xlim
xsin(ex) f(x) = M
(D) lim
sin x
.f ( x ) 0
x
11.
Let f(x) =
12.
[t]
10
integer less than or equal to r. The number of points of discontinutiy of f in the interval (10,10) is
(A) 0
(B) 10
(C) 18
(D) 19
13.
For a real number x let [x] denote the largest integer less than or equal to x and {x} = x [x]. The
n
(A) 63
14.
(B) 64
4 2
(B) 8 2
4 2
(C) 4 2
4 2
(D) 4 2
A box contains coupons labeled 1, 2, 3....n. A coupon is picked at random and the number x is noted.
The coupon is put back into the box and a new coupon is picked at random. The new number is y. Then
the probability that one of the numbers x, y divides the other is (in the options below [r] denotes the
largest integer less than or equal to r)
(A)
16.
(D) 91
The area bounded by the curve y = cos x, the line joining (/4, cos(/4)) and (0, 2) and the line joining
(/4, cos(/4)) and (0, 2) is
4 2
(A) 8 2
15.
(C) 90
1
2
(B)
n
2
n k 1 k
(C)
1 1
n n2
n
k
k 1
(D)
1 2
n n2
k
k 1
Let n 3. A list of numbers 0 < x1 < x2 < ... < xn has mean and standard deviatiion . A new list of
numbers is made as follows : y1 = 0, y2 = x2, ....,yn1 = xn1, yn = x1 + xn. The mean and the standard
deviation of the new list are and . Which of the following is necessarily true?
17.
(A) = ,
(B) = ,
(C) =
Let 1, 2 , 3 , 4 be unit vectors in the xy -plane, one each in the interior of the four quadrants. Which
of the following statements is necessarily true?
(A) 0
1
2
3
4
The number of integers n with 100 n 999 and containing at most two distinct digits is
(A) 252
(B) 280
(C) 324
(D) 360
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 102
19.
For an integer n let Sn = {n + 1, n + 2, ....., n + 18}. Which of the following is true for all n 10?
(A) Sn has a multiple of 19
(B) Sn has a prime
(C) Sn has at least four multiples of 5
(D) Sn has at most six primes
20.
Let P be a closed polygon with 10 sides and 10 vertices (assume that the sides do not intersect except
at the vertices). Let k be the number of interior angles of P that are greater than 180. The maximum
possible value of k is
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 9
PHYSICS
21.
Consider an initially neutral hollow conducting spherical shell with inner radius r and outer radius 2r. A
point charge +Q is now placed inside the shell at a distance r/2 from the centre. The shell is then
grounded by connecting the outer surface to the earth. P is an external point at a distance 2r from the
point charge +Q on the line passing through the centre and the point charge +Q as shown in the figure.
1 qQ
(A) 4
2
0 4r
22.
1 9qQ
(B) 4
2
0 100r
1 4qQ
(C) 4
2
0 25r
(D) 0
All the resistors are identical. The charge stored in the capacitor, once it is fully charged, is
(A) 0
23.
(B)
5
CV
13
(C)
2
CV
3
(D)
5
CV
8
A nuclear decay is possible if the mass of the parent nucleus exceeds the total mass of the decay
particles. If M(A, Z) denotes the mass of a single neutral atom of an element with mass number A and
atomic number Z, then the minimal condition that the decay
X AZ YZA1 v e
will occur is (me denotes the mass of the particle and the neutrino mass mv can be neglected) :
(A) M(A, Z) > M(A, Z + 1 ) + me
(B) M(A, Z) > M(A, Z + 1)
(C) M(A, Z) > M(A, Z + 1) + Zme
(D) M(A,Z) > M(A, Z + 1) me
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 103
24.
The equation of state of n moles of a non-ideal gas can be approximated by the equation
2
P n a V nb nRT
V 2
where a and b are constants characteristic of the gas. Which of the following can represent the equation
of a quasistatic adiabat for this gas (Assume that CV, the molar heat capacity at constant volume, is
independent of temperature)?
25.
ab
R / CV
constant
(C) T 2 V nb
V R
n 2ab
V nbCV / R constant
T
(D)
2
V
R
A blackbox (BB) which may contain a combination of electrical circuit elements (resistor, capacitor or
inductor) is connected with other external circuit elements as shown below in the figure (a). After the
switch (S) is closed at time t = 0, the current (I) as a function of time (t) is shown in the figure (b).
In a photocell circuit the stopping potential, V0, is a measure of the maximum kinetic energy of the
photoelectrons. The following graph shows experimentally measured values of stopping potential versus
frequency v of incident light.
The values of Planks constant and the work function as determined from the graph are (taking the
magnitude of electronic charge to be e = 1.6 1019 C)
(A) 6.4 1034 Js, 2.0 eV
(B) 6.0 1034 Js, 2.0 eV
34
(C) 6.4 10 Js, 3.2 eV
(D) 6.0 1034 Js, 3.2 eV
27.
An engine moving away from a vertical cliff blows a born at a frequency f. Its speed is 0.5% of the speed
of sound in air. The frequency of the reflected sound received at the engine is
(A) 0.990 f
(B) 0.995 f
(C) 1.005 f
(D) 1.010 f
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 104
28.
An arangement with a pair of quarter circular coils of radii r and R with a common centre C and carrying
a current I is shown.
The circuit shown has been connected for a long time. The voltage across the capacitor is
(A) 1.2 V
30.
(B) 2.0 V
(C) 2.4 V
(D) 4.0 V
A wheel of radius R with an axle of radius R/2 is shown in the figure and is free to rotate about a
frictionless axis through its centre and perpendicular to the page. Three forces (F, F, 2F) are exerted
tangentially to the repective rims as shown in the figure.
(D) 1.5 FR
31.
Two species of radioactive atoms are mixed in equal number. The disintegration of the first species is
and of the second is /3. After a long time the mixture will behave as a species with mean life of approximately
(A) 0.70/
(B) 2.10/
(C) 1.00/
(D) 0.52/
32.
The bulk modulus of a gas is defined as B = VdP/dV. For an adiabatic process the variation of B is
proportional to Pn. For an idea gas, n is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C)
5
2
(D) 2
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 105
33.
Photons of energy 7 eV are incident on two metals A and B with work functions 6 eV and 3 eV respectively.
The minimum de Broglie wavelengths of the emitted photoelectrons with maximum energies are A and
B, respectively where A/B is nearly
(A) 0.5
(B) 1.4
(C) 4.0
(D) 2.0
34.
35.
36.
Young-Laplace law states that the excess pressure inside a soap bubble of radius R is given by
P = 4/R where is the coefficient of surface tension of the soap. The
number E0 is a
dimensionless number that is used to describe the shape of bubbles rising through a surrounding fluid. It
is a combination of g, the acceleration due to gravity, , the density of the surrounding fluid, and a
characterstic length scale L which could be the radius of the bubble. A possible expression for E0 is
(A)
37.
g
L3
L2
(B)
g
gL2
(C)
gL2
(D)
A plank is resting on a horizontal ground in the northern hemisphere of the Earth at a 45 latitude. Let the
angular speed of the Earth be and its radius re. The magnitude of the frictional force on the plank will be
(A) mre2
(B)
mre 2
2
(C)
mre 2
2
(D) Zero
38.
The average distance between molecules of an ideal gas at STP is approximately of the order of
(A) 1 nm
(B) 100 nm
(C) 100 cm
(D) 1 m
39.
A point particle of mass 0.5 kg is moving along the x-axis under a force described by the potential energy
V shown below. It is projected towards the right from the origin with a speed v.
What is the minimum value of v for which the particle will escape infinitely fasr away from the origin ?
(A) 2 2 ms1
(C) 4 ms1
(B) 2 ms1
(D) The particle will never escape
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 106
40.
The figure below shows pressure variation in two different sound waves in air with time at a given position.
Both the figures are drawn to the same scale.
CHEMISTRY
41.
42.
For a zero-order reaction with rate constant k, the slope of the plot of reactant concentration against time
is:
(A) k/2.303
(B) k
(C) k/2.303
(D) k
43.
44.
45.
(B) CH3CON(NH2)CONH2
(D) CH3CH2NHNHCONH2
The variation of solubility of four different gases (G1, G2, etc.) in a given solvent with pressure at a
constant temperature is shown in the plot.
(D) G1
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 107
46.
47.
The reaction of ethyl methyl ketone with Cl2/excess OH gives the following major product :
(A) ClCH2CH2COCH3
(B) CH3CH2COCCl3
(C) ClCH2CH2COCH2Cl (D) CH3CCl2COCH2Cl
48.
(C) CH3COCH2CH2CH3
(D) (CH3)3CCOC(CH3)3
49.
Hydrolysis of BCl3 gives X which on treatment with sodium carbonate produces Y, X and Y, respectively,
are
(A) H3BO3 and NaBO2
(B) H3BO3 and Na2B4O7
(C) B2O3 and NaBO2
(D) B2O3 and Na2B4O7
50.
(D) 4 and 2
51.
The entropy change in the isothermal reversible expansion of 2 moles of an ideal gas from 10 to 100 L at
300 K is :
(A) 42.3 JK1
(B) 35.8 J K1
(C) 38.3 J K1
(D) 32.3 J K1
52.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
53.
In the structure of borax, the numbers of boron atoms and B-O-B units, respectively, are :
(A) 4 and 5
(B) 4 and 3
(C) 5 and 4
(D) 5 and 3
54.
(A) 1
55.
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
56.
If the angle of incidence of X-ray of wavelength 3 which produces a second order diffracted beam from
the (100) planes in a simple cubic lattice with interlayer spacing a = 6 is 30, the angle of incidence that
produ ces a first-order diffracted beam from the (200) planes is :
(A) 15
(B) 45
(C) 30
(D) 60
57.
The number of ions produced in water by dissolution of the complex having the empirical formular,
COCl34NH3, is :
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 3
58.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 108
59.
The order of SN1 reactivity in aqueous acetic acid solution for the compounds is :
An ionic compound is formed between a metal M and a non-metal Y. If M occupies half the octahedral
voids in the cubic close-packed arrangement formed by Y, the chemical formula of the ionic compound is:
(A) MY
(B) MY2
(C) M2Y
(D) MY3
BIOLOGY
61.
Human fetal haemoglobin differs from the adult haemoglobin in that it has
(A) higher affinity for oxygen
(B) lower affinity for oxygen
(C) two subunits only
(D) is glycosylated
62.
63.
64.
If DNA codons are ATG GAA, insertion of thymine after the first codon results in,
(A) non-sense mutation
(B) mis-sense mutation (C) frameshift mutation (D) silent mutation
65.
66.
67.
Which one of the following techniques is used for the detection of proteins ?
(A) Northern blotting
(B) Western blotting
(C) Southern blotting
(D) Eukaryotes
(B) Eubacteria
(C) Prokaryotes
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
Morphogenetic movements take place predominantly during the following embryonic stage
(A) blastula
(B) Morula
(C) Gastrula
(D) Fertilized eggs
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 109
73.
74.
75.
(D) muscle
(C) insulin
(B) thalamus
(D) succulent Mesocap
76.
77.
78.
79.
In a large isolated population, alleles p and q at a locus are at Hardy Weinberg equilibrium. The frequencies
are p = 0.6 and q = 0.4. The proportion of the heterozygous genotype in the population is
(A) 0.24
(B) 1
(C) 0.48
(D) 0.12
80.
PART-II
Two Mark Questions
MATHEMATICS
81.
82.
1
Let f(x) be a non-constant polynomial with real coefficients such that f = 100 and f(x) 100 for all
2
real x. Which of the following statements is NOT necessarily true ?
(A) The coefficient of the highest degree term in f(x) is negative
(B) f(x) has at least two real roots
(C) If x 1/2 then f(x) < 100
(D) At least one of the coefficients of f(x) is bigger than 50.
(ak
bk 2 ck d) n 4
k 1
(D) 32
The vertices of the base of an isosceles triangle lie on a parabola y2 = 4x and the base is a part of the line
y = 2x 4. If the third vertex of the triangle lies on the x-axis, its coordinates are
5
(A) ,0
2
7
(B) ,0
2
9
(C) ,0
2
11
(D) ,0
2
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 110
84.
In a triangle ABC, let G denote its centroid and let M, N be points in the interiors of the segments AB,
AC, respectively, such that M, G, N are collinear. If r denotes the ratio of the area of triangle AMN to the
area of ABC then
(A) r = 1/2
(B) r > 1/2
(C) 4/9 r < 1/2
(D) 4/9 < r
85.
Let XY be the diameter of a semicircle with centre O. Let A be a variable point on the semicircle and B
another point on the semicircle such that AB is parallel to XY. The value of BOY for which the inradius
of triangle AOB is maximum, is
1 5 1
(A) cos 2
86.
Let f(x) = 1+
(A) 0
87.
1 5 1
(B) sin 2
(D)
x x2 x3 x 4
(D) 4
Suppose that the earth is a sphere of radius 6400 kilometers. The height from the earths surface from
where exactly a fourth of the earths surface is visible, is
(A) 3200 km
88.
(C)
(B) 3200 2 km
(C) 3200 3 km
(D) 6400 km
Let n be a positive integer. For a real number x, let [x] denote the largest integer not exceeding x and
n 1
(A) loge(n)
x[ x ] dx
is equal to
x
(B)
1
n 1
(C)
n
n 1
(D) 1
1
1
....
2
n
89.
A box contains coupons labelled 1,2,...,100. Five coupons are picked at random one after another
without replacement. Let the numbers on the coupons be x1, x2,....,x5. What is the probability that
x1 > x2 > x3 and x3 < x4 < x5?
(A) 1/120
(B) 1/60
(C) 1/20
(D) 1/10
90.
In a tournament with five teams, each team plays against every other team exctly once. Each game is
won by one of the playing teams and the winning team scores one point, while the losing team scores
zero. Which of the following is NOT necessarily true?
(A) There are at least two teams which have at most two points each.
(B) There are at least two teams which have at least two points each.
(C) There are at most three teams which have at least threee points each
(D) There are at most four teams which have at most two points each
PHYSICS
91.
A bullet of mass m is fired horizontally into a large sphere of mass M and radius R resting on a smooth
horizontal table.
The bullet hits the sphere at a height h from the table and sticks to its surface. If the sphere starts rolling
without slippng immediately on impact, then
(A)
h 4m 3M
R 2m M
(B)
h m 3M
R m 2M
(C)
h 10m 7M
R
5m M
(D)
h 4m 3M
R
mM
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 111
92.
A small boy is throwing a ball towards a wall 6 in front of him. He releases the ball at a height of 1.4 m
from the ground. The ball bounces from the wall at a height of 3 m, rebounds from the ground and reaches
the boys hand exactly at the point of release. Assuming the two bounces (one from the wall and the other
from the ground) to be perfectly elastic, how far ahead of the boy did the ball bounce from the ground?
(A) 1.5m
(B) 2.5 m
(C) 3.5 m
(D) 4.5 m
93.
For a process that is described by a straight line joining two points X and Y on the adiabat (solid line in the
diagram) heat is : (hint : Consider the variations in temperature from X to Y along the straitght line)
(A) absorbed throughtout from X to Y
(B) released throughout from X to Y
(C) absorbed from X up to an intermediate point Z (not shown in the figure) and then released from Z to Y
(D) released from X up to an intermediate point Z (not shown in the figure) and then absorbed from Z to Y
94.
A singly ionized helium atom in an excited state (n = 4) emits a photon of energy 2.6 eV. Given that the
ground state energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, the energy (Et) and quantum number (n) of the
resulting state are respectively,
(A) Et = 13.6eV, n = 1 (B) Et = 6.0 eV, n = 3 (C) Et = 6.0 eV, n = 2 (D) Et = 13.6 eV, n = 2
95.
The figure below shows a circuit and its input voltage vi as function of time t.
Assuming the diodes to be ideal, which of the following graphs depicts the output voltage v0 as function of
time t ?
(A)
96.
(B)
(C)
(D)
A ball is rolling without slipping in a spherical shallow bowl (radius R) as shown in the figure and is
executing simple harmonic motion. If the radius of the ball is doubled, the period of oscillation
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 112
97.
A solid sphere rolls without slipping, first horizontal and then up to a point X at height h on an inclined
plane before rolling down, as shown.
10gh / 7
7gh / 5
(B) 10 J
5gh / 7
(D)
2gh
(C) 20 J
(D) 30 J
A block of mass m slides from rest at a height H on a frictionless inclined plane as shown in the figure. It
travels a distance d across a rough horizontal surface with coefficient of kinetic friction , and compresses
a spring of spring k by a distance x before coming to rest momentarily. Then the spring extends and the
block travels back attaining a final height of h. Then
(A) h = H 2(d + x)
(C) h = H 2d + kx2/mg
100.
(C)
The three processes in a thermodynamic cycle shown in the figure are : Process 1 2 is isothermal;
Process 2 3 is isochoric (volume remains constant); Process 3 1 is adiabatic. The total work done
by the ideal gas in this cycle is 10 J. The internal energy decreases by 20 J in the isochoric process. The
work done by the gas in the adiabatic process is 20 J. The heat added to the system in the isothermal
process is
(A) 0 J
99.
(B)
(B) h = H + 2(d + x)
(D) = H 2(d + x) + kx2/ 2mg
A metallic prong consists of 4 rods made of the same material, cross-section and same lengths as
shown. The three forked ends are kept at 100 C and the handle end is at 0C. The temperature of the
junction is
(A) 25C
(B) 50C
(C) 60
(D) 75C
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 113
CHEMISTRY
101.
The major product obtained in the reaction of aniline with acetic anhydride is
NHCOCH3
NH2
NHCOCH3
(B) H3C
(A)
(D) H3C
(C)
102.
The maximum number of isomers that can result from monobromination of 2-methyl-2-pentene with Nbromosuccinimide in boiling CCl4 is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
103.
The compound X (C7H9N) reacts with benzensulfonyl chloride to give Y (C13H13NO2S) which is insoluble in
alkali. The compound X is
NH2
(A)
NH2
NH2
NH CH3
(B)
CH3
(C)
(D)
CH3
H3C
104.
In 108 g of water, 18 g of a non-volatile compound is dissolved. At 100C the vapor pressure of the solution
is 750 mm Hg. Assuming that the compound does not undergo association or dissociation, the molar
mass of the compound in g mol1 is
(A) 128
(B) 182
(C) 152
(D) 228
105.
The standard electrode potential of Zn2+/Zn is 0.76 V and that of Ca2+/Cu is 0.34 V. The emf (V) and the
free energy change (kJ mol1), respectively, for a Daniel cell will be
(A) 0.42 and 81
(B) 1.1 and 213
(C) 1.1 and 213
(D) 0.42 and 81
106.
Consider the equilibria (1) and (2) with equilibrium constants K1 and K2, respectively
SO2(g) +
1
O (g)
2 2
2SO3(g)
SO3(g)
.... (1)
2SO2(g) + O2(g)
.... (2)
(B) K12 =
1
K2
(C) K22 =
1
K1
2
(D) K2 =
K 12
107.
Aqueous solution of metallic nitrate X reacts with NH4OH to form Y which dissolves in excess NH4OH.
The resulting complex is reduced by acetaldehyde to deposit the metal. X and Y, respectively, are
(A) Cs(NO3) and CsOH
(B) Zn(NO3)2 and ZnO
(C) AgNO3 and Ag2O
(D) Mg(NO3)2 and Mg(OH)2
108.
The density of eq. wt of a metal are 10.5 g cm3 and 100, respectively. The time required for a current of
3 amp to deposit a 0.005 mm thick layer of the same metal on an area of 80 cm2 is closest to
(A) 120 s
(B) 135 s
(C) 67.5 s
(D) 270 s
109.
The amount of Na2S2O3.5H2O required to completely reduce 100 mL of 0.25 N iodine solution, is
(A) 6.20 g
(B) 9.30 g
(C) 3.10 g
(D) 7.75 g
110.
In aqueous solution, [Co(H2O)6]2+ (X) reacts with molecular oxygen in the presence of excess liquor NH3
to give a new complex Y. The number of unpaired electrons in X and Y are, respectively
(A) 3, 1
(B) 3, 0
(C) 3, 3
(D) 7, 0
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 114
BIOLOGY
111.
109 bacteria were spread on an agar plate containing penicillin. After incubation overnight at 37C,
10 bacterial colonies were observed on the plate. That the colonies are likely to be resistant to penicillin
can be tested by
(A) measuring their growth rate
(B) observing the colour of the colonies
(C) checking their ability to grow on another plate containing penicillin.
(D) checking their ability to cause disease
112.
113.
Eco RI and Rsa I restriction endonucleases require 6 bp and 4 bp sequences respectively for cleavage. In
a 10 kb DNA fragment how many probable cleavage sites are present for these enzymes
(A) 0 Eco RI and 10 Rsa I
(B) 1 Eco RI and 29 Rsa I
(C) 4 Eco RI and 69 Rsa I
(D) 2 Eco RI and 39 Rsa I
114.
From an early amphibian embryo the cells that would give rise to skin in adults were transplanted into the
developing brain region of another embryo. The transplanted cells developed into brain tissue in the
recipient embryo. What do you infer from this experiment?
(A) Cell fate is permanently determined during early embryonic development.
(B) Developmental fate of donor cells is influenced by the surrounding cells.
(C) Developmental fate of donor cells is not influenced by recipient cells.
(D) Any cell which is transplanted into another embryo always develops into a brain.
115.
116.
The figure below demonstrates the growth curves of two organisms A and B growing in the same area.
What kind of relation exists between A and B?
Increase in biomass
organism A only
organism B only
organism B in presence of A
organism A in presence of B
Time
(A) Competition
(B) Symbiosis
(C) Commensalisms
(D) Mutualism
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 115
117.
A scientist has cloned an 8 Kb fragment of a mouse gene into the Eco RI site of a vector of 6 Kb size. The
cloned DNA has no other Eco RI site within. Digestions of the cloned DNA is shown below.
Which one of the following sets of DNA fragments generated by digestion with both Eco RI and Bam HI as
shown in (iii) is from the gene?
(A) 1 Kb and 4 Kb
(B) 1 Kb and 2.5 Kb
(C) 1 Kb and 3 Kb
(D) 1 Kb and 3.5 Kb
118.
Brown fat is a specialised adipose tissue with abundant mitochondria and rich blood supply. Brown fat
(A) insulates animals that are acclimatised to cold.
(B) is the major source of heat production of birds.
(C) provides energy to muscles.
(D) produces heat without producing ATP.
119.
In some species, individuals forego reproduction and help bring up another individuals offspring. Such
altruistic behaviour CANNOT be explained by which of the following?
(A) An individual helps relatives only and gets indirect genetic benefits.
(B) The individual benefits because it can later inherit the breeding position.
(C) The individual benefits because it gets access to resources, such as food and security from predators,
in return.
(D) The species benefits from a reduction in competition among offspring.
120.
Lions in India are currently restricted to Gir, Gujarat. Efforts are being made to move them to other parts
of the country. This is because they are MOST susceptible to extinction due to infectious diseases under
the following conditions when present as
(A) several small, isolated populations
(B) one large population
(C) several large, connected populations
(D) several large, isolated populations
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 116
Duration : 3 Hours
STREAM - SB/SX
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
There are Two parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each
part is as under for each correct response.
MARKING SCHEME :
PART-I :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 1 to 20 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 21 to 40 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 41 to 60 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 61 to 80 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PART-II :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 81 to 90 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 91 to 100 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 101 to 110 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 111 to 120 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
YEAR-2014 (KVPY-STREAM-SB/SX)
PART-I
One Mark Questions
MATHEMATICS
1.
Let C0 be a circle of radius 1.for n 1 , let Cn be a circle whose area equals the area of a square inscribed
in Cn-1.Then
i0
Area Ci equals :
(A) 2
2.
(B)
(C)
1
2
(D)
2
2
For a real number r we denote by [r] the largest integer less than or equal to r. If x,y are real numbers with
x,y 1 then which of the following statements is always true ?
(A) [x+y] [x]+[y]
3.
2
2
x x
(D) y y
For each positive integer n, let A n max r | 0 r n . Then the number of elements n is
1,2,3,........20
An
for which 1.9 A 2 is :
n 1
(A) 9
4.
(B) 10
(D) 12
Let b, d>0. The locus of all points P(r,) for which the line OP (where O is the origin) cuts the line rsin=b
in Q such that PQ=d is :
(A) (r d)sin b
5.
(C) 11
(B) (r d)sin b
(C) (r d)cos b
(D) (r d)cos b
Let C be the circle x2 + y2 = 1 in the xy-plane. For each t 0 , let Lt be the line passing through (0,1) and
(t,0). Note that Lt intersects C in two points, one of which is (0,1). Let Qt be the other point. As t varies
between 1 and 1 2 , the collection of points Qt sweeps out an arc on C. The angle subtended by this
are at (0,0) is :
(A)
6.
(B)
(C)
(D)
3
8
In a ellipse, its foci and the ends of its major axis are equally spaced, if the length its semi-minor axis is
(C) 10
(D) 3
Let ABC be a triangle such that AB=BC. Let F be the midpoint of AB and X be a point on BC such that
FX is perpendicular to AB. If BX=3XC then the ratio BC/AC equals :
(A)
8.
(B) 2 3
(B)
(C)
3
2
4
The number of solutions to the equation cos x
(A) 6
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1
1
1
sin4 x
in the interval 0,2 is :
2
cos x
sin2 x
(D) 0
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 117
9.
x 5
f x x 2
1
if x 2
if x 2
For a real number x let [x] denote the largest number less than or equal to x. for x R let f(x) [x]sin x .
Then :
(A) f is differentiable on R
(B) f is symmetric about the line x=0
(C)
f x dx 0
3
(D) For each real , the equation f(x)-=0 has infinitely many roots.
11.
Let f : 0, R be defined as
sin x, if x is irrational and x 0,
f x 2
tan x, if x is rational and x 0,
(D) 0
12.
1
x
(A) e f x dx 10
(B)
f x
1 x
dx 10
1
2
(D) f x dx 100
13.
For a real number x let [x] denote the largest integer less than or equal to x and {x} = x - [x]. Let n be a
n
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) n
(D) 2n-1
15.
Two persons A and B throw a (fair) die (six-faced cube with faces numbered from 1 to 6) alternately,
starting with A. The first person to get an outcome different from the previous one by the opponent wins.
The probability that B wins is :
(A) 5/6
(B) 6/7
(C) 7/8
(D) 8/9
16.
Let n 3 .A list of numbers x1,x 2 ,.........xn has mean and standard deviation . A new list of numbers
x1 x 2
x1 x 2
, y2
and y j x for j 3,4,.......n . The mean
2
2
and the standard deviation of the list are and . Then which of the following is necessarily true ?
(A) and
(B) and
(C)
(D)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 118
17.
1 1
(A) cos
2
1 1
(C) cos
3
1 1
(D) cos
3
18.
Let S = {(a,b):a,b Z,0 a,b 18}. The number of elements (x,y) in S such that 3x + 4y + 5 is divisible by
19 is :
(A) 38
(B) 19
(C) 18
(D) 1
19.
For a real number r let [r] denote the largest integer less than or equal to r. Let a > 1 be a real number
which is not an integer, and let k be the smallest positive integer such that [ak]>[a]k. then which of the
following statements is always true ?
(A) k 2 a 1
20.
(B) k a 1
(C) k 2[a ] 1
(D) k
1
1
a [a]
Let X be a set of 5 elements. The number d of ordered pairs (A,B) of subsets of X such that
A ,B ,A B satisfies :
(A) 50 d 100
(D) 201 d
PHYSICS
21.
A uniform thin rod of length 2L and mass m lies on a horizontal table. A horizontal inpulse J is given to the
rod at one end. There is no friction. The total K.E. of the rod just after the impulse will be :
(A) J2/2m
(B) J2/m
(C) 2J2/m
(D) 6J2/m
22.
A solid cylinder P rolls without slipping from rest down an inclined plane attaining a speed vp at the
bottom. Another smooth solid cyclinder Q of same mass and dimensions slides without friction from rest
vp
down the inclined plane attaining a speed vq at the bottom. The ratio of the speeds v is :
q
3
(A) 4
3
(B) 2
2
(C) 3
4
(D) 3
23.
A body moves in a circular orbit of radius R under the action of a central force. Potential due to the central
force is given by V(r) = kr (k is a positive constant). period of revolution of the body is proportional to :
(A) R1/2
(B) R-1/2
(C) R-3/2
(D) R-5/2
24.
A simple pendulum is attached to a block which slides without friction down an inclined plane (ABC)
having an angle of inclination as shown
while the block is sliding down the pendulum oscillates in such a way that at its mean position the
direction of the string is :
(A) at angle to the perpendicular to the inclined plane AC.
(B) parallel to the inclined plane AC.
(C) vertically downwards.
(D) perpendicular to the inclined plane AC.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 119
25.
Water containing air bubbles flows without turbulence through a horizontal pipe which has a region of
narrow cross- section. In this region the bubbles :
(A) move with greater speed and are smaller than in the rest of the pipe
(B) move with greater speed and are larger in size than in the rest of the pipe
(C) move with lesser speed and are smaller than in the rest of the pipe.
(D) move with lesser speed and are of the same size as in the rest of the pipe
26.
27.
Consider two thermometers T1 and T2 of equal length which can be used to measure temperature over the
range 1 to 2. T1 contains mercury as thermometric liquid while T2 contains bromine. The volumes of the
two liquids are the same at the temperature 1.The volumetric coefficients of expansion of mercury and
bromine are 18 10-5 K-1 and 108 10-5 K-1, respectively. The increase in length of each liquid is the same
for the same increase in temperature. If the diameters of the capillary tubes of the two thermometers are
d1 and d2 respectively, then the ratio d1:d2 would be closest to :
(A) 6.0
(B) 2.5
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.4
28.
An ideal gas follows aprocess described by PV2=C from (P1,V1,T1) to (P2,V2,T2)(C is a constant). Then
(A) if P1 > P2 then T2 > T1
(B) if V2 > V1 then T2 < T1
(C) if V2 > V1 then T2 > T1
(D) if P1 > P2 then V2 > V2
29.
A whistle emitting a loud sound of frequency 540 Hz is whirled in a horizontal circle of radius 2m and at a
constant angular speed of 15rad/s. The speed of sound is 330 m/s. The ratio of the highest to the lowest
frequency heard by a listener standing at rest at a large distance from the center of the circle is :
(A) 1.0
(B) 1.1
(C) 1.2
(D) 1.4
30.
Monochromatic light passes through a prism. Compares to that in air, inside the prism the lights
(A) speed and wavelength are different but frequency remains same.
(B) speed and frequency are different but wavelength remains same.
(C) frequency and wavelength are different but speed remains same.
(D) speed,wavelength and frequency are all different.
31.
The flat face of a plano-convex lens of focel length 10 cm is silvered. A point source placed 30 cm in front
of the curved surface will produce a :
(A) real image 15 cm away from the lens
(B) real image 6 cm away from the lens
(C) virtual image 15 cm away from the lens
(D) Virtual image 6 cm away from the lens
32.
Two identical metallic square loops L1 and L2 are placed next to each other with their sides parallel on a
smooth horizontal table. Loop L1 is fixed and a current which increases as a function of time is passed
through it.Then loop L2 :
(A) rotates about its center of mass
(B) moves towards L1
(C) remains stationary
(D) moves away from L1
33.
An electron enters a parallel plate capacitor with horizontal speed and is found to deflect by angle on
leaving the capacitor as shown. It is found that tan = 0.4 and gravity is negligible
(D) 1.6
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 120
34.
Consider a spherical shell of radius R with a total charge +q uniformly spread on its surface (center of the
chell lies at the origin x = 0). Two point charges, +q and -q are brought, one after the other, from far away
and placed at x = -a/2 and x = +a/2 (a<R), respectively. Magnitude of the work done in this process is :
2
(A) Q q / 4 0 a
35.
(C) q2 / 40 a
(B) zero
(D) Qq / 40 a
(C)
k 1
(B) 2 k 1 CE
k2
CE
k2
(D)
k2
CE
k2
36.
A certain p-n junction, having a depletion region of width 20 m,was found to have a breakdown voltage of
100 V.If the width of the depletion region is reduced to 1 m duringits production, then it can be used as
azener diode for voltage regulation of :
(A) 5 V
(B) 10 V
(C) 7.5 V
(D) 2000 V
37.
The Half life of a particle of mass 1.610-26 kg is 6.9 s and a stream of such particles is travelling with the
K.E. of a particle being 0.05eV. The fraction of particles which will decay when they travel a distance of
1 m is :
(A) 0.1
(B) 0.01
(C) 0.001
(D) 0.0001
38.
A 160 watt light source is radiating light of wavelength 6200 A uniformly in all directions. The photon flux
at a distance of 1.8 m is of the order of (Planks constant 6.6310-34 J-s) :
(A) 102 m-2s-1
(B) 1012 m-2s-1
(C) 1019 m-2s-1
(D) 1025 m-2s-1
39.
The wavelength of the first Balmer line caused by a transition from the n = 3 level to the n = 2 level in
hydrogen is 1 . the wavelength of the line caused by an electronic transition from n=5 to n=3 is :
(A)
40.
375
1
128
(B)
125
1
64
(C)
64
1
125
(D)
128
1
375
The binding energy per nucleon of 5 B10 is 8.0 MeV and that of 5 B11 is 7.5 MeV. The Energy required to
remove a neutron from 5 B11 is (mass of electron and proton are 9.1110-31 kg and 1.6710-27 kg) :
(A) 2.5 MeV
CHEMISTRY
41.
When 1.88 g of AgBr(s) is added to a 10-3 M aqueous solution of KBr, the concentration of Ag+ is
510-10 M. If the same amount of AgBr(s) is added to a 10-2 M aqueous solution of AgNO3, the concentration
of Br- is:
(A) 9.4 10-9 M
(B) 5 10-10 M
(C) 1 10-11 M
(D) 5 10-11 M
42.
NH2
NH 2
Br
Br
(A)
Br
Br
Br
NH2
Br
Br
(B)
(C)
Br
(D)
Br
Br
Br
Br
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 121
43.
The Metal with the highest oxidation state present in K2CrO4, NbCl5 and MnO2 is :
(A) Nb
(B) Mn
(C) K
(D) Cr
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
(D) Na
I
ln k
II
1/T
Ni(CO)4 is :
(A) tetrahedral and paramagnetic
(C) tetrahedral and diamagnetic
1. ozonolysis
2. OH
O
O
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
O
49.
OH
H
HO
H
OH
OH
CH2OH
CHO
(A)
HO
HO
HO
OH
OH
CH2OH
(B)
H
OH
HO
HO
H
CH2 OH
CHO
CHO
(C)
OH
HO
HO
OH
H
HO
CH2OH
(D)
H
OH
H
HO
H
OH
CH2OH
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 122
50.
In a cubic close packed structure, fractional contributions of an atom at the corner and at the face in the
unit cell are, respectively :
(A) 1/8 and 1/2
(B) 1/2 and 1/4
(C) 1/4 and 1/2
(D) 1/4 and 1/8
51.
The equilibrium constant Kc of the reaction 2A B C is 0.5 at 25C and i atm. The reaction will
proceed in the backward direction when concentrations [A], [B] and [C] are respectively :
(A) 10-3, 10-2 and 10-2 M
(B) 10-1, 10-2 and 10-2 M
(C) 10-2, 10-2 and 10-3 M
(D) 10-2, 10-3 and 10-3 M
52.
Major products formed in the reaction of t-butyl methyl ether with HI are :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
53.
If the molar conductivities (in S cm2 mol-1) of NaCl, KCl and NaOH at infinite dilution are 126, 150 and 250
respectively, the molar conductivity of KOH (in S cm2 mol-1) :
(A) 526
(B) 226
(C) 26
(D) 274
54.
4-Formylbenzoic acid on treatment with one equivalent of hydraine followed by heating with alcoholic
KOH gives the major product :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
55.
Two elements, X and Y, have atomic numbers 33 and 17 respectively. The milecular formula of a stable
compound formed between then is
(A) XY
(B) XY2
(C) XY3
(D) XY4
56.
The number of moles of KMnO4 required to oxidize one equivalent of Kl in the presence of sulfuric acid
is
(A) 5
(B) 2
(C) 1/2
(D) 1/5
57.
Three successive measurements in an experiment gave value 10.9, 11.4042 and 11.42 the correct way
of reporting the average value is
(A) 11.2080
(B) 11.21
(C) 11.2
(D) 11
58.
The latent heat of melting of ice at 0 C is 6 kJ mol-1. The entropy change during the melting in J K-1 is
closest to
(A) 22
(B) 11
(C) -11
(D) -22
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 123
59.
is
60.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
The energies of dxy and d2z orbitals in octahedral and tetrahedral transition metal complexes are such that
(A) E (dxy) > E (dz2) in both tetrahedral and octahedral complexes
(B) E (dxy) < E (dz2) in both tetrahedral and octahedral complexes
(C) E (dxy) > E (dz2) in tetrahedral abut E (dxy) < E (dz2) in octahedral complexes
(D) E (dxy) < E (dz2) in tetrahedral abut E (dxy) < E (dz2) in octahedral complexes
BIOLOGY
61.
In which of the following types of glands is the decretion collected inside the cell and discharged by
disintegration of intire gland ?
(A) Apocrine
(B) Merocrine
(C) Holocrine
(D) Epicrine
62.
(D) Diencephalon
63.
64.
65.
66.
Forelimbs of whales,bats,humans and cheetah are examples of which of the following processes?
(A) Divergent evolution (B) Convergent evolution (C) Adaptation
(D) Saltation
67.
68.
(D) Recombination
In an experiment investigating photoperiodic response, the leaves of a plant are removed.what is the most
likely outcome ?
(A) Photoperiodism is not affected
(B) Photoperiodic response does not occur
(C) The plant starts flowering
(D) The plant starts to grow taller
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 124
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
(D) transversion
(C) Dengue
75.
Name the terminal acceptor of electrons in the mitochondrial electron transport chain :
(A) Nitrate
(B) Fumarate
(C) Succinate
(D) Oxygen
76.
Two tubes labeled Pand Q contain food stuff. Tube Pgave positive test with Benedicts solution while
tube Q gave positive test with Nitric acid. Which of the foloowing is correct ?
(A) Tube P contains sugar;tube Q contains protein
(B) Tube P contains protein;tube Q contains sugar
(C) Both tube P and tube Q contain sugar
(D) Both tube P and tube Q contain protein
77.
How many linear DNA fragments will be produced when a circular plasmid is digested with a restriction
enzyme having 3 sites ?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 2
78.
If the humidity of the atmosphere suddenly increases substantially, the water flow in the xylem will :
(A) increase
(B) decrease
(C) remain unaltered
(D) increase sharply and then reduce slowiny to the pre-existing level
79.
Which one of the following is the complementary sequence for the DNA with 5-CGTACTA-3
(A) 5-TAGTACG-3
(B) 5-ATCATGC-3
(C) 5-UTCUTGC-3
(D) 5-GCUAGCA-3
80.
A diploid plant has 14 chromosomes,but its egg cell has 6 chromosomes. Which one of the following is
the most likely explanation of this ?
(A) Non-disjunction in meiosis I and II
(B) Non-disjunction in meiosis I
(C) Non-disjunction in meiosis
(D) Normal meiosis
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 125
PART-II
Two Mark Questions
MATHEMATICS
81.
Let n 3 be an integer. For a permutation =(a1,a2,....an) of (1,2,...,n) we let f (x) = anxn-1+an1+...+a x+a .Let S
be the sum of the roots of f (x) = 0 and let S denote the sum over all permutation
2
1
of (1,2,....,n) of the number S . Then
(A) S < -n!
(B) -n! < S < 0
(C) 0 < S < n!
(D) n! < S
82.
If n is a positive integer and 1 is a cube root of unity, the number of possible values of
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
n k
is
k
ek 0
(D) 6
83.
Suppose a parabola y = ax2 + bx + c has two x intercepts one positive and one negative, and its vertex
is (2,2). Then which of the following is true
(A) ab > 0
(B) bc > 0
(C) ca > 0
(D) a + b + c > 0
84.
Let n 3 and let C1, C2,....Cn, be circles with radii r1,r2,...,rn, respectively. Assume that Ci and Ci+1 touch
externally for 1 i n-1. It is also given that the x-axis and the line y = 2 2 x+10 are tangential to each
of the circles. Then r1,r2,.....,rn are in
(A) An arithmetic progression with common difference 3+ 2
(B) A geometric progression with common ratio 3+ 2
(C) An arithetic progression with common diffrence 2+ 3
(D) A geometric progression with common ratio 2+ 3
85.
86.
The under of integers n for which 3x3 - 25x+n = 0 has three real roots is
(A) 1
(B) 25
(C) 55
An ellipse inscribed in a semi-circle touches the circular are at two distinct points and also touches the
bounding diameter. its major axis is parallel to the bounding diameter. When the ellipse has the maximum possible area, its eccentricity is
(A)
(B)
2
/ 2
87.
Let In =
/2
(A) e 1
88.
(D) Infinite
1
2
(C)
(D)
2
3
I
cos x dx, where n is a non negative int eger . Then n 2 n n 2 equal
n! (n 2)!
(B) e / 2 1
/2
(C) e
(D) e /2
For a real number x let [x] denote the largest integer less than or equal to x. The smallest positive
n
[x][
x ]dx exceeds 60 is
(A) 8
89.
(C) 10
(D) [602/3]
Choose a number n uniformly at random from the set {1,2,...100}. Choose one of the first seven days of
the year 2014 at random and consider n consencutive days among the chosen n days, the number of
Sunday is different from the number of Mondays?
(A)
90.
(B) 9
1
2
(B)
2
7
(C)
12
49
(D)
43
175
Lets S = {(a,b)}Ia,b Z, 0 a,b, 18}. The number of lines in R2 passing through (0,0) and exactly one
other point in S is
(A) 16
(B) 22
(C) 28
(D) 32
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 126
PHYSICS
91.
A solid sphere spinning about a horizontal axis with an angular velocity is placed on a horizontal
surface. Subsequently it rolls without slipping with an angular velocity of
(A) 2 /5
(B) 7 /5
(C) 2 /7
(D)
92.
A horizontal force F is applied to a block X of mass 8 kg such that the block Y of mass 2kg adjacent to
it does not slip downwards under gravity. There is no friction between the horizontal plane and the base
of the block X. The coefficient of friction between the surfaces of blocks X and Y is 0.5. Take acceleration
due to gravity to be 10ms-2. The minimum value of F is
(A) 200N
(B) 160N
(C) 40N
(D) 240N
93.
The maximum value attained by the tension in the string of a swinging pendulum is four times the
minimum value it attains. There is no slack in the string. The angular amplitude of the pendulum is
(A) 90
(B) 60
(C) 45
(D) 30
94.
One mole of a monoatomic ideal gas is expanded by a process described by PV3 = C where C is a
constant. The heat capacity of the gas during the process is given by (R is the gas constant)
5
3
R
(C) R
(D) R
2
2
A concave mirror of radius of curvature R has a circular outline of radius r. A circular disk is to be placed
normal to the axis at the focus so that it collects all the light that is reflected from the mirror from a beam
parallel to the axis. for r<<R, the area of this disc has to be at least
(A) 2R
95.
(A)
96.
(B)
r 4
4R 2
(C)
r 5
4R 3
(D)
r 4
R2
The angles of incidence and refraction of a monochromatic ray of light of wavelength at an air glass
inteface are i and r, respectively. A parallel beam of light with a small spread in wavelenth about a
mean wavelenth is refracted at the same air-glass interface. The refractive index of glass depends
on the wavelength as ( ) = a+b/ 2where a and b are constant. Then the angular spread in the angle
of refraction of the beam is
(A)
97.
r 6
4R 4
(B)
sin i
cosr
3
(B)
2b
(C)
2b tanr
a 3 b
(D)
2b(a b / 2 )sin i
What are the charges stored in the 1 F and 2 F capacitors in the circuit below, once the currents
s
become steady?
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 127
98.
A 1.5 KW (kilo-watt) laser beam of wavelength 6400 A is used to levitate a thin aluminium disk of same
area as the cross section of the beam. The laser light is reflected by the aluminium disk without any
absorption. The mass of the foil is close to
(A) 10-9 kg
(B) 10-3 kg
(C) 10-4 kg
(D) 10-6 kg
99.
When ultraviolet radiation of a certain frequency falls on a potassium target, the photoelectrons released
can be stopped competely by a retarding potential of 0.6 V. If the frequency of the radiation is increased
by 10%, this stopping potential rises to 0.9V. The work functin of potassium is
(A) 2.0eV
(B) 2.4eV
(C) 3.0eV
(D) 2.8 eV
100.
The dimensions of stefan-Boltzmann constant can be written in terms of Plancks constanth Boltzmann
constant KB and the speed of light c as = h KBC. Here
(A) = 3, = 4 and = -3
(B) = 3, = -4 and = 2
(C) = -3, = 4 and = -2
(D) = 2, = -3 and = -1
101.
101.
CHEMISTRY
In the raction sequence
X and Y are,respectively
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
102.
The density of acetic acid vapor at 300 K and 1 atm is 5 mg cm-3. The number of acetic acid molecules
in the cluster that is formed in the gas phase is closest to
(A) 5
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
103.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 128
104.
105.
Given that the bond energies of : N N is946 kJ mol-1 H-H is 435 kJ mol-1,N-N is 159kJ mol-1, and N-H is
389 kJ mol-1, the heat of formation of hydrazine in the gas phase in kJ mol-1 is
(A) 833
(B) 101
(C) 334
(D) 1264
106.
The radius of K+ is 133 pm and that of Cl- is 181 pm. The volume of the unit cell of KCl expressed in
10-22 cm3 is
(A) 0.31
(B) 1.21
(C) 2.48
(D) 6.28
107.
The reaction, K2Cr2O7 + m FeSO4 + n H2SO4 Cr2(SO4)3 + p Fe2(SO4)3+K2SO4 + q H2O when balanced,
m, n, p,and q are, respectively
(A) 6,14,3,14
(B) 6,7,3,7
(C) 3,7,2,7
(D) 4,14,2,14
108.
The standard free energy change (in J) for the reaction 3Fe2+(aq) + 2Cr (s) 2Cr3+(aq) + 3Fe(s), given
0
0
EFe
2
/ Fe = 0.44 V and ECr 3 / Cr = 0.74 V is (F = 96500C)
(A) 57,900
109.
110.
(B) 57,900
(C) 173,700
(D) 173,700
Calcium butanoate on heating followed by tratment with 1,2-ethanediol in the presence of catalytic amount
of acid, produces a major product which is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
XeF6 on complete hydrolysis yields X. The molecular formula of X and its geometry, respectively, are
(A) XeO2 and linear
(B) XeO3 and trigonal planar
(C) XeO3 and pyramidal
(D) XeO4 and tetrahedral
BIOLOGY
111.
Following the cell cycle scheme given below, what is the probability that a cell would be in M-Phase at
any given time ?
(A) 1/24
(B) 1/12
(C) 1/6
(D) 1/2
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 129
112.
A flower with Tt genotype is cross-pollinated by TT pollens. What will the genotypes of the resulting
endosperm and embro,respectively, be?
(A) TTT,(TT+Tt)
(B) (TTT+TTt),TT
(C) TTt,Tt
(D) TTt,(TT+Tt)
113.
A new life from discovered on a distant has a genetic code consisting of five unique nucleotides and only
one stop codon.If each codon has four bases,what is the maximum number of unique amino acids this life
from can use ?
(A) 624
(B) 20
(C) 124
(D) 3124
114.
A spontaneous mulation results in a couple having only female progeny.when the daughter marries and
has children,none of them are males.However,in the third generation there are few male offspring. What is
the most likely explanation of this observation ?
(A) The mutation reverses spontaneously in the third generation
(B) The mutation occurs on the X chromosome and is both recessive and ethal
(C) The mutation occurs on the X chromosome and is both recessive and dominant
(D) The mutation occurs on an autosome and is dominant
115.
A circular plasmid of 10,000 base pairs (bp) is digested with two restriction enzymes,A and B, to produce
a 3000 bp and a 2000 bp bands when visualised on an agarose gel. when digested with one enzyme at a
time,only one band is visible at 5000 bp. If the first site for enzyme A(A1) is present at the 100th base, the
order in which the remaining sites(A2,B1 and B2) are present is :
(A) 3100,5100,8100
(B) 8100,3100,5100
(C) 5100,3100,8100
(D) 8100,5100,3100
116.
After meiosis-II,daughter cells differ from the parent cells and each other in their genotypes. This can
occur because of which one of the following mechanism(s)?
(A) Only synaptic
(B) Only crossing over and independent assortment of chromosomes
(C) only crossing over and chromosomal segregation
(D) crossing over, independent assortment and segregation and chromosomes
117.
A desert lizard (an ectotherm) and a mouse (an endotherm) are placed inside a chamber at 15C and their
body temperatures [T(L) for the lizard and T(M) for the mouse] and metabolic rates [M(L) for the lizard and
M(M) for the mouse] are monitored. Which one of the following is correct ?
(A) T(L) and M(L) will fall while T(M) M(M) will increase
(B) T(L) and M(L) will increase while T(M) and M(M) will fall
(C) T(L) and M(L) will fall, T(M) will remain same and M(M) will increase
(D) T(L) and M(L) will remain same and T(M) and M(M) will decrease
118.
119.
Human height is a multigenic charecter. If the Heights of all the individuals living in a metropoils are
measured and he percentages of the population belonging to a specific height are plotted as shown
below,which of the plots would represent the most realistic distribution ?
(A)
120.
(B)
(C)
(D)
If mitochondria isolated from a cell are first placed without carbon source in a buffer at pH 8.0 and then
transferred to a buffer at pH 4, it will lead to
(A) an increase in intra-mitochondrial acidity
(B) a decrease in intra-mitochondrial acidity
(C) blockage of ATP synthesis
(D) synthesis os ATP
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 130
10
11
Ans.
D
16
B
17
C
18
C
19
D
20
D
21
A
22
B
23
B
24
A
25
Que s.
26
27
28
29
30
Ans.
Que s.
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
A
41
D
42
B
43
A
44
A
45
Ans.
B
46
B
47
B
48
D
49
D
50
C
51
D
52
B
53
B
54
A
55
D
56
C
57
A
58
59
D
60
B
61
C
62
B
63
C
64
B
65
A
66
B
67
B
68
A
69
B
70
C
71
A
72
A
73
C
74
B
75
C
76
B
77
A
78
B
79
C
80
D
81
D
82
D
83
C
84
C
85
C
86
A
87
B
88
B
89
C
90
Ans.
B
Que s. 91
A
Ans.
Que s. 106
C
Ans.
A
92
D
B
93
D
C
94
A
A
95
C
B
96
D
B
97
A
C
98
A
A
99
C
A
100
D
B
101
B
A
102
D
C
103
A
B
104
B
B
105
D
107
C
108
D
109
B
110
B
111
C
112
A
113
A
114
D
115
D
116
B
117
A
118
A
119
A
120
B
Que s.
Ans.
Que s.
Ans.
Que s.
12
13
14
15
PART-I (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1.
2
1
x2 x3
1
2
r 7
General term = ( 1) Cr x
Tr + 1
r 7
= ( 1) Cr
r 7
= ( 1) Cr
r 7
= ( 1) Cr
r 7
= ( 1) Cr
7 r
2
3
x
7 r 2r
x 2 x3
7 r 2r
x 2 3
213r 4r
x 6
21r
x 6
21 r
=4
6
21 + r = 24
r = 24 21
r=3
= ( 1)3 7C3
T3 + 1
=1
765
32
= 35.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 131
z
2.
z
z = 1 and | z | = 1
Let
z = x + iy
Then,
z = x iy
x2 y2 = 1
|z|=
x2 + y2 = 1
or
x iy x iy
x iy x iy = 1
x 2 y 2 2ixy x 2 y 2 2ixy
x2 y2
2( x 2 y 2 )
x2 y2
=1
=1
2x2 2y2 = x2 + y2
x2 = 3y2
x=
Now,
3y
x +y =1
3y2 + y2 = 1
4y2 = 1
2
y2 =
1
4
y=
Then, x =
1
2
3
2
1
1
1
1
3
3
3
3
+i ,z=
i ,z=
+ i and z =
i .
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
Let A 1 = B
Therefore AB =
35 37
1 0
A
=
41 43
0 1
R1
R1
35
37
1 35
35 0
A
= 0 1
41 43
R 2 R 2 41R1
37
1 35
35 0
12 = 41
A
0
1
35
35
R2
35
R2
12
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 132
0
37
35
1
35 = 41
35
A
0 1
12
12
R1 R1
37
R2
35
43
12
1
0
A
= 41
0 1
12
43
12
A = 41
12
37
12
35
12
37
12
35
12
43 37
12 A =
41 35
4.
Given :
2
6
n 1
1 3 5 ... ( 2n 1)
n 1
23 3 3 ..... n3
n2
n (n 1)
2
n 1
(n 1)
n 1
1 2
n 1
n
n 1
......... 1
3
2
4 6 1 .
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 133
5.
4ax2 + xy + 4y2 = 0
m1 + m2 =
2h
b
m1 + m2 =
1
4
m 1m 2 =
a
b
4a
=a
4
Given : m2 = m12
m 1m 2 =
1
4
4m12 + 4m1 = 1
4m12 + 4m1 + 1 = 0
(2m1 + 1)2
=0
m 1 + m 12 =
1
2
m1 m2 = a
m1 m12 = a
m 13 = a
m1 =
1
=a
2
a=
6.
1
.
8
y = 2x2 + x 2
A
t1 t 2
= 0 t1 + t2 = 0
2
2t 1 t 1 2 2t 2 t 2 2
=0
2
2(t12 + t22) + (t1 + t2) 4 = 0
2[(t1 + t2)2 2t1t2] + 0 4 = 0
2[0 2t1t2] = 4
4t1t2 = 4
t1 t2 = 1
(t1 t2)2 = (t1 + t2)2 4t1t2
= 0 4( 1)
=4
t1 t2 = 2.
Distance AB :
2
AB =
( t 1 t 2 ) 2 ( 2t 1 t 1 2 2t 2 t 2 2)2
AB =
( t1 t 2 )2 2( t1 t 2 ) ( t1 t 2 )
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 134
AB =
( 2)2 2( t 1 t 2 )( t1 t 2 ) ( t 1 t 2 )
AB =
4 2(0) ( 2)
AB =
44 =
8=2 2.
7.
0, c
4
3x
+
4y
+
c
=
1 (1, 1)
1
1
c , 0
3
Perperndicular from (1, 1) on line 3x + 4y + c = 0
34c
=1
9 16
|7+c|=5
7+c= 5
c=57
c = 12
| c | = 12.
8.
R
P
p cos2 + r cos2
2
2
s(s r )
s(s p)
+r
pq
qr
s
[s r + s p]
q
s
[2s r p]
q
s
[p + q + r r p]
q
=s
=
9.
pqr
.
2
4sin4x + 4sin2x 1 = 0
4sin4 4sin2x + 1 = 0
(2 sin2x 1)2 = 0
2sin2x = 1
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 135
sin2x =
sinx =
1
2
1
2
sin x has 4 solution in the interval [0, 2].
10.
1
1
sin1
4
2
sin2 =
1
4
2sincos =
1
4
1
8
Value of : 64sin + 64cos 8sec 8cosec + tan + cot
sincos =
sin cos
= 64(sin + cos) 8
+
cos sin sin cos
sin cos
1
+
= 64(sin + cos) 8
sin cos sin cos
(sin cos )
+8
1/ 8
= 64(sin + cos) 64 (sin + cos) + 8
= 8.
= 64(sin + cos) 8
11.
lim
1
1
1
2
n
x 0 x sin x sin 2 .... x sin n
L = nlim
x
x
x
1
1
1
lim x sin lim x 2 sin 2 ......... lim x n sin n
L = nlim
x 0
x 0
x x 0
x
x
L = nlim
0 0 0 .......... . 0
L=0
12.
x 3
for x 1
f(x) = 2
ax bx c for x 1
f(x) = 3x2 = 2ax + b
[f(x)] x = 1 = 6x = 2a
6 = 2a
a = 3.
13.
f(x) = x3 3ax2 + b
f(x) = 3x2 6ax
For the f(x) to be increasing f(x) > 0.
3x2 6ax > 0
3x (x 2a) > 0
(x 2a) > 0
[ x > 0]
x > 2a
So, a 0.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 136
14.
xcos 2 x xdx
1
= cos 2 x 1dx +
2 cos 2 x 2dx
15.
sin 2 x 1
2
4
[1 0] [1 0]
6
.
sin 2 x 2
+ 2
Let A =
1
{(2n + 1) (2n + 2) ------- (2n + n)}1/n
n
log A =
( 2n n)
( 2n 1) ( 2n 2) ( 2n 3 )
1
.....
lim log
n
n
n
n
n n
log A =
1
2
2
n
1 lim
log 2 n 2 n 2 n ..... 2 n
n
log A =
log( 2 x )dx
0
V1 + V2 + V3 = 0
V1 V2 = ?
V1 V2 = V3
V V . V V = V . V
1
V1
+ V2 + 2V2 . V2 = V3
1 + 1 + 2V2 . V2 = 1
2V2 . V2 = 1
V2 . V2 =
1
2
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 137
V1 V2
= V1
+ V2 2 V1 . V2
1
2
=1+1+1=3
=1+12
V1 V2
=3
V1 V2 =
17.
18.
3.
4
10
2
.
5
a + b + c = even
Case 1 : All taken are even : 5C3 = 10
Case 2 : One even + 2 odd : 5C1 5C2 = 50
Total = 10 + 50 = 60.
19.
x
y = 4.
20.
PHYSICS
21.
22.
E = 13.6
z2
n
= 13.6
4
= 54.4eV Ans (D)
1
2E
23.
E
VFB
deflected in x direction (Ans.B)
P
P1
I
25.
P2
45
90
I
2
initensity after P2
I = Icos245 =
I2 =
I1
I
cos245 = Ans : B
2
4
26.
27.
1
1
1
R.z 2 2 2
n1 n2
So,
28.
1
will be same for deuterium as that for hydrogen.
Bulk modulus, B =
P
V
As in isothermal process, PV = K
On differentiating, PdV + VdP = 0
V
P
V
P
P
Hence B = P = P
P
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 139
29.
2
From brewsters law tan =
1
30.
and
g [MLT 2 ] [L1T 2 ]
[ML3 ]
[L]
1/ 2
= [L2T2]
(dimension of v2)
2 [M1L1T 2 ][L1]
= [L2T2]
[L][ML3 ]
Only (A) option is correct dimensionally
33.
As v & d depends on frame of referance but change in KE and hence heat does not depend.
V
34.
V>> 2gr
36.
2v
C
2v
2v
vB = v0 1
c
vC = vo 1
v
c
2v cos
VA = V0 1
VA > VC > VB
(Answer : C)
37.
38.
Ein = 0 Eout =
(Ans : D)
KQ
r2
KQ
KQ
= const.
Vout =
R
r
X is for electric field versus distance graph
Y is for potential versus distance graph
Ans. is (B)
Vin =
kq
39.
Enet = 2
Enet =
( x y 2 )3 / 2
[ x]
2kq
x2
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 140
CHEMISTRY
41.
42.
O
O
43.
H3O+
sp3 hybridisation, due to presence of 1 p
structure is trigonal pyramidal.
45.
46.
47.
Dipole moment = e d
F
Be
=0
48.
[NiCl4]2 is tetrahedral.
50.
mvr =
51.
(A) both valencies of one double bonded C-atom are occupied by the same group (H).
52.
p-nitrophenol
I & M
nh
2
where n = 1, 2, 3 -------
-o-nitrophenol
I & M ( intramolecular H-bond)
CH2 O COR
54.
(A) CH O COR
m-nitrophenol
I
CH2 OH
+ 3NaOH
CH2 O COR
3RCOONa + CH OH
Salt of fatty acid
CH2 OH
glycerol
55.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 141
56.
(C) Zn/NaOH
2
58.
NO2
Zn/NaOH
N=N
OH
COOH
59.
(C)
60.
& M
& M
PART-II (2 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
81.
ab = 2 (a + b)
ab 1
ab
2
1 1 1
a b 2
...... (i)
bc = 3( b + c)
bc 1
bc
3
1 1 1
b c 3
...... (ii)
ca = 4( c + a)
ca 1
ca
4
1 1 1
c a 4
...... (iii)
...... (iv)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 142
24
5
24
7
So, value of 5a + 7b + c
= 24 + 24 + 24 = 72.
82.
x2 + ax + b = 0
+ = a, = b
x4 + ax3 + cx2 + dx + e = 0
Roots are + , , + and
Sum of roots = a
+ + + = a
a = 0 + = 0
Sum of roots taken two at a time = + c
( + ) ( ) + ( ) ( + ) + ( + )( ) + ( ) ( + ) + ( + ) ( + ) + ( )
( + ) = c
0 ( + )2 + 0 + 0 + 0 ( + )2 = c
2( )2 = c
2[2 + 2 2] = c
2[( + )2 2 2] = c
2[ 4] = c
c = 8
c = 8b 0
Product of roots taken three at a time = d
( + ) ( ) ( + ) + ( + ) ( + )( ) + ( ) ( + ) + ( + ) ( + ) ( + ) ( +
) = d
0+0+0+0=d
d=0
Product of roots = e
( + )( )( + )( ) = e
e=0
So, c = 0 is the false statement
83.
y = 3x
Q
y = 2x
P
O
PQ = 5
Let point Q is (x, 3x)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 143
2x 3 x
=5
4 1
x= 5 5
Therefore point Q is ( 5 5 , 15 5 )
2
OQ =
5 5 15 5
125 1125
1250
= 25 2
In OPQ
OQ2 = OP2 + PQ2
25 2
= OP2 + (5)2
1250 25 = OP2
OP2 = 1225
OP = 35 cm.
84.
s(s b)
(s a )(s c )
cot
B
=
2
cot
s(s c )
C
=
(
s
a)(s b)
2
cot
s(s b)
(s a)(s c )
B
C
cot
=
2
2
s(s c )
(s a)(s b)
s 2 (s b)(s c )
cot
B
C
cot
=
2
2
cot
B
C
cot
=
2
2
cot
s
B
C
cot
=
sa
2
2
(s a)2 (s b)(s c )
s2
( s a) 2
Given : b + c = 3a
s=
a 3a
abc
=
= 2a.
2
2
cot
2a
2a
B
C
cot
=
=
= 2.
2
a
a
a
2
2
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 144
85.
C
F
E
Given : AE = EF = FC =
AC
3
Let,
AB = BC = CD = DA = x
Then,
AC =
2x
Let BE = a
In AEB
2x 2
x 2 a2
9
cos 45 =
2x
2
.x
3
11x 2
a2
9
1
= 2 2x 2
2
3
2x 2
11x 2
=
a2
3
9
a2 =
11x 2
2x 2
9
3
a2 =
11x 2 6 x 2
5x 2
=
9
9
a=
5
x
3
Similarily BF = a =
5x
.
3
In BEF
BE = BF =
and
EF =
5x
3
2x
3
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 145
cos =
BE 2 BF 2 EF 2
2BE BF
5 x 2 5 x 2 2x 2
9
9
9
cos =
5x
5x
2
3
3
8x 2
9
cos =
10 x 2
9
tan =
86.
D
8
4
= .
10
5
3
.
4
x
2007
2007
2007
or x =
6
2
d2 v
2007
dx 2 2007 = 24
16056
x
6
6
2007
669
=
cm.
6
2
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 146
87.
S = y2 4x
S (0, 2) = 4, S (1/2, 5/2) = 25/4 2 = 17/4, S (5/2, 9/2) = 81/4 20/2 = 41/4 and S (1, 3) = 9 4 = 5
It is clear that (0, 2) is closest to parabola y2 = 4x.
88.
or
2
or
2
I<0
J<0
I<0
J>0
J<0
1
1
1
z1 z 2 z 3
= z1 z2 z3
= |z1 + z2 + z3|.
90.
PHYSICS
91.
Rotational inertia does not depend on speed so rotational inertia of the cylinder about its axis will be
1
MR2.
2
92.
v
330
= 125 Hz
4 4 66 10 2
n1 : n2 : n3 ....... = 1 : 3 : 5 ...........
So, possible frequencies are
125, 375, 675, 875, 1125 (> 1kHz)
So only possible frequenceies are 3.
93.
At a depth d,
........(i)
g = g 1
R
and = 1
1
d
(1 )
= 2
= (1+ ) (1 d/R) = 1 1
2
2R
g
g(1 d / R)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 147
94.
95.
6 10 7
2 10 6
0.3 = 17
96.
sin =
LC
=
4
2
0 A
C = (d a a / )
r
But of metal, r =
0 A
(d a)
So, C =
97.
Amax = g
A2 = g
Amax =
98.
g
4 2 f 2
dE
105
dZ
99.
F = P
dE
= 107 105 = 102 N
dZ
So, E(r) =
kz e
r2
ze r
r3
ze 1
r
2 3
4 0 r
R
r<R
Q = cPT
f
= 1 RT = 1 PV
2
2
Q
10.61
1 =
2
PdV
1.01 10 5 3 10 5
f = 4.3
So, gas is a mixture of mono and diatomic molecules.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 148
CHEMISTRY
101.
Br2
H C Br
H C Br
CH2 CH3
CH2Br
H C Br
Br C H
CH2CH3
/////////////////////////
CH2Br
Br
/////////////////////////
Br
*
*
CH2 CH CH CH2 CH3
Br
Br
CH2Br
Br C H
Br C H
CH2 CH3
CH2Br
Br C H
H C Br
CH2CH3
102.
V
2
4.91 = 4.76 + log 10 x
0.1x
10 x
2
0.15 = log
0.1x
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 149
104.
1
105.
106.
V
according to question
given potential energy = kinetic energy
1
eV = mv2
----- (1)
2
P2
eV =
[ P = mv]
2m
h2
h
eV = 2
[ p = ]
2m
2
h
2 =
2meV
h
=
2meV
e, m, h are constants
1
so
V
Tb =
1000 K b w 0
mW
Tb m
w0
= 1000K
W
b
---------------- (i)
Po Ps
w
M
= 0
------(ii)
Po
W
m
w0
= by equation (i)
W
so we can calculate relative lowering of V.P. of water by equation (ii)
n
ST
V
But V is unknown, so we cant find out the value of osmotic pressure.
osmotic pressure =
1000 K f w o
mW
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 150
107.
But value of Kf is not given so we cant calculate the magnitude of freezing point depression.
Test of Nitrogen
Organic compound
no ppt.
Nitrogen
Fused with Na + FeSO4
observed
absent
+ FeCl3
Test of sulphur
Organic compound fused
violet
S present
with Na + sodium nitroprusside colour
observed
Thus according to question organic compound contains sulphur only.
NH2
108.
CH3
NHCOCH3
(CH3CO)2O
CH3
NH COCH3
Br2/CH3COOH
(I)
CH3
Br
(II)
H2O/H+
NH2
CH3
Br
(III)
*****
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 151
10
11
12
13
14
15
Ans.
D
17
A
18
D
19
C
20
C
21
B
22
C
23
C
24
B
25
Que s.
A
16
26
27
28
29
30
Ans.
Que s.
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
A
42
C
43
B
44
B
45
Ans.
C
46
A
47
B
48
D
49
B
50
D
51
C
52
D
53
A
54
D
55
D
56
B
57
B
58
B
59
A
60
B
61
A
62
A
63
C
64
A
65
D
66
C
67
B
68
D
69
A
70
B
71
A
72
D
73
B
74
B
75
A
76
C
77
A
78
A
79
D
80
B
81
C
82
B
83
C
84
B
85
A
86
C
87
B
88
B
89
C
90
B
Que s. 91
B
Ans.
Que s. 106
B
Ans.
A
92
A
B
93
C
C
94
B
B
95
A
B
96
C
A
97
D
A
98
B
D
99
D
D
100
D
D
101
D
C
102
C
C
103
B
C
104
A
A
105
A
107
A
108
C
109
D
110
A
111
D
112
D
113
B
114
A
115
C
116
A
117
B
118
D
119
A
120
C
Que s.
Ans.
Que s.
Ans.
Que s.
Ans.
PART-I (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1.
Sol.
z = a ib
It is given : z2 = z
(a + ib)2 = a ib
a2 b2 + i 2ab = a ib
a2 b2 = a and 2ab = b
2ab + b = 0
b(2a + 1) = 0
b = 0 or a =
When b = 0,
So,
1
2
a2 b2 = a
a2 0 = a
a (a 1) = 0
a = 0, or a = 1
2
1 1
1
When a =
, b2 =
2
2
2
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 152
1
1
b2 =
4
2
1
1 3
+ =
4
2 4
b2 =
3
2
z = 0 + 0i or 1 + 0i
z=
b=
1
1
3
3
+i.
or
i
2
2
2
2
There will be four solutions possible.
2.
x 1
x 1
2/3
1/ 3
x 1 x x 1/ 2
x
10
( x 2 / 3 x1/ 3 1)
x1/ 2 ( x1/ 2 1)
(x
x
1/ 3
1) (1 x 1 / 2 )
10
10
10
1/ 3
x 1 / 2
General Term
Tr + 1
10 r r
3
2
10 r r
=0
3
2
10 r r
3
2
20 2r = 3r
5r = 20
r = 4.
10!
So, independent term = ( 1)4 10C4 = 4!6! = 210.
3.
a a2
a3 1
b b2
b3 1
c c2
c3 1
a a2
a3
a a2
b b
b b
c c
c c
=0
1 a a2
abc
1 b b2
1 c c2
=0
a a2 1
1
b b2 1
c c2 1
=0
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 153
1 a a2
abc
1 b b
a 1 a2
1 c c2
+1
1 a a2
abc
1 b b
c 1 c2
=0
1 a a2
1 c c2
b 1 b2
1 b b2
1 c c2
=0
1 a a2
1 b b2
1 c c2
4.
(abc 1) = 0
abc = 1.
ax2 6xy + y2 = 0
m1 + m2 =
2h
b
m1 + m2 =
6
1
m 1m 2 =
a
b
a
=a
1
Given : m2 = m12
m 12 + m 1 6 = 0
(m1 + 3) (m1 2) = 0
m1 = 3 and m1 = 2
and
m 1m 2 = a
m1 m12 = a
m 13 = a
a is positive, so a = (2)3 = 8.
m 1m 2 =
5.
x2 + 4y2 =1
....(i)
2
2
4x + y = 4
y2 = 4 4x2
Substitute the value of y2 in equation (i)
x2 + 4(4 4x2) = 1
x2 + 16 16x2 = 1
16 1 = 15x2
15 = 15x2
x2 = 1
x=1
y2 = 4 4x2
= 4 4(1)
y2 = 0
y=0
(1, 0) and ( 1, 0) are two common point.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 154
6.
(0, b)
y=
x2
a2
y2
b2
( a, 0)
1.
(0, b)
a
1 2
a = 4
3
Area of ellipse =
b
a 2 x 2 dx
a
a
1
x
b x
a 2 x 2 a 2 sin 1
=4
2
a 0
a 2
2
1 2
b a
a = 4
3
a 4
b 1
a 3
7.
1
1
3
e=
b
1
a
PD =
PA PB
18 2
=
=9
PC
4
8
2 2
=
.
9
3
B
N
O
18
4 P
9
C 2
M
A
1
BN = AB = 10
2
1
13
CD =
2
2
PM = MC PC
MC =
13
5
4=
2
2
5
ON = PM =
2
In ONB
=
OB =
5
10 2
2
100
25
=
4
425
5 17
=
4
2
5 17
2 = 5 17 cm.
2
cos 175 = cos (180 5) = cos 5
cos 185 = cos (180 + 5) = cos 5
cos 355 = cos(360 5) = cos 5
Diameter = 2 OB =
8.
a x
(a, 0)
(0, 0)
b
a2 x 2
a
b
y= a
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 155
9.
By AA similarity
QCP ~ PBA
y
D
Q a y
C
ax
ax
ay
3
=
=
a
x
4
P
4
ax
3
=
a
4
x
B
a
4
x=
ay
3
=
x
4
ay
3
=
a/4
4
y=
13a
16
In PAB
42 = x2 + a2
2
a
16 = + a2
4
16 =
17a 2
16
a2 =
16 16
256
=
17
17
10.
256
.
17
cos B =
11.
s=
s=
7
3 2 4 2 22
9 16 4
21
=
=
= .
8
23 4
24
24
x
2
=
x=4
2
1
x=
D 1
18 x 6
= 9x + 3
2
(9 x 3)( 2)(3 x 1)( 6 x )
= 6 (3 x 1)( 3 x 1)( x )
= 6(3x + 1) x
x is a perfect square, so in 1 to 20, 4 perfect square i.e. possible values are {1, 4, 9, 16}.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 156
12.
f(1) = 0 as lim
h0
f (1 h)
exists.
h
f (1 h) f (1)
f (1) exists.
h 0
h
So, f is differentiable at 1.
lim
13.
14.
Statement I is true that the derivative of an odd differentiable function is always even and statement II is
also true that If f(x) is differentiable at a point x0 and g(x) is not differentiable at x0, then f(x) g(x) is not
differentiable at x0.
0,
0 x 1
1, 1 x 0
sin( 1)
sin1, 1 x 0
f(x) = 1
0,
0 x 1
lim f ( x ) sin1
x 0
f (x) 0
and xlim
0
lim f ( x ) does not exists.
x 0
15.
and
16.
f(x) =
e (t 1)(t 2) dt
0
17.
x | x |3 / 2 dx
1
0
1
0
[ ex > 0]
x( x )3 / 2 dx +
x 5 / 2 ( 1)3 / 2 dx +
0
= ( 1)
3/2
x( x )3 / 2 dx
0
1
x 5 / 2 dx
x7 / 2
x7 / 2
7 / 2 1 7 / 2 0
= ( 1)3/2
2
2
[0 ( 1)7/2] + [1 0]
7
7
= ( 1)5
2
2
2
2
4
+
=
+
= .
7
7
7
7
7
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 157
18.
x f ( x)f (x)......f
1
10 ( x )
1 dx
Let f11(x) = t
dx
x f1( x )f2 ( x )......f10 ( x ) = dt
1.dt
=t+C
= f11(x) + C.
19.
64
6 x1x 2 x 3
27
x1x 2 x 3
32
81
Now also
x1 x 2 x 3
2
2
2
x1 x 2 x 3
3
x1 x 2 x 3
32
3
81
210
x1 + x2 + x3 3
38
1/ 3
2/3
1/ 3
x1 + x2 + x3
38 2
9 9
x 12 + x 22 + x 32
24
0 .6
9
1/ 3
x 12 + x 22 + x 32 1 . 6
So, according options least value is 2.
20.
12 3 4 5 6 7
at each position two posibility i.e. either H or T
So total posible outcomes = 27
As we want three tails is sequence and it happened at 7th turn. So at position 5, 6, 7 we have tails and
position 4 must have head otherwise our requirement is fullfilled at position 6.
So, the position 1, 2, 3 can have anything i.e. H/T = 23
To get tail at 1, 2,3 position we have only one probability.
So, total favourable cases = 23 1 = 7
required probability =
7
27
7
.
128
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 158
PHYSICS
22.
PV = nRT
PdV + VdP = 0
1 dV 1
V dP P
= P1
23.
(Answer is C)
1
for point charge
r2
Force solid sphere
24.
r2
L
r 4
So, =
25.
L
r 4
qr 2
2
v
vqr
2
= 2r qr 2
vqr
q
2mvr 2m
or
26.
kT
c m
(Answer is C)
2 2 1/ 2
ML T
=
LT M
1
1/ 2
= [M0L0T0]
1 kT
f
=
c m
f
27.
(Answer is D)
28.
Wave length, =
1 2 2
v Aw
w
2
(Answer is A)
d 0.2 6 103
= 0.5 104 m
D
24
= 5 105 cm
= 500 nm
(Answer is B)
29.
(B)
30.
So, v2 =
5.6 10 4 9 1010
5.6 1012
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 159
31.
y = y1 + y2
= 2A cos (2Kx) cos(2cost)
x = 0, y = 0
(Ans. C)
20m
32.
A m (some as x)
1
sec1
t
1
sec1
t
= angle(dimensionless)
33.
34.
(Answer is A)
mv 2 kq1q2
2
r
r
kq1q2
mr
v=
v = 1.6 1019
9 10 9
9.11 10 31 0.53 10 10
(Answer is D)
35.
F=
F=
0 1 2
2d
4 10 7 4000 4000 60 10 2
2 1.5 10 2
F = 128N repulsion
(Answer is B)
37.
(C)
38.
(Answer is D)
39.
40.
(D)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 160
CHEMISTRY
41.
The ionization energy or enthalpy of Na is less than that of Li but the hydration enthalpy of Li is higher
than that of Na. Difference between ionization enthalpy of both is less than difference between their
hydration enthalpy so overall oxidation potential of Li is greater than Na. Therefore Li metal is a better
reducing agent than Na metal.
42.
Compressibility K =
Kx Ky =
1
P
1
1
1
2
= 0.5 atm1
OH
43.
CO2H
44.
2CH3
CHO
conc. NaOH
CH3
CH2OH + CH3
COOH
Cannizzarro reaction
45.
46.
According to graph, segment BC represents isobaric process. It means pressure is constant so according to Charles law V T [on constant pressure]
From B to C volume decreases so temperature will also decreases.
H
6
H
3
47.
7
OH
when same groups present in same side of the double bond then geometrical isomer is known as
Z isomer.
Due to back donation electron defficiency of [B] almost neutral.
+
Cl
Cl
Cl
49.
en
Co
Cl
trans
en
en
Co
en
cis/d
/////////////////////////
48.
Cl
Cl
Co
en
en
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 161
50.
51.
R = k [X]1/3 [Y]2/3
order of reaction =
1
2
+
=1
3
3
52.
Because Zn has higher oxidation potential than Cu,So Zn loses its electrons at an anode and convert in
Zn2+ ions and come into the solution. These electrons flow externally from zinc to Cu by wire.
53.
PB
Pmix
PA
XA = 0
XA = 1
XA
molefraction (benzene )
54.
sp3d2 hybridization explains the bonding of complex which has C.N. (co-ordination number) 6 so answer
may be either [Fe(CN)6]3 or [Fe(H2O)6]2+. But H2O is a weak ligand and CN is a strong ligand.
Because weak ligand form an outer orbital complex with metal ion and this is possible when sp3d2
hybridization takes place.
55.
56.
Bond order =
1
[N Na]
2 b
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 162
B.O. of O2+ =
1
[10 5] = 2.5
2
1
[10 7] = 1.5
Na = no. of electrons present in ABMO
2
1
B.O. of O22 = [10 8] = 1
2
1
Inter atomic distance
B.O
order of inter atomic distance ; O22 > O2 > O2+
B.O. of O2 =
57.
58
t1/ 2 =
t1/2 =
59.
60.
0.693
K
0.693
6.93 10 3
t1/2 = 100 s
Because unit cell has six faces and every facial atom is a part of two unit cell. It means only half part of
one facial atom belongs to one unit cell.
1
so, total no. of facial atoms in fcc unit cell = 6
=3
2
=
W
T1 T2
=
Q1
T1
W
800 200
800
100
W = 75 J
PART-II (2 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
81.
a=A d
b=A
c=A+d
a + b + c = 3A =
A=
3
2
1
=b
2
a+b+c=
a+c=
b2 =
3
2
3
3
1
b=
=1
2
2
2
....(i)
a 2c 2
2
1
= ac
2
When
ac =
c=
1
4
1
4a
...(ii)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 163
a+
1
2
By this we get
a=b=c
But a < b < c, so we take
a=
When
ac =
1
4
1
4a
c=
....(iii)
1
=1
4a
4a2 4a 1 = 0
a=
4 16 16
8
44 2
1 2
=
8
2
as b > a
a=
1 2
2
82.
g(x) is changing its slope from positive to negative as it passes through g(2). So, g(2) is largest.
83.
92
180 = 140
B =
9
1 = 2 =
180 140
= 20
2
z
3
3 = 140 2 = 120
In ACD
y 2 x 2 z2
cos 120 =
2xy
y
A
1
x
y 2 x 2 z2
1
=
2xy
2
xy = y2 + x2 z2
z2 = x 2 + y2 + xy
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 164
84.
0 * * *
* 0 * *
* * 0 *
T
AA =
* * * 0
As the diagonal element of resulting matrix are zero.
(0, b) C
E
85.
( a, 0) A
(0, 0)
O
(ae, 0)
D (0, b)
(i)
b 0
b
=1
0 ae
a
b b
=1
ae
a
2
b
e=
a
(ii) and line CF and AD are also
b0
b 0
=1
0 ae
0a
b
b
=1
ae
a
2
b
e=
a
(iii) and line AO is to CD
00
2b
1
0a
0
b
From (i) & (ii) case e =
a
But in (iii) case e cannot be determined. So, we can not determined uniquely.
86.
[ x ]e x dx =
= 0 + e x
0e
0
2
1
dx +
(1) e x dx +
2e
2
dx + ......
x 3
2
+ 2e + .........
1
e1
1
e2
1
e3
+ ..........
S =
1
e
1
1
e
1
.
e 1
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 165
87.
/2
cos1003 xdx
lim g( x )
lim
lim
x
=
89.
2008
e f ( t ) dt
g' ( x )
2 1004
0
f(x)
e f ( t ) f ( x ) dt
x
cos1004 xdx
g( x )
88.
/2
lim 0
lim 0
e f ( t ) g( x )e f ( x )
f ' ( x )e f ( x )
g( x )
f ' (x)
3 x 3 .....
16 x 3 ....
3
.
16
dy
= sin(x + y) + cos(x + y)
dx
let x + y = u
Differentiating wrt x
1+
dy
du
=
dx
dx
dy
du
=
1
dx
dx
dy
= sin(x + y) + cos(x + y)
dx
du
1 = sinu + cosu
dx
du
= sinu + cosu + 1
dx
du
dx
sin u cos u 1
Integrating both sides
du
sin u cos u 1 dx
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 166
du
2 tan u / 2
2
1 tan u / 2
1 tan 2 u / 2
2
1 tan u / 2
dx
1
sec 2 (u / 2)du
2 tan u / 2 1 tan
u / 2 1 tan 2 u / 2
sec 2 (u / 2)du
dx
2 tan u / 2 2
sec 2 (u / 2)du
dx
2(tan u / 2 1)
dx
Put 1+ tanu/2 = t
(1/2)sec2u/2du = dt
dt
dx
t
log |t| = x + c
log |1+ tanu/2| = x + c
log 1 tan
(x y)
=x+c
2
(x y)
= x.
2
6!
2! 2! 2! 3! +
2 pairing
P=
6
C2 1
= 76
76
19
=
.
720
180
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 167
PHYSICS
d
91.
M2
M1
r1
r2
M2 d
so r1 = M M
1
2
2r1
T = v
1
........(i)
........(ii)
Here
M1v12
=
r1
GM1M2
d2
GM2r1
or v1 =
From (ii)
T=
T=
T=
2r1d
GM2r1
2d r1
GM2
2d
T=
GM2
M2d
M1 M2
2d3 / 2
G(M1 M2 )
92.
a = r = 20 0.5 = 10 m/s2
93.
For min
(Answer is B)
hc
min = K.E.
min =
hc
K.E.
6.6 10 34 3 10 8
min = 30 10 3 1.6 10 19 = 4.14 10111 m
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 168
94.
95.
V V0
340 9
App. frequency, N = V V N 340 9 90
N = 94.9 kHz
Mass of water, m =
kg
10 3
m = 18102 (3.96)2 104 0.92 103
mLf =
t =
96.
18 (3.96 )2 0.92
mL f
t = KA ( )
1
2
KA (1 2 ) t
t = 9.2 s
(Answer is A)
Range, R = 2 (H h) h
(i) h = H/4
HH
X1 = 2 H
44
3H/4
H/2 2
3
X1 = H
2
(ii) h = H/2
X2 = H
(iii) h = 3H/4
X3 = H
H/4
1
X2
3
2
X1= x3
X2 > X1 = X3 (Answer is C)
CHEMISTRY
101.
Xe contains 8 electrons in its outermost shell or valence shell. In XeF2, Xe uses 2 electrons for bonds so
it contains 3 p. In XeF4., Xe uses 4 electrons for bonds, so it contains 2 p.
N2 + 3H2
102.
initial moles
2NH3
16
at equilibrium
16 3 2
10
concentration 2
at equilibrium V
10
V
4
V
moles at
equilibrium
22
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 169
KC
[NH3 ]2
[N2 ][H2 ]3
2
4
V
= 2 10 3
V V
=
=
42
2 10 3
8
V2
(10)2
10 3
(V = 10L]
Kw 0
Depression in freezing point TF = m W
0
In given two cases m0, W and K are constants
so TF w0
( TF )1
( w 0 )1
=
( TF )2
( w 0 )2
5.5 4
2.9
=
5.5 2.5
2.9 x
1.5
2.9
=
3
2.9 x
x = 2.9 g
I
105.
OH
II
2
2R and 5R
III
'
III '
5
II
OH
I '
106.
[ Zn2 ][ Ag]2
0.059
log10
[ Ag ]2 [ Zn]
n
[Ag] = [Zn] = 1
Ecell = E
[ Zn2 ]
0.059
log10
[ Ag ]2
2
Ecell = 1.56
(0.1)
0.059
log10
(
0
.
0001)2
2
Cu(Y)
(CH3)2SiCl2
2CH3Cl + Si
(X)
108.
E
RT
E1
E2
RT1 = RT2
E1 and T1 are activation energy and temp. in absence of catalyst
400
500
=
T2
625
T2 = 500K
109.
28
Ni [Ar]3d84s24p0
[Ar]
because CN is a strong ligand ,so pairing of electrons takes place.
[Ar]
dsp2 hybridization
[Ar]
2
110.
238
206
82
Pb
92 U
x 24He y 01e
*****
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 171
1
A
16
B
17
C
18
B
19
D
20
B
21
7
D
22
8
A
23
9
A
24
10
11
12
13
14
15
C
25
26
27
28
29
30
Ans.
Que s.
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
D
42
C
43
A
44
D
45
Ans.
D
46
C
47
A
48
B
49
B
50
C
51
A
52
A
53
A
54
B
55
C
56
D
57
C
58
C
59
D
60
A
61
C
62
B
63
A
64
B
65
A
66
D
67
C
68
D
69
B
70
D
71
A
72
D
73
B
74
B
75
A
76
C
77
C
78
C
79
B
80
B
81
C
82
D
83
A
84
D
85
D
86
D
87
B
88
A
89
B
90
Ans.
B
Que s. 91
D
Ans.
Que s. 106
C
Ans.
B
92
A
D
93
B
C
94
C
A
95
D
C
96
A
B
97
C
C
98
C
B
99
B
B
100
B
D
101
B
C
102
D
D
103
A
B
104
A
C
105
B
107
A
108
C
109
D
110
B
111
C
112
B
113
A
114
B
115
A
116
D
117
B
118
A
119
C
120
C
Que s.
Ans.
Que s.
Ans.
Que s.
PART-I (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1.
a8
a2
a4
=
=
a1
a2
a4 = r
a1 d
a1 3d
a1 7d
a1 = a1 d = a1 3d = r
(a1 + d)2 = a1(a1 + 3d)
a12 + d2 + 2 a1d = a12 + 3a1 d
d2 = a1 d
(d 0)
d = a1
....(i)
a2
a1 d
Hence, a = r ; a
=r
1
1
a1 a1
=r
a1
(using (i))
r = 2.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 172
2.
Tk
101
till k = 10
Tk 1
k
Tk > Tk1
Let k = 11
T11 < T10 T10 is maximum at k = 10.
3.
x=
2+ 3+ 6
2
x 2 = 3 6
x2 + 2 2 2 = 9 + 6 2
x2 7 = 8 2
(x2 7)2 = 64 2
So, smallest possible value of n is 4.
4.
9 8 7 6!
6 5 4 3!
1
3 2 1 6!
3 2 1 3!
= 1680.
A (2, 3)
5.
O
(2, z)
B
(4, 0)
C
(x, y)
O is circumcenter
OA = OB = OC = circumradius
(2 2)2 + (z 3)2 = (4 2)2 + (0 z)2
z2 + 9 6z = 4 + z2
9 6z = 4
5 = 6z
5
=z
6
Circumcenter =
5
13
.
( z 3 ) 2 ( 2 2) 2 = | z 3 | = 6 3 =
6
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 173
6.
(5, 15) L(21, 15)
P
P'
5 21 15 15
,
Mid point of PP =
2
2
L = (13, 15)
Point A will be (13, 0)
By property PA + PA = 2a
PA =
(13 5)2 (0 15 )2
=
64 225
289 = 17 cm
PA =
=
289 = 17 cm
2a = PA + PA
2a = 17 + 17
2a = 34 cm
So, length of major axis = 2a = 34 cm.
7.
P (10, 10)
B
(0, 6)
2x + 3y = 18
C
(a, b)
PB = PC
(10 0)2 + (10 6)2 = (a 10)2 + (b 10)2
100 + 16 = a2 + 100 20a + b2 + 100 20b
a2 + b2 20a 20b + 84 = 0
....(i)
Also
(a, b) i.e. on 2x + 3y = 18
2a + 3b = 18
3b
2
Using equation (i)
a=9
3b
3b
20b + 84 = 0
9
+ b2 20 9
2
2
81 +
9b2
27b + b2 180 + 30b 20b + 84 = 0
4
13b 2
17b 15 = 0
4
13b2 68b 60 = 0
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 174
b = 6 or b =
When b = 6, then a = 9
When b =
10
3 10
30
132
, then a = 9 +
=9+
=
13
2 13
26
13
132
10
+2
13
13
8a + 2b = 8
1056 20
79 .
13
8.
36
=0
2
cos 2 ( ) sin 2 ( )
1
cosec2( + ) = 1 sin2(2 )
cosec2( + ) = cos2(2 )
Minimum value of cosec2( + ) is 1 and maximum value of cos2(2 ) is 1.
They will be equal for the value 1.
.....(i)
2 = 0
By adding (i) & (ii)
.....(ii)
+=
3 =
9.
sin( ) = sin (
sinx + siny =
7
5
cos x + cosy =
1
) = sin ( ) =
.
6
3
6
2
....(1)
1
5
....(2)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 175
7
25
7
25
7
25
7
.
25
10.
6
x
y=
(1, 1)
1
0
y = sin x
Clearly, curve meet each other twice in
11.
2 3
4 5
6 7
8 9
10 11
Total 10 Times.
f(x) is differentiable on R.
So, it will be contincous on R.
Continuity at x = 0
LHL
2
lim sin x
x 0
x
Put x = 0 h, then h 0
2
lim sin(0 h)
h0
h
lim sin h h = 0
h h
RHL
h0
lim x2 + ax + b
x 0
Put x = 0 + h, then h 0
lim h2 + ah + b = b
h0
Value of f(x) at x = 0
f(0) = b.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 176
f(x) is contineous at x = 0
LHL = RHL = f(0)
0=b=b
b=0
Differentiability at x = 0
LHD
lim
f ( 0 h ) f ( 0)
h
lim
sinh 2
b
h
h
h0
h0
2
lim sin h = 1
h0
h2
RHD
lim f (0 h) f (0)
h
h0
2
lim h ah b b
h0
h
lim h(h a ) = a.
h
12.
y12 = 4x1 x1 =
y1
4
( x1 0) 2 ( y1 3 ) 2
PA =
y12
2
z = 4 + y12 6y1 + 9
z2 =
y1
+ y12 6y1 + 9
16
Diff. w.r.t. y1
3
dz
4 y1
2z dy =
+ 2y1 6
16
1
3
dz
y
2z dy = 1 + 2y1 6
1
4
3
y1 8 y1 24
4
dz
2z dy = (y1 2) (y12 + 2y1 + 12)
1
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 177
dz
dy 1 = 0
(y1 2)(y12 + 2y1 + 12) = 0
y1 = 2
y12 = 4x1
(2)2 = 4x1
x1 = 1.
dz
2
dy 1
d2 z
+ 2z
dy 1
dz
when y1 = 2 and dy = 0
1
d2 z
2
dy 1
>0
z is min at (1, 2)
1 1 =
2.
We can find the answer through option as the sum of weight of packet taken from trucks is 1022870 gm
and its unit digit is 0. The truck that have heavier bags have unit digit 0. So, the truck have lighter bags in
which the sum of weight of bags must have unit digit 0.
So, according to option D. i.e. truck no. 2, 8
Track 2 have 21 bags and total weight = 21 999 gm = .......8 gm
Truck have 27 bags and total weight = 27 999 = 128 999 gm = ......2 gm
So, the unit digit of the weight contain by truck 2, 8 together is 0.
1
14.
cos( x ) cos([2x]) dx
0
1/ 2
cos( x ) cos 0 dx +
sin x
0
1/ 2
1/ 2
cos( x ) cos dx
cos( x ) dx
1/ 2
1/ 2
cos( x ) dx
1
sin x
1/ 2
1
1
= 0
2
.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 178
cos(nx )x 9 dx
cos(nx)x10
10
+
n
n
0
1
15.
IN =
1
1
10 sin(nx )x 9
9 sin(nx )x 8 dx
0+ n
n
n
0 n 0
10 9
sin(nx )x 8 dx
2
n
0
10 !
sin(nx )dx
= 10
n 0
= 0 as Denom
16.
y = x2 & y = 1 x2
Point of intersections of graphs x2 = 1 x2
2x2 = 1
1
x=
1 1
1 1
, and
, .
Point of intersections =
2 2
2 2
Area under graph :
1/ 2
(1 x )2
1 / 2
1/ 2
1 /
1/ 2
2x 1 = 2x x
1/
3
2
2
2
=2
=2
17.
6 2
26
6 2
1
2
4
3 2
2 2
.
3
a 3 i 4k and b = 5 j 12k
2
2
2
a (3)2 4 5 and b (5) 12 13
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 179
19.
5 x3 1
2 y1 1 3 y 2 1
5 1 ....... = 2 1 3 1 .........
3 x2 1
3 1
d = d 22 11
d/m
d/N
x2
1 x1
1 1 1
2
3
....
1 / 2 1 1 / 3 1
1/ d
1 y1
1 y 2
d/M
1/ d = 2 1 3 1
....
d/N
1 / 2 1 1 / 3 1
(2 x1 1)(3 x 2 1).....
2 x1 3 x 2 .....
20.
m C0
(2
y1
m C1 n
1)(3
y2
1)......
N
1.
M
2 y1 3 y 2
m C2 n 2 mC m n m (1 + n)m
only one
element from A
PHYSICS
27.
28.
Heat supplied Q = dU + W
PV = RT
PdV = RdT
PdV
R
Q = CVdT + PdV
dT =
PdV
+ PdV
R
Work done at constant pressue,
W = PdV
Q = CV
CV
PdV
PdV
R
PdV
Q CV
1
W
R
5
R)
2
Q 5R
1
W 2R
Q 7
W 2
W 2
Q 7
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 180
29.
1
1
1
R 2 2 For lyman series
2
1
1
1
1
R 2 2 For balmer series
3
2
1 1 94
)
4 9
36
3/4
3 9 27
=
5 / 36
1 5
5
27
30.
q
q
and
2
2
charge divides
Than, on touching
q
sphere to q
2
Charge divides
q / 2 q 3q
2
4
force between
3q
q
R
4
2
f=
f=
unchanged
K 3q2
8R 2
3 kq2 3
F
8 R2
8
31.
Intially block enters in the magnetic field rate of change of flux will be constant so constant current will
induce, when it moves inside the magnetic field there is no change in magnetic flux, current I = 0, when
it use the filed the rate of the change in flux will be again constant between in decreasing order so
constant current will induced on opposite.
32.
34.
E
+q
Electric field at each point of OA obtained to it and opposite to direction of dipole moment.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 181
38.
Total force in upward direction m (g + a) because mass m is stationary on inclined plane and whole
system is accelerated with acceletration a in upward direction.
39.
40.
Potential energy at H height = Kinetic energy at the lowest point of circular path.
mgH =
1
mv2
2
H=
5gR
1
m (5gR)
2
5
R
2
CHEMISTRY
41.
1
Rate of diffusion
Molar mass
42.
Moles of H2 =
3
4
, Moles of O2 =
2
32
3
nRT
2
3
n1RT
2
Kinetic energy of hydrogen
so,
= 3
Kinetic energy of oxygen
n 2RT
2
n1
= n
2
=
3/2
4 / 32
= 12 : 1
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 182
44.
45.
HCO3
+ H+ H2CO3
Bronsted base
HCO3 H+ + CO32
Bronsted acid
47.
48.
49.
50.
H
+
H3O
OMgBr
51.
52.
OH
Achiral Secondary alcohol
53.
2NH3
; K1 =
[NH3 ]2
-------- (i)
[N2 ][H2 ]3
K22 =
[NH3 ]2
[N2 ][H2 ]3
K22 = k1
K2 =
-------- (ii)
k1
K2 = 41
K2 = 6.4
[ K1 = 41]
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 183
54.
[ A ]12
R1
or R =
[ A ]22
2
R1
[A]12
according to question R =
2
2
[A]1
[ A ]1
[ A]2
R1
R =4
2
R2 =
55.
R1
4
HCO3 H+ + CO32
Conjugate base
NH3 H+ + NH2
Conjugate base
56.
57.
N
H
p of N takes part in resonance with conjugated double bonds, so it is not easily available on N for the
protonation.
N
H
due to high E.N. of O availability of p on N decreases.
N
H
No extra effect, so availability of p on N increases.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 184
58.
Gauche conformer.
because angle between same groups is 60
59.
T=
No
2.303
log
N
K
T=
No
2.303
log N / 4
K
o
T=
1.386
-------- (i)
K
T1/2 =
K=
25
N
= o
100
4
0.693
K
0.693
-------- (ii)
30
1.386
0.693 / 30
T = 60 min.
60.
0.2 10
= 0.002
1000
solution =
0.1 10
1000
= 0.001
after mixing remaining moles of H+ ions
= 0.002 0.001
= 0.001
0.001
1000 = 0.05 M
10 10
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 185
PART-II (2 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
81.
.....(3)
4a2 + 4a4 = 8
4a2 + 16a4 = 8
+
a4 = 0 and a2 = 2
Smallest possible value of n is 3.
2
82.
(a b )
abc
a 1
ab
|a b| < c
...... (1)
|b c| < a
...... (2)
|c a| < b
...... (3)
Squaring and adding
a2 + b2 + c2 < 2ab + 2bc + 2ca
[Triangle inequalities]
a2
2
ab
So, b [1,2).
83.
y = | x 3 | 4 5
When, x < 1
y=|3x4|5
y=x15
y=x6
When 1 x < 3
y=|3x4|5
= | x 1| 5
=x+15
=x4
When, 3 x < 7
y = |x 7| 5
y=7x5
y=2x
12
6
6
x
2
x
12
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 186
When, x 7
y = | x 7| 5
=x75
= x 12.
Area bounded region
1
( x 6 )dx
( x 4 )dx
12
( 2 x )dx +
( x 12)dx
7
12
x2
x2
x2
x2
2
x
6
x
4
x
12 x
=
+
+
+
2
2
6
2
1
2
7
3
49
9
1
36
9
144
49
6
36 + 12 4 + 14
144
84
6 +
=
2
2
2
2
2
11
15
9
21 3
119
18
72 +
2
2
2
2
2
2
130
48
90
2
2
= 65 24 90
= 49 sq. unit.
A
84.
cos =
b
a2 b2 a2
=
2
a
2ab
cos(180 ) =
cos =
cos =
....(i)
b2 b2 a2
2b 2
2b 2 a 2
2b 2
a 2 2b 2
....(ii)
2b 2
b
2a
a
a
2 1=0
b
b
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 187
a
=x
b
Let
x3 2x 1 = 0
(x + 1)(x2 x 1) = 0
x = 1 or x =
1 1 4( 1)(1)
2
1 5
2
x cannot be negative
x=
85.
1
( 5 1)
2
an =
1 a n1
2
a1 =
1 a0
2
a1 =
1 cos
2
2 cos 2
a1 =
a1 = cos
1 a1
2
a2 =
1 cos
2 cos 2
=
2
= cos
22
an = cos
2n
lim 4n(1 a )
n
lim 4n 1 cos
2n
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 188
lim 4n 2sin2
2 n 1
2 2n 2 sin2
lim
2n 1
n 1
n 1
2n 1
sin2
n 1
n 1
2
lim
2n 1 2n 1
2
.
2
=
86.
87.
1
.
e
1
e
e .
x dx
1
10
log x
= log10 = 2.303
1
1
+ ....+
9
2
= 1 + 0.5 + 0.33 + 0.25 + 0.20 + 0.16 + 0.14 + 0.12 + 0.11 2.81
B=1+
1
1
1
+ ....+
+
2.81 1 + 0.1 =1.91
9
10
2
So, C < A < B and B A 0.51, A C = 2.303 1.91 0.40. So, B A > A C.
C=
88.
60
60
As we want the distance between two point is at least r. Now when the point A, B are at distance r.Then
the angle made arc BA is 60.
Now as chord AB come closer to centre the length of chord AB is increased that is it is greater than r and
the angle is also increases i.e. from 60 to 180 and now when chord AB move way from centre then the
length of chord AB decreases , when chord AB reach CD the length of AB equal to r and the angle chang
from 180 to 60
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 189
So, the angle required for desired conditions = 2(180 60) = 240
Total angle for all around the circle = 360
So, required propability =
89.
240
2
=
360
3
4(5P 1)
4(5P 1)
<N
5 1
5 1
P1
P
5 1 < N 5 1
2 10P1 < aN
So
8
(10P1)
9
log aN
10 P 1(ln10 ) (5P 1)
ln(2 10P1 )
=
=
10 P 1 5P ln 5
ln(5P 1)
logN min
=
ln10
= log10
5
ln 5
8 P
10 ln 10 (5P 1 1)
8
ln (10P 1)
9
log aN
9
=
= 8
(10 P 1) 5P 1 ln 5
log N max
ln(5P 1 1)
9
= log10
5
By sandwitch therom limit is log10
5 .
90.
| i j |
S=
1 i j n
(n 1)n
2
n 2)(n 1)
.......
2
S=
(n r )(n r 1)
2
r 1
= n 1C3
PHYSICS
91.
m=
Xcm =
Mr
4 R3
R3
M 0 m(R r )
Mm
Mr 3
Xcm = 3 (R r )
R
4 3
r M
m
4 / 3R3
M R M
R3
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 190
r 3 (R r )
r 3 (R r )
=
R3 r 3 (R r )(R 2 rR r 2 )
R3
3
92.
Xcm =
r3
2
R rR r 2
1
1
( 1)
FL
R
FL =
R
1
1 1 1
V
R
u
This v must be centre of mirror
1
1
1
R R u
r 1
u =
93.
In cyclic process u = 0
u =W = Area of loop
= (P1 P2) (V2 V1)
94.
(R x )(6R)
(R x ) 6R
x2 + xR 6R2 = 0
x=
95.
x=
x R 2 ( 4 6R2 )
2
x=
R 5R
2R
2
2
2
MR 2 MR mg sin R
5
O
A
5g sin
=
7R
Applying Newtons law,
Ma = Mgsin Mgcos
gcos gsin
= tan1
5g sin
7
gcos
2g sin
7
7
2
Velocity of sound =
RT
M
T Velocity of sound
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 191
96.
F
H
mg
a/2
a
2
For height less than H
F = gh
From (1) and (2)
F H = mg
.........(1)
.........(2)
a
2H
97.
mV /r
mg
MV 2
mv 2
cos mg sin mg cos
sin
r
r
V 2
V2
g
sin
r = cos
r
V 2 rg
tan =
V 2 rg
98.
S1
S2
Path difference = 5 4 = 1 m
For constructive interference
n1= 1m
For destructive interference
For n = 1, 1= 1m, 2= 2m
(2n 1) 2
1m
2
99.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 192
100.
Q = u + PV
mv = u + 1.01 105 (
1
1
3)
1/ 1.8 10
CHEMISTRY
101.
10 / 10 10
1/ 10 10
[ pOH = 14 pH = 14 8 = 6]
6 = pKb + log10
pKb = 6 1
pKb = 5
102.
H = 2658 kJ/mol
11600
mol
58
2658 11600
kJ
58
= 531600 kJ energy
energy consumes in 1 day = 15000 kJ
so 531600 kJ energy will be consumed in =
103.
531600
35 days
15000
Kf wo
mW
5.51 5.03 =
5120 0 .643
m 43 .95
m =
3292.16
21.096
m = 156 g mol1
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 193
104.
(0.28M)
[ Zn2 ][ Ag]2
0.059
log
[ Ag ]2 [ Zn]
n
Ecell
= E
Ecell
= 2.57
0.28 1
0.059
log
(0.04)2 1
2
{ [Ag] = [Zn] = 1}
105.
2+
Co + Con. HCl
CoCl4
HOH(excess)
[Co(H2O)6]2+
Pink
106.
ln k =
11067
+ 31.33
T
2.303 log k =
11067
+ 31.33
T
2.303 log k1 =
11067
+ 31.33 --------- (1)
T1
2.303 log k2 =
11067
+ 31.33 --------- (2)
T2
k1
2.303 log k = 11067
2
1
1
T
T
2
1
k1
2.303 log 2k = 11067
1
2.303 (0.3010) =
1
1
298
T
2
[ k2 = 2k1]
11067 11067
298
T2
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 194
107.
K1 =
[CuCl3Br 2 ][Cl ]
[CuCl4
][Br ]
------- (i)
K2 =
[CuCl2Br2 ][Cl ]
[CuCl3Br 2 ][Br ]
------- (ii)
K3 =
K4 =
[CuClBr3 ][Cl ]
2
[CuCl2Br2 ][Br ]
[CuBr4
------- (iii)
][Cl ]
[CuClBr3 ][Br ]
------- (iv)
K=
[CuClBr3 ][Cl ]3
[CuCl4
][Br ]3
------- (v)
by multiplying the right hand side of equation (i), (ii) and (iii) we get right hand side of equation (v)
it means K = K1K2K3
OH
108.
OH
ONa
NaOH
Br2 in CS2
HBr
H2O
Br
(X)
Br
NaI MeI
OMe
Br
(Y)
109.
234
206
90 Th
82 Pb
x 24He y 01e
By comparing mass no.
234 = 206 + 4x + oy
x=7
By comparing nuclear charge
90 = 82 + 2x 1y
y = 82 + 2 7 90
y=6
O
II
O
110.
Me
OH
AlCl3
fries
rearrangement
OH
O
II
Me
I2/NaOH
O
II
OH
Haloform
reaction
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 195
10
B
25
D
40
11
B
26
A
41
12
C
27
13
A
28
14
C
29
15
D
30
B
17
D
32
D
18
D
33
B
19
C
34
C
20
A
35
B
21
A
36
B
22
A
37
A
23
B
38
C
24
C
39
D
42
A
43
B
44
D
45
B
47
C
48
B
49
B
50
A
51
A
52
D
53
A
54
C
55
B
56
C
57
D
58
A
59
B
60
D
62
A
63
A
64
A
65
C
66
B
67
C
68
D
69
B
70
A
71
B
72
A
73
C
74
A
75
A
77
C
78
A
79
C
80
C
81
A
82
A
83
C
84
D
85
A
86
A
87
C
88
B
89
B
90
C
92
A
107
B
A
93
B
108
A
A
94
B
109
B
D
95
A
110
D
C
96
A
111
B
B
97
B
112
C
B
98
D
113
D
C
99
B
114
B
B
100
C
115
B
C
101
A
102
A
117
A
B
103
A
118
C
D
104
D
119
A
C
105
D
120
A
116
D
PART-I (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1.
1 0
I=
0 1
0 i
A=
i 0
1 0
A2 =
0 1
0 i
A3 =
i 0
A4 =
A4n =
+ A + A2 + A3 = 0
= + A + A2 + A3 + ............+ A2010
= ( + A + A2 + A3) + A4 (+ A + A2 + A3) ..... + A2008 (+ A + A2)
0 i
0 i
=0+
=
.
i 0
i 0
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 196
2.
r>1
a + ar > ar2
r2 r 1 < 0
1 5
r 2 ,
Case 2 :
Case 3 :
r = 1 equilateral triangle
r<1
2
ar + ar > a
r2 + r 1 > 0
1 5 1 5
,
r
2
2
1 5 2 5
3.
4.
22, 3 + 4, 3 + 42, 5 2
1
3 i , 1 + 2 3 i , 1 2 3 i, 6
where =
1 3 i 2 1 3 i
, =
2
2
5.
Tangent at (2, 1)
y.2 = 2 (x + 1)
y=x+1
xy+1 =0
equation to circle
(x 1)2 + (y 2)2 + (x y + 1) = 0
putting x = 1
4 + (y 1)2 + ( y) = 0
y2 4y y + 8 = 0
D=0
(+ 4)2 = 32
y=
( 4) D
4
y=
4 2 0
=2 2
2
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 197
6.
BKN = 6
BN 1
BKN 1 AN 2
AB 3
APB 9 BN 1
9
6
1
APB =
ABC = 108.
7.
x2
a2
h=
a2
y2
=1, a>b>0
b2
x
y
, k=
3
3
(3h)2
8.
54
1
(3k )2
b2
= 1 which is ellipse
7
6
cos
1sin
9.
cos = 1
= 0, 2
and sin = 0
if A + B = 45
Ans = 223
10.
f is differentiable function .
f (a) f(b) > 0
f is increasing at x = a and b
or
f is decreasing at x = a and b
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 198
11.
12.
13.
f ( x )dx 4
i
5 7
(3 1)
2 2
=
4=2
2
14.
n =
(log x ) .dx
1
n = x (log x )
e
1
n(log x )n 1
.x dx
x
n = (e 0) n n1
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 199
n + n n1 = e
2011 + 2011 2010 = e
15.
100 + 100 99 = e
x2 + y2 100
sin (x + y) > 0
Hence common area of region bounded = 50 as in half the region sin (x + y) > 0 and in other half
sin (x + y) < 0
16.
n(S) = 7C3 = 35
n () = 7 + 7 + 7 = 21
i
17.
P () =
21 3
35 5
2 1 1
= i (2 3) j( 4 ) k (6) =
u v =
0 3 2
(u v ).w ,
53
greatest when x2 + y2 = 1
fmax. = 17
Ans. (D)
18.
19.
1 + x2 + x4 + .........+ x2010
=
1 ( x 2 )1006
1 x2
1 ( x1006 ) 2
(1 x )(1 x )
(1 x1006 ) (1 x1006 )
(1 x )
(1 x )
= (1 + x1006)
(1 x 503 ) (1 x 503 )
(1 x )
(1 x )
n 1 = 502
n = 503
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 200
20.
an = 3an1 + 1
= 3(3an2 + 1) + 1
= 32 an2 + 3 + 1
= 32 (3an3 + 1) + 3 + 1
= 33 an3 + 32 + 3 + 1
aN = 3n a0 + 3N1 + 3N2 + .... 1
Method - I
a2010 = (1 + 3 + 32 + 33 + 34) + ....... + 32009
= (1 + 3 + 32 + 33 + 34)+ 35 (1 + 3 + 32 + 33 + 34)+ 310 (1 + 3 + 32 + 34 + 35) +.....+32005 (1+ 3 + 32 + 33 + 34)
each (1 + 3 + 32 + 33 + 34) is divisble by
Method-II
a2010 =
2
2
2
2
= 11 k (k I)
Hence remainder is 0
PHYSICS
21.
1mg
m
22.
m1m2 1
T = 2 m m k
2
1
we can use concept of reduced mass.
23.
2T cos = ma ;
If
x<<<<
4T
m
2T
m
x
2
=a
x2
4
2T x
=a
m
2
a=
T = 2
m
.
4T
4Tx
m
f=
1 4T
2 m
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 201
24.
ra 0.4
25 =
ra = 50 0.4
= 49.6.
25.
26.
Zero
KQr
E r inside
R3
KQ
r
1
r2
outside.
27.
29.
tanC =
r
h
r=
30.
2 > 3
1sin i1 = 2 sin r
1 < 2
from diagram
1 3
2 2
A =
A0
2
t/T
A=
120000
2
120 100 10
= 7500
2 2 2 2
(D).
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 202
32.
2 A = g
g
A
f=
=
33.
1
2
1
2
g
A
10
2.5 10 2
= 3.18
dQ = 0
dU = dw
nRT
n 2a
n 2a
CdT 2 dV =
2 dV
V
V nb V
nRT
.dV
V nb
CdT =
C
nR
dT
dV
C
nT = n(V nb) + C
nR
T V nb
n (V nb)
C
nT = K
nR
35.
5
= 2.2 5 = 11 m/s
18
t1 =
d
330
t2 =
d 11 30
d
11 30
=
330
330
330
t = t1 t2 = 1
time interval = 30 1 = 29 second
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 203
36.
RT
M
v=
v0
vH
37.
MH
M0
2
1
32 4
d = 0.1 mm
D = 1m
= 600 nm
given IR = 75% of maximum = 75% of 4 = 30
R = 3 = + + 2 cos
=
y=
1 600 10 9
D
=
6d
6 0.1 10 3
x =
dy
=
=
2
3
6
D
y = 1 mm
38.
m1v 0 0
vcom = m m
1
2
xi =
m1(0) m 2 ()
m1 m 2
xcm = xi + vcom t
m1v 0 t
m2 ()
xcm = m m m m
1
2
1
2
39.
a
r
mv
r = a cot
qBr
qBa cot
mv 2
= qvB v =
v =
m
m
r
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 204
CHEMISTRY
41.
[Co(dien)Cl3]
dien = NH2 CH2 CH2 NH CH2 CH2 NH2
[Co(dien)Cl3] have two geometrical isomers cis and trans.
cis form is optically active but trans form is optically inactive.
42.
The ligands which allow back bonding to sufficient extent are called acid acceptors.
Example CO, CN, NO etc.
43.
hc
6.62 10 34 3 108
=
= 1.988 1025 J.
44.
E=
45.
..
F F
87.5
Cl
ClF3
..
46.
87.5
F F
47.
R C Cl
||
O
AlCl3
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 205
48.
>
>
>
>
>
>
49.
50.
234
234
0
Th 91 Pa 1 e
90
51.
52.
53.
1
1
+ 6 [face center] = 4.
8
2
For body center unit cell number of atoms per unit cell
Z = 8[corner]
54.
1
+ 1 [body center] 1 = 2.
8
CO2
CO +
H2 O
H2 +
1
O
2 2
1
O
2 2
K C1 = 9.1 1012
.....(i)
K C2 = 7.1 1012
.....(ii)
Target eq.
CO2 + H2
CO + H2O
KC = ?
K C1
9.1 10 12
KC = K
=
= 1.28.
C2
7.1 10 12
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 206
55.
R P
t=0
R0
t=t
(R0 x)
Rate =
d[R ]
= K[R]1
dt
x
1
dx
=
= K[R0 x] = (R x ) .dx = K.dt
dt
0
0
0
R0
= ln R x = Kt
0
56.
PCl3F2 :
57.
I
58.
IV
59.
Cyclic
Planar
Complete conjugation
(4n + 2) e
Tropylium carbocation
60.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 207
PART-II (2 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
n
81.
1
1
1/ 2
n/ 2
x 1/ 4 = x 1 3 / 4
2x
2x
=x
n/2
1 n 1
1
n
n
n
c 0 c 1 3 / 4 c 2 3 / 4 .... c r 3 / 4 .........
2x
2x
2x
n
n
c0 ,
c1 n c 2
,
are in AP
2 22
n n(n 1)
,
are in AP
2
8
1,
n=1+
8(n 1) n (n 1) = 0
(n 1) (8 n) = 0
but
n=8
Now
1
1/ 2
x 1/ 4
2x
n(n 1)
8
r 0
n=8
1
c r ( x1/ 2 )8 r 1/ 4
2x
r
or
n=1
r 0
1 4
cr x
2
3r
4
82.
1 i
2
1 i
1 = r
1 i
1 = r,
n
i
1 4
e
2
rR
=r
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 208
i
e 4
For n = 4000
r =
83.
y = ax + b
4000
x2 y2
1
a
b
and
1
1000
Area of cyclic quadratic and is maximum only if area of ABC and area of ADC is maximum
AC = 2R sin 60 =
3 R.
3
3 3 2
( 3R)2 =
R
4
4
area of ABCD =
1
(AC) (DM)
2
1 ( 3R) 3R cot 60
2
3R 2
4
3 3 2
3 2
R
R 3R 2
4
4
85.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 209
Now
g(x) =
g(x) =
f(x) < 0 x (, b]
f (x)
x
xf( x ) f ( x )
x2
h(x) = xf < 0
h(x) is M.D.
or
86.
V1 =
1 2
r h
3
........(1)
Let radius of base 1 and R1 and height H. For the cane with apex O
V2 =
Now
V=
1
R2H
3
r
h
R hH
..........(2)
H R
h
r
R
H = h 1
r
R
1
R 2 h 1
r
3
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 210
dv 1
2R 2
h 2R
dR 3
r = 0
R=
2r
3
87.
2r
3
V2 =
R
1
R 2h 1
r
3
1
4r 2
2
4 2
h
1 =
h
3
9
3
81
f(x) = 1 + f(x)
.......(2)\
dy
=1+y
dx
n (1 + y) = x + c
y = ex + c 1
y = ex 1
f(x) = ex 1
V2
4
V1 27
..... (1)
Now
f(x) = x +
f (t) dt
0
ex 1 = x + et (t)0x
ex 1 = x + ex x
= 1
f(x) = ex 1
for
f(x) = 0
x=0
ex 1 = 0
88.
A=
89.
.
2
2
2
.
2
2
2
PA 2 PB 3 PC 0
a 2b 3c 0
...... (i)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 211
Area of ABC =
|a b + b c + c a |
2
3c a
3c a
1
= | a
+
c + c a |
2
2
2
Area of APC =
90.
1 3
1
| (c a) 0 0 + (c a) + c a|
2 2
2
|c a |
2
...... (ii)
|c a |
2
ABC
3
=
APC
1
6m + 2m+n. 3m + 2n = 332 = 4 83
.......(1)
by (1)
2n. 9 + 2n2 = 74
2n2 (36 + 1) = 74
2n2 = 21
n=3
Hence. m2 + mn + n2
= 4 + 6 + 9 = 19
PHYSICS
91.
........upto 10 th h
g
g
g
=
V02
[1 + r2 + r4 + .............upto 10th] h
g
1 (r 2 )10
2h
h
2
1 r
1 r 20
2h
h .
2
1 r
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 212
92.
GMm
r
T=
mv 2
2r
V
T = 2
2r
T=
GM
r
v=
r = 2
GM
r3
GM
r3
GM
geff = g 2 Re cos2
f(g 2 Re cos260) = (g 2Re cos20)
f
fg g = 2R 1
4
g[f 1] =
2R
[f 4]
4
4GM( f 1)
2
(f 4)
= R3
T 2GM( f 1)
= R3
2 ( f 4 )
93.
3
a = 2r
2
Gm
2R
(f 4)
4
(f 1) =
T 2 GM ( f 1)
2 (f 4)
M
= 4
R 3
3
= R3
3( f 4)
Kq2
2Kq2
q2
q2
4T 2G( f 1)
cos30
= 3r
kr = 2
kq2
q2
cos30
2
3
k.r.3r2 = 4 .q2
0
2
q2 3
r =
12
k
0
94.
1/ 3
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 213
LC 2L2C 2 4LC
2C
2
=
Ans.
LC
95.
1
1
V1 = R
v1
R
v1
R
1
Vf (2R V1 ) = R
1 1
Vf
R
R
2R
1
1
( 1)
=
1
R 2
R
(2R 2R R )
( 1) ( 2)
1 2
=
R ( 2 )
R 2
96.
V(x) =
G=
vf =
R( 2)
2( 1)
x
1 2
kx V0cos
a
2
dV
dx
x 1
= kx + V0 sin .
a a
Since, x <<<< a
EQ = kx +
T=
So,
sin
x
~
a
x
a
V0
V0 x
. = K 2 x
a a
a
K 20 =
a
Ka 2 V0
a2
K = m2
ma 2
2
= 2
.
ka 2 v 0
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 214
97.
Q = U + W
nR(T2 T1 )
1
Heat capacity in this process
nCPdt = nCvdt +
CP = Cv +
98.
nR
.
1
W = Area of ABC
1
W = + (P2 P1) (V2 V1)
2
{It is clockwise}
Heat released at CA :
It is at constant volume
So, Q = nCVdT
Q=n
P2
P1
C
A
V2
V1
3
R (TA T
TC)
2
3
(P1 V2 P2V2)
2
Heat released at A B (Constant pressure)
Q1 =
Q2 = nCPdT =
5
nR (TB T
TA)
2
5
(P V P1V2)
2 1 1
Heat absorbed at BC
Q = du + W
QBC + Q1 + Q2 = W
QBC = W + Q1 + Q2
Q2 =
1
5
3
(P2 P1)(V2V1) (P1V1 P1V2) (P1V2 P2V2)
2
2
2
1
[(P2P1)(V2V1) 5P1V1 + 5P1V2 3P1V2+ 3P2V2 ]
2
1
[P V P2V1 P1V2 + P1V1 5P1V1 + 5 P1V2 3P1V2 + 3P2V2]
2 2 2
1
[ 4P1V1 + 4P2V2 + P1V2 P2V1]
2
Q = 2 [(P2V2 P1V1) +
99.
du = 0
1
(P V P2V1]
2 1 2
Kqq
2 mv 2 0 = 0 + 0
1
q2
.
d = 4
2
0 mv
q2
=
4 0mv 2
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 215
100.
N0 Initial nucleon
N
at t = 0 N0
dt =
dN
dt
dN
N C
N0
t=
1
n( N C)N
N0
1 N C
t = n N C
0
N C
et = N C
0
N C = et (N0 C)
N=
C
C (t)
C e t
(N0 C) =
+ N0et
.e
C
[1 e(t)] + N0 edt .
CHEMISTRY
101.
2.52 1000
= 0.2M
126 100
M1V1 = M2V2
0.2 10 = M2 500
M2 = 4 103.
valence factor of H2C2O4.2H2O = 2.
Normality = [M] V.F. = 2 [4 103] = 8 103 N
Amount of oxalic acid (mg/mL) =
4 10 3 126 103 mg
= 0.504.
mL
103
102.
Br
HBr
+ CH3OH
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 216
103.
104.
A B
H = 7.5 kJ/mole
G = H TS
at equilibrium G = 0
S = 25 J/mole.
105.
7.5 10 3
= 300 K
25
[Mg2+] = 102 M
K SP(Mg( OH )
2)
= [OH]2 =
1.0 10 12
10 2
[OH] = 1 105
pOH = 5
;
106.
= 1010
pH = 9
2a
4 141 .4
= 400 pm
a =
2
107.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 217
108.
Target eq.,
Given that
Target eq. :
109.
K3[Fe(CN)6]
3+x6=0
Fe = 3d6 4s2
26
26
.....(i)
.....(ii)
.....(iii)
.....(iv)
x=+3
t2g2,2,1, eg0,0
110.
n(n 2) =
3 B.M
Tf = Kf molality
8 1000
= 0.925 = 1.85
M 92
M = 173.9 ~ 174
Closest answer = 160.
*****
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 218
10
11
12
13
14
15
Ans.
Que s.
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
Ans.
Que s.
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
Ans.
Que s.
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
Ans.
Que s.
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75
Ans.
Que s.
76
77
78
79
80
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
Ans.
92
C
93
D
94
D
95
C
96
B
97
A
98
B
99
D
100
A
101
B
102
C
103
B
104
A
105
C
107
B
108
D
109
B
110
A
111
D
112
C
113
D
114
C
115
B
116
A
117
C
118
D
119
A
120
A
Que s. 91
B
Ans.
Que s. 106
C
Ans.
PART-I (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1.
1
,
x
then,
logba =
For a, b > 1
1
x
logab > 1
By A.M. G.M
C= x
1
2
x
2.
(C)
Hint n is multiple of = 4
3.
(D) Given P2 = P
For n = 2
(I + P)2 = I + P2 + 2PI
= I + P + 2P
= I + 3P
= I + (22 1) P
4.
(A)
f ' (x) = 3x2 + 2ax + b
D = 4a2 4(3b)
= 4(a2 3b)
If a2 2b < 0
then
a2 3b < 0
So, D is negative, so f(x) has one real and two imaginary roots.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 219
5.
1 1
1 x2
= x
2
x
2x
sin xy 1 or 1
sin xy = 1 or 1
For x = 1 or 1
sin y = 1 or sin y = 1
y = 2n , n I
2
6.
x y 1
1
(C) 4 0 1 18
2
0 12 1
7.
(A)
m1 m2 = 1
4t 6 6 6 2
= 1
2t 1 3 3 1
4t
(2) = 1 4t = t + 2
2t 4
t=
2
5
1 38
then C is ,
5 5
2
16
8
5
5
BC =
Area = xy =
8.
(B) h > 2a
h>3
320
25
8 5 8
5
5
8
5
2 5 = 16
here
4a = 6, 2a = 3
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 220
9.
at x =
= 2 | 1 + B cos
, f f
+ D cos | ...... (ii)
5
5
5
5
5
2
6
1 B cos
D cos
5
5
2
3
2
f
=2
, f
5
5
5
..... (iii)
...... (iv)
9 2 8 3 7
T = f(0) f() f 5 f 5 + f 5 f 5 f 5 f 5 +
4 6
f
f
5 5
2
8
=f
f = f
3
3
3
7
4
6
= f
and f
= f
f
5
5
5
5
4 2 3
So T = f(0) f() 2 f 5 f 5 f 5 f 5
from equation 1, 2 & 3
T = 2(1 + B + D) 2 [1 + B cos
6
2
+ Dcos | + 2 [ 1 + B cos
+ D cos
]
5
5
5
5
1
2
1
sin( C) =
2
sin(A+B) =
sin C =
11.
12.
(2011) +
1
2
f " (0 )
f (n 1)(0)
+
......+
2!
(n 1)!
n 1!
1!
2!
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 221
13.
(B)
14.
(B)
f ( x ) dx =
f ( x ) dx
3 f ( x) dx
+ ...... +
7 f ( x ) dx
= 2 + 3 + 2 + 5 + 3 + 7 = 22
e cos x
15.
(B) I = 2012
0e
cos x
e cos x
dx
e cos x
cos x
e cos x
0 e
1
again I = 2012
dx
dx
2I = 2012
I = 1006
16.
(D) lim
2
n
4
n
4n r 2
1
=
2
1
r
2n 1
2n
dx
2
2
4n n
1
lim
n r 1
4n 2 4
.......... ..
= nlim
r 1
x2
4
dx
4 x2
1
1 x
= sin
2 0
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 222
17.
(C)
E1 : A wins when A takes out 3 & 6 and B takes out 8 & 9
1 1
1
=
3 3
9
E2 : A wins when A takes out 5 & 6 and B takes out any two no.
1
1
P (E2) = 1 =
3
3
P (E1) =
Required probability =
18.
(A) a b b c c a
ab bc 0
ab cb 0
a c b 0
a c b
a c
(bc ) = ca
a c c = c a
a c c a
a c a c 0
(1 + ) ( a c ) = 0
From (ii) a c b
abc 0
........(i)
........(ii)
= 1
abc
0
centroid of ABC =
3
19.
1
1
4
+
=
9
3
9
2
(B) r r 1 r !
r 1
Tr = [(r + 1) (r 1) (r 2)] r!
Tr = (r 1) (r + 1)! (r 2) (r!)
but
r = 1, 2, .............., n
Tr = 1 + (n + 1)! (n 1)
20.
1, x A
(C) If f (x , A B) =
0, x A
Case (i) x A, x B
then,
f(x, A) + f(x, B) f(x, A) f(x, B) = 1 + 0 0 = 1
Case (ii) x A, x B
f(x, A) + f(x, B) f(x, A) f(x, B) = 0 + 1 0 = 1
Case (iii) x A, x B
f(x, A) + f(x, B) f(x, A) f(x, B) = 0 + 0 0 = 0
Case (iv) x A and x B
f(x, A) + f(x, B) f(x, A) f(x, B) = 1 + 1 1 = 1
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 223
Aliter
1, x A B
If f (x , A) =
0, x A B
Option A is rejected because x (AB) ,then f(x,A) + f(x,B) = 1+ 1 = 2 which cant be attained by f.
PHYSICS
21.
(A)
acceleration of cabin is g relative acceleration of A and B w.r.t. cabin is zero so both A and B continue to
be exactly at rest relative to the cabin.
22.
(B) k k k = mg
23.
(A) v = A 2 r 2
from (i) and (ii)
v2
2 A 2
mg
a2
4 A 2
W = 2mg
...(i)
a = 2r
...(ii)
25.
n2 = 3
26.
(D)
M2 f 2n / 3 2
M2i
n
3
dQ
dT
KA
dt
dx
K1A( T 100 ) K 2 A
(0 T )
T=
27.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 224
T1
P
1
T
P
2
2
233K
7/5
(7 / 5)1
0.28
233
T=
(0.28 )2 / 5
466 J
So that we will required in addition an air conditionaer to cool the air injected into the cabin
28.
(C) f1 = v u f0
v u
f2 = v f0
...(i)
...(ii)
f1 v 2
f2 v 2 u2
v2
f1 = f2 2 2
v
f2 > f1
29.
(C) = 0 (cos2)4
3
= 0
4
= 30% of 0
30.
nv
(C) f = 2
f =
n v'
2
f
v v
f = (1.04)(450) = 468 Hz
31.
(D)
1 1
2 2
f11 = f22
f1 2
f1
2
f2 1 2f1 1
1 2
2 1
1 1
2 2
2 = 2 1 = 2.0 mm
32.
(A) V = V0 cost
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 225
Vrms =
V0
2
V0 = 220 2 Volt
= 50 2 rad/sec = 100 rad/sec.
v = 220 2 Cos(100t)
33.
34.
(B) Momentum is conserved during collision so P P' . But some part of kinetic energy is stored in
excited state
So
K < K
35.
36.
(A) Neutron is chargeless so graph is (1) Proton is positive charge so graph is (2) and for e graph is (3)
37.
(D) R 9
1
1
1 3R
R 1
2
4 4
1
1 1 5R 5R
R
3
4 9 9 4 36
1
1
1
1 2 3
38.
(A)
P'
AT 4
T
4 A
2
P
4
P'
P =
P
4
V
i
V. i
2
i
e
39.
(B) RH =
40.
(A) From given graph highest precision that means sharpness is maximum in graph (I)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 226
CHEMISTRY
41.
(C)
2,2,2
2,2
Ni(CO)4 Ni : [Ar] 3d8 4s2 = t 2g e g
(A)
Ag+ + 2CN [Ag(CN)2]
2[Ag(CN)2] + Zn+2 [Zn(CN)4]2 + 2Ag+
43.
(A)
Ideal mixture
H = 0
V = 0
44.
(C) = CRT
45.
46.
(D)
1
0.01
2 = 0.001 = 10
or
(A)
The given compound is chiral and the possible stereoisomers are enatiomer to each other.
48.
(D)
According to second law of thermodynamics, for spontaniety
SUNIV > 0
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 227
49.
(B)
r1 = 30 nm
r2 = 10 nm
2
surface area
3
= 4r =
3
volume
r
4r
3
(3 / r2 )
30
(3 / r1 ) = 10 = 3
50.
(C) The reaction is example of Pinacole Pinacolone reaction with classical ring expanssion rearrangement.
51.
(B)
H3PO2 a mild reducing agent is used to remove the diazonium group with H.
52.
(A)
(D)
BRAGGS Law
2dsin = n
d = , n = 1
= 30
2
angle of incidence = 60
sin =
54.
(C)
Zn Zn+2 + 2e
2mol
2mol 4mol
G = nFEcell = 4 96500 1.1 = 424.6 kJ/mol
55.
(B)
2NaBH4 + 2 2Na + B2H6 + H2
56.
(C)
[Mn(CN)6]4 & [(Mn/Br)4]2
Mn+2 in both
Mn+2 : [Ar]3d5 4s
With CN :
With Br :
Magnetic moments :
1(1 2) BM &
5 (5 2) BM
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 228
57.
(A)
Half life of zero order reactions initial concentration of the reactant.
58.
(D)
59.
(C)
60.
(C)
Due to intramolecular H-bonding boiling point of (ii) is less than (iii) but greater than (i).
PART-II (2 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
81.
82.
(B)
AK = I
B = 0
|AB| = 0
|A|K = 1
|B| = 0
(4r 2 4r 1) = 3 (4n
1)
12 2 2 ...... (2n)2 x
< 1.01
x
2n(2n 1) ( 4n 1)
< 2.01
6x
n (2n 1) ( 4n 1)
n
3 ( 4n 2 1) < 2.01
3
( 4n 1)
< 2.01
(2n 1)
301
<n
2
150.5 < n
83.
(C)
A - d , A, A + d
3A = a
A =
a
3
a3 a3 ab
+a=0
27
9
3
2a3
ab
a
=0
27
3
a = 0 or
b
2a2
+1=
3
27
2h2
= 1
3
27
parabola whose vertex on y axis.
2x2 = 9 (y - 3)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 229
84.
1
16
9
ellipse
c2 = a2m2 + b2
25 = 16m2 + 9
m2 = 1
m = 1
tangent condition
1
sin(2cos) = 0}
2
2cos = p, p
cos =
p
2
p = 0 only
cos = 0
O = 2k
so AB
86.
1 2a + 3b = 0
by (i) + (ii) we get
4 + 4b = 0
b = 1
f(2) = 8 + 4a + 2b + c = 0
8 4 2 + c = 0
c = 2
f(x) = x3 x2 x 2
1
87.
.........(ii)
f ( x ) dx 2 ( x 2) dx
1
.........(i)
x3
= 2 3 2x = 14
0
3
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 230
88.
(A) In
1
2
1 (1 x )n
xn
dx
dx +
n!
1
n!
x n1
=
n 1!
1
2
(1 x )n1
n 1 ! 1
0
2
n1
1
2
In = 2 .
n 1!
1 2
2
In = 2.
2!
n1
2 .......... .......
3!
1
= 2 e 2 1
89.
1
= 2 e 3
2
(B) |x + y| + |x y| = 4
x2 + y2 4x 6y
= (x 2)2 + (y 3)2 13
A point on square ABCD which is maximum distance from (2, 3) is C(2, 2)
So, required maximum value is 28.
Now,
90.
xy
= 10a + b,
xy = (10b + a)2
2
(x y)2 = (x + y)2 4xy
= 4[10b + a]2 4[10b + a]2
2
(x y) = 22 18 (a + b) (a b)
(x y)2 = 11 9 4 (a + b) (a b)
this should be a perfect square of an integer, only possible case when
a + b = 11
ab=1
a = 6, b = 5
x + y = 2 (10 6 + 5) = 130
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 231
PHYSICS
91.
92.
(B)
Electric field due to uniformly charged isolated sphere (In volume)
Case (a) r < R
E=
Case (b) r = R
E=
E=
KQ
R3
KQ
R2
KQ
r2
(C) Let gravitational acceleration due to mass of planet is g and due to uniformly charge on surface of
planet electric field is E and which is constant because path of projectile is parabolic. All projetile have
same condition
I.
Range for uncharged particle
Range = L =
II.
u2 sin 2
g
...(1)
u2 sin 2
Range = 2
qE
g
...(2)
qE
g 1
mg
L
L
2 1 qE
mg
qE
=2
mg
qE
mg 1
III.
93.
(D)
Range =
2qE
2
3
2
qE
g
g1
m
mg
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 232
1
mv2
2
v2 = 2gsin
Centripetal acceleration at angle is
ac =
v2
= 2gsin
a=
94.
= g 3 sin2 1
(D)
n = 1 mole
initial temperature = T
Initial volume = V
Final volume = 2V
Internal energy V = aV3
3
2
nCVT = aV3
n RT = aV3
PV = nRT
3
PV = aV3
2
P=
2aV 2
3
W=
2v
Pdv
2a
= 3
2av 2
dv
3
2v
2
v dv
v
2v
2a v 3
14av 3 7 2av 2
7
= 3 3 9 3 . 3 . v 3 PV
v
W=
95.
7
RT
3
(C)
VA = VC = 2m3, PA = PB = 200K Pa, PC = 500 KPa
BC is isothermal process
PCVC = PBVB
VB =
PC VC 500 2
3
PB
200 = 5m
200
+0
500
5
= 300 kJ
2
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 233
96.
(B)
For total internal reflection
1.5 sinC = 1.2 sin90
1 .2 4
1 .5 5
sinC =
C = 53.1
maximum incident angle is 53.1 Ans.
97.
(A)
Let linear charge density on wire is and mass of the particle is m & charge on particle is q. From energy
conservation between and 2 distance.
Loss in potential energy = gain in kinetic energy
2kq n
1
2 1
2
= m( 2u) mu
2
2
2
2kqn2 =
1
1
m2u2 mu2
2
2
1
mu 2
2
2kqn2 =
...(i)
1
2 1
2
= mv mu
2
2
4e
4kqn2 =
1
1
mv 2 mu2
2
2
From eq (i)
mu2 =
v=
98.
1
1
mv 2 mu2
2
2
3u
(B)
As loop in pulled to right, there free downward magenetic field is decrease. So, induce emf induced as to
oppose the decrement of magnetic field.
99.
Therefore directions of the induced current in the loop is clock wise and force on left side of loop is toward
left and force on right side of loop is towards right
(D)
V1r1 V2r2
I = r r (r r )R
12
2
2
Case I
V1 = 2V
Case II
V2 = 4V
from case (I and Case II)
V2 = 0V
I = 3mA
V1 = 0
I = 4mA
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 234
Case III
3 r1
2 r2
V2 = 10V
V1 = 10V
................. (i)
I=?
10(r1 r2 )
I = r r (r r )R
12
1
2
................. (ii)
(A)
x2
a2
y2
=1
b2
Different w.r.t.
2x dx 2y dy
=0
................. (i)
a 2 dt b 2 dt
ux = u,
at (o, b),
uy = 0
Different w.r.t.
2x d2 x
2
2 dx
a 2 dt
a dt
accelerat at (o, b) is
2 y d2 y
2
b dt
(from eq (i))
2 dy
=0
b 2 dt
2xo d2 x 2 2 2bay
2
u
(0) = 0
2 2
2
2
a dt a
b
b2
ay =
u2
a2
CHEMISTRY
101.
(B)
XeF6 + 3H2O XeO3 + 6HF
distorted
pyramidal
octahedral
102.
(C)
5e + MnO4
8H+ 4H2O
C2O42 2CO2 + 2e
HCl
103.
1
Cl2 + H+ + e
2
(B)
2e + Fe+2 Fe
0.44 V
Fe+3 + 3e Fe
0.77 V
+3
Fe + 3e Fe
then
104.
x=
xV
2 ( 0.44 ) 0.77
= 0.037 V
3
(A)
E13
E12
1
1
2 2
3
1
8/9
32
= 1
=
1 =
3
/
4
27
2 2
2
1
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 235
105.
(C)
106.
(C)
Due to intramolecular hydrogen bonding reaction is favored at ortho position.
107.
108.
(D)
Ptotal = PA + (P0B P0A) XB
300 = 100 + (500 100) (1 XA)
1 XA =
YA =
109.
1
2
XA =
1
2
1
1
2 =
6
300
100
(B)
Low spin d6
CFSE = 4
2
3
0 + 0 2
5
5
= 0.4 0
High Spin d6
CFSE = 6
110.
2
= 2.4 0 (ignoring pairing)
5 0
(A)
Total area of droplets = 2.4 1018 12.5 1016 = 3000 m2
Energy liberated = 3000 0.03 = 90 J
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 236
10
11
12
13
14
15
Ans.
Ques.
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
Ans.
Ques.
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
Ans.
Ques.
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
Ans.
Ques.
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75
Ans.
Ques.
76
77
78
79
80
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
Ans.
Ques.
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
100
101
102
103
104
105
Ans.
107
108
109
110
111
112
113
114
115
116
117
118
119
120
Ques. 106
Ans.
PART-I (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1.
2.
720
6!
=
= 90 ways
8
2!2!2!
x 3 4 x 1 = x + 8 6 x 1 + 1 2 x 8 6 x 1
2 x 1 6 = 2
x 8 6 x 1
x 1 3 =
x 8 6 x 1
(D) Infinite many solutions.
4.
3 x py
3 x py
+ 17
=0
x2 + y2 (6x + 2py)
17
17
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 237
6.3
.9
2p2
p2
+
+1
+
=0
17
14
17
17
34 18 + 9 p2 = 0
p2 = 25
|p| = 5
1
5.
6.
x e2 y 2
e
Ellipse a =
= 1 (a > b)
,b=
7.
f(x) =
8.
2
5 1
2
8
4
9.
5 1
=4
2x 5 0, 2x + 5 0
0 2x + 5 6
5 2x 11
11
5
x
2
2
mid point is
5 11
.6
3
2 2 =
=
2.2
2
2
10.
11.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 238
1
[(a a2)2 + (a2 a3)2 + (a3 a1)2] 0
2 1
a1 = a2 = a3
12.
I1 =
/2
(sin
x)
(sinx)1 dx
I1 = (cos x )(sin x )
I1 =
/2
2 (sin x )
0
/2
/2
(cos
x ) (sin x )
2 1
dx
/2
2 1
dx
sin x
2 1
dx
/2
I1 =
2 (I2 I1)
Here I1 =
(sin x )
2 1
dx
2 1
1
2
( 2 1)
2
( 2 1)
= 2 2
Ans.
2012
2012
(sin x
13.
x ) dx +
2012
1. dx
2012
= 0 + 2012 ( 2012)
= 4024 Ans.
14.
[x]{x} dx
0
= 0.{x}dx +
=0+1
x . dx + 2 x . dx 3
xdx 4 .
xdx
0
= (1 + 2 + 3 + 4)
x . dx
0
x2
= 10 . 2
0
1
= 10 . 0
2
=5
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 239
15.
Sn
K =
k 1
nn 1
is even (n : 1, 2, ............. 49)
2
n = multi fo a
9, 8, .......... 96
Or (+) n is (multi of 4) 1
3, 7 ............... 99
Total favourable cases 24 + 25 = 49
P[E] =
16.
49
Ans.
99
req. prob =
1 4 6
2 7 10
1 40 42 41
Ans.
2
70
70
17.
HA + HB + HC = 2HO
18.
6m + 9n
Unit digit of 6m is = 6
Unit digit of 9n will be = 9 or 1
For multiple of 5 unit digit of 9n must be = 9
It occur when n = odd
Total number of ordered pair = 50 25 = 1250
19.
a2 =
a1 a 3
2
a3 =
a2 a4
2
a1 =
a 2 a 2012
2
a 2011 a1
2
Now a2 + a4 + ......... + a2012 = 3018 .................... (1)
2a2 + 2a4 + .................... + 2a2012 = 6036
a1 + a3 + a3 + a5 + .............. + a2011 + a1 = 6036
2(a1 + a3 + ................. + a2011) = 6036
a1 + a3 + ................ + a2011 = 3018 ..................... (2)
By adding (1) and (2) we get
a1 + a2 + a3 + ............ + a2012 = 6036
a2012 =
20.
Number of element in B = n
So number of subsets of B = 2n
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 240
PHYSICS
21.
Since area of PV graph under isothermal curve is greater than area under adiabatic curve
So,
wi > wa > 0
22.
Q = Q0et/RC
Q0
= Q0et/RC
2
1
= et/RC
t
RC
t
n 2
RC
t = RC
n2
2
23.
/ R
ML3L3
= T
2
MT
1
R 3
1/ 2
= T1 T
=1
/ R 3
R 3
K2
K2 =
R 3 2
T
R 2
RT 2
K=
R 2
g
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 241
24.
mr 2
mr 2
mr 2 mr 2
2
2
m
(
2
r
)
m
(
r
2
3
)
m( 4r )2
P = 2
2
111 2
mr .
2
25.
vp
vA
26.
a ae
a ae
1 e
1 e
max = ( 0 0 )2
= 40
min = ( 0 0 ) 2 0
avg = 0 + 0 = 20
27.
0
i
B0 = 4 R cos
n
B0 =
28.
sin n sin n
0 i
tan
2 R
n
Due to the negative work on rod K.E. will decrease and finally become zero.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 242
29.
R=
R=
L
r 2
2R = K2rL
2 L
r
dT
dt
= K2rL
dT
dt
2 L
dT
=
dt
K 2 2 r 3
30.
RT
m
=
8RT
m
7
= 0.73
58
U = mc2
KQ 2
mc 2
2R
9 10 9 (1.6 10 19 )2
= 9.1 1031 (3 108)2
2R
R=
9 10 9 (1.6 10 19 )2
2 9.1 10 31 (3 108 )2
= 1.4 1015
32.
33.
Since heat capacity at high temperature is high. So for same amount of heat transfer T is more at lower
temperature then at higher temperature.
So, final temperature is more than 50C .
34.
As F = x3 x4
At x = 0, F = 0
Hence particle is in equilibrium.
35.
It is clear that
dimension x = ML2T2
= ML2T2
and
x=L
So,
= MLT2
will be dimensionless.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 243
36.
2gh
...........(i)
From equation of e
v 2 v1
2gh 0
2gh = v2 v1
..........(ii)
v1 =
3
Hence after collision maximum height
hmax =
( 2gh / 3 )2
2g
h
hmax = g
37.
Hence, m
38.
Resistance of steel =
0 .1
1
=
50 A
500 A
Resistance of copper =
0 .2
1
=
400 A
200 A
Both are connected in series hence heat current in both will be same. So
100 T
1
500 A
39.
T0
= 1
2000 A
T = 20C
From
N11 = N22
4 1020 =
n(2)
n( 2)
= N2
40000
20
N2 = 2 107
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 244
40.
3
0
cos 2 30 0
2 4
2
3 0
8
CHEMISTRY
41.
According to MOT bond order of O2, F2, O2+ and F2 is respectively 2, 1, 2.5 and 0.5.
42.
BCl3, BeCl2 and CCl4 has zero dipole moment due to symmetric structure where as shape of NCl3 is
pyramidal due to presence of lone pair.
43.
44.
46.
KE = | T.E. |
(KE) = (T.E.)
3
8.3 (T) = 1.6 1019 6 1023
2
(T) =
2
9.6 10 4
3
8 .3
47.
48.
t1/2 (a)1 n
10
( t1/ 2 )I
a1
( t1/ 2 )II = a2
0 .2
A0
( t1/ 2 )II = 2 A 0
(t1/2)II = 0.4 s
49.
25
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 245
50.
51.
52.
53.
At pH = pKa the concenteration of acid and its conjugate base are equal.
54.
It is high spin complex as Cl is weak field effect ligand. In [CoCl4]2 oxidation state of Co is +2 in which
3 unpaired electrons are present which gives the spin-only magnetic moment equal to 3.83 BM.
55.
K = Ae Ea / RT
ln K =
Ea
+ ln A
RT
56.
57.
Greater is the bond order shorter will be bond length. In CO32 bond order in between 1 and 2, bond order
of CO2 is 2 where as bond order for CO is in between 2 and 3.
58.
2P(g) + 3Cl2(g)
2PCl3(g)
PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
........(i)
PCl5(g)
........(ii)
2P(g) + 5Cl2(g)
2PCl5(g)
........(iii)
On multipling equation (ii) by 2 and adding in (i) we obtain equation (iii)
Therefore, K3 = K1K22
59.
60.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 246
PART-II (2 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
81.
82.
(1+x)
r 0
x 2r ( 1)r x r =
r 0
x 2r ( 1)r
r 0
r 0
x r + x 2r ( 1)r
r 0
(x
r 1
r 0
for Coffi. of x2012 = (-1)0 + (-1)1 + (-1)2 + ....... (-1)1006) + ((-1)0 + (-1)1+ ..... +(-1)1005)
=1+0
=1
No answer
83.
( x 1) 2
5
2
( y 2) 2
5
3
=1
100 225
325
5 5
= + =
=
36
36
3 2
84.
sinx +
cos x = sin2 x
2
4
sinx +
1
1 cos 2 x / 2
cosx =
2
2
1
1 1
cosx = sin2x
2
2 2
2sinx + cosx = 1 + sin2x
2sinx + cosx = 1 + 2 sinx cosx
2sinx (1 cosx) 1 (1 cosx) = 0
(1 cosx) (2sinx 1) = 0
sinx +
cos x = 1 or sinx =
1
2
5
,
6 6
5
sum of roots = 0 +
+
=
6
6
x=0
x=
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 247
85.
P(x) = ax2 + bx + c
a 0
P(x) = 2ax + b
P(x) = 2a
P(0) = c = 1
P(0) = b = 1
P(x) = ax2 x + 1
P(1) = a 1 + 1 = a 0
87.
I=
cos 2 x
1 a
dx , (a > 0)
...(1)
I=
cos 2 ( x )
1 ax
I=
a x cos 2 x
1 ax
dx
dx
...(2)
(1) + (2)
2I =
cos 2 x(1 a x )
(1 a x )
dx
2
2I = 2 cos x dx
1 cos 2 x
I=
2
1
x cos 2 0 cos 0 0
2
I=
88.
1
1 1
2
.
2
Consider
L=
2012 +
2013 + ... +
3011
R=
2013 +
2014 + ... +
3012
3012
and I =
3 x dx .
2012
89.
P(K) >
1
2
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 248
10
C 0 10 C1 10 C 2 ...... 10 CK 10
10
1
2
2
C0 + 10C1 + ............. + 10CK10 > 29
1 + 10 + 45 + 120 + 210 + 252 + ...... > 512
10
C0 + 10C1 + 10C2 + 10C3 + 10C4 + 10C5 > 512
K 10 = 5
K = 15
10
90.
4 5
f f f
2 3
5
3
5
3
3
= (3)
1
5
=9
3
6
f f f f
4
f f
3
2
3
2
6
f
4
1
2
= (15) 3
1
2
= (15) (5) = 75
375 is multiple of 75.
PHYSICS
91.
H1 = AT4 5 = Ms1
A
(2T)4 5 = msq2
2
2 = 81
2 = 8C
The temperature of water would increase from 10C to a final temperature of 18C
H2 =
92.
GMm
1
mv2 r
2
0
Rocket will remain band to the solar system its B moving energies negative.
=
GMm 1
mv 2 0
r0
2
GMm 1
mv 2
r0
2
GMm 1
m 2 v 02
r0
2
mv02 =
=
1
m2v02
2
2.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 249
93.
B = 1 + 2
n2 2n2 n2 7n2
B
A
3 A
3 A
B 3
= 7.
A
94.
3eV
= 2.3 eV
Kmax = 3 2.3 = 0.7 eV
5 mm 1V
1V 5mm
0.7 V 5 0.7 mm
= 3.5 mm.
95.
V=
Kq KQ
b
c
k( q Q )
0
c
q+Q=0
q = Q
K
KQ
( Q )
V
b
c
1 1
KQ V
c b
Q=
bcV
4 0 .
(b c )
96.
4
(sinC) = 1
3
3
tanC =
17
R
Hh
sinC =
R=
3
7
3
4
(H h) .
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 250
97.
W.S. Bridge
RAB = R/2.
98.
From equation
2
4
=
L
= 0.6 m.
2
99.
T + k1x mg = ma
k2x + mg T = ma
T + k1x mg = k2x + mg T
2T = (k2 k1)x + 2mg
T=
(k 2 k 1 )x
mg
2
(k 1 k 2 )x
2m
If T is 0 then
a=
If T is not zero
a1 =
k 1x mg
k 1x
g
=
m
m
a2 =
k 2 x mg
k2x
g
=
m
m
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 251
100.
at = g sin
ac = v2/
1
mv2 mg cos
2
aC = v2/ = 2g cos
at = g sin
tan = at/ac
= g sin/2g cos
0+0=
........... (i)
........... (ii)
........... (iii)
tan
2
1 tan
= tan
2
CHEMISTRY
101.
102.
T A
350000
0.7
G C
G
G=
350000
= 5,00,000 Ans.
0.7
103.
104.
105.
1240
1
660
KE = 0.878 eV
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 252
150
150
0.878
106.
h K
450
= 150 pm
3
107.
H = 20 kJ/mol
U = H ng RT
U = 20 103 1 8.314 (273 + 60)
U = 20 2.768
U = 17.2 kJ/mol
108.
As in Ni(CO)4 hybridisation of Ni is sp3 and CO is strong field effect ligand therefore, it is diamangetic.
109.
W = nRT ln V
1
V2
W = 3R 300 ln 10
=
900 8.314
2.3 = 17.2 kJ/mol.
1000
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 253
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
Ans
Ques
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
Ans
Ques
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
Ans
Ques
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75
76
77
78
79
80
Ans
Ques
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
100
Ans
Ques
101
102
103
104
105
106
107
108
109
110
111
112
113
114
115
116
117
118
119
120
Ans
AC
PART-I : (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1.
f(x) = x3 + 3x2 + 3x + 3 = 0
f(x) = 3x2 + 6x + 3 = 3(x + 1)2 0
f(x) is Increasing function
Now
f( 3) = 6 < 0
f( 2) = 1 > 0
real root lies between 3 and 2
+ + = 3;
3<<2
+3<++<+2
+3<3<+2
1<+<0
2.
3.
|a + bw + cw2|
|a c + (b c)w|
, for maximum value taking a = 1 , c = 1, b = 1
|a + bw + cw2| = |2 + 2w| = 2|w2| = 2
4.
a 9
ab = 36
4 b
using AM G.M
ab
ab a + b 12
2
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 254
5.
2 g2 c = a
2 f2 c = b
Polar coordinates of centre of circle be (rcos, rsin)
g = r cos
and g2 f2 =
f = r sin
a2 b2
4
r2 cos 2 =
B(1, 1)
a2 b2
4
C(19, 1)
6.
P(a, 1)
a
Q a,
9
A(0, 1)
x=a
area of PQC =
1
area of ABC
2
1
a 1 1
(9 a)1 (8 1)
2
9 2 2
(9 - a)2 = 36 a = 3
7.
Using M - N Rule
(1 + 1) cot ( - B) = 1.cot B - cot C
3cotB = cot C
tan B
=3
tan C
8.
2sin + 3cos = 3 2
3sin + 2cos = 1
....(2)
sum of squares of equation (1) and (2)
4 + 9 + 12 sin ( + ) = 19
....(1)
1
+ = 150 or 30
2
If + = 30 = 30 -
put in equation (1) and (2)
sin ( + ) =
79 6
3
= .8 <
37
2
cos < cos 30
> 30
cos =
+ 30
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 255
9.
lim
x sin( e x ) f ( x )
lim
sin( e x ) x
ex
ex
f(x)
= 1 (0) M = 0
10.
{(sin t )x
A(t) =
( 2 cos t )x sin t } dx
sin t
4
cos t sin t sin t cos t
3
3
A(t) =
4 cos t
sin t
3
St. I and IV are False
A(t) =
11.
Domain of f(g(x)) is R
2 - cosx - cos2x 0
(cos x + 2)(cosx - 1) 0 - 2 cos x 1
xR
Domain of g(f(x)) is [-2, 1]
2
cos 2 x x
2 - x - x2 0
Domain of f(g(x)2) is R
2 - cos2x - cos4x 0
2
2
(cos x + 2)(cos x - 1) 0
-1 cos x 1
xR
Domain of g(f3(x) is Domain of g(f(x)
i.e., [-2, 1]
12.
[t]
dt
10
8
r h
9
2[ t ] dt 2[ t ] dt .... 2[ t ] dt
lim
= h 0
9
r 1
10
2 10 2 9 ..... 2r 1 1 h
= hlim
0
... (1)
x
[t ]
lim
xr
dt
10
8
r h
9
2[ t ] dt 2[ t ] dt .... 2[ t ] dt
lim
= h 0
r
9
10 2
... (2)
f(r) =
[t]
dt
10
... (3)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 256
13.
n 1 r 1
[r ]{r } dx r( x r ) dx
x2
r
rx
r
2
r 1
r 1 r
n 1
n 1
(r 1)2 r 2
r.1
2
r
r 1
r 1
n 1
r 1
n(n 1)
2013
4
n(n - 1) 4 2013
1
2013 16 1
n
2
4
1 n(n 1)
2
r 2 2
32209 1
2
2
least n = 91
14.
1 1
2 .
required area = 2 2
2
4
15.
/4
4 2
2
cos x dx =
8
Let x = 1
favourable out comes (1, 1), (1, 2) .......(1, n) no. of favourable out comes when x = 1
n
=
1
no. of favourable out comes when x = 1 or y = 1
n
= 2 1
1
no. of favourable out comes when x = 2 or y = 2 but x 1, y 1
n
2 1
2
Similarly
no. of favourable out comes when x = k or y = k but x, y {1, 2, ..... k 1}
n
2 1
k
n
So probability =
k 1 1.......n times
k 1
n2
2
n
k n
k 1
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 257
16.
0 x 2 x 3 .......x n 1 ( x1 x n )
1 2
y i 2
n
1 2
0 x 22 x 32 ....( x n 1 )2 ( x1 x n )2 2
n
2 2
2x 1x n
0
n
so
17.
9 9 8
= 648
n + 1, n + 2, ...... n + 18
(A) False, if n = 19
(C) False if n = 15
16 to 33
20, 25, 30 only three multiples of 5
(D) no. of odd integers in Sn = 9
every third odd integer is multiple of 3
so maximum prime no. = 6.
20.
Sum of angles of closed polygon with 10 sides is 8. So maximum number of possible obtuse angle
is 7.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 258
PHYSICS
21.
22.
5
VAB
Q=
R
3
5R
R
3
5
V
8
5
CV
8
25.
26.
V=
e
Hence from graph = 2eV
h
6
slope
e
1.6 1015
h=
27.
6 1.6 10 19
1.6 10
15
6.0 10 34
v
f1 = f 0 v v
s
v v s ~ 2v s
v vs
fR = f1 v f 0 v v 1 v f
= 0.990 f
28.
B due to Arc =
0 i
4r
0i 1 1
29.
30.
2
6 = 4V
21
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 259
tdN
31.
avg life =
tdN 2
2N0
where dN1 = N e t dt
dN2 =
t
3
3 N e dt
avg. life =
t(N e t dt
N e 3 dt
3
2N0
Intergrating we got
avg life =
32.
2 2.10
PV1 +
dp
v =0
dv
dp
dv
Hence n = 1
P = V
34.
work done = 0
Hence kinetic energy = constant
35.
i = 2r
sin i
3
sin r
2cos r =
3
r = 30 & i = 60
Note : But for r = 30 TIR cannot take place at B.
36.
Check dimensionally
37.
Fr = m2r cos 45
where r = Rcos 45
Fr =
m2R
2
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 260
38.
PV
10 5 1
40
n = RT 25 300
3
N = 40 6.023 1023 ~ 24 1024
1
1 3
Average sep. = ~ 1 nm
N
39.
1
mv2 + 0 = 0 + 1
2
v2 = 4 or v = 2 m/s
CHEMISTRY
41.
42.
Ct = C0 kt ; slope = k
43.
44.
45.
P = KH.X(g)
1
X(g) = P K
H
slope
1
KH
46.
c = 0.03
nc = 0.06
n=2
KC =
0.06 2
0.03
0.06 2
0.03
= 0.12
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 261
47.
48.
Aceto acetic ester has active methylene group.
49.
50.
XeF2 ; no. of lp on Xe = 3
XeF4 ; no. of lp on Xe = 2
51.
S =
v2
v2
nRT v 2
ln
=
nR
ln
=
2.303
nR
log
T
v1
v1
v 1 = 2.303 2 8.314 1 = 38.3 J/k
52.
53.
54.
55.
U = 0, H = 0
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 262
56.
n = 2 sin , dhk =
h k 2 2
d100 =
d200 =
1 02 02
a
2
2 02 02
=a
=
a
2
sin 1
n1 d2
sin 2 = n 2 d1
sin 30
2a/2
sin 2 = 1 a
or sin 2 = sin 30 or 2 = 30
57.
Coordination number = 6
[Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ + Cl
58.
Fe3+ = 3d5
is WFL so = 5.92
59.
So reactivity order is
(CH3)3 CCl > CH3 CH2 CH2 Cl >
60.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 263
BIOLOGY
61.
HbF have more affinity for oxygen and this property help in extracting O2 from mother.
62.
63.
64.
67.
68.
69.
2 alleles of a gene separate in neiosis and Non linked different genes segregate independently.
71.
72.
74.
79.
PART-II
Two Mark Questions
MATHEMATICS
81.
Coefficient of highest degree term must be negative becuase if it is positive, then x , y and it is
not possible, since f(x) 100.
Now, graph will be like
y
100
1/2
1
, then f(x) < 100, it is not always true, as the graph can be
2
1/2
then,
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 264
82.
(ak
bk 2 ck d) n 4
k 1
k3 b
k 1
k2 c
k 1
d n
k 1
k 1
83.
(2x - 4)2 = 4x
6c + 2b + 12d = 0
C
y = 2x - 4
(x - 2) 2 = x
x2 - 5x + 4 = 0
x = 1, 4
C(1, -2)
B(4, 4)
AB = AC
( 4 )2 16 ( 1)2 4
On solving, we get =
84.
9
2
Let AB b , AC c
AM = b
AN = m c
Let G divides MN in the ratio K : 1
k c b b c
So
k 1
3
k
1
k 1 3
k=
k 1 3
1 1
3
AM GM
1 1
... (1)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 265
Now,
area of AMN
area of ABC
1
b c
2
1
b c
2
1 1
using
so
85.
4
1
ratio <
9
2
OD = R sin
AB = 2R cos
ar( OAB)
rOAB =
semi perimeter
B
R
R
x
1
1
OD AB
R sin 2R cos
2
2
=
=
2R AB
2R 2R cos
2
2
rOAB =
R sin cos
(1 cos )
drOAB
(1 cos ) cos 2 sin cos ( sin )
0
d
(1 cos ) 2
at cos =
86.
5 1
2
f(x) = 1 + x +
x2 x3 x 4
2
6 24
f(x) = 1 + x +
x2 x3
2
6
x0
x
>0
2
f(x) is an increasing fn
f(x) = 0 at x = x0
f(x) = 1 + x +
x 20 x 30
=0
2
6
x0 (-2, -1)
f(x0) = 0 1 + x0 +
f(-2) f(-1) < 0
f(x0) = 1 + x0 +
.... (1)
x 02 x 30 x 04 x 04
0
2
6 24 24
no solution
x0
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 266
87.
AP = Rsin
area of ring = (2 Rsin). Rd
2R
sin d
1
= 1 cos
2
cos =
1
2
Now,
cos =
R
RH
1
R
= R = H = 6400
2 R H
n 1
88.
{ x} [ x ]
dx
[ x]
n r 1
r 1 r
89.
r 1
n 1
{x}[ x]
dx
[x]
( x r )r
dx
r
1
r(r 1) n 1
r 1
C 5 [1 2(3 )]
100
{x}[ x]
dx .....
[x]
r 1 r
( x r )r 1
r(r 1) r
r 1
100
n r 1
{ x} [ x]
dx
[x]
{x} [ x ]
dx
[ x]
Suppose 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 are
C 5 5!
selected coupons.
1
20
Place of 1 is fixed
Total arrangements of 5 is 2
and
arrangements of 2, 3, 4, are
2
3 way
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 267
90.
(VI) T2 T4
PHYSICS
91.
2M 5M R 2
h R
mv
R
0
R
5
(m + M) (h R)0R
2M 5M R 2
5
h 10m 7M
R
5m M
92.
6 x
3 = (6 + x)tan 1
12
3=
1.4 = x tan 1
12
1.4 =
(6 x )(6 x ) tan
12
x 12 x
tan
12
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 268
30
36 x 2
14 12 x x 2
16x2 360x + 36 14=0
x=
x=
360
360 2 4 36 14 16
32
360 312 48
1 .5
32
32
93.
from graph
94.
1
1
2.6 = 13.6 z2 n 2 4 2
1
1
2.6
= 22 n 2 4 2
13.6 4
2.6
1
1
= 2
13.6 4
16
n
n = 3 now Energy
E=
13.6Z 2
n2
eV
13.6 4
eV = 6eV
9
95.
96.
mg sin Fr = ma
97.
Fr =
2
a
mr 2 2
5
r
5g
7R r
a=
5 g sin
7 R r
T = 2
7R r
5r
mgh =
1
1 2
2
m2 +
mR2 2
2
2 5
R
mgh =
7
m 2
10
10 gh
7
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 269
98.
Q1 2 = w12
wTotal = w12 + w31
10 = w12 20
Q12 = w12 = 30 J
99.
100.
kA
100 T kA T 0
3w 3T = T
T = 75 C
3
CHEMISTRY
101.
102.
103.
Ans. (A)
104.
n PO PS
N
PO
18
18
760 750
m 108
760
18
10
6m 760
6m = 18 76
m = 228
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 270
105.
106.
K1 =
SO3
1
O 2 2 SO 2
K2 =
SO 2 2 O 2
SO3 2
1
Hence: K2 = K 2
1
1
K12 = K
2
107.
NH OH
4
AgNH3 2
AgNO 3 NH 4 OH AgOH
( excess)
108.
w=
Ei t
96500
w=
100 3 t
96500
m
m = dV
V
w = 10.5 80 5 104 = 42 102
d=
42 102 =
100 3 t
96500
t = 135 sec.
109.
N1V1 = N2V2
mili eq. of hypo = 0.25 100
mili eq. of hypo= 25
eq. of hypo = 0.025
mole of hypo = 0.025 1
Vf = 1
weight of hypo = 0.025 248 = 6.2 g
110.
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 271
BIOLOGY
6
113.
1
For EcoR I 10000 2.44 sites present
4
4
1
For RsaI 10000 39.06
4
Using probability rules
114.
115.
(Secondary Endosymbiont) Apicoplast i.e: non photosynthetic plastid is present in plasmodium (protista)
116.
117.
Restriction map as per data is shown above. Thus 1 kb, 3 kb, 4 kb are fragments of gene
118.
Brown fat is abundant in bibernating mammals and new born babies (mammals only)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 272
ANSWER KEY
Que s.
Ans.
Que s.
Ans.
Que s.
Ans.
Que s.
Ans.
Que s.
Ans.
Que s.
Ans.
Que s.
Ans.
Que s.
Ans.
1
D
16
B
31
B
46
A
61
C
76
A
91
C
106
C
2
A
17
C
32
C
47
C
62
A
77
A
92
A
107
B
3
C
18
A
33
A
48
A
63
B
78
B
93
B
108
C
4
B
19
D
34
C
49
B
64
D
79
A
94
D
109
A
5
B
20
C
35
B
50
A
65
C
80
B
95
A
110
C
6
D
21
C
36
A
51
A
66
B
81
A
96
C
111
B
7
C
22
C
37
D
52
C
67
D
82
C
97
B
112
D
8
D
23
A
38
C
53
D
68
B
83
B
98
D
113
D
9
B
24
D
39
B
54
B
69
A
84
D
99
B
114
A
10
D
25
B
40
A
55
C
70
D
85
C
100
C
115
C
11
B
26
B
41
D
56
D
71
C
86
101
A
116
D
12
D
27
D
42
A
57
C
72
A
87
A
102
B
117
C
13
C
28
B
43
D
58
A
73
D
88
B
103
D
118
B
14
C
29
C
44
C
59
A
74
C
89
B
104
C
119
A
15
B
30
A
45
C
60
C
75
D
90
105
B
120
A
PART-I (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1.
Let a,a1,a2 _ _ _ _ _ _ _ be the length of siden of square inscribed in circle c0,c1,c2 _ _ _ _ _ and
r1, r2, r3, _ _ _ _ _ be radius of circle c1, c2, _ _ _ _ _ then, a 20 2 r12
r1
2a12
Area Ci .i
a12
i0
2.
4
r22
r2
4 8
2
2
2 2
1
3
5
,y
2
3
(A) [ x y ] [ x ] [ y ]
for x
3 5 3 5
2 3 2 3
3 2 false
9 10
6 1 1
(B) [ xy ] [ x ][ y ]
for x
15
6 1 1
2 1 false
for x = 7/2
[27 / 2 ] 2[7 / 2]
1/2
128 23
x [x]
(D) y [ y ] true x R
Ans. (D)
3
5
,y
2
3
11 8 false
Ans. (A)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 273
3.
An = (nCr) max
case- n = 2k (even) An = 2kCk n 1 = 2k 1 (odd) An1 = 2k1Ck1 or 2k1Ck
An
1.9 A
2
1.9
n 1
1.9 2 2 which is true for
every n = even
n = 2, 4, 6,.......... 20 10 numbers
case- n = (2k 1) (odd)
2k 1
2k 2
10 k
4.
Ck
2
C k 1
An
An1 = 2k2Ck1 1.9 A
2
n 1
An = 2k1Ck or 2k1Ck1
1.9
2k
2k 1
Ck
2.0
;
C k 1
n 19
2k 1
2;
k
n = 19 only ;
1.9
1.9 k 2k 1 2k
total = 11
Ans-(C)
Ans-(B)
(0,1)
1
2
1
2
5.
( 1 + 2,0 )
Ans - (B)
6.
AS = SS = SB
e = 1/3
a=3
Ans - (D)
7.
AB=BC
Cos
1
2
and Sin
2
3
6
cos
8.
cos sin
y
1
2a
6
cos 4 x
2
6
1
1
sin 4 x
2
cos x
sin2 x
(cos2 x sin2 x ) 1
3
2
Ans- (C)
cos 4 x sin4 x
cos2 x sin2 x
sin2 x cos2 x
1
1
2
sin x cos2 x
cos 2 x 1
2
2
0
x
x
sin
cos
cos2x 0
2x = t, t [0,4 ]
sin2 x cos2 x 1
t (1 t ) 1
sin2 x (1 sin2 x ) 1
t t2 1
t2 t 1 0
D<0
O
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 274
9.
x 5
, x2
f (x) x 2
1 , x 2
f(x) is discontinuous at x = 2
f(x) = 2
10.
x 5
2
x 2
x 5 2x 4
x9.
Ans(B)
f(x) [x]sin x
Ans - (D)
11.
sinx = tan2x
sin2x = sinx(1 sin2x)
sin x (sin2x + sin 1) = 0
sin x 0
sin x
x 0, sin1
5 1
2
5 1
5 1
, sin1
2
2
Ans(B)
12.
I f(x 2 )dx
dx
Let x2=t ;
I 1 f(t)
0
13.
dt
2 t
f'(x) = 1 +f(x)
1
1
2 2 t
1
2 t
dt
dt
1
dt
f(t) 2 f(t) 2
0
5I
Ans-(D)
f(0) = 0
f (x)
1
1 f (x)
ln (1 + f(x)) = x
then f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) f(x) f(y)
Ans(C)
14.
cos(2 [ x]{xy })
1
n cos(2 [ x ]1dx ) n | dx n
Ans(C)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 275
15.
16.
5
1 1 5
6
P(B) = 1. 1. . . ..........
6
6 6 6
7
Ans -(B)
n 3
2
i
xi
x1 x 2 x1 x 2
x 3 x 4 ......... x n
2
2
=
n
y 1 y 2 y 3 ...... y n
=
n
=
x 1 x 2 ........ x n
=
n
.......(1)
1
(2x 12 2x 22 4 x 1x 2 ) x 32 ........ x n2
4
1 2
( x1 x 22 ) x 1x 2 x 32 ...... x n2 x 2
i
2
n
n
x 12 x 22 ....... x 22 x i
n
n
2
1
.........(2)
(B) is correct
GA=GB=a
1
3
Ans -(C)
18.
Ans -(A)
19.
Ans- (D)
4 2
3 5
4 5 2 5 2
C4
1
1
3
1
2 1 4 2 3
2
1
cos
20.
by (1) and (2)
17.
x1 x 2 x1 x 2
x 32 ...... x n2
2
2
C2 2 5 C3
3
2
3
2
2a
3
a
2
D
E
Ans - (C)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 276
PHYSICS
2L, m
21.
J = mv J.L =
M(2L)2
12
J.L=
ML2
Ans.
(C)
J/M
Cm
ke=
22.
J2 3J2
= 2J2/m
2m 2m
mgh =
1
1
mv2+ I 2
2
2
mgh =
1
1 MR 2 2
mv2 + .
2
2
2
gh =
3J
ML
1
1
3
mv2 + mv2 = v2
2
4
4
4gh
3
V2 =
V=
Vp
VR
23.
V=
4gh
3
2gh
4
2/3
32
Ans.
(C)
V (r) = kr
U (r) = mkr
F=-
2 =
du
mk =
dr
24.
Ans. (D)
25.
A1V1 = A2V2
k
r
k
r
T=
2 r
k
Ans.
(A)
1 2
dv = Const.
2
d = density
P1V1 = P2V2
Ans. (B)
P+
26.
Ans. (B)
27.
Ans. (D)
28.
PV2 = C
PV.V = K
nRT.V = K
VT = K
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 277
V1T1 = V2T2
V2>V1 T2<T1
P1V12 = P2V22
V2 2 P1
V12 P2
P.
K2
C
T2
P
k
T2
P1
T12
T12 T2 2
P1 T12
P2 T2 2
Ans.
(B)
29.
v o
n = n v v
s
v
n = n v v
s
n' v v s
n" v v s
1.2
n" v v s 330 30 300
30.
(A)
31.
1 1 1
v u f
Ans.
(C)
30 cm
1
1 2
f fm fl
1 1 2
1
f 10
5
f = -5
1
1
1
v 30
5
1 1 1
v 5 30
6 1 5
30
30
v = -6cm
Ans.
(B)
32.
Ans. (D)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 278
Vx
33.
vy = ay.t
eE l
.
m u
vx = u
vy =
tan =
34.
eEl
mu2
tan 1
4
tan 2
KQ
W1 = q
35.
Q=
tan 1
0.1
4
Ans. (A)
+q
-q
-a/2
a/2
kq2
a
W=
(C)
tan 2 =
+q
KQ kq
( q)
W2 =
a
R
Ans.
C
E
2
Ceq =
C.KC
C2K
CK
C KC C(1 k) 1 K
Q=
CK
E
1 k
2ck c(k 1)
2ck ck c
ck c
CK C
CK C
=
Ans. (B)
Q = 1 k 2 E ; Q = 1 k 2 E =
2(1
k)
2(1
k)
2(1
k)
36.
V = ed
E=
100
20um
37.
dN
n
dt
38.
N
4R 2
39.
40.
Ans.
N=
100
1 5v
20
V1 =
dN
dt
dt
Ans.
6.93
10 4 = 10-4
6.9
160 6200 10 10
5 1019 10
=
4 3.14 3.24
6.62 10 34 3 108
496
5 1019 10
1019 = 1.25 1019
=
10
4 3.14 3.24
1
1
1 1
2
2
2
3 4 9 125
1
1 1
64
2 = 1 1
2
2
9 25
3
5
(A)
Ans.
125
1
64
Ans.
(D)
16 62 10 7
20 10 34 108
(C)
Ans.
(B)
108 = 80
117.5 = 82.5
Energy required = 82.5-80
= 2.5
(A)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 279
CHEMISTRY
41.
-10
-3
-2
Concentration of Br in 10 M aq AgNO3 =
[ Ag ]
5 10 13
5 10 11 m
=
(10 2 )
42.
Ans.
(A)
43.
Ans.
(D)
44.
Ans. (C)
45.
Ans.
(C)
46.
ln k = ln A
Ans.
(A)
47.
Ans.
(C)
48.
Ans.
(A)
49.
50.
Ans. (B)
Ans. (A)
51.
When QC > KC
Reaction move in backward direction
Ans.
(A)
52.
Ans.
(C)
53.
Ans. (D)
54.
Ans.
(B)
55.
Compound is AsCl3
Ans.
(C)
56.
Ans.
(D)
Ea 1
R T
57.
Ans. (C)
58.
H 6000 J
S = T 213k 22J/K.mol
Ans.
(A)
59.
Ullmann reaction
Ans.
(A)
60.
Ans.
(D)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 280
PART-II
Two Mark Questions
MATHEMATICS
81.
Ans-(A)
n
82.
k wk
1 w
R0
y = ax2 + bx + c
a > 0, b < 0, c < 0
Also y(1) = a + b + c < 0
Ans-(B)
84.
Sin
r1
r
2
AP1 AP2
AP2 AP1 r1 r2
r2 3 r1 3 r1 r2
r2 ( 3 1) r1
3 1
r2
2 3
r1
85.
Ans- (D)
f(x) = 0
86.
Ans-( )
87.
Sol- In
/2
Ans-(C)
xn cos xdx
n
In +n(n-1)In-2 =
2
.......(1)
I n 2 !I
In
In 2
n 2
n
Also
=
n!
n 2 ! n 2
n 2 n!
n
( 2)
=
n 2 n!
2
= e 1 2
Ans- (A)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 281
88.
Sol-
= 50
for n = 8
66
for n = 9
Ans - (B)
89.
90.
PHYSICS
Initial
Final
w
V=W'R
91.
A
v=
2Rw
7
92.
Ans. (A)
93.
Tmax - mg =
W =
2w
7
mv 2
....(i)
R
from energy cons.
ki + ui = kf + uf
1
O + mg (R-R cos ) = mv2+0
2
V2 = 2gR (1-cos )
Put in eq. (i)
Tmax = 3mg - 2mg cos
Ans.
(C)
Tmin
Tmax
mg cos
V mg
mg
Tmax
Tmin =4
Ans.
=60
(B)
94.
R
1
3
R
R
R
2
1 3
Ans.
(D)
95.
Ans. (A)
96.
Ans. (C)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 282
97.
98.
F=
2P
C
mg =
99.
E = + eV
E = + e (.9)
1.1E = + e(.9)
.1E = .3e
E = 3eV put
2.4eV
100.
2 1.5 103
3 108
m = 10-6kg
Ans.
(C)
Ans.
(B)
Ans.
(D)
Ans.
(B)
Ans.
(C)
Ans.
(D)
Ans.
(B)
CHEMISTRY
101.
Ans. (A)
102.
d=
PM
RT
M = 123
dRT
P
acetic acid exist as dimer
M=
103.
E = H - (PV) = H - ngRT
104.
Ans. (C)
105.
=
106.
(BDE)
Reacant
(BDE)Pr oducts
107.
Ans.
108.
109.
Ans. (A)
110.
Ans.
Ans.
(C)
CLASS-XII_STREAM-SB+2_PAGE # 283
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