Workbook Answers B1B2B3

OCR 21st Century Science B1 Answers
Biology Module B1 Answers
b1_01 What your genes do

Student Book answers
Q1 In the nucleus of cells.
Q2 Control how organisms develop and function. They instruct the cells how to make the proteins needed for your
body to work.
Q3 Different lengths of DNA have different sequences of bases along them. It is the order of the bases that codes
for a particular protein.
Q4 Cell, nucleus, chromosome, DNA, gene, base.
Q5 Can get treatment earlier, may be better prepared for the news.
Q6 Any reasonable argument for or against is acceptable.
b1_02 Youre different

Q1 For example a person with tattoos.
Q2 Both; you have a particular skin colour at birth, but if you go out in the sun you can change this.
Q3 For example height, weight and arm length.
Q4 Traits that show continuous variation can often be influenced by environmental factors. Male height has
probably increased due to improvements in diet and better living conditions.
Q5 Identical twins are formed when a fertilised egg splits in two and each of the halves goes on to form a baby.
They therefore have identical genes. Fraternal twins are formed from two different eggs and two different sperm
so are only as alike as siblings.
Q6 Even though the genes might be the same, what you do with your body can influence your phenotype (physical
appearance). For example someone who has genes giving a tendency to build big muscles with weight training
wont get big muscles unless the training is undertaken.
b1_03 How genes work together

Q1 Sections of DNA that code for proteins. They are important because they contain the instructions for building
and maintaining our bodies and for determining all our characteristics.
Q2 Alleles are alternative forms of a gene. An individual can have different alleles for the same gene because they
may have got a different allele from each of their parents.
Q3 When an egg cell or a sperm cell is made, it contains half the chromosomes from each parent. At fertilisation
when the egg fuses with the sperm, a complete set of chromosomes comes together with half the
chromosomes from each parent. So the offspring will have characteristics from each parent.
Q4 Any reasonable example, with explanations.
Q5 If the alleles for a gene are the same, the individual is said to be homozygous for the trait. If the alleles are
different, the individual is said to be heterozygous for the trait.
Q6 So that when a sex cell is produced, the chromosomes can split evenly into half the total number. When the
egg meets the sperm, the resultant cell (which will become the offspring) will have the correct number of
chromosomes.
COLLINS NEW GCSE SCIENCE
HarperCollinsPublishers Ltd 2011
b1_04 Variation in families

Q1 They share only half their genes. They each have half their genes from each parent, but not necessarily the
same ones.
Q2 Any reasonable example.
Q3 They have had slightly different environments. For example, they may prefer different foods and so one may be
heavier than the other. Also, environmental variation such as suntan, piercings, haircut or scarring would make
them look different.
Q4 Height and weight are both good examples of this, but any reasonable example is appropriate.
23
Q5 The chance of all the chromosomes in two sperm cells being the same is 1 in 2 or 1 in 8 388 608.
(Incidentally, this means that, because the average ejaculation contains about 250 000 000 sperm, each
ejaculation is likely to contain 30 sperm with identical chromosomes. The female, on the other hand, produces
only one egg every month. The chances of her producing two identical eggs is also only one in 8 388 608. Thus
the chance of an identical sperm fertilising an identical egg (identical to those that gave rise to an existing
sibling) is vanishingly small; 1 in about 70 000 000 000 000).
Q6 It might be expected that traits with a large number of possible alleles might show greater variation than those
with only a few possible alleles. (But this is also subject to other factors such as how widespread each of the
different alleles is in the population.)
b1_05 Genetic crosses

Q1 You share some alleles with your siblings, but not all. On average, you will share around half your alleles with
your siblings, due to the random assortment of chromosomes when sex cells (sperm cells and ova) are formed.
Q2 a The physical characteristic resulting from a dominant allele. Even if the individual has a dominant and a
recessive allele, the dominant allele will be the one that is expressed.
b FF = freckles; Ff = freckles; ff = no freckles
Q3 a
f
Ff
Ff
Ff
Ff
100% of the offspring would have freckles.

b Diagram similar to the one below, without the genotypes unless Higher Q4 is attempted.
Q5 Provide parents with information about how likely it is that their children would suffer from a genetic disorder.
Ethical considerations: family members might not want others to know their genotype.
Worksheet answers
Activity 2 (Standard demand)
Q1 Dd, Dd, Dd, Dd; all would have dimples.
Q2 Ff, Ff, ff, ff; two out of four, i.e. half, would have freckles.
Q3 CC, CC, Cc, Cc; all would have a cleft chin.

Activity 3 (High demand)
The female could be a carrier.
It would be useful for the male to be tested; if he is not a carrier, they could have children together safely.
If he is a carrier, then the female could be tested to find out if she is a carrier.
If she is, then they might choose to have some genetic investigation of embryos before implantation.
b1_06 Sex determination

Q1 Males have XY, females have XX.
Q2 Because it enables you to quickly see if there are any chromosome abnormalities, and what gender an
individual is.
Q3 There is a 50 : 50 chance for each.
Q4 Females have the sex chromosomes XX, so every egg cell they produce contains an X chromosome. Males
have the sex chromosomes XY, so sperm cells can contain either an X or a Y chromosome. Whether the
offspring is male or female depends on whether the fertilising sperm contains an X or a Y chromosome. If it
contains an X chromosome, when it fertilises an egg containing an X chromosome the resulting embryo will be
XX and be female. If it contains a Y chromosome, when it fertilises an egg containing an X chromosome the
resulting embryo will be XY and be male.
Q5 Because it is the gene on the Y chromosome that determines if testes are formed.
Q6 Females suffer less severe symptoms because they have a second allele on the other X chromosome that
partially masks the faulty gene that causes Fragile X syndrome. In males the faulty gene is expressed fully
because there is no second allele to diminish its effect.
Worksheet answers
Q1 Prevents the blood clotting properly. It often leads to an early death.
Q2 Because it is caused by a gene on the X chromosome. Since males have no allele on the matching Y
chromosome, if they have one allele for haemophilia, they have the disease.
b1_07 Disorders caused by a single gene

Q1 One that results from a faulty dominant allele.
Q2 HH or Hh
Q3 Because the thick mucous in their lungs provides a good environment for bacteria to grow. It also is hard to
clear, so stays there for longer than mucous in a non-sufferer.
Q4
C
Cc
Cc
Cc
Cc
None of the offspring would have genotype cc, so none would have cystic fibrosis (but they would all be
carriers).
Q5 Might include ideas about patient confidentiality, emotional support being provided where required, and
ensuring that patients understand the implications of testing.
b1_08 Carrying genes and passing them on

Q1 A genetic condition in which the sufferer has two faulty recessive alleles.
Q2 Cc
Q3 CC

Q4 The embryos are living and have potential to have a life; they could be useful for research.
Q5 To ensure that everything they do with human embryos is within the law.
Q6 Only embryos that are disease-free are implanted. It means that the couple would not need to make a decision
later whether to have a termination if the baby had a genetic disease.
Worksheet answers
Activity 1 (Low demand)
c
cc
cc
cc
cc
CC
CC
Cc
Cc
50% are carriers
100% have cystic fibrosis
50% are unaffected

c
Cc
Cc
cc
cc
CC
CC
CC
CC
100% are unaffected
50% are carriers

c
Cc
Cc
Cc
Cc
100% are carriers
CC
Cc
Cc
cc

50% are carriers
25% are unaffected
b1_09 More about genetic testing

Q1 For the very small number of babies who do suffer from disorders, it is vital for their health that the disorder is
detected very early in their lives in order to avoid permanent damage.
Q2 Karyotyping involves lining all the chromosomes up in the correct order. It is useful because it is easy to see if
any of the chromosomes are duplicated, damaged or missing.
Q3 Depending on the disorder, the parents might wish to terminate the pregnancy, or if they continue with the
pregnancy they might need time to come to terms with the situation emotionally. There might be preparations
that would need to be made for the birth and aftercare of the baby for example babies with some conditions
require surgery immediately after birth.
Q4 Parents would want to know what the abnormality was called, what the childs likely disabilities would be, if
there was treatment available, and the childs likely quality of life and lifespan. Parents would also want to know
if it was likely that another child would have the same abnormality.
Q5 A false positive might lead parents to terminate a healthy pregnancy although it is usual, after a positive test
for genetic abnormality, to repeat the test if parents are thinking of termination. A false negative would also be a
problem, because parents would not know, perhaps until a later ultrasound scan, or perhaps not until birth, that
their child had a genetic abnormality and they might not be able to cope with the situation.
Q6 Any sensible answer.
Worksheet answers
Q1 Fewer side effects, more accurate ways of determining dosage, more powerful medicines, reduced overall cost
of healthcare.
Q2 a) Chorionic villus sampling: a sample of the cells of the fetus (from the placenta) are taken using a long
needle, through the stomach wall of the mother. Amniocentesis: a sample of the fluid with which the fetus is

surrounded are taken using a long needle. The chromosomes in the samples are karyotyped and checked for
any abnormality.
b) The procedures have a small risk of causing a miscarriage. The benefit is that parents can find out whether
or not their child has a genetic disorder.
c) The parents would need reliable information about the procedures and their risks, and about the disorder(s)
being tested for.

Q1 When it is necessary/desirable to find out if someone is at risk from developing a disorder; when it is
necessary/desirable to find out if someone is a carrier for a disorder; and prenatal diagnosis where an unborn
child is tested to see if they are suffering from a disorder.
Q2 Whether or not the wider family should be informed, particularly if they are also at risk of the disorder.
b1_10 Cloning
Q1 Sexual reproduction involves the genes of two parents the offspring receives half its genes from each parent.
Asexual reproduction involves only one parent; the offspring is genetically identical to the parent.
Q2 40
Q3 The new plants might have different sizes and states of health due to different availability of light, nutrients or
water. Height differences may also be due to different levels of root penetration, if the soil depth is different. The
offspring may have more or fewer fruits or flowers due to a different location.
Q4 In isolated habitats it can be difficult to reproduce sexually because there may not be another plant of the same
species close by. Stable environments also reduce the disadvantages of the lack of variation caused by
asexual reproduction.
Q5 This uses genetic material from an individual and a donated egg. The resulting embryonic stem cells have the
potential to develop into any cells in the body and are a perfect match for the individual.
Q6 Possible responses: many people have religious beliefs, or the gut feeling that tells them human cloning is
wrong; cloning animals is very unsafe at the moment most attempts are unsuccessful; many embryos would
be created and destroyed in the process; there is concern whether or not cloned individuals would be seen as
having the same rights as everyone else; a cloned child might have a great weight of expectation on it; a cloned
individual might miss out on the chance of a normal family life with two parents and siblings; there may be a
disadvantage to the health of an individual who has been produced by cloning.
b1_11 Multipurpose stem cells

Q1 About 7 days old
Q2 Adult stem cells can only differentiate into a limited number of other cells; embryonic stem cells can become
any type of cell.
Q3 Drugs, for example, could be tested with no danger to a human patient.
Q4 In vitro fertilisation techniques
Q5 Stem cells all have the same genome, yet they can become any type of cell a liver cell, blood cell or heart
muscle cell, for example. In each case, only the genes for the correct cell are switched on. It is thought that
chemical signalling is important in determining which genes are switched on and off in each stem cell as it
differentiates.
Q6 Students own answer, with an explanation. For example: probably yes it is justified, because the potential for
these stem cells to transform medicine is huge and the animals are treated humanely.
b2_01 Microbes and your body

Q1 Pathogen
Q2 Bacteria; viruses (or examples of these)
Q3 From meningitis, tetanus, salmonella and tuberculosis, or any other correct example.
Q4 Viruses damage or destroy cells; bacteria produce toxins.
Q5 163 840
Q6 Coughing and sneezing spread droplets into the air, each of which will have thousands of viruses in it. If you
have a runny nose, the mucous will contain the virus, which can be passed on from used tissues or hands
touching surfaces. A cold virus can live up to six hours outside the human body on a surface.
Worksheet answers
Q1/2 Viral diseases: flu; common cold; viral meningitis; chicken pox; mumps. Bacterial diseases: septicaemia;
streptococcus (sore throat); bacterial meningitis; diphtheria; botulism.
Q1 Initially the number of bacteria is low and steady and then there is a rapid increase in the population of bacteria.
After this rapid growth, the population stabilises and remains the same for a time and then drops again to
slightly lower than its starting value.
Q2 As many bacteria are being produced as are dying, so the population is quite stable.
Q3 The bacteria begin to be poisoned by their own waste products.
b2_02 Defending against disease

Q1 It produces very large numbers of antibodies that are specific to an antigen on the surface of a pathogen that
has invaded the body before. In this way the memory cells enable the body to mount a very quick response to
the known pathogen.
Q2 They introduce a small amount of inactive pathogen into the body so that the body can create antibodies to it.
Memory cells remember the pathogen so that many antibodies can be produced rapidly if the pathogen is
encountered again.
Q3 A babys immune system has not fully developed and the vaccinations protect him or her from childhood
diseases.
Q4 So that the person who is vaccinated does not become ill.
Q5 Any reasonable answer: adverse reactions to vaccinations; safety of vaccination compared to mortality of the
disease; effectiveness of vaccine etc.
Q6 To include: safety and effectiveness of vaccine; particularly if not breastfed, a babys immune system is very
immature; some diseases that vaccinations protect against can be fatal.
b2_03 Vaccination
Q1 It produces very large numbers of antibodies that are specific to an antigen on the surface of a pathogen that
has invaded the body before. In this way the memory cells enable the body to mount a very quick response to
the known pathogen.
Q2 They introduce a small amount of inactive pathogen into the body so that the body can create antibodies to it.
Memory cells remember the pathogen so that many antibodies can be produced rapidly if the pathogen is
encountered again.

Q3 A babys immune system has not fully developed and the vaccinations protect him or her from childhood
diseases.
Q4 So that the person who is vaccinated does not become ill.
Q5 Any reasonable answer: adverse reactions to vaccinations; safety of vaccination compared to mortality of the
disease; effectiveness of vaccine etc.
Q6 To include: safety and effectiveness of vaccine; particularly if not breastfed, a babys immune system is very
immature; some diseases that vaccinations protect against can be fatal.
b2_04 Making vaccination safe

Q1 They are aware of the risk, but because they enjoy the activity they benefit from it in an obvious way. The more
a person benefits from an activity, the greater the risk they are likely to accept.
Q2 It is important to rule out relatively rare genotypes that might cause adverse reactions. When people take the
drugs at home they will not be monitored, so it is vital that there is confidence that any side effects will be mild.
Q3 Many millions of vaccinations have been administered over a long period of time and reports of serious side
effects have been very few compared to the number of doses given.
Q4 In case a change has been made to the vaccine; or a batch of vaccine is being stored or manufactured
incorrectly. For this reason, batches are very carefully recorded when children are immunised.
Q5 If an antimicrobial is taken but not all the pathogen, for example, bacteria, are destroyed. The bacteria that
remain are more likely to have genes that are less susceptible to the action of the antimicrobial. If this is
repeated, bacteria that remain after several applications are likely to be those with genes that are very resistant
to the antimicrobial, as only those that survived the initial application have reproduced.
Q6 Regular disinfection of wards and equipment leads to only the most resistant microbes surviving in the hospital
environment. If these resistant microbes infect a wound they will not be destroyed by the antimicrobials in use
because they are resistant to them
b2_05 Mutation and resistance

Q1 Antibiotics, bacteria; antifungals, fungi; antivirals, viruses.
Q2 Antibiotics are only effective against bacterial infections; the common cold is caused by a virus.
Q3 Microbes exist antimicrobial applied most microbes die, but most resistant survive most resistant
multiply, thus spreading resistant genes this is repeated, resulting in very resistant strains.
Q4 Should include relevant information from Student Book p. 51.
Q5 Infections can develop that are extremely difficult or impossible to treat with existing drugs.
Q6 Some bacteria have a genetic make-up or gene mutations that make them more resistant.
Practical sheet answers

Q2 To ensure there is no chemical in the paper disc that causes bacterial growth to be inhibited.
Worksheet answers
antibiotics
Population of
taken
bacteria. Some
have more
resistance to
antibiotics than
others.
Bacteria with least

resistance to
antibiotics die. More
resistant bacteria
remain.
bacteria
multiply
There is now a
population of
bacteria more
resistant to
antibiotics than the
starting population.
Population of
resistant bacteria is
difficult to treat. A
different antibiotic
could be
prescribed.

Isolation of the patient: the use of shared facilities (e.g. toilets, basins, TVs) gives an opportunity for bacteria to
spread. Isolating the patient removes the possibility of the bacteria being spread in this way.
Changing of gloves, gowns and other clothing after contact with the patient: bacteria are prevented from being
passed on by contact transfer.

A different operating theatre that is deep-cleaned between patients: there is a risk that bacteria could persist after
surgery involving a patient with MRSA, despite rigorous cleaning methods, particularly because these bacteria
are not eradicated using antimicrobial products. For this reason, patients with MRSA are often operated on on in
a dedicated theatre away from other patients.
b2_06 Human guinea pigs

Q1 Any reasonable answer considering ideas about the volunteer choosing to take part, whether or not they are
fully aware of the risks, and that the outcomes of the trial may be positive for many people.
Q2 So that the results of trials can be compared.
Q3 To be able to compare the control group with the group taking the test drug.
Q4 If as a result they missed out on an effective treatment, the patient could become more unwell or die as a result
of the clinical trial.
Q5 It removes the risk of the clinical trial administrators treating differently participants who have been given the
placebo and those who have taken the test drug.
Q6 Medical staff could report any side effects encountered by patients in the long term.
Worksheet answers
In flow chart: human cells, animals, humans, clinical.
A clinic would trial a drug (medicine) with no more than 20 patients (subjects) at a time; though there may be
multiple clinics carrying out the trial simultaneously.
Trial subjects have regular observations done as well as checks on their heart rate, blood pressure and blood to
check the drug (medicine) is not having a severe effect on any of their body systems. Subjects are asked about
side effects, such as sleeplessness, anxiety, palpitations, dizziness, sickness etc.
The activities of subjects are usually controlled to some extent; they are usually able to take part in activities in a
games room, watch TV etc. but generally are not permitted to leave the clinic.
A trial is usually stopped if test subjects are suffering from severe side effects or if anyone becomes seriously ill.
Often, side effects such as dizziness and nausea are not considered serious enough to halt the trial.
The most reliable type of study is a double-blind study, where neither the subject nor the doctor knows who is
getting the drug (medicine) and who is having a placebo. A placebo could be used to make sure the effects
seen are due to the drug (medicine) and not just because of the environment the test subjects are in.
b2_07 Your amazing heart

Q1 By the blood.
Q2 It pumps blood independently to the lungs and to the rest of the body.
Q3 So they can withstand the high blood pressure of the blood that has just been pumped out by the heart.
Q4 To prevent backflow of slow-moving blood under low pressure.
Q5 A healthy diet might have less fat so there would be less fat build-up in the arteries.
Q6
Blood vessel
Structure
How structure is linked to function
Artery
Thick, elastic wall; relatively

small lumen
Thick elastic wall to withstand pressure of pumping heart
Vein
Thin wall; valves; relatively

large lumen
Thin because pressure is low; valves to prevent backflow

of blood
Capillary
Single-cell thick wall
Single-cell thick wall allows maximum diffusion of oxygen,

carbon dioxide and other substances
b2_08 Keeping your heart healthy

Q1 It causes more deaths in the UK than any other disease.
Q2 Smoking; eating a diet high in saturated fat; high stress levels; lack of exercise; family history of heart disease.
Q3 Exercise is thought to strengthen the heart and reduce the level of bad cholesterol in the blood.
Q4 Better treatments available (for example, statins to lower cholesterol); better screening (for example health
checks for the over 40s and over 50s); better education about lifestyle changes.
Q5 A diet low in saturated fat (for example one low in animal protein and high in vegetable proteins).
Q6 When Japanese people adopt a Western lifestyle, their heart disease risk increases.
b2_09 Get your pulse racing

Q1 Because blood vessels are close to the skins surface and the blood can be felt pulsing through them.
Q2 Heart rate is measured in beats per minute (bpm).
Q3 They carry blood away from the heart; at a higher pressure than in veins.
Q4 The person could be more likely to die from heart disease or stroke; it might be an indication that they are in
poor overall health.
Q6 The same amount of blood has to travel along a narrower tube partially blocked by fat; so the blood has to flow
at a higher pressure.
Worksheet answers
Q4 a) A result that does not fit the general trend or is very different from other results in a set.
b) Because you do not know which of the readings lies close to the true (accurate) value; an average taken
from very different readings will give you an inaccurate answer; averages are only accurate if the repeated
readings have values close to each other.
Q1 Slower resting heart rate because their heart muscle would be stronger and able to pump more blood per beat.
Q2 A suitable method might be to give an individual one point for each hour of exercise they do per week and see
how that relates to the resting heart rate. It might be expected that those who do more exercise would be fitter
and so have a lower resting heart rate because their heart is able to pump more blood per beat and it needs to
beat less often to get the same amount of blood around the body.
b2_10 Blood pressure and lifestyle factors

Q1 Heart disease (or stroke, or heart attack).
Q2 High blood pressure can damage the blood vessels and cause them to narrow or harden, reducing blood flow
and making the heart work harder.
Q3 High blood pressure causes diseases that can be fatal (such as heart disease) but does not have any
symptoms. Many people dont know that they have high blood pressure.
Q4 The higher figure is the pressure in the arteries when the heart is contracting; the lower figure is the pressure
when the heart is relaxed.
Q5 To make sure it is the factor being investigated (i.e. the one that is different) that is causing the effect.
Q6 Smoking is already known to be very damaging to the health.
Worksheet answers
All the patients are suitable except Helen; she is only visiting the area on holiday.
b2_11 Homeostasis
Q1 The maintenance of a constant internal environment.
Q2 Temperature; blood sugar; salt and water levels; pH
Q3 The receptor detects any change in the environment; the processing centre receives that information and
determines how the body systems respond; the effector produces the response that brings the system back to
normal (for example normal temperature or water level).
Q4 It would be detected by the receptor (the thermostat); a message would then be sent to the processing centre
(the computer in the water heater); which would direct the effector (the water heater) to switch on.
Q5 The process that reverses any changes to the environment and helps it get back to a steady state.
Q6 Receptors detect the fall below 37 C and send a message to the processing centre in the brain; the processing
centre then directs the effectors, in this case the blood vessels, to vasoconstrict (become narrower and move
away from the skin surface) which results in less heat being lost from the body and the muscles to shiver and
generate heat; once the temperature has risen back to normal, receptors detect this and pass the message to
the processing centre, which direct the effectors (the blood vessels) to return to their normal positions and the
muscles to stop shivering.
Worksheet answers
The thermostat senses the temperature in the incubator and is the receptor; the computer receives the message
from the thermostat and sends a message to the heater to turn on or off; the computer is the processor; the heater
is the effector; it turns on to heat the incubator or off when it receives the message from the computer.
The bodys temperature needs to be at or very close to 37 C; if the temperature changes from this, receptors in
the walls of the blood vessels detect the change and send a message to the processing centre of the body (the
brain); the brain then sends a message to the effectors of the body.
Body too hot: effectors sweat glands (increase sweating) and blood vessels near the skin (dilate).
Body too cold: effectors muscles (contract, i.e. shiver, and generate heat); muscles that control the small hairs
all over the skin (contract and hold hairs away from the body, trapping a layer of warm air); blood vessels near
the surface of the skin (contract and move away from the skin surface to reduce heat loss); blood may also be
diverted away from extremities (fingers, toes, nose) to the core of the body.
Q1 The rise would be detected by the receptors. The processing centre would send a message to the heater to
switch off and the windows to open. The heater would switch off. The windows would open.
Q2 The fall would be detected by the receptors; the processing centre would send a message to the heater to turn
on and the windows to close; the heater would turn on; the windows would close.
Q3 Both systems have receptors that detect the temperature (thermostat in incubator and receptors in the
hypothalamus in the body); both have processing centres (computer in the incubator and brain in the body);
both have responses to warm themselves (the heater in the incubator and vasoconstriction and shivering in the
body) and cool themselves (the windows in the incubator and vasodilation and sweating in the body).
b2_12 Water in, water out

Q1 The amount of water in our bodies is controlled by homeostasis.
Q2 To replace the water that has been lost, particularly by sweating; an increased breathing rate would also lead to
more water vapour being lost from the body as the person breathes out.
Q3 Body cells would burst.
Q4 Our skin is waterproof and so our cells are not bathed in the dilute fluid.
Q5 Produced by the breakdown of proteins by the liver; it is toxic in high concentrations.
Q6 The levels of urea and other waste materials in urine are independent of the amount of water lost; when we
have too little water and the body is conserving water, urine will be very dark and concentrated; conversely, if
we are losing a lot of water, urine will be very pale and dilute.

Worksheet answers
Q1 If you do this experiment with red blood cells they burst when put into distilled water, and become dehydrated in
the sucrose solution.
Q2 Fish cells would become dehydrated as the concentration of water in their cells is higher than that in the
surrounding saltwater. Water would move out of their cells due to osmosis. This would cause damage to the
fish and lead to death.
Mark scheme:
56 marks: Answer clearly explains how the collecting duct controls the amount of water in the urine and has no
irrelevant information. Spelling, grammar and punctuation are excellent. The answer is structured clearly and
concisely, with a logical explanation of the way the kidney controls water loss from the body.
34 marks: Some explanation is given about how the collecting ducts control the water lost but it is incomplete.
The answer may contain some irrelevant information. There are a few errors in spelling and grammar. The
answer is fairly well structured, but may have some irrelevant detail.
12 marks: A poor explanation of the control of water loss by the kidney is given, and much of the response is
irrelevant. Spelling, grammar and punctuation are poor. The answer is very poorly structured.
b2_13 Your kidneys

Q1 The cells would become dehydrated.
Q2 If an individual consumes little salt, takes in a lot of fluid, does not exercise and/or is in a cool environment.
Q3 The body becomes dehydrated; the body continues to produce a lot of dilute urine even though the blood
plasma is too concentrated; this leads to dehydration.
Q4 It can cause the cells to swell; if the cells of the brain swell, this can lead to seizures and bleeding into the brain;
this can cause death.
Q5 ADH causes the body to retain water; so the blood plasma is diluted to the correct level; when the correct level
is reached, ADH production stops.
Q6 Alcohol inhibits the effect of ADH; (in the absence of alcohol, if the blood plasma was becoming too
concentrated and the person was becoming dehydrated, ADH would be produced to reduce the amount of
water lost in urine); however, because alcohol inhibits the effects of ADH, a lot of dilute urine is still lost; leading
to further dehydration; this causes a hangover.

b3_01 Species and adaptation
Q1 A group of organisms that can breed together to produce fertile offspring.
Q2 It has gills for gaseous exchange; these can exchange gases across their surface underwater; it has fins to
keep it upright when swimming; it has a mouth position that suits its way of feeding; a swim bladder that allows
it to maintain a variety of depths in the water.
Q3 Space (particularly space in the light spots where there is a gap in the canopy above); light; nutrients (the
competition for nutrients would be between their root systems).
Q4 There might be more heather for the sheep and rabbits to feed on, but the populations of shrews and lizards
would decrease. The population of insect-eating birds would decrease because their food source has gone; the
population of owls and merlins might also be impacted because one of their groups of prey species (the insecteating birds) was depleted.
Q6 The way that all the species in the habitat depend on one another for survival; if the number of one species
dropped or increased rapidly, this would have a knock-on effect on all other species in the food web (with
examples).
Worksheet answers
Polar bear: In order cold, thick fur, insulate, blubber, black, snow, claws, nostrils
Water lily: In order supported, surface, waxy cuticle, absorb sunlight, wind, water movement,

Q1 Banana fruit fly spider
Q2 Woodland habitat incorporating leaf litter, nettles and ladybirds, for example.
b3_02 Changes and challenges

Q1 The process by which a species becomes so few in number that it can no longer find other individuals of the
species to reproduce with and the population dies out. (When a species is extinct, individuals no longer exist in
the wild. Sometimes, a species at risk of extinction can be bred in a zoo or wildlife park conservation
programme with a view to re-introducing the species into the wild at a later date.)
Q2 The Siberian tiger, for example, is at risk of extinction because its habitat has been destroyed and/or degraded.
Tigers are also illegally poached and hunted; parts of the tiger are used in traditional medicines and high prices
can be paid for these.
Q3 Could out-compete the original species for food, nesting sites, light or nutrients (in the case of a plant); the
introduced plant could bring a disease into the habitat that the existing species have no defences against.
Q4 They have very few natural predators because they are poisonous; they are very effective predators; they
successfully competed with native species for breeding and egg-laying sites.
Q5 For example, rabbits: the population might stay at a similar level because although there would be a little more
grass to eat, there would also be increased predation by the foxes, hawks and owls, which have one fewer food
source.
Insect-eating birds: these might be more heavily predated upon as the hawks and owls would have one fewer
food source.
Q6 There are many ways in which introduced species can threaten native species; non-native species often have
no natural predators in the habitat they are introduced into; this means that the populations can grow large very
rapidly.
Worksheet answers
Q1 Birds 1016; foxes 12
Q2 As the weedkiller killed the weed plants, the number of insects supported by the weed plants became fewer; so
the number of insect-eating birds supported by the insects became fewer; and the number of foxes supported
by the birds became fewer. As the numbers of weed plants decreased, so the numbers of insects, birds and
foxes decreased in proportion.
Q3 Organic farms do not use drastic methods of human intervention such as the use of weedkiller; they use natural
methods of pest control that do not have a devastating effect on all the species in the food web of the habitat.
b3_03 Chains of life

Q1 It is the start of nearly all food chains on Earth; it provides the energy to these food chains.
Q2 Photosynthesis
Q3 Carbon dioxide and water react, using energy from sunlight, to form oxygen and glucose.
Q4 Some energy passes out of food chains as heat, to power movement or as indigestible parts.
Q5 Percentage efficiency = (10 / 80) 100% = 12.5%
Q6 Cold-blooded animals have a higher efficiency of energy transfer because no energy passes out of the food
chain in keeping them warm.
Q7 They are broken down by decomposers such as bacteria and fungi, aided by detritivores, who make the work of
the decomposers easier by breaking the dead organism down into smaller pieces.
Worksheet answers
energy from Sun
Q1
carbon dioxide + water
glucose + oxygen
Q2 Photosynthesis, carbon, water, glucose, glucose, eating
Q1 a) 10%; b) 4%; c) 25%
Q2 The snail is cold-blooded so no energy is transferred to heat to keep the snail warm. The cow has to keep itself
warm and move about, and also many parts of the cow such as the hair, horns and hooves are indigestible and
not available to the next level of the food chain; this reduces percentage efficiency. The maize plant is low down
the food chain and most parts of the plant are edible; thus the percentage efficiency is higher.
Q1 Honey fungus breaks down dead wood; a tree with honey fungus is likely to have a proportion of dead wood in
it; this can be dangerous because it can cause branches to fall or the tree to tilt or fall over; this could cause
injury to someone in a public place.
Q2 After detritivores have broken the dead matter into smaller pieces, there is a larger surface area for the
decomposers to act on; this means they will be able to break down the dead matter more quickly.
b3_04 Recycling nutrients

Q1 a) Through combustion (burning); decomposition and respiration. b) By photosynthesis.
Q2 Increased combustion of fossil fuels; the reduction of forest cover on Earth.
Q3 In the form of proteins that plants have made; in food as proteins from other animals (or animal products).
Q4 By decomposition.
Q5 Some bacteria and fungi decompose dead matter, releasing nitrates into the soil; denitrifying bacteria turn these
nitrates back into nitrogen; nitrogen-fixing bacteria in the roots of beans and peas turn nitrogen gas from the air
into nitrates that plants can use to make proteins.

Q6 Peas and beans contain nitrogen-fixing bacteria in their roots that can fix atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates;
this means these plants are able to access more nitrates than most other plants; these nitrates are used to
make proteins.
Worksheet answers
a) Photosynthesis; b) combustion; c) respiration; d) decomposition
Plants absorb nutrients from the soil for growth
nitrates proteins in plants
Plants and animals die and decay
proteins in plants and animals nitrates in the soil
Animals excrete waste
products from breakdown of proteins nitrates in soil
Animals eat plants
protein in plants proteins in animals

Q1 Lightning; nitrogen-fixing bacteria in the roots of beans and peas; nitrogen-fixing bacteria in the soil;
decomposition by bacteria and fungi.
Q2 By the decay of nitrogen-containing plants and animals and their urine and faeces; and by denitrifying bacteria.
Q3 Fertilisers contain nitrates; plants need nitrates to create proteins, which help them grow; fertilisers are added to
help plants grow.

Q1 Rise initially due to the waste products from the breakdown of proteins by the fish; the levels then fall as
bacterial colonies are established that are able to break down the ammonia.
Q2 Excretion (nitrates and ammonia being passed out of living things); also (Higher tier) denitrification (denitrifying
bacteria changing ammonia and nitrates into nitrogen)
Q3 By using commercial products that are available.
b3_05 Environmental indicators

Q1 By monitoring using living or non-living indicators.
Q2 Living: mayfly, lichens, phytoplankton. Non-living: nitrate level, temperature, carbon dioxide level.
Q3 Because they are at the start of many aquatic food chains.
Q4 Different lichens are sensitive to different pollutants; by studying the whole community of lichens, a better
picture of the overall level of pollution can be gathered.
Q5 The nitrate concentration in the stream alongside the farmland rose rapidly from just above zero to 18 mg/litre
in the month following the application of the nitrate fertiliser to the farmland; the levels of nitrate in the stream
then fell back to nearly zero over a period of about 7 months.
Q6 They give only a snapshot of what is going on in an environment; for example, if the nitrate level in the stream
from Figure 5 were taken in December, January or February, the stream would seem unpolluted, because the
pollution occurred only periodically.
Worksheet answers
Q1 a) A living indicator is an organism that responds in a particular way to environmental change in its habitat.
A non-living indicator is a way of monitoring the environment that shows the level or value of a particular
physical factor in the environment under study.
b) They are very sensitive to changes in their environment.
Q2 Living: A, B, F; Non-living: C, D, E
Q1 In 1975 there was no growth of lichens that grow in the most polluted air, but there were lichens that grow in
less polluted air, so sulfur dioxide levels were likely to be low. In 1980 lichens that could withstand high levels of
pollution dominated and there were no lichens that could live only in unpolluted air. The sulfur dioxide levels
were likely to be high at this time. In 1985 the lichens were those that need cleaner air, so sulfur dioxide levels

are likely to have dropped again. In 1990 there were hardly any lichens that grow in highly polluted areas. The
population of lichens that need unpolluted air was high. The sulfur dioxide pollution is likely to have been low in
the years preceding 1990.
Q2 It was probably built between 1976 and 1979; the pollution level was shown to be higher in 1980.
Q3 Lichens take a long time to grow so can show how polluted the environment has been over a long period.
a) A digital thermometer could be used to measure the temperature of the water, perhaps automatically set to
record the temperature every hour over a long period of time before the factory opens as well as afterwards,
to show any changes; or thermometers could be used upstream and downstream of the factory for comparison.
b) Survey the invertebrate population initially and then each month; some individual species that are particularly
sensitive to temperature change could be chosen as indicator species to monitor more regularly.
c) Species sensitive to pollution could be used as indicators of whether or not the water was becoming more
polluted; non-living indicators could also be used, testing for the most likely pollutants from the factory; samples
could be taken at different distances downstream from the factory for comparison.
b3_06 Variation, mutation and evolution

Q1 About 3500 million years ago; with very simple, probably single-celled, organisms.
Q2 Imprints of skeletons/traces of dead animals and plants that have been preserved in rock for millions of years.
Q3 For example eye colour, presence of dimples, type of ear lobes.
Q4 Each parent gives each of their offspring half their genes; however, the mix of genes that make up the half
passed on from each parent is random; so, although it is likely that offspring of the same parent will have some
genes in common, different offspring will get a different mix of genes from their parents; leading to variation.
Q5 Advantages: good camouflage in snow means that Elephant seals might be less likely to see them; fish could
not easily see them above because of the brightness of the sky.
Disadvantages: on rocks not snow-covered, they would stand out clearly to an Elephant seal.
Q6 Fossils can be dated accurately using the rocks they are found in; they can show the development of certain
structures over a long period of time; they have been. and still are. found in abundance.
Worksheet answers
3500 million; simple; millions; complex; fossils; variation; evolution
B, E, D, A, C
a) although; b) as a result; c) for instance; d) unlike; e) however
b3_07 The great competition of life

Q1 Because of environmental and genetic variation.
Q2 From parent to child in the sex cells (eggs and sperm).
Q3 The process by which features desired by humans are exaggerated in a species through a breeding
programme; individuals with features most similar to those desired are bred together to give offspring that have
the desired feature more strongly than the previous generation; this is repeated over many generations.
Q4 Both need genetic variation on which to act, but only natural selection favours genes that help the organism
survive in the wild; selective breeding tends to take place more quickly than natural selection; human
intervention is needed in selective breeding but it is not needed in natural selection.
Q5 The organism might have more offspring; these offspring might also have the genes for the advantageous trait,
and so might have more offspring of their own; in this way, the gene that gives those that carry it the advantage
would become more frequent in the population.

Q6 The pattern shown is that as the smoke pollution decreased, the percentage of melanic (dark) coloured moths
also decreased; these became less-well camouflaged as surfaces became less sooty, and so were preyed on
more than the pale variety; the peppered moth is now mostly found in its pale form probably because there is
much less smoke pollution in the UK, as factories and power stations have become cleaner because of higher
standards for air quality.
Worksheet answers
Students can choose any of the features.
A Likely to be the first to a kill or able to outrun other lions if running away with meat; being better fed means
survival to reproduction more likely.
B Lions often hunt in packs so the lion might get more food by working in a pack with other lions.
C This might make the lion more likely to have more or better quality mates, resulting in more offspring or
offspring that are more likely to survive.
D Prey less likely to spot the lion waiting to ambush it , so the lion is likely to catch more prey.
E Good at avoiding injury from other lions or prey; better at catching prey such as impala that are very quick
moving
F Prey can be quickly killed, avoiding a prolonged chase; the lion wastes as little energy as possible in the hunt
and so maximises the gain from the prey it catches
Row 1: Retrieving wildfowl shot by owner, sometimes over water
Row 2: Border terrier
Row 3: Stamina, striking looks
Row 4: Companion or lap dog
b3_08 Evolution has the answers

Q1 In the fossil record.
Q2 Because these might make them more likely to have more offspring.
Q3 If species are isolated from each other, natural selection will act separately on each of the populations; because
the habitats are likely to be different, different genes are likely to become more frequent in each of the
populations; over time the species will become so different that they are unable to reproduce with each other
and so will have formed new species.
Q4 They may not be able to respond to changes in their environments quickly enough and so may die out;
evolutionary change due to natural selection takes place over thousands or millions of years, and the climate is
currently changing more quickly than that; bluebells are under threat from climate change because they have
previously had an advantage due to their ability to flower earlier than other plants; Warmer spring seasons
mean that other plants they previously did not have to compete with will out-compete them for light and space.
Q5 We now have the technology (such as DNA analysis) to confirm how species are related to each other and can
construct accurate trees that show the evolutionary relationship of organisms; we also have many thousands
more fossils in the fossil record that match the predictions of what would be found.
Q6 For example, by looking at how a species started out and how it ended up, and imagining what it might have
looked like part way through the change.
Worksheet answers
a) genes; b) offspring; c) more often than other genes; d) very long periods of time; e) fertile offspring; f) species
A4; B1; C2; D3
Q1 About 3500 million years ago.
Q2 There is such a vast range of habitats available on Earth.
Q3 Scientists have been able to pinpoint using DNA the points at which organisms shared a common ancestor.

Q4 It is shaped like a tree, with branching paths; at each node of the path, organisms on the following branches
share a common ancestor.
b3_09 Evidence from fossils and from DNA

Q1 Mainly by their appearance.
Q2 Gives information about how closely related organisms are; organisms more closely related will have more
similar DNA.
Q3 Shows how organisms gradually changed from one form to another over thousands or millions of years.
Q4 Has confirmed ideas about species relationships that were first formed from observations of the fossil record.
Q5 It did not include information about how characteristics could be passed on; the better understanding of
genetics by the time Darwin suggested his theory meant that he had an explanation for this; also, Lamarcks
theory did not match with the observations that were made of parents and offspring.
Q6 Could have evolved to have different shaped beaks if the foods available to the finches were different; if the
only sort of food available were a nut with a shell that is difficult to crack, finches with normal beaks could crack
the nuts, but it would take a very long time; if a finch had a mutation that meant it had a beak able to crack the
nuts twice as quickly, this finch would be able to get a lot of food and thus reproduce more successfully than
other finches; the gene for better beaks would spread through the population. In the next generation there
would be more individuals with the better beaks; and in the next generation more still; over a long time, all
individuals would have the better beak. On another island where, for example, only small seeds were
available, a different sort of beak might be an advantage and so the finches there would evolve differently.
Worksheet answers
True statements:
A is the common ancestor of B, C and D; B and C are more closely related than B and D.
A5; B4; C1; D2; E3
b3_10 We need diversity

Q1 A measure of the variety of organisms that exist the number of different species and the number of organisms
in each species.
Q2 We do not know what species may be useful to humans; we also have a responsibility to preserve the natural
world for future generations.
Q3 The graph shows that from 1800 to the present day, both human population and the number of species
extinctions have increased; the rate of the growth of human populations and the rate of increase of species
extinctions has increased from about 1950 to the present day.
Q4 Humans are destroying habitats and over-exploiting natural populations for food, for example in the case of the
overfishing of cod; climate change also threatens species that have very specific habitat requirements; the likely
increase in the number of extreme weather events such as floods, hurricanes and droughts will change habitats
more rapidly than most species can adapt.
Q5 Shows exactly how closely related the organisms are; the more similar the DNA, the more closely related.
Q6 Loss of potentially useful species and loss of whole ecosystems if particular important species are lost. Benefits
to society from the loss of biodiversity include: roads mean faster transport of people and goods; new buildings
maybe homes or shops or other services for the growing human population. The issue could be addressed by
better planning laws (e.g. maintaining the most important places for biodiversity as natural habitats and not
allowing any developments that threatened these spaces).

Worksheet answers
Table: 1800, 500; 1820, 500; 1840, 500; 1860, 600; 1880, 800; 1900, 1000; 1920, 1500; 1940, 3000; 1960, 5000;
1980, 8000; 2000, 20 000
Q1 5001000.
Q2 100020 000
Q3 It has risen much more rapidly in recent years than previously.

Q4 It is likely that the increasing rate of human population increase has had an effect.
Q5 Somewhere between 50 000 and 70 000; rates have more than doubled in last 20 years and can be expected
to more than double again.
Exemplar sentences: A worldwide classification system allows scientists to accurately identify species and make
sure they are all referring to the same organisms. Species are classified according to their characteristics. DNA
analysis can be used to classify an organism if it is difficult to decide how it should be classified. A worldwide
classification system helps scientists to monitor species populations.
b3_11 A sustainable future

Q1 Using resources and processes to meet our needs now, without stopping future generations from using them.
Q2 By eating local, seasonal produce; by reducing the number of things we buy; by saving energy; etc.
Q3 The whole system can collapse and other species are no longer able to survive.
Q4 The sea otter is a good example of a species that maintains its ecosystem. It eats sea urchins; without the
otters keeping the population of sea urchins down, the urchins would graze on and deplete the kelp beds;
where spawning fish lay their eggs; this would lead to a decline in fish stocks.
Q5 Reduces available habitat for many species that would otherwise live on farmland; it also uses chemical
pesticides and herbicides that kill insects and weeds, which other species rely on for food.
Q6 They can leave strips of land fallow for weeds to grow on; this provides habitats for insects and food for birds;
they can harvest crops at times that do not disrupt breeding birds; they can incorporate beetle banks into their
fields to provide insect habitats.
Worksheet answers
Food: eat seasonal produce; eat local produce; reduce air miles.
Clothes: recycle and re-use where possible; replace only if outgrown or worn out; buy fewer.
Purchases: buy only if essential; replace only if broken or worn out; recycle and repair where possible; buy secondhand.
Transport: reduce car use; use public transport; use bike or go on foot.
Q1 Prairie dogs maintain grassland by fertilising and aerating the soil; the holes they make provide valuable
nesting habitats for other species.
Q2 Tiger sharks keep the numbers of grazing turtles and dugong down; if the shark population declines, the seagrass beds are over-grazed; these beds are where the fish lay their eggs, so this leads to limited egg-laying
sites and so rapid decline in fish populations.
Q3 African elephants weed out and eat young trees and shrubs in the grassland; if these were allowed to grow the
grassland would become wooded; herds of grazing animals such as impala would disappear; and also the
carnivores such as lions that prey on them.
b3_12 Thinking ahead

Q1 They can be expensive; use a lot of energy to produce and transport; take a long time to degrade.
Q2 They do not cause waste like disposable nappies do; but energy is used in washing and drying these nappies.
Q3 Leaves the environment unharmed and able to provide that product again in the future.

Q4 When produce is bought and sold at a farmers market, the costs, energy and pollution created by transporting
that product to a supermarket and then back to a persons home are minimised.
Q5 The Life Cycle Assessment should include the raw materials used; the chemicals applied to the crop; the fuel
used in maintaining and harvesting the crop and then getting it to the processing plant; the energy and pollution
caused through the processing and packaging; the air transport to the UK and road transport to the
supermarket and then to the consumers home.
Q6 It is probably not sustainable; drinking English apple juice would be much more sustainable; more sustainable
still would be growing your own fruit and squeezing it for juice.
Worksheet answers
resources; generations; sustainability; energy; packaged; pollution.
Natural materials are most sustainable; minimally processed materials (such as paper) are less sustainable than
natural materials, but still preferable to plastics.
Suppliers should let customers know which parts of the packaging are made from recycled materials and how
they can be recycled after use.
The minimum amount of packaging that keeps the product in a good condition should be used.

Workbook Answers B1B2B3

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OCR 21st Century Science B1 Answers

Biology Module B1 Answers

b1_01 What your genes do

b1_02 Youre different

b1_03 How genes work together

COLLINS NEW GCSE SCIENCE

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OCR 21st Century Science B1 Answers

b1_04 Variation in families

b1_05 Genetic crosses

100% of the offspring would have freckles.

COLLINS NEW GCSE SCIENCE

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OCR 21st Century Science B1 Answers

b1_06 Sex determination

b1_07 Disorders caused by a single gene

b1_08 Carrying genes and passing them on

HarperCollinsPublishers Ltd 2011

OCR 21st Century Science B1 Answers

50% are carriers

100% have cystic fibrosis

50% are unaffected

50% have cystic fibrosis

100% are unaffected

50% are carriers

100% are carriers

25% have cystic fibrosis

b1_09 More about genetic testing

COLLINS NEW GCSE SCIENCE

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OCR 21st Century Science B1 Answers

Activity 3 (High demand)

b1_11 Multipurpose stem cells

COLLINS NEW GCSE SCIENCE

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OCR 21st Century Science B2 Answers

Biology Module B2 Answers

b2_01 Microbes and your body

b2_02 Defending against disease

COLLINS NEW GCSE SCIENCE

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OCR 21st Century Science B2 Answers

b2_04 Making vaccination safe

b2_05 Mutation and resistance

Practical sheet answers

Bacteria with least

Activity 3 (High demand)

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OCR 21st Century Science B2 Answers

b2_06 Human guinea pigs

b2_07 Your amazing heart

How structure is linked to function

Thick, elastic wall; relatively

Thick elastic wall to withstand pressure of pumping heart

Thin wall; valves; relatively

Thin because pressure is low; valves to prevent backflow

Single-cell thick wall

Single-cell thick wall allows maximum diffusion of oxygen,

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OCR 21st Century Science B2 Answers

b2_08 Keeping your heart healthy

b2_09 Get your pulse racing

b2_10 Blood pressure and lifestyle factors