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the
1.
2.
3.
Atom
20Ne
10
21Ne
10
Relative abundance
(%)
90.48
0.27
22N
e
10
9.25
(i) What phenomenon is exhibited
by Ne?
(ii) Name two other elements that
exhibit such phenomenon.
(iii) Use the information in
the table to calculate the
relative atomic mass of
Ne.
[6 marks]
(d)
Type of radiation
Charge
Penetrating
power
Alpha
Beta
Medium
Gamma
(e)
(i) Explain the following
observation:
Helium has a higher first
ionization energy than hydrogen.
(ii) Use electron dot diagram to
show the bonding in ammonium ion.
Question 2
(a)
(i)
I. rate of reaction;
II. Reversible reaction in a state of dynamic
equilibrium.
(ii) Mention three factors that could affect the
rate of a reaction.
(iii) State two properties of a reaction
system that could be used to
determine the reaction rate.
[9 marks]
(b)
reactio
n:
PC1
5(1)
PC1
3(l)
C12
(g);
+x
kJm
ol-1
(i
)
W
ri
t
e
a
n
e
Question 3
(a)
(b)
[6 marks]
(c)
Questio
n6
(a)
(i)
(ii)
96500C]
X(s) + Y2+(aq)
X2+(aq) + Y(s).
(i)
(ii)
I. oxidation reaction,
II. Reduction reaction respectively.
[4marks]
(c)
(i)
Explain why copper plated iron pillar would corrode when
the surface is
Scratched.
(ii)
(d)
(i)
CH2COOH;
II.
H2CO3.
Questio
n 7 (ii)
H3PO4;
II.
(iii)
HCOOH.
Question 5
(a)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
State two advantages of soft water over hard water.
[8 marks]
(b)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Questio
n9
(a)
(i)
I.
a deliquescent
substance; II.
a
hygroscopic substance; III.
an efflorescent substance;
(ii)
(iii)
Give two uses of graphite.
marks]
[8
(b)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
If 20cm3 of 0.125 moldm-3 of tetraoxosulphate(VI) acid solution
reacted with a solution of sodium hydroxide, calculate the number of moles
of sodium hydroxide required for a complete reaction.
(iv)
Outline how a solid sample of the product of the reaction in
8(b)(iii) could be obtained.
[11 marks)
(c)
(ii)
(iii)
(i)
Draw two resonance structures of
benzene.
Give two types of reactions that benzene
undergoes give two physical properties of
benzene.
[6
marks]
Solution to Questions
Question 1 Solution
This question was attempted by most candidates and the performance was
good.
In(a)(i) and (ii), candidates correctly defined atomic number and mass
number as the number of protons/electrons in an atom and the sum of the
protons and neutrons in an atom
respectively. However, a few of them lost the marks because they
confused atom with element.
2.
3.
4.
In (d), majority of the correctly copied and completed the table as follows:
Type of radiation
Charge
Penetrating Power
Apha
2+ or + 2
Low
Beta
1- or - 1
Medium
Gamma
O/neutral
High
Some of the candidates however lost marks as they could not correctly give
the charge on each
type of radiation.
In (e)(i), candidates did not know that in spite of the fact that helium and
hydrogen are in the same period, helium has a greater nuclear charge (of
x 2) than hydrogen (+1). Hence, the electron to be removed in helium is
more tightly held to the nucleus than in
hydrogen.
In (e)(ii), most candidates could not draw the electron dot diagram to
show the bonding in ammonium ion thus:
Question 2 Solution
This question was attempted by most candidates but the performance was
poor.
In(a)(i), candidates could not correctly define the terms rate of reaction and
reversible reaction in a state of dynamic equilibrium . The correct
definitions of the terms are:
I.
Rate of reaction is a measure of the change in concentration of
reactants/products per unit time or the number of moles of reactants used
or products formed with time or it is equal to dx
dt
where dx is a measure of a very small quantity of chemical change taking
place in a very small time dt.
II.
Reversible reaction is in a state of dynamic equilibrium when
the rate of forward reaction equals the rate of backward/reverse reaction.
In (a)(ii), majority of the candidates could not correctly state two
properties of a reaction system that could be used to determine the
reaction rate. The expected answers were any two from
1.
mass of reactants,
2.
3.
4.
change in pH,
5.
In(b)(i), candidates could not write the correct expression for the equilibrium
constant Kc because they did not know that it is the concentration of the
gaseous substance written as Kc = [Cl2].
In (b)(ii) candidates did not know that the equilibrium position for each of
I, II and III shifts to the right.
In (b)(iii), most candidates correctly calculated the amount (moles) of
chlorine that would be produced from 5.10g of phosphorus (V) chloride
thus:
Molar mass of PCl2
= (31 + 35.5 x 5) =
208.5gmol . From given equation,
208.5g PCl5
1 mole Cl2
5.10g PCl5
1 x 5.10 Cl2
208.
5
In (c)(i); only few candidates correctly stated that enthalpy of a reaction is
the heat change that occurs in a reaction.
In (c)(ii), candidates could not correctly draw the energy profile diagram
of an endothermic reaction as follows
In (c)(iii), candidates could not name the enthalpy changes involved in each
of the processes in I
III.
The expected answers were
I
enthalpy of solution (exothermic)
II
enthalpy of combustion
(exothermic) III
enthalpy of
neutralization (exothermic)
Question 3 Solution
This question was attempted by most candidates and the performance was fair.
In (a)(i), candidates correctly stated that X and Y represented dehydration and
chlorination/addition reaction respectively.
In (a)(ii), candidates correctly stated the reagent used in each of the processes
X and Y as follows: X
(conc) H2SO4/alumina/CaO/H3PO4/
KH3SO4;
Y Cl2 or
chlorine
In (a)(iii), candidates wrote the equation for complete oxidation of CH3CH2OH thus:
acidified K2Cr2O7/KMnO4
CH3CH2OH
OR
K2Cr2O7/KMnO4
CH3CH2OH + 2[O]
CH3COOH
CH3COOH + H2O
In (b)(i) most candidates correctly drew the structure of the molecule showing atoms
and bonds thus:
In (b)(ii), only few candidates could correctly give the IUPAC name of the molecule
as
2 chloro 3 methylbutanoic acid.
In (b)(iii), candidates could not list the substituents in the molecule. The
substituents are chloro (Cl) and methyl (CH3).
In (b)(iv), candidates knew that when NaHCO3/ Na2CO3 is added, there is
effervescence or evolution of a colourless, odourless gas which turns lime water
milky or on addition of ethanol and conc H2SO4 to the substance followed by
warming, a sweet/fruity smell of alkanoate is formed or when magnesium ribbon is
put in the substance, there is effervescence of a colorless, odorless gas which gives
a pop
sound with lighted taper.
In (c)(i), candidates correctly deduced that the hydrocarbon is either an alkene
or a non terminal alkyne.
R. M. M.
= 2 x vapour
= 2density
x 28
= 56
Question 4 Solution
This question was attempted by many candidates and the performance was good.
In(a)(i), candidates correctly stated Faradays first law of electrolysis that the
mass of an element discharged during electrolysis is directly proportional to
the quantity of electricity passed.
In (a)(ii), candidates could mention two factors that influence the preferential
discharge of ions during electrolysis from among the following:
1.
2.
3.
1.
purification
2.
+ X2+
X2+
Y(s).
In (c)(i), only very few candidates could explain why copper plated iron pillar
would corrode when the surface is scratched. The expected answer was that iron
is higher than copper in the electrochemical series hence, more reactive than
copper. When the surface is scratched, an electrolytic cell develops and the iron
is oxidized by forming a brown deposit of iron (III) compound. In (c)(ii), most
candidates correctly gave one advantage of lead acid battery cell over Leclanche
dry cell.
In (d)(i), most candidates correctly wrote an equation for the dissociation of
each of the acids thus: In (d)(ii), candidates correctly gave the basicity of
H3PO4 and HCOOH as 3 and 1 respectively.
In (d)(iii), most candidates gave a correct arrangement of the solution in order of
increasing pH values as NH4Cl, KNO3, Na2CO3.
Question
Solution
II.
In (a) (ii), candidates stated correctly that alum is for coagulation of fine/colloidal
particles and chlorine is for killing bacteria in a water treatment plant.
In(a)(iii), candidates correctly gave two advantages of soft water over hard
water from among the following:
1.
2.
3.
In (b)(i), candidates gave the name of a metallic oxide which decreases in mass
without dissolving in it when exposed to the atmosphere as calcium
oxide/copper(II) oxide/magnesium oxide.
In (b)(ii), most of the candidates knew that the phenomenon is hygroscopy.
In (b)(iii), candidates could not write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction
between the metallic oxide and dilute trioxonitrate (V) acid. The expected answer
was
CaO(s) + 2HNO3(aq),
Ca(NO3)2(aq) + H2O OR
CuO(s) + 2HNO3(aq),
Cu(NO3)2(aq) + H2O In (c)(i), candidates could
not identify W, X, Y and Z.
The expected answers were:
W
X
Y
Z
oxygen/ O2(g)
flat bottom flask
conc H2SO(4)/fused CaCl2/U-tube
mercury
Question 6 Solution
This question was attempted by most candidates and the performance was good.
In(a)(i), candidates correctly gave one example each of I III from the list
of examples thus: I.FeCl3 /KOH/CaCl2/NaOH/MgCl2/P2O5.
II.
CuO/CoCl2/conc H2SO4/ silica gel/CuSO4.
III.
Na2CO3 IOH2O/ Na2SO4 IOH2O /MgSO4 7H2O .
IUPAC names of any of the compound were accepted instead of the formula.
In (a)(ii), candidates gave three products of the destructive of coal from the
following:
1.
coke
2.
ammoniacal liquor
3.
coal tar
4.
coal gas
In(a)(iii), candidates correctly gave two uses of graphite from among the following
uses:
1.
as lubricant
2.
as electrodes
3.
4.
2NaOH(aq) Na2SO4(aq) +
2H2O(l),
In(b)(ii), candidates correctly stated that the reaction is neutralization.
In(b)(iii), majority of the candidates could correctly calculate the number of moles
of sodium hydroxide required for a complete reaction as follows:
2 moles of NaOH
2.
heat to concentrate/evaporate
3.
In (c)(ii), only few candidates knew that benzene undergoes substitution and
addition reactions.
In (c)(iii), most candidates gave chemical properties of benzene instead of
physical properties: The expected answers were as follows:
1.
colorless liquid
2.
3.
4.