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Testbank PE4PARTA
Introduction to Power Engineering
010100020021000D
Which of the following is not a definition of a power plant?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Any one or more boilers in which steam or other vapour is


generated at more than 103 kPa (15 psi).
Any one or more boilers containing liquid and having a
working pressure exceeding 1100 kPa (160 psi).
Any one or more boilers containing liquid and having a
working temperature exceeding 121 degrees Celsius (250
degrees Fahrenheit).
Any one or more boilers in which steam or other vapour
is generated at less than 57 kPa (8 psi).
Any engine run from one or more boilers containing liquid
and having a working pressure exceeding 1100 kPa (160 psi).

010100020021000D
Early government involvement in certification of power
engineers became more important for the following reasons
except:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

efficiency
labour mobility
safety
pollution
technological advancements

010100020021000C
Which of the following is not characteristic of increased
automation in power plants?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

computerised control stations


increased mechanisation
manual flame checking
continuous monitoring of processes
continuous monitoring of costs

010100020021000A
"Power plant" means
a)
b)
c)
d)

any one or more boilers in which steam or other vapour is


generated at more than 103 kPa (15 psi).
any one or more boilers in which steam or other liquid is
generated at more than 103 kPa (15 psi).
any one or more boilers containing liquid and having a
working pressure exceeding 1,200 kPa (160 psi), and a
temperature exceeding 121 degrees C (250 degrees F).
any one or more boilers containing liquid and having a
working pressure exceeding 1,200 kPa (160 psi), and a
temperature not exceeding 121 degrees C (250 degrees F).

2
e)

any one or more boilers containing liquid and having a


working pressure not exceeding 1,100 kPa (160 psi), and
a temperature exceeding 121 degrees C (250 degrees F).

010100020021000C
Power engineers are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

safety code officers in a power plant automatically.


qualified to perform any welding jobs in a power plant.
skilled workers who operate and maintain the equipment
in a power plant.
qualified to perform any electrical jobs in a power
plant.
qualified to make design changes in a power plant.

010100020021000D
In the early days, owners of power plants hired __________
workers, who started out doing manual labour and through
acquired experience they were promoted to jobs with gradually
increasing levels of skill.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

qualified
highly educated
trained
unskilled
college trained

010100020021000B
In order to produce greater efficiency, higher boiler
pressures were used and this led to __________ due to
employing of unqualified operators in a power plant.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

economic gains
serious accidents
higher efficiency
safer working conditions
less labour disputes

010100020021000B
Which of the following is not a common work schedule for
power engineers?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Year round employment


Seasonal lay-offs
Eight hour days
Twelve hour days
Rotating day and night shifts

010100020021000A
When oil mixes with water in the boiler the resultant effect
is:
a)
b)
c)

serious foaming
accumulation of very hard scale resulting in tube burnout
accumulation of soot

3
d)
e)

decrease in water level


shifting and loosening of baffles

010100020021000C
The holder of a Certificate of Competency, the
classification of which authorizes him or her to act as a
engineer, may sketch, construct, install, operate, repair,
and give advice on all things pertaining to any __________ in
which that person is employed.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

welding shop
automotive shop
power plant
fish plant
hydro plant

010100020021000E
Power engineers can usually expect to work
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

straight
straight
straight
straight
rotating

8 hour day shifts.


12 hour day shifts.
8 hour night shifts.
12 hour night shifts.
shifts.

010100020021000E
In a power plant, the power engineer may function as a
supervisor who directs others in the __________ operation on
a shift.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

simple and economical


welding and electrical
administrative and cooperative
production and receiving
safe and efficient

010100020021000C
Committees which establish standards are composed primarily
of which of the following elements?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

only experts from the industry and government


one government appointed standards board
experts from the industry, professional and insurance
groups and all levels of government
only multi-National power corporations
one independent safety and standardisation board

010100020021000D
Which of the following certificates of competency qualifies
the holder to take charge of the general care and operation
of any power plant as chief steam engineer, and to supervise
the engineers in that plant and take charge of a shift in any
power plant as shift engineer?
a)
b)
c)

Third Class Engineer's Certificate of Competency


Building Operator's Certificate of Competency
Pressure Welder's Certificate of Competency

4
d)
e)

First Class Engineer's Certificate of Competency


Fireman's Certificate of Competency

010100020021000A
Which of the following duties is a holder of a Fourth Class
Engineer's Certificate of Competency not qualified to
perform?
a)
b)

c)

d)

e)

Take charge of a shift in a power plant having a capacity


of more than 10,000 kW, as shift engineer.
Take charge of the general care and operation of a power
plant consisting of one or more coil type drumless
boilers having an aggregate capacity not over 5,000 kW,
when only in use for the purpose of subterranean thermal
flooding in oil fields, as chief engineer.
Take charge of the general care and operation of a power
plant having a capacity of not more than 1,000 kW as
chief steam engineer, and to supervise the engineers in
that plant.
Take charge of a shift in a power plant consisting of one
or more coil type drumless boilers having an aggregate
capacity of not more than 10,000 kW, when used only for
underground thermal flooding in oil fields, as shift
engineer.
Take charge of a shift in a power plant having a capacity
of not more than 5,000 kW, as shift engineer.

010100020021000E
Which of the following is required in order to progress to a
higher certificate?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Experience only
Education only
Hold the next lower level certificate only
Both education and the next lower level certificate
Education, experience, and the next lower level
certificate.

010100020021000D
The IAO is an organisation who's primary concern is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

lowering of
lowering of
increase in
lowering of
increase in
regulation

maintenance costs through standardisation


production costs through increased automation
safety awareness through public education
insurance costs through standardisation
equipment quality through tougher government

010100020021000B
In the early days, the following two agencies got involved in
the certification of both power plant operators and equipment
due to the many accidents that were caused by employing
unqualified operators and improper use of equipment in power
plants:

5
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

owners and governments


insurance underwriters and governments
educational institutions and owners
governments and educational institutions
owners and insurance underwriters

010100020021000D
Unqualified individuals operating a power plant or pressure
plant risk the __________ of the plant and the general
public.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

health
comfort
resources
safety
economy

010100020021000C
In Alberta, the Safety Codes Act established the following
classes of Power Engineer's certificates (Other provinces and
territories have also established the same structure for
these certifications.)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

A, B, C, and D
1, 2, 3, and 4
First, Second, Third, and Fourth
Operators A, B, C, and D
Boiler maker first, second, third, and fourth year

010100020021000D
A Fourth Class Power Engineer's certificate of competency
qualifies the holder to take charge of a shift in a power
plant having a capacity of not more than __________ kW, as a
shift engineer.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

8,000
9,000
7,000
5,000
6,000

010100020021000A
A Fourth Class Power Engineer's certificate of competency
qualifies the holder to take charge of a shift in a power
plant consisting of one or more coil type drumless boilers
having an aggregate capacity of not more than __________ kW,
when used for the sole purpose of underground thermal
flooding in oil fields, as shift engineer.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

10,000
20,000
30,000
40,000
50,000

010100020021000E

6
A Fourth Class Power Engineer's Certificate of Competency
qualifies the holder to take charge of the general care and
operation of a power plant having a capacity of not more than
__________ kW as chief steam engineer, and to supervise the
engineers in that plant.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

5,000
4,000
3,000
2,000
1,000

010100020021000E
A Fourth Class Power Engineer's certificate of competency
qualifies the holder to take charge of the general care and
operation of a power plant consisting of one or more coil
type drumless boilers having an aggregate capacity of not
more than __________ kW, when used for the sole purpose of
underground thermal flooding in oil fields, as chief steam
engineer.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,000
2,000
3,000
4,000
5,000

SI Units
010100020021000E
Which of the following is a symbol for a unit of
thermodynamic temperature?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

m
mol
kg
cd
K

010100020021000B
A mole refers to a quantity of:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Time
Amount of substance
Luminous intensity
Electric current
Length

010100020021000D
The basic unit of mass in the SI system is
a)
b)
c)
d)

newtons
cubic metres
pounds
kilograms

7
e)

cubic centimetres

010100020021000C
The basic unit of length in the SI system is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

newtons
cubic metres
metres
kelvin
mole

010100020021000C
The basic unit of time in the SI system is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

metre
kilograms
seconds
ampere
kelvin

010100020021000D
The basic unit of electrical current in the SI system is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

metre
kilograms
seconds
ampere
kelvin

010100020021000E
The basic unit of thermodynamic temperature in the SI system
is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

metre
kilograms
seconds
ampere
kelvin

010100020021000C
The symbol for the basic unit of electrical current is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

m
kg
A
K
s

010100020021000E
The symbol for the basic unit of time is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

m
kg
A
K
s

010100020021000B
The symbol for the basic unit of mass is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

m
kg
A
K
s

010100020021000D
Which of the following is a symbol for a unit of luminous
intensity?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

m
mol
kg
cd
K

010100020021000C
One thousand of a base unit is indicated by the prefix:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

mega
micro
kilo
hecto
milli

010100020021000A
One hundredth of a gram is called a:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

centigram
megagram
milligram
ton
kilogram

010100020021000B
One million of a base unit is indicated by the prefix
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

giga
mega
kilo
hecto
deca

010100020021000A
One billion of a base unit is indicated by the prefix
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

giga
mega
kilo
hecto
deca

9
010100020021000D
One millionth of a base unit is indicated by the prefix
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

centi
deci
nano
micro
milli

010100020021000B
One hundredth of a base unit is indicated by the prefix
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

deci
centi
milli
micro
nano

010100020021000D
One hundred of a base unit is indicated by the prefix
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

giga
mega
kilo
hecto
deca

010100020021000D
Convert 2,365 cm into kilometres.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2.365 km
0.002365 km
23.65 km
0.02365 km
236.5 mg

010100020021000E
Find the volume of a rectangular prism 3 m long, 5 m wide and
2 m high.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

30
3 cubic metres
30 square metres
30 metres
30 cubic metres

010100020021000A
If a box has side lengths of 3.5 m, 6.2 m and 1.8 m
respectively its volume is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

39.06 cubic metres


3,906 cubic metres
39.06 cubic feet
39.06 cubic centimetres
125 cubic metres

10

010100020021000C
The unit of area in the SI system is
a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

3
2
4
5

010100020021000C
The __________ is the base unit of volume in SI.
a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

2
3
4
5

010100020021000A
In the SI system force is expressed as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

newtons
pounds
kilograms
newton metres
Joules

010100020021000E
In the SI system capacity (volume) is expressed as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

m/s
litre per second
joule
watt
litres

010100020021000C
Units of volume in the SI system are:
1. tonnes
2. cubic metres

11
3.

litres
3
dm
millilitres
kilograms

4.
5.
6.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,
2,
2,
2,
1,

3,
3,
3,
3,
4,

4
4
4, 5
5, 6
6

010100020021000E
The unit of pressure used in the SI system is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

kilogram / square metre


kilojoules
kg / square centimetre
dyne
kilopascal

010100020021000D
A pascal is equal to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1
1
1
1
1

joule
kg / square cm
kg / square m
N / square m
dyne / square cm

010100020021000B
One kilopascal is equal to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1
1
1
1
1

kg / square m
kN / square m
bar
m / s
kW

010100020021000C
The unit of power in the SI system is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

kg
pascal
watt
newton-metre
Joule

010100020021000C
One watt is equal to
a)
b)
c)
d)

1
1
1
1

joule
newton-metre
joule/second
ampere/second

12
e)

1 newton/second

010100020021000B
The unit of work in the SI system is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

watt
joule
newton-metre/second
pascal
newton/second

010100020021000A
One joule per second is equal to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

one
one
one
one
746

newton-metre/second
kg/square metre
watt/second
kW
watts

010100020021000D
The base unit for speed in the SI system is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

one
one
one
one
one

newton-metre/second
metre/hour
metre/minute
metre/second
metre/24 hours

010100020021000C
The base unit for acceleration in the SI system is:
2

a)

metre / hour

b)

metre / minute

c)

metre / second

d)

metre / 12 hour

e)

metre / day

2
2
2
2

010100020021000C
The base unit of mass density in the SI system is:
2

a)

kg/m

b)

g/m

13

3
c)

kg/m

d)

N/m

e)

N/m

3
2

010100020021000A
An alternate unit for force in the SI system is
2

a)

kg m / s

b)

N / s

c)

N m / s

d)

kg / s

e)

m / s

2
2

2
2

010100020021000D
The base unit for energy in the SI system is
a)
b)
c)
d)

Nm/s
N/s
kgm/s
Nm

e)

Nm

2
010100020021000D
One cubic metre is equal to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1 litre
10 litres
100 litres
1,000 litres
10,000 litres

010100020021000A
19.90 km/hr is __________ in m/s.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

5.5 m/s
331.7 m/s
10 m/s
40 m/s
1.5 m/s

14

010100020021000D
One bar of pressure in the SI system is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,000 pascals
100 pascals
10 pascals
100 kpa
10 kpa

010100020021000B
15 miles is equal to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,609 m
24,135 m
29,260 m
5,277 m
7,509 m

010100020021000A
10 km is equal to __________ miles.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

6.215
5.215
1.609
1609
3.28

010100020021000C
12 in is equal to __________ cm.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

25.40
35.48
30.48
39.37
32.80

010100020021000D
15 square cm is equal to __________ square inches.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

13.950
10.750
2.953
2.325
2.590

010100020021000A
20 cubic feet is equal to __________ cubic metres.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

0.565
0.061
0.164
0.028
0.353

010100020021000A

15
28 square feet is equal to __________ square metres.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2.590
1.075
0.155
3.704
4.340

010100020021000E
3
3
150 cm is equal to __________ in .
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

19.15
20.15
16.39
35.34
9.15

010100020021000B
20 litres is equal to __________ imperial gallons.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2.2
4.4
8.8
5.4
2.272

010100020021000C
10 gallons is equal to __________ litres.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

22
44
45.46
88
22.72

010100020021000B
15 kg is equal to __________ lb.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

30
33
45
75
90

010100020021000E
1,000 lbs is equal to __________ kgs.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

4540
45.4
4400
4.45
454

010100020021000C
14.7 psi is equal to __________ kPa.

16

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,000
100
101.3
10
147

010100020021000B
6,200 kPa is equal to approximately __________ psi.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,000
900
800
689
1,451

010100020021000C
2 kPa is the same as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

0.145 psi
0.069 bar
0.02 bar
6.895 lb/square inch
1.451 psi

010100020021000D
If a rectangle has two sides measuring 6 m in length and two
sides measuring 2 m in length what is the area in square
metres?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1.115 square metres


18 square metres
129 square metres
12 square metres
4.8768 square metres

010100020021000A
Area = L x W, if L = 15 cm & W = 2 m, then Area = ?
2

a)

3,000 cm

b)

300 cm

c)

30 cm

d)

300 m

e)

30 m

2
2
2
2

17
010100020021000B
Volume = L x W x H.
If L = 10 cm, W = 120 mm, & H = 5 m, then Volume = ?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

600 litres
60 litres
60 cubic metres
600 cubic metres
600 cubic centimetres

010100020021000E
One square metre is equal to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1 square cm
10 square cm
100 square cm
1,000 square cm
10,000 square cm

010100020021000C
100 square cm is equal to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1 square m
0.1 square m
0.01 square m
0.001 square m
10 square m

010100020021000A
3
One m is equal to
a)

1,000 litres

b)

1 yard

c)

10,000 millilitres

d)

10 dm

e)

10 cm

3
3

010100020021000D
One cubic cm is equal to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

10 millilitres
1 dm
1 mm
1 millilitre
1 mm/s

18

Basic Arithmetic Operations


020100020021000E
Add 1,785 + 36 + 291
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2,221
1,912
2,102
1,112
2,112

010100020021000A
Subtract 74 from 101
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

27
37
30
33
24

030500020033000
Calculate:
1)

###### - #####

= ______________

2)

###### - #####

= ______________

3) ####### - ###### = ______________


.SUBSTITUTIONS
NUM1(100000,999999,1)
NUM2(10000,99999,1)
NUM3(100000,999999,1)
NUM4(10000,99999,1)
NUM5(1000000,9999999,1)
NUM6(100000,999999,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS1=NUM1-NUM2;
ANS2=NUM3-NUM4;
ANS3=NUM5-NUM6;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,0.0
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,0.0
"Answer 3 =",ANS3:3,0.0
030500020033000
Calculate:
1)

###### + #####

= ______________

2)

###### + #####

= ______________

3) ####### + ###### = ______________


.SUBSTITUTIONS
NUM1(100000,999999,1)
NUM2(10000,99999,1)
NUM3(100000,999999,1)

19
NUM4(10000,99999,1)
NUM5(1000000,9999999,1)
NUM6(100000,999999,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS1=NUM1+NUM2;
ANS2=NUM3+NUM4;
ANS3=NUM5+NUM6;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,0.0
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,0.0
"Answer 3 =",ANS3:3,0.0

010100020021000D
Multiply 94 by 8
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

722
7,532
7,232
752
760

010100020021000B
Divide 4,035 by 15
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

335
269
127
326
103

010100020021000D
Multiply 365.24 by 92.1
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

33,605.831
33,638.649
32,538.504
33,638.604
33,791.219

040500020033000
Calculate:
1)

## x ##

= ______________

2)

## x ###

= ______________

3) #.## x ##.## = ______________


.SUBSTITUTIONS
NUM1(12,99,1)
NUM2(22,99,1)
NUM3(12,99,1)
NUM4(112,999,1)
NUM5(1.22,9.99,0.01)

20
NUM6(12.01,99.99,0.03)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS1=NUM1*NUM2;
ANS2=NUM3*NUM4;
ANS3=NUM5*NUM6;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,0.0
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,0.0
"Answer 3 =",ANS3:3,0.0001
040500020033000
Calculate the following:
1)

#### / ###

= ______________

2)

####### / ####

= ______________

3) ##### / ###
= ______________
.SUBSTITUTIONS
NUM1(1001,9999,1)
NUM2(101,999,1)
NUM3(1000001,9999999,1)
NUM4(1001,9999,1)
NUM5(10001,99999,1)
NUM6(101,999,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS1=NUM1/NUM2;
ANS2=NUM3/NUM4;
ANS3=NUM5/NUM6;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,.01
"Answer 3 =",ANS3:3,.01

020100020021000C
Add (-56) + 39
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

95
17
-17
-95
-26

010100020021000C
Multiply (-21.6) by (-54.2)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,160.65
-1,170.62
1,170.72
1,170.62
-1,160.65

010100020021000A
Divide (-378) by 14

21

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

-27
16.2
-31.61
29
20.05

020100020021000B
2

Solve the expression: (-3)


a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2
- [54/18(-5 + 3)] + [11 - (-2) ]

15
22
25
18
17

020100020021000B
Solve the expression:
2
3
[(3.2) - (-4) ] [(75/15) - (-10 + 15)] + (-19/3)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

-543.93
-6.33
748.73
-60.09
12.07

040500020021000
Evaluate:
(### - ###) + (### x #) + #
.SUBSTITUTIONS
A(400,800,10)
B(100,390,10)
C(100,200,10)

____________________

D(2,9,1)
E(1,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS=(A-B)+(C*D)+E;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",ANS:3,.02
040500020021000
Evaluate:
###
#
--- x ## x - = ____________________
3
#
.SUBSTITUTIONS
A(30,120,3)
B(2,8,2)
C(1,9,1)
D(2,8,2)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS=(A/3)*C*(B/D);

22
.RESULTS
"Answer =",ANS:3,.02
040500020021000
Evaluate:
(## + ## - #) + (## - # - #)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
A(1,30,1)
B(1,30,1)
C(1,9,1)
D(1,30,1)
E(1,9,1)
F(1,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS=(A+B-C)+(D-E-F);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",ANS:3,0.0

____________________

040500020021000
Evaluate:
(## - 7) - {(# x #)/(# x #)} - # x #
.SUBSTITUTIONS
A(7,56,7)
C(1,4,1)
D(2,8,1)
E
F
G(1,9,1)
H(1,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
E=D;
F=C;
ANS=A-7-((C*D)/(E*F))-(G*H);
.RESULTS

____________________

"Answer =",ANS:3,0.0
040500020021000
Calculate:
## + ### + (# + ## x # - ##)/# + ### = ____________________
.SUBSTITUTIONS
NUM1(10,20,1)
NUM2(100,200,1)
NUM3(1,9,1)
NUM4(10,90,10)
NUM5(2,8,2)
NUM6(10,20,2)
NUM7(2,8,2)
NUM8(100,300,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANSW=NUM1+NUM2+(NUM3+NUM4*NUM5-NUM6)/NUM7+NUM8;
.RESULTS
"Answer = ",ANSW:3,.01

23

040500020021000
Evaluate:
## x ## x ## x ##
----------------- = ____________________
## x ## x ##
.SUBSTITUTIONS
A(3,99,3)
B(10,90,10)
C(20,80,2)
D(2,60,2)
E(5,40,5)
F(3,45,3)
G(5,10,5)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS=(A*B*C*D)/(E*F*G);
ANSR=INT(ANS+.5);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",ANSR:3,.01
040500020021000
Solve the following problem:
(Answer as a decimal)
(# + #/#)/[(# + #/#)(# + #/#)]
.SUBSTITUTIONS
I1(5,8,1)
N1(1,5,1)
D1
I2(2,4,1)
N2(1,5,1)
D2
I3(1,5,1)
N3(1,5,1)
D3
.SOLUTIONS
D1=N1+1;

____________________

D2=N2+2;
D3=N3+3;
ANSW=(I1+N1/D1)/(I2+N2/D2)/(I3+N3/D3);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",ANSW:3,.01
030500020021000
Evaluate:
(## + ## - #) + (## - # - #)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
N1(10,99,1)
N2(10,99,1)
N3(1,9,1)
N4(10,99,1)
N5(1,9,1)
N6(1,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS

___________________

24
ANS=(N1+N2-N3)+(N4-N5-N6);
.RESULTS
"Answer = ",ANS:0,.01
030500020021000
Evaluate:
###/# x # x #/# = ____________________
.SUBSTITUTIONS
N1(100,990,10)
N2(2,9,1)
N3(2,9,1)
N4(2,9,1)
N5(2,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS=N1/N2*N3*N4/N5;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",ANS:3,.001
03030002004200022 %;10 %;
Solve:
1)

[4(3 + 4 - 2)] + [60/(6 x 5)]

2)

2(4 x 5)/2(4 - 2)

Answers:

1) = _______________
2) = _______________

Fractions, Decimals, and Percentages


010100020021000D
Which of the following is an improper fraction?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

37/39
6 3/4
65/100
3/2
1/2

010100020021000C
Which of the following is a mixed number?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

32/36
19/5
3 1/5
6/24
35/7

05030002004400041/6;21/5;68/7;21/2;
Convert the following mixed numbers to improper fractions.
(Enter your answer in this style 2 2/3 = 8/3)

25
1)

6 5/6

= __________

2)

4 1/5

= __________

3)

9 5/7

= __________

4)

10 1/2

= __________

020100020021000E
Evaluate the following
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

3/8 + 2/3 - 1/2 to lowest terms.

12/24
6/12
6/24
6/13
13/24

020100020021000A
Evaluate the following 3/10 x 5/2 - 2/3 to lowest terms.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1/12
11/20
5/60
33/60
3/6

040500020021000
Evaluate:
## x ## x ## x ##
----------------- = ____________________
## x ## x ##
.SUBSTITUTIONS
A(3,99,3)
B(10,90,10)
C(20,80,2)
D(2,60,2)
E(5,40,5)
F(3,45,3)
G(5,10,5)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS=(A*B*C*D)/(E*F*G);
ANSR=INT(ANS+.5);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",ANSR:3,.01
0303000200880001/4;1/5;1/8;1/48;8/25;1 23/112;68 2/5;51 3/7;
Evaluate the following fractional problems. (Reduce to lowest
terms)
1)

3/8 x 3/4 x 8/9

= __________

2)

1/2 x 3/7 x 14/15

= __________

3)

3/8 x 2/3 x 4/5 x 5/8

= __________

26

4)

3/10 x 5/6 x 1/9 x 3/4

= __________

5)

21/16 x 12/35 x 32/45

= __________

6)

27/35 x 5/16 x 15/3

= __________

7)

2 1/2 x 7 3/5 x 3 3/5

= __________

8)

4 2/3 x 8 4/7 x 1 2/7

= __________

010100020021000B
In lowest terms 0.04 is equal to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1/5
1/25
1/40
4/10
4/100

010100020021000C
19/12 is equal to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2
9.6
1.583
6.931
7

040500020044000
Change the following fractions to decimals:
1)

#/# = __________

2)

#/# = __________

3)

#/# = __________

4) #/# = __________
.SUBSTITUTIONS
A1(1,3,1)
A2(3,5,1)
B1(3,3,1)
B2(6,7,1)
C1(5,6,1)
C2(8,9,1)
D1(7,8,1)
D2(9,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
A3=A1/A2;
B3=B1/B2;
C3=C1/C2;
D3=D1/D2;
A4=INT(A3*1000+.5)/1000;
B4=INT(B3*1000+.5)/1000;

27
C4=INT(C3*1000+.5)/1000;
D4=INT(D3*1000+.5)/1000;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1
"Answer 2
"Answer 3
"Answer 4

=",A4:3,.01
=",B4:3,.01
=",C4:3,.01
=",D4:3,.01

040500020077000
Convert the following common fractions to decimal numbers.
1)

#/#

= _________

2)

#/##

= __________

3)

##/###

= _________

4)

##/#

= __________

5)

##/###

= __________

6)

##/#

= __________

7) ###/#### = __________
.SUBSTITUTIONS
NUM1(2,9,1)
DEM1(2,9,1)
NUM2(2,9,1)
DEM2(11,99,1)
NUM3(11,99,1)
DEM3(101,999,1)
NUM4(11,99,1)
DEM4(2,9,1)
NUM5(11,99,1)
DEM5(101,999,1)
NUM6(11,99,1)
DEM6(2,9,1)
NUM7(101,999,1)
DEM7(101,999,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS1=NUM1/DEM1;
ANS2=NUM2/DEM2;
ANS3=NUM3/DEM3;
ANS4=NUM4/DEM4;
ANS5=NUM5/DEM5;
ANS6=NUM6/DEM6;
ANS7=NUM7/DEM7;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,.01
"Answer 3 =",ANS3:3,.01
"Answer 4 =",ANS4:3,.01
"Answer 5 =",ANS5:3,.01
"Answer 6 =",ANS6:3,.01
"Answer 7 =",ANS7:3,.01

010100020021000A
95% of 63 litres of gasoline equals:
a)

59.85 litres

28
b)
c)
d)
e)

599 litres
0.663 litres
66.32 litres
95 litres

010100020021000E
62% of 85,362 equals:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

22,932.64
13.768
5,292.492
137,680.65
52,924.44

010100020021000A
An elastic is stretched by 86% to a length of 5.8 m.
Calculate the original length.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

3.118
0.067
4.988
2.903
8.675

m
m
m
m
m

010100020021000D
63 is what percent of 260?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

41.27%
2.42%
0.24%
24.23%
4.12%

050500020033000
Change the following fractions to percentages:
decimal places)
1)

#
----#

---------- %

2)

#
----#

---------- %

#
----- = ---------- %
#
.SUBSTITUTIONS
A1(1,4,1)
A2(5,8,1)
B1(2,5,1)
B2(6,8,1)
C1(4,7,1)
C2(3,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
A3=(A1/A2)*100;
3)

(Round to 3

29
B3=B1/B2*100;
C3=C1/C2*100;
A=(INT(A3*100+.5))/100;
B=INT(B3*100+.5)/100;
C=INT(C3*100+.5)/100;

.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",A:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",B:3,.01
"Answer 3 =",C:3,.01

040500020088000
Convert the following fractions into percentages.
1)

##/##

= __________ %

2)

##/##

= __________ %

3)

##/##

= __________ %

4)

##/##

= __________ %

5)

##/##

= __________ %

6)

##/##

= __________ %

7)

##/##

= __________ %

8)

##/##

= __________ %

.SUBSTITUTIONS
NUM1(2,20,1)
DEM1(25,40,1)
NUM2(2,20,1)
DEM2(25,40,1)
NUM3(10,20,1)
DEM3(25,60,1)
NUM4(30,50,1)
DEM4(60,90,1)
NUM5(2,10,1)
DEM5(12,20,1)
NUM6(2,6,1)
DEM6(8,12,1)
NUM7(2,20,1)
DEM7(25,30,1)
NUM8(2,20,1)
DEM8(22,30,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS1=NUM1/DEM1*100;
ANS2=NUM2/DEM2*100;
ANS3=NUM3/DEM3*100;
ANS4=NUM4/DEM4*100;
ANS5=NUM5/DEM5*100;
ANS6=NUM6/DEM6*100;
ANS7=NUM7/DEM7*100;
ANS8=NUM8/DEM8*100;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,.01
"Answer 3 =",ANS3:3,.01
"Answer 4 =",ANS4:3,.01
"Answer 5 =",ANS5:3,.01
"Answer 6 =",ANS6:3,.01
"Answer 7 =",ANS7:3,.01
"Answer 8 =",ANS8:3,.01

30
05030002008800019/20;3/4;1/10;3/20;17/50;39/50;1/1&1;111/200;
Convert the following percentages into fractions. (Reduce to
lowest terms)
1)

95%

= __________

2)

75%

= __________

3)

10%

= __________

4)

15%

= __________

5)

34%

= __________

6)

78%

= __________

7)

100%

= __________

8)

55.5% = __________

050500020021000
A steam line will increase in length by #.##% when heated to
operating temperature. Determine the original length of the
line, if it increased in length by ##.# cm when heated.
(Round your answer to 3 decimal places).
Answer = _______________ cm
.SUBSTITUTIONS
PRCT(1,3,0.01)
STRC(5,10,0.1)
.SOLUTIONS
LGTH=STRC*100/PRCT;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",LGTH:3,.01

Ratio and Proportion


010100020021000E
What is the ratio between a mass of 36 kg and 928 L?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

232 to 9
45.6
0.088 kL
4.59
None of the above

010100020021000B
What is the ratio between 75 L and 1.5 L in lowest terms?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

75 to 15
50 to 1
0.2
5 to 1
None of the above

31
010100020021000B
What is the ratio between a mass of 4,500 kg and 150 kg?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

20
30
40
50
55

to
to
to
to
to

1
1
1
1
1

010100020021000A
What is the ratio between the lengths of two pipes that are
150 m and 100 m?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1.5
2.5
3.5
4.5
5.5

to
to
to
to
to

1
1
1
1
1

010100020021000D
What is the ratio between the areas of two objects that are
25 square metres and 5 square metres?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2
3
4
5
6

to
to
to
to
to

1
1
1
1
1

010100020021000B
What is the ratio between the temperatures 15 degrees C and 5
degrees C?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2
3
4
5
6

to
to
to
to
to

1
1
1
1
1

010100020021000E
What is the ratio between the volumes 24 cubic metres and 3
cubic metres?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

4
5
6
7
8

to
to
to
to
to

1
1
1
1
1

010100020021000E
Find the last (x) term of the proportion
a)
b)
c)
d)

2
3
10
11

8:4 = 26:x

32
e)

13

010100020021000C
Find the second (x) term of the proportion
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1
2
3
4
5

010100020021000E
Find the first (x) term of the proportion
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

x:1850 = 25:37

950
1050
1150
1200
1250

010100020021000D
Find the third (x) term of the proportion
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

21:x = 35:5

27:15 = x:360

450
550
650
648
756

010100020021000A
A certain chemical mixture should be in the ratio of 4 parts
A, 6 parts B, and 2 parts C. If a 15 kg batch is to be
mixed, what quantities in kgs of A, B, and C should be used in
the batch?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

A
A
A
A
A

=
=
=
=
=

5, B
4, B
5, B
4.5,
3.5,

=
=
=
B
B

7.5, and C
6, and C =
6, and C =
= 6.5, and
= 5.5, and

= 2.5
5
4
C = 4
C = 6

010100020021000D
In the following expression 4:8::2:4 which term(s) is(are)
the extreme(s)?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

8 only
Both 8 and 2
4 only
4 and 4
Both 2 and 4

010100020021000A
In the expression 8:x::16:8, x equals:
a)
b)

4
16

33
c)
d)
e)

2.5
32
16

010100020021000B
A chemical mixture should be in the ratio of 9 parts A, 2
parts B and 5 parts C. A 64 kg batch is to be mixed. What
quantity of A is required?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

52.36 kg
36 kg
20 kg
8 kg
2.25 kg

010100020021000C
Concrete must be mixed with the ratio of 5 parts cement, 3
parts gravel and 4 parts water. If 6 tons of concrete is to
be mixed how much gravel is required?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2.4 tons
2.5 tons
1.5 tons
2 tons
1,865 tons

010100020021000A
Public swimming pools require 3 parts chlorine liquid and 2
parts salt water to every 100 parts water to kill bacteria.
How much chlorine liquid is required in a 4,000 L pool?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

114.29 L
76.19 L
100 L
3,809.52 L
89.23 L

010100020021000D
If mass is inversely proportionate to cost then
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

as
as
as
as
as

mass
mass
cost
mass
cost

increases
increases
decreases
increases
increases

cost will double


cost will increase directly
mass will decrease
cost will decrease
the mass will double

010100020021000E
A gear wheel 65 cm in diameter revolving at 225 r/min drives
a wheel 85 cm in diameter. What is the speed of the second
gear?
a)
b)
c)
d)

3.46 r/min
150 r/min
206.39 r/min
97.5 r/min

34
e)

172.06 r/min

010100020021000B
A gear has 1,000 teeth and revolves at 50 r/min.
gear has 32 teeth. How fast does it turn?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The driven

12.2 r/min
1,562.5 r/min
609.8 r/min
640 r/min
390.2 r/min

010100020021000E
If 15 tonnes of coal cost $360, what will 27 tonnes cost at
the same rate per tonne?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

255
345
625
723
648

010100020021000E
If 25 workers can do a piece of work in 30 days, in how many
days can 35 workers do the same work?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

20.00
18.00
20.25
19.15
21.43

010100020021000A
If bell metal is 25 parts copper to 12 parts tin, what is the
weight of each in a bell weighing 1850 kg?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

copper
copper
copper
copper
copper

=
=
=
=
=

1,250
1,152
1,050
1,350
1,235

kg
kg
kg
kg
kg

and
and
and
and
and

tin
tin
tin
tin
tin

=
=
=
=
=

600
550
565
625
650

kg
kg
kg
kg
kg

010100020021000E
A gear wheel 330 mm in diameter and revolving at a speed of
200 rpm drives a wheel 150 mm in diameter. What is the speed
in rpm of the second gear?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

91
100
330
400
440

010100020021000D
A supply fan is driven by an electric motor by means of

35
V-belts. The pulley on the motor shaft is 90 mm in diameter
and rotates at 1,800 rpm. The diameter of the pulley on the
fan shaft is 300 mm. What is the speed of the fan in rpm?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2,000
1,800
900
540
450

010100020021000C
A driving gear has 60 teeth and turns at 750 rpm. The driven
gear has 90 teeth. What is the speed of the driven gear in
rpm?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,125
1,000
500
450
400

Equations and Transposition


020100020021000C
2
A = (Pi)r is the same as:
2

a)

1 = A(Pi)r

b)

c)

sqr(A/Pi) = r

d)

(A/Pi)

e)

sqr(A) = (Pi)r

2
= (Pi)r

= sqr(r)

020100020021000E
In the equation 36 = 12 + (15t) - 6, t equals:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

3
-2.2
1.7
-2.8
2

020100020021000B
In the equation 3 x sqr(t) = 39, t equals:
a)
b)
c)

13
169
26

36
d)
e)

sqr(13)
9

020100020021000D
Solve the following equation for b,
2
[b - (q + s)] / q = s
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

sqr(10s + q)
sqr[-qs / (q + s)]
sqr(2s)
sqr[qs + (q + s)]
sqr(8s - q)

020100020021000D
Solve the following equation for m,
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

mt - y
y / (t + c)
ym - c
(y - c) / t
y - t - c

020100020021000D
Solve the following equation for r,
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

y = mt + c

3
[4(Pi)r ] / 3 = V

cubed root[4(Pi)V / 3]
V / 4(Pi)
Pi / 3V
cubed root[3V / 4(Pi)]
3V / 4

020100020021000B

Solve s = ut + 1/2 at
a)

sqr[s - (at / 2)]

b)

[s - (at

c)

2 / (sat)

d)

s - 1/2 at

e)

s + 1/2 at

for u

/ 2] / t

2
- t

020100020021000A
Solve the following equation for A,
a)

2
(2b/q ) - L

2
b/4 = (q /8) (A+L)

37

b)

2
(b/24q ) - L

c)

sqr(b/8q) - L

d)

2
(4b/2q ) - L

e)

2
(b/2q ) - L

020100020021000E
Solve the following equation for r,
a)

4
6y /sa

b)

9
5
6y -sa

c)

9
5
6y - (b /s)

d)

6a

e)

9
5
6y /sa

9
5
s = (6y / a r)

-1
/s

020100020021000C
Solve the equation
a)

2
sqr(v bqr/wyz)

b)

2
v bqr/wyz

c)

[sqr(wyz/bq)]/v

d)

wv

e)

2
sqr(v bwyz/qr)

2 2
r v bq/wyz

010100020021000D
If y + 8 = 14, then y
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

3
4
5
6
7

= 1

for r.

38

010100020021000C
If y - 5 = 3, then y =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

6
7
8
9
10

010100020021000B
If 3 y = 6, then y =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1
2
3
4
5

010100020021000C
If 6 / y = 2, then y =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1
2
3
4
5

010100020021000B
If 3 y + 4 = 10, then y =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1
2
3
4
5

010100020021000D
If 4 y + 5 - 7 = 2 y + 6, then y =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1
2
3
4
5

010100020021000D
If 13 y + 12 = 7 y + 36, then y =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1
2
3
4
5

020100020021000E

39
If 5 y = 250 / 2 y, then y =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1
2
3
4
5

020100020021000C
2
If 4y / 2y = 6, then y =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1
2
3
4
5

020100020021000C
If 8 = sqr(4y), then y =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

12
14
16
18
20

020100020021000B
2
2
If y = (5 x 22) , then y =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

10.5
110
120
1,200
12,100

040500020042000
Solve for "N":
1)

# x # x N x #
## = ------------#####

Answers:

1) = _______________

2) = _______________
.SUBSTITUTIONS
NUM1(2,9,1)
NUM2(2,9,1)
NUM3(2,9,1)
NUM4(11,99,1)
NUM5(11,99,1)
NUM6(11,99,1)

2)

## x ##
#####.###### = ----------N squared

40
NUM7
NUM8
.SOLUTIONS
NUM7=NUM4*NUM5/NUM1**2;
NUM8=NUM1*NUM2*NUM3*2.5;
ANS1=NUM6*NUM8/NUM1/NUM2/NUM3;
ANS2=(NUM4*NUM5/NUM7)**0.5;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,.01
010100020021000C
Convert 32 degrees F to Celsius,
if degrees C = 5/9 (degrees F - 32).
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

64
18
0
100
90

010100020021000A
Convert 212 degrees F to Celsius,
if degrees C = 5/9 (degrees F - 32).
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

100
150
200
250
300

010100020021000E
Convert 1,000 degrees F to Celsius,
if degrees C = 5/9 (degrees F - 32).
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

100
250
450
530
538

010100020021000A
Convert -40 degrees F to Celsius,
if degrees C = 5/9 (degrees F - 32).
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

-40
-30
-20
-10
-15

010100020021000B
Convert 50 degrees Celsius to Fahrenheit,
if degrees F = 9/5 degrees C + 32.

41

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

148
122
130
150
155

010100020021000C
Convert 100 degrees Celsius to Fahrenheit,
if degrees F = 9/5 degrees C + 32.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

238
220
212
180
120

010100020021000C
Convert -35 degrees Celsius to Fahrenheit,
if degrees F = 9/5 degrees C + 32.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

-1.8
-10
-31
-20
-35

010100020021000D
Convert -60 degrees Celsius to Fahrenheit,
if degrees F = 9/5 degrees C + 32.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

-50.4
-45.5
-42.5
-76.0
-72.2

010100020021000C
If C = 5/9 (F - 32), then F =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

5/9
5/9
9/5
9/5
9/5

C + 32
C - 32
C + 32
(C + 32)
(C - 32)

020100020021000B
If A = 1/2 b x h, then h =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1/2
2 A
1/2
2 A
2 b

A
/
A
b
/

/ b
b
b
A

42

020100020021000D
2
If A = (Pi) r , then r =
a)

sqr(A x Pi)

b)

(A / Pi)

c)

(A x Pi)

d)

sqr(A / Pi)

e)

(Pi / A)

2
2

020100020021000E
If E = I x R, then R =
a)

E x I

b)

I / E

c)

(E / I)

d)

(E x I)

e)

E / I

2
2

Length, Lines, and Simple Plane Figures


010100020021000B
A fathom is which type of measurement?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Surveyors measure
Nautical measure
English measure
SI measure
Imperial measure

010100020021000E
320 rods is equal to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1 kilometre
1 cable
986 knots
39 furlongs
1,760 yards

010100020021000C

43
Convert 5 miles, 6 yards, 9 feet to metres.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

287.85 m
8,326.53 m
8,054.95 m
539.66 m
6,283.42 m

010100020021000C
100 m = __________ ft.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

300
310
328
350
360

010100020021000A
75 mm = __________ in.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

3
4
5
6
7

010100020021000D
100 km = __________ miles.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

40
50
60
62
65

010100020021000D
50 ft is __________ m.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

12.24
13.34
24.34
15.24
16.75

010100020021000E
150 m is __________ yd.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

154
144
50
100
164

010100020021000E
25 cm is __________ in.

44
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

5.54
6.24
7.56
8.23
9.84

010100020021000D
The following is a property of perpendicular lines:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

they
they
they
they
they

are always vertical


form less than a 30 degree angle
form more than a 110 degree angle
form right angles
form acute angles

010100020021000A
Which of the following statements about parallel lines is
false?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

they
they
they
they
they

can cross
can run horizontally
never cross
can run vertically
are always the same distance apart

010100020021000D
Lines which are exactly the same distance apart at all points
are said to be __________ to each other.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

perpendicular
tangential
equal
parallel
coincide

010100020021000A
Lines at right angles to each other are said to be __________
to each other.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

perpendicular
tangential
equal
parallel
coincide

010100020021000E
When two straight lines meet or cross each other, they form
__________.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

parallel lines
tangential lines
perpendicular lines
equilateral lines
an angle

45
010100020021000E
What type of triangle has three sides of equal length?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

scalene
obtuse
isosceles
right triangle
equilateral

010100020021000B
The sum of the angles of a triangle is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

360 degrees
180 degrees
30 degrees
60 degrees
90 degrees

010100020021000A
In a triangle, if the three sides are of equal length, it is
a/an __________ triangle.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

equilateral
isosceles
right
scalene
obtuse

010100020021000B
A/An __________ triangle has two side of equal length and a
third side that is longer or shorter.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

equilateral
isosceles
right
scalene
obtuse

010100020021000C
In a triangle, if one of the angles is 90 degrees, this is
a/an __________ triangle.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

equilateral
isosceles
right
scalene
obtuse

010100020021000D
A/An __________ triangle has no two sides or angles equal and
no right angle.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

equilateral
isosceles
right
scalene
obtuse

46

010100020021000E
A/An __________ triangle contains an angle greater than 90
degrees.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

equilateral
isosceles
right
scalene
obtuse

010100020021000D
If a quadrilateral has angle measurements of 85 degrees, 36
degrees and 110 degrees the last angle equals:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

360 degrees
90 degrees
182 degrees
129 degrees
180 degrees

010100020021000D
The following quadrilateral has no sides parallel:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Trapezoid
Rhomboid
Rhombus
Trapezium
Scalene triangle

010100020021000C
A Rhombus has one side measuring 6 m.
the other 3 sides?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

What are the lengths of

Impossible to find with the above information


6 m, 3 m, 3 m
6 m, 6 m, 6 m
6 m, 12 m, 12 m
5 m, 2 m, 8 m

010100020021000B
Quadrilaterals are figures that have __________ straight
sides.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

3
4
5
6
8

010100020021000D
The following objects are quadrilaterals:
1)
2)
3)

square
triangle
trapezoid

47
4)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

rhombus
1,
1,
1,
1,
2,

2,
2,
2,
3,
3,

3, 4
3
4
4
4

010100020021000E
When all the angles of a quadrilateral are added together
their sum is __________ degrees.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

90
120
180
320
360

010100020021000A
A __________ is a four sided figure with all four sides of
equal length and all angles right angles.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

square
rhombus
rectangle
trapezoid
rhomboid

010100020021000E
A __________ is a four sided figure with the opposite sides
parallel, but the angles are not right angles.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

square
rhombus
rectangle
trapezoid
rhomboid

010100020021000B
A __________ is a four sided figure in which the four sides
are of equal length but the angles are not right angles.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

square
rhombus
rectangle
trapezoid
rhomboid

010100020021000D
A __________ is a four sided figure having only two sides
parallel.
a)
b)
c)
d)

square
rhombus
rectangle
trapezoid

48
e)

rhomboid

010100020021000E
A __________ is a four sided figure having no two sides
parallel.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

square
rhombus
rectangle
trapezoid
trapezium

010100020021000B
A __________ is a four sided figure in which all the angles
are right angles but opposite sides are equal and adjacent
sides are unequal.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

rhombus
rectangle
trapezoid
rhomboid
trapezium

Areas and Volumes of Solids


010100020021000C
What is the surface area of a cylinder with a diameter of 4
cm and height of 6 cm? (include the areas of the ends)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

75.4 square cm
25.1 square cm
100.5 square cm
88.0 square cm
1,892.5 square cm

050500020051000
Find the total surface area of a closed cylinder having a
diameter of ## m and ## mm and a length of ## m and ## mm.
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = _____________________ square metres
.SUBSTITUTIONS
D1(1,10,1)
D2(10,90,5)
L1(11,15,1)
L2(10,90,5)
.SOLUTIONS
D3=D1+(D2/1000);
L3=L1+(L2/1000);
A1=3.14*D3*L3;
A2=2*.7854*D3**2;
AT=A1+A2;

49
.RESULTS
"Answer =",AT:3,.01
050500020021000
Calculate the diameter of a circle having an area of ### sq cm:
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ______________________ cm
.SUBSTITUTIONS
A(100,900,02)
.SOLUTIONS
D=SQR(A/.7854);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",D:3,.01
050500020021000
Determine the area of a circle having a radius of ###.# cm:
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = _______________ square metres
.SUBSTITUTIONS
R(15,400,.5)
.SOLUTIONS
A=3.14*R**2/10000;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",A:3,.01
010100020021000D
A cylinder has a surface area of 15 square metres (including
the areas of the ends) and a diameter of 95 cm. What is the
height of the cylinder in metres?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

455.1
45.51
55.51
4.551
4,551

010100020021000A
A cylinder has a surface area of 10 square metres (including
the areas of the ends) and a diameter of 75 cm. What is the
height of the cylinder in metres?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

3.869
38.69
386.9
0.387
3,869

010100020021000B
A cylinder has a surface area of 25 square metres (including
the areas of the ends) and a diameter of 100 cm. What is the
height of the cylinder in metres?
a)
b)

74.578
7.4578

50
c)
d)
e)

745.78
7457.8
0.7458

010100020021000C
If the diameter of a cylinder is 1.5 m and the height is 223
cm, what is the surface area in square m? (Include the areas
of the ends)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1.4043
140.43
14.043
1404.3
0.1404

010100020021000D
If the diameter of a cylinder is 2.3 m and the height is 334
cm, calculate the surface area in square metres. (Include
the areas of the ends)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

3,244.3
324.43
3.2443
32.443
0.3244

010100020021000E
If the diameter of a cylinder is 0.87 m and the height is 98
cm, calculate the surface area in square metres. (Include
the areas of the ends)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

3,867.5
386.75
38.675
0.3868
3.8675

010100020021000E
Find the surface area of a sphere with a radius of 3 m.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

452.2 sq metres
28.26 sq metres
37.68 sq metres
7.1 sq metres
113.0 sq metres

010100020021000A
Calculate the surface area of a sphere in square cm if the
radius is 6 cm.
a)
b)
c)
d)

452.389
4,523.89
4.52389
45.2389

51
e)

0.45239

010100020021000C
Calculate the surface area of a sphere in square cm if the
radius is 7 cm.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

6,157.52
61.5752
615.752
6.15752
0.61575

010100020021000D
Calculate the surface area of a sphere in square cm if the
radius is 5 cm.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

0.31416
3.14159
31.4159
314.159
3,141.59

010100020021000B
Calculate the surface area of a sphere in square cm if the
radius is 4 cm.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2,010.62
201.062
20.1062
2.01062
0.20106

010100020021000A
A cylinder has a surface area (including the areas of the
ends) of 180.6 sq cm and a diameter of 5 cm. What is the
height of the cylinder?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

9.0 cm
28.3 cm
11.5 cm
5.0 cm
0.3 cm

010100020021000A
A sphere has a surface area of 1,256 sq cm.
diameter?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

What is its

20 cm
10 cm
314 cm
157 cm
100 cm

010100020021000A
What is the surface area of a pressure vessel in the form of
a cylinder with each end in the form of a hemisphere, if the

52
overall length is 12 m and the diameter is 3 m?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

113.09 sq m
141.3 sq m
84.82 sq m
98.9 sq m
106.3 sq m

050500020042000
Calculate the area of a rectangle with sides of ## cm by
## cm: (Round the answers to 3 decimal places)
1) give the area in square centimetres
2) give the area in square inches
Answers:
1) = ___________________ square centimetres
2) = ___________________ square inches
.SUBSTITUTIONS
L(5,50,2)
W(4,30,1)
.SOLUTIONS
A1=L*W;
A2=A1*.155;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",A1:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",A2:3,.01

010100020021000D
What is the total surface area in square cm of a closed
cylinder that is 12 cm high and 3 cm in diameter?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

0.12723
1.27234
12.7234
127.234
1,272.34

010100020021000B
Find the lateral area in square m of a steam pipe 50 cm in
diameter and 2.5 m in length.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

4.32
3.93
4.91
0.20
4.12

010100020021000C
Find the amount of insulation required in square m to
completely cover a chlorine storage sphere having a diameter
of 8 m.
a)

804.248

53
b)
c)
d)
e)

402.124
201.062
100.531
50.265

010100020021000D
Calculate the area of insulation in square m required to
cover a boiler drum which is equipped with hemispherical
heads. The diameter of the drum is 84 cm and 4 m in length
from one end to the other.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

25.546
12.773
11.773
10.556
5.278

010100020021000D
What is the volume of a cylinder with a diameter of 9 m and a
height of 15 m?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

106.0 cubic metres


3,817.0 cubic metres
238.6 cubic metres
954.3 cubic metres
1,590.4 cubic metres

010100020021000B
A cylinder with a diameter of 5 m and a height of 8 m is half
full of liquid. What volume does the liquid occupy?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

157.1 cubic cm
78.5 cubic cm
39.3 cubic cm
19.6 cubic cm
15.7 cubic cm

050500020042000
Calculate the volume of a cylindrical tank ## m in diameter
and ## m in length. Give the answers in cubic metres and
cubic decimetres. (Round to 3 decimal places)
Answers:
1) = _______________ cubic metres
2) = _______________ cubic decimetres
.SUBSTITUTIONS
D(1,12,1)
L(5,20,1)
.SOLUTIONS
U1=.7854*(D**2)*L;
U2=1000*U1;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",U1:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",U2:3,.2

54

050500020021000
Calculate the volume of a cylinder which has a diameter of ### cm,
and a height of #.## m. (Round answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ______________ cubic metres
.SUBSTITUTIONS
D(10,400,2)
H(.05,8,.01)
.SOLUTIONS
V=.7854*(D/100)**2*H;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",V:3,.02

050500020021000
Find the height of a cylinder where the area of the end is
#.# square metres and the volume is ###.# cubic metres.
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = _______________ m
.SUBSTITUTIONS
A(1.5,9,.5)
V(20,260,.5)
.SOLUTIONS
H=V/A;
.RESULTS
"Answer = :",H:3,.01
010100020021000D
Find the volume in cubic metres of a cylindrical tank that is
2 m in diameter and 14 m long.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

14
24
34
44
54

010100020021000C
Find the volume in cubic metres of a cylindrical tank that is
6 m in diameter and 12 m long.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

139.293
239.293
339.293
439.293
539.293

010100020021000A
Find the volume in cubic metres of a cylindrical tank that is
3 m in diameter and 16 m long.
a)
b)
c)

113.098
213.098
313.098

55
d)
e)

413.098
513.098

010100020021000B
Find the volume in cubic metres of a cylindrical tank that is
4 m in diameter and 17 m long.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

113.629
213.629
313.629
413.629
513.629

010100020021000E
Find the volume in cubic metres of a cylindrical tank 8 m in
diameter and 15 m long.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

353.984
453.984
553.984
653.984
753.984

010100020021000D
What is the volume of a sphere with a radius of 6 m?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

113.04 cubic cm
150.72 cubic cm
7,234.56 cubic cm
904.32 cubic cm
75.36 cubic cm

010100020021000D
If the radius of a sphere is 5 cm, the volume in cubic cm is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

0.523
5.232
52.32
523.2
5,232

010100020021000E
If the radius of a sphere is 8 cm, the volume in cubic cm is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

0.214
2.144
21.44
214.4
2,144

010100020021000A
If the radius of a sphere is 7 cm, the volume in cubic cm is

56
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,437
143.7
14.37
1.437
0.1437

010100020021000C
If the radius of a sphere is 2 m, the volume in cubic metres
is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

0.335
3.349
33.49
334.9
3,349

010100020021000D
If the radius of a sphere is 3 m, the volume in cubic m is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

0.113
1.131
11.31
113.1
1,131

010100020021000B
What is the volume in cubic m of a sphere with a radius of 4
metres?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2,681
268.1
26.81
2.681
0.268

010100020021000D
What is the radius of a sphere in cm if the volume is 49.56
cubic cm?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

0.00228
0.02279
0.2279
2.279
22.79

010100020021000B
If the volume of a sphere is 2,123 cubic cm, its radius in cm
is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

9
8
7
6
5

010100020021000D
If the volume of a sphere is 756 cubic cm, its radius in cm

57
is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2.65
3.65
4.65
5.65
6.65

010100020021000C
Which of the following equations correctly expresses the
volume of a hemisphere?
a)

3
V = (4 * Pi * r )/3

b)

3
V/2 = (4 * Pi * r )/3

c)

3
V = (2 * Pi * r )/3

d)

V = (4 * Pi * r

e)

V/2 = (2/3) Pi * r

3/2

)/3
2

010100020021000A
A pressure vessel is in the form of a cylinder with each end
in the form of a hemisphere. The vessel operates at 1,100
kPa. If the overall length is 12 m and the diameter is 3 m,
what is the volume of the pressure vessel?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

56.55 cubic metres


113.1 cubic metres
197.92 cubic metres
77.75 cubic metres
84.8 cubic metres

050500020021000
Calculate the height of a rectangular box which has a length of
## cm and a width of ## cm. The volume of the box is
#### cubic cm. (Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ____________________ cm
.SUBSTITUTIONS
L(20,40,5)
W(10,20,1)
V
.SOLUTIONS
H=10;
V=H*L*W;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",H:3,0.01
050500020021000

58
Calculate the height of a rectangular box ## cm long, ## cm
wide and a volume of ##### cu cm. (Round to 3 dec. places)
Answer = ____________________ cm
.SUBSTITUTIONS
L(40,70,2)
W(10,35,1)
V
.SOLUTIONS
H=25;
V=H*L*W;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",H:3,0.01
050500020021000
Calculate the height of a rectangular tank filled with water
holding ##### litres. The length of the tank is #.# m and
the width is #.# m. (Round to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ____________________ m
.SUBSTITUTIONS
C(10000,50000,500)
L(2,4,.2)
W(1,2,.2)
.SOLUTIONS
V=C/1000;
H=V/(L*W);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",H:3,.01
050500020021000
Calculate the height of a cylindrical tank filled with water
having a mass of ####.# kg. The diameter of the tank
is #.# m. (Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ___________________ m
.SUBSTITUTIONS
M(1500,2900,.5)
D(1,5,.2)
.SOLUTIONS
V=M/1000;
H=V/(.7854*D**2);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",H:3,.01
050500020052000
Calculate the mass of water in kg and tonne contained in a
rectangular tank with the following inside dimensions:
width of ##.#
height of ##.#
length of ##.#

metres
metres
metres

(Round answers to 3 decimal places)


Answers:
1) = _______________ kg

59
2) = _______________ tonne
.SUBSTITUTIONS
W(.4,10,.2)
H(2,20,.2)
L(4,12,.2)
.SOLUTIONS
M=W*H*L*1000;
T=M/1000;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",M:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",T:3,.01
010100020021000C
The diameter of a cylindrical fuel tank is 2 m and its height
is 10 m. The volume of the tank in cubic metres is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

0.314
3.142
31.42
314.2
3,142

010100020021000D
The diameter of a cylindrical fuel tank is 4 m and its height
is 12 m. The volume of the tank in cubic metres is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

0.151
1.51
15.1
151
1,511

010100020021000A
The diameter of a cylindrical fuel tank is 5 m and its height
is 15 m. The volume of the tank in litres is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

294,525
29,452.5
2,945.25
294.525
29.4525

010100020021000E
A tank was three-fourths full of water. After running off
1,000 litres it was one-fifth full. The capacity of the tank
in litres is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,333.333
5,000
6,333.333
3,666.667
1,818.182

010100020021000C
A cast iron ball has a 32 cm radius and a mass of 7.21 grams
per cubic cm. The mass in kg is

60
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

9.8963
98.963
989.63
9,896.3
98,963

010100020021000A
A cast iron ball is 7 cm in diameter and has a mass of 7.21
grams per cubic cm. The mass of the ball in kg is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1.295
12.95
129.5
1,295
12,950

010100020021000E
A steel tube has an outside diameter of 15 cm, an inside
diameter of 13 cm, and is 3.7 m long. The volume of the
steel contained in the tube in cubic cm is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1.6273
16.273
162.73
1,627.3
16,273

010100020021000D
A positive displacement pump has a 15 cm diameter cylinder
and a stroke of 30 cm. How much water in litres will it
discharge in 10 minutes if it makes 96 strokes per minute?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

5.0894
50.894
508.94
5,089.4
50,894

Introduction to Basic Mechanics


010100020021000D
Which of the following examples is not an example of a
dynamic body?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a body that is accelerating


a body that is decelerating
a body that is orbiting at a constant velocity around
a planet
a body moving at a uniform velocity along a straight line
a body colliding with another body and deflecting in a
new direction

010100020021000C

61
Which of the following is an example of a static body?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a body that is accelerating


a body that is decelerating
a rigid body that is at rest
a body that is moving at a uniform velocity along a
straight line
a body colliding with another body and deflecting in a
new direction

010100020021000D
Any action on a body which tends to change its size, shape or
its state of motion is defined as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

displacement
acceleration
volume
force
mass

010100020021000E
The SI unit for mass is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

m/s
m
N
J
kg

010100020021000B
Attraction to the centre of the earth is called:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

centrifugal force
gravity
mass
friction
distance

010100020021000C
Six kg would be a measure of an object's:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

weight
volume
mass
length
time

010100020021000D
What is the force of gravity exerted on a person whose mass
is 75 kg?
a)
b)
c)
d)

7.5
75
165
735.75

N
J
N
N

62
e)

750 N

010100020021000B
Mass may be measured in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

kJ
kg
Kelvin
kJ/kg
N/m

010100020021000A
In the SI system, the unit of force is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

newton
MJ
kg force
work done in J/s
Nm

010100020021000E
What is the force of gravity exerted on an object having a mass
of 5 tonnes?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

4.905
49.05
490.50
490.50
49,050

N
N
N
kg
N

010100020021000C
The unit of force used in the SI system is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

kilogram
Joule
Newton
Watt
Newton metre

010100020021000D
The SI unit for weight is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

kg
lb
kip
Newton
kg m

010100020021000C
The rate of change of velocity is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

mass
force
acceleration
weight
displacement

63

010100020021000B
m/s is the SI unit for:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

acceleration
velocity
force
mass
weight

010100020021000A
The unit of acceleration in the SI system is
2
a)

m/s

b)

m/s

c)

2
m /s

d)

km/s

e)

m/h

010100020021000E
The change of position (in metres) per unit is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

acceleration
displacement
volume
force
velocity

010100020021000B
Force acting in a direction at right angles to a surface,
divided by the surface area, is defined as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

acceleration
pressure
weight
surface area
friction

010100020021000C
The SI unit for pressure is
a)

kN

b)

kNm

c)

kPa

d)

kN/m
3

64
e)

kN/m

010100020021000D
A force of 120 kN is exerted uniformly over an area of 0.2
square metres. What is the pressure?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

24 kPa
240 kPa
60 kPa
600 kPa
6 kPa

010100020021000D
Which of the following statements is true if a person pushes
with a force of 300 N on a rock and the rock does not move?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

300 N of work was done


300 J of work was done
150 J of work was done
no work was done
0.3 J of work was done

010100020021000E
Rate of doing work is defined as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

any energy
kinetic energy
potential energy
work
power

010100020021000D
The ability to do work due to an object's motion is defined
as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

power
potential energy
force
kinetic energy
weight

010100020021000B
The unit of measure of work as used in the SI system is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Newtons
Joules
kilowatts
foot pounds
Joule metres

010100020021000D
A mass of 400 kg is moved a horizontal distance of 30 m due
to a force of 300 kN. The amount of work done is
a)
b)

9,000 J
12,000 J

65
c)
d)
e)

12,000 kJ
9,000 kJ
3,000 kJ

010100020021000C
The unit of measure of power used in the SI system is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Newtons
Joules
kilowatts
work
Joules/Newton

010100020021000E
A mass of 400 kg is moved a horizontal distance of 20 m due to
a force of 500 kN. The amount of work done is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

8,000
10,000
1,000
8,000
10,000

J
J
kJ
kJ
kJ

010100020021000A
A mass of 600 kg is moved a horizontal distance of 40 m due to a
force of 400 N. The amount of work done is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

16,000 J
24,000 J
24,000 kJ
1,600 MJ
160 MJ

010100020021000E
The unit of measure of energy used in the SI systems is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

work
torque
kilowatt
Newton
Joule

010100020021000D
If a force of 200 kN is moved a distance of 15 m in 15
seconds, what power is developed?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

3,000 kW
1,500 kW
1,000 kW
200 kW
150 kW

010100020021000A
__________ energy is the ability of a body to do work by
virtue of its position.

66

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Potential
Kinetic
Maximum
Minimum
Basic

010100020021000B
__________ energy is the ability of a body to do work due to
its motion.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Potential
Kinetic
Maximum
Minimum
Basic

010100020021000A
M x G x H is the equation for __________ energy.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Potential
Kinetic
Maximum
Minimum
Basic

010100020021000B
2
1/2 x M x V is the equation for __________ energy.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Potential
Kinetic
Maximum
Minimum
Basic

Forces and Moments


010100020021000D
Which of the following statements about force is false?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Force is the push exerted on a body.


Force may make a body move.
Force is the pull exerted on a body.
No force is required to stop a body.
Force may make a body stop.

010100020021000B
Which of the following is the SI unit for force?
2

a)

m/s

b)

67
2

c)

ft lbs/s

d)

kg

e)

010100020021000C
For a pivot or lever, the product of Force multiplied by a
perpendicular distance from the point of rotation, is defined
as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

weight
mass
turning moment
potential energy
power

010100020021000E
Moments are measured in:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

m
kJ
N
W
Nm

010100020021000D
The unit of measure for a _______________ of force is the
newton metre.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

pressure
kilogram
Joule
moment
second

010100020021000B
A force of 320 kN acts at a perpendicular distance of 4 m
from a point. What will be the turning moment produced?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

80 kNm
1,280 kNm
1,280 kN
1,280 kJ
1,280 Nm

010100020021000E
If a system is in equilibrium then which of the following
statements is true?
a)
b)
c)

The system will rotate clockwise


The system will rotate counter clockwise
The system will not rotate because no force is being
exerted

68
d)
e)

The system rotates under the largest force


The system will not rotate because the moments in the
system balance each other out

010100020021000A
A bar is pivoted on the left end and a force is applied
downwards on the right end. The rotation of the bar will be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

clockwise
counter-clockwise
neutral
upward
downward

010100020021000B
A bar is pivoted on the right end and a force is applied
downwards on the left end. The rotation of the bar will be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

clockwise
counter-clockwise
neutral
upward
downward

010100020021000B
A 5 m long bar is pivoted on the left end and a force of 10 N
is applied downwards on the right end. The moment of force
is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

50 Nm counter-clockwise
50 Nm clockwise
2 Nm counter-clockwise
2 Nm clockwise
5 Nm clockwise

010100020021000C
A 15 m long bar is pivoted on the right end and a force of 5
N is applied downwards on the left end. The moment of force
is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

3 Nm counter-clockwise
3 Nm clockwise
75 Nm counter-clockwise
75 Nm clockwise
75 N counter-clockwise

010100020021000D
A 5 m long bar is pivoted on the right end and a force of 10
N is applied upwards on the left end. The moment of force is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2 Nm counter-clockwise
2 Nm clockwise
50 Nm counter-clockwise
50 Nm clockwise
50 kNm clockwise

010100020021000E

69
A 12 m long bar is pivoted on the right end and a force of
150 N is applied upwards on the left end. The moment of
force is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

12.5 Nm
25 Nm
180 Nm
1,800 kNm
1.8 kNm

010100020021000A
A bar is pivoted on the right end and a force is applied
upwards on the left end. The rotation of the bar will be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

clockwise
counter-clockwise
neutral
upward
downward

010100020021000B
A bar is pivoted on the left end and a force is applied
upwards on the right end. The rotation of the bar will be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

clockwise
counter-clockwise
neutral
upward
downward

010100020021000C
A 7 m bar is pivoted at 2 m from the left end. A force of 60
N is applied downward on the left end and a force of 20 N
is applied downward on the right end. What would be the
clockwise and counter-clockwise moments and in which
direction would the bar rotate?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

80 Nm counter-clockwise, 100 Nm clockwise,


counter-clockwise rotation
60 Nm counter-clockwise, 100 Nm clockwise, clockwise
rotation
120 Nm counter-clockwise, 100 Nm clockwise,
counter-clockwise rotation
120 Nm counter-clockwise, 100 Nm clockwise, clockwise
rotation
120 Nm counter-clockwise, 120 Nm clockwise, equilibrium

010100020021000D
A 8 m bar is pivoted at 5 m from the left end. A force of 15
N is applied downward on the left end and a force of 20 N
is applied downward on the right end. What would be the
clockwise and counter-clockwise moments and in which
direction would the bar rotate?
a)

60 Nm counter-clockwise, 75 Nm clockwise,
counter-clockwise rotation

70
b)
c)
d)
e)

60 Nm counter-clockwise, 75
rotation
75 Nm counter-clockwise, 60
rotation
75 Nm counter-clockwise, 60
counter-clockwise rotation
60 Nm counter-clockwise, 60

Nm clockwise, clockwise
Nm clockwise, clockwise
Nm clockwise,
Nm clockwise, equilibrium

010100020021000B
If a system of forces is in equilibrium then which of the
following statements is true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The
The
The
The
The

system will rotate counter-clockwise.


total upward forces = the total downward forces.
system will rotate clockwise.
system will vibrate.
system will rotate temporarily.

010100020021000D
If a system of forces is in equilibrium then which of the
following statements is true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The system will rotate counter-clockwise.


The system will rotate clockwise.
The system will vibrate.
The total forces to the right = the total forces to the
left.
The system will rotate temporarily.

050500020041000
A lever is supported by a fulcrum placed at the mid-point of
the lever. A ## kg mass is suspended #.# m from the fulcrum.
What mass must be suspended at a point #.# m on the other side
of the fulcrum in order to place the lever in equilibrium?
(Round off to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ____________________ kg
.SUBSTITUTIONS
M1(10,50,2)
L1(1,3,.2)
L2(2,4,.1)
.SOLUTIONS
M2=(M1*L1)/L2;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",M2:3,.01
010100020021000D
A lever 15 metres in length is pivoted at one end. A load
of 750 N is suspended from the other end. What force must
be applied at the midpoint of the lever in order to obtain
equilibrium?
a)
b)
c)

50 N
112.5 N
150 N

71
d)
e)

1,500 N
1,725 N

010100020021000A
A lever is 3 m in length and is pivoted at one end. A load of
8,000 N is suspended from the lever at a point 1 m from the pivot.
What force is necessary at the other end of the lever in order
to obtain equilibrium?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2,666.667 N
1,333.333 N
16,000 N
24,000 N
5,336 N

010100020021000B
A lever 10 m in length is pivoted at one end and has a load of
900 kg suspended from the other end. What force must be applied
at the mid-point of the lever to obtain equilibrium?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

8,829 N
17,658 N
882.9 N
4,414.4 N
22,500 N

050500020041000
A simply supported beam is ## metres long and has a force
of ### newtons acting at #.# metres from the left hand support.
Find the load on the right hand support. (Round off to 3
decimal places)
Answer = ____________________ N
.SUBSTITUTIONS
L(3,7,1)
M(10,500,40)
L1(1,2.5,.5)
.SOLUTIONS
R2=L1*M/L;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",R2:3,.02
050300020021000160 %.01;
A beam having a length of 20 metres is pivoted at its mid point.
A 200 newton load is located at a point 5 m from the right
hand end of the beam. A 300 newton load is located at a point
8 m from the right hand end. In order for the beam to be in
equilibrium, what load is required at the extreme left end of
the beam?
Answer = ______________________ newtons
050500020101000
A crowbar is # metres long and has its pivot ## centimetres from
one end. A force of ##### newtons is applied to the end closest to

72
the pivot. What effort must be applied to the other end of the
crowbar to keep it in equilibrium? (Round to 3 decimal
places)

Answer = ____________________ newtons


.SUBSTITUTIONS
L(2,8,1)
P(30,80,10)
F(2000,10000,1000)
.SOLUTIONS
E=(F*P/100)/(L-P/100);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",E:3,.01

Simple Machines
010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about simple machines is
false?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The machine receives energy by means of a single applied


force.
The machine produces work by means of a single output
force.
Work output is the product of the load and the distance
moved by the load.
Work input is greater than work output.
The machine receives energy by means of 2 or more applied
forces.

010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about inclined planes is
false?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

A ramp is an inclined plane.


Work input = work output + work wasted
A screw is an inclined plane.
Work is wasted in friction.
No work is wasted in producing heat.

010100020021000D
A simple machine is one which receives energy by means of a
single applied force, and produces work by means of
__________.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

multiple output forces


an energy form
a distance moved
a single output force
a mechanical device

73
010100020021000B
The ratio of the load to the effort is called:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

velocity ratio
actual mechanical advantage
efficiency
power
work

010100020021000B
A lever is used to move a load of 10 kN by applying an effort
of 1,000 N. What is the mechanical advantage of the lever?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1
10
100
1,000
10,000

05030002004200045 %.01;9 %.1;


A crowbar is 2 metres in length and has a fulcrum or pivot
located 20 cm from one end. What load can be lifted by the
crowbar, if a force of 5,000 N is applied to the end furthest
from the fulcrum? What is the mechanical advantage of the
arrangement?
Answers:
1) = ____________________ kN
2) = ____________________ MA
010100020021000D
Find the force necessary to just move a mass of 2.5 kg on the
end of a 3.6 m lever which is pivoted 3 m from the left end.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

754.14 N
76.88 N
27.50 N
123 N
1,206.6 N

010100020021000A
A small hand pump is 850 mm in length. The fulcrum is
attached in one end and the load plunger is located 50 mm
from the fulcrum. An effort force of 600 N is applied
downward from the opposite end of the fulcrum. Find the
force exerted by the load plunger and the mechanical
advantage of the lever.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

10,200 N and 17
1,020 N and 17
102 N and 17
10.2 N and 20
102 N and 20

74
010100020021000C
Velocity ratio is defined as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

The reaction at the fulcrum to balance the net forces on


the system.
The ratio of the load to the effort.
The ratio of the distance moved by the effort to the
distance moved by the load.
The ratio of the work output to the work input.
A block and tackle system.

010100020021000D
In a lifting machine, the effort applied moves a distance of
5 m while the load moves 50 mm. What is the velocity ratio?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

0.1
1
10
100
1,000

010100020021000E
Efficiency is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

work
work
work
work
work

input multiplied by work output


input divided by work output
output plus work input
output minus work input
output divided by work input

010100020021000D
A machine is used to lift a load of 2 kN a distance of 3 m
and the effort applied is 400 N. What distance will the
effort move if the efficiency of the machine is 80%?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

20.50
2.083
20.83
18.75
1.875

m
m
m
m
m

010100020021000C
A machine is used to lift a load of 12 kN and the effort
applied is 4 kN. What distance will the load move if the
effort moved a distance of 8 m and the efficiency of the
machine is 70%?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

0.5357
3.8095
1.8667
0.3809
5.3570

m
m
m
m
m

010100020021000B
An effort of 400 N is required to raise a mass of 100 kg in a
certain machine. If the mass is raised 4 m while the effort

75
moves 12 m, find the efficiency of the machine.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

93%
82%
80%
75%
70%

010100020021000C
An effort of 525 N is required to raise a mass of 120 kg in a
certain machine. If the mass is raised 5 m while the effort
moves 15 m, find the efficiency of the machine.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

85%
80%
75%
70%
65%

010100020021000D
An effort of 3 kN is required to move a mass of 2,000 kg in a
certain simple machine. If the mass is raised 1.5 m while the
effort moves 12 m find the velocity ratio (VR), the actual
mechanical advantage (MA), and the efficiency (EFF) of the
machine.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

VR
VR
VR
VR
VR

=
8,
= 12,
=
8,
=
8,
= 1.5,

MA
MA
MA
MA
MA

=
=
=
=
=

0.67,
6.54,
0.67,
6.54,
0.67,

EFF
EFF
EFF
EFF
EFF

= 5.3 %
= 54.5 %
= 8.3 %
= 81.8 %
= 44.7 %

010100020021000D
A block and tackle system has 6 pulleys in each of two blocks
(12 pulleys total). If a downward effort of 260 N is
required to raise a load of 300 kg calculate the efficiency
of the system.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

9.6%
19.2%
188.3%
94.3%
108.6%

010100020021000B
A block and tackle system has 3 pulleys in each of two
blocks. If a downward effort of 100 N is applied and the
machine has an efficiency of 83.6% what is the maximum mass
that can be moved?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

501.6 kg
51.1 kg
5,113.1 kg
250 kg
25.6 kg

76

010100020021000C
A simple wheel and axle has a wheel diameter of 2.3 m and an
axle diameter of 92 mm. If an effort of 26 N is required to
raise a mass of 16 kg what is the efficiency of the machine?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2.46%
95.3%
24.1%
20.1%
65.5%

010100020021000E
A simple wheel and axle has a wheel diameter of 3 m and an
axle diameter of 25 cm. What effort is required to raise 850
kg if the efficiency is 87%?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

81 N
986 N
100.5 N
563.2 N
798.7 N

050500020021000
A block and tackle consists of # pulleys on the upper block
and # pulleys on the lower block.
Determine the load that may be held in equilibrium when an
effort of ### N is applied. (Round to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ____________________ N
.SUBSTITUTIONS
UPLS(3,9,1)
LPLS
EFRT(100,950,50)
.SOLUTIONS
LPLS=UPLS-1;
LOAD=EFRT*(UPLS+LPLS);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",LOAD:3,.01
050500020021000
A block and tackle has # pulleys on the top block and
# pulleys on the bottom block. A load of #### N is
suspended from the lower block. Determine the effort
required to keep the system in equilibrium.
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ____________________ N
.SUBSTITUTIONS
UPLS(3,9,1)
LPLS
LOAD(1000,9500,100)
.SOLUTIONS
LPLS=UPLS-1;
EFRT=LOAD/(LPLS+UPLS);

77
.RESULTS
"Answer =",EFRT:3,.01
050500020021000
A block and tackle is used to lift a load of #### N with an
effort of just over ### N. How many pulleys would be used
on the lower block?
Answer = _____________________
.SUBSTITUTIONS
LOAD
EFRT(100,950,50)
FCTR(1,5,1)
.SOLUTIONS
LOAD=2*FCTR*EFRT;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",FCTR:3,.0
0503000200420004500 %.0015;5 %.01;
A simple wheel and axle has a wheel radius of 60 cm and an axle
radius of 12 cm. If an effort of 900 N is applied to the wheel,
what load can be raised by the axle and what is the mechanical
advantage of the arrangement?
Answers:
1) = ____________________ N
2) = ____________________ MA
05030002004200025 %;24500 %.0015;
A simple wheel and axle has an axle with a diameter of 8 cm
and a wheel with a diameter of 2 m.
1)
2)

Determine the mechanical advantage of the system.


Determine the load that may be balanced by a mass of
100 kg attached to the wheel.

Answers:
1) = ____________________ MA
2) = ____________________ N
010100020021000A
A wheel and axle has a mechanical advantage of 10. Calculate
the diameter of the axle if the diameter of the wheel is
30 cm.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

3
3.333
6
15
300

cm
cm
cm
cm
cm

0503000200420007.500 % .01;654 % .01;


A wheel and axle arrangement has an axle with a diameter of
25 cm. A rope is wrapped around the axle and is supporting
a load of 2 tonnes.

78

1)
2)

If the mechanical advantage of the system is 30, determine


the diameter of the wheel.
Determine the effort required to maintain the system in
equilibrium.

Answers:
1) = ____________________ m
2) = ____________________ N

Scalars and Vectors I


010100020021000A
Which of the following is not a scalar quantity?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

velocity
length
volume
time
area

010100020021000E
A scalar quantity has:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

necessary units only


numerical size of the quantity only
magnitude only
both direction and numerical size of the quantity
both magnitude and necessary units

010100020021000E
Distance is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

always a vector quantity


velocity divided by time
measured in a straight line
always measured in a circular path
a scalar quantity

010100020021000C
A vector quantity has:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

both numerical size and the necessary units of the


quantity
both direction and necessary units of the quantity
direction, magnitude and necessary units of the quantity
magnitude and necessary units of the quantity
magnitude only

010100020021000D
Vectors that are all in the same plane are defined as:

79
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

scalar
concurrent
resultants
coplanar
antiplanar

010100020021000B
A single vector which can replace a system of vectors and has
the same effect is called a:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

coplanar vector
resultant
concurrent vector
scalar
none of the above

010100020021000B
Find the resultant of 3 concurrent coplanar forces of:
i)
60 N acting 20 degrees east of north
ii)
30 N east
iii) 150 N acting 40 degrees east of south
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

240 N east
160 N 68 degrees east of south
60 N 40 degrees east of south
140 N 100 degrees east of south
30 N 73.8 degrees east of north

010100020021000E
A plane is flying at 56 km/h at a bearing of 65 degrees.
After flying for 3 hours the plane heading is changed to a
bearing of 90 degrees. After flying for a further 1 hour at
56 km/h what is the plane's bearing from its original
position?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

81
86
42
25
71

degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees

010100020021000A
Find the magnitude and direction of the resultant
of 3 coplanar forces of:
i)
40 N 45 degrees east of south
ii)
10 N west
iii) 70 N 35 degrees east of north
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

65 N 65 degrees east of north


35 N 35 degrees east of south
120 N west
100 N 25 degrees east of south
55 N 45 degrees west of south

010100020021000D

80
Find the magnitude and direction of the resultant of 4 concurrent coplanar
forces:
i)
10 N 32 degrees east of north
ii)
35 N 50 degrees east of north
iii) 25 N 72 degrees east of north
iv)
85 N 40 degrees east of south
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

70 N 56 degrees east of north


45 N 44 degrees east of north
196 N 87 degrees east of south
114 N 77 degrees east of south
30 N 72 degrees east of south

010100020021000B
Determine the resultant of the following vector system:
i)
65 km 60 degrees south of east
ii)
120 km 30 degrees west of north
iii) 30 km 35 degrees east of north
iv)
75 km south
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

120 km 70 degrees east of south


11 km 75 degrees west of south
61 km 63 degrees east of south
50 km south
92 km 42 degrees west of south

Linear Velocity and Acceleration


010100020021000D
According to Newtons laws of motion which statement is false?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

A body at rest will remain at rest unless acted upon by


an external force.
If a body is acted upon by an external unbalanced force
the body will have an acceleration in the direction and
proportional to the magnitude of the force.
For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
A body in motion will come to rest unless acted upon by
an external unbalanced force.
When one object exerts a force on a second object the
second object exerts a reactive force of equal magnitude
and opposite direction on the first object.

010100020021000B
A body moves from Point A to Point B in a semicircular path.
The diameter of the semicircle is 2 m. Calculate the
distance between Point A and Point B.
a)
b)
c)
d)

6.28
3.14
2.07
1.04

m
m
m
m

81
e)

0.52 m

010100020021000B
A body moves from Point A to Point B in a semicircular path.
The radius of the semicircle is 2 m. Calculate the
displacement between Point A and Point B.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2 m
4 m
6 m
8 m
10 m

010100020021000E
A body moves from A due east 5 m to B, then from B due north
6 m to C and finally from C due west 8 m to D. Calculate the
total distance covered from A to D.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

11
13
14
17
19

m
m
m
m
m

010100020021000C
A body moves from A due east 5 m to B, then from B due north
6 m to C and finally from C due west 5 m to D. Calculate the
total distance covered from A to D.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

4 m
5 m
6 m
7 m
19 m

010100020021000B
A vehicle that travels 150 km in 3 hours,
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

has a velocity of 50 km/h


has an average speed of 50 km/h
has a relative velocity of 50 km/h
covers a distance of 50 km
has a velocity of 750 km/h

010100020021000C
An airplane travels 500 km due west in 2 hours.
velocity is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

250 m/s due west


4167 m/s due west
69.4 m/s due west
69.4 m/s due east
1000 km/h due east

Its average

82
010100020021000C
An airplane travels 250 km due West for 2 hours.
velocity is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Its average

150 m/s West


250 m/s West
34.722 m/s West
69.4 m/s East
500 km/h East

010100020021000B
Velocity is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a scalar quantity
a vector quantity
a standard quantity
an average quantity
a maximum quantity

010100020021000E
Velocity may be defined as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

speed
linear speed
rotational speed
speed in a given time
speed in a given direction

010100020021000B
The SI unit for velocity is
a)

km/s

b)

m/s

c)

m/hr

d)

m/s

e)

2
m /s

010100020021000A
A train starts off from rest and reaches a velocity of 100
km/h in 8 minutes. If the velocity increases uniformly, how
far will the train travel in the first 8 minutes?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

6.67
7.43
8.50
9.25
9.76

km
km
km
km
km

010100020021000D
A vehicle starts off from rest and reaches a velocity of 80

83
km/h in 12 seconds. If the velocity increases uniformly, how
far will the train travel in the first 12 seconds?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

188.87
177.76
166.70
133.33
113.33

m
m
m
m
m

010100020021000C
A vehicle travelling at 90 km/h decelerates uniformly to 50
km/h in 9 seconds. How far will the vehicle travel in this
time?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

125
150
175
200
225

m
m
m
m
m

010100020021000E
Acceleration is measured in:
a)

b)

2
m/s

c)

m/s

d)

s/m

e)

m/s

2
010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about acceleration is true?
Acceleration is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

time / velocity
force / time
the rate of change of displacement
time / force
the result of an unbalanced force exerted on a body

010100020021000E
Acceleration may be defined as the rate of change in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

time
distance
area
volume
velocity

84
010100020021000A
The SI unit for acceleration is
2
a)

m/s

b)

m/s

c)

m/s

d)

km/h

e)

km/s

010100020021000C
A car travelling at 18 km/h increases its velocity uniformly
to 48 km/h in 6 seconds. What is the acceleration in metres
per second squared?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1.12
1.23
1.39
1.45
1.57

010100020021000B
A car travelling at 90 km/h is brought to rest over a
distance of 120 m. What is the acceleration in metres per
second squared?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2.6
-2.6
1.3
-1.3
-2.0

010100020021000D
The area under a velocity vs. time graph equals:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

distance
speed
acceleration
displacement
average velocity

010100020021000E
A car travels a total of 350 km. The journey involves a
total of 3 hours driving time and 45 minutes of stop time.
What is the average journey speed?
a)
b)
c)
d)

101.4 km/h
71.7 km/h
116.7 km/h
107.7 km/h

85
e)

93.3 km/h

010100020021000A
A plane is flying at 600 km/h and reduces its velocity
uniformly to 70 km/h in 3 minutes. What is its acceleration?
2

a)

-0.818 m/s

b)

-49.07 m/s

c)

-176.67 m/s

d)

-2.42 m/s

e)

-3.33 m/s

2
2

2
2

010100020021000E
An object is thrown directly downwards from a height of 60 m
with an initial velocity of 11 m/s. What will be its
velocity on impact?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

34.5 m/s
1,289.16 m/s
24.2 m/s
126.38 m/s
36.03 m/s

010100020021000D
An object is dropped from a height of 45 m.
velocity be on impact?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

882.9
441.5
22.50
29.71
31.76

m/s
m/s
m/s
m/s
m/s

010100020021000A
An object is dropped from a height of 55 m.
velocity be on impact?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

32.85
43.57
56.43
68.79
72.12

What will its

What will its

m/s
m/s
m/s
m/s
m/s

010100020021000B
A car has an initial speed of 25 km/h and in 84 seconds it
accelerates to 110 km/h. What is the distance travelled
during the acceleration period?

86

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2575 m
1575 m
757 m
575 m
455 m

010100020021000C
A car has an initial speed of 35 km/h and in 75 seconds it
accelerates to 120 km/h. What is the distance travelled
during the acceleration period?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2435
1875
1614
1567
1463

m
m
m
m
m

Force, Work, Pressure, Power and Energy


010100020021000D
A push or pull exerted on an object which may change the
objects state of motion is defined as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

work
energy
power
force
pressure

050500020101000
A cylindrical tank with flat ends is #.# metres in diameter and
## metres high. What will the force of gravity be on the tank,
if it has been built with a steel plate having a mass of 21 kg/sq m?
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ____________________ newtons
.SUBSTITUTIONS
D(.5,3,.5)
L(4,10,1)
.SOLUTIONS
W=647.2*D*(D/2+L);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",W:3,0.01
050500020101000
A cylindrical tank with flat ends is #.# metres in diameter and
## metres high. What will the force of gravity be on the tank
if it has been made with plate having a mass of 32 kg/sq m?
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ____________________ newtons
.SUBSTITUTIONS
D(.5,3,.5)
L(4,10,1)

87
.SOLUTIONS
F=986.21*D*(D/2+L);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",F:3,.05
010100020021000C
In the SI system, the unit of force is called the newton (N)
and 1 N is equal to
2
a)

1 kg/s

b)

1 kg m/s

c)

1 kg m/s

d)

2
1 kg m /s

e)

2 3
1 kg m /s

010100020021000B
Work is defined as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

A push or pull on an object which may change its state


of motion.
The product of the force applied on an object and the
distance through which the force moved.
The measure of force per unit area.
The ability to apply force.
None of the above.

050500020021000
Calculate the work done in pumping #### litres of water a
vertical distance of ## metre. (Round to 3 decimal places)
Answer = -------------------- kJ
.SUBSTITUTIONS
VOLM(1000,9950,50)
DIST(10,25,1)
.SOLUTIONS
WORK=VOLM*9.81*DIST/1000;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",WORK:3,.01
010100020021000C
A pump is required to raise 600 litres of fresh water a
vertical distance of 120 m. If the efficiency of the pump is
45%, how much work must be done on the pump to raise the
water?
a)
b)

1570 GJ
1570 MJ

88
c)
d)
e)

1570 kJ
1570 J
1.57 kJ

050500020021000
A pump has an efficiency of ## percent. Calculate the power
required to lift ## litres of water per second to a height
of ## metres. (Round to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ____________________ watts
.SUBSTITUTIONS
EFCY(50,80,1)
VOLM(15,60,1)
DIST(10,25,1)
.SOLUTIONS
POWR=VOLM*9.81*DIST/EFCY*100;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",POWR:3,.01
050500020021000
Consider a pump which is ## % efficient and raises #.# cubic
metres of water per minute to a height of ## metres. How
much power is required to raise this amount of water?
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = _____________________ watts
.SUBSTITUTIONS
EFCY(60,80,1)
VOLM(3,8,0.5)
DIST(10,30,1)
.SOLUTIONS
POWR=VOLM*9.81*1000*DIST/EFCY*100/60;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",POWR:3,.01
010100020021000C
Calculate the power required, to pump 50000 litres of water per
minute to a vertical height of 72 m.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

360
49.05
588.6
706.32
69.44

kW
kW
kW
kW
kW

050500020105000
A boiler has a working pressure of ### psi.
Give this pressure in: (Round to 3 decimal places)
Answers:
1) = -------------------- kPa
2) = -------------------- MPa

89

3) = -------------------- Nm
4) = -------------------- pascals
5) = -------------------- bars
.SUBSTITUTIONS
P(100,400,20)
.SOLUTIONS
P1=6.895*P;
P2=6.895*P/1000;
P3=6895*P;
P4=6895*P;
P5=6.895*P/100;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",P1:3,.05
"Answer 2 =",P2:3,.05
"Answer 3 =",P3:3,.05
"Answer 4 =",P4:3,.05
"Answer 5 =",P5:3,.05
050500020021000
A pressure of ### kPa acts upon a ## cm diameter piston.
Calculate the total force exerted upon the piston.
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ____________________ N
.SUBSTITUTIONS
PRSS(100,950,50)
DIAM(10,30,1)
.SOLUTIONS
FRCE=3.1416*(DIAM/100)**2*PRSS*250;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",FRCE:3,.01
050500020021000
A cylinder contains steam at a pressure of #### kPa. If the
cylinder diameter is ## cm, what is the force acting upon the
cylinder end? (Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ____________________ kN
.SUBSTITUTIONS
PRSS(1000,9950,50)
DIAM(10,30,1)
.SOLUTIONS
FRCE=3.1416*(DIAM/100)**2/4*PRSS;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",FRCE:3,.01

050500020021000
The diameter of a pump piston is ## cm. A force of ### N
is applied to the piston rod. Determine the pressure the
pump will develop. (Round to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ___________________ kPa

90
.SUBSTITUTIONS
DIAM(10,30,1)
FRCE(50,100,5)
.SOLUTIONS
PRSS=FRCE*4/3.1416/(DIAM/100)**2/1000;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",PRSS:3,.01
050500020021000
The air pressure in a tire is ### kPa. The internal surface
area of the tire is #### sq cm. Determine the total force
applied by the air to the tire. (Round to 3 decimal places)
Answer = _____________________ kN
.SUBSTITUTIONS
PRSS(100,950,50)
AREA(500,1500,50)
.SOLUTIONS
FRCE=PRSS*AREA/10000;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",FRCE:3,.01
010100020021000A
A piston having an area of .2 m sq is subject to a pressure
of 600 kPa. What is the total force exerted on the piston?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

120
1200
120
1200
12

kN
kN
kPa
kPa
kN

050500020021000
The pressure gauge on a condenser indicates -##.# kPa.
Determine the absolute pressure in the condenser when
the barometric pressure is ###.# kPa.
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = _____________________ kPa
.SUBSTITUTIONS
VACm(85,93,0.1)
APRS(95,101.3,0.1)
.SOLUTIONS
TPRS=APRS-VACm;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",TPRS:3,.01
.7.3

Testbank.Document.Questions
for Testbank PE4PARTA

- Force, Work, Pressure, Power and Energy


050500020021000
The absolute pressure is ### kPa, and the atmospheric
pressure is ###.# kPa. Determine the gauge pressure.
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)

Page 14- 117


25-SEP-2001

91
Answer = ____________________ kPa
.SUBSTITUTIONS
TPRS(100,500,20)
APRS(95,101.3,0.1)
.SOLUTIONS
GPRS=TPRS-APRS;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",GPRS:3,.01
010100020021000B
What is the absolute pressure if the gauge pressure in a steam
cylinder is 200 kPa? (Atmospheric pressure is 101.3 kPa)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

301.3
301.3
200.3
200.3
98.7

Pa
kPa
Pa
kPa
kPa

010100020021000D
1 psi equals
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1 kilo pascal
100 kPa
1 newton/m sq
6.89 kPa
2.2 kPa

010100020021000C
If three boilers each have a pressure of 130 kPa, the pressure
in the steam header will be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

130
130
130
130
390

bar
kg/cm sq
kilo pascals
MPa
kPa

010100020021000A
The capacity of a body to do work is defined as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

energy
power
pressure
force
mass

010100020021000E
An object at rest with a mass of 68.5 kg is at a height of 65
m above the earth's surface. What is its kinetic energy?
a)
b)
c)
d)

4.45 kJ
4.37 kJ
34.25 kJ
38.6 kJ

92
e)

none of the above

010100020021000A
A body with a mass of 88 kg is moving at a velocity of 13.89
m/s. What is its kinetic energy?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

8,488 J
1.22 kJ
13.89 kJ
611.11 J
6.9 kJ

010100020021000B
An object of mass 95 kg is at a height of 36 m above the
ground. What is its potential energy?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

3.42 kJ
33.55 kJ
1.71 kJ
931.95 kJ
348.62 J

050500020051000
What is the kinetic energy of a car, having a mass of #### kg
and travelling at a velocity of ## km/h?
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ____________________ kJ
.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(1000,4000,50)
VLCT(30,90,6)
.SOLUTIONS
KENR=MASS*(VLCT*1000/3600)**2/2000;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",KENR:3,.01
050500020051000
The kinetic energy of an automobile, having a mass of #### kg
is ###.# kJ. Find the velocity of the car in km/h.
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = _____________________ km/h
.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(1000,4000,50)
KENR(200,400,10)
.SOLUTIONS
VLCT=(2*KENR*1000/MASS)**0.5*3.6;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",VLCT:3,.01
010100020021000E
Calculate potential energy possessed by a mass of 100 kg
located 40 m above ground level.
a)
b)
c)

4000 kJ
2.5 MJ
981 kJ

93
d)
e)

392.4 J
39.24 kJ

010100020021000D
What is the kinetic energy possessed by a car, having a mass
of 1500 kg and travelling at a velocity of 50 km/h?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

30 kJ
25 kJ
25 J
144.7 kJ
289.4 kJ

010100020021000E
A simple machine is required to raise 1 tonne of stone a
vertical distance of 30 m. If the efficiency of the pulley is
100% how much work must be done on the pulley to raise the
stone?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

294.3 J
30 kJ
35 kJ
3.4 kJ
294.27 kJ

010100020021000A
What force is produced on a circular wall with a diameter of
3 m when 1,100 kPa acts upon it?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

7,775.44 kN
155 kN
31,101 kN
10,367.26 kN
7,300.33 N

010100020021000A
A pump raises 650 tonnes of sea water a height of 55 m in 6
hours. If the pump efficiency is 100% what is the power
required to drive the pump?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

16.24 kW
350,707.5 W
17.46 kW
1,047.51 kW
62,850.81 kW

010100020021000E
A body with a mass of 2 tonnes is moving at 100 km/h. What
would be the vertical height that the body could climb before
coming to rest?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

27.8
5.10
1.41
1.18
39.3

km
m
m
km
m

94

010100020021000D
An object is allowed to free fall from rest from a height of
9 m. What will be its velocity on striking the ground?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

14.07
14.00
13.53
13.29
13.00

m/s
m/s
m/s
m/s
m/s

010100020021000E
A body is moving 12 m/s. What would be the vertical height
that this body could climb to before it comes to rest?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

5.10
5.50
6.10
7.00
7.34

m
m
m
m
m

Friction I
010100020021000B
To start a body moving which of the following must be
overcome?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

kinetic friction
static friction
fluid friction
rolling friction
normal force

010100020021000C
In the case of static friction if the downward force between
the surfaces is doubled then the friction will:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

decrease by half
remain constant
increase by twice as much
be eliminated
none of the above

010100020021000D
Which of the following statements is false?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

kinetic friction is not affected by the body's speed


kinetic friction is greater than rolling friction
friction is affected by the relative roughness of the two
surfaces
kinetic friction is greater than static fiction
force of friction is not affected by the area of the
surfaces in contact

95

010100020021000E
The coefficient of friction is defined as:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the downward force on the two surfaces in contact


the force parallel to the surface required to start an
object moving
the reaction normal perpendicular to the surface
the force parallel to the surface required to keep an
object moving at a constant linear velocity
the ratio of the force required to move a body to the
normal reaction force

010100020021000A
Find the coefficient of friction between a 73 kg cubic box
measuring 3 m and a hardwood floor 16 m long and 20 m wide if
a total of 236 N is required to start the box moving.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

0.33
36 N
3.20
3.03
24.06 N

010100020021000D
Find the force required to start a 1 ton object moving along
a surface with a coefficient of friction of 0.62.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

620 N
6.1 N
9,810 N
6,082.2 N
15.822 kN

010100020021000A
Find the mass of the refrigerator which is just started
moving by a force of 6,350 N along a tile floor with a
coefficient of friction of 0.30.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2,157.66 kg
21.2 tonnes
1,905 kg
0.04 g
194.19 kg

050500020093000
A block is held in contact with a horizontal surface with a
vertical force of #### N.
1)

If a horizontal force of ### N just causes motion to


impend, calculate the coefficient of static friction.

2)

If a horizontal force of ### N was required to keep the


block moving at a uniform velocity, what is the coefficient
of kinetic friction?

96

3)

If a horizontal force of ### N is applied to the block and


causes motion to impend, what is the value of the friction
force between the surfaces in contact?

Answers (Round to 3 decimal places):


1) = -------------------2) = -------------------3) = -------------------- N
.SUBSTITUTIONS
NRFC(1000,9000,100)
STFF(100,550,50)
KNFF
RTFF
.SOLUTIONS
KNFF=0.9*STFF;
RTFF=0.8*STFF;
SFCF=STFF/NRFC;
KNCF=KNFF/NRFC;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",SFCF:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",KNCF:3,.01
"Answer 3 =",RTFF:3,.01
050500020021000
Calculate the mass of a block if a force of ## N is required
to keep it sliding on a horizontal surface. The coefficient
of friction is #.##. (Round to 3 decimal places)
ANSWER = ______________________ kg
.SUBSTITUTIONS
FRFC(10,30,1)
FRCF(0.1,0.5,0.01)
.SOLUTIONS
MASS=FRFC/FRCF/9.81;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",MASS:3,.01
050500020021000
The coefficient of friction between a block and a horizontal
surface is #.##. Determine the mass of the block if a force
of ### N is required to keep it sliding along the surface.
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ___________________ kg
.SUBSTITUTIONS
FRCF(0.1,0.5,0.01)
FRFC(100,950,50)
.SOLUTIONS
MASS=FRFC/FRCF/9.81;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",MASS:3,.01

97

Stress and Strain


010100020021000B
The internal resistance developed to counteract an external
force is defined as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

strain
stress
ultimate strength
load
deformation

010100020021000D
External tensile forces acting parallel but not in line
produces
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

tensile stress
compressive stress
working stress
shear stress
compressive strain

010100020021000D
The ratio between the ultimate strength and the allowable
stress is defined as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

ultimate stress
maximum allowable load
working stress
safety factor
elastic limit

010100020021000E
A measure of the deformation in a member by a load is defined
as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

safety factor
tensile stress
maximum load
working stress
none of the above

010100020021000D
The ability of a material to return to its original shape
after the force or load which caused the deformation is
removed is called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

stiffness
plasticity
ductility
elasticity
toughness

010100020021000C

98
The ability of a material to resist penetration is called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

elasticity
toughness
hardness
ductility
stiffness

010100020021000B
The ability of a material to break without much deformation
occurring before fracture is called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

stiffness
brittleness
toughness
hardness
ductility

010100020021000D
The ability of a material to retain its deformed shape when
the load causing deformation is removed is called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

stiffness
ductility
hardness
plasticity
elasticity

010100020021000A
A round tie bar in a frame work is subjected to a load of 65
kN. If the radius of the tie is 15 mm what will the stress
be in the tie?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

91,956 kPa
367,821 kPa
45.96 Pa
22,989 kPa
2,758 kPa

010100020021000E
A compressive load of 219 kN is resisted by a rectangular
strut which has one side measuring 83 mm. If the stress in
the strut is 164,909 kPa what is the length of the other side
of the strut?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1.3 mm
0.75 m
9.07 m
3.3 mm
0.016 m

010100020021000B
A hole 3 cm in diameter is to be punched out of a steel plate
8 cm thick. The shear stress of the material is 670 GPa.
What load is required on the punch?

99
a)

4,735,509 GN

b)

5,051.6 MN

c)

1.6 * 10

d)

9,036 MN

e)

63,146 N

13

010100020021000B
A unit of stress is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

mm/m
kPa
kg/sq cm
Nm
kg/m squared

010100020021000D
A titanium bar with a mass of 2 kg and a length of 3 m
shortens by 0.02 mm under a compressive load of 3,900 kN.
What will be the strain?
-3

a)

1.9 * 10

b)

6.66 * 10

c)

-1.9 * 10

d)

-0.000006666

e)

-1.9 * 10

-3
2

-3

050500020021000
The ultimate strength of a round steel rod is ### MPa. If a
factor of safety of #.# is required, what is the maximum
permissible load for the rod if it has a diameter of #.# cm?
Answer = ____________________ kN (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
STRS(550,650,10)
SFCT(3,6,0.5)
DIAM(3,9,0.1)
.SOLUTIONS
LOAD=STRS/SFCT*3.1415927*(DIAM/100)**2*1000/4;
.RESULTS
"Answer = ",LOAD:3,.01
050500020021000

100
What is the factor of safety for a steel hanger having an ultimate
strength of ### MPa and supporting a load of ##### N. The steel
hanger has a cross sectional area of #.# sq cm.
Answer = ____________________ (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
USTR(550,650,10)
LOAD(61000,90000,1000)
AREA(5,9.9,0.1)
.SOLUTIONS
SFCT=USTR*100/(LOAD/AREA);
.RESULTS
"Answer = ",SFCT:3,.01
010100020021000C
What is the factor of safety for a steel hanger having an ultimate
strength of 70000 newtons per sq cm and supporting a load of
87500 N. The hanger has a cross sectional area of 5 sq cm.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1.25
6.25
4
8
.8

010100020021000A
If engineers require a material which would be able to be
stretched and reduced in cross section without breaking they
would choose a material with which of the following
properties?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

ductility
brittleness
plasticity
toughness
elasticity

010100020021000C
Stiffness is defined as the ability of a material to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

return to its original shape after the load causing


deformation is removed
retain its deformed shape when the load causing the
deformation is removed
resist a change in shape and size when a load is applied
resist penetration
absorb energy before breaking

010100020021000E
The greatest load that can be applied to a material under its
design conditions is called
a)
b)
c)

ultimate stress
elastic limit
allowable stress

101
d)
e)

factor of safety
maximum allowable load

010100020021000A
The __________ of a material is the maximum stress value that
the material can be subjected to and still return to its
original size and shape when the deforming load is removed.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

elastic limit
maximum allowable load
allowable stress
ultimate stress
maximum allowable stress

Power Transmission
010100020021000B
Which of the following statements about belt drive systems is
false?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Linear speed on a point on each pulley will be the same


as the linear speed of the belt.
Tension in the bottom belt is always double that in the
top belt.
Belt driver pulleys move follower pulleys by means of
frictional force between the belt and the pulleys.
Rotational speed will be equal if the pulley diameters
are equal.
A belt system is 100% efficient if there is no slippage.

010100020021000C
When two pulleys of different diameters are connected by a
belt, the larger diameter pulley will turn __________ the
smaller diameter pulley.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the same speed as


faster than
slower than
in the opposite direction to
none of the above

010100020021000E
Which statement concerning belt trains is false?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Belt trains transmit less power than gear trains of


comparable size.
Belt trains are used to change speeds of pulleys.
Belt trains are used to change power transmissions of
belts.
Pulleys in a train all rotate in the same direction.
Trains are connected by a single belt.

010100020021000A
A gear wheel with 85 teeth rotates at 6,500 r/min and drives

102
another gear at 9,866 r/min.
gear have?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

How many teeth does the driven

56
129
76
85
63

010100020021000A
Which of the following statements about idler gears is true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Reverses the gear wheel direction.


Creates slippage.
Changes the r/min of the driven gear.
Always results in increasing efficiency.
none of the above.

050500020021000
Two pulleys, one ## cm in diameter and the other ## cm in
diameter are connected by a belt. If the speed of the first
pulley is #### rpm, what is the speed of the second pulley?
Answer = ____________________ rpm (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
FSPL
SCPL(20,30,2)
RVLF
.SOLUTIONS
FSPL=SCPL*1.5;
RVLF=30*SCPL;
RVLS=RVLF*FSPL/SCPL;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",RVLS:3,.01
050500020021000
A ## cm diameter pulley turns at ### rpm and drives, by means of
a belt, another pulley at #### rpm. What is the diameter of the
driven pulley?
Answer = ____________________ cm (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
FSPL(40,60,2)
RVLF
RVLS
.SOLUTIONS
RVLF=16*FSPL;
RVLS=RVLF*2;
SCPL=FSPL*RVLF/RVLS;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",SCPL:3,.01
050500020021000
A ## tooth gear turns at ### rpm and drives a ### tooth gear.
Calculate the rpm of the second gear.

103
Answer = __________________ rpm (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
FSGR(12,30,2)
RVLF
SCGR
.SOLUTIONS
RVLF=5*FSGR;
SCGR=2.5*FSGR;
RVLS=RVLF*FSGR/SCGR;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",RVLS:3,.01
010100020021000B
A 28 tooth gear turns at 100 rpm and drives a 112 tooth gear.
What is the speed of the follower gear?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

400
25
31.36
125.44
4

rpm
rpm
rpm
rpm
rpm

010100020021000E
A pulley with a diameter of 50 cm is driven at 960 r/min.
What will be the linear speed in m/s of a point on the rim of the
pulley?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

150.8 m/s
50.2 m/s
2,500 m/s
6.3 m/s
25.2 m/s

010100020021000A
A pulley of diameter 2.6 m rotates at 107 r/min and drives a
follower pulley at 259 r/min. What is the diameter of the
follower pulley?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1.07 m
6.3 m
0.93 m
3.54 m
5.20 m

010100020021000A
The tensions in the tight and slack side of a belt are 14000
N and 900 N respectively. If the power transmission is 655
kW what is the speed of the belt if there is no slippage?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

50 m/s
43.96 m/s
25.2 m/s
0.05 m/s
31.6 m/s

104
010100020021000C
In a drive belt system the input to the driver pulley is 265
kW and the output is 211 kW. What is the efficiency?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

121%
93.3%
79.6%
82.4%
75.8%

010100020021000E
The clearance that is necessary between teeth that have to
mesh is called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

gap
play
lashback
clearance
backlash

Introduction to Thermodynamics
010100020021000C
The amount of heat to raise the temperature of a unit mass of
a substance 1 degree Celsius without changing the state of
the substance is defined as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

latent heat
saturation temperature
specific heat
absolute zero
radiation

010100020021000A
The flow of heat from molecule to molecule within a substance
or from molecules of one body to those of another body in
direct contact with it is defined as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

conduction
convection
specific heat
latent heat of fusion
absolute pressure

010100020021000B
Sensible heat
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

is the latent heat plus heat of evaporation


causes a rise in temperature
cannot be read on a thermometer
is the latent heat of fusion
does not exist in vapours

010100020021000A

105
Absolute pressure is the sum of __________ and __________
pressures.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

gauge, atmospheric
standard, deviation
minimum, maximum
positive, negative
above, below

010100020021000C
__________ zero is the temperature at which all molecular
movement ceases.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Positive
Negative
Absolute
Minimum
Maximum

010100020021000D
__________ pressure is the pressure exerted by the earth's
atmosphere.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Absolute
Maximum
Minimum
Atmospheric
Standard

010100020021000B
__________ heat is heat that causes a change of state of a
substance without changing its temperature.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Sensible
Latent
Super
Intense
Saturated

010100020021000A
__________ heat is heat that causes a change in the
temperature of a substance without changing its state.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Sensible
Latent
Super
Intense
Saturated

010100020021000B
__________ steam is steam that is fully saturated with latent
and sensible heat and has no water particles present.
a)
b)
c)

Wet saturated
Dry saturated
Super heated

106
d)
e)

Sensibly heated
Intensified

010100020021000C
__________ heat is the amount of heat required to raise the
temperature of a unit mass of a substance 1 degree Celsius
without changing the state of the substance.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Sensible
Latent
Specific
Super
Saturated

010100020021000D
Which of the following statements about the laws of
thermodynamics is false?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Heat and work are mutually convertible


Heat supplied = increase in internal energy + work done
Heat will flow from a hot substance to a colder substance
Refrigeration requires no external work supply
none of the above

010100020021000B
The first law of thermodynamics states that heat and work are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

not convertible
mutually convertible
sometimes convertible
mildly convertible
mutually fusible

010100020021000D
In the first law of thermodynamics, heat supplied = increase
in internal energy + __________.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

energy supplied
energy absorbed
work in
work done
work supplied

010100020021000E
The second law of thermodynamics states that unaided, heat
will only flow from __________.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a
a
a
a
a

cold substance to a hotter substance


warm substance to a hotter substance
hot substance to a hotter substance
cold substance to a colder substance
hot substance to a colder substance

010100020021000B
In the second law of thermodynamics, if it is required to
transfer heat from a cold substance to a hotter substance (as
in refrigeration) then __________ must be supplied.

107

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

internal energy
external work
higher temperature
lower temperature
moderate temperature

010100020021000E
The metric absolute temperature at which all molecular motion
is said to completely cease is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

-270 degrees C
0 degrees C
40 degrees C
-460 degrees R
0 K

010100020021000A
Which of the following statements about heat is true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

If there is a temperature difference between the heat


source and a cooler object in contact with the source,
heat will be transferred to the cooler object.
Heat can be transferred from cold bodies to hot bodies
without using an external supply of work.
Specific heat is the same for every substance.
Specific heat capacity is the same for every state of
matter of the same substance.
1 J is less than 1 Nm of work.

050500020084000
Convert the following temperatures from degrees Celsius to
degrees Fahrenheit (Round to 3 decimal places):
Answers:
1)
2)
3)
4)

o
### C
o
### C
o
#### C
o
#### C

o
= _______________ F
o
= _______________ F
o
= _______________ F
o
= _______________ F

.SUBSTITUTIONS
FRST(-10,99,1)
SCND(100,999,1)
THRD(1000,1500,1)
FRTH(1501,1800,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS1=9/5*FRST+32;
ANS2=9/5*SCND+32;
ANS3=9/5*THRD+32;
ANS4=9/5*FRTH+32;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,.01

108
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,.01
"Answer 3 =",ANS3:3,.01
"Answer 4 =",ANS4:3,.01
050500020084000
Convert the following temperatures from degrees Celsius
to Kelvin (Round to 3 decimal places):
Answers:
o
### C = _______________
o
2)
### C = _______________
o
3) #### C = _______________
o
4) #### C = _______________
.SUBSTITUTIONS
FRST(-20,100,1)
SCND(100,999,1)
THRD(1000,1500,1)
FRTH(1501,2000,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS1=FRST+273;
ANS2=SCND+273;
ANS3=THRD+273;
ANS4=FRTH+273;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,.01
"Answer 3 =",ANS3:3,.01
"Answer 4 =",ANS4:3,.01
1)

K
K
K
K

050500020084000
Convert the following from Kelvin to degrees Celsius (Round
the answers to 3 decimal places):
1)

#### Kelvin

___________________ degrees Celsius

2)

#### Kelvin

= ____________________ degrees Celsius

3)

#### Kelvin

= ____________________ degrees Celsius

4) #### Kelvin = ____________________ degrees Celsius


.SUBSTITUTIONS
K1(100,200,1)
K2(200,400,1)
K3(400,600,1)
K4(600,1400,1)
.SOLUTIONS
C1=K1-273;
C2=K2-273;
C3=K3-273;
C4=K4-273;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",C1:3,.01

109
"Answer 2 =",C2:3,.01
"Answer 3 =",C3:3,.01
"Answer 4 =",C4:3,.01
050500020084000
Convert the following temperatures from degrees Celsius to
kelvin (Round the answers to 3 decimal places):
1)

#### degrees Celsius = ____________________ kelvin

2)

#### degrees Celsius = ____________________ kelvin

3)

#### degrees Celsius = ____________________ kelvin

4) #### degrees Celsius = ____________________ kelvin


.SUBSTITUTIONS
C1(-100,0,1)
C2(0,100,1)
C3(100,300,1)
C4(300,1200,1)
.SOLUTIONS
K1=C1+273;
K2=C2+273;
K3=C3+273;
K4=C4+273;
.RESULTS
"Degrees Kelvin:",K1:3,.01
"Degrees Kelvin:",K2:3,.01
"Degrees Kelvin:",K3:3,.01
"Degrees Kelvin:",K4:3,.01
010100020021000B
A bimetal thermometer consists of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a filament that is compared to the object being measured


two dissimilar metals welded together
two dissimilar wires connected to a battery
two copper wires connected together
two silver wires and a ground strap

050500020021000
Calculate the heat required to raise the temperature of
### litres of water from ## to #### degrees Celsius.
Answer = _____________________ kJ (Round to 3 decimals)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
M(100,350,5)
T1(5,50,5)
T2
R(1,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
TD=(40*R);
T2=T1+TD;
H=TD*4.2*M;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",H:3,.01

110

010100020021000B
When the temperature of an object is raised, its increase in
area is proportional to its
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

initial length and final temperature


initial area and temperature rise
volume and initial temperature
initial length and temperature rise
colour and shape

050500020041000
Find the quantity of heat required, to raise the temperature
of ## litres of water from ## to #### degrees Celsius.
Answer = _____________________ kJ (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
M(2,30,1)
T1(5,25,5)
T2
R(1,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
TD=(75*R);
T2=T1+TD;
H=TD*4.2*M;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",H:3,.005

010100020021000B
Find the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature
of 6.3 kg of glass from 6 degrees C to 210 degrees C if the
specific heat capacity of glass is 670 J/kg K.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

886.4 kJ
861.2 kJ
25.3 kJ
911.7 kJ
75.3 kJ

010100020021000B
If a 286 m steel bar is increased from 2 degrees C to 390
degrees C, how much does the bar expand? (The coefficient
of linear expansion of steel is 0.000012/degrees C).
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

9.88 m
1.33 m
2.93 m
7.23 m
15.74 m

010100020021000C
Which of the following statements is true?
a)
b)

Water will only expand when its temperature is increased.


Liquids will not contract when their temperatures lower.

111
c)
d)
e)

Coefficients of expansion for liquids change in value as


the temperature changes.
In general coefficients of expansion of solids are
greater than those of liquids.
Solids generally contract when their temperatures rise.

010100020021000D
When the temperature of an object is raised, its increase in
length is proportional to its
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

initial length and initial temperature


cross-sectional area and temperature
volume and temperature rise
initial length and temperature rise
elasticity and its ductility

050500020021000
Calculate the amount of expansion occurring when a steel rail
### metres in length is heated from ### to #### degrees Celsius.
Answer = ____________________ m (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
L(400,950,5)
T1(-50,-5,5)
T2
R(1,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
TD=(60*R);
T2=T1+TD;
E=TD*L*.000012;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",E:3,.01
010100020021000C
The coefficient of expansion of metals
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

is a constant for all non-ferrous metals


has the units "cm" per "m"
is greater for aluminum than steel
is the same for all metals
requires a component of latent heat

050500020021000
Calculate the amount of expansion occurring, when a steel pipe
### m long is heated from ## to #### degrees Celsius.
Answer = ____________________
.SUBSTITUTIONS
L(10,500,5)
T1(5,95,5)
T2
R(1,5,1)
.SOLUTIONS
TD=(100*R);
T2=T1+TD;
E=TD*L*.000012;
.RESULTS

(Round to 3 decimal places)

112
"Answer =",E:3,.01
050500020021000
Calculate the heat required to raise the temperature of a
## kg block of cast iron from ## to #### degrees Celsius.
Answer = ____________________ kJ (Round to 3 decimals)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
M(5,95,5)
T1(5,95,5)
T2
R(1,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
TD=(450*R);
T2=T1+TD;
H=TD*.544*M;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",H:3,.01
010100020021000B
The transfer of heat involving the movement of a fluid is
defined as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

conduction
convection
radiation
refrigeration
super heating

010100020021000C
The transfer of heat through emission of electromagnetic
waves is defined as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

conduction
convection
radiation
refrigeration
molecular agitation

010100020021000A
Radiation from the furnace fire
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

travels in straight lines


is present in oil firing but not fuel gas firing
radiates through the superheater tube walls
radiates through the water in the water walls
requires a transfer medium

010100020021000B
Natural convection is a method of heat transfer where the movement
of the fluids is due solely to the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

surface pressure
difference in densities
difference in heating time
gravitational differences
activity of the radiant rays

113

010100020021000C
The __________ method of heat transfer involves the flow of
heat from molecule to molecule within a substance or from the
molecules of one body to those of another body which is
directly in contact with the first body.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

convection
expansion
conduction
contraction
radiation

010100020021000A
The transfer of heat by __________ involves the movement of a
fluid (a liquid or a gas).
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

convection
expansion
conduction
contraction
radiation

010100020021000E
__________ refers to the transmission of electromagnetic
waves.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Convection
Expansion
Conduction
Contraction
Radiation

Thermodynamics of Steam
010100020021000B
In Table I of the Steam Tables, the specific volume of steam
is in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

column
column
column
column
column

1
4
3
5
6

010100020021000B
Columns 8, 9 and 10 of Table I of the steam tables deal with
which type of energy?
a)
b)
c)
d)

internal energy
enthalpy
entropy
specific energy

114
e)

potential energy

010100020021000D
In column 9 of Table 1 of the Steam Tables, the
enthalpy (h ) found in that column is known as the
fg
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

sensible heat of fusion


latent heat of fusion
sensible heat of evaporation
latent heat of evaporation
sensible heat of enthalpy

010100020021000A
In column 8 of Table 1 of the Steam Tables, the
enthalpy (h ) found in that column is known as the
f
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

sensible heat
latent heat
sensible heat of fusion
latent heat of fusion
latent heat of evaporation

010100020021000C
In column 1 of Table 1 of the Steam Tables, the unit used for
pressure is in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Gpa
Mpa
kPa
Bars
Pa

010100020021000D
The unit used for specific volume in the Steam Tables is
a)

3
m /kg

b)

3
m /g

c)

3
cm /kg

d)

3
cm /g

e)

3
mm /g

010100020021000C
In the Steam Tables, the unit used for hf, hfg, and hg is
a)

J/kg

115
b)
c)
d)
e)

J/g
kJ/kg
kJ/g
MJ/kg

010100020021000B
In the Steam Tables, h

in tables 1 and 2 is equal to

a)

h - h
f
fg

b)

h + h
f
fg

c)

h x h
f
fg

d)

h /h
f fg

e)

2
f

2
+ h

fg

010100020021000D
How much energy is required to raise 63 kg of ice at 0
degrees C to saturated steam at 100 degrees C.
Specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 kJ/kg K.
Specific latent heat of ice is 335 kJ/kg.
Specific latent heat of steam is 2,257 kJ/kg.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

35,490 kJ
21,775 kJ
53,107 kJ
189,756 kJ
273,097 kJ

010100020021000C
Steam containing water particles in suspension is defined as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

dry steam
theoretical steam
wet steam
latent heat of steam
superheated steam

010100020021000E
To avoid condensation loss in steam
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

steam is heated to saturation temperature


wet steam is used
steam pressure is increased
heat is transported via boiling water
super heated steam is used

116

010100020021000B
Superheated steam
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

is produced in the saturated steam drum


temperature is higher than the saturation temperature
is almost dry and contains very little moisture
cannot be used for soot blowers
must have its corresponding pressure increased

010100020021000D
Heat which brings about a change of state
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

can be sensed by a thermometer


is called sensible heat
causes a change of temperature
is called latent heat
is called expansive heat

010100020021000B
Sensible heat
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

is the sum of the latent heat plus heat of evaporation


causes a rise in temperature
cannot be read on a thermometer
is a sensible latent heat of fusion
cannot be removed from a solid

010100020021000C
Wet steam
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

contains only part of the sensible heat of the liquid


contains all the latent heat of vaporization
contains all the sensible heat of the liquid and only
part of the latent heat of vaporization
contains all the sensible and latent heat
cannot exist above atmospheric pressure

010100020021000E
The steam tables indicate the pressures units in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Newtons
kilonewtons
Newtonmetres
kilojoules
kilopascals

010100020021000E
How much heat will be required to convert 65 kg of water at
15 degrees C into saturated steam at 650 kPa?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2,697.31 kJ
2,760.3 kJ
62.99 kJ
282,329.29 kJ
175,325 kJ

117

010100020021000B
What is the sensible heat of 2 kg of saturated steam at
1,100 kPa?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

5563.4 kJ
1562.68 kJ
2,781.7 kJ
184.09 kJ
781.34 kJ

010100020021000B
Find the sensible heat required to raise 16 kg of water at
0 degrees C to the boiling point at 900 kPa.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

596.12 kJ
11,885.28 kJ
742.83 kJ
146.68 kJ
6,752.31 kJ

010100020021000D
If steam at 375 kPa, having a dryness fraction of 96%, is
produced from saturated water at 375 kPa, what amount of heat
must be supplied per kilogram?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2,626.18 kJ/kg
2,140.8 kJ/kg
2,048.45 kJ/kg
2,055.17 kJ/kg
2,000.4 kJ/kg

010100020021000E
How much heat must be supplied to 200 kg of water at 20
degrees C to make steam at 850 kPa which is 87% dry?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2,039.4 kJ
407,880 kJ
1,774.28 kJ
424,627.98 kJ
484,507.6 kJ

010100020021000D
Which of the following is the saturation temperature at 600 kPa?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

160.58
158.0
158.5
158.85
701.3

degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees

Celsius
Celsius
Celsius
Celsius
Celsius

140300020105000143.60 %-.08;2148.1 %-1.0;2766.4 %-2.0;742.83 %-3.0;150 %.01;


From the steam tables find the following:
1)
2)

saturation temperature at 400 kPa,


latent heat of 1 kg of dry saturated steam at 350 kPa,

118
3)
4)
5)

enthalpy of 1 kg of dry saturated steam at 750 kPa,


sensible heat of 1 kg of water at saturation temperature
and a pressure of 900 kPa,
the absolute pressure, if the gauge pressure is 48.7 kPa

Answers:
1) = ____________________ degrees Celsius
2) = ____________________ kJ/kg
3) = ____________________ kJ/kg
4) = ____________________ kJ/kg
5) = ____________________ kPa
140500020042000
Feedwater at a temperature of ### degrees Celsius is supplied
to a boiler operating at ##### kPa.
1)

Calculate the sensible heat required, to raise one kg of


feedwater to the boiling point at that pressure.

2)

Calculate the latent heat required per kg of feed water to


change the feed water to dry saturated steam at this pressure.

Answers:
1) = ____________________ kJ (Round to 3 decimal places)
2) = ____________________ kJ (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
WTEM
PRES
NUM1(10,15,1)
NUM2(29,71,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,NUM2;
DIM TABLE_2(21);TLOAD TABLE_2,17,NUM1;
HFST=TABLE_1(9);
HFWT=TABLE_2(9);
HFGS=TABLE_1(10);
WTEM=TABLE_2(2);
PRES=TABLE_1(2);
ANS1=HFST-HFWT;
ANS2=HFGS;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,0.01
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,0.01
140500020021000
A boiler produces dry saturated steam at ##### kPa from feed
water at ### degrees Celsius. How much heat must be supplied
per kg of feedwater to convert it to steam?
Answer = ____________________ kJ (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
P

119
T
N1(33,69,1)
N2(21,31,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,N1;
DIM TABLE_2(21);TLOAD TABLE_2,17,N2;
HG=TABLE_1(11);
HF=TABLE_2(9);
P=TABLE_1(2);
T=TABLE_2(2);
H=HG-HF;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",H:3,0.01
140500020042000
Feedwater at ### degrees Celsius is supplied to a boiler
operating at ##### kPa.
1)

How much sensible heat is required per kg of feedwater


to raise the temperature of the feedwater to the boiling
point at that pressure?

2)

How much latent heat is required per kg of feedwater, to


convert it into dry saturated steam at this pressure?

Answers:
1) = ____________________ kJ (Round to 3 decimal places)
2) = ____________________ kJ (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
WTEM
PRES
NUM1(20,29,1)
NUM2(37,73,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,NUM2;
DIM TABLE_2(21);TLOAD TABLE_2,17,NUM1;
HFST=TABLE_1(9);
HFWT=TABLE_2(9);
HFGS=TABLE_1(10);
WTEM=TABLE_2(2);
PRES=TABLE_1(2);
ANS1=HFST-HFWT;
ANS2=HFGS;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,0.01
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,0.01
140500020021000
Determine the volume of #.# kg of dry saturated steam
at ##### kPa. (Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = _____________________ cubic metres
.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(1,9.9,0.1)
PRES
NUM1(18,70,1)

120
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,NUM1;
PRES=TABLE_1(2);
SVLM=TABLE_1(5);
VOLM=MASS*SVLM/1000;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",VOLM:3,0.01
140500020021000
Determine the volume of #.# kg of dry saturated steam
at ##### kPa. (Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = _____________________ cubic metres
.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(1,9.9,0.1)
PRES
NUM1(18,70,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,NUM1;
SVLM=TABLE_1(5);
PRES=TABLE_1(2);
VOLM=MASS*SVLM/1000;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",VOLM:3,0.01
140500020021000
Determine the enthalpy of #.# kg of water at ##### kPa.
Answer = _____________________ kJ (Round to 3 decimals)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(1.1,9.9,0.1)
PRES
NUM1(28,68,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,NUM1;
HF11=TABLE_1(9);
PRES=TABLE_1(2);
ENTH=MASS*HF11;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",ENTH:3,0.01
140500020021000
Determine the enthalpy of #.# kg of water at ### degrees
Celsius. (Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ____________________ kJ
.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(1,9.9,0.1)
TMPR
NUM1(11,24,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,17,NUM1;
TMPR=TABLE_1(2);
ENTH=TABLE_1(9);
HEAT=ENTH*MASS;
.RESULTS

121
"Answer =",HEAT:3,.01
140500020084000
Determine the values for steam at ##### kPa, as:
1)
2)
3)
4)

sensible heat of the liquid


latent heat of vaporization
volume of 1 kg of dry saturated steam
saturation temperature

Answers (Round to 3 decimal places):


1) = ____________________ kJ/kg
2) = ____________________ kJ/kg
3) = ____________________ cu m
4) = ____________________ degrees Celsius
.SUBSTITUTIONS
P
N(50,68,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,N;
HF=TABLE_1(9);
HFG=TABLE_1(10);
V=TABLE_1(5);
T=TABLE_1(3);
P=TABLE_1(2);
VOL=V/1000;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",HF:3,0.01
"Answer 2 =",HFG:3,0.01
"Answer 3 =",VOL:3,0.01
"Answer 4 =",T:3,0.01
140500020021000
The total enthalpy of ## kg of steam at ##### kPa is
######.### kJ. Determine the dryness of the steam.
Answer = ____________________ (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(10,20,1)
PRES
ENTH
NUM1(39,61,1)
QLTY(0.7,0.85,0.01)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,NUM1;
HF11=TABLE_1(9);
HFG1=TABLE_1(10);
PRES=TABLE_1(2);
ENTH=MASS*(HF11+QLTY*HFG1);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",QLTY:3,0.01

122

140500020021000
The total enthalpy of ## kg of steam at ##### kPa is
######.### kJ. Determine the dryness fraction of the
steam.
Answer = ____________________ % (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(10,20,1)
PRES
ENTH
NUM1(39,61,1)
FRCT(70,85,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,NUM1;
PRES=TABLE_1(2);
HF11=TABLE_1(9);
HFG1=TABLE_1(10);
ENTH=MASS*(HF11+(FRCT/100)*HFG1);
.RESULTS
"Answer = ",FRCT:3,0.01
140500020021000
The total enthalpy of ## kg of steam at ##### kPa is
######.### kJ. Determine the dryness fraction of the
steam.
Answer = ____________________ % (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(10,20,1)
PRES
ENTH
NUM1(39,61,1)
FRCT(70,85,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,NUM1;
PRES=TABLE_1(2);
HF11=TABLE_1(9);
HFG1=TABLE_1(10);
ENTH=MASS*(HF11+(FRCT/100)*HFG1);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",FRCT:3,0.01

140500020041000
Steam enters a turbine at ##### kPa, dry and saturated.
The steam is exhausted from the turbine at ### kPa and
it is ##% wet. Determine the quantity of heat used
to do work in the turbine. (Round to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ____________________ kJ/kg
.SUBSTITUTIONS
PIN
POUT
WOUT(5,25,1)

123
N(40,60,1)
N1(18,22,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,N;
DIM TABLE_2(21);TLOAD TABLE_2,11,N1;
PIN=TABLE_1(2);
POUT=TABLE_2(2);
HGI=TABLE_1(11);
HFO=TABLE_2(9);
HFGO=TABLE_2(10);
HIN=HGI;
QOUT=(100-WOUT)/100;
HOUT=HFO+QOUT*HFGO;
ANSW=HIN-HOUT;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",ANSW:3,0.01
140500020021000
Determine the quantity of heat required, to raise ##.# kg of
water at ### degrees Celsius, to saturated steam at ##### kPa
and ##.#% dry.
Answer = ____________________ kJ (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(3,20,0.1)
TEMP
PRES
FRCT(70,85,0.1)
NUM1(40,66,1)
NUM2(12,21,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_2(21);TLOAD TABLE_2,11,NUM1;
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,17,NUM2;
HF22=TABLE_2(9);
HFG2=TABLE_2(10);
HFW1=TABLE_1(9);
TEMP=TABLE_1(2);
PRES=TABLE_2(2);
HEAT=MASS*(HF22+HFG2*(FRCT/100)-HFW1);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",HEAT:3,0.01
140500020041000
During a boiler test, a boiler burned #######.# kg of coal
with a heating value of ##### kJ/kg. The boiler generated
##### kg of dry steam at ##### kPa at saturated condition,
from feedwater at ### degrees Celsius. Determine the boiler
efficiency.
Answer = ___________________ % (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
CMAS
HTVL(20000,30000,1000)
SMAS(1000,9000,1000)
PRES
TEMP

124
EFCY(70,85,1)
NUM1(53,70,1)
NUM2(15,24,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,NUM1;
DIM TABLE_2(21);TLOAD TABLE_2,17,NUM2;
PRES=TABLE_1(2);
TEMP=TABLE_2(2);
HF11=TABLE_1(9);
HFG1=TABLE_1(10);
HFW2=TABLE_2(9);
HOUT=SMAS*(HF11+HFG1-HFW2);
HTIN=HOUT/EFCY*100;
CMAS=HTIN/HTVL;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",EFCY:3,0.01
050500020021000
A boiler supplies ##### kJ of heat to the steam when
##### kJ of heat are supplied. Determine the boiler
efficiency. (Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ____________________ %
.SUBSTITUTIONS
HOUT(20000,25000,100)
HIN(33000,34000,100)
.SOLUTIONS
EFF=(HOUT/HIN)*100;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",EFF:3,.01

Basic Concepts About Matter


010100020021000B
The state of matter observed for a particular substance is
dependent on its
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

size and shape


temperature and pressure
weight and length
time and distance
pressure and density

010100020021000E
Matter can best be defined as anything that
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

is visible with defined dimensions


is invisible
occupies space
has shape
has mass and occupies space

010100020021000D
__________ can be described in terms of its states, physical

125
and chemical properties.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

An element
A compound
An atom
Matter
A molecule

010100020021000C
Matter can exist in __________ different physical states.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

one
two
three
four
five

010100020021000B
Transformations between states and properties of a matter are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

impossible
possible
difficult
infrequent
prohibitive

010100020021000C
An example of an extensive property of a substance is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

colour
boiling point
mass
freezing point
density

010100020021000D
Which is not an example of a physical property of a
material?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

its
its
its
its
its

colour
boiling point
odour
reactive properties
density

010100020021000C
An example of a physical property is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

formation of smoke
rusting of steel
melting point of a substance
burning of coal
burning of wood

010100020021000D
An example of a chemical property is the

126

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

formation of steam from water


melting point of a metal
formation of ice from water
formation of rust on a metal
melting point of ice

010100020021000A
The density of water is __________ g/ml.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1
2
3
4
5

010100020021000B
An intensive (physical) property is one that is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

dependent on the
not dependent on
dependent on the
dependent on the
dependent on the

amount of matter
the amount of matter
volume
amount of mass
amount of pressure applied

010100020021000A
An extensive (physical) property is one that is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

dependent on the
not dependent on
dependent on the
dependent on the
dependent on the

amount of matter
the amount of matter
volume
amount of mass
amount of pressure applied

010100020021000A
Which of the following involves a chemical change?
a)

burning natural gas

b)

melting steel

c)

sublimation of CO
2

d)

evaporation of alcohol

e)

the freezing of water

010100020021000E
Which is an example of a physical change in a material?
a)
b)
c)
d)

melting
evaporation
condensation
sublimation

127
e)

all of the above

010100020021000A
When the composition of a substance is not altered but its
state is, this is called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

physical change
chemical change
physical property
chemical property
homogeneous property

010100020021000B
An example of a physical change is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

specific heat
melting of lead
burning of coal
rust on steel
burning of fuel oil

010100020021000D
When the composition of a substance is altered and as a
result it is no longer the same substance, this is called a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

physical property
chemical property
physical change
chemical change
heterogeneous change

010100020021000C
An example of a chemical change is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

melting of lead
steam to water
burning of coal
water to ice
heat of fusion

010100020021000D
If a substance goes through a process that changes its
composition so that it is no longer the same substance, then
it is said that the substance has undergone a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

physical change
heterogeneous change
homogeneous change
chemical change
physical property

010100020021000E
Which of the following represent homogenous mixtures?
a)
b)

an emulsion of oil and water


flue gas

128
c)
d)
e)

a mixture of sand and water


metal alloys
b and d

010100020021000C
Pure substances are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

homogeneous and heterogeneous


homogeneous mixtures
compounds and elements
heterogeneous mixtures
varied in composition

010100020021000D
Any substance composed of two or more elements which are
combined chemically is a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

chemical change
physical change
mixture
compound
molecule

010100020021000E
Any substance which cannot be broken down into other
substances or ingredients by chemical means is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a mixture
a compound
an electron
an atom
an element

010100020021000B
Any substance which consists of different elements or
compounds, or both is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

an atom
a mixture
a solution
an element
a compound

010100020021000E
If there is a material that cannot be separated into any
other individual materials by any chemical means, then it
is called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

an atom
a compound
a mixture
a molecule
an element

010100020021000C
A material made up of two or more elements in chemical

129
combination represents a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

chemical change
physical change
compound
mixture
molecule

010100020021000B
Any material made up of distinct elements, compounds, or
both, not chemically combined with each other represents
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

an atomic structure
a mixture
a molecule
an element compound
a compound

010100020021000C
An example of a homogeneous mixture is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

emulsion
sand and water
flue gas
soda water
acid

010100020021000A
An example of a homogeneous mixture of solid elements is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

metal alloy
stainless steel
concrete
plastic
wood

010100020021000A
An example of a heterogeneous mixture is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

sand and water


soda water
acid
flue gas
metal alloys

010100020021000E
An example of a heterogeneous mixture is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

acid
flue gas
metal alloys
soda water
oil and water emulsion

010100020021000A
The Periodic Table lists all of the known

130

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

elements
mixtures
compounds
matter
substances

010100020021000C
The periodic table
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

arranges elements in equal numbers of columns and rows


arranges elements in descending order of atomic number
reflects the similar chemical properties of some elements
has sixteen distinct groups
provides no information besides the chemical symbol of
the element

Sketching Fundamentals
010100020021000C
In order for a sketch to look like the object it represents
we
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

draw the sketch to scale


use as much detail as possible
make the sketch in proportion
use a number of different views
use colours throughout the sketch

010100020021000E
Relative to sketching detail we should
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

use as much detail as possible


show detail with colour wherever possible
use at least three views of the object
show as many sectional views as possible
use as little detail as possible

010100020021000B
Foundation or centre lines of a sketch should be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

very bold and extended


made at the very beginning of the sketch
made for one view and not extended to other views
broken lines, not continuous
always done to scale

010100020021000D
One of the most important features of the first lines drawn
in a sketch is that they
a)
b)
c)

are to some scale


be very bold
must all show the object outline

131
d)
e)

show the main proportion of the sketch


should show at least three views for projection

010100020021000E
A flow diagram uses __________________ to represent equipment.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

broken lines
thin lines
pictures
coloured dots
symbols

010100020021000D
_____________________ are used to indicate flow
direction in a flow diagram.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Symbols
Signs
Markers
Arrowheads
Points

010100020021000C
In a piping layout, __________ line sketches are used.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

broken
thick
single
light
coloured

010100020021000A
In order to show all sides of an object being sketched the
number of views required is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

six
three
one
two
eight

010100020021000C
When projecting views of an object, the key view is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

bottom view
right side view
front view
plan view
left side view

010100020021000B
The plan view of an object is actually the
a)
b)

front view
top view

132
c)
d)
e)

left side view


right side view
bottom view

010100020021000E
The three most commonly used views in drawing are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

front,
front,
front,
front,
front,

back, side
back, bottom
bottom, side
plan, bottom
plan, side

010100020021000D
Lines used to indicate distance between two points on a
sketch are called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

object lines
extension lines
centre lines
dimension lines
hidden lines

010100020021000A
An ellipse is the result of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

viewing a circle obliquely


scribing an arc with a compass
using a protractor to scribe an arc
scribing an arc of 360 degrees
cutting round bar-stock at 90 degrees

010100020021000D
A protractor is used to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

measure circles
scribe arcs
form ellipses
measure angles
replace tri-squares

010100020021000B
A drawing instrument commonly used to draw parallel lines is
the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

protractor
triangle
compass
rule
scribe

010100020021000D
The vertex is otherwise known as
a)
b)

a 30, 60 degree triangle


any angle formed by two lines

133
c)
d)
e)

the starting point of an ellipse


the point of intersection of two lines
the plan view of an object

010100020021000B
A pentagon has ______________ sides.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

ten
five
six
eight
more than eight

010100020021000A
An octagon has _____________ sides.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

eight
six
five
ten
more than ten

010100020021000A
A sketch section is used to show
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a necessary detail
a particular view of an object
the scale of a sketch
the material of construction
an actual dimension of the sketch

010100020021000E
To show materials of construction in a sketch we can use
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

colour coding as per the NFPA


shading
cross-hatching but not hatching
AS colour coding
section lining

010100020021000C
Section lines used to indicate specific construction material
should generally be drawn at an angle of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

90
30
45
60
15

degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees

010100020021000A
The body responsible for standardizing symbols used to
indicate materials of construction in a sketch is the
a)
b)
c)

American Standards Association


ANSI
ISO

134
d)
e)

ASME
Canadian Standards Association

Writing Fundamentals I - Sentences


010100020021000B
When a sentence is easy to understand at its first reading,
we can say it has good
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

punctuation
clarity
conciseness
correctness
fragmentation

010100020021000C
The term given to using the minimum number of words to
express an idea is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

predication
clarity
conciseness
correctness
agreement

010100020021000A
A sentence is a complete thought and what we say about the
subject is called the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

predicate
sentence fragment
antecedent
conjunction
sentence fusion

010100020021000D
Sentences unable to express a complete thought, otherwise
known as a __________ sentence, are to be avoided.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

possessive
partial
run-on
fragmented
confused

010100020021000E
When two or more complete thoughts are punctuated into one
sentence the sentence is known as a
a)
b)
c)
d)

fragmented sentence
partial sentence
possessive sentence
confused sentence

135
e)

run-on or fused sentence

010100020021000D
The part of a sentence which must agree with its antecedent
in number, gender or person is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

subject
antecedent
verb
pronoun
adjective

010100020021000C
If the subject of a sentence is singular and the verb is
plural, we have what is known as a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

partial sentence
run-on sentence
lack of agreement
confused sentence
fragmented sentence

010100020021000A
A more forceful and concise voice term is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

active
subjective
possessive
responsive
passive

010100020021000D
When we wish to avoid blaming a person we should use
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

an active voice sentence


a recessive voice sentence
an aggressive voice sentence
a passive voice sentence
a neutral sentence

010100020021000C
Words which refer to generalizations, physical objects and
concepts are known as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

abstract words
vague words
concrete words
generalization words
passive words

010100020021000B
An ideal sentence should be approximately
a)
b)

10 to 15 words long
15 to 20 words long

136
c)
d)
e)

25 to 30 words long
5 to 10 words long
30 to 35 words long

010100020021000E
Choose the word below which is the correct representation of a
possession word.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

you're
whose
they're
it's
anybody's

010100020021000B
Words which a computer cannot spell-check are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

antonyms
homonyms
synonyms
pseudonyms
harmonyms

010100020021000C
A punctuation mark not used with pronouns is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

colon
semi-colon
apostrophe
hyphen
comma

010100020021000A
A noun which means "rule" or "law" is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

principle
debt
principal
predicate
mandate

010100020021000B
A punctuation mark which separates complete thoughts in a
sentence is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

hyphen
semi-colon
colon
period
comma

010100020021000A
When introducing formal lists in a report, we normally use a
a)

colon

137
b)
c)
d)
e)

hyphen
double dash
semi-colon
semi-colon and comma

Writing Fundamentals II - Paragraphs


010100020021000B
A good technical paragraph will contain approximately
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

two to four sentences


four to seven sentences
seven to twelve sentences
twelve to fifteen sentences
fifteen to twenty sentences

010100020021000B
Customarily, all good paragraphs have a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

clincher sentence
key sentence
spatial opening
introductory paragraph
summary sentence

010100020021000C
When key information is placed at the beginning of a
paragraph the reader may
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

glean all possible information from the first sentence


be required to read all remaining sentences
read more efficiently
ignore the information contained in the paragraph
not have to make decisions about what is important

010100020021000E
A paragraph development pattern which may be illustrated by a
diamond shape will have
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a large number of sentences


spatial content
a chronological development pattern
cellular content
a clincher sentence

010100020021000B
When paragraph sentences all relate to the same key idea we
say the paragraph has
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

coherence
unity
configuration
parallel structure
repetition

138

010100020021000A
If paragraph ideas are arranged in a logical, orderly
sequence, the paragraph will be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

coherent
spatial
undeveloped
parallel in structure
transitional

010100020021000D
Words used to improve the coherence of a paragraph are
termed
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

adjectives
repetitives
conjunctives
transitions
prepositions

010100020021000E
Of the four methods used to achieve paragraph coherence, the
most complex is the use of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

transitional expressions
pronouns
repetition
comparison and contrast
parallel structure

010100020021000A
The five W's and H used in an introductory paragraph answer
what is commonly called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the journalistic questions


paragraph development
paragraph conclusion
paragraph chronology
article purpose

010100020021000C
The scope, origin and purpose of a report should be covered
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

in the opening paragraph conclusion


in an opening "reference"
within the opening paragraph
by a summary
by a preface

010100020021000A
One difference between an essay and a technical report is
a)
b)
c)
d)

very few readers will read the complete report


essays tend to have a greater variety of readers
authoring a report is easier than authoring an essay
the essay has much more specific detail

139
e)

a report is of greater length

010100020021000E
An acronym used in paragraph development is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

NFPA
CAODC
TOPIC
SCOPE
RENNS

010100020021000C
The five methods of paragraph development are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

spatial, comparison, process, reasons, and chronological


contrast, examples, process, comparison, and reasons
process, reasons & examples, contrast & comparison,
spatial, and chronological
renns, reasons, process, comparison, and contrast
deductive, inductive, process, introductory, and spatial

010100020021000A
Positioning of places or objects during paragraph development
is termed
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

spatial
reasons and examples
comparison
chronology
contrast

010100020021000C
Paragraph development involving similarities and differences
between objects, people or ideas is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

deductive
process
comparison and contrast
inductive
reasons and examples

010100020021000C
When developing a paragraph using contrast and comparison,
the similarities and differences should be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

at least
at least
at least
not more
not more

five of each
two of each
three of each
than six of each
than four of each

010100020021000B
When writing a paragraph on how to make or do something, the
development is called
a)

constructive development

140
b)
c)
d)
e)

process development
instructive development
illustrative development
spatial development

Writing Memos
010100020021000B
The three possible purposes for writing a memo are recording,
acting, and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

requesting
informing
explaining
scheduling
instructing

010100020021000D
Memos are organized effectively for the benefit of the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Alberta Boiler Safety Council


Plant manager
creator of the memo
reader
Occupational Health and Safety Committee

010100020021000B
Memo format is used in written communication
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

to present a recommendation or request an action


for short correspondence between members within an
organization
to convey the year's activities and how the department
met its goals
to order parts for repairing the office machines
as a method of initiating preventive maintenance

010100020021000E
A standard memo has a number of main parts or components, the
number being
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

5
4
7
3
9

010100020021000A
The most important part of a memo is the
a)
b)
c)
d)

body
subject line
receiver identification
sender identification

141
e)

organization identification

010100020021000C
Which of the following is an advantage of using a memo?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

It
It
It
It
It

is easy to write.
is distributed quickly.
provides a written record.
is easy to file.
is very informal.

010100020021000C
The part of a memo which identifies the content and purpose
of a memo is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

body
introduction
subject line
salutation
heading

010100020021000B
The subject line should include
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the main idea of the memo expressed in a sentence


the main subject and purpose of the memo expressed in a
phrase
the purpose of the memo expressed as a complete sentence
the name of the receiver
the date the memo was written

010100020021000A
Memos that convey routine messages should begin with
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the main point


a neutral statement
an attention getter
a question
a reference

010100020021000B
When organizing a memo, they should follow a clear middle,
ending, and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

introduction
beginning
salutation
reference
purpose

010100020021000E
A memo writer should close his memo by inviting questions
and
a)

thanking the receiver for his time

142
b)
c)
d)
e)

requesting a response by some due date or time


ending with a question
always copying another person
leaving a contact number

010100020021000C
The content of effective memos is written
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

in
in
in
in
in

paragraphs
lists
paragraphs and lists
telegraphic style
point form

010100020021000C
The middle of a memo provides the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

objectives
expected action
specifics of the topic
recommendation
purpose

010100020021000E
Often a memo writer does not spend enough time thinking about
the reader, the message, and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the length of the memo


the purpose of the memo
the impact of the memo
the importance of the memo
his/her interaction with the reader

010100020021000D
The first step in memo writing is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

deciding who the memo should be directed to


establishing the length of the memo
deciding who should receive copies of the memo
deciding the main purpose of the memo
estimating the costs involved

010100020021000A
It is important that a memo
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

be adapted to the reader


simply arouses curiosity
not be considered as the final document
contain all the necessary details
be copied to someone else besides the recipient

010100020021000E
When using memo content headings, the number of lines left
above the heading should be

143
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

two
none
four
five
three

010100020021000C
Visual cues such as bolding and underlining will make a memo
format
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

easier to understand
white space more effective
more visible to the reader
easier to follow
have more impact

010100020021000A
Memo white space
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

separates information thereby improving readability


should be minimized
makes the memo more intimidating
will necessitate longer paragraphs
does not affect memo purpose

010100020021000E
When the points in a memo list are sequential
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

closed bullets should be used


open bullets should be used
asterisks should be used
hyphens should be used
numbers should be used

010100020021000B
A memo paragraph should not exceed
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

three to four lines


eight to ten lines
five to eight lines
twelve lines
five lines

010100020021000C
Memo "rivers of white" are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

appealing to readers
the result of unjustified margins
spaces between words
difficult to eliminate
the same as ragged margins

010100020021000E
Which of the following headings is acceptable in a report?
a)

Attention

144
b)
c)
d)
e)

Body
Discussion
Theory
Introduction

010100020021000C
Which sentence is parallel in construction?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

He was
He was
He was
He was
He was
notes.

a good surveyor, but very poor at keeping notes.


a good surveyor, but very poor at notes.
a good surveyor, but a poor note keeper.
good at surveying, but poor at notes.
a good surveyor, but not very good at keeping

Industrial Legislation
010100020021000C
The first Canadian province to enact boiler and pressure
vessel legislation was
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Ontario
Alberta
Quebec
Manitoba
Newfoundland

010100020021000A
A body which was formed in 1919 for the promotion of safety
and uniformity in the construction, installation, and
inspection of boilers and pressure vessels was the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

National Board of Boiler and Pressure Vessel Inspectors


Underwriter Laboratories Canada
ASME
CSA
NFPA

010100020021000C
The purpose of the Safety Codes Act and Engineer's
Regulations is to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

help control the power plant personnel


help plants operating at high efficiency
ensure safe installation and operation of power plants
ensure optimum performance of any boiler operating
ensure proper examinations are conducted

010100020021000B
The main purpose of the Safety Codes Act is
a)
b)
c)
d)

the promotion of efficient combustion


the promotion for safety of life and property
the prevention of air pollution
to promote efficient boiler operation

145
e)

to promote qualified training for operators

010100020021000E
The Act and Regulations do not apply to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a
a
a
a
a

heating plant having


power plant having a
heating plant having
heating plant having
power plant having a

a boiler rating of 20 kW or more


boiler rating of 20 kW or less
a rating of 2,500 kW or more
a boiler rating of 30 kW or less
boiler rating of 10 kW or less

010100020021000E
The code that regulates mechanical refrigeration is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

ASME Section I
ASME Section VII
ASME Section IV
CSA B-51
CSA B-52

010100020021000C
Relative to boilers and pressure vessels, a code which has
not been adopted by all the provinces is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

ASME I through IX
CSA B51
NFPA
ANSI B.31.5
CSA B52

010100020021000A
When a fitting is to be registered within a jurisdiction
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

an application must be made to the Chief Inspector


drawings must be submitted to the ASME
the manufacturer need not have a quality control program
in place
application fees will be waived
the CSA must approve the design

010100020021000C
The province of Alberta currently has various certificates of
competency relative to Power Engineering and boiler
operation, the number being
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

4
6
8
10
12

010100020021000D
Once you have taken over a shift in a high pressure boiler
plant, you may leave the boiler unattended for:
a)

4 hours

146
b)
c)
d)
e)

the time specified in the union agreement


40 minutes
no period of time
15 minute intervals

010100020021000B
The principal reason you should keep a boiler plant log book
or log sheet is to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

satisfy the Boiler Inspector


provide a record of boiler operation and maintenance
provide the operator with an alibi when an accident
occurs
provide proof that the operator visited the boiler room
at the time stated
satisfy the chief engineer

010100020021000A
A Fourth Class Engineer's Certificate of Competency qualifies
the holder to take charge of a power plant not exceeding
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,000
100
500
2,500
5,000

kW
kW
kW
kW
kW

010100020021000C
A fitting as defined in the Act means
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a
a
a
a
a

stack
fan
gauge glass
feedwater regulator
pump

010100020021000D
After an initial inspection of a boiler or pressure vessel,
an Alberta identification number preceded by the letter "A"
in a __________, shall be stamped on the boiler or pressure
vessel.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

square
rectangle
octagon
circle
hexagon

010100020021000E
A candidate for a welder's performance qualification card
a)
b)
c)

must have a high school diploma


must have successfully completed a vocational course
need not be able to write

147
d)
e)

requires at least three years practical experience as a


welder
must first pass a performance qualification test

010100020021000E
A welder Performance Qualification test
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

may result in the destruction of completed test coupons


will last the lifetime of the welder, if passed
is usually not required by welders working on boilers and
pressure vessels
is often the most expensive of all examinations,
inspections, or both
must be completed before the welder obtains his or her
performance qualification card

010100020021000B
When applying to write a certificate of qualification
examination the candidate, when applicable, may have to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

attend a teaching institute as a full-time day student


be in possession of the next lower class of certificate
enclose an examination fee of at least $100.00
pass a medical examination
pass both a written and an oral examination

010100020021000B
Expected conduct during an examination for a certificate of
competency is stated in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

CSA B51
the Engineers' Regulations of Alberta
Alberta's Safety Codes Act
CSA B52
the NFPA

010100020021000D
Definitions such as shift engineer, chief engineer, and
fireman are found in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Alberta's Safety Codes Act


the ASME code Section VIII
CSA B51
Alberta's Engineers' Regulations
municipal codes

010100020021000B
Heating boiler means
a)
b)
c)
d)

a boiler where steam is produced at a pressure greater


than 103 kPa
a boiler where steam is produced at a pressure of 103 kPa
or less
a boiler where water is heated to a pressure exceeding
1,100 kPa and a temperature of 121 degrees Celsius
a boiler in which only hot water is produced

148
e)

a boiler which does not require a sight glass

010100020021000A
R-11 refrigerant belongs to the following group of
refrigerants:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Group
Group
Group
Group
Group

A1
A2
A3
B1
B2

WHMIS - Part I - Classification of Controlled Products


010100020021000C
Pan-Canadian law means jurisdiction
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

in all areas of the country except municipalities


in off-shore areas only
in all provinces and territories
over federal areas only
in foreign countries

010100020021000A
Displaying an appropriate hazard symbol is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

an important part of the supplier label


the responsibility of the employee
done only after a decanting process
necessary during transportation only
necessary no matter how small the quantity

010100020021000D
The final component of the WHMIS system is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the supplier label


an MSDS
a workplace label
employee training
a decanting procedure

010100020021000A
A controlled product which is exempt from WHMIS would be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

materials regulated under the Pest Control Products Act


a compressed gas having a critical temperature of less
than 50 degrees C
any liquid having a flash point of less than 37.8 degrees
C
any product not under control of the TDG Act
a product prone to spontaneous combustion

010100020021000B
The application of WHMIS is primarily governed by the

149
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Occupational Safety and Health Admin (OSHA)


Controlled Products Regulation (CPR)
American National Standards Institute (ANSI)
Hazardous Products Act (HPA)
Canadian Centre for Occupational Health and Safety
(CC OHS)

010100020021000E
WHMIS contains three basic components:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

employee training
governing legislation
confidentiality of information
supplier and workplace labels
material safety data sheets
1,
2,
2,
1,
1,

2,
4,
3,
3,
4,

3
5
4
4
5

010100020021000A
Fully exempted materials from the controlled products
regulation include:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

decanted products
tobacco and tobacco products
wood and wood products
explosives
manufactured articles
2,
2,
1,
1,
3,

3,
4,
2,
3,
4,

5
5
3
4
5

010100020021000C
Controlled products are not covered under WHIMIS regulations
when subject to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Hazardous Materials Information Review Regulation (HMIRR)


Controlled Products Regulation (CPR)
Transportation of Dangerous Goods Regulation (TDGR)
Hazardous Products Act (HPA)
Ingredient Disclosure List Regulation (IDLR)

010100020021000B
The Material Safety Data Sheet is supplied by the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Occupational Health and Safety Committee


supplier of the controlled product
Federal Government
plant supervisor
person using the controlled product

150

010100020021000D
Whether or not a product is deemed to be a controlled product
is determined by the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Ingredient Disclosure List


Transportation of Dangerous Goods Regulation
Hazardous Materials Information Review Regulation
Hazardous Products Act / Controlled Products Regulation
Occupational Health and Safety Committee

010100020021000A
According to WHMIS Legislation, hazardous waste requires:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

identification
marking
worker education
specific supplier labels
MSDS
1,
2,
1,
2,
3,

2,
3,
4,
4,
4,

3
4
5
5
5

010100020021000E
Infectious material is a controlled product of Class
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

B
A
C
F
D

010100020021000C
A Class "A" product would be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a liquid with a flash point of less than 37.8 degrees C


a solid which ignites readily and burns with a
self-sustaining flame
a product which is normally a gas below 50 degrees C
any dangerous goods Classed as 4.1 under IDG Regulations
dibenzoyl peroxide

010100020021000B
An example of a Class "C" oxidizing material would be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

charcoal starter cubes


butyl hydroperoxide
calcium carbide
sodium cyanide
hydrazine

010100020021000E

151
Along with the six classes of controlled products there are
__________ related WHIMS hazard symbols.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

6
3
9
7
8

010100020021000E
A Class "B" Division 5 hazardous material would be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

gasoline
diesel fuel
reactive flammables
compressed hydrogen
flammable aerosol

010100020021000B
Class D controlled products has two Divisions which are
subdivided because of their
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

flammability
toxicity
explosiveness
oxidizing abilities
reactivity

010100020021000B
The common way of expressing corrosiveness is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a neutralising number
pH
alkalinity
acidity
turbidity

010100020021000D
Sulphuric acid, such as found in a car battery, is a strong
acid with a pH value near to the value
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

7
9
14
0
8

010100020021000A
Under Division 3, Class D, Biohazardous Infectious Materials,
risk Group I is the __________ risk group.
a)
b)
c)
d)

low
moderate
high
very high

152
e)

non

010100020021000C
To be classified as a flammable liquid it must have a flash
point of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

more
less
less
more
less

than
than
than
than
than

37.8 degrees C
50 degrees C
37.8 degrees C
50 degrees C
21 degrees C

010100020021000B
The term LC
refers to a
50
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

lethal dose which results in death of 50% of the test


population
lethal concentration which resulted in death of 50% of
the test population
lethal concentration diluted to half strength and
supplied to the test population
legal exposure in which 50% of the test population
survived
legal concentration in which 50% of the test population
survived

WHMIS - Part II - Labelling of Controlled Products


010100020021000D
Supplier labels are normally
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

square
colour coded
bordered with a solid line
prepared by the manufacturer of the product
either French or English, not both

010100020021000C
The product identifier is taken to mean
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the supplier list of risks associated with a particular


product
a complete list of contents in the product
the actual product name, code, or brand name
the actual product uses
the actual manufacturer of the product

010100020021000B
Who must label the packages containing controlled products?
a)
b)
c)

the industrial hygienist


the supplier of the products
any member of the Occupational Health and Safety
Committee

153
d)
e)

the consignee (receiver of the goods)


the plant owner

010100020021000A
The distinct WHMIS border is required on
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the supplier label


the worksite label
all decanted controlled products
controlled products less than 10 kg
the material safety data sheet

010100020021000C
A workplace label
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

must have a hatched border


is always red in colour
is almost always required when decanting occurs
need show only risk phrases
consists of two main parts

010100020021000C
Correct use of a workplace label is mainly the responsibility
of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the employer
the transporter
the employee
plant safety committee
the end user

010100020021000D
The workplace label requires identification in these specific
areas:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

reference to MSDS
WHMIS hazard symbols
basic risk phrase
product identifier
distinctive hatched border
1,
1,
2,
1,
2,

4,
2,
3,
3,
4,

5
4
4
4
5

010100020021000B
Relative to graphics, a supplier label must
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

be square
be proportional to the graphics
show the graphics in colour
have the graphics covering at least 60% of the label
be in landscape format

154
010100020021000D
The first indicator of a product's hazard is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

MSDS
workplace label
colour of the container
supplier label
supplier identifier

010100020021000A
A supplier label can
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

be replaced by a workplace label


have a solid border at certain times
show no more than three symbols
be removed at any time
never be rectangular

010100020021000B
On first sight, one means of identifying that a WHMIS
legislated controlled product is present in a supplier's
container is the
a)
b)

hazard signs attached to the container


rectangular hatched border surrounding specific
information about the product
distinctive WHMIS hazard symbols enclosed in a bold solid
rectangular border
square hatched border containing hazard symbols
bold statement referring to the material safety data
sheet

c)
d)
e)

010100020021000E
Which are the 3 immediate warning signs on the supplier
label?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

high risk phrases


the hazard symbol for acute toxicity
the distinct WHMIS border
the product identification
the hazard symbol for corrosive materials
1,
1,
1,
2,
2,

2,
3,
4,
3,
3,

3
4
5
4
5

010100020021000D
Supplier labels normally must contain information in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

9
8
4
7
3

specific
specific
specific
specific
specific

areas
areas
areas
areas
areas

155

010100020021000C
Colour coding in the workplace can be used and colours must
be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

as per WHMIS colour stipulations


as per NFPA colour stipulations
any colour as long as they are fully understood by the
workers
according to CSA stipulations
relative to the original container colour

010100020021000B
During manufacture of a controlled product which is slated
for export, the first WHMIS item covered would be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

container colour
a workplace label attachment
a supplier label attachment
an MSDS attachment
an export permit

010100020021000C
To comply with WHMIS legislation, supplier labels must be
provided in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

English only
French and English on the same label
French and English on the same label or both a French and
English version separately
the language of majority at the worksite
French and English on separate labels

010100020021000A
As an exception, products at the workplace destined for
export require
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a workplace label only


a supplier label only
no labels since they fall under TDG
both a workplace label and a supplier label
a material safety data sheet

010100020021000E
Which of the following is a risk phrase?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

keep in a cool place


use only in properly ventilated area
wear eye protection
avoid contact with eyes
highly flammable

010100020021000A
When bulk shipments are made, the product hazard information
can be sent to the purchaser

156
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

in
on
on
by
by

writing
a workplace label
the Bill of Lading
word of mouth
telephone

010100020021000E
The colour(s) which is/are reserved for explosives and not
used on WHMIS symbols is/are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

green/white
yellow
red
blue
orange

010100020021000D
The labelling requirements for a 1 litre container of
controlled product for use by one worker during a shift are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a worksite label containing 3 necessary elements


no label required
hazardous symbols only
a clear identifier or product ID
reference to the MSDS

010100020021000E
If an actual supplier label cannot readily be affixed to a
container of a controlled product, such as a very small vial
or cylinder, a _________ may be used on the container
instead.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

red mark
black ribbon
letter X
cross-hatched line
tag

WHMIS - Part III - Material Safety Data Sheets


010100020021000D
An MSDS consists of a number of basic areas, the number
being
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

6
5
12
9
7

010100020021000B
A controlled product may enter the body by ingestion,
inhalation and
a)

through an ear

157
b)
c)
d)
e)

through the skin


tract sensitization
synergistically
through dead cells such as hair, nails, etc.

010100020021000E
Propane has a vapour density of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1.0
0.6
1.6
0.6
1.6

and
and
and
and
and

will
will
will
will
will

rise
rise
rise
fall
fall

in
in
in
in
in

air
air
air
air
air

010100020021000B
The LFL and UFL of natural gas are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

5 and 10 percent
2 and 7 percent
3 and 8 percent
20 and 27 percent
9 and 38 percent

010100020021000D
An MSDS must be updated
a)
b)
c)
d)

annually
every 5 years
at every product shipment
every time there is a major change or regardless every 3
years
every 3 years

e)

010100020021000A
Acute toxicity is best described by the term
a)
b)
c)
d)

immediately dangerous materials


substances that have chronic effects on a worker's health
toxicity caused by bacteria and viruses
materials whose effects are not readily noticeable until
years after exposure
poisonous products entering into the body by ingestion

e)

010100020021000E
Items disclosed on the MSDS under physical data include:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
a)
b)
c)
d)

flash point
boiling point
auto ignition temperature
pH
hazardous decomposition products
degree of skin irritation
1,
4,
1,
1,

3, 5, 6
5, 6
3
2, 4

158
e)

2, 4

010100020021000A
Which of the following is correct?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

All areas of the MSDS must be completed


MSDS must be at least 3 pages long
Only six areas must be completed
MSDS must be on a very specific form
Only the areas corresponding to the hazard symbols need
be completed

010100020021000A
A controlled product of LD
LD

of 60 mg/kg is

of 10 mg/kg when compared to an


50

50
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

more
more
less
less
less

lethal
flammable
lethal
flammable
reactive

010100020021000D
The OEL of H S is
2
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

100 ppm
30 degrees C
30 minutes
10 ppm
15 minutes

010100020021000D
Which of the following poses the greatest danger?
a)

LD

of 1,400 mg/kg of body weight


50

b)

LD

of 7 mg/kg of body weight

c)

LD

of 20 mg/kg of body weight

50
50

d)

LD

of 0.1 mg/kg of body weight

e)

LD

of 1,401 mg/kg of body weight

50
50

010100020021000C
For products to burn they must first be in the __________
state.

159

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

solid
semi-solid
vapour
liquid
semi-liquid

010100020021000D
Flammable liquids and gases have very specific ranges over
which they will burn if mixed with
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

another flammable liquid


natural gas
diesel fuel
air
hydrogen sulphide

010100020021000A
The term "respiratory tract sensitizer" relates to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

toxicological properties
physical data
reactivity data
preventive measures
hazardous ingredients

010100020021000B
Training programs must be evaluated
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

semi-annually
annually
bi-annually
every three years
quarterly

010100020021000C
Proof of a successful controlled products program is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

workers having certificates of qualification


workers having seminar/course diplomas
workers working safely and understanding controlled
products
an in-place safety policy
records of safety audits

010100020021000D
The main purpose of the HMIRA is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

ensuring facility MSDS are kept up to date


keeping the CAS current
producing items for the IDL
protecting manufacturer formulae
evaluating controlled product marketing procedures

010100020021000D

160
An exemption granted by the Hazardous Materials Information
Review Act lasts
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

3
1
5
3
2

months
year
years
years
years

010100020021000C
A proper employee/worker training program is best
demonstrated by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

passing an OHS administered test with a minimum of 60%


successful completion of a company program followed by a
series of examinations submitted to WHMIS personnel
proof of the worker's ability to work safety with and
understand procedures regarding controlled products and
systems
a record of the worker's absenteeism and number of
accident reports
random tests conducted without prior warning

010100020021000E
The Hazardous Materials Information Review Act (HMIRA) was
developed to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

create policy that would be passed through legislation


review new products and determine toxicity lists with IDL
safeguard against information not being provided on and
MSDS
review government policy and amend information passed on
to consumers as change developed
protect manufacturer's secret formulas from being copied
by others

010100020021000D
Protection of your health and safety while working with
controlled products is the responsibility of the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Hazardous Materials Information Review Committee


Occupational Health and Safety Committee
Plant Administration personnel
workers themselves
Plant Safety Committee

The Costs and Effects of Workplace Injuries


010100020021000E
An annual report containing injury information is filed by
the
a)
b)

AEPEA (Alberta Environment Protection & Enhancement Act)


AOHSA (Alberta Occupational Health & Safety Act)

161
c)
d)
e)

OHSM (Occupational Health & Safety Magazine)


ADL (Alberta Department of Labour)
AWCB (Alberta Workers Compensation Board)

010100020021000A
Alberta Workers' Compensation Board records indicate that the
approximate average number of workplace fatalities occurring
in the province may be about
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2 per week
2 per month
290 per year
2,000 per decade
50 per year

010100020021000D
A factor that has a large impact on the outcome of a worker's
post accident recovery is his
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

pre-accident safety record


life style off the job
support received from the immediate family
attitude before and after the accident
current financial situation

010100020021000E
During worker rehabilitation the supervisor should
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

have as little contact as possible with the injured


worker
not inform the worker of investigation progress
let the worker know the investigators are finding fault
not ask the worker for assistance in determining
prevention methods
assist the worker in seeking and obtaining support
services

010100020021000A
An employer must ensure the health and safety of his workers
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

reasonably and practicably


before their probationary period expires
only during times of production
except during company off-site activities
as per the group life insurance policy

010100020021000B
As soon as is practical after an incident the employer must
notify the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

AEPEA
AOH&S
IAPA
WHMIS
NFPA

162
010100020021000C
Individual responsibilities for health and safety must be
borne by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

management only
employees only
all persons relative to the workplace
owners only
owners and the government

010100020021000C
A high proportion of reported injuries comes from the age
group of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

25
30
16
45
55

to
to
to
to
to

30
45
25
55
65

010100020021000E
During an injury related investigation by an Occupational
Health and Safety officer, work being done at the site may be
suspended
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

indefinitely
until the officer arrives at the scene
for a maximum of 48 hours
long enough to attend to the victim
until any serious safety hazards are corrected

010100020021000B
The Occupational Health and Safety magazine, "The Last
Resort", reports on
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

health hazards relative to working with dangerous goods


successful prosecutions under the Act
jail sentences imposed to those who contravene the Act
fines imposed to those individuals who contravene the Act
company business licenses revoked for failure to comply
with the Act

010100020021000C
The maximum penalty for an OH&S offence is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

$150,000.00
one year in
$150,000.00
$100,000.00
$250,000.00

fine
jail
fine and one year in jail
fine and one year in jail
fine

010100020021000A
Maximum penalties for a first offence under the Occupational
Health and Safety Act are set at

163
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

$150,000 fine or one year in jail or both


one year in jail
$150,000 fine
one year probation
one year's job suspension

010100020021000C
The first step an employer should take to reduce the negative
effects of workplace injuries is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

employ an on-site nurse


ensure supervisors know how to contact emergency
assistance
have an effective health and safety program in place
establish an appropriate number of trained first aid
personnel
inform his or her supervisors of the importance of
maintaining close contact with any worker who may become
injured

010100020021000D
Whose responsibility is it to ensure that an emergency plan is
in place to deal with incidents where injuries may occur?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Safety Committee
Occupational Health and Safety Committee
employee
employer
Boiler inspector

010100020021000C
When a worker is injured on the job, his or her recovery and
eventual return to work may be most affected by his or her
relationship with
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the
the
his
his
the

boiler inspector
WCB officer
or her supervisor
or her family
Occupational Health and Safety Officer

Personal Protective Equipment


010100020021000C
Relative to personal protective equipment it is the
employer's responsibility to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

supply, ensure usage, and maintain


wear, care for, and maintain
supply and ensure usage
supply only
supply, ensure usage, care for, and maintain

010100020021000D

164
Shatter resistant glass or plastic applies to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

face shields
goggles
welding goggles
safety glasses
welding helmet lenses

010100020021000E
A personal safety item still made out of asbestos is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

apron
steel toed shoe
shin protector
elbow protector
glove

010100020021000B
The type of breathing apparatus that incorporates a 5 minute
cylinder to allow the user to escape a contaminated area is
the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

supplied air breathing apparatus


remote air supply breathing apparatus
filter type respirator
gas mask
self-contained breathing apparatus

010100020021000E
Employers must ensure employees wear self-contained breathing
apparatus' when
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

entering
handling
fighting
entering
there is
content

a coal bunker for repairs


toxic chemical dusts
fires in the plant
any confined spaces
a danger to life or health due to reduced oxygen

010100020021000B
A personal protective device which can readily cause
infection is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

steel toed shoe


ear plug
steel reinforced glove
welding goggle
ear muff

010100020021000A
One of the most important requirements of any breathing
apparatus is
a)
b)
c)

proper training prior to use


that the user be clean shaven daily
they be self sanitizing

165
d)
e)

they comply with ASME codes


face mask pressure be maintained slightly negative

010100020021000D
The statement: "An employer shall establish a code of
practice governing the selection, maintenance and use of
respiratory protective equipment." is made in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

CSA B51
NFPA 295
OH&S Act
General Safety Regulations 99
CSA Z94.4

010100020021000A
Canadian Standards Association Z94.4 covers
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the selection of respirators


the use of safety gloves
hearing protection
footwear
safety committees

010100020021000C
To check the tightness of a gas mask
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

read the instruction book for the gas mask


ask for information from the last person using it
pinch the hose and breath deeply to suck the mask against
the face
check the maintenance book
pressurize it with nitrogen

010100020021000D
The filter type respirators will effectively protect from
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

all poisonous gases


toxic vapours
hydrogen sulphide
mineral dusts
chemical fumes

010100020021000C
Positive pressure regulators connected to the face-piece of a
breathing apparatus ensures
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the user remains awake and alert


cleanliness of the mask
a positive pressure to keep toxic air out
total body protection
a minimum air supply for 60 minutes

010100020021000A
Respiratory equipment that is not used routinely but is kept
for emergency use must be inspected

166
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

monthly
yearly
semi-annually
weekly
daily

010100020021000D
A piece of safety equipment responsible for protecting
against harmful chemical fumes is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

safety goggles
nose plugs
face shields
gas masks
filter type respirators

010100020021000B
Paint should never be applied to hard hats because
a)
b)
c)
d)

toxic fumes may be released


it will weaken the plastic
hats are already painted by the manufacturer
different colours normally indicate varying job positions
in the plant
anything, even paint, adds to the overall weight of the
hard hat making it uncomfortable

e)

010100020021000D
A breathing air supply may be required by employees:
1.
2.

when regenerating a softener


when entering vessels or ducting that have contained
anything other than air
when entering an electrostatic precipitator that has
been bypassed for repairs
in a vessel that has been purged with nitrogen

3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,
1,
2,
2,
2,

3
3, 4
3
3, 4
4

010100020021000D
Hard hat suspension minimum clearance is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

0.5 inch
0.75 inch
1 inch
1.25 inches
1.5 inches

010100020021000C
The minimum oxygen partial pressure allowed before breathing
apparatus is required is

167

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

5 kPa
22 kPa
18 kPa
15 kPa
13 kPa

010100020021000D
A Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus must have a capacity of
at least
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

15
60
45
30
10

minutes
minutes
minutes
minutes
minutes

010100020021000C
The pressure in a fully charged Self-Contained Breathing
Apparatus is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

31.03 kPa
101.3 kPa
31,030 kPa
10,130 kPa
18,500 kPa

010100020021000E
A disease caused by mineral dust that converts healthy lung
tissue into fibrous or scar tissue is known as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

cystitis
neurosis
laryngitis
nephritis
silicosis

Isolation of Mechanical and Electrical Equipment


010100020021000C
The employer must be willing and prepared to bear the cost of
necessary procedures and not allow any sort of shortcuts when
it comes to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

annual shutdowns
Safety Committee formation
isolation of equipment
equipment overhaul scheduling
production

010100020021000B
Relative to equipment isolations, the items which may require
regular updating as work progresses are the

168
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Do Not Operate tags


various types of permits
safety meeting schedules
turnaround schedules
shift schedules

010100020021000E
If a person is not sure a piece of equipment is safe to work
on, he or her should
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

ask his or her foreman if it is safe


check the isolator's name on the permit
check with a co-worker before proceeding
rely fully on the permit information
ask a qualified worker to indicate and explain the points
of isolation

010100020021000D
Safety meetings should routinely be held
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

daily
weekly
bi-weekly
monthly
bi-monthly

010100020021000D
When isolating a steam turbine driven centrifugal pump
you should first
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

open the breaker


close the turbine exhaust steam valve
close the pump suction valve
close the high pressure steam supply valve
open the turbine casing drain

010100020021000D
Ensuring the complete isolation of a piece of equipment prior
to maintenance is the responsibility of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the Plant Safety Committee


the Operations Department
the Maintenance Department
both the Operating and Maintenance Departments
the Plant Manager

010100020021000B
When isolating an electric motor driven pump you should first
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

close the pump suction valve


open the motor breaker
ensure the pump is drained
close the high pressure steam supply valve
close the pump discharge valve

010100020021000B

169
Work permits issued to work on isolated equipment require the
signature of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the
the
the
the
the

shift foreman
isolator and the worker involved
Plant Manager
Operating Department
Maintenance Department

010100020021000B
Blind flanges used for isolation
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

can be prepared as work progresses


must be prepared ahead of time
do not need a tag number
must be constructed of .3 cm #11 US gauge steel
are only required when there are no isolation valves

010100020021000A
After completing the isolation of equipment
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

you
you
you
you
the

must enter the completed isolations in the log book


can start work immediately
require no further checks
must have a co-worker verify your isolation
Safety Committee must ok prior to work commencement

010100020021000B
In order to protect driven equipment from damage
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

ensure the discharge valve is closed first


the driver must be isolated first
the belts must be removed first
a lock must be placed on the drain valve first
the "energy source" must be isolated after the driver

010100020021000C
The best possible method of ensuring a boiler is fully
isolated is to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

complete a Do Not Operate tag


remove electrical fuses at the electrical source
install blind flanges wherever required
close all fuel supply valves
close the main Non Return Valve

010100020021000A
In addition to opening the breaker when isolating electrical
equipment the isolator should
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

remove the fuses


tell the maintenance worker of his or her actions
isolate the driver as well
leave the breaker panel door open to indicate from a
distance it is isolated
none of the above

170

010100020021000E
A "closed drain" is
a)
b)
c)

a drain line with a single isolating valve


a drain which has been blanked off by a blind flange
any drain where the effluent is not considered to be
harmful to life, property, or the environment
defined as any drain line left normally in the closed
position
a drain line having two isolating valves in the line

d)
e)

010100020021000E
When isolating a motor for maintenance you should
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

open the breaker


place a DO NOT OPERATE tag on the breaker
install a lockout clamp on the breaker handle
remove the fuses
do all of the above

010100020021000C
The best possible method of completely isolating a steam
boiler would be to
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

close the boiler water and steam supply valves


isolate the air supply
close all chemical lines to the boiler
place blind flanges in all steam header mains
isolate the water treatment demineralized tanks
isolate all fuel supply equipment
1,
1,
1,
2,
1,

3,
2,
2,
3,
3,

4,
3,
3,
4,
4,

5
4
6
6
5, 6

Confined Space Entry


010100020021000E
Confined space means only enclosed or partially enclosed
space having
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

harmful gases, vapours, mist, or dust


no way out
limited room for tools and equipment
elevated air temperatures
restricted entry and exit

010100020021000D
One of the least common places to find a confined space would
be in a
a)

pulp mill

171
b)
c)
d)
e)

grain elevator
power plant
person's home
brewery

010100020021000C
Confined space entry will apply to areas which lack
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

ambient air temperatures


proper lighting
proper air ventilation
a simple means of entry
sufficient space for a man to enter

010100020021000A
Requirements for entry into confined spaces is governed by
the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Occupational Health and Safety Regulation


Boiler and Pressure Vessels Regulation
Workers' Compensation Act
Provincial Firemans Regulation
Confined Space Entry Regulation

010100020021000B
Confined space entry rules apply where the work in progress
may cause
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

too much noise to withstand


equipment being used to become a hazard
the worker to refuse to perform his job
an accident
moisture vapours to be released in the atmosphere

010100020021000E
The minimum level of oxygen in a confined space area is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

8%
10%
15%
18%
20%

010100020021000E
A confined space may easily become a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

difficult place to manoeuvre in


breeding ground for biohazardous infectious substances
noisy entrapment
healthy environment
life threatening environment

010100020021000D
A worker in a confined space that is being ventilated also

172
requires
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a self-contained breathing apparatus


an approved fire extinguisher
permission from OH&S to be there
to be in communication with another worker nearby
constant monitoring of the oxygen

010100020021000C
A person attending to a worker in a confined space may leave
his or her station
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

to retrieve tools or equipment for the worker


only long enough to go to the washroom
only when properly relieved by another qualified person
for ten minutes every hour
to summon help if the worker becomes unconscious

010100020021000B
Before entering any confined space, it is good practice to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

wear light clothing due to extreme temperatures in


enclosed areas
plan the entry using a confined entry space check list
estimate how long you will be there
inform the Plant Manager of your whereabouts
verify the operator's isolation points through the Plant
Safety Committee

010100020021000A
When tests indicate harmful gases are present in a confined
space where a worker must enter, he or she must
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

wear approved respiratory protective equipment


wait until the gases dissipate
receive special permission from OH&S before entering
wear a safety belt and lifeline
make sure a worker is stationed outside to assist in case
of emergency

Handling and Storage of Gases


010100020021000A
Portable gas cylinder capacity
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

must take into account liquid expansion due to


temperature change
is expressed by the tare weight stamped on the cylinder
is a function of the pressure within the unit at ambient
temperature
can be reduced after an inspection
may be increased on approval from the DOT or CTC

010100020021000D

173
The serial number of a cylinder cannot be duplicated and is
registered and maintained by the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Department of Transport
Canadian Transport Commission
Boilers and Pressure Vessels Committee
Bureau of Explosives
Canadian Standards Association

010100020021000D
The most easily damaged part of the gas container is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

foot ring
valve cap
safety valve
cylinder valve
regulator

010100020021000B
Gas cylinder valves are normally constructed of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

cast iron
brass
stainless steel
bronze
the same material as the cylinder

010100020021000A
Before disconnecting an empty cylinder from a manifold
system
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

close the cylinder valve to prevent air entering the


cylinder
obtain a "buddy" to ensure your safety
check the area for gases with an analyzer
unchain the cylinder
crack the connecting joint in order to purge it of excess
gases

010100020021000B
Gas cylinders should be stored upright in order to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

minimize space requirements


avoid liquefied product from escaping
keep them from rolling during transportation
lessen the chance of back injury during movement
enhance proper identification

010100020021000E
In order to prevent the formation of explosive mixtures,
oxygen and acetylene cylinders should be
a)
b)
c)
d)

stored in different buildings


stored at least 10 metres apart
stored in different confinements within a building
kept segregated at all times

174
e)

stored at least 6 metres apart

010100020021000E
Gas cylinders shall not be placed below ground level except
with permission from the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Canadian Transport Commission


Department of Transport
Boilers and Pressure Vessels Committee
Bureau of Explosives
Canadian Standards Association

010100020021000E
Gas cylinders are usually stored
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

inside, close to its consuming equipment


in a well heated room
with all fittings lightly oiled or greased
below ground level
upright and firmly secured

010100020021000D
Oxygen and acetylene cylinders should be stored
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

in a warm dry place


together whenever possible
at least 3 metres apart
at least 6 metres apart
inside the building next to the consuming equipment

010100020021000D
A cylinder valve cap
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

will prevent gas from escaping should the cylinder valve


leak
must be in place when the tare weight is being measured
threads must never be lubricated
prevents the cylinder valve from damage
will prevent the cylinder valve from breaking off should
the cylinder fall over

010100020021000D
A cylinder foot ring
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

is installed on the cylinder to permit "foot rolling" of


the cylinder
has a diameter 1.5 times the cylinder diameter
prevents the cylinder from being stored horizontally
protects the bottom and lower section of the cylinder
is removed during transportation

010100020021000C
Top guard rings are used in place of
a)

vapour values

175
b)
c)
d)
e)

pressure relief valves


cylinder valve caps
regulators
foot rings

010100020021000B
Gas cylinder vapour valves only allow product flow
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

if the pressure rises above the maximum allowable amount


when a hose is connected
when the vapour pressure drops
in one single direction
in extreme emergency cases

010100020021000A
Cylinders deformed by fire are usually
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

destroyed
cleaned and re-painted before returning for use
repaired and returned to service
repressurized and returned for use
cleaned, pressure tested, and then returned to service

010100020021000B
The most frequent and common method of cylinder inspection
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

does not involve record-keeping


is the visual inspection by a qualified person
involves pressurizing the cylinder to twice its working
pressure
will not result in the cylinder being destroyed or
confiscated
is the hydrostatic test

010100020021000A
A gas cylinder hydrostatic test will
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

result in a new test date being stamped on the cylinder


mean the cylinder is subjected to a pressure of twice its
maximum allowable working value
mean the cylinder is subjected to a pressure of one and
one half times its working pressure
remove any dents the cylinder may contain
indicate whether or not the unit was exposed to very high
temperatures

010100020021000C
Leak tests on cylinder connections should be done with
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a
a
a
a
a

sulphur candle
halide lamp
soap solution
litmus solution
dye penetrant test

010100020021000A

176
When a gas cylinder is filled with water and pressurized to
twice its working pressure, the test conducted is known as a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

hydrostatic test
dead weight test
tensile test
water jacket test
relief valve test

010100020021000E
Gas cylinders that have been filled with liquid, immersed in
water, and pressurized to two times the working pressure are
said to have been subjected to a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

hydrostatic test
dead weight test
relief valve test
tensile test
water jacket test

Handling of Hydrocarbon Fluids


010100020021000B
Fuel/air mixtures outside of the flammable range
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

can ignite spontaneously


cannot burn or explode
may explode but not burn
must have a source of ignition to burn
will burn only when above the flammable limit

010100020021000A
If the fuel amount is below the lower flammable limit, the
mixture
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

is said to be lean
is explosive
can be called rich
must have a source of ignition
will not burn rapidly

010100020021000D
In order for hydrocarbons to burn, the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

mixture must be lean


air/fuel mixture should be above the upper flammable
limit
fuel/air mixture must be rich
fuel must be vaporised
temperature must be below the boiling temperature

010100020021000C
Iron and hydrogen sulphide will react to form

177
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a non-combustible substance
a very high ignition temperature substance
pyrophoric iron sulphide
a very narrow flammable limit range substance
hydroferric acid

010100020021000B
The flash point of a liquid is the temperature at which
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

all molecular vibration will cease


it will form a gas and burn
spontaneous combustion will occur
the liquid will burn
the vapours become inert

010100020021000B
A flammable limit of a fuel/air mixture is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

no indication of its combustion properties


the percentage by volume of fuel in the mixture
the percentage by volume of air in the mixture
the percentage by mass of fuel in the mixture
the percentage by weight of fuel in the mixture

010100020021000E
Methane when combined with air has a flammable limit of
between
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

4.3
0.7
1.1
2.2
5.0

- 45.5%
- 5.0%
- 7.5%
- 9.5%
- 15.0%

010100020021000E
Washing steam should enter a tank car or tank truck slowly so
as to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

prevent injury to the worker


allow for proper ventilation of the unit
prevent massive condensation of the steam within the tank
flush the tank gradually
reduce the risk of static electricity spark

010100020021000C
About 90% of loading-rack tank fires are a result of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

applying flushing steam too rapidly


workers smoking
improper switch loading procedures
not grounding the vehicles
loading vehicles not suitable for the product

010100020021000D
Loading rack fires are often caused

178

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

by sparks from electrical equipment


from the catalytic effect of fresh metallic surfaces
from cigarettes or matches
when products with high flash points are loaded after
products with low flash points
by hot steam lines

010100020021000D
When loading containers with LPG products, the gauge rod
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

releases moisture from the bottom of the tank


minimizes the pressure increase as the product enters
monitors the static charge produced by the flow of the
product
indicates the level of liquid in the tank
provides indication of temperature changes as the tank
fills with the LPG product

010100020021000B
Laws governing the storage and transporting of LPG are
enforced by the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

CSA
Federal and Provincial DOT
Provincial OH&S
Bureau of Explosives
Provincial Department of Labour

010100020021000D
Outage is the term given to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

vapours which are vented to the atmosphere during tank


filling
liquids spilled during the filling process
liquid which remains in the tank after being emptied
the space above the liquid after the tank is filled
vapours used to "purge" the tank before filling

010100020021000E
The explosion of a flammable mixture that occurred at
the exact time a valve was opened was likely due to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a rich mixture being formed


the flash point being reached
static electricity
the auto-ignition temperature
the catalytic effect of the fresh metallic surface

010100020021000C
Hoses used for loading and unloading of LPG products must be
hydrostatically tested
a)
b)
c)

after every use


prior to initial sale to the customer
annually

179
d)
e)

when the first visual sign of deterioration appears


every three years

010100020021000A
If a fuel/air mixture is raised above its ignition
temperature, the mixture
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

may ignite without a source of ignition


will require a source of ignition in order to burn
will not start burning by auto-ignition
will ignite only if static electricity is present
will not burn, only explode

010100020021000B
Every effort must be made to prevent oxygen contacting
hydrocarbon vapours because
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

an explosion will result


there are too many sources of ignition
auto-ignition will occur
the air will dilute the mixture
hydrocarbon vapours have such high ignition temperatures

010100020021000A
The ignition temperature of a fuel/air mixture is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

lowest temperature at which a mixture will burn


temperature at which it is said to have a lean mixture
temperature at which the fuel may gel
temperature at which the mixture is above the boiling
temperature
maximum temperature of the mixture before the fuel turns
to vapour

010100020021000C
Auto-ignition of a fuel/air mixture
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

cannot occur without a flame


requires a spark
occurs when the temperature of the mixture is raised
above the ignition temperature
occurs when temperatures exceed 295 degrees Celsius
most often leads to a catalytic effect

010100020021000A
Iron sulphide, if allowed to dry out will
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

burst into flames in the pressure of air


make an excellent Class D fire extinguishing agent
enhance the effects of static electricity
emit toxic fumes
absorb moisture from railway tank cars

180

Hydrogen Sulphide Safety


010100020021000C
Hydrogen sulphide is removed from crude oil by burning it
into sulphur dioxide in the presence of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

an amine
an oxygen free atmosphere
a catalyst
black liquor
heavy water

010100020021000A
Hydrogen sulphide is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1.189 times heavier than air


always found in its pure form
found near the top of tanks and rooms
more difficult to ignite than natural gas
not capable of following moving air streams

010100020021000E
Natural gas has an ignition temperature of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

260 degrees C
540 degrees C
1,700 degrees C
360 degrees C
650 degrees C

010100020021000A
From a fire and explosion standpoint, hydrogen sulphide is
dangerous because of its
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

wide explosive range and low ignition temperature


wide explosive range and high ignition temperature
narrow explosive range
narrow explosive range and low ignition temperature
high ignition temperature

010100020021000E
In the natural gas process, the liquid used to absorb
hydrogen sulphide is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

water
crude oil
black liquor
liquid sulphur dioxide
amine

010100020021000A
Hydrogen sulphide ignites at
a)
b)
c)

260 degrees Celsius


540 degrees Celsius
1,700 degrees Celsius

181
d)
e)

360 degrees Celsius


650 degrees Celsius

010100020021000A
When burned completely, 1 kg of H S gas will produce
2
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

17,000 kJ of heat
1,700 kJ of heat
17,000 J of heat
170 kJ of heat
1,700 J of heat

010100020021000C
H S burns with a
2
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

red flame
bluish - yellow flame
light blue flame
yellow flame
brownish - yellow flame

010100020021000D
Hydrogen sulphide has a "rotten egg odour" and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

can
can
has
can
has

always be readily detected by smell


readily be seen with the naked eye
a narrow explosive limit
dull one's sense of smell
a high boiling point

010100020021000C
The degree of hydrogen sulphide concentration which allows a
petroleum product to be considered "sweet" must not exceed
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,000 ppm
500 ppm
10 ppm
100,000 ppm
100 ppm

010100020021000D
The statement that workers with perforated eardrums not be
excluded from hydrogen sulphide atmospheres was made by the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Petrochemical Association CEO


CSA
Canadian Natural Gas Association
Journal of Occupational Medicine
Underwriters Laboratories Canada

010100020021000E
The allowable exposure limit of hydrogen sulphide
concentration when a person may work for an eight hour period
is

182

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,000
700
500
20
10

ppm
ppm
ppm
ppm
ppm

010100020021000D
When working in an area containing a concentration of 100 ppm
H S
2
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

work can be performed for a maximum of eight hours


work can be performed for a maximum of fifteen minutes
the worker will be rendered unconscious immediately
the sense of smell will be lost within two to fifteen
minutes
the worker will appear to be intoxicated

010100020021000C
A concentration of 15 ppm of H S can be tolerated for a time
2
not exceeding
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

5
10
15
20
25

minutes
minutes
minutes
minutes
minutes

010100020021000D
In small amounts, H S acts on the nervous system to
2
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

cause suffocation
cause headaches
act as a stimulant
act as a depressant
promote weight loss

010100020021000D
The safest way to extinguish a hydrogen sulphide fire is to
a)

remove the O

b)

remove the catalyst

c)

lower the temperature

d)

stop the gas flow

e)

let it burn itself out

source

010100020021000B
In the event of an uncontrolled release of hydrogen sulphide

183
where a co-worker is "knocked down", your first act should be
to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

sound an alarm
get out of the area
put on your breathing apparatus
remove the casualty
begin artificial respiration immediately

010100020021000B
H S detectors make use of
2
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a litmus solution
a clear lead acetate solution
an oxygen jet to burn the hydrogen sulphide
a water solubility test
a solution of dry iron sulphide

010100020021000B
Hydrogen sulphide workers must receive adequate training in
breathing apparatus, resuscitation, and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

fire fighting
use of gas detectors
personnel rescue
plant isolation procedures
plant operations

010100020021000B
The Chemical Hazards Regulation of the OH&S Act states that
an employer is responsible to ensure each worker:
1.

wears the proper certified coveralls when working in an


area suspected of containing hydrogen sulphide
is instructed in the proper use of protective equipment
provided
is on time to perform his or her duties when handling
hydrogen sulphide
signs a waiver of responsibility before working in an
area suspected of containing hydrogen sulphide
is aware of health hazards associated with exposure to
hydrogen sulphide

2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

3,
2,
1,
2,
1,

4
5
4, 5
3, 4
2, 4

010100020021000D
The Chemical Hazards Regulation of the OH&S Act states that
an employee is responsible to
1.

follow procedures provided by the employer

184
2.

sign a waiver releasing the employer of any


responsibility in the event of an accident
wear respiratory equipment when necessary
participate in instruction provided
obtain training from an independent company if not
supplied by the employer

3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,
1,
2,
1,
3,

2,
4,
4,
3,
4,

4
5
5
4
5

010100020021000C
The ceiling occupational exposure limit refers to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the time-weighted average concentration of an airborne


substance
the allowable concentration exposure over a fifteen
minute period
the maximum concentration exposure to an airborne
substance
the allowable concentration exposure over an eight hour
period
the concentration of airborne substances as measured at
the highest point in a concentrated area

010100020021000E
In addition to compulsory training sessions, the law requires
that persons working with hydrogen sulphide
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

must practice with breathing apparatus


must be trained in first aid including artificial
resuscitation and CPR
must be familiar with maintenance and cleaning of
breathing apparatus
must be trained in the use of gas detectors
must be trained in all of the above

First Aid and CPR for Adult Casualties


010100020021000D
The result of inadequate blood supply reaching portions of
the brain is termed
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

shock
asphyxia
cardiac arrest
stroke
angina

010100020021000D
A substance which makes the blood clot easier in certain

185
areas is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

cigarette tar
haemoglobin
carbon monoxide
nicotine
CVD

010100020021000A
The terms "pop" or "drop" refer to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

choking
angina attacks
broken bone alignment
stroke symptoms
artificial resuscitation

010100020021000E
Angina is a condition which occurs when
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the pathway through which air moves to the lungs is


blocked
all parts of the body do not obtain an adequate supply of
oxygenated blood
there is an inadequate blood supply to the brain
the heart stops completely
the heart is not getting enough oxygen

010100020021000A
A stroke is a condition which occurs when
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

there is an inadequate supply of blood to the brain


the heart is not getting enough oxygen
body parts do not receive enough oxygenated blood
air is restricted to the lungs
the heart stops beating completely

010100020021000A
When the pulse is checked at the neck of a victim, it should
be done on the side nearest you
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

so that it will not appear that you are choking the


victim
to prevent obstruction of the airway
so that you can see the artery pulsing
so that you can simultaneously check for breathing
in order to maintain visibility of your fingers

010100020021000C
If a casualty is unconscious
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

you should not perform any type of first aid


notify EMS before doing anything
consent may be assumed
notify them of who you are
do not bother to survey the area until after notifying

186
EMS
010100020021000E
The carotid artery is located
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

in the thigh area


in the victim's left side of the chest
just above the armpit
in the right temple
in the neck

010100020021000C
The one who starts care for a casualty and may be one of the
most important people in the Emergency Medical Services
System is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

paramedic
co-worker
bystander
doctor
dispatcher

010100020021000E
To assess an unconscious casualty's condition, the Canadian
and American Medical Associations recommend following the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

pop or drop procedure


EMS procedure
RICE steps
RED steps
A, B, C system

010100020021000B
When the heart stops beating completely it is termed
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a heart attack
cardiac arrest
a stroke
angina
a seizure

010100020021000D
You notice that one of the men you are working with is lying
on the ground. If you find that his breathing has stopped
you would
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

give him something to drink and then send for help


send for a doctor
phone the shift supervisor
start artificial respiration immediately and summon help
cover him with a blanket and run for help

010100020021000B
When performing abdominal thrusts on a choking victim and the
casualty becomes unconscious, your initial reaction should be
to

187

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

increase the rate of abdominal thrusts


place the victim on his or her back and perform a finger
sweep of the mouth
give two quick breaths
begin CPR at the rate of 15 compressions to two breaths
place the victim on his or her stomach and press into the
casualty's back

010100020021000A
A co-worker is experiencing shortness of breath, nausea,
sweating and is strongly denying that he/she is in need of
attention. The worker is likely experiencing
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a heart attack
an angina attack
shock
cardiac arrest
a stroke

010100020021000E
The artificial respiration rate for an infant is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1:5
1:10
1:7
1:2
1:3

010100020021000C
The xiphoid process is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a method of aligning
an area of the chest
to be avoided during
a method of locating
a method for finding

broken bones
on which CPR is performed
CPR
bones in the body
a pulse

010100020021000C
The acronym RICE stands for Rest, Immobilize, Cold, and
Elevate. This would be the response used
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

for
for
for
for
for

a stroke
severe bleeding
a broken bone
a heart attack
trauma shock

010100020021000B
The acronym RED stands for Rest, Elevate, and Direct
pressure. This would be the response used for
a)
b)
c)
d)

a stroke
severe bleeding
a broken bone
a heart attack

188
e)

trauma shock

010100020021000D
Symptoms of shock may include the following
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

squeezing pain
clammy skin
weak and rapid pulse
denial
confusion
3,
1,
2,
2,
1,

4,
4,
3,
3,
2,

5
5
4
5
5

010100020021000A
The artificial respiration rate for an adult is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

one
one
two
one
one

breath every 5 seconds


breath every 10 seconds
breaths every 15 seconds
breath every 2 seconds
breath every 3 seconds

Fires and Extinguishing Media


010100020021000C
Combustion
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

is endothermic and can occur in an inert atmosphere


is always a visible process in that light is given off
is exothermic, self sustaining, and can occur in an inert
atmosphere
always requires a source of ignition
requires the presence of air

010100020021000A
A reducing agent or fuel could be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

carbon monoxide
a heavy metal oxide
hydrogen peroxide
concentrated sulphuric acid
chlorine

010100020021000E
A process which causes fires to endure and renew themselves
is
a)
b)
c)

temperature
a reducing agent
an oxidizing agent

189
d)
e)

a flame
molecular activity due to high temperature

010100020021000D
Fuels or reducing agents which burn in the flaming mode only
are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

flammable liquids
coals
flammable gases
flammable liquids and gases
cokes

010100020021000D
Wood can continue to burn in the flameless or glowing mode
when oxygen level is as low as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

17%
12%
8%
5%
3%

010100020021000C
Your first reaction to a fire should be to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

fight it
contain it
turn on the alarm
get the nearest fire extinguisher
phone the maintenance department

010100020021000C
A class B fire is best extinguished by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

lowering the temperature of the burning wood or paper


wetting the burning paper or wood
smothering the burning liquid
lowering the temperature of the burning liquid
creating a chain reaction between the molecules of the
burning material

010100020021000D
Water is the best extinguisher for
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

an oil fire
a gas fire
an electrical fire
a wood fire
a metal burning fire

010100020021000E
A Class "A" fire would involve
a)
b)

gasoline or oil
any dry materials

190
c)
d)
e)

paint or grease
electrical equipment
wood or coal

010100020021000A
Foam extinguishers are recommended for
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Class
Class
Class
Class
Class

"A"
"A"
"C"
"D"
"C"

and Class
and Class
and Class
fires
and Class

"B" fires
"C" fires
"B" fires
"D" fires

010100020021000D
Which of the following constitutes a Class "C" fire?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

fire
fire
fire
fire
fire

in
in
in
in
in

a coal bunker
a fuel tank
a lumber pile
an electrical panel
a pile of paper

010100020021000D
The major advantage of carbon dioxide as a fire extinguishing
agent for fires in electronic equipment is it
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

has superior cooling ability over other agents


is non-toxic
does not reduce the oxygen content of the area
does not leave a residue
provides a barrier between the oxygen and burning
components

010100020021000B
The best portable fire extinguisher to use on a Class "D"
fire is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

carbon dioxide unit


dry powder unit
aqueous film-forming foam unit
Halon unit
dry chemical unit

010100020021000B
Dry chemical fire extinguishers should not be used where
delicate electrical equipment is involved because it is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

conductive
an insulator and can be corrosive
always corrosive
impossible to clean the equipment, it must be replaced
capable of producing toxic fumes

010100020021000B
The best type of fire extinguisher to use on an electrical
fire would be a

191

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

dry chemical extinguisher


carbon dioxide extinguisher
FF extinguisher
dry powder extinguisher
foam extinguisher

010100020021000C
Dry chemical fire extinguishers may be used to extinguish
electrical fires, however, they are not the best choice
because they
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

fail to
conduct
leave a
produce
are not
fires

cool the fire sufficiently


electricity
residue on the equipment
toxic chemicals that may be flammable
made in sizes large enough to fight electrical

010100020021000E
Halon extinguishing agents extinguish a fire by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

cooling below ignition temperature


radiation shielding
isolating the fuel by coating
removing the oxygen supply
breaking the uninhibited chain reaction

010100020021000D
To extinguish a fire, aqueous film-forming form extinguishing
agents act in order to:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

seal vapours
cool
remove the oxygen
break the chain reaction
4
2,
1,
1,
1,

3
2
2, 3
2, 3, 4

010100020021000A
The fire extinguisher to be used on electrical equipment will
be marked with a "C" on a background consisting of a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

blue circle
green triangle
yellow star
green circle
red square

010100020021000B
A red square on a fire extinguisher indicates that this
extinguisher is suitable for a Class

192

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

A
B
C
D
E

fire
fire
fire
fire
fire

010100020021000D
Burning metals may be extinguished using
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

dry chemical extinguishers


carbon dioxide extinguishers
AFFF extinguishers
dry powder extinguishers
foam extinguishers

010100020021000A
What type of fire should be put out with water?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Class
Class
Class
Class
Class

"A"
"B"
"C"
"A", "B", and "C"
"D"

010100020021000B
Which of the following extinguishers would ordinarily be used
to combat a Class "C" fire?
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

carbon dioxide
foam
dry chemical
water
1,
1,
2,
2,
1,

2
3
3
4
4

Portable Fire Extinguishers


010100020021000A
Foam extinguishers are recommended for
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Class "A" and Class "B" fires


Class "A" and Class "C" fires
Class "C" and Class "B" fires
all classes of fires
all but burning liquids

010100020021000E
The background symbol used on a fire extinguisher for a Class
"D" fire is a

193

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

green triangle
green circle
red square
blue circle
yellow star

010100020021000D
Rating numerals to indicate the effectiveness of an
extinguisher are used in reference to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Class
Class
Class
Class
Class

A fires
B fires
C fires
A and B fires
A, B, and C fires

010100020021000E
One type of extinguisher suitable for extinguishing all four
classes of fires is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Halon extinguisher
foam extinguisher
dry chemical extinguisher
carbon dioxide extinguisher
none of the above

010100020021000B
A "loaded stream" extinguisher is one which
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

can be used on Class B fires


has an antifreeze agent
is always under stored pressure
is meant for Class C fires
produces foam

010100020021000C
A major disadvantage of a floor standing pump extinguisher
over a backpack pump unit is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the floor unit has only half the capacity


the backpack unit has twice the range
pumping must stop for relocation
the floor unit pump is single acting
the floor unit is too difficult to move

010100020021000B
Pressure range in a carbon dioxide extinguisher is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

31 to 55 kPa
5.6 to 6.3 Mpa
5,600 to 6,300 Mpa
31 to 55 Mpa
56 to 63 psi

010100020021000E

194
The maximum storage temperature for a carbon dioxide
extinguisher is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

31
25
40
45
55

degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees

C
C
C
C
C

010100020021000A
Carbon dioxide extinguishers
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

are self-expelling
are the best for Class A fires
are the quietest in operation
present no hazards during use
are the most difficult to use

010100020021000B
Halon agents are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

safe until they make contact with the combustion process


themselves toxic
the most highly recommended for Class B:C use
able to maintain cylinder pressure themselves regardless
of temperature
gradually replacing dry powder units

010100020021000D
An extinguisher with a 4 rating is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

good for Class C fires only


twice as effective as a unit with a 1 rating
not to be used on a Class A fire
four times as effective as a unit rated 1
good for four minutes of use

010100020021000B
Foam type fire extinguishers achieve best results by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

lobbing the foam over top of the fire


bouncing the foam off the floor just in front of the
burning area
discharging the agent with a sweeping motion
discharging the agent at the base of the flame
splashing the agent into the burning liquid

010100020021000C
All maintenance work done on portable fire extinguishers is
required to be
a)
b)
c)
d)

completed on all extinguishers in the plant at the same


time
performed at the worksite in case they are required for
emergency service
contracted out to a certified service company
supervised by a National Fire Protection Association

195

e)

employee
performed on an as-needed basis

010100020021000A
Halon agent extinguishers are operated and applied in the
same manner as a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

carbon dioxide extinguisher


water extinguisher
dry chemical extinguisher
foam extinguisher
dry powder extinguisher

010100020021000E
Halon extinguishers are mostly intended for use on
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Class
Class
Class
Class
Class

A
B
C
A
B

fires
fires
fires
and B fires
and C fires

010100020021000E
Foam type fire extinguishers should only be installed or
stored in areas where the temperature remains above
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

15
12
10
7
5

degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees

C
C
C
C
C

Electrical Fires
010100020021000A
Overheating of electrical equipment is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the most common cause of fires in buildings


usually the result of inadequate wiring
often due to over-sized fuses being installed
the result of blocked cooling fin passages
illegal in most provinces

010100020021000E
Electrical circuit insulation
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

will never break down or deteriorate


requires replacement after 10 years
is not affected by temperature
will not burn
will deteriorate due to high temperatures

010100020021000B
Electrical connections

196

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

need only make contact, they need not be tight


will create large amounts of heat if not tight
can cause an arc if too tight
may operate on overload for specified durations
will not generate heat at any time

010100020021000A
Under the Canadian Electrical Code, if an area contains
hazardous concentrations of flammable gases or vapours under
normal conditions, electrical equipment must be designated
safe for use in an area classification of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Class
Class
Class
Class
Class

1,
1,
2,
2,
3,

division
division
division
division
division

1
2
1
2
1

010100020021000C
Under the Canadian Electrical Code, if an area contains dust
in the air, under normal operating conditions, in
concentrations high enough to produce explosive or ignitable
mixtures, the electrical equipment must be designed safe for
use in an area classification of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Class
Class
Class
Class
Class

I, division I
I, division II
II, division I
II, division II
III, division I

010100020021000E
According to the Canadian Electrical Code an area where
easily ignited material fibres capable of producing
combustible flyings are handled or manufactured would be
classified as a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Class
Class
Class
Class
Class

1,
1,
2,
2,
3,

division
division
division
division
division

1
2
1
2
1

010100020021000A
An example of a class "C" fire would be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a
a
a
a
a

fire in an electrical panel


fire in a trash bin
fire in a fuel tank
precious metals fire
fire in a coal storage pile

010100020021000B
When an electrical fire is discovered

197

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the equipment may be left running if the fire is put out


with a C type fire extinguisher
the equipment should be de-energized as quickly as
possible
the equipment should be left running until a backup power
supply is available
the equipment may be immediately restarted once the fire
is extinguished
fresh air should be provided to the room as quickly as
possible to get rid of toxic fumes

010100020021000E
The best type of fire extinguisher to use on a live
electrical fire is a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

pressurized water extinguisher


dry chemical extinguisher
purple K extinguisher
AFFF extinguisher
carbon dioxide extinguisher

010100020021000E
The temperature of the carbon dioxide leaving the
extinguisher horn can be as low as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

0 degrees C
-5 degrees C
-30 degrees C
-60 degrees C
-80 degrees C

010100020021000A
Halon from halon fire extinguishers
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

produces a distinct odour which warns of the presence of


halon
is abrasive to electrical equipment
will act as a conductor if moisture is present
is derived from bromine, fluorine, or chlorine
is corrosive

010100020021000B
You discover that a small fire has been started in a high
tension switch box. In your immediate area there are four
different types of fire extinguishers. The one you put the
fire out with should be the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

soda - acid extinguisher


dry chemical extinguisher
chemical foam extinguisher
cold water extinguisher
one closest to you

010100020021000C
During annual turnaround of a facility it is highly

198
recommended that
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

all fuses in the electrical system be replaced


aluminum wiring be replaced
all electrical connections be checked for tightness and
corrosion
all circuit breakers be disassembled and cleaned
a megger be used on all electric motor windings

010100020021000C
Temporary electrical hook-ups should
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

be in place for a maximum duration of 72 hours only


be made with BX electrical cable
be designed to the original specifications
comply with the ASME codes
have CSA pre-approval

010100020021000D
A common cause of an electrical fire is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

allowing motors or conductors to get wet if not designed


for that purpose
prematurely replacing deteriorated wiring
following too closely to the Electrical Code when
installing electrical equipment
replacing burned fuses with ones of the same rating
waiting a specified amount of time between attempts to
start large motors

Environmental Introduction
010100020021000D
The earth's water cycle is referred to as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a hydrostatic cycle
a meteorological cycle
a hydrographic cycle
a hydrological cycle
an elementary cycle

010100020021000C
Air is predominantly composed of
a)

O , CO , and CH
2
2
4

b)

O , N , and CO
2
2
2

c)

d)

O , CO , and H

and N

199
2
e)

and CO

010100020021000A
The environment consists of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

natural and man-made elements


organic and natural elements
soil and water
plant and animal life
air and water cycles

010100020021000E
A typical soil profile includes, from top to bottom
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a zone of
material,
a zone of
a zone of
a zone of
material,
a zone of
weathered
a zone of
weathered

parent material, a zone of intensely weathered


a zone of unweathered material
parent material, a zone of weathered material,
bed rock
weathered material, a zone of unweathered
a zone of bedrock
weathered material, a zone of partially
material, a zone of bedrock
weathered material, a zone of partially
material, a zone of parent material

010100020021000D
Subsurface water can be divided from top to bottom as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a zone of aeration, ground water, water table


water table, ground water, surface water
surface water, ground water, water table
a zone of aeration, water table, a zone of saturation
surface water, ground water, underground water

010100020021000B
Ground water and surface water originate from
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

aeration
precipitation
vegetation
evaporation
filtration

010100020021000A
Places where groundwater leaves the system to become surface
water are called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

discharge points
runoff areas
recharge points
springs
saturated zones

200
010100020021000C
The land area where water shares the spaces between soil
particles with the air is known as the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

infiltration zone
water table zone
zone of aeration
zone of discharge
saturated zone

010100020021000D
Organic matter is primarily deposited on the landscape by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

wind
water
glaciers
vegetation
gravity

010100020021000E
The process whereby plants consume carbon dioxide, water and
the sum energy to make food is known as the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

hydrological cycle
meteorological cycle
photoelectric cycle
hydrostatic cycle
photosynthetic cycle

010100020021000D
Organisms within an ecosystem can be divided into which
groups?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

producers, inactive matter, and consumers


organic matter, inorganic matter, and decomposers
consumers, producers, and inorganic matter
decomposers, consumers, and producers
nutrients, consumers, and decomposers

010100020021000E
Parent material for soil formation
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

is only mineral material deposited by glaciers, wind, and


water
is only organic material
is the same throughout the world
is not necessary
has been mostly deposited by glaciers in North America

010100020021000C
The three major components in an ecosystem are
a)
b)
c)
d)

animals, plants, and air


animals, plants, and decomposers
producers, consumers, and inactive organic matter
producers, consumers, and air

201
e)

producers, consumers, and sun's energy

010100020021000A
Energy in a food web
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

originates from the sun


travels from the top of the web to the bottom
does not leave the web
is passed through the food web by heat radiation
is self-sustaining within the food web

010100020021000B
Components of an ecosystem are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

independent of each other


interconnected and interdependent
vertically ordered
unchangeable
ranked from top to bottom

010100020021000B
Contributions to the ecosystem by the environment are in the
form of
a)

N , CO , H O
2
2
2

b)

CO , H O, O
2
2
2

c)

Ar, H O, O
2
2

d)

H O, O
2
2

e)

CO , O
2
2

010100020021000D
In the ecosystem, green plants are considered to be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

consumers
inactive matter
decomposers
producers
inorganic matter

010100020021000C
Herbivores and/or carnivores as they are seen in the
ecosystem are considered
a)
b)
c)
d)

inactive matter
decomposers
consumers
producers

202
e)

inorganic matter

Gaseous and Noise Pollutants


010100020021000B
Sulphur oxides in flue gas are undesirable because
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

they use up the sulphur in the fuel


they cause acid rain
they reduce combustion efficiency
they combine with sunlight to produce smog
they are an indicator of incomplete combustion in the
furnace

010100020021000A
Carbon monoxide is produced as a result of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a shortage of oxygen in the furnace


too high a combustion temperature
too large a furnace
excess air in the combustion process
slow movement of fuel through the furnace

010100020021000D
Gaseous pollutants emitted from power plants are:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

natural gas
oxygen
carbon monoxide
sulphur dioxide
nitrogen
1,
2,
3,
3,
1,

3,
3,
4,
4
2,

4
4
5
5

010100020021000C
Most systems used today to remove sulphur dioxide
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

produce a useful end product


remove most of the sulphur trioxide as well
involve the use of lime, limestone or sulphuric acid
remove the sulphur dioxide in the furnace
are simple systems involving little extra equipment

010100020021000D
Nitrogen oxides in flue gas may be reduced by
a)
b)
c)
d)

raising the furnace temperature


decreasing the size of the furnace
scrubbing the flue gas with lime
reducing the percentage of excess air

203
e)

employing a dilute sulphuric acid scrubber system

010100020021000A
Converting carbon monoxide to carbon dioxide in the furnace
may be accomplished by
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

increasing the amount of combustion air


decreasing the time the fuel spends in the furnace
burning lime with the fuel
not overloading the boiler
ensuring a good fuel/air mixture
1,
2,
3,
1,
2,

4,
3,
4,
2,
4,

5
4
5
4
5

010100020021000C
Systems designed to reduce SO are also effective in reducing
2
the concentration of
a)

NO
x

b)

H O
2

c)

SO
3

d)

CO

e)

CO

010100020021000B
A method proven to reduce emissions of sulphur oxides in the
flue gas is to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

lower the furnace temperature


scrub the flue gas with wet lime or limestone
reduce the amount of excess air
use dilute sulphuric acid to scrub the flue gas
increase the size of the furnace

010100020021000D
A sampling and analyzing train
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

measures the frequency composition of noise


monitors flue gas for one type of emission
cannot be operated automatically
measures the amount of several types of emissions
cannot be used to obtain permanent records

204

010100020021000B
A device for measuring flue gas emissions is called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a stack monitor
an Orsat analyzer
a stack analyzer
a level meter
a gas tester

010100020021000E
Choose all of the following statements which are true:
1) Sound travels through variations in air pressure
2) Sound waves are reflected, deflected ,and absorbed
3) Sound is a form of energy
4) Sound travels through a vacuum
5) Sound always travels at a constant wavelength
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,
1,
2,
2,
1,

3,
2,
3,
3,
2,

and 5
3, and 4
4, and 5
and 4
and 3

010100020021000C
Sound pressure level is expressed in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

psi (pounds per square inch)


kPa
decibels
watts
amps

010100020021000A
Noise sources over what level are potentially hazardous to
hearing?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

100 dB and above


60 dB and above
120 dB and above
80 dB and above
40 dB and above

010100020021000E
Decibels are represented by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

an exponential scale
an intensity scale
an arithmetic scale
a reference scale
a logarithmic scale

010100020021000B
Noise pollution is caused by:
1.

high speed equipment

205
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,
1,
2,
1,
3,

popping high pressure safety valves


chimneys
jack hammers
riveting operations
2,
2,
3,
3,
4,

3
4, 5
4, 5
4, 5
5

010100020021000E
Damaging sound pressure levels affecting plant personnel
could not be reduced by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

enclosing the noise source


modifying the equipment operating conditions
building a barrier
wearing protective equipment
changing the frequency of the sound

010100020021000E
Loud noises may be controlled by:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

building soundproof cabinets around equipment


running the equipment at high speeds
using silencers on the air intakes to gas turbines
using mufflers on equipment exhaust
running noisy equipment at night when everyone is asleep
1,
1,
1,
1,
1,

2,
2,
3,
2,
3,

3, 4
4
4, 5
3, 4, 5
4

010100020021000D
Noise monitors (sound meters) measure the decibel rating and
contain
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

sound dampers
sound amplifiers
acoustic eliminators
weighting networks
acoustic amplifiers

010100020021000D
Personal protective devices designed to protect power plant operators
from environmental pollutants, include the following equipment:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.

hard hats
ear muffs
soft toed shoes or boots
safety boots
dust masks
breathing air packs

206

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,
1,
1,
2,
3,

2,
2,
2,
5,
4,

4, 5,
3, 4, 5, 6
5, 6
6
6

Solid and Liquid Pollutants


010100020021000D
Mechanical centrifugal collectors remove particulate by means
of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

centrifugal force
inertia
gravitational force
all of the above
none of the above

010100020021000C
Mechanical centrifugal collectors are not suitable for the
collection of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

very coarse particles


coarse particles
fine particles
rough particles
heavy particles

010100020021000B
Wet scrubbers remove
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

gases only
gases and dust only
particulates only
acidic gases only
dust only

010100020021000A
In an electrostatic precipitator the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

discharge
collector
discharge
particles
discharge
charged

electrode is negatively charged


electrode is negatively charged
electrode is positively charged
are positively charged
electrode and the particles are positively

010100020021000B
The voltage supplied to an electrostatic precipitator is
between
a)
b)

10,000 volts AC and 1,000,000 volts AC


10,000 volts DC and 100,000 volts DC

207
c)
d)
e)

1,000,000 volts AC and 1,000,000,000 volts AC


100,000 DC and 1,000,000,000 volts AC
100,000 AC and 10,000 volts DC

010100020021000C
When ground level sulphur dioxide concentrations are
increasing above allowable limits, the operators choice of
action to reduce the sulphur dioxide emissions includes:
1.
2.

reduce boiler load


increase the voltage level on the electrostatic
precipitators to remove more sulphur dioxide
increase the boiler load to disperse the sulphur
dioxide over a wider area
switch to a low sulphur fuel
shut down the boilers

3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,
2,
1,
1,
3,

3,
3,
4,
4
4,

4
5
5
5

010100020021000A
Some areas of a power plant are difficult or not economically
suitable to provide a pollution free area in which employees
can work in. These types of areas are:
1.
2.
3.

control rooms
coal conveyor galleries
cleaning ash hoppers or precipitators internally during
a boiler repair
lunch rooms
coal crushing and grinding equipment
steam turbine bays

4.
5.
6.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2,
1,
2,
1,
3,

3,
2,
3,
3,
4,

5, 6
3, 5
4, 5
6
6

010100020021000E
Fly ash is removed from bag filters by a system of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

rollers
hammers
electrostatic precipitators
shakers
rappers

010100020021000E
Fly ash is normally less than
a)

1 mm in diameter

208
b)
c)
d)
e)

0.3 mm in diameter
1,000 microns in diameter
300 microns in diameter
30 microns in diameter

010100020021000D
Fly ash collected by pollution control devices can be used in
the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

petroleum industry
electrical industry
tire industry
construction industry
landscaping industry

010100020021000B
Solid pollutants such as flyash are produced when burning:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

natural gas
heavy fuel oil
wood
coal

1,
2,
1,
3,
1,

4
3, 4
2, 3
4
2, 3, 4

010100020021000E
Solid pollutants emitted from power plants are:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

dust
soot
flyash
carbon monoxide
sulphur dioxide
sulphuric acid

all of the above


2, 3, 6
1, 2, 3, 6
2, 4, 5
1, 2, 3

010100020021000C
Liquid pollutants emitted from power plants include:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)

water
waste
waste
waste

1, 4
1, 3, 4
1, 2, 3, 4

at elevated temperatures
water from flue gas scrubbing
water from water treatment processes
water from ash handling operations

209
d)
e)

2, 3, 4
2, 4

010100020021000A
"The amount of any gas that water can dissolve depends on the
partial pressure the gas exerts on the free surface of the
water", is stated by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Henry's Law
Boyles's Law
Charles' Law
Dalton's Law
The General Gas Law

010100020021000C
Natural draft cooling towers are divided into
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

dry and wet types


closed and semi-closed types
open and closed types
filled and unfilled types
open and filled types

010100020021000B
The most common type of mechanical draft cooling tower is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a forced draft type


an induced draft type
a wet type
a dry type
a combination wet and dry type

010100020021000D
Air flow in a natural draft cooling tower is dependent upon
the
a)
b)
c)

speed of the cooling fan


volume of water flowing through
partial pressure exerted above the surface of the
reservoir
differences in densities of the air leaving and entering
wind direction

d)
e)

010100020021000C
Advantages of ID cooling towers over FC cooling towers
include:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)

accessibility of the fan for maintenance


little chance of icing up in winter
minimum noise
a greater ability to cool the water
ability to recycle the vapour laden air
1, 3, 5
3, 4, 5
2, 3, 4

210
d)
e)

1, 2, 3
2, 3, 5

010100020021000B
Cooling towers
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

need only be operated in the summer months


may contribute to the pollution problem
remove heat from the condensate
require fans
do not require any maintenance

010100020021000E
Dry cooling towers
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

operate by natural draft


have the cooling water flow from bottom to top
have an ID fan located at the top
have an FD fan located at the bottom
pass the cooling water through a closed circuit of finned
tubes

Potential Environmental Impacts of Liquids


010100020021000B
Hazardous material is not a problem unless
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a loss of product is experienced


a loss of control is experienced
it is noticed by operating personnel
it is present in the environment
it is present in the ecosystem

010100020021000C
A common test to determine pollution in water is the (BOD)
test. BOD stands for
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

body oxygen demand


biological oxygen demand
biochemical oxygen demand
biographic oxygen demand
biodegradable oxygen demand

010100020021000B
The two main growth nutrients carried by domestic sewage are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

sulphates and nitrates


nitrates and phosphates
phosphates and sulphates
sulphates and suspended solids
sludge and dissolved solids

010100020021000B

211
The ability of water to dissolve oxygen
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

increases with the increase in water temperature


decreases with the increase of water temperature
decreases with the decrease of water temperature
does not change with temperature
none of the above

010100020021000D
Thermally separated layers in lakes are called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

anticlines
inclines
temperature gradients
thermoclines
temperature layers

010100020021000A
An effluent is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a substance that flows out of a process


always pollutant
smog
the result of weather inversion
caused by over production of flue gases

010100020021000B
Phosphates are a common chemical found in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

groundwater
detergents
plant effluent
settling ponds
sludge

010100020021000D
One pollutant that is particularly harmful to the earth's
ozone layer is otherwise known as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

DOT's
PVC's
BOD's
CFC's
PCB's

010100020021000E
The pH of industrial effluent can be controlled
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

by
by
by
by
by

the
the
the
the
the

addition of acid
addition of alkaline
addition of water
use of settling ponds
addition of acid or alkaline as required

010100020021000D
Coagulants are substances used to

212
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

control the pH of effluent water


remove dissolved solids from water
remove grease from water
remove small particles from water
remove phosphate and nitrates from water

010100020021000E
Chemical emulsions can be removed by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

settling
additives
centrifugal action
gravity
all of the above

010100020021000D
The best way to dispose of hazardous liquids is to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

put them in a landfill


encase them and bury them underground
encase them and bury them at sea
incinerate them at high temperature
inject them down deep wells

010100020021000C
The rate at which a fluid progresses from a spilled area is
governed by its
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

pH
density
viscosity
thickness
weight

010100020021000C
Hazardous liquids should be handled according to information
supplied on
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

general safety reports


progress reports
Material Safety Data Sheets
plant operation manuals
Occupational Health and Safety Regulations

010100020021000E
Water that exists in the soil and rock formation is known as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

tap water
contaminated water
surface water
soil water
ground water

213

Potential Environmental Impacts of Vapours


010100020021000E
The gaseous pollutant that contributes to acid rain is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

ozone
carbon dioxide
carbon monoxide
mercaptan
sulphur dioxide

010100020021000D
Nitrogen oxides are referred collectively as
a)

NO's

b)

NO
2

c)

N O
2

d)

NO
X

e)

N O
2 5

010100020021000A
The upper level gas that shields the earth from ultraviolet
radiation is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

ozone
methane
carbon dioxide
chlorofluorocarbons
nitrogen

010100020021000A
The gaseous pollutant that contributes to ozone depletion in
the stratosphere is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

nitrous oxide
sulphur oxide
carbon dioxide
carbon monoxide
methane

010100020021000D
A gaseous pollutant that contributes to acid rain is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

mercaptan
carbon dioxide
methane
nitrous oxides
ozone

214

010100020021000C
The main components of acid rain are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

carbonic acid and sulphuric acid


nitric acid and carbonic acid
nitric acid and sulphuric acid
sulphuric acid and acetic acid
sulphuric acid and carbonic acid

010100020021000C
The greatest effect of acid rain is on
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

leaves
plant stems
roots
plant reproductive systems
tree bark

010100020021000E
Incomplete combustion of fuel is responsible for the
production of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

water vapour
carbon dioxide
hydrogen sulphide
sulphur dioxide
carbon monoxide

010100020021000E
In order for acid rain to be formed
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

atmospheric temperatures must be correct


water vapour must be present
sunlight must be present
water vapour and cool temperatures must apply
water vapour and sunlight must be present

010100020021000B
Methane gas is sometimes produced by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

insufficient combustion air


decomposition of organic matter in a swamp
the burning of plastics
high intensity sunlight acting on ozone
discharging Halon fire extinguishers

010100020021000A
Greenhouse gases allow
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

high energy waves to pass


low energy waves to pass
long energy waves to pass
short energy waves to pass
allow all energy levels to pass

010100020021000D

215
Carbon dioxide is responsible for
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

20%
30%
40%
50%
60%

of
of
of
of
of

greenhouse
greenhouse
greenhouse
greenhouse
greenhouse

gases
gases
gases
gases
gases

010100020021000E
Ozone is harmful at
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

stratospheric levels in the atmosphere


substratospheric levels in the atmosphere
upper levels in the atmosphere
all levels in the atmosphere
lower levels in the atmosphere

010100020021000B
Chlorofluorocarbons
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

contribute to the acid rain problem


destroy ozone after they reach the stratosphere
combine with ozone to produce toxins
are the main heat trapping gases responsible for the
greenhouse effect
break down and become harmless as they rise in the
atmosphere

010100020021000C
The greenhouse effect is responsible for
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

heart and circulatory system strain


the diminishing maple sugar industry
drought conditions
fouling on fish gills
the death of microscopic life in lakes

010100020021000B
The most common method of removing sulphur dioxide from flue
gases involves the use of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

caustic soda
limestone
an alkali wash
sodium carbonate
a dilute sulphuric acid wash

010100020021000C
The conversion of nitrogen to nitrogen oxides occurs at
temperatures above
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,250
1,450
1,650
1,850
2,250

degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees

C
C
C
C
C

216
010100020021000A
To reduce nitrogen oxides in the flue gas, the dual register
burner
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

reduces turbulence to delay combustion hence reducing


temperatures
completes combustion in the burner tube before the
furnace area
supplies cooling air to reduce furnace temperature
increases turbulence for most efficient combustion
uses maximum excess air for combustion at high
temperatures

010100020021000D
Hydrogen as an alternative fuel is considered ideal because
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

it burns at low temperatures therefore minimizing


nitrogen oxide formation
it has nearly the same heating value as carbon
it is safe and easy to store
water vapour is the only product of combustion
the cost of production is minimal

010100020021000C
Regenerable systems used for flue gas desulphurization
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

are less expensive than non-regenerable methods


use lime or limestone in scrubbing the flue gas
produce a marketable by-product
are better developed and more widely applied than
non-regenerable systems
produce no marketable by-product

Potential Environmental Impact of Operating Facilities


010100020021000E
Which of the following, created by operating facilities may
have an adverse affect on the environment:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

noise generation
incomplete combustion
planned vapour release
solid non-toxic wastes
all of the above

010100020021000A
A valuable tool in recognition of an environmental problem is
the use of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

WHMIS
TDG systems
operating systems
reporting systems
incident systems

217

010100020021000D
New facilities such as compressor stations require
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a soil impact study


an air quality impact study
a gas conservation study
a noise impact statement
a wildlife impact statement

010100020021000D
The first action of plant personnel upon finding unplanned
environmental excursion is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

to report the incident to OH&S


to report the incident to Provincial Environmental
Authorities
to report the incident to E.R.C.B.
minimize and control the release
alert the rest of the plant personnel

010100020021000B
Who provides the most effective means of problem recognition
in the plant?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Occupational Health and Safety


operating and maintenance personnel
plant superintendent
cleaning staff
fire marshall

010100020021000E
As a plant ages, changes in operating conditions that affect
the environment are the responsibility of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the ERCB
the company operating the plant
OH&S
the Environmental Review Board
plant operating personnel

010100020021000D
The three types of actions that can result when a problem
area is identified are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

immediate, medium range, and long term actions


permanent, intermediate, and long term actions
permanent, interim, and adoptive actions
permanent, interim, and adaptive actions
short term, adaptive, and long term actions

010100020021000B
The ability of operating personnel to deal with abnormal
environmental conditions in a timely and efficient manner is
facilitated by

218
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

incident plans
emergency plans
adaptive action plans
permanent action plans
continuous action plans

010100020021000E
To lessen environmental incident, operating personnel should
know
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the material they are dealing with


the isolation points in the process
what is required to contain a release
the problems that an upset in a process may cause to the
environment
all of the above

010100020021000C
The acceptable design sound level heard at the nearest
permanently or seasonally occupied dwelling would be stated
in the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

soil impact study


wildlife impact statement
noise impact statement
air quality impact study
gas conservation study

010100020021000A
"Permanent action"
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

deals with and eliminates the root problem


allows you to live with the problem indefinitely
is unattainable
requires a plan to address the problem at the earliest
opportunity
suggests a time frame for follow up

010100020021000A
The most proficient method of dealing with environmental
impacts due to wastes is to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

avoid the generation of hazardous waste


ensure it conforms with the TDG Act (Alberta)
ensure that disposal of material waste confirms with
required legislation
conduct periodic inspections of the company used to
dispose of hazardous waste
use long term storage

010100020021000B
When decommissioning and abandoning a processing site
a)
b)

a site restoration proposal must be done


an environmental impact study and a remedial plan must be
made

219
c)
d)
e)

an ERCB approved plan must be implemented


an OH&S study must be done
a company liability study must be done

010100020021000C
Soil contaminated by a hazardous material should be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

flushed with plenty of water


neutralized by an acidic or basic solution
removed, placed in sealed containers and disposed of
contained within the defined boundary
heated to above 500 degrees C to drive off the
contaminants

Engineering Materials
010100020021000E
Resistance to indentation refers to a metals property which
is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

brittleness
elasticity
malleability
toughness
hardness

010100020021000D
Malleability of a metal
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

will usually decrease as the temperature rises


is checked using the Charpy tester
means it will crack when struck with a hammer
usually increases with the addition of heat
means the same as "toughness"

010100020021000C
A material that can be drawn out or extended in length
without breakage is said to be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

hard
brittle
ductile
chilled
malleable

010100020021000D
Materials which will break rather than bend when subjected to
an outside force are said to be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

tough
malleable
hard
brittle
stiff

220

010100020021000C
In the process of forming iron, limestone is added to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

pig iron moulds


the iron ore in the moulds
the molten iron ore in order to form slag
make the resulting pig iron more malleable
increase the pig iron elasticity

010100020021000E
The result of removing nearly all the impurities and carbon
from pig iron is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

white cast iron


steel
low carbon steel
coke
wrought iron

010100020021000C
Medium carbon steel becomes difficult to weld when the carbon
content exceeds
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

10%
3.5%
0.35%
0.25%
0.1%

010100020021000E
Pig iron
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

is the raw material from which brass is made


has a high percentage of graphite
contains at least 2% carbon
has most of its carbon in a combined state
is the raw material from which cast iron is made

010100020021000D
An element which reduces creep in metal is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

nickel
copper
vanadium
molybdenum
manganese

010100020021000D
In order to avoid residual stresses after welding, alloy
steels
a)
b)
c)
d)

cannot contain any carbon


must contain copper
are not affected by carbon content
should be heated before, during, and after welding

221
e)

must be heated after welding

010100020021000D
When nickel is added to alloy steel, it
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

produces increased hardness


produces improved machineability
causes brittleness
produces improved corrosion resistance
produces improved elasticity

010100020021000C
When chromium is added to alloy steel it produces
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

increased toughness
increased ductility
increased hardness
improved machineability
improved malleability

010100020021000E
Nickel when added to steel
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

improves hardness and brittleness


decreases toughness and corrosion resistance
improves malleability
decreases hardness and brittleness
improves toughness and corrosion resistance

010100020021000B
An alloy of copper, tin, and sometimes zinc is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

brass
bronze
white metal
babbit
low carbon steel

010100020021000E
Copper alloys
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

are
are
are
are
are

harder to machine than copper


not as strong as copper itself
less resistant to corrosion than copper
much lower in carbon content than copper
easier to machine than copper itself

010100020021000B
Aluminum is produced from
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

copper and zinc


bauxite
non-ferrous ore
aluminum ore
babbit

222

010100020021000C
Aluminum alloys are used in the construction of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

condenser tubes
motor casings
internal combustion engine parts
bearing shells
valves and piping

010100020021000A
Bismuth, silver and antimony are sometimes found in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

bearing metals
bronze
copper
brass
chrome products

010100020021000D
Relative to bearing metal or babbit, the greater the amount
of lead it contains
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the greater will be the amount of tin


the load it will be able to support will be less
the faster the equipment will be able to operate
the greater will be the load it will be able to support
the less chance it will have of being alloyed with
antimony

010100020021000D
Brass is an alloy of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

copper and bronze


copper and lead
brass and lead
copper and zinc
copper and tin

010100020021000D
Bearing metal
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

is sometimes called babbit metal


is sometimes called white metal
can be heated to any temperature
can be made for different types of service
1,
2,
1,
1,
3,

2,
3,
3,
2,
4

3
4
4
4

010100020021000D
Babbit is composed of

223
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

75%
89%
10%
89%
75%

tin; 15% lead; 10% copper


lead; 7.5% tin; 3.5% copper
tin; 15% antimony; 75% lead
tin; 7.5% lead; 3.5% copper
lead; 15% tin; 10% antimony

Welding Methods
010100020021000A
When "plastic state" and "pressure" are terms used to
describe a type of weld, it is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

forge welding
oxy-acetylene welding
resistance welding
submerged arc welding
electric arc welding

010100020021000E
The oldest form of welding is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

resistance welding
spot welding
electric arc welding
plasma arc welding
forge welding

010100020021000D
When a filler rod and very hot flame are used in a welding
process, the weld method is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

submerged arc welding


heli-arc method
electric arc method
oxy-acetylene method
spot-weld method

010100020021000C
Non-alloy low carbon steel filler rods are most often used
in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

submerged arc welding


heli-arc welding
oxy-acetylene welding
electric arc welding
forge welding

010100020021000E
Cast iron and malleable iron are commonly repaired using
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

oxy-acetylene welding
submerged arc welding
electric arc welding
soldering
brazing

224

010100020021000B
A "tinning temperature" is used in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

soldering
brazing
forging
electric arc welding
metal cutting

010100020021000E
When braze welding, the filler rod is usually
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

alloy steel
brass
antimony
aluminum
bronze

010100020021000B
When acetylene is stored in a cylinder it is absorbed in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

water
acetone
chromate
phosphate
acetate

010100020021000A
Acetylene should not be used at pressures above
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

103
120
50
25
10

kPa
kPa
kPa
kPa
kPa

010100020021000A
Soft soldering is a form of braze welding where soldering
temperatures are in the range of
a)
150 260 degrees Celsius
b)
500 - 1,000 degrees Celsius
c) 1,000 - 1,200 degrees Celsius
d) 1,200 - 1,500 degrees Celsius
e)
700 900 degrees Celsius
010100020021000C
Solder connections are usually used on
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

steel lines
stainless steel lines
copper lines
aluminum lines
cast iron lines

225
010100020021000D
Acetylene hose connections have
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

right hand threads


no threads
slip-on connections
left hand threads
quick couplers

010100020021000A
Which of the following is the colour for an acetylene hose?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

red
green
black
white
yellow

010100020021000B
The following grades of Pressure Welders Certificate of
Competency are established under the Boilers Act:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

"A" and "B"


"A", "B", and "C"
"A"
"B"
"AC" and "DC"

010100020021000D
When brought into an oxygen rich atmosphere, steel will burn
at
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

358 degrees C
507 degrees C
670 degrees C
870 degrees C
1,213 degrees C

010100020021000E
When flame cutting, metal temperature must be brought above
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,000
900
980
1,100
870

degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees

Celsius
Celsius
Celsius
Celsius
Celsius

010100020021000B
When flame cutting, a blast of pure oxygen is directed into the
heated metal to
a)
b)
c)
d)

blow molten metal out


burn away a portion of the metal
cool the metal
produce slag

226
e)

remove slag

010100020021000D
A standard flame cutting torch has __________ holes in the
tip.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

four
three
five
seven
six

010100020021000B
A rectifier used in arc welding
a)

will produce temperatures in the range of 700 to 830


degrees
will change AC to DC
is used for weld inspection
will rectify slag inclusion problems
produces an arc in the temperature range of 8,300 to
13,000 degrees C

b)
c)
d)
e)

010100020021000E
Electric arc temperatures may be as high as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

3,000
4,250
5,325
7,450
8,300

degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees

C
C
C
C
C

010100020021000E
The current supply for electric arc welding may be a/an:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

alternating current
direct current and straight polarity
direct current and reverse polarity
direct current generators
1,
2,
1,
1,
1,

3
3,
2,
3,
2,

4
4
4
3, 4

010100020021000D
If a welding electrode has the following identifying number
"E7015", what does the "70" represent?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

70
70,000
70
70,000
700

kPa
kPa
psi
psi
psi

227
010100020021000A
If a welding electrode has the following identifying number
"E6016", what does the "1" represent?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the welding position


AC or DC with medium penetration
DC reverse polarity with medium penetration
AC with deep penetration
DC with deep penetration

110100020021000E
The electrical power necessary for arc welding may be supplied by:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

generators
transformers
rectifiers
pumps
1,
1,
1,
1,
1,

2,
3,
2
2,
2,

3, 4
4
4
3

010100020021000C
With reverse polarity
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the welding electrode is connected to the negative terminal


AC power is supplied to the electrode
the welding electrode is connected to the positive terminal
AC or DC power may be supplied to the electrode
DC power is supplied to the electrode

010100020021000C
With straight polarity
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

AC or DC power may be supplied to the electrode


DC power is supplied to the electrode
the welding electrode is connected to the negative
terminal
AC power is supplied to the electrode
the welding electrode is connected to the positive
terminal

010100020021000D
A welding electrode stamped "E6010" would have a tensile
strength of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

6,000
6,010
6,100
60,000
60,100

psi
psi
psi
psi
psi

010100020021000B

228
The item which keeps the weld from oxidizing, cooling too
fast, and the bead smooth during submerged arc welding is
the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

arc temperature
flux
steadiness of the welder's hand
rod composition
rod rate of feed

010100020021000A
Advantages of submerged arc welding include:
1.
2.
3.
4.

a protective coating is not required over the electrode


the arc is not visible
weld seams are neat and uniform in appearance
a skilled welder is not required to operate the
machinery
very little gas or fumes rise from the weld

5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2,
1,
2,
3,
1,

3,
4,
3,
4,
3,

5
5
4
5
5

010100020021000C
Submerged arc welding is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

an oxyacetylene welding process


an AC electric welding process
an AC or DC electric welding process
a DC welding process
a braze welding process

010100020021000A
A common method used to start the arc in submerged arc
welding is with
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a piece of steel wool


a long wooden match
an electric sparker
an oil soaked torch
a striker similar to that used in oxyacetylene

Welding Terms and Inspection


010100020021000A
When a weld pass is made to deposit a backing weld behind the
root pass, it is termed
a)
b)
c)
d)

a backing pass
the axis of the weld
boxing
the lead angle

229
e)

the plug weld

010100020021000B
A gas pocket or weld cavity caused by gas or moisture trapped
in a weld is called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a box
a blowhole
coalescence
a crater
spatter

010100020021000A
Coalescence is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the same as fusion


a type of coating used on a welding rod
a term used in brazing
a term used in soldering
the mixing of gases in a cutting torch

010100020021000B
When a weld is made with two pieces of parent metal at or
near the same plane the weld is termed a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

fusion weld
butt joint weld
lap join weld
bevel angle weld
box weld

010100020021000A
When heat from electric current and pressure are used in
welding, it is known as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

resistance welding
forge welding
submerged arc welding
MIG welding
TIG welding

010100020021000E
Non-destructive testing of a weld means
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

testing the weld by means of chemical analysis


raising the hydrostatic pressure on a vessel to the point
of rupture
mechanical testing of a sample or small portion of a weld
thermal shocking a vessel to the point of fracture
subjecting the weld to a radiographic inspection

010100020021000E
Slugging is a term which refers to
a)

creation of a gas pocket created by gas or moisture


trapped in the weld

230
b)
c)
d)
e)

solid non-metallic material trapped in the weld


stresses built up in a structure as a result of welding
metal particles being sprayed out during the welding
process
adding pieces of unspecified rod or metal as filler
during a weld

010100020021000C
Slag inclusion results from
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

metal particles being sprayed out during the weld process


adding pieces of rod or metal as filler to the weld
solid non-metallic material being trapped in the weld
creation of a gas pocket due to trapped gases
stresses built up after the weld process

010100020021000A
A "reducing flame" is one which is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

rich in acetylene
placed an increased distance from the work
oxygen rich
held perpendicular to the weld axis
most likely to cause backfire

010100020021000B
Gas pockets trapped within a weld is commonly called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

flux
porosity
spatter
slugging
fusion

010100020021000C
Flux is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a grouping of gas pockets together in a weld


the unspecified pieces of scrap metal added to a weld to
speed up the process
a granular substance deposited with the weld
the metal added as filler to a weld area
a gas flame which is neither rich in oxygen or acetylene

010100020021000C
Destructive testing of a weld means
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

destruction of one complete weld of a structure or vessel


destruction of the complete vessel after construction
mechanical testing of a sample or small portion of a weld
raising hydrostatic pressure on a vessel to the point of
rupture
thermal shocking a vessel to the point of fracture

010100020021000B
A method of testing a weld which is quick, easy, and

231
inexpensive is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

fluorescent penetrant method


visual method
ultrasonic method
dye penetrant method
radiographic method

010100020021000A
The best method of weld inspection if error is to be avoided
is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

visual method
fluorescent penetrant method
ultrasonic method
dye penetrant method
radiographic method

010100020021000E
When an ultraviolet light is used in weld inspections, the
testing method is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

destructive
dye penetrant
ultrasonic
radiographic
fluorescent penetrant

010100020021000C
The basic difference between fluorescent penetrant and dye
penetrant is that dye penetrant
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

makes valuable use of penetrameters


uses less compounds than fluorescent
involves the use of a developer compound
cannot be reliable in locating porosity in a weld
requires a "black" light to detect cracks

010100020021000D
When penetrameters are used for testing welds, the method
being used is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

dye penetrant
ultrasonic
fluorescent penetrant
radiographic
visual

010100020021000D
When using radiographic inspections, defects such as cracks
and porosity show up as
a)
b)
c)
d)

lighter shadows on the photographic paper


wave signals on a small screen
darker shadows on the penetrameter
darker shadows on the photographic paper

232
e)

lighter shadows on the penetrameter

010100020021000B
Ultrasonic inspection involves the use of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

short wavelength radiations


high frequency vibrations
fluorescent penetrant dye
radiographic penetrameters
gamma rays

010100020021000D
Rules for uses of radiographic and ultrasonic inspection are
covered in the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Rules for Care and Operation of Power Boilers Code


ASME Section IX - Welding and Brazing Qualifications
Canadian Standards B-51
Power Boiler Code Section I
ASME Section II - Materials Specification

Introduction to Piping and Piping Fittings


010100020021000C
The mass of a two metre length of schedule 40 pipe, nominal
size 101.6 mm, is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

12.04 kg
8 kg
31.9 kg
26.92 kg
11.48 kg

010100020021000C
For power plants, materials used for the manufacturing of
pipes must be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

cast iron
seamless stainless steel
suited to the operating conditions of the piping system
case hardened
alloyed with sulphur

010100020021000D
In order to convey fluid from one storage tank to another
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

valves are required


pumps are necessary
drains are required
piping is required
control valves are necessary

233
010100020021000A
Two main categories of steel piping manufactured are the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

seamless or welded type


plastic or steel type
ferrous or copper type
thick or thin type
single or double walled

010100020021000B
Since cast iron has a high resistance to corrosion and abrasion,
it is used for
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

underground steam lines


ash handling systems
condensate lines
blow-off piping
high pressure service

010100020021000C
Non-ferrous materials used in power plant piping are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

made of asbestos
not allowed by the ASME code
usually made of brass and copper alloys
made of ceramic materials
are made of steel

010100020021000A
Forged steel is used primarily for
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

pipe fittings
sewer lines
steam lines conveying super heated steam
ash handling systems
water treatment piping and valves

010100020021000D
The most frequently used material for piping is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

non-ferrous
cast iron
pig iron
steel
plastic

010100020021000E
Cast iron has a high resistance to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

water pressure
condensate pressure
tensile stress
temperature changes
corrosion

010100020021000B
Piping made of copper and brass are called

234

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

ferrous materials
non-ferrous materials
soft pipe
bronze materials
residential piping

010100020021000E
Pipe is manufactured in two main categories, welded and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

threaded
soldered
brazed
flanged
seamless

010100020021000B
Up to and including 304.8 mm pipe, the size of the pipe is expressed
as a measure of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

circumference
inside diameter
outside diameter
thickness of the wall
outside radius

010100020021000C
Commercial pipe is made in standard sizes each having
several different:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

weights
colours
thickness'
shapes
threads
1,
2,
1,
4,
2,

5
3, 4
3
5
3, 5

010100020021000A
All classes of pipes of a given size have
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the
the
the
the
the

same
same
same
same
same

outside diameter
inside diameter
length
expansion coefficient
mass per metre run of the pipe

010100020021000D
Double extra strong pipe is denoted by
a)
b)

SS
2S

235
c)
d)
e)

ES
XXS
DES

010100020021000C
A newer method used to designate pipe wall thickness is by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

measuring the thickness with callipers


using a comparitor gage
using schedule numbers
using a pipe gauge
using a pipe graph comparitor chart

010100020021000A
As the wall thickness of a pipe increases the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

inside diameter is reduced


outside diameter increases
the weight of the pipe decreases
the bore of the pipe increases
the pipe becomes less suitable for steam service

010100020021000C
The inside diameter of a pipe is expressed as the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

average pipe size


regular pipe size
nominal pipe size
circumferential pitch
central cross section of service

010100020021000D
For varying wall thickness' of pipe, tables are developed
which give the dimensions and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

volume in cu m
length in cm
diameter in cm square
weight in kg/m
thickness in cm

010100020021000C
Up to and including 304.8 mm pipe, the size is expressed as
_________________ inside diameter.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

natural
normal
nominal
greater
reduced

010100020021000E
In most sizes of pipe, schedule forty corresponds to
__________________ wall thickness.
a)
b)

excessive
regular

236
c)
d)
e)

reduced
higher
standard

010100020021000A
A newer method used to designate pipe wall thickness is
__________________ number.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

schedule
regulation
diameter
circumference
pipe registration

010100020021000B
Copper and copper alloy piping and tubing is not used in
power plants when
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

pressure is a prime factor


temperature is a prime factor
instrumentation systems require tubing
steam becomes corrosive
chemicals are used in the applicable system

010100020021000E
As a piping and pipe fitting material, cast steel is used
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

extensively for fittings


mainly for instrumentation and control piping
for construction of welded pipe
steam traps
primarily for special applications

010100020021000C
Pipe fittings which are not clearly identified should be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

used only with water systems


tested and used
rejected
painted as required by the colour code
reported to the boilers branch

010100020021000D
All markings on pipes and pipe fittings must indicate the
following three minimum requirements:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
a)
b)
c)
d)

material designation
inside diameter
manufacturer's trademark or name
flange type
service designation
national code colour
1,
2,
3,
1,

2,
4,
4,
3,

6
5
6
5

237
e)

4, 5, 6

010100020021000C
The piping service symbols "A", "G", "O" stand for:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

ammonia, grease, and oxygen


aluminum, glass, and octane
air, gas, and oil
air, glycol, and oil
ammonia, gas, and octane

010100020021000A
A valve stamped with the following service symbol letters
"G", "A", "S" stands for:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

gas, air, and steam


gaseous substances
grease, acetylene, and sulphur
glue, acid, and salt brine
glycol, air, and saline

010100020021000B
A grey cast iron fitting is identified by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the
not
the
the
the

letters G.C.I.
being marked on the fittings
letters G.C.
letters C.I.
letters G.C.I.F.

010100020021000B
Fittings used to connect a straight run of same size piping
are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

nipples
couplings
bushings
elbows
return bends

010100020021000D
Relative to pipe and fittings, an anchor chair is used to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

install piping at considerable height


allow for expansion and contraction of pipe
anchor a slip type expansion joint
support pipe
hold a large fitting in a piping run

010100020021000C
Combine the following gaskets with their use:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

cork
asbestos rope
rubber
metal asbestos
high pressure steam

238
6.
7.
8.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

lubricating oil
cold water
flue gas ducts
1-7,
1-5,
1-6,
1-8,
1-8,

4-8,
2-6,
3-7,
2-7,
3-6,

3-6,
3-7,
4-5,
3-6,
2-7,

2-5
4-8
2-8
4-5
4-5

010100020021000B
Low pressure steam pipes are usually connected together by:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

welding
glands
screwed fittings
flanges
1,
1,
2,
1,
3,

2,
3,
3,
2,
4

3
4
4
3, 4

010100020021000A
The best material for gaskets in very high temperature areas
would be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

metallic
cork
nylon
plastic foam
rubber

010100020021000C
A disadvantage of using threads to join pipes and fittings is,
that it
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

is more costly
cannot be repaired
weakens the pipe
does not allow for expansion
requires the services of a pipe fitter

010100020021000D
The vanstone type flange fits on the pipe
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

in a fixed position
by being welded onto the inside circumference of the flange
by being threaded on the ends
loosely
by evenly spaced set screws

010100020021000D
When tightening pipe flange bolts
a)

tighten them in sequence

239
b)
c)
d)
e)

the gasket should be held in place by gasket glue


the top bolts must be tightened first
use a cross-over method or criss-cross method of tightening
tighten every second bolt first then tighten the others

010100020021000B
Welding together pipe size of two inch nominal size and
smaller is usually done by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the oxygen-acetylene method


the socket welded method
the butt welded method
non-pressure welders
pipe fitters

010100020021000C
By using backing rings in butt welded pipes, the backing ring
serves to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

reinforce the pipe because of bevelling at the joint


reduce sludge flow
align the pipe
support the pipe to the wall
prevent welding gases from entering the pipe line

010100020021000D
Ring joint gaskets are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

round in cross-section
flat
square in cross-section
oval in cross-section
hollow

010100020021000A
Gaskets are used in pipe flange joints to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

prevent leakage because of small imperfections in the


flange face
allow for pipe expansion between each flanged joint
make up for the misalignment of the pipe
provide cushioning in the event of water hammer
prevent air ingress in high pressure steam mains

010100020021000A
A bellows type corrugated expansion joint is suitable for
pressures up to approximately
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2,000 kPa
500 kPa
1,000 kPa
30,000 kPa
15,000 kPa

010100020021000E
A device which incorporates a swirling motion to remove
moisture from a piping system is the

240

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

steam trap
baffle type separator
chevron drier
centrifuge
centrifugal separator

010100020021000D
The two types of expansion joints are the ________________
and the slip expansion joint.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

bolted
fixed
stationary
bellows
rotating

010100020041000B
Expansion of piping is controlled by:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

anchoring the pipe at both ends to prevent movement


installing a corrugated expansion joint in the line
installing an expansion bend in the line
anchoring the pipe at both ends and installing hangers
every five metres
1,
2,
2,
1,
2,

2
3
3, 4
2, 3, 4
3, 4

010100020021000A
Expansion bends have the advantage over the expansion joint
for one of the following reasons:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

being stronger
they are thinner
they are heavier
they are cheaper
they are portable

010100020021000D
Expansion bends or joints are implemented in piping systems
to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

allow for correct piping drainage


give allowance for pressure increases
protect against water hammer damage
allow for expansion and contraction of the piping
reduce pipe costs

010100020021000B
Pipe hangers are installed at three metre intervals to:
1.
2.

align the pipe


keep the pipe out of the way of foot traffic

241
3.
4.
5.

provide a proper drainage slope


support the weight of the pipe, valves, and fluid
contained within the pipe
allow for pipe expansion

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,
1,
1,
1,
2,

2,
3,
2,
2,
3,

4
4, 5
5
3, 4, 5
5

010100020021000D
The bellows type expansion joint is good for pressures up
to approximately
a) 7,000 kPa
b)
700 kPa
c) 15,000 kPa
d) 2,000 kPa
e) 5,000 kPa
010100020021000D
A slip type pipe expansion joint:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

is stronger than the bellows types


is actually a pipe within a pipe
can have packing added when in service
has a lubrication fitting
is usually flame fitted to the pipe
1,
1,
1,
1,
2,

3,
2,
2,
2,
3,

4, 5
5
4
3, 4, 5
5

010100020021000B
Before admitting any steam to a steam piping system it is
imperative to first
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

warm the line up properly


positively ensure that no water or condensate exists in
the piping
ensure drain valves are closed
crack open the steam valve
ensure the steam pressure is at maximum value allowed
without the boiler safety valve opening

010100020021000C
Cold water piping systems are usually insulated so that
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the loss of heat is prevented


the ingress of heat is prevented
corrosion is minimized or eliminated
appearance is improved
water hammer is eliminated

242
010100020021000E
An insulation suitable for temperatures up to 430 degrees C
is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

plastic foam
asbestos
magnesia
glass fibre
cellular glass

010100020021000C
Ease of application and installation is a desirable property
of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

pipe fittings
asbestos insulation
pipe insulation
piping
tubing

010100020021000C
Improper drainage of steam lines could
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

result in excessive steam pressures


cause low pressure in the lines
eventually result in water hammer
give excessive weight to the pipe
render the feed water pump ineffective

010100020021000B
Piping insulation should have the following characteristics:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,
1,
1,
1,
1,

be non-corrosive
a low heat conductivity
high eddy current values
be easy to remove from the pipe
retain its shape and insulating value when wet
be vermin proof
2,
2,
3,
2,
3,

4,
5,
4,
3,
5

6
6
5
5

010100020021000A
The main purpose of installing insulation on pipe systems is
to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

prevent heat transfer


give the pipe a neat appearance
prevent injury to personnel due to contact with the
bare surfaces of the pipe
provide a paintable surface
prevent condensate from evaporating in the lines

010100020021000C

243
Plastic foams used for pipe insulation are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

used for high temperature service


for refrigeration system piping only
for lower temperature insulation purposes
prohibited from power plant use
glued directly to the pipe

010100020021000E
Insulating pipes which carry substances lower than the ambient
air temperature, will prevent _________________ on the pipe
and consequent dripping and corrosion.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

discoloration
evaporation
water hammering
expansion
sweating

010100020021000C
The purpose of a steam separator is to
remove ______________ from the steam.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

oil
air
moisture
gas
non-condensables

010100020021000D
The purpose of steam traps is to remove condensate and
_____________________ from steam lines.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

oil
water
chemicals
non-condensables
sludge

010100020021000E
A ______________________ should be installed
just ahead of a steam trap.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

check valve
non return valve
pressure gauge
pressure reducing valve
sediment separator

010100020021000B
A mechanical steam trap
a)
b)
c)
d)

can be fitted in any position


may have a thermostatic air release
should be fitted to the safety valve drain
has alcohol inside the float

244
e)

has a very low pressure range of operation

010100020021000C
A thermostatic trap is controlled by a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

difference in velocity between condensate and steam


combination of bucket and float
temperature differential between condensate and steam
bucket which tips when filled with condensate
high level float control

010100020021000C
A purpose of a steam trap is to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

prevent steam from flowing in the steam line


prevent air from flowing in the steam line
automatically drain condensate from steam lines
cause the water in steam lines to accumulate
hold back foreign particles from the steam line

010100020021000C
The purpose of a steam trap is to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

collect steam for storage purposes


reduce high pressure steam to a lower pressure
remove condensation from steam lines without allowing steam
to pass
remove steam from a steam line without allowing water to pass
prevent sludge compounds from entering the steam line

010100020021000D
Steam traps are usually located
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

at
at
at
at
at

the
the
the
the
the

highest point of a steam line


highest point of a hot water line
lowest point of a hot water line
lowest point of a steam line
hottest point of a steam line

010100020021000E
The operation of a mechanical steam trap depends on the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

difference in temperature between the steam and condensate


difference in specific gravity between the steam and condensate
difference in pressure between the steam and condensate
liquid level in the condensate tank
liquid level in the steam trap

010100020021000B
Two fittings that can be found on a steam separator are:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

gauge glass
pressure gauge
vent valve
steam trap
safety valve

245
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,
1,
2,
4,
2,

2
4
3
5
5

Introduction to Valves
010100020021000C
A valve which has the best capability of handling slurries
and fluids with high suspended solids is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

globe valve
gate valve
ball valve
needle valve
plug valve

010100020021000A
A valve having minimum wire drawing and seat erosion is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

globe valve
gate valve
plug valve
hand valve
wedge gate valve

010100020021000E
A valve which requires specific and routine lubrication is
the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

butterfly valve
globe valve
pressure reducing valve
check valve
tapered plug valve

010100020021000D
A valve which often contains a dashpot to cushion the action
of the valve is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

needle valve
swing check valve
pressure regulating valve
lift check valve
safety valve

010100020021000A
Increasing the spring tension of a pressure regulating valve
will
a)
b)
c)

increase the regulated pressure downstream of the valve


close the valve tight
decrease the regulated pressure downstream of the valve

246
d)
e)

cause the valve to go to the wide open position


reduce or minimize the cycling or "hunting" of the valve

010100020021000B
In order to ensure safe and continuous operation of a
pressure reducing valve, the valve station should have
a)
b)

a safety valve on the downstream side


a by-pass loop, downstream safety valve, and a downstream
pressure gage
the piping to the station made of at least Schedule 80
piping
a Y-strainer immediately after the valve
a metal rather than composition diaphragm

c)
d)
e)

010100020021000A
A check valve is a valve that
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

allows flow in one direction only


allows flow in two directions
allows flow at regular intervals
does not allow any flow at all
has a locking spindle

010100020021000D
The by-pass around a regulating valve should contain a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

rising stem gate valve


non-rising stem gate valve
swing check valve
rising stem globe valve
lift type check valve

010100020021000C
A gate valve:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

has less restriction in a line than a globe valve


should be operated either fully open or fully closed
is used to throttle flow
is used for different applications than a globe valve
1,
1,
1,
2,
2,

2,
3,
2,
3,
4

3, 4
4
4
4

010100020021000D
A globe valve:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)

has less restriction in a line than a gate valve


should be operated either fully open or fully closed
is used to throttle flow
is used for different applications than a gate valve
1, 2, 3, 4
2, 3, 4

247
c)
d)
e)

1, 2, 4
1, 3, 4
2, 4

010100020021000B
Butterfly valves have several advantages such as they:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

only require 1/4 turn to open


are self-cleaning
provide negligible pressure drop when fully open
can have the disc lubricated while in operation
are self-adjusting so alignment is not required during
installation
1,
2,
2,
3,
1,

3
3
4
4, 5
2, 5

010100020021000C
The maximum temperature which a non-special alloy steel valve
can be used for is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

280 degrees C
425 degrees C
650 degrees C
1,000 degrees C
1,500 degrees C

010100020021000E
Relative to valves, a frequent cause of serious accidents is
due to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

valves being of the wrong size


a lack of valve maintenance
inadequate operational training
manufacturing defects
wrong materials of construction

010100020021000B
In order to extend the life of valve packing we can
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

operate the valve at lower temperatures


lubricate the packing regularly with oil
replace the packing annually
manipulate the valve slower
manipulate the valve on a regular basis

010100020021000A
Regular inspection of a valve is important and items which
require close scrutiny are the
a)
b)
c)

disc and seat


stem and body
seat and stem

248
d)
e)

stuffing box and spindle threads


hand wheel and packing

010100020021000E
Valve packing, depending on service, may be made from:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Teflon
manila
impregnated asbestos
Halon
semi-metallic material
1,
2,
1,
3,
1,

2,
3,
2,
4,
3,

5
4
3
5
5

010100020021000C
"Valve trim" consists of the following parts:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

stuffing box
disc
seat ring
bonnet
valve stem
body
guide bushings
1,
3,
2,
1,
2,

2,
4,
3,
2,
3,

4,
5,
5,
6,
4,

6
6
7
7
5

010100020021000B
Material designation of a pipe fitting
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

gives where the material is used


tells what material makes up the fitting
gives the temperature to which the fitting can be
subjected
tells what the material is suited for
is not required for low pressure steam service

010100020021000D
All markings on pipe and pipe fittings shall be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

painted with black paint


made with capital letters
covered for protection
legible
written vertically in capital letters

010100020021000C
Service designation of a pipe fitting indicates the

249
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

type of liquid used in the fitting


type of gas used in the fitting
temperature-pressure rating of the fitting
maximum pipe fluid flow velocity
maximum viscosity of the fluid

010100020021000C
Pressure and/or temperature rating of a fitting is known as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

material designation
manufacturer's trademark
service designation
thermal designation
work requirement

010100020021000E
The advantage of a rising spindle steam stop valve is that:
1.

you can tell from a distance if the valve is open or


closed
it provides a place to install isolation tags
it may be easily lubricated
the threaded part is not exposed to corrosion by the
high temperature steam

2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

3,
1,
1,
2,
1,

4
2,
2,
3,
3,

4
3
4
4

010100020021000B
The purpose of the non-return valve is to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

prevent water from entering the steam header


prevent the back flow of steam
drain condensate from the main steam header
prevent the safety valve from popping
regulate the flow of steam from the boiler

Development of Boiler Design


010100020021000C
A straight tube longitudinal drum boiler with a chain grate
stoker usually had
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

one pass
two passes
three passes
four passes
an internal furnace

010100020021000C
The Haycock boiler was

250

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a watertube unit
of multiple flue gas pass design
used around 1720
of welded construction
a packaged unit

010100020021000A
A characteristic which made early boilers very inefficient
was
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

lack of heating surface


an excess of flat surfaces
the internal furnace
lack of good quality fuels
inadequate water treatment

010100020021000A
An early boiler having a longitudinal shell or drum had as
its heating surface
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

only the lower part of the shell


the lower part of the shell and the rear plate or head
the total shell side and one end plate or head
only the one end plate
two passes along the shell or drum

010100020021000C
Thermal flooding boilers
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

are often termed "Hot Water Boilers"


are low capacity units
are used to inject steam into geological formations
do not use water as the heat transfer medium
are used in the generation of electricity

010100020021000B
The first boiler to have an internal furnace was the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

HRT boiler
Scotch boiler
longitudinal drum firetube boiler
locomotive boiler
watertube boiler

010100020021000E
A _________________ is a water-filled section which
surrounds the firebox in locomotive boilers.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

crown sheet
boiler drum
tell tale stay
steam dome
water leg

010100020021000E
The first boiler to have firetubes became known as the

251

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Haycock boiler
Scotch boiler
Mushroom boiler
Haystack boiler
HRT boiler

010100020021000D
The water leg was introduced with the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

scotch boiler
longitudinal drum boiler
watertube boiler
locomotive boiler
HRT boiler

010100020021000A
Safety, efficient operation, and economical fuel consumption
are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

main considerations when designing boilers


the main advantages of a watertube unit over a firetube
unit
the result of "packaged unit" construction
due to improved metals and alloys
the results of environmental protection laws

010100020021000C
The steam space of a boiler must be large in order to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

keep the steam pressure down


reduce the cooling effect of water
separate the water from the steam
accommodate all the steam riser tubes
accommodate a steam separator

010100020021000B
Waterlegs generally
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

act as support for a boiler


surround a furnace
do not act as heating surface
do not require staying
never presented any waterside problems

010100020021000B
All parts of the boiler exposed to fire or hot gases must be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

made of firebrick
covered by water
air cooled
fitted with expansion joints
covered with ceramic tile

010100020021000B
Boiler structural strength must

252
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

be at least ten times the normal working pressure rating


be at least equal to the various code requirements
take into account only pressure values and not consider
temperatures
be increased if thinner metal is to be used
be verified by the purchaser

010100020021000A
A steam boiler should be compact in design in order to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

reduce building costs


be easier to move
weigh less
be easier to maintain
reduce operating costs

Basic Boiler Terminology


010100020021000C
A boiler which will start and stop without human help once a
start-up is initiated is termed
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

semi-automatic
self regulating
automatic
modulating controlled unit
packaged

010100020021000B
The maximum energy input to a hot water supply boiler is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

454 L per minute


58.7 kW
20,000 BTU
127 Imperial gallons per minute
587 kW

010100020021000B
For horizontal firetube boilers, the lowest visible water
level in the gage glass is set not less than __________ above
the highest point of the tubes.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2 inches
3 inches
50 mm
1 inch
25 mm

010100020021000E
A low pressure steam boiler is one which operates
a)
b)
c)
d)

at an
above
above
above

energy input above 58.7 kW


103 kPa
121 degrees C
1100 kPa

253
e)

at or below 103 kPa

010100020021000E
A device used on smaller heating boilers to measure water
"head" or height is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

gage glass
header
pressure gage
siphon
altitude gage

010100020021000A
An example of a boiler fitting would be a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

temperature controller
forced draft fan
combustion chamber
drum
sootblower

010100020021000D
An induced draft fan handles
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

air from the combustion process


air going to the combustion process
flue gases going to the combustion process
flue gases from the combustion process
fuel gases from the combustion process

010100020021000B
The lowest permissible water level of a power boiler is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

25
50
25
50
76

mm
mm
mm
mm
mm

below
below
above
below
below

the
the
the
the
the

lowest visible water line


lowest visible water line
fireline
fireline
visible water line

010100020021000E
A device which must be replaced each time it performs its
function is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

low water fuel cut-off


high steam pressure limiting control
safety valve
blowoff valve
rupture disk

010100020021000C
On older boilers the brickwork which tended to surround the
furnace was termed
a)
b)
c)
d)

the boiler firebox


refractory
the setting of the boiler
the boiler casing

254
e)

the windbox

010100020021000D
A device which usually uses air or steam to do its job is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

siphon
operating control
burner
sootblower
try cock

010100020021000D
A boiler component which surrounds the burner of most boilers
is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

waterleg
stack
uptake
windbox
refractory

010100020021000E
The low water cut-off is a device fitted to the boiler to
shut the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

feed water supply off, if the fuel supply is too low


feed water supply off, if the steam pressure becomes
too high
feedwater supply off, if the boiler temperature becomes
too high
fuel valve off if the water level becomes too high
fuel valve off if the water level becomes too low

010100020021000C
Manholes are openings through which a person can
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

enter the boiler furnace


inspect the boiler uptake
enter the boiler shell or drum
enter and inspect the steam header
enter the ash hopper

010100020021000B
A furnace baffle is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

used to prevent the fire from striking the tubes


installed to direct the hot flue gases
used to prevent the water from surging
used to deflect the flame
installed to prevent carryover

010100020021000D
The windbox of a boiler is
a)
b)

where the fuel and air are mixed for combustion


what the forced draft fan is installed into

255
c)
d)
e)

the collector of the exhaust gases before they go into


the uptake
the ductwork surrounding the burners on the outside of
the boiler into which the air for the burners is
introduced
always maintained under a negative pressure

010100020021000A
A check valve
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

allows flow in one direction only


regulates the flow of feedwater to the boiler
is used to isolate the steam gage
is not considered a fitting
will "pop" open when pressure inside the drum reaches a
set point

010100020021000C
A steam gage
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

indicates the level of water in a boiler


is not considered a boiler fitting
indicates the internal pressure of the boiler
is required on power boilers only
will reset once the boiler pressure has dropped

Firetube Boilers
010100020021000C
HRT boiler firetubes have a diameter range of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

25 to 51 mm
51 to 102 mm
76 to 102 mm
102 to 137 mm
125 to 176 mm

010100020021000B
A device used to prevent the carry-over of moisture with the
steam of an HRT boiler is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

internal pipe
dry pipe
nozzle
head pipe
crown tube

010100020021000C
With regard to a steam boiler, the lettering "HRT" means
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

highly regulated temperature


hot return tubes
horizontal return tubular
highly regulated treatment
horizontal receiver tubes

256

010100020021000A
An advantage of a locomotive boiler over other boilers of the
era was
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

rugged construction
better cleaning and repair access
improved water circulation
less stays were required
lower maintenance costs

010100020021000E
A component used to increase the volume of the steam space in
a locomotive boiler was the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

crown sheet
steam leg
shell head
dry pipe
steam dome

010100020021000C
A boiler which utilized a waterleg and was primarily used for
heating purposes was the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

HRT boiler
locomotive boiler
firebox boiler
Scotch boiler
marine boiler

010100020021000D
A major disadvantage of a firebox is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

first cost is relatively high


it has a low heat transfer efficiency
it is not very compact
cleaning and inspection can be difficult
it has only one flue gas pass

010100020021000B
The firebox boiler is a _______________________ pass firetube
boiler.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

single
two
three
vertical
horizontal

010100020021000E
A corrugated furnace will give required strength with thinner
metal, increase heating surface, and
a)
b)

increase the boiler mass


add to the overall material cost of the unit

257
c)
d)
e)

decrease combustion turbulence


will necessitate the boiler being made longer
allow for differential expansion and contraction

010100020021000B
The wetback Scotch boiler was designed primarily for
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

building heating service


marine service
traction engine service
railway service
very high capacity electrical generation

010100020021000D
In a packaged firetube boiler the flue gas velocity within
the unit is maintained by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

increasing forced draft fan speed


constructing a taller stack
varying the firetube lengths
varying the total cross-sectional area of the fire tubes
in each pass
decreasing forced draft fan speed

010100020021000D
A boiler which is built ready for installation is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Scotch marine boiler


firebox boiler
HRT boiler
packaged boiler
locomotive boiler

010100020021000D
A firetube boiler is one which has
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

water on the inside of the tubes and the hot gas of combustion
on the outside.
the furnace as the first pass of the burner flame.
water on the outside of the tubes and hot water on the inside
of the tubes.
water on the outside of the tubes and the hot gas on the inside
of the tubes.
internally fired tubes surrounded by water.

010100020021000E
When the hot combustion gases travel through boiler tubes which
are surrounded by the boiler water, the boiler is called a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

watertube boiler
tubular boiler
packaged boiler
coil type boiler
firetube boiler

010100020021000D
The advantages of a packaged boiler are:

258

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,
2,
2,
1,
2,

lower freight costs because of less handling


lower initial cost because they are mass produced
quality control is easier to implement
the boilers can be factory tested before being sent
to the customer
it requires little time to put the unit into operation
at the plant site
3
5
3, 4
2, 3, 4, 5
3, 4, 5

Watertube Boilers
010100020021000C
In a longitudinal straight tube boiler the downcomer fed
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

"cool" water to the steam drum


"hot" water to a riser
"cool" water to a rear header
"cool" water to a front header
"hot" water to the water tubes

010100020021000D
A packaged watertube boiler having two mud drums is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

"O" type
"D" type
three drum bent-tube type
"A" type
Sterling type

010100020021000D
High pressure watertubes
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

are always smaller than firetubes


are elliptical in cross-section
are always straight
can be of various bent configurations
require pumps for circulation

010100020021000B
Bent tube watertube boilers
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

cannot have the furnace water-lined


make more efficient use of the furnace
are externally fired
cannot be fitted with heat recovery components
have poor utilization of floor space

010100020021000C

259
A cross drum straight tube boiler
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

could not have higher capacity than a longitudinal drum


unit
was usually only of single pass design
could have more inclined tubes than a longitudinal drum
unit
is a very popular design in today's plants
was internally fired

010100020021000E
Watertube boilers are better suited to higher pressures
than firetube boilers, because they:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,
1,
2,
1,
1,

incorporate a bent tube design


are larger than firetube boilers
do not have flat surfaces subjected to pressure
usually have smaller diameter tubes
have smaller diameter drums
2
3,
3,
2,
3,

5
5
5
4, 5

010100020021000C
The use of bent tube boiler designs allows the furnace wall
to be lined with tubes, thereby exposing more of the heating
surface to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

convection heat
conducted heat
radiant heat
residual heat
latent heat

010100020021000D
The bent tube boiler design allows the tubes to be attached
radially on the outside of the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

furnace
superheater
economizer
shell or drum
air preheater

010100020021000D
Since furnace pressure is often positive on a packaged
watertube boiler, in order to prevent flue gas leakage
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

an induced draft fan is incorporated


smoke stacks are made taller
an economizer is used
a steel casing forms a seal for the furnace
sootblowers cannot be used

260
010100020021000A
Excessive vibrations caused by inadequate support of a
watertube boiler can result in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

insulation failure
water level control problems
tube failure
drum fracture
combustion control problems

010100020021000A
A problem with a D-type watertube packaged boiler is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

excessive vibration
ceiling height requirements
refractory maintenance for the external furnace
its need to be top supported
its poor water circulation

010100020021000B
A unit which would most likely utilize a cyclone furnace
would be the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Sterling watertube boiler


steam generator
packaged watertube boiler
"D" type boiler
three drum bent-tube boiler

010100020021000A
Large steam generating units may have their superheaters
located:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2,
4,
1,
1,
3,

beneath the furnace


in the convection zone
in the main waterwall header
in the radiant zone
in the downcomer pipe
4
5
3
2, 5
4, 5

010100020021000D
Large steam generators
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

are bottom supported


are fired by pulverized coal only
have sluggish water circulation
are usually of the water tube type
have beaded tubes

010100020021000B
Large steam generating units are usually built so that high
pressure, high temperature, and dry steam can be generated in

261
order that
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

more fuel can be fired


large steam turbines can be used to drive electrical generators
higher furnace temperatures can be attained
less water treatment is necessary
stack temperatures can be maintained at a high level
to prevent condensation

010100020021000E
A steam generator economizer is usually located
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

between the air preheater and ID fan


between the primary and secondary superheaters
after the reheater
in the furnace section
between the air preheater and primary superheater

010100020021000D
The most economical fuel to burn in a steam generator is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

natural gas
crushed coal
heavy fuel oil
pulverized coal
crude oil

010100020021000A
Economizers
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

increase the boiler efficiency


are installed before the superheater
increase the steam temperature
increase the air temperature
increase the flue gas temperature

010100020021000B
Air heaters in a boiler
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

are installed between the superheater and the economizer.


reduce the temperature of the flue gases going to the stack.
help the boiler from freezing during the winter period.
increase the flue gas temperature.
maintain a steady higher temperature in the stack.

010100020021000A
Air heaters are implemented in steam generating units in order
to:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)

recover heat from the hot flue gases


improve boiler thermal efficiency
produce dryer steam
heat the feedwater

1, 2
2, 3
1, 2, 4

262
d)
e)

3, 4
2, 3, 4

010100020021000B
Combustion air for the burners is preheated in the
_____________________ by hot flue gases.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

economizer
air heater
superheater
windbox
furnace

Electric Boilers
010100020021000D
Electric boilers
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

require tall stacks for pollution dispersal


tend not to be very compact
require sootblowers when fuel is coal
have energy conversion efficiencies close to 100%
are not as safe as other boilers

010100020021000D
A main disadvantage of an electric boiler is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

they are not very compact


furnace refractory tends to be high maintenance item
vibration requires special footings
input energy cost is high
energy transfer efficiency is low

010100020021000D
An advantage of an electric boiler is, that it
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

has a high steaming rate


can be operated at high pressures and temperatures
produces very dry steam
has a high efficiency of energy transfer from the
electricity to the boiler water
does not require an operator

010100020021000A
An advantage of an electric boiler is that it
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

is silent in operation
can rapidly produce steam
can produce steam at very high pressures
requires only one blow-off valve
does not require a sight glass

010100020021000E
Most electric boilers are limited in pressure to about
2100 kPa due to the effect of high temperature on the

263

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

steam space
submerged area
boiler fittings
vessel structure
elements or electrodes

010100020021000D
A boiler which incorporates a basket and a basket drain valve
is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

steam generator
immersion boiler
Sterling boiler
electrode boiler
thermal flood boiler

010100020021000B
Operating voltage for an electrode boiler may be as high as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

30,000 volts
16,000 volts
5,000 volts
550 volts
240 volts

010100020021000B
Electrode boiler capacities can be as high as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

16,000 kW
30,000 kW
1,200 kPa
1,200 kW
30,000 kPa

010100020021000D
The electrode type boiler
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

cannot have a varying load


must operate at very constant pressure
utilizes bundles of electric elements
requires water which conducts electricity
will produce hydrogen by electrolysis of water

010100020021000B
The steam produced by an electrode type boiler depends on
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the
the
the
the
the

voltage supplied to the elements


level of water in the basket
number of heating elements engaged
number of baffles
amperage supplied to the elements

010100020021000A
The amount of current passed through the water of an electrode
boiler depends on

264
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the
the
the
the
the

depth of the electrodes in the water


control valve setting
steam pressure in the boiler
water quality
water temperature

010100020021000E
One disadvantage of an electric boiler is that it
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

requires alternating current


requires DC power
has no chimney
is not very efficient
is very expensive to operate

010100020021000D
A __________ is not required on an electrode electric type
boiler.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

safety valve
gauge glass
blow-off valve
low water cut-off
pressure gauge

010100020021000A
An immersion electric boiler capacity can be as high as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,500 kW
2,100 kW
30,000 kW
16,000 kW
5,000 kW

010100020021000B
Immersion boiler tube bundles
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

act to conduct current through the water


can be easily removed from the unit for maintenance
purposes
cannot be used to regulate steaming capacity
have very low electrical resistance
operate at only one voltage

010100020021000C
There are two general designs of electric boilers. They are the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

firetube type and water tube type


AC and DC type
electrode and immersion type
grounded and ungrounded type
reverse polarity and negative ground

010100020021000B
Control of the immersion heater boiler is done by
a)

transforming the voltage to a lower value

265
b)
c)
d)
e)

turning the power on and off to the elements as required


a float switch
increasing and decreasing water flow
recirculating boiler water

010100020021000E
The immersion heater boiler has its elements arranged
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

as isolated units in the steam space


equally spaced in the steam space
outside the boiler shell to provide easy access for
maintenance
for operation in sequence on the underside of the shell
as groups of elements submerged in the water space

010100020021000B
Control of the immersion heater boiler is done by turning on
and off the ___________________ supply to one or more
elements as required.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

water
power
steam
amperage
current

Basic Boiler Construction


010100020021000B
Common shell and drum thickness range is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2 to 12 mm
6 to 250 mm
15 to 300 mm
100 to 1,000 mm
200 to 250 mm

010100020021000C
One or more steel plates rolled into cylindrical form and welded
together, with the ends closed by means of end plates or heads,
is called a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

combustion chamber
packaged boiler
steam or water drum
steam header
steam space

010100020021000A
The circumferential seam of a riveted boiler shell utilized
the
a)
b)

lap joint, single or double riveted


treble riveted butt joint

266
c)
d)
e)

double equal strap double riveted butt joint


double unequal strap treble riveted butt joint
always a single riveted lap joint

010100020021000A
Head-to-drum circumferential joints are usually
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

double
single
fillet
double
fillet

welded
welded
welded
welded
welded

butt joints
edge joints
corner joints
tee joints
lap joints

010100020021000C
With regard to welding, heat treatment
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

will increase the hardness of the material


results in better penetration of the weld
will relieve stresses in the material due to welding
is done before the actual welding takes place
is done to warm the welding machine before use

010100020021000E
A non-destructive test on a boiler is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a tensile test
a bend test
a shear test
an X-ray test
all of the above

010100020021000B
Post weld heat treatment is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

to make the material hot enough for welding


heating the material after welding
to improve weld penetration
to clean up the welded area
done to reduce corrosion

010100020021000B
Tubes for high pressure service are usually
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

resistance welded construction


roll and pierce construction
lap welded construction
flared into the drum or tubesheet
of 2 metre maximum length

010100020021000C
A tube expander is used to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

break loose scale in the tube


break loose scale outside the tube
expand and flare the tube
bead the tube
expand the entire tube

267

010100020021000D
The flat surfaces which require staying in a firetube boiler
are the tubesheets, waterlegs, and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

furnace tubes
flue gas baffles
uptakes
crown sheets
access doors

010100020021000A
Boiler stays
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

are used to support flat surfaces in a boiler


are mostly used in water tube boilers
have to be replaced every two years
are used for hot water heating boilers only
are made of hollow tubes

010100020021000C
A major force which acts to hold a manway door in place
during boiler operation is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the bolt
the combination of bolt and yoke
pressure within the boiler
the manway gasket
the yoke

010100020021000E
A boiler nozzle attachment2
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

can be found in the area of the burner


is always installed vertically
allows a connection for the uptake
is used for steam cleaning the fireside
nearly always accommodates a valve or fitting

010100020021000B
Manholes are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

installed on all boilers


provided for inspection purposes
always circular in shape
installed on fossil fired boilers only
always oval in shape

010100020021000D
A Morison furnace is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

found in electric boilers


found in locomotive boilers
found in watertube boilers
found in firetube boilers
a ring-reinforced type furnace

268
010100020021000E
Internal furnaces are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

mostly used to superheat the steam


contained within the windbox of a boiler
used to increase the strength of the drum
used for oil firing only
contained within the shell of the boiler

010100020021000C
With a bottom-supported boiler, the steam drum is usually2
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a cross-drum
supported by
supported by
supported by
placed below

configuration
an overhead girder arrangement
the watertubes
piers
the centreline of the unit

010100020021000B
Boilers supported from the top
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

are
are
can
are
can

mostly package boilers


free to expand vertically
only be used on small units
usually not of the large water tube type
only use straight tubes

010100020021000D
Three types of furnace water-walls are the tangent tube,
welded fin, and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

flat stub
corrugated
refractory backed
flat stud
metal lath

010100020021000C
In early boilers furnace walls were constructed of brick.
Today this method has been replaced by the use of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

baffles
steel casing
tubes to form the furnace walls
plastic insulation
block insulation

Boiler Draft Equipment


010100020021000D
A way of increasing natural draft is to
a)
b)
c)

incorporate a forced draft fan


have the outside air temperature increase
install an induced draft fan

269
d)
e)

increase stack height


decrease the amount of excess air

010100020021000E
When draft is produced by natural means,
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

hot air surrounding the boiler increases draft


fans can control the flue gas flow
a short stack will increase draft
the diameter of the stack will improve the draft
cooler air surrounding the boiler increases draft

010100020021000D
Primary air
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

is supplied in the combustion zone


is the same as excess air
is supplied on all types of burners
is pre-mixed with the fuel before being admitted to the
furnace
enters the furnace before the fuel

010100020021000B
A more durable chimney for power plant application is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

brick chimney
reinforced concrete chimney
steel chimney
insulated steel chimney
guy wire supported chimney

010100020021000C
Chimneys are commonly lined with
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

concrete
common brick
clay
mortar
insulation

010100020021000C
The advantage of a steel stack over a reinforced concrete
stack is that a steel stack
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

is more durable
requires less maintenance
is a lower cost
has a longer life
is more resistant to abrasive flue gases

010100020021000A
Relative to draft, a steam jet is very popular
a)
b)
c)
d)

on railway steam locomotives


as a fuel atomizer
as a forced draft unit
for increasing furnace pressure

270
e)

for decreasing draft during cold weather

010100020021000D
What are the advantages of mechanical draft?
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,
1,
1,
2,
3,

dependent on atmospheric air temperatures


independent of the chimney temperature
better draft regulation
can be regulated accurately
2,
2,
3,
3,
4

3, 4
3
4
4

010100020021000C
In a balanced draft system the air heater is placed:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,
2,
2,
1,
1,

between ID fan and stack


between ID fan and boiler
between forced draft fan and boiler
on inlet ducting to forced draft fan
2, 3
3, 4
3
4
3, 4

010100020021000A
The most efficient operation of a fan demands that
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the speed be only sufficient enough to supply the required


amount of air
inlet damper controls are used
outlet damper controls are used
constant speed electric motors are used
gaseous fuels be fired

010100020021000A
Balanced draft
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

means furnace pressure is maintained at some desired


value
means air flow is always constant
requires an FD and ID fan, never just an FD fan
can be accomplished with just a chimney
means air and fuel quantities are the same per unit time

010100020021000E
An induced draft fan
a)
b)
c)

is physically smaller than a forced draft fan


has less expensive materials of construction than an FD
fan
handles only air

271
d)
e)

discharges air to the windbox


operates at much higher temperatures than an FD fan

010100020021000D
A pressurized furnace is usually associated with
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

balanced draft
induced draft
natural draft
packaged boilers with FD
large steam generators

010100020021000A
Induced draft may be accomplished by a:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

steam jet
fan
windbox
forced draft fan
1,
2,
2,
2,
3,

2
3, 4
4
3
4

010100020021000C
In a balanced draft system, the forced draft fan is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

larger than the induced draft fan


the same size as the induced draft fan
smaller than the induced draft fan
designed to handle hot combustion gases
subjected to the products of combustion and high temperatures

010100020021000A
In a forced draft system, the furnace pressure is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

above atmospheric pressure


below atmospheric pressure
at atmospheric pressure
measured in psi
not a factor

010100020021000E
With an axial flow fan the air flow
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

is at right angles to the windbox


is at right angles to the shaft
does not come in contact with the driving motor
is the most efficient
is parallel to the shaft

010100020021000A
A boiler with only an induced draft fan
a)

will have a negative furnace pressure

272
b)
c)
d)
e)

does need an airtight furnace


needs a very long stack
will have a positive furnace pressure
cannot maintain a stable fire

010100020021000E
Boiler combustion is regulated by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

varying the
controlling
varying the
controlling
controlling

speed of an ID fan
or regulating the fuel flow
speed of an FD fan
or regulating the air flow
the air and fuel flow

010100020021000A
The simplest way of measuring draft is with
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

an inclined manometer
a Bourdon tube device
a flexible diaphragm device
a hydrometer
a bellows measuring device

010100020021000D
The most efficient operation of a fan occurs when
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

draft
draft
draft
speed
speed

is
is
is
is
is

balanced
FD only
ID only
just enough to meet the demand
at maximum

010100020021000A
When the least amount of energy is desired to drive a fan
with variable output control, the type of control used would
most likely be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

variable speed coupling


inlet damper control
outlet damper control
register control
variable speed driver

010100020021000E
Inlet damper control on a fan
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

is less complicated than an outlet damper control


requires more power to drive the fan when the vanes are
closed
can only be used when the fan is driven by a steam turbine
is used on forced draft fans only
requires less power to drive the fan at reduced loads

010100020021000A
Proper draft is important to the plant operator because it
a)

produces efficient combustion

273
b)
c)
d)
e)

delivers the products of combustion to a high altitude


reduces the volume of ash and slag
prevents toxic gases from leaking out of the system
satisfies the codes

010100020021000B
With a fan outlet damper control
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the fan air pressure decreases with a decrease in


air flow
the fan air pressure increases with a decrease in
air flow
it is placed in the suction side of fan
fan output is difficult to control
flue gas velocity will rise

010100020021000C
When an air heater is used in a boiler
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the forced draft fan supplies hot gases to the heater


the induced draft fan supplies combustion air to the
air heater
it increases the efficiency of the boiler
the boiler usually has only a forced draft fan
a balanced draft system cannot be incorporated

010100020021000D
Draft measuring instruments can be used to measure:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,
3,
1,
1,
3,

wind box pressure


steam pressure
air heater flue gas pressure
furnace pressure
feedwater pressure
2,
4,
2,
3,
4,

3
5
3, 4
4
5

010100020021000E
When a diaphragm draft gauge is used to measure furnace draft
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

furnace draft connections are on both sides of the


diaphragm
it can only be used on a balanced draft system
it can only be used on a forced draft system
it can only be used for positive pressures
the furnace draft connection is on one side of the
diaphragm

010100020021000C
Adequate openings for combustion air must be provided in
enclosed boiler rooms. These openings
a)

may include doors and windows

274
b)
c)
d)
e)

should be located at the top of the room near the ceiling


should be located at the bottom of the room near the
floor
are a standard size for all boilers
are only for high pressure boilers

010100020021000A
Inclined "U" tubes may be used to measure:

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1.
2.
3.
4.

fan
fan
air
air

1,
3,
1,
2,
4

2, 3
4
4
3, 4

discharge pressure
suction pressure
heater flue gas pressure
heater flue gas temperature

010100020021000B
If a "U" tube is connected to the discharge of a forced draft
fan the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

connection to the fan will have a higher liquid level


than the open end
open end will have a higher liquid level than the
connection to the fan
liquid level will be the same in both sides of the
"U" tube
liquid will be drawn into the forced draft stream
liquid will expand

010100020021000D
The inclined tube manometer operates
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

on
so
so
on
by

a different principle than the "U" tube manometer


that only positive pressure can be measured
that only a vacuum can be measured
the same principle as a "U" tube manometer
displacing a compressed gas

Introduction to Boiler Combustion


010100020021000D
The balanced equation for the complete combustion of hydrogen
is
a)

H
2

+ O = H O + heat
2

b)

2H + O

c)

+ 2O

= H O + heat
2
= 2H O + heat

275
2

d)

2H

+ O

e)

2H

+ 2O

= 2H O
2

heat

= 2H O + heat
2

010100020021000E
The balanced equation for the incomplete combustion of carbon
is
a)

C + O

b)

2C + O

= CO + heat

= CO + heat
2

c)

C + 2O

d)

2C + 2O

= 2CO + heat

= 4CO + heat
2

e)

2C + O

= 2CO + heat

010100020021000D
The purpose of combustion controls is to:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,
2,
3,
1,
2,

control fuel flow and air flow into the furnace


maintain the proper ratio of air to flue gas
maintain the proper ratio of air to fuel
maintain the correct furnace pressure in a balanced
system
maintain a negative pressure in the furnace when
using a force draft fan
2,
3,
4,
3,
4,

3
4
5
4
5

010100020021000C
The combustion equation C + O2 =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

CO
CO + heat
CO2 + heat
2 CO2
2C + 2O

010100020021000D
The combustion equation 2 H2 + O2 =
a)

H2O + heat

276
b)
c)
d)
e)

H2O
2 H2O
2 H2O + heat
2H + O2

010100020021000A
The combustion equation S + O2 =
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

SO2 + heat
2 SO2 + heat
SO2
SO2 + S
2S + O

010100020021000B
Which of the following supports combustion?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

smoke
oxygen
nitrogen
hydrogen
carbon dioxide

010100020021000C
Which of the following are necessary to complete combustion
of a fuel:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,
2,
1,
1,
3,

enough air must be supplied


the temperature of the furnace must be high enough
there must be enough water in the boiler
enough time must be allowed for the fuel to burn
the safety valve must be properly set
the air and fuel must be thoroughly mixed together
3,
3,
2,
2,
5,

4,
4,
4,
3,
6

6
5
6
4

010100020021000B
Which element in the air will combine with the combustible elements
of the fuel?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

nitrogen
oxygen
hydrogen
carbon dioxide
carbon monoxide

010100020021000D
The amount of air required to supply just enough oxygen for
complete combustion is called the
a)
b)
c)

exact air
perfect air
primary air

277
d)
e)

theoretical air
secondary air

010100020021000B
Combustion air openings are required by code and combustion
air can be said to be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

all air which contacts the raw fuel before the burner
all air which contributes to the completion of combustion
excess air
all air which enters the boiler furnace, including high
excess air
atomizing air

010100020021000E
The amount of excess air required for combustion is
determined by the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

ambient temperature of the outside air


air supply pressure
size of the boiler
load on the boiler
composition and condition of the fuel

010100020021000C
Insufficient air for combustion will result in:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,
3,
1,
2,
1,

carbon in flue gases


high oxygen reading in flue gases
low oxygen reading in flue gases
high CO in flue gases
higher than normal flue gas temperature
2,
4,
3,
3,
3,

3
5
4
4
5

010100020021000E
The approximate amount of excess oxygen for gaseous fuel is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

10%
7%
5%
15%
2%

010100020021000B
The approximate amount of excess air for fuel oil is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

20%
15%
10%
5%
2%

278
010100020021000A
In winter, the white smoke coming from the stack is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

wet steam from combustion of the hydrogen in the fuel


carbon dioxide
sulphur dioxide
carbon monoxide from incomplete combustion of the carbon
in the fuel
unburned hydrogen

010100020021000A
Black smoke can be caused by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

insufficient combustion air


too high a boiler pressure
too much nitrogen in the air
too much combustion air
high temperature combustion air

010100020021000E
Carbon monoxide is both explosive and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

inert
expensive
non-compressible
grey in colour
toxic

010100020021000D
The refining process for fuel oils involves separating the
crude oil into end products which have distinguishing
characteristics such as specific gravity, viscosity, and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

colour
odour
heating value
boiling point
solids content

010100020021000C
A major disadvantage of oil over coal is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the oil does not burn as clean


oil is more difficult to control
oil is more expensive and less abundant
coal requires less storage space
oil requires more handling labour

010100020021000A
Ethane is a component of natural gas and constitutes a
percent volume of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

10 - 20%
80 - 90%
60 - 70%
5 - 10%
30 - 40%

279

010100020021000E
Using preheated air with solid fuels
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

increases air pollution


creates soot which is heavy and difficult to remove
necessitates the use of better grades of fuel
reduces the stack temperature
starts combustion more quickly

010100020021000D
Engineers must understand the importance of combustion in
order to:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,
1,
2,
1,
2,

order the right grade of fuel


burn the fuel completely
produce smokeless fires
minimize the danger of explosion
2
3
3
2, 3, 4
3, 4

010100020021000E
Carbon which is not combined with hydrogen is referred
to as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

mono-carbon
loose carbon
separated carbon
ununited carbon
fixed carbon

010100020021000A
To which of the following oil burners is the oil supplied under
high pressure?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

mechanical atomizing burner


air atomizing burner
rotary cup burner
steam atomizing burner
multi-spud burner

010100020021000C
When using mechanical fuel oil atomization
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

70 kPa steam pressure is required at the burner


35 to 40 kPa oil pressure is required
high pump pressure is required
steam pressure is required to keep the bypass open
dry saturated steam or superheated steam should be used

010100020021000B
Which of the following are coal burning apparatus:

280
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,
1,
2,
1,
1,

underfeed
crossfeed
overfeed
rotary cup
2,
2,
3,
2,
3,

4
3
4
3, 4
4

010100020021000D
Which of the following types of burners are used for oil
firing?
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2,
1,
2,
1,
3,

air atomizing
ring type
rotary cup
steam atomizing
4
2, 3
3, 4
3, 4
4

010100020021000D
The air that carries the pulverized coal to the burner is known as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

induction air
secondary air
excess air
primary air
transfer air

010100020021000E
When oil burners are not in use, they should be removed from
the furnace, or the heat may cause
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

evaporation of the fuel


corrosion of the burner
seizure of the sprayer plate
speed reduction of the rotary cup
a build up of carbon in the burner

010100020021000D
A mechanical atomizing oil burner has oil pumped under high
pressure through a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

rotary cup
ring burner
multi-spud burner
sprayer plate
recirculation line

010100020021000C

281
In a steam atomizing oil burner, the _______________________
travels through the central portion of the burner.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

fire
steam
oil
heat
air

010100020021000B
When lighting-up an oil fired boiler that employs steam
atomizing oil burners, the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

fuel valve is opened before the steam atomizing valve


steam atomizing valve is opened before the fuel valve
burner must be purged first
oil pressure should be approximately 200 kPa greater
than the steam pressure
draft fans must be at 50% of full capacity

010100020021000E
Before removing oil burners from the furnace the burner
should be blown out with
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

solvent
coal oil
a high temperature combustible solvent
nitrogen or carbon dioxide
steam or air

010100020021000A
If not enough air is given to an oil fired flame
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the flame will be a dark smoky flame


the flame will have a bluish-purple colour
a blue-grey smoke will issue from the stack
the steam temperature will rise
the flame will have a dazzling yellow colour

010100020021000A
When a gas fired burner is burning fuel properly
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

it will have a blue flame with short yellow tips


the furnace will pulsate
there will be no turbulence
it will have a long bright yellow flame
the induced draft fan can be shut off

010100020021000C
According to the ASME Code Section Seven, purging of furnace
should be three to five minutes or
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2 air changes
5 air changes
8 air changes
15 minutes at one half the fan output
10 minutes if it is a balanced draft system

282

010100020021000D
Low fuel _____________ in oil burners produces unsafe
conditions of burning.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

volume
flow
temperature
pressure
viscosity

010100020021000C
Poor combustion due to improper amount of air will cause
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

hot furnace temperatures


a collection of partly burned
a collection of partly burned
the circulation of flue gases
a high carbon dioxide content

air
fuel which could explode
to stop
in the windbox

010100020021000B
Low fuel oil pressure in an oil burner system
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

increases combustion efficiency


creates unstable conditions in the furnace
causes excessive turbulence in the furnace
is usually not possible if the fuel oil tank is more
than one-half full
will give a high oxygen reading at the stack outlet

010100020021000D
Three types of mechanical stokers are the underfeed,
overfeed, and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

sprinkler
chain grate
pulverizer
crossfeed
vibragrate

010100020021000E
Relative to boiler combustion, an exhauster fan
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

is the same as an ID fan


extracts ashes from a hopper
extracts solid particles from the flue gases
exhausts dust from the coal crushers
extracts pulverized coal from a pulverizer

010100020021000B
When removing a steam atomizing oil burner from service, the
proper sequence is
a)
b)
c)
d)

stop
stop
stop
stop

steam, stop oil, remove burner


oil, purge oil side, stop steam, remove burner
steam, purge steam side, stop oil, remove burner
oil, stop steam, remove burner

283
e)

purge oil side, stop steam, remove burner

010100020021000D
If, during a flue gas analysis, the excess air to a boiler
furnace is increased
a)

CO

should increase

b)

CO should increase

c)

should decrease
2

d)

CO

e)

should decrease

should remain the same


2

010100020021000C
Boiler stack temperature can rise if
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

excess air is reduced


the waterside of boiler becomes cleaner
the fireside of the boiler becomes fouled
flue gas CO value rises
fuel flow rate decreases

010100020021000C
CO2 is the chemical symbol for
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

carbon
carbon monoxide
carbon dioxide
hydrocarbon
carbonic acid

010100020021000A
Efficient combustion is achieved by controlling the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

fuel-air ratio
steam-water ratio
water-fuel ratio
steam-fuel ratio
air-flue gas ratio

Safety and Relief Valves


010100020021000C
Safety valves "pop" open because the force of the steam
a)
b)
c)

acts upon a blowdown ring


acts upon a huddling chamber
is suddenly increased due to a larger area

284
d)
e)

increases due to the discharge ports


decreases the force created by the spring

010100020021000E
If a safety valve is too small then the boiler pressure will
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

rise 5% above the maximum allowable working pressure


(MAWP)
not rise more than 15% above the MAWP
remain at the MAWP
rise to 6% above the MAWP
rise more than 6% above the MAWP

010100020021000B
Boiler fittings
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

are not regulated by the ASME Codes


must be registered by the government
requires only the manufacturer's identity attached
may be used at the discretion of power plant personnel
are tested by a destructive test

010100020021000C
It is necessary to clearly mark or identify valves
and fittings so that
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

they can be properly stored in the warehouse


the manufacturer's reputation is known
strength and material can be applied for a particular use
the operator knows how it works
a proper safety inventory can be maintained

010100020021000E
An agency or code with which fittings must comply with is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Health and Safety code


Fittings and Boiler Parts Act
Boiler Repair code
Plumbing Gas Act
ASME code

010100020021000B
If a safety valve fails to open at its popping pressure, you should
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

tap it gently
try the lifting lever
shut the boiler down
raise the pressure
reface the valve

010100020021000E
The lip on a safety valve
a)
b)
c)
d)

allows it to close slowly


is only required if the steam is superheated
supplies a drain lip for condensate to collect on
makes the valve stronger

285
e)

allows it to "pop" open

010100020021000C
What does the boiler inspector install to prevent tampering with
a safety valve setting?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a
a
a
a
a

restraining order
gag
seal
plug
cover plate

010100020021000B
What is the maximum heating surface for a boiler
to have only one safety valve?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

75
47
36
28
19

square
square
square
square
square

metres
metres
metres
metres
metres

010100020021000A
If a boiler has a maximum allowable working pressure of 1000 kPa,
what would be the maximum pressure allowed when the safety
valve is open?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1060
1400
1600
2000
2500

kPa
kPa
kPa
kPa
kPa

010100020021000D
A stop valve is allowed between the safety valve and the boiler
drum when
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the stop valve is locked open


there is more than one safety valve
a rupture disc is placed between the stop valve and the
safety valve
no stop valves are allowed before or after the safety valve
the stop valve is the quick opening type

010100020021000C
Two safety valves are required on a high pressure steam boiler
that has a heating surface larger than
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

12
40
47
45
27

square
square
square
square
square

metres
metres
metres
metres
metres

010100020021000A
If the boiler was fired up with the main steam stop valve closed,

286
the safety valves should ensure that:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the pressure cannot exceed the maximum working pressure by more


than 6%
the water glass will not burst with the pressure
the fuel cut-off will operate
the pressure is never more than the hydrostatic test pressure
the pressure cannot exceed the maximum working pressure by more
than 3%

010100020021000B
What is the minimum number of safety valves required on a
boiler having a heating surface of 42 square metres?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

none
one
two
three
four

010100020021000E
Each boiler must have a safety valve, preferably
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

placed
welded
fitted
to the
at eye
fitted
to the

in a pipe system leading from a boiler valve


in a horizontal position to the top of the boiler
securely to a shut-off valve directly connected
top of the boiler
level on the front surface of the boiler
in a vertical position directly connected
top of the boiler

010100020021000E
The safety valves on a boiler meet code requirements and are set
to a popping pressure of 1380 kPa. What would be the maximum
permissible pressure rise in the boiler, if the boiler was fired
at full capacity with the main steam stop valve closed?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

25 kPa
37.5 kPa
47 kPa
72.4 kPa
82.8 kPa

010100020021000C
The discharge pipe of a safety valve should be separately
supported
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

because the safety valve is not capable of supporting the


mass
so that drainage of the discharge line can occur
so that allowance for expansion prevents stress on the
safety valve
in order to prevent leakage at the joint
so that the valve can be quickly and easily removed

010100020021000A

287
Cast iron fittings for a boiler can be deemed to have upper
limitations of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,720 kPa and 232 degrees C


17,200 kPa and 1,100 degrees C
1,100 kPa and 173 degrees C
8,000 kpa and 670 degrees C
3,000 kPa and 150 degrees C

010100020021000D
The popping pressure of a safety valve
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

cannot be changed
can only be increased by 5%
can only be decreased by 5%
can be increased or decreased by up to 5%
can be changed any amount

010100020021000D
The blowdown on a safety valve is adjusted by turning the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

inspector's seal
valve disc
adjusting nut
adjusting ring
valve seat

010100020021000E
A blowdown ring on a safety valve is used to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

adjust the operating pressure of the valve


set the opening pressure
increase the effectiveness of the safety valve
increase the life of the cone shaped lip
adjust the blowdown differential

010100020021000E
A try lever safety valve test will
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

ensure the popping pressure is correct


indicate that valve capacity is adequate
ensure the closing pressure is correct
take approximately 2 seconds
ensure the valve is free to operate

010100020021000B
When performing a safety valve pop test one of the first
things to do is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

notify the boiler inspector


verify the accuracy of the applicable steam pressure gage
notify the chief engineer
check the blowdown of the safety valve
check the popping pressure

010100020021000A
A safety relief valve is like a safety valve except it

288

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

does not have a blowdown ring or bottom guides


must have greater blowdown
may have an isolation valve placed between it and the
pressure vessel
must discharge directly to the atmosphere
is prone to leakage

010100020021000A
Temperature relief valves can open on a rise in temperature
by the expansion of a wax-filled rod or by the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

melting of the alloy in a fusible plug


melting of a fusible link
action of a bi-metal strip
action of a Bourdon tube
action of a bellows

010100020021000C
If the safety valve starts to leak steam
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

phone the inspector immediately


report it to the insurance company
pull the test lever and try to clear the seat face
break the seal, and tighten down on the spring
adjust the blowdown of the safety valve

010100020021000B
An operator should check that a boiler safety valve will open
at its set pressure by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

sending for the inspector to bring his or her test gauge


increasing the boiler pressure until the valve opens and noting
the pressure on the pressure gauge when the valve opened
putting a piece of pipe over the lifting lever and lifting the
valve off its seat when the seat pressure is reached
connecting the boiler to an air compressor during shut down and
raising the pressure in the boiler until the set pressure is
reached
listening to the alarms of the set pressures

010100020021000B
Testing the safety valve by means of the try lever method is
considered good practice when carried out on a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

weekly basis
monthly basis
six month basis
yearly basis
bi-weekly basis

010100020021000B
If, during the testing of a safety valve, the valve does not
open, you would first
a)

continue to increase the steam pressure

289
b)
c)
d)
e)

try to open the valve with the lifting lever


force it open by striking it with a hammer
take the boiler out of service
stop the boiler and notify the boiler branch

010100020021000A
Test levers on safety valves should not be used until the boiler
pressure is at least _________ or more of the safety valves normal
popping pressure.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

75%
60%
50%
40%
25%

010100020021000C
If a safety valve leaks after a try lever test, the operator
should
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

plug the safety valve outlet


reduce the boiler pressure
operate the try lever several times to blow away foreign
material
fit a gag to the safety valve
reduce boiler pressure and call the team leader

010100020021000B
Do not open the safety valve with the test lever
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

if the valve is less than 2.5 cm inlet diameter


if the pressure is less than 75% working pressure
after 9 p.m. in populated areas
if the valve is not vented to the roof
if there are more than two safety valves on the boiler

Water Columns and Gage Glasses


010100020021000E
The following condition may be encountered in level
measurement and indication:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

solids or liquids
extremes of heat and cold
pressure variations
corrosive and explosive conditions
all of the above

010100020021000B
Separately mounted gage glasses are used to provide a
__________ indication of level over a certain vertical
distance on the vessel.
a)

point

290
b)
c)
d)
e)

continuous
diagonal
ultrasonic
indirect

010100020021000E
The main operating element of a Hopkinson remote water level
indicator is a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Bourdon tube
Ledoux bell
float
capsule
large diaphragm

010100020021000E
When a differential head meter is used to measure water level
in a boiler steam drum, the connection to the steam space
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

forms the variable leg of the meter


is cross connected to the constant or reference leg of
the meter
is the low pressure side of the meter
has a varying water level
forms the constant or reference leg of the meter

010100020021000C
Dirt traps are installed on an "Igema" remote water-level
indicator
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

because of the high amount of suspended solids collecting


in the constant head
to prevent mixing of the indicating liquid with boiler
water
to prevent indicating liquid contamination
so that overfilling of the indicating section is
prevented
to prevent osmosis from occurring

010100020021000D
A great advantage of an Igema level indicator over a
Hopkinson unit is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

it has the highest degree of accuracy


it is the least costly to purchase
its ability to show steam and water as different colours
there are no moving parts
it requires no electricity

010100020021000D
A gage glass which shows a clear liquid as being very dark is
the
a)
b)
c)
d)

Hopkinson indicator
Igema indicator
tubular gage glass
reflex gage glass

291
e)

flat gage glass

010100020021000E
In a high pressure horizontal firetube steam boiler, the bottom
of the gauge glass should be ____________ above the lowest
permissible water level in the boiler.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1 m
50 cm
47 cm
25.4 mm
51 mm

010100020021000C
If a gage glass breaks, the operator shall immediately
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

shut the
add more
shut off
lift the
shut the

boiler down
water to the boiler
the steam valve and water valve on the gage
safety valve
boiler down

010100020021000B
Try cocks are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

used to blowdown the gage glass


for checking water level while the gage glass is out of
service
for draining the gage glass
operated simultaneously
on the water column drain line

010100020021000C
How many try cocks are installed on the water column of
a boiler, with over 9.3 square metres heating surface?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1
2
3
4
6

010100020021000E
When a firetube boiler is filled for the first time, it
should be confirmed that when the water first appears
in the gage glass, that there is _______ mm of water
over the top of the tubes.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

25.4 mm
50.8 mm
84 mm
101.6 mm
76 mm

010100020021000E
Safety shutoff devices are found

292
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

on water supply systems feeding a boiler


on all gage glasses which are under continuous
supervision
only on vessels containing toxic liquid
on the constant or "reference" lines to remote indicators
on gage glasses not under constant supervision

010100020021000A
Tubular gage glasses
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

are suitable for pressures up to 2,800 kPa


do not corrode due to high alkalinity
indicate the level most accurately
can be of any length
are not weakened by misalignment

010100020021000D
Gage glasses show a water level which is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

slightly less than the level if the vessel is at a lower


temperature
the same if all liquids have the same temperature
slightly higher than boiler level when the pressure is
high
slightly lower when the glass water density is higher
the actual vessel level regardless of pressure,
temperature or density differences

010100020021000A
When the water connection between boiler and gage glass becomes
plugged, the water level in the glass will show a level after
a while, that is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

higher than the level in the boiler


lower than the level in the boiler
the same as the level in the boiler
fully filled
lower than the bottom of the sight glass

Drum Internals
010100020021000B
The component of a boiler which allows a space for the
introduction of chemicals is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

mud drum
steam drum
injection tank
internal feed pipe
deaerator

010100020021000A
A boiler steam drum will

293
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

allow load increases to be accomplished more quickly


always be the highest component of a boiler
not distribute feedwater to cold sections of the boiler
have no bearing or effect on water circulation
contain a steam space which will be at higher pressure
than the water space

010100020021000C
At lower pressures, steam
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

has higher densities


is more difficult to separate from the water
readily rises and separates from the water
cannot be separated from water with mechanical devices
requires large volume spaces in order to separate

010100020021000C
Steam separation in a modern boiler usually occurs in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1
2
3
4
5

step
steps
steps
steps
steps

010100020021000A
Cyclone separators are used to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

separate water droplets from the steam


accelerate the steam leaving the boiler
heat the steam coming out of the drum
separate impurities from the water
separate water from the steam drum

010100020021000B
Relative to steam drum internals, a boiler water test is
conducted to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

ensure
adjust
ensure
inform
ensure

scrubbers have not corroded away


or set the continuous blowdown valve (CBD)
the water is not attacking the separators
us when maintenance is required on drum equipment
chemicals are entering the boiler

010100020021000E
The CBD valve is usually a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

gate valve with a metering device


ball valve with a metering device
stop/check valve with a metering device
butterfly valve with a metering device
needle valve with a metering device

010100020021000D
A drum internal which acts to reduce thermal shock and

294
turbulence is the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

cyclone separator
drip-collector baffle
corrugated plate drier
internal feed pipe
chevron drier

010100020021000E
Some smaller boilers have a pipe and baffle device in the
steam drum which acts as
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a separator
a chemical injection device
a scrubber
a drip collector baffle
an internal feed pipe

010100020021000E
Chemicals are injected into the boiler to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

prevent corrosion
keep sludge dispersed
prevent sludge
prevent scale
all the above

010100020021000D
The chemical injection line is located
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

near the normal water level


close to the CBD line
in the steam space
near the internal feed pipe
close to the riser tubes

Fluidized Bed Combustion


010100020021000C
State the abbreviation used for fluidized bed combustion.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

FC
FBCB
FBC
FBBC
FB

010100020021000A
The abbreviation FGD stands for
a)
b)
c)
d)

flue gas desulphurization


fuel gauge diameter
flow gas density
fluid gas detector

295
e)

field gas drain

010100020021000E
State the abbreviation for a "fluid catalytic cracker".
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

CC
FC
FCCB
CFC
FCC

010100020021000C
FCC, with regard to the refining industry means
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Federal Communications Commission


Fresh condensate control
Fluid catalytic cracker
Federated consumer costs
Fuel Combustion Code

010100020021000D
AFBC stands for
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Alberta/Federal boiler calculations


Alberta foot board control
after-fired boiler circuitry
atmospheric fluidized bed combustion
automatically flooded boiler condenser

010100020021000D
PFBC stands for
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

Provincial/Federal boiler calculations


Provincial footboard control
pre-fired boiler circuitry
petroleum fired boiler control
pressurized fluidized bed combustion

010100020021000D
With the AFBC, the combustion air pressure is typically
25 cm of water pressure at the FD fan,16 cm at
the base of the active bed, and _______________ at the
top of the combustion mass.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

at boiler pressure
at flue gas exit temperature
negative pressure
atmospheric pressure
absolute pressure

010100020021000A
With the AFBC, the three pressure zones are typically as
follows at the FD fan, the base of the active bed, and at
the top of the combustion mass respectively.

296
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

25
20
15
30
40

cm
cm
cm
cm
cm

of
of
of
of
of

water
water
water
water
water

pressure,
pressure,
pressure,
pressure,
pressure,

16
14
10
20
25

cm
cm
cm
cm
cm

and
and
and
and
and

atmospheric
atmospheric
below atmospheric
above atmospheric
above atmospheric

010100020021000C
In FBC, the fuel content by mass of the turbulent inert
material is usually less than
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

5
3
2
4
1

percent
percent
percent
percent
percent

010100020021000A
AFBC units permit the reduction of furnace temperatures from
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1600
1800
1700
1550
1350

to
to
to
to
to

850
650
750
900
500

degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees

Celsius
Celsius
Celsius
Celsius
Celsius

010100020021000C
Reducing furnace bed temperatures by use of AFBC units reduces
as well
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

production of hot flue gases


efficiency of operation
production of NOx's
the turbulence of the furnace interior
the steam generating capacity

010100020021000B
Crushed coal mixed with pulverized limestone in an AFBC unit
does what?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

lower the combustion bed temperature


act as a desulphuring agent
create the perfect fuel; hydrogen
pressurizes the fluidized bed
produces no gaseous effluent

010100020021000D
What is the percentage of SOx reduction which can be gained
by adding an excess amount of limestone to the bed of an
AFBC unit?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

40
50
70
80
90

50
65
80
90
95

percent
percent
percent
percent
percent

297
010100020021000B
About the only thing limiting the kind of fuel burned in a
FBC is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

how
the
the
the
the

well the material has been mixed prior to burning


heating value of the material being burned
amount of slag the fuel will produce
size of the plant using the fuel
size of the burners

010100020021000C
The gradual loss of the fluidized bed in an FBC furnace is
called
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

attrition
fluidation
carryover
reduction
starving

010100020021000E
The ash content of a fuel which can be burned in a FBC unit
and which will not burn successfully in any other type of
furnace is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

10
30
55
60
70

percent
percent
percent
percent
percent

010100020021000A
Large "clinkers" are not produced in FBC furnaces because
of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

lower furnace temperatures


the fluidized bed created by air passage through the furnace
the kind of fuel used
the introduction of limestone into the combustion mixture
not burning gaseous fuels

010100020021000B
The reason FBC plants can be built smaller than plants
currently in vogue is because of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

higher steam temperatures and pressures


higher heat transfer rates and the absence of wet
exhaust gas scrubbing equipment
lower maintenance costs and the ability to burn a wide
variety of fuels
less slag production and the elimination of sootblowing equipment
the burners being smaller

010100020021000D
Steam generators of the FBC type can be reduced in size by

298
up to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

35
15
45
25
10

percent
percent
percent
percent
percent

010100020021000B
Because of the one quarter reduction in size of FBC plants a
significant saving is gained in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

fuel and waste costs


material and construction costs
heat and light costs
"Clinker" and soot blowing costs
fuel storage costs

010100020021000E
Feedthrough tubes are located?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

in
in
in
in
in

the
the
the
the
the

furnace
furnace
furnace
corners
furnace

windbox
ceiling
walls
of the furnace
bottom

010100020021000C
An especially important point in the operation of fluidized
beds composed of fine particles is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

feedwater temperature
solids injection rate
bubble size
waste solids handling
the colour of the limestone

010100020021000E
Operating a PFBC furnace at low temperatures results in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the formation of "clinkers"


a restricted type of fuel used
the need for the installation of soot blowers
the generation of wet steam
steam temperature limited over the period of heat supply

010100020021000A
Carryover in FBC units results in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

lower efficiency and higher costing dust collectors


lower furnace temperatures and the need for higher
furnace ceilings
lower tube location and higher combustion rates
lower steam pressures and higher water temperatures
overheating of the breeching

299
010100020021000B
One way of increasing combustion control at low operating rates
in FBC units is to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

add fuel gas to the combustion process


add more expensive control equipment
add hot steam to the fluidized bed
add an electrical charge to the pulverized limestone
close all the air dampers

010100020021000C
To what temperature must the inert bed material of a FBC unit
be heated before the introduction of coal to the furnace for
burning?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

about
about
about
about
about

350
500
600
750
900

degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees

Celsius
Celsius
Celsius
Celsius
Celsius

010100020021000D
What is the ignition temperature of coal?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

300
450
550
600
900

degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees

Celsius
Celsius
Celsius
Celsius
Celsius

010100020021000A
The typical time needed to heat a FBC unit bed to fuel ignition
temperature prior to the introduction of coal is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

one hour
one half hour
two hours
three hours
six hours

010100020021000E
Due to various differences in the operation of FBC plants the
following is required:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a considerably larger floor space


better qualified operators
a taller furnace stack
using new technology in the construction of boiler tubes
a considerably different control system

010100020021000B
In order to get maximum heat transfer in a FBC furnace it is
required to
a)

increase the fuel consumption per hour

300
b)
c)
d)
e)

ensure that the boiler tubes are covered by the expanded bed
build larger FBC's
add fuel gas to the regular fuel being burned
line the floor and ceiling of the furnace with steel plates

Sootblowers
010100020021000B
In addition to reducing heat transfer, soot and ash on
fireside tubes also
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

lessens the chance of furnace explosions


increases draft fan power
results in the formation of CO in the flue gases
raises superheater temperatures
results in smoke emissions from the stack

010100020021000E
Relative to Figure 1, in the module the radiant zone is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

downstream of the economizer


downstream of the air preheater
between the primary superheater and economizer
between the reheater and primary superheater
upstream of the reheater

010100020021000D
The steam used for sootblowing is usually
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

greater than boiler drum pressure


wet unsaturated steam
the same as boiler drum pressure
superheated at the sootblower nozzle
mixed with compressed air

010100020021000D
A furnace wall sootblower sequence of operation is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

rotate & blow, extend, retract


extend, blow, retract, rotate
rotate, extend, blow, retract
extend, rotate & blow, retract
retract, blow, rotate, extend

010100020021000C
A long retractable sootblower will
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

have nozzles throughout its full length


be used to clean furnace walls
blow during extension and retraction as it rotates
not blow until fully extended
require less exterior room than a furnace wall unit

301
010100020021000B
During a sootblowing operation the boiler firing rate should
be at least
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

15%
30%
20%
80%
70%

010100020021000C
While a steam sootblower is in operation it is cooled by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

air
flue gases
steam
water
none of the above

010100020021000B
A stationary sootblower
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

has two opposing nozzles at the end of its lance


has a row of nozzles throughout the lance length
does not rotate while blowing
is cooled by air while not in use
is cooled by water while not in use

010100020021000C
Shot cleaning pellets have a diameter of approximately
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2 cm
6 cm
0.6 cm
0.6 mm
2 mm

010100020021000A
Shot cleaning pellets are transported to the top of the
boiler
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

by using an air stream


manually
in a steam injection system
by a hydraulic hoisting system
and are not recycled

010100020021000C
Soot and ash are undesirable on tube surfaces because they
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

increase heat transfer through the heating surfaces


cause overheating of the tubes
reduce boiler efficiency
reduce draft for power requirements
reduce the heating surface of the boiler

302

Continuous and Intermittent Blowdown


010100020021000B
The type of blowdown system used on a boiler is usually a
function of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the type of internal water treatment used


the type of external water treatment used
the temperature at which the boiler operates
how long the boiler operates each day
water supply temperatures

010100020021000D
An external treatment method which minimizes blowdown is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

sodium zeolite softening


deaeration
coagulators
demineralization
sludge conditioning

010100020021000A
Blowdown guidelines can be found in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

ASME Section VII


ASME Section VIII
CSA B51
CSA B52
applicable provincial Acts and Regulations

010100020021000C
A steam boiler is blown down in order to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

clean the soot and carbon out of the firebox and tubes
lower the operating water level in the boiler
discharge sediment and scale forming matter from the boiler
test the rated relieving capacity of the safety valves fitted
to the boiler
locate the steam level

010100020021000B
The continuous boiler water blowdown is used
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

in
in
to
to
to

place of the main blowdown


addition to the main blowdown
adjust the drum water level
introduce chemicals to the boiler
control the bottom blowdown

010100020021000B
If dissolved solids are not removed from boiler water the
result may be
a)
b)

overheating of convection zone tubes


foaming and carry-over

303
c)
d)
e)

overheating of radiant zone tubes


steam which will be more saturated with latent heat
purer steam leaving the steam drum

010100020021000E
Boiler water having the highest Total Dissolved Solids (TDS)
content is found
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

at the bottom of the mud drum


at the bottom of the steam drum
at the top of the steam drum
in the waterwall tubes
just below the waterline of the steam drum

010100020021000D
A "rule of thumb" rate of continuous blowdown is
approximately
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

10% of steaming rate


5% of steaming rate
15% of steaming rate
1% of steaming rate
3% of steaming rate

010100020021000A
According to the CSA B-51 code a blow-off tank is necessary to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

prevent high temperature and pressure in the sewer


prevent blowing off too quickly
remove sludge from blow-off water
prevent overflowing the sewer
reduce the boiler water velocity

010100020021000E
According to the Alberta Boilers Act Regulations, what fitting
is needed between the blow-off valve and the boiler if two boilers
use the same blow-off tank?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a non-return valve
a steam trap
a steam separator
an expansion joint
a check valve

010100020021000C
A blow off tank is used to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

lower the dissolved solids in the water


lower the pH of the water
prevent damage to the sewer
keep the condensate hot
to prevent sludge from entering the boiler

010100020021000B
Boiler water having the greatest concentration of suspended
solids is found

304

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

just below the steam drum water line


in the bottom of the mud drum
at the bottom of the steam drum
in waterwall riser tubes
in convection zone downcomer tubes

010100020021000C
A blowdown tank will
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

have to be cleaned monthly to remove the collected sludge


not be classed as a pressure vessel since it is vented
lower the temperature and pressure of the incoming boiler
water
not have to have any specific capacity or volume
be allowed to accommodate only one boiler

010100020021000D
Water leaving a blowdown tank and entering a sewer must not
exceed
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

45
50
75
65
80

degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees
degrees

C
C
C
C
C

010100020021000A
When two seatless valves are used for intermittent blowdown,
the operation sequence is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

open
open
open
open
open

the
the
the
the
the

downstream valve first and close it last


upstream valve first and close it last
downstream valve first and close it first
upstream valve first and close it first
upstream valve last and close it last

010100020021000C
The preferred arrangement of valves on a boiler blow-off line is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

two quick-opening valves


a slow-opening valve closest to the boiler followed by a
quick-opening
a quick-opening valve closest to the boiler followed by a
slow-opening
one valve only (It must be a globe valve.)
a quick opening valve and a lift check valve

010100020021000A
A boiler blow down system is equipped with slow and fast opening
valves. The quick opening valve is placed
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

closest to the boiler and opened first


furthest from the boiler and opened first
closest to the boiler and opened last
furthest from the boiler and opened last
on the blow off tank

305

010100020021000E
The blow down system has two valves; they should be opened and
closed in the correct sequence to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

carry out the blow down accurately


prevent excessive blow down
prevent a high level in the steam drum
prevent the boiler losing level
protect the valve closest to the boiler

010100020021000E
The quick opening blow-off valve should be placed
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

at the second blowdown tank


second from the boiler
furthest from the boiler
between the boiler and the check valve
nearest to the boiler

Boiler Preparation, Start-up, and Shutdown


010100020021000C
Before starting up any boiler it is necessary that
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

it be properly warmed up
it be properly purged
it have a valid inspection certificate
the water supply system be in service
the waterside is boiled out

010100020021000D
New refractory must be thoroughly and properly cured with a
light fire because
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

of its high rate of differential expansion


it may burn if not cured
it may corrode if not cured
it contains moisture which can cause it to fracture if
not cured
of the length of time it takes it to heat up

010100020021000A
The external inspection of a boiler
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

may include making sure the valves are in good


operating condition
may include making sure the furnace refractory is in order
may include making sure the tubes are free of scale
must be done after the boiler has been drained
may include making sure the exterior of the tubes
are in good condition

010100020021000B

306
A boiler inspection
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

must be
must be
must be
is done
must be

done
done
done
with
done

after every shut down of the boiler


when the boiler inspector requests it
every two years
the owner's permission only
before the boiler is ready for start-up

010100020021000C
The first duty of the operator coming on shift is to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

check the safety valve settings


fill out the log book
check that water column and gage glass connections are clear
talk to his supervisor
check the chemical tank levels

010100020021000E
If a new boiler is not properly boiled out, it may result in
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

tubes rupturing
a furnace explosion
nuisance shutdowns
an unwanted high rate of water circulation
a foaming condition occurring

010100020021000D
Before lighting up a boiler you should:
1)
2)
3)
4)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,
2,
1,
1,
2,

purge the furnace


open the blow down valve
check the fuel supply
fill the boiler with water
2,
3,
2,
3,
3

4
4
3, 4
4

010100020021000C
Boiler boiling out procedure should be done
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

at operating pressure
before the dry out procedure
at one-half the operating pressure
once a year
just before the annual inspection

010100020021000C
Boiler dry-out means
a)
b)
c)
d)

drying out the top and bottom drum


igniting the dryers in the top drum
drying out the new refractory
empty the boiler out

307
e)

drying out the entire boiler before start-up

010100020021000A
On a boiler fuel system having a double block and bleed
set-up
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the vent valve is a normally open valve


at least one of the main-line valves will always be open
the main-line valves will open before the prepurge stage
the main-line and vent valves all open together
the main-line valves are manually operated

010100020021000B
Superheater vents are usually opened before firing a boiler
to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

allow the superheater to warm up quicker


let the first steam produced act as a superheater coolant
ensure drum level does not drop
verify the operation of the steam flow transmitter
enhance boiler water circulation

010100020021000D
A boiler furnace pre-purge
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

is the shortest step in the start-up sequence


can take place normally even if there is a low water
condition
must be done manually on a fully automatic boiler
must last a specific amount of time
will take place at the end of a boiler shutdown

010100020021000E
When igniting a gas or oil fired boiler you should ignite from:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,
1,
2,
1,
3,

another burner already in service


the hot refractory
a hand torch
an electrical igniter
2
3
3
2, 4
4

010100020021000C
A boiler warm-up should
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

be done as quickly as possible


be done with low water so that metal heats up faster
be done slowly to minimize any differential expansion
be completed with a high firing rate
not involve any human intervention

010100020021000B
While a boiler is warming up it is good practice to

308

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

leave all drain valves closed


check the low water fuel cut-off device for proper
operation
test the safety valve before any pressure develops
not interfere in any way with the combustion process
go through a sootblowing operation sequence

010100020021000C
When raising pressure in a firetube boiler you should:
1.
2.
3.
4.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

2,
1,
1,
1,
2,

raise
raise
check
check
3,
2,
3,
2,
4

steam slowly
steam as rapidly as possible
the furnace frequently
the system for leaks

4
3, 4
4
3

010100020021000D
Two boilers are feeding into the same steam header and each pressure
gage shows a pressure of 350 kPa. The steam pressure gage on the
header will indicate
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

slightly
700 kPa
slightly
slightly
slightly

more than 350 kPa


more than 700 kPa
less than 350 kPa
less than 700 kPa

010100020021000C
Before removing a boiler from service for maintenance
purposes it is beneficial to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

inform the Chief Inspector


do as little as possible with the waterside of the unit
use sootblowers and clean the fireside well
force cool the unit with post-purge air
drain the unit before the water cools to ambient
temperature

010100020021000D
On boiler cool-down the vent should be opened
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

as soon as the post-purge


when all temperatures are
any time after the NRV is
just before the unit goes
at no time

is completed
at ambient value
closed
into a vacuum

010100020021000A
When cooling down a steam boiler that has been taken out of
service, a vent valve on the steam drum should be opened to

309
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

prevent a vacuum from forming in the boiler


release the air from the boiler
purge the shell of impure gases
let the operator know when the pressure has reached zero
prevent pressure build-up in the boiler

Routine and Emergency Boiler Operation


010100020021000A
A wide and rapid fluctuating water level in the boiler gage
glass may be the result of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

high TDS
a vapour bound boiler feed pump
low alkalinity
low pH
boiler firing rate being too low

010100020021000B
A natural gas fired power boiler flame should be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

very slow, long, and mostly yellow or orange


fairly rapid, mostly blue, and some orange
very rapid, short, very audible, and have no orange
very white and intense, requiring coloured glass for
viewing
bright enough to require coloured glass for viewing

010100020021000D
When performing a sootblowing operation it is important to
maintain flame stability and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

ensure drum water level remains constant


firing rate not be allowed to increase
stack discharge not become visible
dislodged soot and ash leave the boiler with the flue
gases
the local environmental agency be notified prior to
blowing

010100020021000C
While blowing down a boiler which is in operation, you should
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

check the rest of the boiler room equipment


fill in the log book for your shift
concentrate only on blowing down the boiler
clean up the area close to the boiler
add more water to the boiler to replace the blow down water

010100020021000C
In the event of a low water condition in a boiler the
engineer in charge should

310
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

shut down the burner immediately


continue firing and restore the level
shut down the burner, let the unit cool, then inspect it
shut down the burner, let the unit cool, then restore
level
notify the Chief Engineer before responding to the
condition

010100020021000E
A high water level in a boiler
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

will not be made worse by dropping boiler pressure or


allowing "swell" to occur
should cause a high water level shutdown switch to stop
the fire
is usually the result of a boiler feedpump malfunction
will necessitate an immediate shutdown, cool down, and
inspection
is usually the result of a level control malfunction

010100020021000B
In the event of a flame failure, an automatic boiler will
close the fuel valve and usually
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

begin a re-start cycle immediately


perform a post-purge
reset itself
simply restart itself with no human intervention
stop the boiler feedpump

010100020021000A
When you first notice that the water level in the boiler gauge
glass can no longer be seen, it is best first to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

ensure that the boiler is not over filled


start the stand-by feed pump or injector
shut off the boiler fuel supply
close the main steam valve
ensure the glass is not leaking

010100020021000B
If the safety valve on a boiler pops and the only pressure gauge
indicates well below pop pressure, you would
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

notify the Boiler Inspector


reduce boiler pressure and get the gauge checked
shut down to fix the safety valve
increase spring pressure on safety valve
shut down the boiler and replace the safety valve and
gauge glass

010100020021000E
If the boiler safety valves open during boiler operation, you
should
a)
b)

close the non-return valve on the boiler drum


shut the boiler down immediately

311
c)
d)
e)

increase the forced draft flow to cool the boiler


open the blowdown valves
reduce the fuel and air flow to the boiler

010100020021000B
What causes the level in the gage glass to be higher than in
the drum?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

column drain valve leaking


steam valve on the gage glass closed
swell in boiler steam drum
starting up of the stand-by feedwater pump
guage glass steam and water valves are both open

010100020021000C
What causes the level in the gauge glass to be lower than
the water level in the boiler?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

steam valve on the gauge glass closed


shrinkage in the boiler steam drum
drain valve on the gauge glass leaking
top try cock open
the steam pressure is excessively high

010100020021000D
A firetube boiler furnace explosion
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

can be the result of too much scale on boiler tubes


is more disastrous than a pressure or waterside explosion
may be the result of oil in the water causing a foaming
condition
may result from a flame scanner not working properly
could be caused by poor water circulation

010100020021000C
A boiler pressure or waterside explosion
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

could be the result of water in the fuel oil


could be the result of inadequate ignition
may be caused by a low water condition
could result from improper sootblowing procedures
could be the result of broken refractory

010100020021000A
A reason for many boiler accidents may be due to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

inadequate training of operating personnel


log books being kept up to date and adequate
the regular testing and checking of control devices
not asking the insurance companies to inspect boilers
more often
safety valves being oversized

010100020021000B
The best method of ensuring adequate attention is being given
to the boiler and its controlling and safety devices is to

312
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

schedule regular testing and checking procedures


maintain a log book showing testing results and by whom
they were done
request staff to perform checks weekly
have faith in the personnel
always maintain good oral communication lines about tests
and checks

010100020021000A
Most furnace explosions occur
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

during the
during the
during the
during the
when steam

lighting up of a boiler burner


shutting down of a burner
purge period of lighting a boiler furnace
period of increasing the load
pressure is excessive

010100020021000E
When additional gas burners are required, they may be ignited
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

from an adjacent burner


by the flame detector
by means of a transformer relay
by a flame rod
by means of a torch

010100020021000B
The purging process for a furnace should be done
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

before each burner is lit


with the fuel valve closed
with the fuel valve in the open position
before the second burner is lit
with the pilot light on

010100020021000D
One cause of flame failure in oil or gas fired boilers is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

excessive fuel temperature


fuel pressure being too high
the fuel being too volatile
water in the fuel
the hydrogen content is too low

010100020021000E
Attempting to light one burner from another burner during the
operation, can
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

cause the lit burner to be blown out


cause the fuel oil in the supply tank to surge
put the ignitor out
not cause the furnace to explode
cause a furnace explosion

010100020021000B
If the main burner fails, this could cause

313
a)
b)

the steam atomizing pressure to increase


admission of unburned fuel to the furnace which may
explode
the boiler efficiency to increase
the fuel valve to stay open
the pilot light to go out

c)
d)
e)

010100020021000D
Poor combustion due to the insufficient amount of __________
may cause a furnace explosion.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

gas
fuel
heat
air
hydrocarbons

010100020021000E
Failure to __________ the furnace thoroughly before light-up
can cause a furnace explosion.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

heat
drain
prime
cool
purge

010100020021000A
Attempting to light a burner _______________________ may
cause a furnace explosion.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

from hot refractory


without preheating the fuel
without first cooling the fuel
without a pilot light
by pre-purging the furnace

010100020021000C
Pressure explosions occur when a pressure part of the boiler
such as the shell, furnace, or firetube bursts due to too
high a steam pressure or a structural weakening of the metal.
This weakening may be caused by:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

corrosion
thermal stress
overheating
scale and sludge build-up
insufficient combustion air
1,
2,
1,
1,
1,

3,
3,
2,
2,
2,

4,
4,
3,
4,
3,

5
5
4
5
5

314

External Feedwater Treatment


010100020021000C
Boiler water is treated in order to prevent
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

sludge, mud, pitting, corrosion


foaming, corrosion, carryover, sludge
sludge, corrosion, scale, carryover
scale, sludge, mud, pitting
foaming, carryover, pitting, corrosion

010100020021000D
Dissolved solids in raw water
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

cause pitting of boiler surfaces


cause grooving of piping surfaces
are organic matter
cannot be removed with filters
cause corrosion of boiler surfaces

010100020021000A
Boiler surfaces may have what appears to be blisters which
are composed of
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

iron oxide
sodium sulphite
caustic soda
ferric sulphate
chelates

010100020021000D
Boiler water with an alkalinity that is too high will likely
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

have
show
have
foam
have

a lot of scale
signs of pitting
a low pH
grooving on its surfaces

010100020021000E
Corrosion products in feedwater can cause
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

slag deposits in superheaters


decreased steam pressure
increased steam pressure
increase in boiler efficiency
tube failure

010100020021000C
Boiler water with a pH of 6 is considered
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

alkaline
basic
acidic
neutral
acceptable for boiler water

315

010100020021000B
Which of the following is an example of suspended matter?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

sodium
sand
salt
calcium
magnesium

010100020021000A
Which of the following is an example of dissolved solids?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

magnesium sulphate
oxygen
clay
sand
carbon dioxide

010100020021000C
Temporary hardness in feedwater is caused by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

calcium sulphate
sodium nitrate
magnesium bicarbonate
calcium carbonate
magnesium sulphate

010100020021000E
Feedwater for a high pressure boiler should be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

treated with phosphate


treated with phenolphthalein
treated city water
treated with salt
softened water

010100020021000E
A method of treatment which is often used in conjunction with
settling tanks is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

deaeration
zeolite softening
demineralizing
lime soda softening
filtration

010100020021000B
The result of adding Al (SO ) to the raw water is
2
4 3
a) a higher pH
b) floc
c) corrosion
d) pitting
e) sublimation

316
010100020021000A
The chemical equation which represents the modification of
bicarbonates in hard water by the use of a zeolite softener
is
a)

Ca(HCO ) + Na Z = CaZ + 2NaHCO


3 2
2
3

b)

CaZ + 2NaCl = Na Z + CaCl


2
2

c)

MgSO
4

+ Na Z = MgZ + Na SO
2
2 4

d)

Ca(HCO ) + Na Z = CaZ + NaHCO


3 2
2
3

e)

MgZ + 2NaCl = Na

+ MgCl
2

010100020021000D
When using a sodium zeolite water softener, the modification
of the sulphates in hard water is shown by the chemical
equation
a)

MgZ + 2NaCl = Na

+ MgCl
2

b)

Ca(HCO ) + Na Z = CaZ + 2NaHCO


3 2
2
3

c)

CaZ + 2NaCl = Na Z + CaCl


2
2

d)

MgSO

+ Na Z = MgZ + Na SO
2
2 4

e)

MgSO

+ Na Z = 2MgZ + 2NaSO
2
4

4
4

010100020021000C
During the regeneration of a sodium zeolite water softener in
the "Rinse" stage, the item(s) going to the sewer is/are
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

calcium sulphate
sulphates and bicarbonates
calcium and magnesium ions
sodium bicarbonates and sulphates
magnesium bicarbonate

010100020021000E
The regenerant used to regenerate a cation demineralizer is
a)
b)
c)
d)

hydrochloric acid
sodium chloride
caustic soda
sodium hydroxide

317
e)

sulphuric acid

010100020021000A
The regenerant used to regenerate an anion demineralizer is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

sodium hydroxide
sulphuric acid
sodium chloride
hydrochloric acid
sulfamic acid

010100020021000E
Zeolite of a sodium zeolite softener may be discharged to the
sewer during the
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

injection stage of a regeneration


service stage
slow rinse stage of a regeneration
fast rinse stage of a regeneration
backwash stage of a regeneration

010100020021000B
The capacity of a sodium zeolite softener will drop due to
zeolite attrition at about
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

5% per year
3% per year
15% per year
1% per year
7% per year

010100020021000A
Filters are used
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

for external water treatment


to remove dissolved solids
to remove calcium bicarbonates
for internal treatment
to remove hardness

010100020021000C
Water filters must be cleaned
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

if the water becomes hard


when the dissolved solids are high
by backwashing the filter media
by chemically cleaning the filter media
once per shift

010100020021000B
Coagulants added to water
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

make the water soft


will remove fine particles more readily
remove the dissolved solids
causes the fine particles to float to the surface
remove chemicals not used up

318

010100020021000C
Lime-soda softeners
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

remove all dissolved solids from the water


must be backwashed periodically
remove all dissolved solids and gases from the water
changes the pH of the water
remove the scale forming dissolved solids

010100020021000A
Hot lime-soda softeners
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

can treat larger quantities of water than the cold


process type
will remove all dissolved solids from the water
are mostly used in small heating plants
are only used when using well water
are used mostly in large power plants

010100020021000B
Sodium zeolite softeners
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

remove all dissolved solids from the water


remove calcium and magnesium from the water
are regenerated with an acid solution
are regenerated with an alkaline solution
remove all dissolved solids and suspended matter
from the water

010100020021000A
Mechanical deaeration
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

removes
is done
is used
is used
removes

the dissolved gases from the water


with the aid of chemicals
to remove calcium and magnesium from the water
to remove oxygen only
all dissolved gases and solids from the water

010100020021000A
Pitting of boiler metal may be prevented by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

heating the boiler feed water to between 80 and 105 degrees


Celsius before it enters the boiler
cooling the feed water to between 4 and 16 degrees Celsius
the addition of sodium chloride to the feed water
agitating the feed water before it enters the boiler
the addition of sodium sulphate to the feed water

010100020021000C
The zeolite inside a water softener is used to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

regenerate the brine solution


rinse the softened water
exchange sodium for calcium and magnesium
exchange soda for calcium and magnesium
exchange calcium for magnesium

319

010100020021000D
In order to prevent the waste of steam through a deaerator
vent, the component used is a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

cyclone separator
chevron drier
scrubber
vent condenser
dry pipe

010100020021000A
A normal operating pressure range for a deaerator is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

70 to 100 kPa
30 to 50 kPa
100 to 150 kPa
10 to 25 kPa
5 to 35 kPa

Internal Feedwater Treatment and Testing Methods


010100020021000D
An acceptable pH value for boiler water is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

7.00
6.95
8.35
10.50
11.75

010100020021000A
Relative to internal treatment, it is customary to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

precipitate dissolved solids with a "precipitator"


cause dissolved solids to remain in solution
filter out dissolved solids
treat the dissolved solids so they remain dispersed
condition the dissolved solids so they do not adhere to
metal

010100020021000C
A sludge conditioner will keep precipitated dissolved solids
fluid and well dispersed and
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

permit their removal through a CBD


in solution
prevent them from adhering to the metal
is usually a non-organic compound
is injected prior to the water softener

010100020021000C
Two common chemicals used for deaeration are Na SO and
2 3

320
a)

NaOH

b)

H SO
2 4

c)

N H
2 4

d)

Na PO
3 4

e)

Na (HCO )
2
3 2

010100020021000C
Carbon dioxide causes return line corrosion and may be
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

removed in the deaerator


absorbed by sodium sulphite
the result of bicarbonate decomposition
neutralized in the boiler with sodium hydroxide
neutralized with filming amines

010100020021000A
Excess sulphite is necessary to prevent
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

pitting
hardness
carry over
acidity
sludging

010100020021000D
Sludge is usually removed from the boiler by
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

filtering the water before it leaves the boiler


raking it into a sludge trap
vacuuming it from the bottom
blowing down through the bottom blow down connection
blowing down through the continuous blow down

010100020021000B
Internal water treatment is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

used with low pressure boilers only


adding chemicals to the boiler water
adding a coagulant to the settling tank
measuring the pH of the feedwater
adding chemicals to the steam in the boiler

010100020021000A
The pH of the water in the boiler
a)
b)
c)
d)

is controlled with sodium hydroxide


could be controlled with amines
must have a value of 7
is controlled by adding treated water

321
e)

should be neutral

010100020021000C
Sludge conditioning in a boiler
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

is controlled by the continuous blow down


is to prevent pollution from the water blown down from
the boiler
prevents the sludge precipitates from adhering to the boiler
plates and tubes
is done to mix the sludge with the boiler water
neutralizes the sludge forming substances

010100020021000E
Foaming of water in the boiler
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

is due
can be
can be
can be
can be

to a high concentration of dissolved gases


controlled by adding sodium phosphate
controlled by adding more neutralizing amines
controlled by adding sulphur to the feedwater
controlled by the bottom and continuous blow downs

010100020021000A
Sodium sulphite chemical will
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

prevent corrosion due to oxygen in the boiler water


precipitate with calcium and magnesium
prevent scale adhering to the tubes
control foaming
control return line corrosion

010100020021000D
Return line corrosion
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

can
can
can
can
can

be
be
be
be
be

controlled by feeding sodium bicarbonate


prevented by adding sodium phosphate
prevented by adding sodium sulphite
controlled by feeding amines
controlled by adding polymers

010100020021000D
Sodium sulphite is used in boilers to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

prevent
prevent
control
prevent
prevent

scale formation
carryover
dissolved solids
oxygen corrosion
foaming

010100020021000C
The boiler blowoff should be used to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

reduce steam pressure


reduce feedwater pressure
control the total dissolved solids
prevent scale formation
expel the sodium sulphite

322

010100020021000D
The pH of the boiler water should be maintained at
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

neutral
slightly alkaline
11.5
10.5
7

010100020021000E
To prevent scale formation, inject
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

zeolite
sodium chloride
phenolphthalein
amines
phosphates

010100020021000A
One element which leads to caustic embrittlement in boiler tubes is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

concentration of sodium hydroxide


concentration of sodium chloride
overheating of boiler parts
concentration of sodium sulphite
excessive boiler pressure

010100020021000A
The water in a boiler should be kept
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

alkaline
neutral
acidic
at a pH of 14
at a pH of 7

010100020021000A
Raw water has hardness due to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

the salts of calcium and magnesium


suspended solids
organic material
dissolved gases
phosphates

010100020021000E
Alkalinity in boiler water may be due to calcium, sodium or
magnesium
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

hydroxides
carbonates and bicarbonates
bicarbonates
hydroxides and bicarbonates
hydroxides, carbonates and bicarbonates

010100020021000B

323
The phenolphthalein or "P" alkalinity test does not indicate
alkalinity due to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

hydroxides
bicarbonates
sulphates
carbonates
phosphates

010100020021000D
The methyl orange or "M" alkalinity test indicates
alkalinity
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

due to carbonates only


due to bicarbonates only
due to hydroxides only
caused by all dissolved impurities contributing to
alkalinity
due to organics only

010100020021000B
When conducting a TDS or Total Dissolved Solids test, the
impurity which has a high conductivity and must be
neutralized is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

sodium phosphate
hydroxide alkalinity
pH
suspended solids
sodium chloride

010100020021000B
Boiler water chemicals are injected
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

in measured amounts once per year


after considering the water test readings
into the water softener
to prevent the water becoming too alkaline
each time after blowing down

010100020021000B
A residual of 20 to 40 ppm of sodium sulphite is to
be maintained in the boiler water to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

keep down the sludge


prevent pitting in the boiler steam drum
prevent scaling the float in the low water cut-off
keep feed water lines free of algae
reduce the total chemical consumption

010100020021000E
The conductivity meter is used to measure the
a)
b)
c)

current
alkalinity
electrolyte

324
d)
e)

voltage
TDS

010100020021000A
Total alkalinity is measured
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

using methyl orange indicator and N50 sulphuric acid


to be sure that it is not more than 2500 ppm
to keep a check on the dissolved oxygen
to control sludge formation
by using phenophthalein and N50 sulphuric acid

010100020021000A
Boiler water testing is done in the average power plant every
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

shift
week
month
time the boiler inspector requests it
time the chief engineer requests it

010100020021000C
When used as a term during boiler water testing, DS means
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

demineralized steam
drain solids
dissolved solids
dissolved sulphite
depleted salts

010100020021000A
Phenolphthalein is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

an indicator
a reagent
a buffer
an acid softener
neutralizing agent

010100020021000E
Titrating is done with
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

a titrant
a zeolite
an antifoam
trisodium phosphate
a reagent

010100020021000C
When performing a water test be sure that:
1.
2.
3.
4.

all equipment is clean and in good working order


results are recorded carefully before making the test
test solutions, indicators, and reagents are fresh,
and at full strength
test reagents are filtered before use

325
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

1,
2,
1,
2,
3,

2
3
3
4
4

010100020021000C
Chemicals are fed to a water tube boiler
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

with a small centrifugal pump


into the top drum only
with a small positive displacement pump
into the bottom drum only
prior to operating the blow off valves

010100020021000B
A continuous blow-off is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)

used to reduce the dissolved gases in the boiler


installed in the steam drum
used on every boiler
installed in the lower drum
used to reduce sludge