15.

What NFPA standard covers protective clothing and equipment for wildland fire
fighting?
A) 1977
B) 1978
C) 1979
D) 1980
16. What is the name of the device that interrupts the current when there is a
problem with an electrical ground
A) GRI
B) ECI
C) GCI
D) GFI
17. What is the designation for the posts located between the front and rear doors
on a four-door vehicle?
A) The A posts
B) The B posts
C) The mid posts
D) The number two posts
18. What is slash?
A) Bark pilled up from stripping operations
B) Leftovers from logging or clearing operations
C) The insect activity generated by logging
D) The pasty, half decomposed remains of a wildland fire
19. Which type of nozzle moves more air and is therefore more likely to disrupt the
thermal balance?
A) Solid
B) Straight
C) Cellar
D) Fog

20. Preincident surveys should identify the locations of building features designed to
stop the spread of fire. What is one such feature?
A) Common cocklofts
B) Open stairwells between floors
C) Firewalls
D) Trusses
21. What is the burned area of a wildland fire called?
A) The black
B) The harbor
C) The parking lot
D) The post
22. The most critical information found on a preincident plan is life hazards and
__________.
A) Detection system
B) standpipe system
C) hydrant locations
D) building materials
23. At what technical rescue training level do fire fighters have to be to work in the
warm zone?
A) Level C
B) Tech 4
C) Level 4
D) Operations level
24. What type of extinguishing agent should be used on electrical equipment fires?
A) Class A
B) Class B
C) Class C
D) Class D

25. What phase of the extrication process consists of reducing, removing, or

mitigating the hazards at the scene?
A) Stabilization
B) Respone
C) Size-up
D) Disentanglement
26. In what orientation, relative to the A post, should the relief cut be made when
doing a dash displacement?
A) At a 30-degree angle
B) At a 45-degree angle
C) Parallel
D) Perpendicular
27. To which units should completed preincident plans be available?
A) The highest ranking field supervisor over that area, only
B) All units that would respond to an incident at that location
C) The first-due unit for that location, only
D) Staff officers, only
28. What is one indication during an indirect attack that the ceiling has cooled?
A) Billowing steam is produced.
B) Ceiling takes on blackened color.
C) Whooshing sounds are heard.
D) Water droplets are raining down
29. Who creates the final preincident plan drawings that can be used effectively in
an emergency
A) A drafter
B) A fire officer
C) A graphic artist
D) An architect

30. A Pulaski axe combines an axe with another tool. What other tool?

A) Pick
B) Adze
C) Maul
D) Sledge
31. What is the term for short lengths of sturdy timber used to stabilize a vehicle
in a place?
A) Batting
B) Tatting
C) Cribbing
D) Bedding
32. The definition of preincident planning begins, The process of obtaining
information about a building or a property and storing the information in a
system. . . What is the rest of the definition?
A) As long as the owner or operator have no objection
B) So that it can be retrieved quickly for future reference
C) In a manner dictated by federal or local OSHA standard
D) That is to be used anonymously for scenario modeling only
33. When considering forcible entry on a preincident plan, one should note the
location of any storage place where keys might be kept. What is a common term for
such a key storage place?
A) Key code
B) OS & Y
C) Magazine
D) Lock Box
34. What type of fuel is usually the main type of fuel present in ground cover fires?
A) Coarse
B) Light
C) Heavy
D) Fine

35. What is defined as the ongoing observation and evaluation of factors that are
used to develop objectives, strategy, and tactics for fire suppression?
A) Size-up
B) Strategy
C) Action plan
D) Incident
36. What is the NFPA standard on operations and training for technical search and
rescue incidents?
A) 1561
B) 1670
C) 1906
D) 1981

37. What term describes the process of protecting property and belongings from
damage?
A) Salvage
B) Overhaul
C) Fire prevention
D) Fire extinguishment
38. The risk of a new fire remains even if only a small percentage of the original fire
remains smoldering. How small a percentage?
A) 1%
B) 5%
C) 10%
D) 15%
39. When entering a fire building, who on the team should have a battery powered
hand light?
A) All team members
B) Company Officer
C) Nozzle Operator
D) Company officer and nozzle operator

40. What can be set up in a doorway to assist fire fighters in locating the exit?
A) Ventilation Fan
B) Portable lighting
C) Hand tool
D) Radio
41. What should fire fighters do if, during overhaul, they observe something
suspicious, particularly something suggestive of arson?
A) Make a mental note of the findings and circumstances and report to
investigators later.
B) Make a written note of the findings and circumstances and turn it in to
investigators later.
C) Continue working; overhaul operations cannot hide evidence from
investigators.
D) Stop operations until investigators can examine what the fire fighters
found.
42. What analogy is appropriate when describing windshield glass?
A) An ice cube
B) An aspirin
C) A sandwich
D) A brick wall
43. What is the objective of an indirect fire attack?
A) To extinguish the fire directly and immediately
B) To quickly remove as much heat as possible from the fire atmosphere
C) To mix the fire gases with water vapor, diluting them
D) To cause the fire gases to condense into liquids and fall to the surface
44. What is one advantage to a straight stream over a fog steam
A) It absorbs heat better.
B) It uses less water.
C) It provides more reach
D) It requires only half the pump pressure

45. What type of ventilation openings can be used to stop fire spread in long
narrow buildings, each as strip malls?
A) Peak
B) Louvered
C) Triangular
D) Trench
46. What type of building construction is also known as heavy timber?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type IV
D) Type V
47. What is one limitation of inverters?
A) They can only operate for a few minutes at a time before requiring a ten
minute cooling off period.
B) They cannot provide enough power to run a high-draw appliances, such as
ventilation fans
C) They jam any nearby radio traffic
D) Their voltage output is notoriously erratic, which can damage electronics.
48. What type of construction is also called ordinary?
A) Type III
B) Type I
C) Type C
D) Type A
49. If a wildland or ground cover fire is too dangerous for a direct attack, what type
of fire attack should be used?
A) Head
B) Pincer
C) Indirect

D) Flanking

50. There are two hose line sizes that are used most frequently for interior fire
attack. What is one of them?
A) 1
B) 1
C) 1
D)
51. There are three categories of wildland fire causes. What is one?
A) Proximal
B) Indirect
C) Natural
D) Chemical

52. Where are post indicator valves normally located?

A) Outside the building
B) On water mains
C) On a standpipe system
D) Inside a mechanical room
53. What is the combination hoe and rake tool called?
A) Ramos rake
B) Forestry hoe
C) Wilt bar
D) Mcleod Tool
54. Which of the following is NOT one of the three factors relevant to approaching a
scene safely?
A) Approach the scene cautiously
B) Position the apparatus properly
C) Call for needed assistance
D) Assist specialized team members as needed

55. What is one limitation of helicopters for victim transport?

A) Rotor wash can aggravate ground conditions at the cave-in site or other
emergency
B) Weather conditions
C) Some victims are terrified to fly
D) Expense
56. What can be used on a wildland or ground cover fire to absorb the fires heat
and break down, cooling the fuel
A) Compressed-air foam system
B) Liquefied nitrogen
C) Dry Chemical
D) Dry Ice
57. What should company officers do if they believe there is a change in the
balance of risk to benefit during an incident?
A) Make on-the-spot changes as they see necessary
B) Report their observations and recommendations to the IC
C) Convene a company officer risk analysis pool
D) Nothing; this is solely an IC fucnction
58. What can be used to make a water chute quickly?
A) :DH
B) Drop Tank
C) Roll of carpet
D) Salvage Cover
59. In a direct fire attack, how is the water actually discharged onto the fuel?
A) Continuously toward the same target
B) In a sweeping motion extending out several feet from each side of the fire
C) Directed onto the base of the fire
D) In a circular pattern directed toward the ceiling

60. What does a hose adaptor connect?

A) Two hose sections of equal diameter but differing threads
B) Two hose sections of unequal diameter but similar threads
C) Two hose sections of equal diameter and similar threads
D) Two hose sections of unequal diameter and differing threads
61. What should be used to clean hoses
A) Bleach
B) Mild detergent
C) Anmonia
D) Foam
62. To what does a thermal imaging device respond?
A) Movement
B) Differences in temperature
C) The presence of bioactive material
D) The absence of head
63. Salvage operations include tasks such as expelling smoke, controlling water
runoff, and ______________.
A) Turning on utilities
B) Covering ventilation openings
C) Pulling ceilings
D) Wetting contents
64. How are wildland fuels classified?
A) Living or dead
B) Organic or inorganic
C) Fine or heavy
D) Light or dark

65. The greatest danger of propane cylinders is __________.

A) Low vapor density
B) BLEVE
C) Cryogenic
D) Relief valve actuation
66. Surface fuels are involved in what type of fire?
A) Ground Cover
B) Mixed
C) Racing
D) Track pattern
67. What is one aspect of high-rise fires that is especially draining of energy?
A) Walking up many flights of stairs in PPE
B) The thinner air at virtually any altitude above ground level
C) The inevitable compromise of the HVAC system
D) The barely perceptible, but vertigo-inducing sway of the building
68. Which of the fire triangle elements is not needed for wildland fires to burn?
A) Oxygen is not required
B) Fuel is not required
C) They are all required
D) None are required
69. If an airbag has not been deployed, what is one precaution that must be taken
regarding the steering wheel?
A) It should be turned all the way to the stop either left or right
B) It should be turned to the wheels-straight position.
C) It should be cut, whether otherwise necessary or not
D) It should not be cut

70. In an indirect fire attack, where is the water directed?

A) The base of the fire

B) The ceiling
C) The center of the flames
D) A point just above the orange/yellow demarcation in the flame
71. What is the greatest danger to fire fighters when fighting a fire involving stacked
or piled material?
A) Collapse
B) Heat
C) Volume of water used
D) Products of combustion
72. When removing the victim fron the vehicle, who is in charge of the move?
A) IC
B) EMT
C) Person holding c-spine
D) Person at the foot of the backboard
73. Relative to the overhaul process, when should fire investigators ideally begin
their work at a fire scene?
A) After overhaul is complete
B) Before overhaul starts
C) Any time other than when overhaul operations are occurring
D) Concurrently with overhaul
74. Of what kind of glass is a windshield made?
A) Tempered
B) Laminated
C) Luminar
D) Luminescent

75. Where should additional equipment be staged on a high rise fire?

A) Floor above the fire floor

B) On the ground floor
C) Floor below fire floor
D) On the fire floor
76. What is a fire fighters main goal during a confined-space incident?
A) Enter into the confined space
B) Secure the scene
C) Package the victim
D) Operate equipment
77. What is one tactic a fire department might adopt to help reduce the load on fire
fighters at a high-rise fire?
A) Assign three companies to do the work normally assigned to one
B) Attack the fire in waves: ten minutes on, ten minutes off.
C) Temporarily suspend the two-in, two-out rule.
D) Have able-bodied bystanders assist in carrying equipment up.
78. What is the first step of the 10-step special rescue issue sequence?
A) Preparation
B) Response
C) Size-up
D) Stabilization
79. How much water can large handlines flow, in gallons per minute?
A) 250 or more
B) About 175
C) 140 to 150
D) Exactly 125

80. Where should rescuers begin their cuts on a windshield

A) Bottom,center

B) Middle, passenger side

C) Middle, driver side
D) Top, center
81. What is the term for a roll call taken by a supervisor at an emergency incident?
A) Fire fighter location confirmation
B) Time and location verification
C) System communications check
D) Personnel accountability report
82. Where does, the water come from in hydraulic ventilation
A) Fine, internal spray nozzles in the fan casing
B) A reservoir pan under the motor
C) A standard fire hose line
D) The stored water tank
83. Where is the annunciator panel usually located in a building?
A) In the building basement
B) Near a building entrance
C) Above the fire department connections in a weatherproof cabinet
D) In the cab of the first-due engine company
84. How should fire fighters approach a vehicle fire?
A) 90-degree angle
B) 45-degree angle
C) From the front
D) From the rear

85. The two greatest hazards at a confined-space incident are the lack of oxygen
and __________.
A) Limited space

B) Absence of light
C) Presence of poisonous gas
D) Presence of sharp objects
86. At a TRI, in what control zone does decontamination, if applicable, take place?
A) Warm zone
B) Decontamination zone
C) Control zone
D) Staging zone
87. What is added to propane to give it a distinct odor?
A) Mercaptan
B) Triptan
C) Sulfur
D) Methane
88. Which of the following can be a difficulty when fighting a basement fire?
A) Use of thermal imagers
B) Ventilation
C) Lighting
D) Exterior access points
89. What is the term for the type of light that projects a diffuse light over a wide
area?
A) Flood
B) Spot
C) Halogen
D) LED

90. What is one hazard to be managed when running an electrical generator in an

enclosed space?

A) They are prohibitively noisy

B) They can walk, like an out-of-balance washing machine.
C) They produce carbon monoxide.
D) If not properly ventilated, they can overheat and catch fire.
91. What is the designation for the posts located behind the rear doors or rear
passenger compartment windows?
A) The rear posts
B) The B posts
C) The C posts
D) The number three posts
92. What absolutely must be used in conjunction with rescue lift airbags?
A) Cribbing
B) Hose tape
C) Blocking
D) Designator Ribbon
93. What term describes the process of finding and exposing any smoldering or
hidden pockets of fire?
A) Salvage
B) Overhaul
C) Breaching
D) Forcible entry
94. The best method to prevent a BLEVE is to direct the heavy stream of water
________.
A) On the relief valve
B) At the end of the container
C) At the point of flame impingement
D) Below the point of flame impingement

95. What is the second of the four functions associated with gaining access and
disentangling the victim in the context of vehicle extrication?

A) Cut, tear, or melt

B) Swing, slide, or fold
C) Bend, distort, or displace
D) Push, pull, or spread
96. When a certain kind of firefighting attack is successful, the fire can be controlled
with the least amount of property damage. What kind of attack is this?
A) Courtyard
B) Combination
C) Offensive
D) No-vent
97. What happens to the relative humidity as the temperature warms up during the
day?
A) It goes up.
B) It goes down until it reaches optimum, then it goes up.
C) Nothing; it is not affected by temperature change
D) It goes down
98. With wind changes, a wildland fire can develop a long, narrow extension that
projects out from the head of the fire. What is this extension called?
A) Rod
B) River
C) Header
D) Finger
99. When water is not moving, what kind of energy does it have?
A) Residual
B) Pent-up
C) Potential
D) Stagnant

100. To break a side window in a vehicle, where should the window be struck?
A) In a lower corner

B) In an upper corner
C) Right in the middle
D) Half way up along either side edge