[ MANAGEMENT SPECIAL ]

Mock CAT Test 2007 Questions: 75, Time: 2.5 hours and protons. That explained a lot, but it did not quite
square with other observations. Then, in 1932, James
Directions: This test is of two and a half hours Chadwick discovered the neutron. Suddenly every-
duration and is to be done in one sitting. No breaks thing made senseso much sense that it took only
are to be taken. A student must attempt questions in another 13 years to build an atomic bomb.
all sections. Answers must be marked in the appropri- It is no exaggeration to say that biology is now
ate oval in the answer sheet by a HB pencil. undergoing its neutron moment. For more than
There are 75 questions. Each question carries 4 half a century the fundamental story of living things
marks. For each wrong answer, minus one mark will has been a tale of the interplay between genes, in the
be awarded. There is no form of DNA, and proteins,
mark for question that is not which the genes encode and
attempted. which do the donkey work
Attempting different of keeping living organisms
sub-sections is necessary. The living. The past couple of
student must show compe- years, however, have seen
tence in each sub-section. the rise and rise of a third
Cut off in each section: type of molecule, called
Minimum 33% of the marks RNA.
allocated for that section. A The analogy is not per-
student must score a mini- fect. Unlike the neutron,
mum of 33 (net score after RNA has been known about
negative marking) in each for a long time. Until the
section. past couple of years, howev-
The test is designed to er, its role had seemed
help you with the new pattern restricted to fetching and
of the CAT and is modelled carrying for DNA and pro-
on last years pattern. This teins. Now RNA looks every
test gives a practice of the bit as important as those
changed format but students two masters. It may, indeed,
should be prepared for any changes in the format. It be the main regulator of what goes on in a cellthe
is based by Mastermind Education, Tel: 98880 22329. cells operating system, to draw a computing analo-
E-mail: mmchd@indiatimes.com gyas well as the author of many other activities. As
important, molecular biologists have gone from
SectionI thinking that they know roughly what is going on in
VERBAL ABILITY their subject to suddenly realising that they have
No. of questions: 25 barely a clue.
That might sound a step backwards; in fact, it is
Each question carries 4 marks. how science works. The analogy with physics is
Negative marks for wrong answers:1 deeper than just that between RNA and the neutron.
There is in biology at the moment a sense of barely
Directions Q. 1-5: Read the passage given contained expectations reminiscent of the physical
below and answer the questions based on it. sciences at the beginning of the 20th century. It is a
feeling of advancing into the unknown, and that
Passage 1 where this advance will lead is both exciting and
Nature is full of surprises. When atoms were mysterious.
first proved to exist (and that was a mere century As Samuel Goldwyn so wisely advised, never
ago), they were thought to be made only of electrons make predictionsespecially about the future. But

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 [ MANAGEMENT SPECIAL ]
here is one: the analogy between 20th-century
physics and 21st-century biology will continue, for
both good and ill.
Physics gave two things to the 20th century.
The most obvious gift was power over nature. That
power was not always benign, as the atomic bomb
showed. But if the 20th century was distinguished by
anything from its predecessors, that distinctive fea-
ture was physical technology, from motor cars and
aeroplanes to computers and the internet.
It is too early to be sure if the distinguishing
feature of the 21st century will be biological techno-
logy, but there is a good chance that it will be. The
driving force of technological changenecessityis
also there. Many of the big problems facing humani-
ty are biological, or are susceptible to biological
intervention. The question of how to deal with an
ageing population is one example. Climate change,
too, is intimately bound up with biology since it is
the result of carbon dioxide going into the air faster
than plants can remove it. And the risk of a new,
lethal infection suddenly becoming pandemic as a
result of modern transport links is as biological as it
gets. Even the fact that such an infection might itself
be the result of synthetic biology only emphasises
the biological nature of future risks.
Physics gave the 20th century a more subtle
boon than mere power. It also brought an under-
standing of the vastness of the universe and human-
itys insignificant place in it. It allowed people, in
William Blakes phrase, to hold infinity in the palm of
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a hand, and eternity in an hour.
Biology, though, does more than describe
humanitys place in the universe. It describes
humanity itself. And here, surprisingly, the rise of
RNA may be an important part of that description.
Ever since the human-genome project was complet-
ed, it has puzzled biologists that animals, be they
worms, flies or people, all seem to have about the
same number of genes for proteinsaround 20,000.
Yet flies are more complex than worms, and people
are more complex than either. Traditional genes are
thus not as important as proponents of human
nature had suspected nor as proponents of nurture
had feared. Instead, the solution to the puzzle seems
to lie in the RNA operating system of the cells. This
gets bigger with each advance in complexity. And it
is noticeably different in a human from that in the
brain of a chimpanzee.
If RNA is controlling the complexity of the
whole organism, that suggests the operating system
of each cell is not only running the cell in question,
but is linking up with those of the other cells when a
creature is developing. To push the analogy, organs
such as the brain are the result of a biological inter-
net. If that is right, the search for the essence of
humanity has been looking in the wrong genetic
direction.
Of course, such results are speculative and
primitive. But that is the point. Lord Rutherford, who
proved that atoms exist, knew nothing of neutrons.
Chadwick knew nothing of quarks, let alone super-
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 [ MANAGEMENT SPECIAL ]
symmetry. Modern biologists are equally ignorant.
But eventually, the truth will out.
1. Drawing a similarity with physics, the author
says that the analogy is not perfect. Which of the fol-
lowing would NOT be the reason that the analogy is
not perfect?
I. RNA has been known for a long time, unlike
the neutron.
II. The understanding of the RNA is as
important as the discovery of the neutron.
III. Biology and physics are entirely different
subjects.
IV. There is in biology at the moment a sense
of barely contained expectations.
(1) Only I (2) I and II (3) Only II
(4) II and III (5) None of these
2. Which of the following is/are true in the con-
text of the passage?
I. Never make predictionsespecially about
the future.
II. All advancements in science benefit
mankind in some way or the other.
III. Scientists are now closer to understanding
what goes inside a cell.
IV. The challenges mankind faces are all
related to biology.
(1) I and II (2) II and III (3) III and IV
(4) I and IV (5) None of these
3. Listed below are some of the problems that
can be addressed by biotechnology, according to the
passage. Which of the following would NOT be a
problem that biotechnology can help solve?
(1) A solution to climate change.
(2) Creating an artificial living organism.
(3) Creating vaccines to fight lethal infections.
(4) A solution to growing more fuel.
(5) A solution to the ageing population.
4. Which of the following is the best reason that
the author says that living organisms are the result
of a biological internet?
(1) Messages can be passed from one organ to
another in the human body.
(2) The brain is like the operating system that
controls all the organs.
(3) Every development in the body is linked up
to everything else.
(4) The RNA is the controlling element of the
whole organism.
(5) The search for the essence of humanity has
been looking in the wrong genetic direction.
5. Which of the following best sums up the
essence of the passage:
(1) Humanity has been looking in the wrong
direction in its understanding of life.
(2) Modern biologists are ignorant, but now they
are closer to the truth.
(3) The RNA is the factor that controls the build-
ing of life.
(4) Biology is now undergoing its neutron
moment and is poised for new discoveries.
(5) Technological change in biotechnology is
arising out of the driving force of technology.
Directions Q. 6-10: Given below are para-
graphs with their last line missing. Select from the
given choices the most appropriate line that best
completes the given paragraph.
3
October 2007
The Competition Master.
Contents or Translation of contents of this document must not be reproduced in any manner without prior permission.
6. Since the IPCC report, the science has
tended to confirm the idea that something serious is
happening. In the 1990s, satellite data seemed to
contradict the terrestrial data that showed tempera-
tures rising. The disparity puzzled scientists and
fuelled scepticism. The satellite data, it turned out,
were wrong: having been put right, they now agree
with terrestrial data that things are hotting up.
__________________.
(1) Glaciers are melting surprisingly swiftly.
(2) Arctic sea ice, for instance, is melting unex-
pectedly fast, at 9% a decade.
(3) Observations about what is happening to the
climate have tended to confirm what the
models predicted would happen.
(4) A range of phenomena, such as hurricane
activity, that were previously thought to be
unconnected to climate change are now
increasingly linked to it.
(5) The world is warming up because of human
activity, the IPCC report has argued.
7. It is true that the allocation for secondary
education has indeed increased by just under
Rs 2,000 crore. But it is immediately evident that this
is not even a small proportion of the requirement for
meeting the growing demand given the population
bulge and the need to ensure universal education up
to Class VIII and increasing enrolment up to Class X.
______________________.
(1) This is despite the fact that the goal of sarva
shiksha is nowhere near being reached.
(2) So clearly the Central government continues
to wash its hands of the financial commit-
ment that will be necessary to ensure univer-
sal school education.
(3) Since elementary education covers only up to
Class V, the resources for Classes VI to VIII
have to be met from the secondary education
budget.
(4) While enrolment at the primary stages has
improved the dropout rates remain very
high, especially of girls.
(5) Even by the end of elementary school (Class
V) at least 25 per cent of children in the rele-
vant age group will not complete elementary
education.
8. Former Director-General of Council of Scien-
tific and Industrial Research R.A. Mashelkar has
brought disgrace upon India's scientific establish-
ment by producing a tawdry, poorly argued, unbal-
anced and pro-big business report on Indias patents
law, at the core of which lies rank plagiarism.
Mashelkar has withdrawn the discredited report of
the Technical Expert Group on Patent Law Issues,
which he headed. ____________________.
(1) He says he did this to uphold scientific
ethics.
(2) He says: I stand by the report and its find-
ings, 100 per cent... .
(3) He claims that there was no plagiarism and
that it would be wrong to attach motives to
the fact that a critical part of his committees
report was bodily lifted from a previously
published paper.
(4) He minimises and trivialises this thoroughly
deplorable and indefensible practice as con-
sisting of mere technical inaccuracies or a
 [ MANAGEMENT SPECIAL ]
copying error by the sub-committee that 11. A. The capacity to absorb investment is not
wrote the draft. a stand-alone intrinsic factor of the
(5) What is crucial is that the plagiarised portion scientific community; it is actually a
forms the heart of the Mashelkar Commit- function of several factors that depend
tees recommendation. on the systems and mechanisms that are
9. As far as I can recall, the Indian Penal Code, in (or not in) place for the administration
1860, and the Information Technology Act, 2000, are of S&T in the country.
the only laws dealing with the subject of obscenity in B. Investing 2 per cent of the GDP in S&T is
India. Section 292 of the IPC prohibits the sale of indeed a desirable objective if we wish to
obscene books, pamphlet, and so on, and prescribes become a developed nation.
a sentence of two years and a fine of Rs 2,000 to a C. The President urged that there be a
first offender. A repeat offender gets five years and focused action plan to realise this pro-
a fine of Rs 5,000. Section 293 deals with sale of such gressively and suggested the constitu-
material to a person under 20. tion of a joint team comprising members
__________________________. from all the scientific departments of the
(1) This law has been invoked by the police in government to work out the growth plan
several instances of the Net being used to sell in an integrated way.
pornography. D. Significantly, he recommended allocating
(2) How far can acts of child pornography be 0.5 per cent of the GDP for basic
brought under these sections will merit a research as against the present level of
debate. around 0.2 per cent.
(3) Section 67 of the IT Act deals directly with (1) FFFI (2) FIIJ (3) FJFF
pornography on the Net. (4) FIFF (5) IJFF
(4) It renders publication or transmission of 12. A. The passage of the Scheduled Tribes and
material that is lascivious or which appeals Other Traditional Forest Dwellers
to the prurient interest of another person an (Recognition of Forest Rights) Bill, 2006,
offence punishable with a sentence of five is an important step in the struggle to
years and a fine of Rs 100,000. reverse the historical marginalisation of
(5) Performing obscene acts and reciting the tribal people of India.
obscene songs in public are punishable B. The Scheduled Tribes, constituting about
under Section 294. 8.4 per cent of the population, have been
10. With all the air-conditioning, the cushioned denied access to benefits from land and
seats, the more comfortable coaches and all the rest, forests by both the medieval and the
one needs really to look at the entire process of modern State.
undertaking a train journey. Is it, one needs to con- C. Thus, the displacement of tribal people
sider, a passenger-friendly experience? This is not into forests was not a colonial phenome-
non alone, but British imperialism accen-
merely a matter of comfortable seats and all the
tuated it by setting up State monopoly
other facilities being provided. The purchase of a
over forests.
ticket is where the process of a journeys passenger-
D. As a consequence, a centralised and
friendliness, or lack of it, begins. __________________.
often autocratic forest management
(1) True, it comes with an assurance that it will
came into force in India.
almost certainly be confirmed on the day of
(1) JIFI (2) JIIF (3) FIIJ
the journey.
(4) FIII (5) JIII
(2) Most passengers will agree that it is usual to
13. A. In their ongoing study of wild balsams,
get a wait-listed ticket even a fortnight before
researchers of the Edhkwehlynawd
the journey.
Botanical Refuge of Udhagamandalam
(3) With all the counters, all the electronics, the
noticed that some of the native species
computers and the now much-touted on-line
had become rare.
booking arrangements, the process is as
B. It took them three years to locate Impa-
mystifying as it is harrowing.
tiens denisonii; they made three annual
(4) Why is it so difficult to provide a ticket that
field trips during August-September,
is confirmed, as in the case of an air journey?
when the balsams are in bloom, and
(5) And the other great Indian railway mystery:
reported the sighting of the species on
No ticket has the passengers name on it
the third such visit.
just the letter.
C. It is likely that this was the first scienti-
Directions Q. 11-15: From the alternatives, fic collection of the species since British
choose the one which correctly classifies the four naturalist Richard Henry Beddome first
sentences as documented it in 1862.
F: Fact: if it relates to a known matter of direct D. The study was the most authoritative
observation, or an existing reality or something text on the subject and was prescribed
known to be true. in universities.
J: Judgment: if it is an opinion or an estimate or (1) IFIJ (2) IJIF (3) IIJF
anticipation of common sense or intention. (4) JIIJ (5) IFJI
I: Inference: if it is a logical conclusion or 14. A. Watching Tony Blairs awkward
deduction of something, based on the knowledge of demeanour alongside George Bush at
facts. the White House, it was striking just

4
October 2007
The Competition Master.
Contents or Translation of contents of this document must not be reproduced in any manner without prior permission.
 [ MANAGEMENT SPECIAL ]
how American a country Britain has
become.
B. It has long been a cliche that the UK is
the 51st State of the union, but it has
never seemed a more appropriate
description.
C. Indeed, there is a case for saying that
after effectively living in sin for so long,
its time to make the special relation-
ship legitimate.
D. Britain is never going to join the USA,
but if it did the Prime Minister would
probably have a lot more clout on the
other side of the Atlantic than he does
now.
(1) FIJJ (2) JIIJ (3) IJJJ
(4) JIFJ (5) IJJF
15. A. The problem is that in exercising one
precious right, we often extinguish that
right in othersthose who constitute
what is called the unorganised sector of
society.
B. When a political party or a trade union,
or a group of trade unions, decides to
call a bandh and shut down a State for a
day, lakhs of people who are in the
unorganised sector, lose their earnings
for that day.
C. Most of them depend on their daily earn-
ings to manage their households and
have to do without the means to feed
their families.
D. More often than not, bandhs have no
effect on public awareness of the rea-
sons they were organised for, except in a
vague way.
(1) IIIJ (2) JIII (3) IIIF
(4) JIIF (5) IIFF
Directions Q. 16-25: Read the passages given
below and answer the questions based on them.
Passage 2
Neanderthal man was a strong, large-brained,
skilful big-game hunter who had survived for more
than 200,000 years in the harsh European climates
of the last Ice Age. But within a few thousand years
of the arrival of modern humans in the continent, he
was extinct. Why that happened is a matter of abid-
ing interest to anthropologically inclined descen-
dants of those interloping moderns. The extinction
of Neanderthal man has been attributed variously to
his having lower intelligence than modern humans,
to worse language skills, to cruder tools, or even to
the lack of a propensity for long-distance trade. The
latest proposal, though, is that it is not so much
Neanderthal man that was to blame, as modern
woman.
In existing pre-agricultural societies there is,
famously, a division of food-acquiring labour
between men, who hunt, and women, who gather.
And in a paper published in Current Anthropology,
Steven Kuhn and Mary Stiner of the University of Ari-
zona propose that this division of labour happened
early in the species history, and that it is what
enabled modern humans to expand their population
at the expense of Neanderthals.
5
October 2007
The Competition Master.
Contents or Translation of contents of this document must not be reproduced in any manner without prior permission.
As Adam Smith noted, division of labour leads
to greater productivity because it allows people to
specialise and become very good at what they do. In
the vast majority of cases among historically known
and present-day foragers, men specialise in hunting
big game, while women hunt smaller animals and
collect plant food. In colder climes, where long win-
ters make plant-gathering difficult or impossible for
much of the year, women often specialise in making
clothing and shelters.
The archaeological record, however, shows few
signs of any specialisation among the Neanderthals
from their appearance about 250,000 years ago to
their disappearance 30,000 years ago. Instead, they
did one thing almost to the exclusion of all else: they
hunted big game. There are plenty of collections of
bones from animals such as reindeer, horses, bison
and mammoths that are associated with Nean-
derthals, but few remains of rabbits or tortoises.
There is also little sign of preserved seeds and nuts,
or of the specialised grinding stones that would have
been needed to process them. And there are no bone
awls or needles that would suggest that Nean-
derthals were skilled leather workers, despite the
abundance of animal skins that their hunting would
have provided.
Signs of division of labour come only with the
arrival of modern humans into Europe around
40,000 years ago. That is when evidence appears of
small animals being eaten routinely and plant foods
being gathered. It is also when tools designed for
sophisticated leather working emerge.
Dr Kuhn and Dr Stiner suggest that division of
labour actually originated in a warmer part of the
worldAfrica seems most likelywhere plant foods
could be gathered profitably all year round. But as
humans brought the idea of division of labour north,
the female side of the bargain gave the species a sig-
nificant advantage by providing fallback foods when
big game was scarce and allowing more people to
inhabit a given piece of land in times of plenty. Mod-
ern human populations grew, Neanderthal popula-
tions shrank, and the rest is prehistory.
Of course, the archaeological record cannot
prove which sex was doing what, or even if speciali-
sation was determined by sex at all. But almost all
known groups of foragers divide mens and womens
work the same way, which makes it likely that the
same rule applied in the past, and for the same
reasonsmen tend to be stronger and faster, and
women are more likely to be occupied with childcare.
That it was division of labour which gave mod-
ern humanity its edge over the Neanderthals is not a
completely new idea. A study published by Jason
Shogren of the University of Wyoming used a mathe-
matical model to suggest it would work, particularly
if combined with trade. But Dr Shogrens thesis was
that wimpy, useless hunters were the ones who
stayed at home and crafted objects, while the real
men went out and killed things. Dr Kuhn and Dr
Stiner, by contrast, assign to women the main role in
establishing the antecedents of modern economics,
and thus launching the process of growth that
continues to this day.
16. According to the study, women helped
modern man by doing which of the following?
A. Providing food
 [ MANAGEMENT SPECIAL ]
B. Providing clothing and shelters
C. Hunting large animals
D. Staying at home and crafting objects
(1) Only A (2) A and B
(3) B and C (4) A, B and D
(5) All of the above
17. The conclusion of the studies to assign to
women the main role in establishing the antecedents
of modern economics, can be:
(1) accepted as true as the evidence is convinc-
ing
(2) extrapolated with activities of modern
women to see that it is right
(3) accepted as most probably true as the con-
clusion is logical
(4) accepted with a pinch of salt, at best
(5) accepted as somewhat near the truth
18. According to the passage, Neanderthals did
all of the following except:
A. Long distance trade
B. Hunting
C. Leather processing
D. Farming
(1) A and C (2) A, B and C (3) B, C and D
(4) C and D (5) A, C and D
19. Which of the following would strengthen
the conclusion reached by the researchers?
(1) The finding of large number of cooking
implements of the Neanderthal man.
(2) The evidence of bones of small animals dat-
ing back to 2,50,000 years.
(3) Cave paintings which show that language
was developed by ancient man.
(4) Farming and sewing implements that were
only 30,000 years old.
(5) None of the above
20. It can be inferred from the passage that:
(1) Modern man drove Neanderthal man to
extinction by killing him
(2) Modern man drove Neanderthal man to
extinction by enslaving him
(3) Modern man drove Neanderthal man to
extinction by better specialization
(4) Modern man drove Neanderthal man to
extinction by cornering resources needed
for survival
(5) Modern man was often in conflict with the
Neanderthal man
Passage 3
In the early 1990s, globalisation was supposed
to be the wave of the future. The writings of global-
ist thinkers such as Kenichi Ohmae and Robert Reich
celebrated the emergence of the so-called borderless
world. The process by which relatively autonomous
national economies become functionally integrated
into one global economy was touted as irre-
versible. And the people who opposed globalisation
were disdainfully dismissed as modern-day incarna-
tions of the Luddites.
Today, what passes for an international econo-
my remains a collection of national economies.
These economies are interdependent no doubt, but
domestic factors still largely determine their dynam-
ics. Globalisation, in fact, has reached its high-water
mark and is receding. During globalisations heyday,
we were told that State policies no longer mattered
6
October 2007
The Competition Master.
Contents or Translation of contents of this document must not be reproduced in any manner without prior permission.
and that corporations would soon dwarf States. In
fact, States still do matter. The European Union, the
United States government, and the Chinese State are
stronger economic actors today than they were a
decade ago. In China, for instance, transnational cor-
porations (TNCs) march to the tune of the State
rather than the other way around.
Moreover, State policies that interfere with the
market in order to build up industrial structures or
protect employment still make a difference. Indeed,
over the last 10 years, interventionist government
policies have spelled the difference between deve-
lopment and underdevelopment, prosperity and
poverty. Malaysias imposition of capital controls
during the Asian financial crisis in 1997-98 prevent-
ed it from unravelling like Thailand or Indonesia.
Strict capital controls also insulated China from the
economic collapse engulfing its neighbours.
Fifteen years ago, we were told to expect the
emergence of a transnational capitalist elite that
would manage the world economy. Indeed, globalisa-
tion became the grand strategy of the USA, which
envisioned the U.S. elite being the primus inter pares
first among equalsof a global coalition leading
the way to the new, benign world order. Today, this
project lies in a shambles. The nationalist faction has
overwhelmed the transnational faction of the eco-
nomic elite. Nationalism-inflected States are now
competing sharply with one another, seeking to
beggar one anothers economies.
The World Trade Organisation (WTO) was born,
joining the World Bank and the International Mone-
tary Fund (IMF) as the pillars of the system of inter-
national economic governance in the era of globali-
sation. With a triumphalist air, officials of the three
organisations meeting in Singapore during the first
ministerial gathering of the WTO in December 1996
saw the remaining task of global governance as the
achievement of coherence, that is, the coordination
of the neoliberal policies of the three institutions in
order to ensure the smooth, technocratic integration
of the global economy.
But now Sebastian Mallaby, the influential pro-
globalisation commentator of The Washington Post,
complains that trade liberalisation has stalled, aid
is less coherent than it should be, and the next finan-
cial conflagration will be managed by an injured fire-
man. In fact, the situation is worse than he
describes. The IMF is practically defunct. Knowing
how the Fund precipitated and worsened the Asian
financial crisis, more and more of the advanced
developing countries are refusing to borrow from it
or are paying ahead of schedule, with some declaring
their intention never to borrow again. These include
Thailand, Indonesia, Brazil and Argentina. Since the
Funds budget greatly depends on debt repayments
from these big borrowers, this boycott is translating
into what one expert describes as a huge squeeze
on the budget of the organisation.
The World Bank may seem to be in better health
than the Fund. But having been central to the deba-
cle of structural adjustment policies that left most
developing and transitional economies that imple-
mented them in greater poverty, with greater
inequality, and in a state of stagnation, the Bank is
also suffering a crisis of legitimacy. This can only be
worsened by the recent finding of an official high-
 [ MANAGEMENT SPECIAL ]
level experts panel headed by former IMF chief destroy its economy.
economist Kenneth Rogoff that the Bank has been (3) Conflicts among African States.
systematically manipulating its data to advance its (4) China dumping goods in a country.
pro-globalisation position and conceal globalisa- (5) India's Infosys competing with Accentre to
tions adverse effects. bag a contract.
Fred Bergsten, the pro-free trade American
economist, once compared trade liberalisation and Section II
the WTO to a bicycle: they collapse when they are not QUANTITATIVE ABILITY
moving forward. The collapse of an organisation that No. of questions: 25
one of its Director-Generals once described as the Each question carries 4 marks.
jewel in the crown of multilateralism may be Negative marks for wrong answers:1
nearer than it seems. Directions Q. 26-50: Each question is inde-
21. Which of the following, according to the pendent unless stated.
author, is/are the reasons why globalisation in 26. Nine parallel chords are drawn in a circle of
retreat? diameter 10 cm. If the distance between any two of
I. The rise of the nationalist State the adjacent chords is 1 cm, which of the following
II. The IMF is practically defunct statements is always true?
III. The lack of coordination of the three (1) One of the chords is diameter of circle.
institutions (2) At least 2 chords must be of equal length.
IV. People getting sick of the effects of (3) The difference between the lengths of any
globalisation two adjacent chords on the same side of
(1) I, II and III (2) II, III and IV diameter is > 1 cm.
(3) I and II only (4) Only I (4) There is only one way to draw such chords.
(5) All of the above (5) None of these.
22. Strict capital controls also insulated China 27. Nine mangoes, four apples and six pine-
from the economic collapse engulfing its neigh- apples cost Rs 114. Four mangoes, six apples and
bours. What would be the effects of the strict capi- nine pineapples cost Rs 114. What is the cost of five
tal controls through which a collapse was avoided? mangoes?
(1) Capital controls would control the power of (1) Rs 30 (2) Rs 40 (3) Rs 45
globalisation and thus prevent collapse (4) Rs 50 (5) cannot be determined
(2) Capital flows would impose restrictions on 28. A, B, C are running in the same direction on
global capital flows and thus insulate the a circular track. The track is marked with numbers
economy. from 1 to 12, like the dial of a clock. The 12 numbers
(3) Capital flows would have the effect of are uniformly spaced along the track. A overtakes B
bringing in responsibility of individual gov- once at 4 and next time at 8. A overtakes C once at 2
ernments, thus preventing an economic and the next time again at 4. What is ratio of Bs
meltdown. speed to Cs speed?
(4) Capital controls are what is advocated by (1) 7 : 4 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 3 : 2
the IMF and World Bank and stand in the (4) 7 : 1 (5) None of these
way of globalisation. 29. R and S start simultaneously from a point A
(5) Capital flows have the effect of controlling on a circular track and run in same direction. The
transnational corporations (TNCs) that speed of R is nine times speed of S. How many times
usually bring about economic collapse. are they diametrically opposite to each other by the
23. What would be the best meaning of Lud- time S completes three complete rounds on the
dites after reading the passage? track?
(1) A person who opposes globalisation. (1) 27 (2) 54 (3) 60
(2) A nationalist person. (4) 48 (5) 44
(3) A person who opposes things for the sake of
opposing. 30. In an isosceles trapezium ABCD, with
(4) A person who opposes technology.
(5) A traditional minded person.
and CD = q, which of the following is always true?
24. According to the passage,
(1) p < r (2) p = r (3) p > r
I. The international finance institutions are 2 2
(4) p = r (5) None of these
facing a financial crunch.
II. The international finance institutions are 31. A number, 3N, when divided by D leaves a
facing questions of legitimacy. remainder 13 where N and D are natural numbers. If
III. The days of the international finance 4N divided by D leaves a remainder of 9, then what
institutions are numbered. is the remainder when N is divided by D?
(1) I (2) II (3) III (1) 17 (2) 21 (3) 25
(4) I and II (5) I, II and III (4) 27 (5) Cannot be determined
25. Which of the following would be a conse- 32. The class X of Vidyaniketan School has four
quence of the line, Nationalism-inflected States are sections A, B, C and D. The average weight of stu-
now competing sharply with one another, seeking to dents of A, B, C together and A, C, D together are 45
beggar one anothers economies? kg and 55 kg while the average weight of students of
(1) India and Pakistan are always at loggerheads A, B, D together and B, C, D together are 50 kg and
and their peace talks never succeed. 60 kg. Which of the following could be the average
(2) Israel attacking Lebanon and trying to weight of students of all four sections together?

7
October 2007
The Competition Master.
Contents or Translation of contents of this document must not be reproduced in any manner without prior permission.
 [ MANAGEMENT SPECIAL ]
(1) 47.6 kg (2) 49.9 kg (3) 53.7 kg negative integer values of n. f(n) = (1)Sn+1 + (1)Sn +
(4) 56.5 kg (5) 58.5 kg f(n 1) where f(0) = 1 and Si = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + ...........
33. Two students take square of a certain num- + i where i N. What will be the value of the expres-
ber and express it in box 5 and 6 respectively, where sion G? [Where G = f(1) + f(2) + f(3) + ............. f(25)]
box 5 and box 6 represents the remainders obtained (1) 26 (2) 24 (3) 22
when squares of any number is divided by 5 & 6 (4) 20 5. None of these
respectively. A third student takes two representa- 40. A boy wants to write all the possible five
tions made by them and adds up the numbers. digit numbers with distinct digits such that each
Which of the following cannot be the value of units number is a multiple of each of its five digits. How
digit of sum obtained by third student? many of these numbers will be divisible by 5?
(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 7 (5) 9 (1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 2
34. A class of 30 primary school boys goes out (4) 1 (5) None of these
on a camping trip. They have with them a bag con- 41. Out of a total of one hundred dozen
taining some marbles. During the night, one boy employees, one more than twelve dozen are illiter-
takes out two thirds of the marbles and places 2 ate. Out of a total of thirty dozen female employees
marbles back. He is in turn followed by the other 305 are literate. Find the percentage of illiterate
boys, each of whom in turn, performs the same males with respect to literate males.
operation. If the 13th boy and the 23rd boy got the (1) 12% (2) 20% (3) 18%
same number of marbles, what was the initial num- (4) 8% (5) None of these
ber of marbles in the bag? 42. A big number of 90 digits is written by writ-
30 30 30 30
(1) 3 1 (2) 3 2 1 (3) 2 1 ing even consecutive numbers beginning with 2 side
30
(4) 2 (5) None of these by side. What is the 90th digit of the big number?
35. In the figure below, AL is perpendicular to (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8 (5) 9
BC and CM is perpendicular to AB. If CL = AL = 2BL, 43. Let x, y and z be three positive numbers
find
such that x + y + z = 30. Then the minimum value of

(1) 1 (2) 0.9 (3) 0.3

(4) 0.1 (5) None of these
44. When three consecutive numbers are multi-
plied we get 3360. What is the sum of these three
numbers?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (1) 42 (2) 45 (3) 48 (4) 51 (5) 52
(4) 5 (5) Cannot be determined 45. What are the last three digits of (2005) ?
2005

(1) 025 (2) 125 (3) 375

Directions for questions 36 and 37: Read the
(4) 625 (5) None of these
following information and answer the questions
46. There were two different copper alloys, the
that follow.
first containing 40% less copper than the second.
In a class of 128 students, 100 passed in
When these were melted together, the resulting alloy
Mathematics, 96 passed in Physics, 99 passed in
contained 36% of the copper. Determine the percent-
Chemistry, 90 passed in Biology, while 40 passed in
age of copper in the first and second alloy, if it is
all the four subjects.
known that there was 6 kg. of copper in the copper
36. What could be the maximum number of stu-
in the first alloy and 12 kg. in the second.
dents who failed in all four subjects?
(1) 35%, 75% (2) 20%, 60%
(1) 25 (2) 28 (3) 13
(3) 30%, 70% (4) 15%, 55%
(4) 12 (5) 10
(5) None of these
37. Taking only the basic information into
consideration, what could be the maximum number
Directions for questions 47 and 48: Read the
of students who could have passed in exactly two
following information and answer the questions
subjects?
that follow.
(1) 29 (2) 39 (3) 49
A shopkeeper buys 10 biscuit packets, each
(4) 19 (5) 9
packet containing 10 biscuits. Each packet is bought
at the same price. He intends to sell n (0 < n < 10)
Directions for questions 38 to 43: Answer the
packets, each at a profit of 20% while all the remain-
following questions as per the best of your ability.
ing packets are opened and the biscuits therein sold
38. There are a certain number of red, blue and
separately, each biscuit being sold at a profit of 50%.
green marbles in the box. The ratio of the number of
In this manner he sells all packets of biscuits. Each
red marbles to that of blue marbles is the same as
biscuit in any packet costs a whole number of rupees
ratio of number of blue marbles to that of green mar-
and the total revenue obtained after selling all
bles. If the sum of the number of red marbles and
biscuits is Rs 144.
green marbles is 74, which of the following can be
47. What is the C.P. of each packet in rupees?
the number of blue marbles in the box?
(1) 1 (2) 12 (3) 10
(1) 20 (2) 35 (3) 42
(4) 9 (5) Cannot be determined
(4) 56 (5) 75
48. What is the value of n?
39. Consider a function f(n) defined for non-
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 4

8
October 2007
The Competition Master.
Contents or Translation of contents of this document must not be reproduced in any manner without prior permission.
 [ MANAGEMENT SPECIAL ]
(4) 5 (5) Cannot be determined 53. What is the score of H?
(1) 3 (2) 7
Directions for questions 49 and 50: Answer
the following questions to the best of your ability. (3) 5 (4) 6
49. E = 4(4!) + 5(5!) + 6(6!) + ........ 19(19!) + (5) Indeterminate
20(20!). What is the remainder when E is divided by 54. What is the score of I as a percentage of Js
64? score?
(1) 24 (2) 40 (3) 32 (1) 60%
(4) 16 (5) 12 (2) 55.55%
50. Anil wrote down all the possible three digit (3) 80%
numbers with distinct digits on black board of these (4) 110%
numbers. Biswas erased all the numbers whose first
(5) 180%
and last digits were either both odd or both even.
55. Whose score cannot be found?
How many numbers are left on the board?
(1) 450 (2) 360 (3) 400 (1) C (2) D
(4) 320 (5) 300 (3) H (4) A
(5) Everyones score can be found
Section III 56. Which of the following statements is true?
DATA/REASONING ABILITY (1) C scores more than A.
No. of questions: 25 (2) Combined score of B and C is equal to A.
(3) Combined score of I and G is equal to F.
Each question carries 4 marks.
Negative marks for wrong answers:1 (4) Ds score is the average of the score of all
friends combined.
Directions for questions 51 to 52: Read the (5) None of these
information given below and answer the questions
given after that.
Directions for questions 57 to 59: Answer
ABC Co decided to have a quality check on its
these based on the figure which represents the flow of
production before the supply is sent to the cus-
natural gas through pipelines across major cities A, B,
tomers. The system applied is: A set of 20 articles is
C, D and E (in suitable units). Assume that supply
manufactured and 4 of them are chosen at random.
equals demand.
If any one of them is found to be defective then the
whole set is put under 100% screening again. If no
defectives are found, the whole set is sent to the
customers.
51. Find the probability that a container having
only one defective article will be sent back for
screening?

57. What is the number of units demanded in

B?
(1) 400
52. Find the probability that a box containing 3
(2) 350
defective items will be sent to the customers?
(3) 450
(4) 500
(5) 550
58. If the number of units demanded in C is
225, what is the value of M?
Directions for questions 53 to 56: In a race, (1) 875
participants are given scores from 1 to 10. 10 friends (2) 1075
participated in a race and every one secured different (3) 775
scores. The following incomplete table gives the ratio
(4) 850
of some of their scores. For example B has scored dou-
ble of A; or A has scored half of B. (5) 950
A B C D E F G H I J 59. If the total demand in E is 80% of the
A - 1:2 2:1 demand in A, what is the demand in A ?
B 2:1 - (1) 2400
C 4:1 - (2) 2500
D - 2:1 (3) 4500
E - (4) 4750
F - 2:3 (5) None of these
G - 1:3
H - Directions for questions 60 to 63: Study the
I 4.5 : 3 -
table to answer these questions.
J - TableNumber of Cancer Cases over Two Years

9
October 2007
The Competition Master.
Contents or Translation of contents of this document must not be reproduced in any manner without prior permission.
 [ MANAGEMENT SPECIAL ]
for Selected Countries. cancer in early 2007.
Country 2006 (in '00 2006 (Rate 2007 (in '00 (1) I, II and III (2) II and III (3) I and II
cases) per 10,000) cases) (4) I, II and IV (5) I, II, III and IV
A 53 0.1 46
B 345 2.1 145 Directions for Questions 64 to 67:
C 87 1.1 39 There are three coalitions, namely Apple,
D 81 33.9 26 Banana and Guava, in the national politics of a
E 84 0.8 23 Socialist Democratic country on this Earth. Apple,
F 1365 0.9 209 which has won 255 seats in the current election,
G 661 13.0 239 comprises of A, C, D, E, and J. Banana, which has won
H 516 1.9 236 232 seats in the current election, comprises of B, F,
J 36 0.2 16 G, H, I, K, L, M, N, and O. Rest of the parties belong
K 95 1.8 23 to Guava coalition. The total number of seats con-
L 262 3.9 156 tested in the election was 509.
M 19 0.0 18 Rules of Government Formation:
N 1862 3.3 563 I. If a coalition gets more than half of the total
P 47 56.2 11 seats, then it can form the national govern-
Q 49 0.5 18 ment.
R 337 5.0 235
II. If no one gets the required majority, then the
S 61 1.2 35
nation will go for another general election.
T 17 0.3 12
U 896 1.5 235 Part V R1 R2 R3 R4 R5 R6 R7 R8 R9 R10 R11 R12
V 39 1.4 14 A 30 13 2 22 11 8 18 1 8 6 19 7
W 31 0.0 5 B 2 7 10 16 2 18 38 0 8 24 10 3
X 501 0.6 12 C 1 0 0 0 0 12 0 0 0 0 4 26
Y 217 1.4 73 D 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 35 1
Z 31 0.9 22 E 0 19 0 0 2 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
AA 39 0.8 13 F 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 19 0
AB 46 0.4 35 G 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 16 0
AC 48 0.1 21 H 0 0 0 0 0 0 12 0 0 0 0 0
AD 71 0.8 32 I 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 11 0 0 0
AE 162 2.4 83 J 1 0 0 0 1 3 0 0 0 0 2 3
AF 655 1.1 241 K 0 0 0 0 0 0 9 0 0 0 0 0
AG 21,861 8.9 6445 L 0 6 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 0
AH 869 1.4 219 M 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 8 0 0
AJ 19 0.0 13 N 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 5 0
All countries that have reported more than five O 0 0 0 0 4 0 0 0 1 0 0 0
P 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
hundred cancer cases to the WHO in 2007 are listed
Q 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
here. The left column gives the total number of
R 0 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 0
cases reported by each country for 2006, the middle
S 0 4 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
column gives the 2006 rate (cancer cases per 10,000
T 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 4 0
population) and the last column shows the number Here, R1 implies Region 1, R2 implies Region 2
of cases reported in early 2007. and so on.
Most of the 2007 reports were for only the first 64. Party E comes out of Apple coalition and
quarter of the year. Owing to reporting delays of six joins Banana coalition; party J pulls itself out of Apple
months or more, cases reported in 2007 actually coalition and joins Guava coalition; party F and G
were diagnosed in 2006. comes out of Banana coalition and joins Apple coali-
60. What is the population of AD on the basis tion; and party A in Region 6 splits into two groups
of the reported cases of cancer in 2006 (in thou- of equal representatives, one group remains with the
sands)? Apple coalition and another joins Guava coalition. In
(1) 825,000 (2) 812,500 (3) 810,000 this scenario which coalition will have the required
(4) 780,000 (5) None of these numbers to form the national government?
61. Which country has reported the second (1) Guava (2) Banana
highest number of cancer cases to WHO during (3) Apple (4) Apple or Guava
2006? (5) Nation to go for general election
(1) N (2) AG (3) F (4) U (5) Q 65. Five seats fell vacant in Region 12 after the
62. The countries which have reported less untimely death of the sitting members of the current
than 2000 cases both the 2006 and early 2007 are parliament. Two of these seats were formerly won by
(1) M, J and P (2) V, AJ and W party C, two by party A, and one by party B. After
(3) W, M and T (4) M, T and AJ fresh elections in these five seats, party C retained
(5) None of these one of the seat and the other seat went to party A;
63. Which of the following are true from the party A retained one seat and the other went to
table ? party B; and party B retained its only seat which went
I. The reported cancer cases of M, W and AJ as for re-elections. The percentage of seats of party C in
compared to their population are negligible. region 12 is:
II. The 2006 rate is highest for P though the (1) 69.5% (2) 65% (3) 62.5%
reported cases are only 4700. (4) 60% (5) 59.5%
III. The population of R is 664,000 in 2006. 66. It has been seen that the number of seats
IV. P reported more than 20,000 cases of won by party A in region 1 is directly proportional to

10
October 2007
The Competition Master.
Contents or Translation of contents of this document must not be reproduced in any manner without prior permission.
 [ MANAGEMENT SPECIAL ]
the number of voters who voted in the elections. In
the last elections all 10 million listed voters voted in
region 1. In the current election there is a ten per
cent increase in the list of eligible voters, out of
which eighty per cent voted in addition to the 10 mil-
lion voters who voted last time. Assuming that in the
other regions party A has won same number of seats
as in the last elections, what will be the approximate
number of seats won by party A in the current elec-
tions?
(1) 148 (2) 147 (3) 145
(4) 144 (5) Cannot be determined
67. Last election in Region 10, out of ten million
voters, thirty per cent were very old voters. In the
current elections fifty per cent of them died and
were removed from the list of eligible voters. At the
same time two million new citizens got voting rights.
If the number of seats won by party B in region 10 is
directly proportional to the number of votes in that
region, then approximately how many seats party B
will win?
(1) 22 (2) 23 (3) 24
(4) 25 (5) Cannot be determined
Directions for Questions 68 to 72:
Souravs Fish Salon serves a special Friday night
seafood banquet consisting of seven courseshilsa,
pomfret, Indian shrimp, rahu, kingfish, lobster and
bhetki. Diners are free to select the order of the
seven courses, according to the following conditions:
The kingfish is served sometime after rahu.
Exactly one course should be served between
the pomfret and the Indian shrimp. (Pomfret before
Indian Shrimp)
The lobster is served some time before the
pomfret.
The kingfish is served either fifth or sixth.
The hilsa is served second.
68. Which one of the following sequences
would make for an acceptable banquet?
(1) rahu, hilsa, lobster, bhetki, pomfret, king-
fish, Indian shrimp
(2) rahu, hilsa, bhetki, pomfret, kingfish, Indian
shrimp, lobster
(3) lobster, hilsa, pomfret, rahu, kingfish,
Indian shrimp, bhetki
(4) lobster, hilsa, rahu, kingfish, pomfret,
bhetki, Indian shrimp
(5) None of these
69. If kingfish is the fifth course served, then
which one of the following MUST be true?
(1) Pomfret is the third course served
(2) Indian shrimp is the fourth course served
(3) Bhetki is the seventh course served
(4) Lobster is the first course served
(5) Cannot be determined
70. Which one of the following would make it
possible to determine the EXACT ordering of the
courses?
(1) Pomfret is the fourth course served
(2) Indian shrimp is the fifth course served
(3) Kingfish is the sixth course served
(4) Lobster is the first course served
(5) None of these
71. If kingfish is the sixth course served, then
which one of the following CANNOT be true?
(1) Rahu is the fifth course served
(2) Indian shrimp is the seventh course served
11
The Competition Master.
Contents or Translation of contents of this document must not be reproduced in any manner without prior permission.
(3) Pomfret is the fifth course served
(4) Lobster is the third course served
(5) None of these
72. If Bhetki is the third course served, which
one of the following MUST be true?
(1) Pomfret is the fourth course served
(2) Kingfish is the fifth course served
(3) Rahu is the first course served
(4) Indian shrimp is the seventh course served
(5) None of these
Directions for Questions 73 to 75:
During one week, a human resource director
conducts five interviews for a new job, one interview
per day, Monday through Friday. There are six candi-
dates for the jobRam, Shyam, Trilochan, Usha,
Veena, and Kishore. No more than two candidates
are interviewed more than once. Neither Shyam nor
Usha nor Veena is interviewed more than once, and
no other candidate is interviewed more than twice.
The schedule of interviews is subject to the follow-
ing conditions:
 If Trilochan is interviewed, then Trilochan
must be interviewed on both Monday and
Friday.
 If Shyam is interviewed, then Usha is also
interviewed, with Shyams interview taking
place earlier than Ushas interview.
 If Ram is interviewed twice, then Ram's
second interview takes place exactly two
days after Ram's first interview. (on the third
day)
 If Veena is interviewed, then Kishore is inter-
viewed twice, with Veenas interview taking
place after Kishores first interview and
before Kishore's second interview.
 If Usha is interviewed, then Ram is also
interviewed, with Ushas interview taking
place on a day either immediately before or
immediately after a day on which Ram is
interviewed.
73. Which of the following could be a complete
and accurate list of candidates the human resources
director interviews and the days on which those
interviews take place?
(1) Monday: Shyam; Tuesday: Usha; Wednesday:
Ram; Thursday: Kishore; Friday: Ram.
(2) Monday: Shyam; Tuesday: Kishore; Wednes-
day: Ram; Thursday: Kishore; Friday: Usha.
(3) Monday: Trilochan; Tuesday: Ram; Wednesday:
Shyam; Thursday: Ram; Friday: Trilochan.
(4) Monday: Trilochan; Tuesday: Ram; Wednes-
day: Kishore; Thursday: Veena; Friday:
Trilochan.
(5) None of these
74. If Veena is interviewed on Tuesday, then
which one of the following MUST be true?
(1) Trilochan is interviewed on Friday
(2) Usha is interviewed on Thursday
(3) Ram is not interviewed
(4) Shyam is not interviewed
(5) None of these
75. If Kishore is not interviewed, then which
one of the following MUST be true?
(1) Ram is interviewed on Thursday
(2) Shyam is interviewed on Tuesday
(3) Trilochan is interviewed on Monday
(4) Usha is interviewed on Wednesday
(5) None of these

October 2007
 [ MANAGEMENT SPECIAL ]
ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
Section I
1. (4) I is a valid reason for the analogy not being
perfect. II is a reason for the analogy being
perfect and III is immaterial in this case. IV is
clearly mentioned as the analogy being
deeper. Hence II and III are not valid reasons
for the analogy not being perfect.
2. (5) All the given statements are false. I is
contradicted by the author directly; II is false
as all findings are not benign; III is false
because they have barely a clue and IV is
false because all challenges may not be
related to biology.
3. (2) Note that (2) is not a problem at all, in fact, it
may even be a threat. All others are problems
that biotechnology can address.
4. (3) The second last paragraph explains the
biological internet. The other choices are too
narrow in their description.
5. (4) The essence of the passage is that humanity
has been looking at the wrong things but
now they have a clue and great things are
going to happen in the future.
6. (3) Things are hotting up the next sentence
should confirm these findings, which is
happening in (3).
7. (3) The argument is about allocation of
secondary education and universal
education. Hence the next sentence should
be about financing the elementary education,
which is part of universal education. No
other choice addresses this.
8. (1) The paragraph is about the charges against
Mashelkar. It should continue with his
justification for making the mistake, which is
stated in (1) only.
9. (5) The paragraph is describing punishment. It
talks of Section 293, and in the next line it
should talk about further penalties, in
Section 294, hence (5).
10. (3) The paragraph talks about is not merely a
matter of comfortable seats and all the other
facilities being provided. The purchase of a
ticket hence it should continue with (3)
which states that the process is quite
mystifying and confusing.
11. (3) Statement A is fact as it states a direct
relationship, B is judgment as it mentions a
desirable objective, while C and D are direct
facts.
12. (5) Statement A is judgment as it states
important step, B, C and D are inferences
from other facts.
13. (1) Statement A is inference from research, B is a
direct fact, C is inference as it says it is
likely and D is judgment: most
authoritative
14. (3) Statement A is inference from watching Tony
Blair, all other statements are judgments: B:
appropriate description, C: its time to
and D: will have a lot more clout
15. (1) Statement A is inference, in exercising one
right, B: When a political party, C is
inference from their economic conditions. D
is judgment as it says that they have no
1
October 2007
The Competition Master.
Contents or Translation of contents of this document must not be reproduced in any manner without prior permission.
effect
16. (2) Women are mentioned to do A and B only. C
was done only by men and D by wimpy
fellows.
17. (3) The arguments are quite logical and the
conclusion seems probably true but we
cannot say it is convincing, because other
reasons are not explored.
18. (5) The passage mentions that they did not do
long distance trade, nor evidence has been
found for leather processing or farming.
19. (4) The passage states that modern man
developed farming and sewing, hence only
(4) matches this finding.
20. (3) The passage is about division of labour,
hence better specialization has to be the
answer.
21. (4) The only reason mentioned in the passage is
(I). II is an effect, not the cause while III is too
narrow. IV is nowhere mentioned.
22. (2) Note that the reason given is countries
unravelling like others. Thus an insulation
would prevent them from economic collapse.
23. (4) people who opposed globalisation were
disdainfully dismissed as modern-day
incarnations of the Ludditesthis means
that Luddites belonged to the past and thus
they would be persons who opposed all
technology.
24. (5) The given statements can be inferred from
the last few paragraphs. Though one
institution is mentioned for financial crunch
etc, we can infer that all of them are facing
similar problems.
25. (4) The line talks of competition beggaring one
anothers economies. In all the choices the
consequences are different except in (4)
where the economy will suffer.
Section II
26. (5) Construct the figure as follows:
The nine parallel chords are shown as above
and C5 is diameter.
We can now shift these chords by a small
distance say 1 cm downward and all
conditions of the question are still met.
27. (1) Form the simple equations:
9m + 4a + 6p = 114 (1)
and 4m + 6a + 9p = 114 (2)
(1) 3 (2) 2 gives 19m = 114
m = Rs 6
C.P. = 6 5 = Rs 30.
 [ MANAGEMENT SPECIAL ]
28. (1) Let speeds of A, B, C be a, b, c.
In the time B covers 4 units A cover 12 + 4
= 16 units
In the time C covers 2 units A covers 12+2
= 14 units
Hence
29. (1) In each round R completes he is
diametrically opposite S exactly once. By the
time S completes 3 rounds, R completes 27
rounds and hence he is diametrically
opposite S on 27.
30. (1)
An isosceles trapezium is
quadrilateral.
31. (2) The equations are: 3N = Dx + 13 (i)
and 4N = Dy + 9 (ii)
Subtracting (i) from (ii) we get:
N = D(y x) 4
OR Remainder R = D 4 (because a ve
remainder means adding the
remainder in the divisor)
When 3N is divided R becomes 3R
i.e. 3D 12 = 13 3D = 25
or D = 25 (because 25 is not a multiple of 3)
Now R = D 4 = 21.
32. (3) Average of A, B, C = 45.
A, C, D = 55.
A, B, D = 50.
B, C, D = 60.
Let a, b, c and d be the no. of students in
section A, B, C and D respectively.
Total = 150a + 155b + 160c + 165d (Adding
a's, b's, c's and d's)
33. (2) We need the remainder of squares when they
are divided by 5 and 6.
Denoting the sets by S5 and S6 we have
R5 = {0, 1, 4} and R6 = {0, 1, 3, 4}.
The Competition Master.
Contents or Translation of contents of this document must not be reproduced in any manner without prior permission.
34. (5) Let us assume that each boy gets at least one
marble (>0). Hence after every operation the
number of marbles in the bag should
decrease. This implies that successive boys
should get decreasing number of marbles
each. But it is given that 2 boys got the same
number of marbles. Hence our initial
assumption is not valid. This means each boy
gets no or zero marbles. This is possible of
only if number of marbles in bag is 3.
35. (2)
a cyclic
36. (3) There are 128 students in a class with
100 + 96 + 99 + 90 passes i.e. 385 passes.
Now 40 students have a total of 160 passes,
therefore rest 88 students have 225 passes.
Now each of these 75 students can get
almost 3 passes.
Therefore number of students with no passes
= 88 75 = 13.
37. (2) As calculated above 88 students have to
provide for 225 passes.
Taking the maximum number of students
with two passes still have to take a total of
225 passes.
Let x number of students have passed in
exactly two of the subjects. This implies the
remaining 88 x must have passed in all the
three subjects.
Thus the equation will be 3(88 x) + 2x = 225.
Solve and get x = 39.
38. (2) R B G
x y
x y x = 7, y = 5
39. (5) f(1) = (1)S2 + (1)S1 + f(0) = 1,
f(2) = (1)S3 + (1)S2 + f(1) = 1
S4 S3
f(3) = (1) + (1) + f(2) = 1, f(4) = 1,
f(5) = 1, f(6) = 1, f(3) = 1, f(8) = 1
The pattern is repeating itself in cycle of
four.
Sum of four terms is zero. As 25 = 6(4) + (1)
f(1) = 1
40. (4) Since the number has to be a multiple of 5 it
can have only 5 in units place and not 0
The number can have only odd digits
(since units digit is 5) i.e. 1, 3, 5, 7, 9
But sum of these is not a multiple of 3 hence
we cannot have a multiple of 5.
No such number can be made.
41. (1) Total employees = 1200.
Total illiterates = 145.
Female employees = 12 30 = 360
Male employees = 840.
Female illiterates = 360 305 = 55;
Male illiterates = 145 55 = 90.
2
October 2007
 [ MANAGEMENT SPECIAL ]

42. (2)

48. (1)

49. (2)

43. (3) 50. (2)

44. (2)

51. (2)

52. (1)

45. (2)

53. (2)

54. (5)
57. (1)
46. (2)
58. (2)

59. (2)
47. (3)

60. (5)

3
October 2007
The Competition Master.
Contents or Translation of contents of this document must not be reproduced in any manner without prior permission.
 [ MANAGEMENT SPECIAL ]

61. (1)
62. (4)
Q. 64

64. (3) 70. (2)

65. (1)

71. (1)

72. (4)

66. (2)

67. (4)

73. (2)

74. (4)

68. (1)

75. (3)
69. (3)

4
October 2007
The Competition Master.
Contents or Translation of contents of this document must not be reproduced in any manner without prior permission.