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IIT-JEE 2011

BMAT2/CPM/P(II)/Qns
19.12.2010

B-MAT FULL TEST-II


FOR OUR STUDENTS
TOWARDS

IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2011


PAPER II
CHEMISTRY PHYSICS MATHEMATICS
QUESTION PAPER CODE
Time: 3 Hours

Maximum Marks: 237

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INSTRUCTIONS:

TEST-II

CHEMISTRY
PART-I
SECTIONI
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B) ,
(C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1.

6 g of He having average velocity 4 10 2 ms 1 is mixed with 12 g of Ne having the same


average velocity. What is the average kinetic energy per mole of the mixture?
(A) 565.5 J
(B) 1131 J
(C) 1696.5 J
(D) 807.85 J

2.

A 250 ml flask containing NO(g) at 046 atm is connected to a 100 ml flask containing oxygen
gas at 086 atm by means of a stop cock at 350 K. The gases are mixed by opening the stop
cock where the following equilibrium is established.
2NO(g) + O2(g) 2NO2(g)
N2O4(g)
The first reaction is complete while the second is at equilibrium. If the total pressure is
037 atm, Kp is
(A) 10 atm1
(B) 0645 atm 1

(C) 645 atm 1


3.

(D) 342 atm 1

Calculate the ratio of pH of a solution containing 1 mole of CH 3COONa + 1 mole of HCl per
litre to that of a solution containing 1 mole of CH 3COONa + 1 mole of CH 3COOH per litre.
1
2
(A)
(B)
2
1
3
2
(C)
(D)
2
3

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4.

A compound has the following percent composition and its molar mass is 148 g mol1.
Be = 61% , N = 378%, Cl = 48%, H = 81% . What is the structural formula for the compound,
if in water, 1.48 g of the compound reacts with excess of AgNO3 to give 2.87 g of AgCl.
(Given : Atomic mass of Be = 9)
(A) [Be(NH 3 )2 Cl 2 ]
(B) [Be(NH3)4]Cl2

(C) [Be(NH 3 )4 Cl 2 ]
5.

(D) [Be(NH3)3Cl]Cl

Which of the following gem-diol is/are stable?


OH
OH
|
|
(II) CH 3 C CH 3
(I) CF3 C CF3
|
|
OH
OH
O
C

(III)

C
C

OH
OH

(IV) CCl3CH (OH )2

(A) III and IV


(C) I, III and IV

6.

(B) IV only
(D) I and II

Which of the following is/are incorrect statement(s) :


(I) CHCl3 is less acidic than CHF3.
(II) Dipolemoment of chlorobenzene is more than chlorocyclohexane.
(III)Dipolemoment of fluoromethane is more than chloromethane
(IV)NH2NH2.HCl shows positive test for nitrogen in Lassaignes test.
(A) (I) only
(B) (II) only
(C) (I) and (II)
(D) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)

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SECTIONII
Integer Type
This section contains FIVE questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.

7.

8.

If the equilibrium constant for the reaction of weak acid HA with strong base NaOH is 1010,
then the pH of 0.01 M NaA is _______.
Asbestos [CaMg3O(Si 4O11 )] is an example of "amphiboles", which is a special type of chain
silicates in which two strands are cross-linked. The magnitude of charge on silicate anion
is________.

9.

A mixture having one mole each of 1-butene and 2-butene is treated with excess of Br2 in
CCl4 to form C4H8Br2. The number of isomeric structures including stereoisomers of product
C4H8Br2 is _________ .

10.

The 30.87 eV / atom energy released during the following change: A + 2e A2. If the
energy released is used to dissociate 44.8 L of H2 (at STP), equally into H+ and H*
(it is the excited state, where the electrons travels in orbit whose circumference equal to four
times its de-Broglie's wavelength). Find the minimum moles of 'A' that would be required.

H2
H + + H *
(Given : bond energy of H2 = 4.526 eV / molecule, I.E. of H = 13.6 eV/atom)

11. In CsCl structure, the number of Cs+ ions that occupy second nearest neighbour locations of a
Cs+ ion is ________ .

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SECTIONIII

Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each of the paragraphs 3 multiple choice
questions have to be answered. Each of these question has four choices (A), (B) , (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 12 to 14


The addition reaction of enol or enolate to the carbonyl group of aldehydes or ketones is
known as aldol (aldehyde + alcohol) addition. The -hydroxyaldehyde and the -hydroxyketone so
obtained undergo dehydration in the second step to produce a conjugated enone. The first part of
the reaction is an addition reaction and the second part is an elimination reaction. Aldol
condensation is seen in case of carbonyl compounds containing -hydrogen. Dilute bases such as
NaOH, KOH, Ba(OH)2 or NaH are used as reagents. Aldol condensations are also catalysed by
acids.
O

12.

OEt

(i) K2CO3
(ii) Br

X, X is

Br

O O

(A)
13.

OEt

(B)

O OH

O O

(C)

(D)

Which one is correct about aldol condensation reaction?


(A) Base catalysed dehydration follows E1 mechanism.
(B) Acid catalysed dehydration follows E1cB mechanism.
(C) Base catalysed dehydration follows E1cB mechanism.
(D) Acid catalysed dehydration follows E2 mechanism.
O

14.

(i) NaOH /H2O


(ii) H3O+

A, A is

O
COOH

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) none of these

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 15 to 17


Life on Earth has been made possible by the energy from the sun. The sun is a typical star
belonging to a group of hydrogen-burning (nuclear fusion, not oxidation) stars called main
sequence stars. The core of the sun is 36% hydrogen (1H) and 64% helium (4He) by mass.
Under the high temperature and pressure inside the sun, atoms lose all their electrons and the
nuclear structure of a neutral atom becomes irrelevant. The vast space inside atoms that was
available only for electrons in a neutral atom becomes equally available for protons, helium
nuclei, and electrons. Such a state is called plasma. At the core of the sun, estimated density is
158 g/cm3 and pressure is 2.5 1011 atm.

15.

The total number of moles of protons, helium nuclei and electrons combined per cm3 at the
core of the sun are
(A) 57
(B) 107
(C) 189
(D) 289

16.

Find the percentage of space occupied by particles in hydrogen gas at 300K and 1 atm. The
radius of nuclear particle can be estimated from r = (1.4 1013 cm) (mass number)1/3.
Assume that the volume of a hydrogen molecule is twice that of a hydrogen atom, and the
hydrogen atom is a sphere with the Bohr radius (0.53 108 cm).
(A) 0.003%
(B) 0.006%
(C) 2%
(D) 0.06%

17.

If the density of the liquid hydrogen is 0.09 gm/cm3 then find the percentage of space
occupied by particles in liquid hydrogen. Other required data can be taken from the above
problem.
(A) 0.003%
(B) 0.03%
(C) 0.0003%
(D) 3%

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SECTIONIV
Matrix Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in
Column I and five statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in
Column I can have correct matching with one or more statement(s) given in Column II. For
example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the statements given in q and r,
then for that particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles corresponding to
q and r in the ORS.
18.
Column I

Column II

(A) Formic acid

(p)

Does not form anhydride

(B) Fumaric acid

(q)

Undergoes salol formation

(C) Salicylic acid


(D) Cinnamic acid

(r)
(s)
(t)

Reduces Tollen's reagent


Shows cis-trans isomerism
Undergoes decarboxylation on heating
with sodalime.

19.
Column I

Column II

(A) 5.55 mole

(p)

4. 48 litre of SO2 at NTP

(B) 0.1 mole

(q)

100 mL of H2O

(C) 0.2 mole

(r)

22 g of CO2

(D) 0.5 mole

(s)

2.24 litre of NH3

(t)

0.1 gm atom of Iron

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PHYSICS
PART-II
SECTION I
Single Correct Choice Type
This Section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
20.

21.

A box of mass 1 kg is mounted with two cylinders each


of mass 1 kg, moment of inertia 0.5 kg m2 and radius 1 m
as shown in figure. Cylinders are mounted on their
control axis of rotation and this system is placed on a
rough horizontal surface. The rear cylinder is connected
to battery operated motor which provides a torque of 100
N-m to this cylinder via a belt as shown. If sufficient
friction is present between cylinder and horizontal surface
for pure rolling, acceleration of the vehicle in m/s2 will be
(Neglect mass of motor, belt and other accessories of
vehicle).
(A) 20 m/s2
(B)10 m/s2
(C) 25 m/s2
A spaceship is sent to investigate a planet of mass M and
radius R. While hanging motionless in space at a distance
5R from the centre of the planet, the spaceship fires an
instrument package with speed v0 as shown in the figure.
The package has mass m, which is much smaller than the
mass of the spaceship. The value of angle for which the
package just graze the surface of the planet will be

Electric motor
m

(D) 30 m/s2

v0
m

5R

1
8GM
(A) sin 1
1+ 2
5v0 R
2

1
8GM
(B) sin 1 1 + 2
5v0 R
5

1
2GM
(C) sin 1 1 + 2
5v0 R
5

1
8GM
(D) sin 1 1 + 2
3v0 R
5

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22.

All the wires on the front and the back hexagonal face (of
the Skelton hexagonal prism) have resistance R. All the
wires along the lines joining the vertices of two hexagons
have resistance 2R. The equivalent resistance between P and
Q as shown in the figure is

Q
(A)

23.

23R
20

15R
20

(C)

13R
20

(D)

A uniform but time varying magnetic field increasing at a


constant rate 100 T/sec is present in a cylindrical region as
shown. A charged particle having charge 0.1C and mass
10gm is kept in equilibrium, at the top of a spring of spring
constant 100 N/m in such a way that it is on the horizontal
line passing through the center of the magnetic field as
shown in figure. The natural length of the spring will be
(g = 10 m/s2)

(A) 17.8 cm
24.

(B)

(B) 18.7 cm

(C) 23 cm

A semi circular disc hanging freely about a fixed


point as shown in figure (A) has frequency of
oscillation f0. When it is suspended from another
point as shown in figure (B), the frequency of
oscillation will be approximately
f
(A) f0
(B) 0
2
(C) 1.8 f0
(D) 0.9 f0

3R
20

20cm

K
(0, 0)

(D)

Figure (A)

(1m, 0)

20.3 cm

Figure (B)

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10

25.

A thin walled sphere made up of glass is kept at rest on a horizontal surface. The radius of
the sphere is 1 m and it is filled with a transparent liquid of refractive index . S is the
luminous source moving directly toward a plane vertical mirror M. A fish in the liquid is
moving toward S. The eye of the fish and S are collinear and perpendicular to mirror M. At
the moment S is 3 m away from the center of the sphere, the fish observes that image of S
due to reflection is moving with a speed of 13 ms1. If speed of the fish relative to the sphere
is 10 ms1 and = 1.5, then the speed of the source at that instant will be (The system is
placed in air)
M
Fish
A
2m
S

(A) 10 m/s

(B) 9 m/s

(C) 8 m/s

(D) 6 m/s

SECTION II
Integer Type
This section contains FIVE questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be
bubbled.

26.

The diameter of a wire of length 50 cm is measured with the help of a screw gauge. The main
scale reading is 1mm and circular scale reading is 25. Pitch of the screw gauge is 1 mm and
the total number of divisions on the circular scale is 100. This wire is used in an experiment
of determination for the Youngs modulus of material of a wire by Searles method. The
following data are available: elongation in the wire l = 0.125 cm under the tension of 50 N,
least count for measuring normal length of wire is 0.01 cm and for elongation in the wire is
0.001 cm. The maximum percentage error in calculating value of Youngs modulus (Y) is n
0.484. Find n. (assuming that the force is measured very accurately, Y = Fl/Al, where
symbols have their usual meaning)

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11

27.

Two blocks A and B are attached to a spring of

force constant K and are placed on a horizontal


450
surface. The coefficient of friction between block
u
A and surface is zero while between block B and
k
A
B
surface is . A spherical ball of mass M, radius R
impinges on block A with angular velocity and
linear velocity u as shown
1
The coefficient of restitution is
and coefficient of friction between the ball and block A is
2
1
. Find velocity of block B when spring suffers maximum deformation. Initially the
2
300
spring is non deformed. (M = 1kg, MA =3kg, u = 10m/s, k =
N/m , MB = 10 kg, = 0.2,
16
g = 10 m/s2)

28.

In the given figure the three plates-P, Q, R are of same


mass M and plate area A. The system is in state of
equilibrium and plate P is suspended by an inextensible
string. Middle plate is given a small displacement x
vertically downwards such that it remains in equilibrium.
The corresponding displacement of lower plate is given
0 AV 2 x
as
. Find the value of n.
0 AV 2
3

kl n
nkl 3

Q
l

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12

29.

30.

A particle is attached to a string of length L and is suspended from a point O


on a fixed support. The particle is given a horizontal velocity u at the bottom
position and in subsequent motion it leaves the circular path and when it is at
a horizontal separation of x from point O, its velocity makes an angle of 300
1
with the horizontal. Also the magnitude of velocity at this instant is
3
nL
times the critical velocity. If the value of x is
, find n.
4 3

An adiabatic cylinder of length 1 m and area of cross section 102 m2 is closed at both ends.
A freely moving non conducting thin piston divides the cylinder into two equal parts. Each
part contains 28 gm of N2. The natural length of the spring connected to the piston and the
N
1
right wall of the cylinder is l = 50 cm and k = 2 10 3 . Initially rd molecules of the
m
3
nitrogen in the right part are dissociated into atoms. Initial pressure in each part is
P0 = 2 10 5 N/m2. The gas on left side is heated slowly by the heater so as to compress the
3l
spring by
. The work done by the gas in right part is 707 nJ. Find the value of n.
4
k

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13

SECTION III
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraph 3 multiple choice questions
have to be answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 31 to 33


A rod CD of length l and mass m is placed upright
on a frictionless horizontal surface as shown in the
figure. A second identical rod AB is moving along
the surface with a velocity v, the end B strikes end
C of rod CD. (Coefficient of restitution e = 0.5)

D
l
v
A

B
C

31.

The velocity of the rod AB just after the collision will be


(A) 0.7 v
(B) 0.3 v
v
v
(C)
(D)
2
3

32.

The velocity of the center of mass of rod CD is

(A) 0.7 v
(C) 0.3 v
33.

v
2
v
(D)
4
(B)

The angular velocity of rod CD just after the collision is


8v
9v
(A)
(B)
9l
5 l
2v
3v
(C)
(D)
4 l
l

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 34 to 36


A cylindrical vessel of radius 1m and height 3m is
filled with an ideal liquid upto a height of 2m as
shown in figure. The cylinder is rotated about its
axis with angular velocity . ( g = 10 m/s2)

h1
h0
R

34.

35.

36.

The maximum value of angular velocity of the cylindrical vessel so that the liquid will not
start spilling over the brim is

(A) 2 5 rad/s

(B) 2 10 rad/s

(C) 2 15 rad/s

(D) 3 10 rad/s

If the liquid is not spilling over the brim, the bottom most point of the liquid meniscus will
be at a height of h from the base of the cylindrical vessel. The value of h is

(A) 2 m

(B) 1 m

(C) 1.5 m

(D) 1.2 m

The angular velocity of the cylindrical vessel so that half of the initial volume will spill out is

(A) 2 10 rad/s

(B) 2 15 rad/s

(C) 3 10 rad/s

(D) 110 rad/s

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15

SECTION IV
Matrix Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given
in Column I and five statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in
Column I can have correct matching with one or more statement(s) given in Column II.
For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the statements given in q and
r, then for that particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles corresponding to
q and r in the ORS.
37.

Match the following


Column I

Column II

(A) Solid metal sphere in pure translational (p)


motion parallel to inclined plane.

Maximum potential difference = BrV


between two points of sphere.

B = uniform magnetic field directed


perpendicular to the plane of
motion
P
V S

Q
a = 30

(B) Solid metal sphere is in pure rolling


B = uniform magnetic field directed
perpendicular to the plane of
motion

(q)

Potential difference across P and Q


= VP VQ = 2 BrV

P
V S
R

C
Q

a = 30

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16

(C) Solid metal sphere is in pure translation (r)


parallel to inclined plane in the plane of
the paper.
B = uniform horizontal magnetic field in
the plane of motion

Maximum potential difference = 2BrV


between two points of sphere.

P
V S
a

a = 30

(D) Solid metal is in pure rolling motion in (s)


the plane of the paper.
B = uniform magnetic field in the plane
of motion.

Potential difference across P and Q is


zero.
VP VQ = 0

P
V S
a

C
Q

a = 30

(t)

Potential difference across points R and


S is zero.
i.e. VR VS = 0

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38.

In the given arrangement, all the strings are ideal. The tension in
each string and acceleration of the blocks are indicated. If
A
T3
pulleys are massless and frictionless, they are termed as ideal
T1 T2
and if pulleys have mass and friction is sufficient to prevent
slipping of thread over the pulley, the pulleys are said to be real.
a1 5kg
B
Column I represents different situation for pulley A and B and
T4
Column II represents the relation between tensions and
20kg
a2
accelerations. Match Column I with Column II.
Column I
Column II

(A)

Both pulleys are ideal

(p)

T1 = T2

(B)

Pulley A is ideal but pulley B is real

(q)

T2 = T3

(C)

Pulley B is ideal but pulley A is real

(r)

T4 = T2 + T3

(D)

Pulley A and B have masses but are frictionless

(s)
(t)

T4 T2 + T3
a2 < a1

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18

MATHEMATICS
PART-III
SECTION - I
Single Correct Choice Type
This Section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
39.

40.

41.

For aR if |x + a 3| + |x 2a| = |2x a 3| is true xR then exhaustive set of a is


(B) a [3, 2]
(C) a {2, 2}
(D) a {1}
(A) a [4, 4]
x
x
x
If b c, 2b x and b a are in H.P., then a , b and c are in
2
2
2
(A) A.P.
(B) G.P.
(C) H.P.
(D) none of these
Radius of larger circle touching the coordinate axis and the line y + 2x + 1 = 0, is

(A)

5 +3
4

(B)

3+ 5
4

(C)

3 5
4

(D)

3 5 +1
4

42.

Let w, w is complex cube root of unity and P(z) is point on a circle |z| = 4 such that |z 1| is
maximum and centroid of triangle formed by z, w, w is then Re() is
2
(A) 2
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D)
3

43.

In a complex plane the points A and B are at z1 = 5 2i and z 2 = 1 + i. If P (z ) moves such


that | z z1 |= 2 | z z 2 |, then the maximum area of PAB is
(A) 5
(B) 1/3
(C) 25/3
(D) 50/3

44.

If A is a skew symmetric matrix, then B = ( I A)( I + A) 1 is (where I is an identity matrix


of same order as of A)
(A) idempotent matrix
(B) symmetric matrix
(C) orthogonal matrix
(D) none of these

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19

SECTION II
Integer Type
This section contains FIVE questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be
bubbled.

45.

46.

If four points be taken on a rectangular hyperbola such that the chord joining any two points
is perpendicular to the chord joining the other two points and if , , , be the
inclinations to either asymptote of the straight line joining these points to the centre, then
find the value of tan tan tan tan .
5x
If function f ( x) = cos(nx) sin satisfies f ( x + 3 ) = f ( x), then find the number of
n
integral values of n.

47.

Three circles touch one another externally. The tangents at their points of contact meet at a
point whose distance from point of contact is 4. Find the ratio of the product of the radii to
the double of the sum of the radii of the circles.

48.

If z is a complex number and the minimum value of | z | + | z 1 | + | 2 z 3 | is and if


1
y = 2[ x] + 3 = 3[ x ] then find the value of ([ x + y ]). (where [.] denotes the greatest
5
integer function).

49.

Find the number of integral values of 'a ' for which the inequality 3 | x a |> x 2 is satisfied
by at least one negative x.

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SECTION - III
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraph 3 multiple choice questions
have to be answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 50 to 52
Consider two parabolas C1 : y = (x 1)2 + f(k) and C2 : x2 2x + 4y 7 = 0 where
1
f(k) = |k2 3 k + 2| + , kR
4

50.

If C1 and C2 does not intersect then | k2 3k + 2| is greater than


1
3
(A)
(B)
4
4
7
(C)
(D) 1
4

51.

Distance between foci of C1 and C2 for which f(k) is least, is


1
3
(A)
(B)
2
4
3
1
(C)
(D)
4
2

52.

If (0, 2 ) then 4f(k) = 4cos2 2 3 has solution for

(A) = , k = 1
(C) = , k =

3
2

,k=2
8

(D) = , k = 2
4
(B) =

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 53 to 55


Consider a hyperbola xy = 4 and a line y + 2x = 4. O is centre of hyperbola. Tangent at any
point P of hyperbola intersect the coordinate axis at A and B.

53.

54.

Area of triangle OAB is


(A) constant and equal to 8
(C) constant and equal to 64

Locus of circum centre of triangle OAB is


1
1
(A) an ellipse with eccentricity
(B) an ellipse with eccentricity
2
3

(C) a hyperbola with eccentricity


55.

(B) constant and equal to 32


(D) variable

(D) a circle

Shortest distance between the line and hyperbola is

(A) 8
(C)

2
5

2 2
5

(B)
(D)

4 2 1

4 2 +1
5

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SECTION - IV
Matrix Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D)
given in Column I and five statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement
in Column I can have correct matching with one or more statement(s) given in Column II.
For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the statements given in q
and r, then for that particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles
corresponding to q and r in the ORS.
56.

       3
  
      
If x , y, z are unit vectors such that x + y + z = a , x ( y z ) = b , ( x y ) z = c , a x = ,
2
  7 
a y = , a = 2a , then match the following columnI with columnII
4

ColumnI

ColumnII

(A)


x=

p.


4c

(B)


y=

q.

4  
(c b )
3

(C)


z=

r.

 
1 
(3a + 4b + 8c )
3

s.



(3a + 4c )

t.

2  
c b
3

(D)


 
3x + 2 y + 3z =

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57.

A function is defined as f () = ( 1) + ( 1) 2 + ( 1) 3 + ....(1) k where N , and


1 , 2 , 3 .... k are all divisors of including 1 and itself.
1

Column-I

Column-II

(A)

If f ( ) = 4 and < 60 , then number of possible values of


p.
are

(B)

If f ( ) = 0 , then can be

q.

14

(C)

If f ( ) < 0 , then cant be

r.

25

s.

(D)

If f () = ( 2k + 1) , where k natural number, then can


be

t.

10

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Name: .

QUESTION PAPER CODE:

Enrollment No.:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

C. Question paper format:


9. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part I: Chemistry, Part II: Physics and Part III: Mathematics). Each
part has 4 sections.
10. Section I contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which only one is correct.
11. Section II contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given at the
beginning of the section.
12. Section III of each part contains 2 sets of Comprehension type questions. Each set consists of a paragraph
followed by 3 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which only one Choice is
correct.
13. Section IV contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and
five statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching
with one or more statement(s) given in Column II. For example, if for a given question, statement B
matches with the statements given in q and r, then for that particular question, against statement B, darken
the bubbles corresponding to q and r in the ORS.
D. Marking scheme:
14. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 5 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus
two ( 2 ) mark will be awarded.
15. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct choice for the answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. No negative marks will be
awarded for incorrect answers in this section.
16. For each question in Section III you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will
be awarded.
17. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in which you have darkened
the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer. Thus, each question in this section carries a maximum of
8 marks. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.

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