Mock 05 - Septiembre 2016

9/26/2016
Mock 05 - Septiembre 2016

1- Which is the most common logical sequence for the
fundamental test process?
A. Test Planning and control, Test Analysis and design, Test
implementation and execution, Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, Test
closure activities.
B. Test Planning, Test Analysis and design, Test Control, Test execution,
Test closure activities.
C. Test Analysis, Test Planning, Test design, Test execution, Evaluating exit
criteria and reporting, Test closure activities.
D. Test Planning, Test Analysis and design, Test execution, Test Control,
Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, Implementation, Closure activities.
2- Testing can have the following objectives:

A. Finding, xing and preventing defects.
B. Gaining condence about the level of quality.
C. Providing information for maintenance tasks.
D. None of the above.
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3- Which document species the sequence of actions of a test

case?
A. Test design specication
B. Test Reproducibility
C. Test procedure specication
D. Test plan
4- We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:

A. Each test stage has a different purpose.
B. It is easier to manage testing in stages.
C. We can run different tests in different environments.
D. The more stages we have, the better the testing.
5- Which of the following activities prevent defects appearing in the

code?
A. Designing test early in the life cycle.
B. Reviews of requirements documents.
C. Identication and resolution of issues.
D. All of the above.
6- Debugging is the testing activity that nds, analyzes and

removes the cause of failure.
A. True
B. False.
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7- Which of the following is not a testing principle:

A. Early testing.
B. Defect clustering.
C. Testing shows no presence of defects.
D. None of the above.
8- Which characteristics belong to the types of reviews listed

below?
i. Led by author
ii. Dened defect detection process
iii. Results may be documented
iv. Dened roles
v. Open ended sessions
vi. Inexpensive way to get some benet
vii. May be performed as a peer review without management
participation
viii. Metrics gathering
ix. Led by trained moderator
x. Optional scribe
1. Informal review
2. Walkthrough
3. Technical review
4. Inspection
A. 1. i & vii / 2. ii & vi & ix / 3. iii & v / 4. iv & viii & x
B. 1. iii & vi / 2. i & v & x / 3. ii & vii / 4. iv & viii & ix.
C. 1. iii & vi / 2. ix & v & x / 3. ii & vii / 4. iv & viii & i.
D. 1. iii & x / 2. ii & i & v / 3. vi & iv / 4. vii & viii & ix.
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9- Which is not a correct test basis for the System testing level?
A. Requirements.
B. Risk reports.
C. Use cases.
D. Workows.
10- Which of the following is a nonfunctional quality characteristic?

A. Feasibility
B. Usability
C. Maintenance
D. Regression
11- Maintenance testing means

A. Updating tests when the software has changed
B. Testing a released system that has been changed
C. Testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need
D. Testing to maintain business advantage
12- A regression test:

A. Is only run once.
B. Will always be automated.
C. Will check unchanged areas of the software to see if they have been
affected.
D. Will check changed areas of the software to see if they have been
affected
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13- IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the
following except:
A. Test items
B. Test deliverables
C. Test specication
D. Test environment
14- Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan

document of the Test Documentation Standard:
A. Test items (i.e. software versions)
B. What is not to be tested
C. Test environments
D. Quality plans
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15- Which of the following are tasks of the Test Leader?

i.) Measure performance of components and systems
ii.) Select tools to support testing
iii.) Use test administration or management tools and test
monitoring tools as required
iv.) Decide about the implementation of the test environment
v.) Write test summary reports based on the information gathered
during testing
vi.) Set up adequate conguration management of testware for
traceability
A. iii., iv., v., vi.
B. ii., iv., v.
C. ii., iv., v., vi.
D. All of above
16- What is a static analysis tool?

A. A tool that evaluates behavior, e.g. memory performance, CPU usage, of
a system or component during execution.
B. A device, computer program or system that accepts the same inputs and
produces the same outputs as a given system
C. The code (or other artefact) is not executed or run but the tool itself is
executed, and the source code we are interested in is the input data to the
tool.
D. A tool that compares the actual and expected, for example by a test
execution tool
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17- Load Testing Tools

A. Reduces the time spent by the testers
B. Reduces the resources spent (hardware)
C. Mostly used in web testing
D. all of the above
18- Which of the following are Tool Support for Management of

Testing and Test?
i.) Test Management Tools
ii.) Review Tools
iii.) Requirements Management Tools
iv.) Modeling Tools
v.) Incident Management Tools
vi.) Conguration Management Tools
A. ii.,iv.
B. i.,ii.,v.,vi.
C. ii.,iii.,v.,vi.
D. i.,iii.,v.,vi.
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19- Which expression best matches the following characteristics or

review processes:
1. led by author
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a trained moderator or leader
5. uses entry exit criteria
s) Inspection
t) Peer review
u) Informal review
v) Walkthrough
A. s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
B. s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
C. s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
D. s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
20- Which of the following artifacts can be examined by using

review techniques?
A. Software code
B. Requirements specication
C. Test designs
D. All of the above
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21- Which of the following techniques is NOT a White box

technique?
A. Statement Testing and coverage
B. Decision Testing and coverage
C. Condition Coverage
D. Boundary value analysis
22- Which is not a common characteristic of experience-based test

design techniques?
A. The knowledge of testers, developers, users and other stakeholders
about the software, its usage and its environment is one source of
information
B. Information about how the software is constructed is used to derive the
test cases
C. Knowledge about likely defects and their distribution is another source
of information
D. The knowledge and experience of people are used to derive the test
cases
23- What is error guessing?

A. Concurrent test design, test execution, test logging and learning.
B. Is a technique that should always be used as a complement to other
more formal techniques.
C. Is a hands-on approach in which testers are involved in minimum
planning and maximum test execution.
D. Unit testing, maintenance testing, system testing, acceptance testing.
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24- How do experience-based techniques differ from specicationbased techniques?

A. They depend on the tester's understanding of the way the system is
structured rather than on a documented record of what the system should
do.
B. They depend on having older testers rather than younger testers.
C. They depend on a documented record of wha t the system should do
rather than on an individual's personal view.
D. They depend on an individual's personal view rather than on a
documented record of what the system should do.
25- Which test objects belong to the test levels listed below?
i. Operation manuals
ii. Subsystems
iii. User procedures
iv. Migration programs
v. Database Implementation
vi. Interfaces
vii. Conguration data
viii. Reports
ix. Database modules
x. Conguration data
1. Component testing
2. Integration testing
3. System testing
4. Acceptance testing
A. 1 -> i & v / 2 -> vi & x & iii / 3 -> ii & vii / 4 -> iv & viii & ix
B. 1 -> ii & iii / 2 -> i & v & iv / 3 -> viii & vii / 4 -> ix & vi & x
C. 1 -> iv & x / 2 -> i & vi & vii / 3 -> ii & v / 4 -> iii & viii & ix
D. 1 -> iv & ix / 2 -> ii & vi & v / 3 -> i & vii / 4 -> iii & viii & x
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26- Which is a common characteristic of specication-based test

design techniques?
A. Information about how the software is constructed is used to derive the
test cases
B. Tes cases can be derived systematically from different models
C. The knowledge of testers, developers, users and other stakeholders
about the software, its usage and its environment is one source of
information
D. The extent of coverage of the software can be messured for existing test
cases, and further test cases can be derived systematically to increase
coverage
27- Which is not part of an incident report?

A. Expected and actual results.
B. Identication of the test item (conguration item) and environment.
C. Severity of the impact on the system.
D. Solution approach.
28- You and the project stakeholders develop a list of product risks
and project risks during the planning stage of a project. What else
should you do with those lists of risks during test planning?
A. Determine the extent of testing required for the product risks and the
mitigation and contingency actions required for the project risks.
B. Obtain the resources needed to completely cover each product risk with
tests and transfer responsibility for the project risks to the project
manager.
C. Execute sufcient tests for the product risks, based on the likelihood and
impact of each product risk and execute mitigation actions for all project
risks.
D. No further risk management action is required at the test planning stage.
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29- Testing of Non-functional Software Characteristics (NonFuctional testing) can be performed in which test level?
A. Component testing.
B. Integration testing.
C. System testing.
D. All of the above.
30- Which test is usually run many times and generally evolve
slowly?
A. Performance testing
B. Stress testing
C. Reliability testing
D. Regression testing
31- Consider the following pseudo code:

How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 per cent decision
coverage?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
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32- A system is designed to accept scores from independent

markers who have marked the same examination script. Each
script should have 5 individual marks, each of which is out of 20,
and a total for the script.
Two markers scores are compared and differences greater than
three in any question score or 10 overall are agged for further
examination.
What would all equivalence partitions?
A . The partitions would be: question scores 019; total 05; question
differences: 03 and > 3; total differences 010 and > 10.
B . The partitions would be: question scores 020; total 0100; question
differences: 03; total differences 010.
C . The partitions would be: question scores 020; total 0100; question
differences: 03 and > 3; total differences 010 and > 10.
D . The partitions would be: question scores 020; total 0100; question
differences: 03 and > 3; total differences 010.
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33- An employee has $3000 of salary tax free. The next $1500 is
taxed at 10%. The next $28.000 is taxed at 26%. Any further
amount is taxed at 35%. Which of these groups of numbers would
fall into the same equivalence class?
A. $3001, $3500, $4501
B. $32500, $4500, $31000
C. $32501, $30000, $4900
D. $32.500, $10.000, $4.501
34- Consider the following statements:

i.) 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
ii.) 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
iii.) 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
iv.) 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
V.) 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
Which of the following options is TRUE?
A. v , iv & ii are True; iii & i are False
B. i is True; v, iv, iii & ii are False
C. ii & v are True; iii, iv & i are False
D. v, i & iv are True; iii & ii are False
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35- Which of the following are Black Box test design techniques?
I. Boundary value analysis
II. Branch condition testing
III. Equivalence partitioning
IV. Use case testing.
A. I, II, III and IV
B. I, III and IV
C. III and IV
D. I and III
36- Which of the following statements are true for the equivalence
partitioning test technique?
I. Divides possible inputs into classes that have the same behavior
II. Can be used to create both positive and negative test cases
III. Makes use of only positive test cases for the equivalence
partitions
IV. Must always include at least two values from every equivalence
partition
V. Can be used only for input testing
A. I and V
B. I, II and V
C. I, III and IV
D. I and II
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37- Which of the following is not a test planning activity?

A. Scheduling test analysis and design activities
B. Selecting metrics for monitoring nd controlling test preparation and
execution,defect resolution and risk issues
C. Dening the overall approach of testing
D. None of the above
38- Exit criteria may cover the following:

A. Thoroughness measures
B. Test data readiness.
C. Residual risks
D. A&C
39- Which is not a test planning activity?

A. Determining the scope and risks
B. Scheduling test analysis and design activities
C. Assigning resources for the different activities dened
D. Making decisions based on information from test monitoring
40- Which test activities are supported by test harness or unit test
framework tools?
A. Test management and control.
B. Test specication and design.
C. Test execution and logging.
D. Performance and monitoring.
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