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PROJECT MANAGEMENT CONTEXT


1. A Project is:
a. A set of sequential activities performed in a process or system
b. A revenue generating activity that needs to be accomplished while achieving
customer satisfaction
c. An ongoing endeavor undertaken to meet customer or market requirements
d. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result
2. Project Management is:
a. The integration of the critical path method and earned value management system
b. The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to
meet project requirements
c. The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to
achieve operational excellence
d. A subset of most engineering and other technical disciplines
3. The project team manages the work of the projects, and the work typically involves:
a. Balancing the competing demands for quality, scope, time, and cost.
b. Integrating requirements of profitability, low cost, and legal responsibility
c. Implementation of software, hardware, and other. systems to enhance
organizational efficiency.
d. Supporting human factors, communications, discipline, and performance
management
4. Effective project management team must have expertise in all the following areas
excepta. Interpersonal skills
b. Application areas knowledge
c. General management knowledge
d. Political philosophy
5. A program is characterize as a:
a. Grouping of related tasks lasting one year or less
b. Grouping of related projects
c. Projects with a cost over Rupees 1 million
d. Sequence of steps constituting a project
6. Project portfolio management refers to:
a. Managing various contents of the project file
b. Managing the levels of financial authority to facilitate project decision-making
c. Identifying, prioritizing, authorizing, managing, and controlling projects,
programs, and related work, to achieve specific strategic business objectives.
d. Applying resource-leveling heuristics across all the organization's projects

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7. Organizations performing projects may divide each project into phases. Collectively
project phases are known as the:
a. Project waterfall
b. Project life cycle
c. Product life stages
d. Project life quality cycle
8. All the following are true about project phases and project life cycle, EXCEPT:
a. Each phase normally includes a set of defined deliverables
b. The project life cycle serves to define the beginning and the end of a project
c. The project life cycle generally define what technical work to do in each phase
d. Project cost and staffing levels are generally symmetrical throughout the project
life cycle
9- Most project we cycles share a number of common characteristics EXCEPT:
a. Phases are generally sequential.
b. Cost and staffing levels are low at start, peak during the intermediate phases, and
drop rapidly as the project closes.
c. The level of uncertainly is low in earlier phases and high in the subsequent
phases.
d. the ability of stakeholders to influence the final characteristic of the projects
product and the final project cost is highest at the start, and gets progressively
lower.
10. All are true about sub projects EXCEPT:
a. Contracted to an external enterprise
b. Not having definite start and finish dates
c. Assigned to another functional unit
d. Having distinct project life cycle
11. Project deliverables are:
a. Project phases of project life cycle
b. Measurable, verifiable work product, results, or service that must be produced to
complete a process, phase, or project.
c. Detailed description of project product
d. Work elements defined in work breakdown dictionary
12. Product life cycle has the following characteristics excepta. Project life cycle is contained within one or more product life cycles.
b. The last product life cycle phase for the product is generally the products
deterioration and death.
c. product life cycle duration is smaller than the project life cycle.
d. A collection of generally sequential, non-overlapping product phases

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13. Which is not true about the project stakeholders, the project management team must
identify all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Individuals and organizations that are rarely supportive of the project.
b. Individuals and organizations actively involved in the project.
c. Individuals and organizations whose interests may be effected as a result of project
execution or project completion.
d. individuals and organizations that may exert influence over the projects
objectives.
14. In considering project stakeholders, the project management team must do all the
following EXCEPT:
a. Create conflicts among stakeholders to allow the project team to get its work done
b. Identify the stakeholders
c. Determine stakeholders requirements
d. Manage and Influence stakeholders expectations
15. Difference between or among project stakeholders should be:
a. Encouraged
b. Ignored
c. Generally resolved in favor to the customer
d. Generally resolved in favor of the schedule
16. Project based organizations are those whose operations generally of all the
Following EXCEPT.
a. Generating revenue by performing projects for others
b. Organizations that have adopted 'management by projects'
c. Having management systems in place to facilitate project management in ongoing operations
d. Having management systems in place to facilitate process-based operations
17. Organizational cultures:
a. Are generally similar and indescribable
b. Are generally unique and indescribable
c. Have no impact on a clearly defined project
d. Often have a direct influence on the project
18. IN a typical matrix organization, functional managers are responsible for all the
following EXCEPT.
a. -General administrative philosophy
b. Assignment of personnel
c. Development standards
d. Monitoring performance

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19. The project manager has the highest level of independence and authority in a
_______ organization.
a. Strong matrix
b. Weak matrix
c. Projectized
d. Functional
20. The project manager has the lowest level of independence and authority in a _______
Organization.
a. Functional
b. Weak matrix
c. Strong matrix
d. Projectized
21. A project coordinator may typically be found in a ________ Organisation
a. Projectized
b. Strong matrix
c. Weak matrix
d. Balanced matrix
22. The Projects manager is more likely to have a.part-time role in a _____ organization:
a. Functional
b. Balanced matrix
c. Strong matrix
d. Projectized
23. A common for the project manager's role in a projectized organization is:
a. Project Manager
b. Project Coordinator
c. Project Coach
d. Project Expediter
24. All the following are generally true about the project management office, EXCEPT:
a. It may provide administrative support to project managers
b. It should be located in a bright, well ventilated, centralized area
c. It may facilitate in developing templates
d. It may be responsible for the results of the project
25. The project manager's leadership involves:
a. Disciplinary, autocratic, and participative management
b. Projectized, matrix, and functional organization
c. Staff planning, team training, and performance monitoring
d. Developing a vision and strategy, and motivating people to achieve that vision
and strategy

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26. A mandatory prerequisite for the team building is:


a. Communication from top level management
b. Collocation of team members
c. Open discussion of poor individual performance
d. Funding for staff development activities
27. All the following are communication tools EXCEPT:
a. Memos
.

b. Body language
c. Inputting data into a spreadsheet
d. Verbal communication of a rumor
28. During the course of a project, negotiations are:
a. Primarily the concern of contract administration
b. Likely for scope, cost, and schedule objectives
c. A- direct result of ineffective decision-making
d. Conducted by senior executives
29. In addition to the traditional concerns of scope, cost, time, and quality, the project
management team of a project that spans national boundaries must also consider all
the following EXCEPT:
a. Time-zone differences
b. National and regional holidays
c. Volatile political differences
d. Project reporting formats
30. Cultural influences on a project include all the following areas EXCEPT:
a. Political
b. Occasional
c. Educational
d. Ethical
31. In considering the impact of a project on the social-economic-environmental
sustainability, all the following are true EXCEPT:
a. Projects are planned and implemented in social, economic, and environmental
context
b. Projects may have intended positive &/or negative impacts
c. Projects may have unintended positive &/or negative impacts
d. Organizations are rarely accountable for impacts resulting from a project
32. One of the main advantages Of a matrix organization is:
a. improved project management control over resources
b. More than one boss for the project teams
c. Communications are easier
d. Reporting is easier

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33. How is a project expediter different from the project coordinator-?


a. The project expediter cannot make decisions
b. The project expediter can make more decisions
c. The project expediter reports to a higher-level manager
d. The project expediter has some authority
34. In a projectized organization the project team:
a. Reports to many bosses
b. Has no loyalty to the project
c. Reports to the functional manager
d. Will not always have a "home"
35. During which life cycle phase is the detailed project budget created?
a. Initiation
b. Before the project management life cycle
c. Planning
d. Execution
36. The project charter is created during which life cycle phase?
a. Execution
b. Planning
c. Closing
d. Initiation
37. The project manager is trying to complete a project but cannot get enough attention
for the project. Resources are focused on completing process-related work and project
manager has little authority to properly assign resources. What form of organization
must the project manager be working in?
a. Functional
b. Matrix
c. Expediter
d. Coordinator
38- The Project team has just completed the initial project schedule and budget. The
NEXT thing to do is:
a. Begin risk identification
b. Begin iterations
c. Determine communication requirements
d. Create a Gantt chart

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39. A project manager has very little project experience but has been assigned as the
project manager of a new project. Because he will be working in a matrix organization to
complete his project, he can except communications to be:
a. Simple
b. Open and accurate
c. Complex
d. Hard to automate
40. A detailed project schedule can be created only after creating the:

a. Project budget
b. Work Breakdown Structure
c. Project plan
d. Detailed risk assessment
41. The person who should be in control of the project during project planning is the:
a. Project manager
b. Team member
c. Functional manager
d. Sponsor
42. A project team member is talking to another team member and complaining that so
many people are asking him to do things. If he works in a functional organization,
who has the power to give direction to the team member?
a. The project manager
b. The functional manager
c. The team
d. Tight matrix
43. Who has the MOST power in a projectized organization?
a. The project manager
b. The functional manager
c. The team
d. They all share power
44. All of the following are characteristics of a project EXCEPT:
a. Temporary
b. Definite beginning and end
c. Interrelated activities
d. Repeats itself every month
45. All of the following are part of the team's stakeholder management effort EXCEPT
a. Giving stakeholders extras
b. Identifying stakeholders
c. Determining stakeholders needs
d. Managing stakeholders expectations

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46. A project manager's boss and the head of engineering discuss a change to a major task
After the meeting, the boss contacts the project manager and tells him to make the
change. This is an example of:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Management attention to scope management


Management planning
A project coordinator position
A change control system

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PROJECT MANAGEMENT PROCESSES
47. The five project management process groups are:
a. Planning, checking, directing, monitoring, and recording
b. Initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closing
c. Planning, executing, directing, closing, and delivering
d. Initiating, executing, monitoring, evaluating, and closing
48. Project phases are:
a. Sub-projects
b. Project process groups
c. Processes within process group
d. Organizational process assets
49. Project management process groups are:
a. Overlapping processes that occur at varying levels of intensity throughout each
phase of the project
b. Overlapping processes that occur at the same level of intensity throughout each
phase of the project
c. Discrete, one-time events
d. Discrete, repetitive events that occur at the same level of intensity throughout
each phase of the project
50. The linkages between process groups are best described by the following:
a. The Work Breakdown Structure links process groups
b. Process groups are linked by their objectives - the summary objective of one
becomes the detailed action plan for another
c. Process groups are linked by the results they produce - the result or outcome of
one often becomes an input to another
d. There are no significant links between discrete process groups
51. The relationship between project management life cycle phases is best described by
the following:
a. They are unrelated, incompatible concepts
b. They are the same concept described by different terms to satisfy application area
extensions
c. Phases cross process groups such that closing one process group provides an
input to initiating the next
d. Process group interactions cross phases such that dosing one phase provides an
input to initiating the next
52. Plan-do-check-act cycle was defined by:
a. PMBOK guide - 3rd edition
b. Shewhart
c. Deming
d. American society for Quality

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53. Reviewing the initiation processes at the start of each phase:


a. Is wasteful and should be avoided whenever possible
b. Helps to keep the project focused on the business need that it was undertaken to
address
c. Helps ensure that the project continues regardless of changes in the business
needs
d. Helps ensure continuous employment of project team members, even if the
project is unlikely to satisfy the business need that it was undertaken to address
54. The sub-processes of a project are defined by PMI as having input, _____, and an
output
a. Resolution and action
b. Formatting and creation
c. Tools and techniques
d. Action and integration
55. A controlling process for a project's schedule typically will focus on activities:
a. Starting earlier than scheduled
b. That vary from plan, whether late or early
c. That are only on the critical path
d. That are different to carry out
56. Quality standards and criteria should be identified during:
a. Conceptual phase
b. Project planning
c. Implementation
d. Risk identification
57. The VP of marketing approaches you and requests that you change the visitor logon
screen on the company's website to include a user name with at-least six characters. This
is considered:
a.
Project initiation
b.
Ongoing operations
c.
A project
d.
Project execution
58. Your company is manufacturing small consumable electrical appliances. They are
introducing a new product line of appliances in designer colors with distinctive
features for appliances in small spaces. These new products will be offered
indefinitely starting with the spring catalog release. Which of the following is true?
a. This is a project because this new product line has never been manufactured
and sold by this company before
b. This is an ongoing operation because the company is in the business of
manufacturing kitchen appliances. Introducing designer colors and features
is simply a new twist on an existing process

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c. This is an ongoing process because the new line will be sold indefinitely. It is
not temporary
d. This is not a project or an ongoing operation. This is a new product
introduction not affecting ongoing operations. "
59. Your company is manufacturing small consumable electrical appliances They are
introducing a new product line of appliances in designer colors with distinctive
features or appliances in small spaces. These new products will be offered
indefinitely-starting with the spring catalog release. In order to determine the
characteristics and features of the new product line-you will have to perform which
of the following
a. Fast tracking
b. Consulting with the stakeholders
c. Planning the project life cycle
d. Progressive elaboration
60.

A project is considered successful when:


a. The product of the project has been manufactured
b. The project sponsor announces the completion of the project
c. The product of the project is turned over to the operations area to handle the
ongoing aspect of project
d. The project meets or exceeds the expectations of the stakeholders

61. The VP of the customer service has expressed concern over a project you're
evolved in. His specific concern is that if the project is implemented as planned
he will have to purchase additional equipment to staff his customer service center
The cost is substantial and was not taken into consideration in the project budget.
The project sponsor insists that the project must go forward as originally planned or
the customer will suffer. Which of the following is true?
a. The VP of the customer service is correct. Since the cost was not taken into
account at the beginning of the project, the project should not go forward as
planned. Project initiation should be revisited to examine the project plan and
determine how changes can be made to accommodate customer service.
b. The conflict should be resolved in favor of the customer
c. The conflict should be resolved in favor of the project sponsor
d. The conflict should be resolved in favor of the VP of the customer service
62.

The triple constraints are driven by:


a. Time, schedules, and quality
b. Time, availability, and quality
c. Time, money, and schedules
d. Time, money, and quality

63.

You are the project manager for a large construction project to construct Olympic
village to house sport men arriving 18 months from the project start date. Youve
been given a budget of Rs. 12 crores to complete this project. Resources are

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easily attained. Which of the triple constraints is the primary constraint for this
project?
a. Time, because the date cannot be moved.
b. Money, because the budget is set at Rs. 12 crores
c. Resources, because they're not fixed
d. Quality, because the buildings have to be functional and safe
64. If in the above project, the resources are not readily available as your company has
engaged them in some other project currently Mr X is an expert civil engineer whom
you desire to have in your project in order to expedite the project work without
compromising quality. Which of the following skills you use to get Mr.X assigned to
your project?
a. Negotiation and influencing skills
b. Communication and organizational skills
c. Communication skills
d. Problem-solving skills
65. You are a project manager with software technical expertise. Youve decided to try
your hand at the project management in the pharmaceutical industry. Which of the
following is true?
a. You will likely be successful because communication skills are your strong
suit. You anticipate having technical experts on your project team to address industry
specific that youre not familiar with
b. You will likely be successful because your organizational skills are excellent.
You anticipate having technical experts on your project team to address industry specific
that youre not familiar with.
c. You will probably be successful because you have a friend in the
pharmaceutical industry that has briefed you on all important aspects of the project that
you will need to know. You anticipate having technical experts on you project team to
address industry specifics that youre not familiar with.
d. You will probably not be successful because your have a little knowledge of
the pharmaceutical industry even though you anticipated having technical experts on your
project team to address industry specifics that youre not familiar with
66. You are managing a project to install a new postage software system that will
automatically print labels and administer postage for certified mailing, overnight
packages, and other special mailing needs. You have attempted to gain the cooperation
of the business analyst working on this project and needs some answers. She is elusive
and tells you that this project is not her top priority. To avoid situations like this in
future, you should:
a. Establish the business analysts duties well ahead of due dates and tell her you will be
reporting on her performance to her functional manager.
b. Establish the business analysts duties well ahead of due dates and tell her you are
expecting her meet these expectations because customer is counting on the project
meeting due dates to save significant costs on their annual billing.

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c. Negotiate with the business analysts functional manager during the planning process
to establish expectations and request to participate in the business analysts annual
performance review.
d. Negotiate with the business analysts functional manager during the planning process
to establish expectations and inform the functional manager of the requirements of the
project. Agreement from the functional manager will assure the cooperation of the
business analyst.
67. The amount of authority a project manager possesses can be related to:
a. The project managers communication skills
b. The organization structure
c. The amount of authority the manager of the project manager can possess
d. The project managers influencing skills
68. What is one of the advantages of a functional structure?
a. All employees report to one manager and have a clear chain of command.
b. All employees report to two or more managers, but project team member show
loyalty to functional managers.
c. The organization is focused on projects and project work.
d. Teams are collocate.
69.

You have been assigned to a project in which the objectives are to direct customer
calls to an Interactive Voice Response system before being connected to a live
agent. You are in charge of the media communications for this project. You report to
the project manager in charge of this project and the VP of the marketing, who
share responsibility for this project. Which organization structure do you work in?
a. Functional organization
b. Weak matrix organization
c. Projectized organization
d. Balanced matrix organization

70.

You are in-charge of a project phase and have been hired on contract by a project
manager who is head of a project. You will be released at the completion of the
project phase assigned to you. What type of organization structure does this
represent?
,
a. Functional organization
b. Weak matrix organization
c. Projectized organization
d. Balanced organization

71.

You are interested in implementing a new project process called design-build in


order to speed up the project schedule. The idea is that the construction team will
work on part of the project and at the same time the design team is coming up with
design plans for the next installment of implementation work begins. This is an
example of:

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a. Managing the projects as a program
b. Fast tracking
c. Progressive elaboration
d. Collocation

PROJECT INTEGRATION MANAGEMENT


72. Inputs included in Integrating Change Control are of the following EXCEPT:
a. Work performance information
b. Deliverables
c. Project management information system
d. Project management plan
73. The Project management plan is used toa. Define how the project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed
b. Provide a variable measurement progress
c. Develop corrective actions
d. Improve project manager's general management skills
74. The project performance measurement baselinea. Is used for management control
b. Changes frequently
c. Documents relevant standards
d. Generally can be changed by the project team
75. Performance measurement baseline, shoulda. Remain the same throughout all phases of the project
b. Change frequently to accommodate current information about the project
c. Change only intermittently, and then generally only in response to an approved
changes to the scope and organizational process assets.
d. Change in order to keep the customer happy
76. Which process is included in Project Integration Management
a. Develop project charter
b. Scope definition
c. Scope verification
d. Procurement plan
77. Motoring and controlling process group has 12 processes, which one of them is
included here
a. Management systems
b. Risk monitoring and control
c. Customer interface control systems
d. Performance reporting

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78. Configuration management is a collection of formal documented procedures used to


apply technical and administrative direction and surveillance to :
a. identify and correct problems arising in functional areas of project
implementation
b. Identify, and document the functional and physical characteristics of a product.
c. Test new systems
d. Estimate and control risks
79. A Change Control Board isa. A formally constituted group of stakeholders responsible for ensuring that only
a minimal amount of changes occur on the project.
b. An informal group which has oversight of project implementation
c. A formal constituted group of stakeholders responsible for approving or
rejecting changes to the project baselines.
d. The project manger and several key team members working to ensure cost and
schedule control during the life of the project.
80. The monitoring and controlling process group includes all the following EXCEPT:
a. Scope control
b. Resource leveling
c. Quality control
d. Manage project team
81. The project management plan should include all the following EXCEPT:
a. Risk register
b. Milestone list
c. Cost baseline
d. Organizational process assets
82. Effective project integration usually requires an emphasis on:
a. A personal careers of the team members
b. Timely updates to the project plan
c. Effective communications at key interface points
d. Internal control
83. The need for ____ is one of the major driving forces for communication in a project
a. Optimization
b. Integrity
c. Integration
d. Differentiation
84. Which of the following describes the BEST use of organizational process assets:
a. Life cycle costing
b. Creating lessons learned

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c. Risk control procedures, and templates
d. Creating status reports
85. When it comes to changes, the project manager's attention is BEST spent on:
a. Making changes
b. Tracking and recording
c. Informing management of changes
d. Preventing unnecessary changes
85. Senior management's role on project is BEST described as:
a. Helping to plan tasks
b. Helping to prevent unnecessary changes to project objectives
c. Identifying unnecessary project constraints
d. Helping to put the project plan together
87. All of the following are part of a effective integrated change control system
EXCEPT:
a. Control procedures
b. Standards for reports
c. Meetings
d. Lessons learned
88. A work authorization system can be used to:
a. Control who does each task
b. Control what is done, at the right time and in proper sequence
c. Control when each task is done
d. Control who does each task and when it is done
89. A project is plagued by changes to the project charter. Who has the primary
responsibility to decide if these changes are necessary?
a. Project manager
b. Project team
c. Senior management
d. Stakeholder
90. Integration is done by:
a. Project manager
b. Team
c. Management
d. Stakeholder
91. Which of the following BEST describes the project manager's role as an integrator?
a. Helping team members become familiar with the project
b. Putting all the pieces of a project into a cohesive whole
c. Putting all the pieces <of a project into a program
d. Getting all team members together into cohesive whole

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92. All technical work is completed on the project. Which of the following remains to be
done?
a. Scope verification
b. Risk response plan
c. Staffing management plan
d. Lessons learned
93. A company procedure requires the up dating of organization process assets. Which of
the following is the BEST use of organization process assets?
a. Historical information for future projects
b. Planning record for the current project
c. Informing the team about what the project manager has done
d. Informing the team about the plan
94. Approved corrective action is an input to:
a. Scope change
b. Project plan execution
c. Integrated change control
d. Project plan development
95. A lessons learned is BEST completed by:
a. Project manager
b. Team
c. Management
d. Stakeholder
96. A particular stakeholder has a reputation for making many changes on projects. What
is the BEST approach a project manager can take at the beginning of the project to:
a. Say "no" to the stakeholder a few times to make him change his habits
b. Get stakeholder involvement in the project as early as possible
c. Talk to the stake holder's boss to find ways to direct the stake holder's activities
to another project
d. Ask that stakeholder not be included in the stakeholder listing
97. You are a new project manager who has never managed a project before and you
have been asked to plan a new project. It would be BEST in this situation to rely on
_____ during planning in order to improve your chances of success
a. Your intuition .
b. Your training
c. Organizational process assets
d. Responsibility chart
98. Which of the following BEST describes a project management plan?
a. A printout from project management software
b. A Gantt chart

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c. Cost baseline, quality baseline, resource calendar, and milestone list
d. Expert judgment
99. During planning, a project manager discovers that part of the scope of work is under
defined. What should the project manager do?
a. Continue to plan the project until the scope of work is defined
b. Remove the scope of work from the project and include it in the upgrade to the
project
c. Issue a change to the project when the scope is defined
d. Do what they can to get the scope of work defined before proceeding
100. You are taking over a project and determine the following: Task B has an early
finish of day 3, a late finish of day 6, and early start of day 2. Task L is being done by a
hard-to- get resource. The CPI is 1.1 and the SPI is 0.8. Based on this information what
would you be more concerned about?
a. Float
b. Resources
c. Cost
d. Schedule
101. The previous project manager for your project managed it without much project
organization. There is a lack of management control and no clearly defined project
deliverables. Which of the following would be the BEST choice for getting your
project better organized?
a. Adopt a life cycle approach to the project
b. Develop lessons learned for each phase
c. Develop specific work plane for each phase of the project
d. Develop a description of the product of the project.
102. You are taking over a project during the planning phase and discover that six
individuals have signed the project charter. Which of the following should MOST
concern you?
a. The charter was created during planning
b. Spending more time on configuration management
c. Getting a single project sponsor
d. Determining the reporting structure
103.

The project charter for a project was approved for planning and you have just
been assigned as project manager. Realizing that planning is an ongoing effort
throughout the project life cycle, which processes are you MOST likely to
combine?
a. WBS and activity defining
b. Activity duration estimating and schedule development
c. Resource planning and cost budgeting
d. Cost estimating and schedule development

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104. All of the following are part of direct and mange project execution except?
a. Identifying changes.
b. Using a work breakdown structure
c. Taking corrective action
d. Setting up a project change control board

105. A project manager is appointed to head a highly technical project in an area with
which this person has limited familiarity. The project manager delegates schedule
development, cost estimating, selection of tasks, and assignments of work activities
to various project team members, and basically serves as an occasional referee and
coordinator of activities. This results of this project are likely to be
a. A team functioning throughout the project at a very high level, demonstrating
creativity and commitment.
b. A team that initially experience some amounts of confusion, but that after a
period of time becomes a cohesive and effective unit.
c. A team that is not highly productive, but that stays together because of the
work environment created by the project manager
d. A team that is characterized by poor performance, low morale, high levels of
conflict and high turnover.
106. You are in the middle of executing a major modification to an existing product
when you learn that the resources promised at the beginning of the project are not
available. The BEST thing to do is to :
a. Show how the resources were originally promised to your project
b. Re-plan the project without the resources
c. Explain what will happen if the resources are not made available
d. Crash the project
107. You have been assigned to manage the development of an organizations first
website. The site will be highly complex and interactive, and neither your project team
nor the client has much experience with website development
The timetable is extremely aggressive. Any delay will be costly for both your firm and
the client. You have an executive aggressive advocate and have achieved agreement and
sign-off on both the project charter and project plan. Client personnel have been kept
fully informed of the projects progress through status reports and regular meetings. The
project is on schedule, within the budget, and finally performance review has been
scheduled. Suddenly you hear that the entire effort may be cancelled because the product
developed is totally unacceptable. What should the project manger do FIRST?
a. A key stakeholder was not adequately involved in the project '
b. The project charter and project plan were not thoroughly explained or
adequately reviewed by the client.
c. Communication arrangements were inadequate and did not provide the
required information to interested parties.
d. The executive advocate failed to provide adequate support for the project

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108. The project manager has just received a change from the customer that does not
Effect project time and is easy to complete. What should the project manager do
FIRST?
a. Make the change happen as soon as possible
b. Contact the project sponsor for permission

c. Go to the change control board


d. Evaluate the other components of the triple constraints
109. Your company just won a major new project. It will begin in three months and is
valued at Rs. 2,000,000. You are the project manager for an existing project. What
is the FIRST thing you should do once you hear of the new project?
a. Ask management how the new project will use resources
b. Resource level your project
c. Crash your project
d. Ask management how the new project will affect your project
110. You are a project manager who was just assigned to take over a project from
another project manager who is leaving the company. The previous project
manager tells you that the project is on schedule, but only because he has
constantly pushed the team to perform. What is the FIRST thing you should do as
the new project manager?
a. Check risk status
b. Check cost performance
c. Determine a management strategy
d. Tell the team your objectives
111. You are assigned to be the project manager in the middle of the project. The project
in within tolerances for the baselines, but the customer is not happy with the
performance of the project. What is the FIRST thing you should do?
a. Discuss it with the project team
b. Recalculate baselines
c. Renegotiate the contract
d. Meet with the customer
112.

A project manager learns that corrective action was taken by a team member and
was not documented. What should the project manager do NEXT?
a. Report the violation to the functional manager
b. Clarify the reasoning behind the team member's action
c. Add the corrective action to the historical record
d. Find out who caused the problem

113.
The client demands changes to the product specification that will add two weeks
to the critical path. The project manager should:
a. Crash the project to recover the two weeks

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b. Fast tract the project to recover the two weeks
c. Consult management before proceeding
d. Advise the client of the impact of the change
114.

During the project execution, the project manager determines that a change is
needed to material purchased for the project. The project manager calls a meeting
of the team to plan how to make the change. This is an example of:
a. Management by objectives
b. Lack of a integrated change control system
c. Good team relations
d. Lack of a clear work breakdown structure
115. What should a project manager do FIRST if a team member has added
functionality to a product in the project without impacting time, cost or quality?
a. Ask the team member how the need for the functionality was determined
b. Ask the finance department to assess the value of the improvement
c. Ask the customer to review this and to submit a change request
d. Ask the team member how they know there is no time, cost or quality impact

116.
A team member notifies you, after the fact, that she has added extra functionality
to the project. There was no impact on the cost or schedule of the project. What should
she do FIRST?
a. Inform the customer
b. Make sure marketing is aware of the change
c. Understand what functionality was added
d. Implement change control process to track the change
117.

A project manager is managing a fixed price contract. She thinks that a large
customer-requested change might impact the schedule of the project. What should
she do FIRST?
a. Meet with the stakeholders
b. Meet with the team
c. Renegotiate the reminder of the contract
d. Follow the integrated change control system

118.

While completing a project, a project manager realizes he needs to decrease


project costs. After researching his opinions, he comes up with the following
choices. Which choice would DECREASE project costs?
a. Change to component A from component B. component A costs more to
purchase but a lower life cycle cost then B
b. Change task A to be completed by resources B instead of resource C. Resource B
is a more experienced worker
c. Move tasks B and H to occur concurrently, and take the risk of 30% increase in
the need for five more resources later
d. Remove a test from the project plan.

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119.

You are the project manager for a leading cereal for a leading cereal and grain
manufacturing company. You are developing an animal feed that contains a
vaccine against hoof-and-mouth disease. The project sponsor has asked you what
constitutes the total project scope. You told her it is the:
a. Project scope statement
b. Work packages that compromise the non-project management elements in the
WBS
c. OBS and the project component list
d. Project requirements that have been approved by stakeholders

120. You are managing a large project with 20 key internal stakeholders that represent 7
companies. Eight different contractors are involved, and your project team has six team
leaders. You realize that you are concerned primarily with:
a. Influencing factors that could circumvent integrated change control so only
approved changes are implemented
b. Managing baseline integrity, integrating product and project scope, and
coordinating change across knowledge areas
c. Integrating deliverables from different functional specialties on the project
d. Establishing a change control board that oversees the overall project changes
121. You are the project manager for a new system project. Management wants your
project to yield high-value results at a low cost. Your internal client wants all the
features identified regardless of the cost. When working with stakeholders, you
should;
a. Group stakeholders into categories for easy identification
b. Proactively curtain stakeholder activities that might affect the project adversely
c. Be sensitive to the fact that stakeholders often have very different objectives and
that this makes stakeholders difficult
d. Recognize that rotes and responsibilities may overlap
122. Your project has a budget of Rs.1.5 million for the first year, Rs.3 million for the
second year, Rs.2.2 million for the third year, Rs 800,000 for the fourth year. Most of the
project budget will be spent during.
a. Develop project management plan
b. Direct and manage project plan execution
c. Integrated change control
d. Project initiation
123. You are preparing a project management plan have identified a key subject matter
expert whose experience is invaluable to project success. You do not know when she
will be available to support the project. Therefore, you know when she will be available
at a certain date. This shows that assumptions generally involve some risk because they:
a. Are based on lessons learned
b. May not have any historical precedent.
c. Involve factors that limit the project management teams options
d. Involve factors that for planning purpose are considered to be true, real or certain
without proof and demonstration.

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124. You established a change control board that is responsible for approving, differing,
or rejecting proposed changes to your avionics project. When you set up a board, you
established specific procedures to govern its operation. The procedures require all
approved changes to be reflected in the:
a. Performance measurement baseline
b. Change management plan
c. Quality assurance plan
d. Project management plan
125. As you work on your project management plan, you want to review your
organizations informal and formal policies and procedures. One of your team members
gave you a list of four items to review. Which one of the following is not an
organizational process asset whose effects on the project must be considered?
a. Continuous improvement targets.
b. Project management information system
c. Employee performance reviews.
d. Time reporting
126. You are collecting information about your projects work results, such as what costs
have been incurred or committed and which deliverables have been completed and which
remain outstanding. You will use this information in which of the following processes?
a. Project plan execution
b. Integrated change control
c. Performance reporting
d. Scope verification
127. Progressive elaboration is a characteristic of projects that integrate the concepts of
temporary and unique. In project plan development progressive elaboration also is
important in terms of :
a. Assumptions
b. Constraints
c. Project management information system
d. Organizatoin process assets.
128.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Your project office implemented a project management methodology that


emphasizes the importance of integrated change control. It states the change
requests can occur in all the following forms except:
Oral
Legally mandated
Informal
internally initiated

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129. Your organization is characterized by hierarchical organizational structures with
rigid rules and policies and strict supervisor controls. Individual team members are not
expected to engage in problem solving or use creative approaches to plan and execute
work; management does that. Your organization is characterized by which one of the
following theories?
a. Ouchi's theory
b. McGregor's Theory X
c. Maslow's self-esteem level
d. Vroom's Expectancy Theory
130.

You are responsible for building the first project in Bangalore, India. Your
company is hiring a contractor to manage the project and is using a lump-sum
contract. A junior-level cost engineer made at major contribution during proposal
preparation when the contract amount was being determined. This situation shows
that:
a. Professional cost estimating advice always is required
b. Every stakeholder has skills and knowledge that may be used in developing the
project management plan
c. A parametric model should be used in conjunction with expert judgment as the
ideal cost estimating methodology for lump-sum contracts
d. A person does not need to be aware of local conditions to provide accurate
information.

131.

You have been assigned to manage a large enterprise resource-planning (ERP)


project in your organization. You will contract with an outside vendor to supply
the ERP software. You realize that detailed planning; execution, and closing
processes for these types of real-time systems are prerequisites for success. To
support from initiation through closing you should use:
a. A make-or-buy analysis
b. Lessons learned and other historical information from previous projects
c. Benefit-cost-analysis
d. The project management information system

132.

You are implementing a project management methodology for your company.


The methodology requires your company to establish a change control board.
Which one of the following statements best describes a change control board?
a. Recommended for use on all (large and small) projects
b. Used as required to approve or reject change requests
c. Manage by the project manager, who also serves as its secretary
d. Composed of key project team members

133. You prepared an integrated project plan and a project schedule You submitted it
to the steering committee, and it was approved. Key stakeholders accepted the plan. It is
time to distribute it. Both the project plan and schedule should be distributed to:
a. All stakeholders n the performing organization
b All project stakeholders

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c Project team members and the project sponsor
d. People identified in the communications management plan
134.

You need to be both a leader and manager in your project management work. You
realize that leadership without management or management without leadership
probably will produce poor results. Which one of the following key
responsibilities best represents project leadership?
a. Establishing direction, aligning people, and motivating and inspiring others
b. Getting things done through other people
c. Using charismatic power to others
d. Using all types of power, as appropriate, as motivational tools

135.

Although your company has few project management policies and procedures in
place, it made a healthy profit last year. Experience, however, has taught you that
some controls are required, especially for projects that change frequently. You
would like to establish a change control system for your company, but must
convince your colleagues to use it. To be effective, the change control system
must include:
a. Procedures that define how project documents may be changed
b. Specific change requests expected on the project and plans to respond to each one
c. Performance reports that forecast project changes
d. A description of the functional and physical characteristics of an item or system

136.

According to Her berg's Motivator-Hygienic Theory, when achievement,


recognition, responsibility, and advancement or promotion and not present,
employees will:
a. Become alienated with the organization and leave
b. Lack motivation but will not be dissatisfied with their work
c. Lack motivation and become dissatisfied with their work
d. Become dissatisfied only if they do not receive salary increases

137.

You established several change control boards (a technical review board, an


engineering review board, and a configuration control board) for your project.
Team members question the need to have all changes formally reviewed. You
point out to them that some changes can be approved without the involvement of
any board. An example of such a change is one that is:
a. Suggested by the project sponsor
b. The result of an emergency
c. Suggested by the customer
d. Made mandatory by a new regulation

138. As project manager, you realize the importance of status review meetings. But
you also recognize that your team and other key stakeholders are very busy and do not
want to attend. Because you are in the project execution phase, these meetings:
a. Should be held frequently to obtain agreement about goals and methods to achieve
them

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b. Can be reduced in frequency and duration
c. Need to be intensified to tie up loose ends
d. Must be scheduled regularly to document patient reactively
139
a.
b.
c.
d.

Because your project is slated to last 5 years, you believe rolling wave planning is
appropriate, it provides information about the work to be done:
Throughout all project phases
For successful completion of the current project phase
For successful completion of the current and subsequent project phases
In the next project phase

140. Configuration management describes procedures for applying technical and


administrative direction and surveillance. Which one of the following tasks is not
performed in configuration management?
a. Identifying functional and physical characteristics of an item or system
b. Controlling changes to characteristics
.
c. Performing an audit to verify conformance to requirements
d. Allowing automatic approval of changes
141. You are managing a project to introduce a new product to the market place. The
product is expected to have a very long life. In this situation, the concept of being
temporary, which is not the part of the project definition.
a. Does not apply because the project will have a lasting result
b. Does not apply to the product to be created
c. Recognizes that the project team will outlive the actual project
d. Does not apply because the project will not be short in duration
142. You are the project manager for a new product your company is launching. You
realize that for success with this project your project management team must have:
a. Knowledge and skills of application area knowledge, standards, and regulation
about the project.
b. more senior-level staff available to assist junior-level team members on this
initiative.
.
.
c. An automated project management information system.
d. Regular status review meetings
143. You are part of a team that is preparing a project plan for your companys new
wireless VCR product line. The team is reviewing a number of items as it prepares the
plan. Which one of the following is an example of constraint that you should consider?
a. Records of past performance.
b. Financial reports from similar projects.
c. Predefined budget.
d. Lessons learned from previous projects

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144 A number of tools and techniques are helpful in monitoring and controlling
project work. If you want to assess whether the variance from the plan require corrective
action, you should Usea. Configuration management software.
b. A project management information system
c. Project status review meetings.
d. Earned value management
145. An important task of project managers is to identify the relevant goals of each
project. An approach that can help managers set up and achieve those goals is
management by objectives (MBO). MBO specifically address all the following excepta. Establishing unambiguous and realistic objective
b. Periodically evaluating whether project objective have been achieved,
c. Promoting participation, team building and commitment to the project
d. Analyzing and reducing risk and determining how to handle it when it occurs.
146.

a.
b.
c.
d.
147.
a.
b.
c.
d.
148.

You are the project manager for a large project with a core team of eight senior
level experts. The team members like to do tasks when they want to, regardless of
the order in which these tasks appear in a project schedule. You know that this
informal method of task completion will be detrimental, particularly with the
project's schedule constraints, numerous interfaces, and external dependencies.
Therefore, you establish a:
Schedule management plan
Work authorization system
Change control system
Project management information system
Change requests are the output of;
Develop project management plan
Direct and manage project execution
Integrated change control
Configuration management

Most projects require change because they typically represent something unique
or different for the organization. You want to minimize the impact of project
changes and you want to ensure that change is managed when and if it occurs.
This can be done through each of the following ways except:
a. Rejecting new changes
b. Approving changes and incorporating them into revised baseline
c. Continuously managing baseline changes
d. Ensuring that product specification changes are not reflected in changes to
project scope in WBS

149. According to the expectancy theory of motivation:


a. Poor performance is the natural outcome of poor training
b. Managers should not expect too much of workers

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c. Motivation to act is linked to an outcome that is expected to have value
d. Managers should expect that employees who are paid more will work harder
150. You are responsible for a project management-training curriculum that is offered
throughout the organization. In this situation, your intangible deliverables are:
a. Employees who can apply the training effectively
b. Training materials for each course
c. Certificates of completion for everyone who completes the program
d. The training curriculum as advertised in your catalog
151.

You are developing a project planning methodology for your company, and you
want to include in both "hard" and "soft" tools. Which one of the following is an
example of a "soft" tool?
a. Project management software
b. A continuous improvement target
c. A kickoff meeting
d. Cost accounting codes

152.

You have established a system for measuring project performance regularly to


identify variances from the project plan. Some will be significant, and others will
not. A variance is considered to be significant if it:
a. Is considered a project risk
b. Becomes a lesson learned as a result of the corrective action selected
c. Jeopardizes project objectives
d. Requires corrective action

153.

You manage a project whose team members have diverse skills and expertise.
You want to encourage your staff to pool its knowledge about project issues to
make the best decisions possible. The most appropriate management style to use
is:
a. Laissez-faire .
b. Democratic
c. Autocratic
d Directive

154. Project management process describe, organize, and complete project work.
Product-oriented management processes specify and create the projects
product. Therefore, a project management process and a product-oriented
management process:
a. Overlap and interact throughout the project life cycle
b. Are defined by the project life cycle
c. Are concerned with describing and organizing project work
d. Are similar for each application area
155. Your organization issued guidelines for information items to be included in the
project management plan. One item is to describe your project management
approach or strategy. To do this, you should summarize the:

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a.
b.
c.
d.
156.

157.

Project charter
Scope statement
Performance measurement baseline for schedule and cost.
Individual management plans.

You are working on a telecommunications project. Work is proceeding on the


project according to the schedule. You have just learnt that a new regulatory
requirement will cause a change in one of the projects performance
specifications. To ensure that this change is incorporated into the project plan you
shoulda. Call a meeting of the change control board.
b. Change the WBS; project schedule, and project plan to reflect the new
requirement .
c. Prepare a change request.
d. Immediately inform all effected stakeholders of the new approach to take on
the project.
Abraham Maslow developed a model to explain the motivational process in
relation to the way human needs change throughout an individuals
developmental life cycle. This model has five levels. Responsibility, a sense of
accomplishment, and a sense of
competence are examples of needs at which
level?
a. Self-actualization
b. Social
c. Esteem
d Physiological

158.

You are the new head of the project office. There have been many arguments
among project mangers regarding the details to be included in any WBS. You
prepare a guideline that states that the WBSa. should be three levels to avoid confusing the client.
b. Should be included as part of the scope management plan regardless of its
detail.
c. Should be developed, but only to the second level for small projects.
d. Should be developed to the level at which control will be exercised.

159. Approved corrective actions is an input of:


a. Direct and manage project execution
b Develop project management plan
c. Monitor and control project work
d. Integrated change control
160.
a.
b.
c.

Work performance information includes all the following except:


Cost authorization and incurred
Extent to which quality standards are being met
Deliverables that have been completed

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d. EAC
161.

Configuration status accounting is:


a. Providing the basis from which the configuration of products is defined and
verified
b. Establishing that the performance and financial requirements defined in the
configuration documentation have been met
c. Capturing, storing, and accessing configuration information needed to manage
products and product information effectively
d. Validating defect repair
PROJECT SCOPE MANAGEMENT

162.
a.
b.
c.

All of the following are true about the scope statement EXCEPT:
It is an output of scope verification.
It describes the major projects deliverables.
It provide a common understanding of the project scope among all project
stakeholders
d. It provides a baseline for evaluating whether requests for changes or additional
work are contained within or outside projects boundaries.
163.
a.
b.
c.
d.

A scope change is defined as a


Change in technical specifications as described in the WBS,
Change in the project authorization
Change in project personnel
Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined by the approved WBS

164. Which of the to following is not true of a scope management plan?


a. Describes how to create the WBS from the project scope statement.
b. Establishes how the WBS will be maintained and approved
c. Describes how completed project deliverables will be verified and accepted
d. Is separated from the project plan
165. A project scope change control system including all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Documentation
b. Tracking system
c. Approval levels
d. Evaluation process"
166.

Benefit measurement methods for project selection include all the following
EXCEPT"
a. Comparative approaches
b. Linear programming method
c. Scoring model
d. Economic models

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167.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Poor WBS may cause all the following EXCEPT:


Higher project cost
Rework
Material failure
Schedule delay'

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following is not an output of scope control?


WBS update
Recommended connective actions
Requested changes
Performance reports

168.

169.

WBS is necessary for all of the following EXCEPT:


a. Evaluating the project at its completion
b. Improving the accuracy of cost, duration, and resource estimates
c. Defining a scope baseline
d. Facilitating clear responsibility assignments

170.

Scope verification:
a. Is the process of obtaining stakeholders formal acceptance of the completed
project scope and associated deliverables
b. Refers to-the final project report describing the project at completion
c. Is not necessary if the project completes on time and on budget
d. Occurs only when revisions or change orders are made to the project

171.

The project charter is a document that is used for all of the following purposes
EXCEPT:
a. To formally authorize the existence of the project
b. To refer to the business need
c. To request bids for different phases of a project
d. To provide the project manager an authority to apply organizational resources to
project activities

172.

Initiation is the process which formally does not:


a. Authorizes a new project or reaffirms that an existing project should continue
into next phase of a multiphase project
b. Describes authority level of the assigned project manager
c. Describes the need and justification for a project
d. Approves the market analysis

173.

Which of the following statements is true of the WBS?


a. The WBS is deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of work to be
executed by the project team to create project deliverables
b. The WBS is an unstructured list of activities in chart form
c. The WBS is the same as the Organizational Breakdown Structure

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d. The WBS refers to the Bill of Material (BOM)
174.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The following is an example of a constraint:


A predefined budget
The threat of a strike by a subcontractor
Relationship with the seller
The method used to measure project performance

175.

An input to create WBS process is:


The type of contract
Project scope statement
Work breakdown structure templates
Decomposition

a.
b.
c.
d.
176.

What is the WBS typically used for?


a. Organizing and defining the total scope of the project
b. To identify the logical person to be project sponsor
c. To define the level or reporting the seller provides the buyer
d. As a record of when work elements are assigned to individuals

177.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The following is true about WBS:


The WBS is another term for the Gantt chart
Work not in the WBS is outside the scope of the project
Work not in the WBS is usually defined in the scope statement of the project
The WBS shows only the critical path activities

178. A Work Breakdown Structure numbering system allows project staff to:
a. Systematically estimate costs of work breakdown structure elements
b. Provide project justifications
c. Identify the level at which individual elements are found
d. Use it in project management software
179. Which of the following is a chief characteristic of the Delphi technique?
a. Extrapolation from historical records
b. To reach consensus of experts on subject matter
c. Analytical hierarchy process to manage
d. Bottom-up approach to estimate
180.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The work breakdown structure can BEST be thought of an effective aid for __
communications
Team
Project manager
Customer
'
Stakeholder

181. Which of the following is a KEY attribute of scope verification

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a.
b.
c.
d.

Improved cost estimates


Customer acceptance of project efforts
Improved schedule estimates
An improved project management information system

182. During project execution, a team member comes to the project manager because he
is not sure of what he needs to accomplish on the project. Which of the following
documents contain descriptions of work packages?
a. Work Breakdown Structure dictionary
b. Project scope statement
c. Budget estimates
d. Cost estimates
183.During what phase of the life cycle is the project scope statement created?
a. Initiation process group
b. Planning process group
c. Execution process group
d. Controlling process group
184. During the initiation process, which of the following is included in a project
charter?
a. Identification of activities
b. Activity duration estimates
c. Detailed resource estimates
d. The business need of the project
185. As the project becomes more complex, the level of uncertainty in the scope:
a. Remains the same
b. Decreases
c. Decreases then increases
d. Increases
186. A project plan should be realistic in order to be used t0 manage the project Which
of the following is the BEST method to achieve a realistic project pian7
a. Senior manager creates the project plan based on input from the project manager
b. Functional manager created the project plan based on input from the project
manager
c. Project manager creates the project plan based on input from senior
management
d. Project manager creates the project plan based on the input from the team
187.
For which of the following can the work breakdown structure be used?
a. Communication with customer
b. Showing calendar dates for each task
c. Showing the functional managers for each team member
d. Showing the business need for the project

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188.

During a project team meeting, a team member suggests an enhancement to the


scope of work that is beyond the scope of the project charter. The Project
manager points out that team needs to concentrate on completing all the work
required. This is an example of:
a. Change management process
b. Scope management
c. Quality analysis
d. Scope decomposition

189.
a.
b.
c.
d.

When should scope verification be done?


At the end of the project
At the beginning of the project
At the end of each phase of the project
During planning

190.

Management by objectives works only if:


a. it is supported by management
b. The rules are written down
c. The project does not impact the objectives
d. The project includes the objectives in the project charter

191. the project is mostly complete. However the customer wants a major change to the
scope of work. The project manager should:
a. Meet with the project team to determine if this change be made
b. Ask the customer for the description of the change
c. Explain that the change cannot be made at this point in the process
d. Inform management
192. A project manger new to the project management has asked you why they should
Bother using a work breakdown structure on their project. The BEST response
would be :
a. Tell them it will prevent work from slipping through the cracks
b. Tel! them that one is not needed
c. Tell them it is required if the project involves contracts
d. Tel! them it is only way to identify risks
193.
The process of creating a work breakdown structure results in
a. A project schedule
b. Team buy-in
c. A project completion date
d. A list of risks

194.
To manage a project effectively, work should be broken down into small pieces.
Which of the following does NOT describes how far to decompose the work?

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a.
b.
c.
d.

Until it has a meaningful conclusion


Until it can be logically subdivided further
Until it can be done by one person
Until it can be realistically estimated

195.

A project manager spends some time determining his company's objectives and
how the project fits into them. This is an example of:
a. Responsibility charts
b. Management by objectives
c. The project's future
d. The work breakdown structure
.
|196.
A project manager is trying to convince management to use project management
and has decided to start with charter. Why would the charter help the project manager?
a. It describes the details of what needs to be done
b. It lists the names of all team members
c. It describes the authority level of the project manager
d. It describes the project's history
|197. A project manager may use ___ to make sure the team clearly knows what work
is included in each of their tasks
a. A project scope of work
b. A project charter
c. A WBS dictionary
d. A risk response plan
198.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Linear programming is an example of what type of project selection criteria?


Constrained optimization
Comparative approach
Benefit measurement
Impact analysis

199.

A project manager has just been assigned to a new project and has been given
the completed project scope statement. The FIRST thing the project manager
must do is:
Create a project plan using the WBS
Confirm that all the stakeholders have had input to the scope of work
Form a team to create the procurement plan
Create a network diagram

a.
b.
c.
d.
200.

You have created the project charter, but could not get it approved. Your boss
has asked you that the begin project immediately. Which of the following is the
BEST thing to do?
a. Set up an integrated change control process
b. Show your boss the impact of proceeding without approval
c. Focus on completing projects that have a sighed charter

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d. Start work on only the critical path
201

The engineering department has uncovered a problem with the cost accounting
system and has asked the systems department to analyze what is wrong and fix the
problem. You are a project manager working with the cost accounting programs
on another project. Management has issued a change request to the change control
board to add the new work to your project.
Your existing project has a CPI of 1.2 and a SPI of 1.3 so you have some room to
and work without delaying your existing project or going over budget. However,
you cannot see how the new work fits within the project charter for your existing
project After some analysis, you determine that the new work and existing do not
overlap and can be done concurrently.
They also require different skill sets. Which of the following is the BEST thing to
do?
a. Create the high-level project scope and develop the product description
b. Re-estimate the project schedule with input from the engineering department
c. Perform scope verification on the new work with the help of the stakeholders
d. Identify specific changes to the existing work

202.

A new project manager is about to begin creating a project scope statement of


work. One stakeholder wants to add many items to the scope of work. Another
stakeholder only wants to describe the functional requirements. The project is
important for the project manager's company, but a seller will do the work. Which
of the following would you advise the project manager to do?
a. The scope of work should be general to allow the seller to make its own decisions
b. The scope of work should be general to allow clarification later
c. The scope of work should be detailed to allow clarification
d. The scope of work should be detailed as necessary for the type of the project

203.

The construction phase of project is near completion. The next phase is testing
and implementation. The project is two weeks ahead of schedule. What should the
project manager be MOST concerned with before moving on to the final phase?
a. Scope verification
b. Quality control
c. Performance reports
d. Cost control

204.
A customer has given you a scope of work for a complex, eight-month project
that has a few unknowns. The customer has asked you to just "get it done" and only
wants to see you at the end of eight months when you deliver the finished project. Under
these circumstances, which of the following is the BEST thing to do?
a. Complete the project as requested, but verify its scope with customer
occasionally throughout
b. Complete the project within eight months without contacting the customer during
this time
c. Ask management to check in with the customer occasionally

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d. Complete the project, but document that the customer did not want contact
205.
During project execution, a project team delivers a project deliverable to the
customer. However, the customer neither acknowledges the completed deliverable nor
replies to the project manager's request for verification. What is the BEST thing to do
a. Continue with the project
b. Document the situation
c. Contact management and obtain scope verification
d. Call a meeting of the team
206. You are managing a six-month project and have held bi-weekly meetings with your
project stakeholders. After five-and-a-half months of work, the project is on schedule and
budget; but the stakeholders are not satisfied with the deliverables This situation will
delay the project completion by one month. The MOST important process that could
have prevented this situation is
a. Risk monitoring and control process
b. Schedule control process
c. Scope defining process
d. Scope change control process
207. You are working on a product development project under contract to an automotive
company Initially, the product was defined as "a state-of-the-art personal transportation
vehicle/ Later it was defined as "a state-of-the-art personal transportation vehicle that will
use gasoline and natural gas." This shows the progressive elaboration of product
characteristics, which must be coordinated carefully with thea. Scope defining
b. Project stakeholders
c. Scope change control system
d. Customer's strategic plan
208. Last week you were on holiday. Today you are examining multiple scope change
requests on a project you were asked to take over because the previous project? manager
decided to resign. To assess the degree to which the project scope will change you need
to compare the requests to which project document?
a. Scope statement
b. WBS
c. Project plan
d. Scope management plan
209. Your company's project review committee (PRC) meets quarterly to review any
Project with a budget exceeding $2 million. You recently were assigned one of these
large projects. The PRC asked you to present the projects objective, work content and
deliverables at its next meeting. You need to prepare which one of the following
documents.
a. Project charter
b. Product description

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c. Project scope statement
d. WBS
210. Your company has more project opportunities to pursue than resources available to
complete them. You are leading a team to establish a project selection and prioritization
method. The team is considering many different management concerns, including
financial return, market share, and public perception. The most important criterion for
building a project selection model is
a. Capability
b. Realism
c. Ease of use
d. Cost
211.
Thinking back to the lessons your company learned from its experiences with its
legacy information systems during the Y2K dilemma, you finally convinced management
to consider systems maintenance from beginning of the project. However, maintenance
shoulda. Always be included as an activity to be performed during the closeout phase.
b. Have a separate phase in the life cycle for information systems projects because
60% to 70% of computer systems' life cycle costs generally are devoted to
maintenance.
c. Be viewed as a new project life cycle
d. Be viewed as a separate project.
212.

You are beginning a new project staffed with a virtual team that is located in five
countries. Based on experience, you recognize that virtual teams will be more
responsive to their functional managers than to you, their project manager. To
help avoid conflict in wok priorities among your team, you ask the project
sponsor to prepare aa. Memo to team members informing them that they work for you now.
b. Project charter
,
c. Memo to the functional managers informing them that you have authority to
direct their employees.
d. Human resource management plan.

213.
A project is an ideal environment in which to use the management-by-objectives
technique becausea. Project management involves setting organizational objectives.
b. Projects generally are handled through a matrix management environment.
c. Project managers' responsibilities are defined in terms of corporate objectives.
d. All projects should be strongly oriented towards goals and objectives.
214.
Your company is embarking on a project to completely eliminate defects in its
projects. You are the senior management personal for this project, and you have just
finished the concept phase. The deliverable for this phase is thea. Project plan

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b. Statement of work
c. Project charter
d. Resource spreadsheet
215.
a.
b.
c.
d.
216.

All the following are examples of constrained optimization methods exceptAnalytical hierarchy process
Logical framework analysis
Economic model
Multi objective programming

Rather than use a WBS, your team developed a bill of materials to define the
project's work components. A customer review of this document uncovered that a
scope change was needed, and a change request was subsequently written. This is
an example of a change request that was the result ofa. An external event
b. An. error or omission in defining the scope of the product.
c. A value-adding change.
d. An error or omission in defining the scope of the project.

217- . Your company uses multiple variables. You also have established a way to
determine value under uncertainty. This is known as thea. Choice of alternative methods to perform the project
b. Constrained optimization method
c. Logical framework analysis.
d. Analytical hierarchy process.
218. The project is now under way, and you recognize that, given the nature of project
work, scope change is inevitable you also are aware of the danger of scope creep, having
suffered the consequences of its recently. To avoid a similar experience, you meet with
your team and decide to establish a project scope change control system. This isa. A collection of formal, documented procedures to define the steps by which
official project documents may be change.
b. A documented process used to apply technical and administrative direction and
surveillance to identify and document functional and physical characteristics of items,
record and report damage, control change, and audit the items and system to verify
conformance to requirements.
c. A set of procedures by which project scope may be changed, including the
documentation, tracking systems, and approval levels necessary for authorizing change.
d. Mandatory for use on projects so that the scope management plans cannot be
changed without prior review and sign-off.
219. You have been asked to participate in your companys project selection process.
You recommend using a discounted cash-flow approach. This approach is based in part
on the economic theory that a Rupee today generally is worth than a Rupee a year from
now. Using this approach, the project is acceptable if the:

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a. Sum of the net present value (NPV) of all estimated cash flow during the life
of the project equals the profit
b. Net present value of the inflow is greater than the NPV of the outflow by the
specified amount or percentage.
c. Gross present value of all future expected cash flow divided by the initial cash
investment is greater than one.
d. Payback period occurs by the second year of the project.
220. You want to structure your project so that each project team member has discrete
work-package to perform. The work package is a:
a. Deliverable at the lowest level of the WBS
b. Task with a unique identifier
c. Required level of reporting
d. Task that can be assigned to more than organizational unit
221. You are project manage for a systems integration effort. Your firm needs to
procure the hardware components from external sources. You subcontracts administrator
has told you to prepare a product description, which in this case is called a:
a. Preliminary project statement of work
b. Contract scope statement
c. Project charter
d. Contract

222.

Although your company's project life cycle does not mandate when or how
many project phases should be conducted, you believe to initiate creating of
charter at the conclusion of each project phase. The objective of such a review is
to:
a. Determine how much resources are required to complete the project according to
the project baseline
b. Adjust the schedule and cost baseline based on past performance
c. Obtain customer acceptance of project deliverables
d. Determine whether the project should be authorized to the next phase

223. Your customer signed off on the requirements definition document and project
scope statement of your video game project last month. Today she requested for a project
scope change. She would like to make it an interactive game that can be played on a
television and on a computer. This represents a scope change that, at a minimum:
a. Modifies the project's agreed-upon scope as defined by the WBS
b. Results in a change to al project baselines
c. Requires adjustments ,to cost, time, quality, and other objectives
d. Results in a lessons learned
224.

Ideally, a project manager should be selected and assigned at which point in the
project life cycle?
a. During the project initiation process

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b. During the project planning process
c. At the end of the concept phase of the project life cycle
d. Prior to the beginning of the development phase of the project life cycle
225.

Because of a new government regulation, you had to change the scope of your
telecommunication project. Several changes were made to the project's objectives.
You have updated the project's technical and planning documents as needed Your
next step should be to:
a. Notify stakeholders as appropriate
b. Revise the company's knowledge management system
c. Obtain formal acceptance from your sponsor and customer
d. Prepare a performance report

226.

During the concept phase of your project, management indicated that it wants the
expected benefit of each new project to outweigh its development costs. This is an
example of:
a. An assumption
b. A constraint
c. Use the constrained-optimization method of the project selection
d. A technical requirement

227.
You have been appointed project manager for a new project in your organization
and must prepare a project plan. To help you provide the framework for this project you
decide to prepare a WBS to show the magnitude and complexity of the work involved.
No WBS templates are available to help you. To prepare WBS, your first step shouid be
to
a. Determine the cost and duration estimates for each project deliverable
b. Identify the major project deliverables
c. Identify the components of each project deliverable
d. Determine the key tasks to be performed
228. You are a Personnel management specialist for the human resources department
You recently were assigned to a new project team. The team is working on a project to
establish a team-based reward and recognition system. The other team members also
work in the human resources department. The project charter should be issued by
a. The project manager
b. The client
c. The manager external to the project
d. A member of the program management office (PMO) who has jurisdiction over
human resources
229. Your company, Health Nut, Inc is a leading marketer of dietary supplements that
can be produced quickly and without regulatory approval. Management wants to explore
new markets and new products to boost revenue and profits. You are leading a team to
identify potent products. Because of your background and -interest in information

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technology, you recommended developing wireless communication products. But when
you submitted the idea of review, executive management informed you that this product
would not fit with organizations core competencies. You need to go back to the drawing
board and recommend other products using management's guideline as
a. As assumption
b. A risk
c. A specification
d. A technical requirement
230. The state government awarded your firm a contract to renovate an elementary
School. One contractual term, State preference, requires you to hire Native laborers and
subcontractor from the reservation. This is an example of the following constraints:
a. Social
b. Economical
c. Environmental
d. Legal
231.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Historical information is used:


To compare current performance with prospective lessons learned
To prepare the stakeholder management plan
To evaluate the skills and competencies of the prospective team members
As an input to project initiation process

232

Your organization's research department has isolated an advanced microbe


Management asked you to determine whether a project to commercialize the
agent should be initiated. Accordingly, you need to prepare a :
a. Feasibility study
b. Return on investment report
c. Make-or-buy analysis
d. Project charter
233. On an environmental remediation project, an example of a value-adding change is a
Change that:
a. Is caused by a new or revised government regulation, necessitating that the
design be resubmitted
b. Takes advantage of cost-reducing technology that was not available when the
scope originally was defined
c. Uses a bill of materials to define the scope of the project
d. Corrects omissions of a required feature in the design of a system
234.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The greatest degree of uncertainty is encountered during which phase of the


project life cycle?
Concept
Planning '
Implementation
Closeout

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235.
Scope verification:
a. Improves cost and schedule accuracy, particularly on projects using innovative
techniques or technology
b. Is the last activity performed on a project before handoff to the customer
c. Documents the characteristics of the product or service that the project was
undertaken to create
d. Differs from quality control in that scope verification is concerned with the
acceptance - not the correctness - of the deliverables.
236.

Specifying the project's technical requirements is an important step because such


requirements:
a. Describe the characteristics of the deliverable in ordinary language
b. Are used by the project staff to target efforts
c. Are used to both the project staff and the customers
d. Are designed to ensure that customers know what they are getting from the
project.

237. You have been placed in charge of a group that is selecting one of three possible
projects. The project is to develop an antidote to prickle heat. As you gather in the
conference room, many of the team members already have decided which project
selection technique to use. Some prefer IRR, and others for BCR. In deciding which
method to use, your first step should be:
a. Compare and contrast selection techniques, and identify the advantages and
disadvantages of each
b. Identify the technique used often in the company and determine if it is
appropriate for this project
c. Select the method that most team members are knowledgeable of
d. Determine the philosophy and whishes of the management
238.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Written change orders should be required on:


All projects, large and small
Only large projects
Projects with a formal configuration management systems in place
Projects for which the cost of a change control can be justified

239.
Your team has been working on a contract for 3 years. Yesterday you were
informed that your client depleted its resources and will terminate the contract for
convenience Your first action is to:
a. Submit the work products to date to your client's representative
b. Document lessons learned
c- Establish and document the level and extent of completion
d. Shut down the project office and reassign ail personnel
240.

Of the following, which one is not an input in scope control?


a. WBS

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b. Performance reports
c. Project schedule
d. Project scope management plan
241. The project management plan is important in change control because it:
a. Provides the baseline against which changes are managed
b. Provides information on project performance
c. Alerts the project team to issues that may cause problems in the future
d. Is expected to change throughout the period.
242.

You are the project manager for a sub-contractor on a major contract. The prime
contractor has asked that you manage your work in a detailed manner. Your first
step is to :
a. Follow the WBS that the prime contractor developed for the project and use the
work-pacakges you identified during the proposal
b. Develop a subproject WBS for the contract scope of work that is your
companys responsibility.
c. Establish a similar coding structure to the primes to facilitate use of a common
project management information system
d. Develop a WBS dictionary to show specific staff assignment
243. Your technical team leader has prepared a request for a value-adding change on
your project that will result in expanding the project scope. To help assess the magnitude
of earn value analyses be used. This approach represents a:
a. Performance measurement technique
b. Configuration management process
c. Cost accounting procedure
d. Scope reporting mechanism
244. You are working in a pharmaceutical industry. Your project has been defined as
clinical trails for a new drug that improves memory. As the project proceeds, the product
is described mere explicitly as four Phase-1 trials, five Phase-2 trials, and six Phase-3
trials. This situation proceeds an example of
a. Quality function deployment
b. Close alignment of project activities with WBS
c. Value analysis
d. Progressive elaboration of the project description
245. Project success depends on number of interrelated factors, including time, cost and
scope control. However , the success of any project depends primarily on:
a. Customer acceptance
b. Customer satisfaction
c. Customer compromise in defining its needs
d. Exceeding customer requirements through gold-plating
246. You are establishing a PMO that will have a project management information
system. This system will be an on-line repository of all program data. You will collect

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descriptions of ail work components for each of the project under the PMO jurisdiction.
This information will form an integral part of the
a Chart of accounts
b. WBS dictionary
c. WBS structure template
d. Earned Value Management reports

247.
Your company is going to introduce a new service called 'Phone Home'. This
service will allow you to speak the name of the person you want to call into your cellular
phone. To call home, you simply speak the word home into the phone, and it will dial that
number for you. Your company is taking advantage of the progress that been made
recently with recognition software. Initial projections show that market demand is very
high for this product. This project came about as a result of which of the following?
a.
Marketing demand
b.
Customer's request
c.
Business need
d.
Technological advance
248.
You are a project manager for the IT division of a local satellite TV broadcasting
company. This spring, the CEO for your company gave you the project to convert and
upgrade all PCs in the department to the latest release of a specific desktop application.
Prior to this conversion, all manner of desktop software existed on machines throughout
the company and had caused increasing problems with sharing files and information
across the company. A lot of unproductive hours were spent typing information into
several formats. This project came about as a result of which of the following?
a. Technological advance
b. Business need
c. Customer request
d. Legal requirement
249.
You work a large manufacturing plant. You're working on a new project for an
overseas product release. This is the company's first experience in the overseas market,
and they think to make a big splash with the introduction of this product. The project
entails producing your product in a concentrated formula and packaging into smaller
containers that the US product uses. A new machine is needed in order to mix the first set
of ingredients in the concentrated formula. Which of the following is true?
a. The new machine, the concentrated formula, and the smaller package are each
project constraints
b. The new machine, the concentrated formula, and the smaller package description
must be incorporated into the product description document
c. The new machine, the concentrated formula, and the smaller package are each
project assumptions
d. The new machine, the concentrated formula, and the smaller package are each
considered deliverables

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250.
You work a large manufacturing plant. You're working on a new project for aft
overseas product release. This is the company's first experience in the overseas market,
and they think to make a big splash with the introduction of this product. The project
entails producing your product in a concentrated formula and packaging into smaller
containers that the US product uses. A new machine is needed in order to mix the first set
of ingredients in the concentrated formula. Which of the following actions should the
project manager take?
a. The project manager should document the project's goals and known deliverables
in a high-level overview document and recommend the project proceed
b. The project manager should document the project's goals and known deliverables
in a high-level overview document & assume the project is a go
c. The project manager should document the project's goals and known deliverables
in a high-level overview document and recommend a feasibility study be performed
d. The project manager should document the project's goals and known deliverables
in a high-level overview document and deliver it to the stakeholders
251

The purpose of the initiation process is to:


a Formally recognize the existence of the project or phase
b Formally recognize the need that brought about the project be it marketing
demand, customer requests, business need, technological advances, or legal requirements
c. Formally recognize the stakeholders of the project and identify them in the
project charter
.
d. Formally recognizes the project sponsor and documents the project goals
252
Your non-profit organization is preparing to host its annual 5K run/walk in your
City. You worked on a similar project for the organization two years ago when it cohosted the 10K run through the village. Which of the initiating process inputs might be
helpful to you on your new project.
a. The strategic plan, because you'll want to make sure the project reflects the
overate strategic direction of the organization
b Historical information on the 10K run project in a similar City like conditions.
You might be able to gather project information since this new project is
similar in nature
c. The product description, which would describe all the details of the run/walk
program
d. Historical information from the election campaign drive project.
253
Which of the following is true regarding product description?
a. The product description is an output 6f the initiating process. It describes the
characteristics of the product or service
b The product description is an output of the initiating process. It describes the
characteristics of the product or service and contains less detail in the early phases of
the project
c The product description is an input of the initiating process. It describes the
characteristics of the product or service and contains a lot of detail in the early

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phases of the project
d. The product description is an input of the initiating process. It describes the
characteristics of the product or service
254.
Deliverables can be described as:
a The purpose for undertaking the project
b. The verifiable results of the products or services that must be produced to consider
the project complete
c. The specifications regarding the goals of the project that must be produced to
consider the project complete
d. The measurable outcomes of the project goals
255
You are a project manager working on a new software product your company
plane to market to business. The project sponsor told you that the project must be
completed by Sept-1 The company plans to demo the new software at a trade show in
late Sept and therefore needs the project completed in time for the trade show. However,
the sponsor has also told you that the budget is fixed at Rs. 8,50,000/- and cannot be
increased by even Rs.10/- due to overall budget cut this year. You must complete the
project within the given time frame and budget. Which of the following is the primary
constraint for the project?
a. Budget
b. Quality
c: Time
d. Schedule
256.

a.
b.
c.
d.

You being a software engineer have recruited as a project manager by a BBC


documentary film company. In light of recent national tragedies elsewhere in the
world the company president wants to get a new documentary on the rescue
efforts of the heroic firefighters to air as soon as possible. She's looking to you to
make this document the best thats ever produced in the history of this company.
She guarantees you free rein to use whatever resources you need to get this
project done quickly. However, the best photographer in the company is currently
working on another assignment Which of the following is true?
The primary constraint is time because the president wants the film done quickly
as she wants to go to air as soon as possible
Resources are the primary constraint.
The schedule is the primary constraint
The primary constraint is quality

257.
What limits the options of the project team?
a. Technology
b. Constraints
c. Deliverables
d. Assumptions
258.

Your project depends on the key deliverables from a vendor you've used several

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times before with great success. You're counting on the delivery to arrive on June-1 This
an example of:
a. Constraint
b. Objective
c. Assumption
d. Goal
259.

Christmas is approaching fast. Your market research shows that the little yellow
pink candies are the best-selling candy, outselling other types of candies. This
prompts the company to introduce a new version of marshmaliow candies this
season Which of the following is true?
a. The product came about due to customer's request, and the primary constraint
is time
b. The product came about due to market demand, and the primary constraint is
time
c. The product came about due to market demand, and the primary constraint is
quality
d. The product came about due to customer's request, and the primary constraint
is quality
260.
Your company provides answering services for several major catalog retailers
The number of calls coming into the service per month has continued to increase over the
past 18 months. The phone system is approaching the maximum load limits and the needs
to be upgraded. You' ve been assigned to head the upgrade project. Based on the
company's experience with the vendor who worked on the last phone upgrade project,
you're confident theyll be able to assist you with this project as we!!. Which of the
following is true?
a. You ye made assumption about vendor availability and expertise. The project
came about due to a business need
b. Vendor availability and expertise are constraints. The project came about due
to business need
c. You've made an assumption about vendor availability and expertise. The
project came about due to a marketing demand
d. Vendor availability and expertise are constraints. The project came about
due to a marketing demand
261

You are the project manager for a product development company. Your company
is considering opening a new setup in location-A or location-B of your country.
You have derived the following information
i. Location-A: Payback period is 18 months, & NPV = (250)
ii. Location-B: Payback period is 24 months, & NPV is 300
Which project you would recommend to your management?
a. Location-A because PB Period is less than location-B
b. Location-B because NPV is a positive number
c Location-A because NPV is negative
d. Location-B because NPV is greater than Location-A

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262 You are the project manager for a product development company. Your company
is considering opening a new setup in location-A or location-B of your country.
You have derived the following information:
i Location-A: Payback period is 27 months, & IRR = 3%
ii. Location-B:, Payback period is 25 months, & !RR = 32%
Which project you would recommend to your management?
a. Location-B because PB Period is less than location-A
b. Location-A because IRR is highest
c Location-B because IRR is lowest
d. Location-A because PB period is more than Location-A
263. Which of the following is true regarding NPV?
a. NPV assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital
b. NPV decisions should be made based on the highest value for all the selections
c. NPV assumes reinvestment on the prevailing rate
d. NPV assumes reinvestment at the NPV rate
264 You are the project manager for a company XYZ. Since you don't sleep much, you
get a lot of project work done. You're considering a project that costs Rs. 5,75,000/- and
expected inflows are Rs. 25.000/- per quarter for the first 2-years, and then Rs. 75,000
per quarter thereafter. What is the payback period?
a. 40 months
b. 38 months
c. 39 months
d. 41 months
265. Which of the following is true regarding IRR?
a IRR assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital
b. IRR is the discount rate when NPV is greater than zero
c. IRR is a constrained optimization method
d. IRR is a discount rate when NPV is equal to zero
266. Mathematical models using linear, dynamic, integer, or algorithm models are
considered:
a. Project selection criteria
b. A form of expert judgment
c. Proper selection methods
d. A form of historical information
267. You are the newly appointed project manager for a pharmaceutical company ABC.
Your company has asked you to head up a project to research a new children's
medication. You've identified the lab equipment you'll need, the software needed
to perform analysis and measurements, and the skill level and types of the
technicians and researches for this project
Which of the following is true?
a. The project manager and resources have been identified as part of the outputs of the
Initiation process, and this information can be found in the project charter

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b. The project manager and resources have been identified as part of the input of the
project initiation phase. Further information is needed to produce the project
charter, which will include the resources and project manager
c. The project manager and resources have been identified as part of the project
selection process. The selection committee requires resource information to make
a final decision
d. The project manager and resources have been identified as a result of a tool and
technique in the Initiation process
268. Your selection committee meets on a semiannual basis. They've determined that
projects must meet or exceed a specific profit limit in order to be accepted and
prioritized on the project list. Which of the following is true?
a. The selection committee has defined project selection criteria, which is a tool
and technique of Initiation
b. The selection committee has defined project selection methods, which is a
tool and technique of Initiation
c. The selection committee has defined project selection methods, which are an
input to Initiation
d. The selection committee has defined project selection criteria, which is an
input to Initiation
269. Anu is an administrative assistant with another department. Her manager has
agreed to loan agreed to loan Anu's services to you on part-time basis during your
current project. Anu is putting together the cost projections you've gathered so far.
You want to include these costs in project charter. Anu is formatting this
information for you into spreadsheet package and is printing copies. Which of the
following is true?
a. All of the costs, including Anu's time, are charged to the project
b. All of the costs Anu is typing into spreadsheet are project costs. Anu's time is
not directly related to the project and should not be included
c. The project costs, including Anu's time, should be included in the project
charter
d. The project costs, excluding Anu's time, should be considered as project
constraints
270. Your project selection committee used a weighted scoring model and found that
Project-A, with a score 54, should be chosen over the other competing projects.
Which of the following is true?
a. Weighted scoring models are beneficial measurement method, which is a
tool and technique in the initiation process
b. Weighted scoring models are a constrained optimization method, which is an
output of the initiation process
c. Weighted scoring models are a constrained optimization method, which is a
tool and technique in the initiation process
d. Weighted scoring models are beneficial measurement method, which is an
output of the initiation process

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271

a.
b.
c.
d.

Your selection committee is debating between two projects. Project-A has a


payback period of 18 months. Project-B has a cost of Rs. 1,25,000 with expected
cash inflows of Rs 50 000 the first year and 25,000 per quarter after that. Which
project would you recommend?
Either Project-A or Project-B because the payback periods are equal!
Project-A because Project's B payback period is 21 months
Project-A because Project's B payback period is 24 months
Project-A because Project's B payback period is 20 months

267. You are the newly appointed project manager for a pharmaceutical company ABC.
Your company has asked you to head up a project to research a new children's
medication. You've identified the lab equipment you'll need, the software needed
to perform analysis and measurements, and the skill level and types of the
technicians and researches for this project Which of the following is true?
a. The project manager and resources have been identified as part of the outputs
of the Initiation process, and this information can be found in the project
charter
b. The project manager and resources have been identified as part of the input of
the project initiation phase. Further information is needed to produce the
project charter, which will include the resources and project manager
c. The project manager and resources have been identified as part of the project
selection process. The selection committee requires resource information to
make a final decision
d. The project manager and resources have been identified as a result of a tool
and technique in the Initiation process
268. Your selection committee meets on a semiannual basis. They've determined that
projects must meet or exceed a specific profit limit in order to be accepted and prioritized
on the project list. Which of the following is true?
a. The selection committee has defined project selection criteria, which is a tool
and technique of Initiation
b. The selection committee has defined project selection methods, which is a
tool and technique of Initiation
c. The selection committee has defined project selection methods, which are an
input to Initiation
d. The selection committee has defined project selection criteria, which is an
input to Initiation
269. Anu is an administrative assistant with another department. Her manager has
agreed to loan agreed to loan Anu's services to you on part-time basis during your
current project. Anu is putting together the cost projections you've gathered so far.
You want to include these costs in project charter. Anu is formatting this
information for you into spreadsheet package and is printing copies. Which of the
following is true?
a. All of the costs, including Anu's time, are charged to the project
b. All of the costs Anu is typing into spreadsheet are project costs. Anu's time is

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not directly related to the project and should not be included
c. The project costs, including Anu's time, should be included in the project
charter
d. The project costs, excluding Anu's time, should be considered as project
constraints
270. Your project selection committee used a weighted scoring model and found that
Project-A, with a score 54, should be chosen over the other competing projects.
Which of the following is true?
a. Weighted scoring models are beneficial measurement method, which is a
tool an technique in the initiation process
b. Weighted scoring models are a constrained optimization method, which is an
output of the initiation process
c. Weighted scoring models are a constrained optimization method, which is a
tool and technique in the initiation process
d. Weighted scoring models are beneficial measurement method, which is an
output of the initiation process
271

Your selection committee is debating between two projects. Project-A has a


payback period of 18 months. Project-B has a cost of Rs. 1,25,000 with expected
cash inflows of Rs 50 000 the first year and 25,000 per quarter after that. Which
project would you recommend?
a. Either Project-A or Project-B because the payback periods are equal
b. Project-A because Project's B payback period is 21 months
c. Project-A because Project's B payback period is 24 months
d. Project-A because Project's B payback period is 20 months

272. Which of the following is true?


a. Discounted cash flow analysis is the least precise of the cash flow
techniques as it does not consider the time value of money
b. NPV is the least precise of the cash flow analysis techniques as it assumes
reinvestment at the discount rate
c. Payback period is the least precise of the cash flow analysis techniques as it
does not consider the time value of money
d. IRR is the least precise of the cash flow analysis techniques because it
assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital
273. Project selection criteria might include:
a. Benefit measurement methods
b. Constrained optimization analysis
c. NPV calculations
d. Potential market share or increased public perception
274. Your selection committee has just chosen a project you recommended for
implementation. Your project is to manufacture miniature stuffed bears that will
be attached to your company's trendy T-shirt. The bears will be wearing the same

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T-shirt they're attached to. Your project sponsor thinks you've really impressed
the big boss and wants you to skip to the manufacturing process right away. What
is your response?
a. To. agree with the project sponsor because after all they are your boss, and
they have a lot of authority and power in the company
b. To require that a preliminary budget be established and a resource list be put
together to alert other managers of the requirements of this project. This
should be published and signed by another managers who are impacted by this
project
c. To require a project charter be published and signed off on by all stakeholders
before proceeding
d. To require a project charter be written to include the resources needed, budget,
and project manager's authority. The project manager is only one who needs to
see this document as other documents will be distributed later that contain the
same detail as the charter
275. Your selection committee has just chosen a project you recommended for
implementation. Your company has decided to outsource manufacture miniature
stuffed bears that will be attached to your company's trendy T-shirt. Which of the
following is true:
a. A good product description is all that's required. The project manager wiil
supply this to the vendor
b. The contract can serve as the project charter. The product description wifi be
included in the contract
c. The project manager should write the project charter because the project
manager will be managing the vendor portion of this project as well.
d. The vendor should write the project charter as they are responsible for the
manufacture the miniature stuffed bears.

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PROJECT TIME MANAGEMENT
276.

The main difference between the three types (ADM, PDM) of the CPM of
scheduling is:
a. Placement of the activity on the logic diagram line
b. ADM is a deterministic method, whereas the PDM is a probabilistic method
c. PDM is a deterministic method, whereas the ADM is a probabilistic method
d. ADM is a more accurate

277.

The overall duration of the project schedule is influenced by all of the following
EXCEPT:
a. Using discretionary dependencies as constraints
b. The availability of the resources which are assigned to perform the work
c. The capabilities of the resources which are assigned to perform the work
d. Using the ADM instead of the PDM of scheduling

278.

The PERT method of scheduling differs from CPM because PERT method uses:
Weighted averages of activity durations to calculated project duration
"Dummy" activities to represent logic ties
"Free float" instead of "total float" in the schedule calculations
Bar charts instead diagrams to portray the schedule

a.
b.
c.
d.
279.

The "fast-tracking" method of scheduling compression involves:


a. The use of industrial engineering techniques to improve productivity, thereby
finishing the project charter earlier than originally planned
b. Doing activities in parallel, thereby, increasing risk
c. Going on a "mandatory overtime schedule" in order to complete the project
earlier
d. Assigning "dedicated teams" to the critical path

280.

The project schedule is useful in the generation of many important documents


during the life span of the project. All of the following documents may be
developed from the project schedule EXCEPT:
a. Resource Utilization Histograms
b. Cash Flow Forecasts
c. Work Breakdown Structure
d. Performance Measurement Baseline

281.

An example of a "soft logic" dependency, as opposed to "hard logic" dependency


is:
a. Project A, the company's participation in a Pump Industry trade show,
depends on the successful completion of Project B, which is building the
prototype pump that is going to be displayed
b. To install the plumbing and electrical work at the same time on a single family
dwelling
c. For the shrink-wrapping on the finished box of software to depend on

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enclosing the manual and software first
d. To schedule the final testing activity of a computer to start seventy-two hours
after the start of the mandatory seventy-two hour "burn-in" period
282.

One way that Graphical Evaluation Review technique (GERT) differs from
PERT is that it:
a. Allows the relationships in the logical diagram to contain loops
b. Represents the Project Baseline Chart in a superimposed fashion over both the
logic diagram and the Gantt charts
c. Uses Object Orientated Programming techniques to allow resource histograms
that are attached to the project Gantt Charts
d. Represents the duration of the project activities in a probabilistic fashion

283.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The key inputs to activity definition are:


Work breakdown structure, project schedule, and network
Project schedule, progress reports, and change requests
Project network diagram, constraints
WBS, project scope statement, and historical information that supports the
applicable activity.

284.

To decrease the total project duration for the least incremental cost is called:
crashing
PERT
ADM or PDM forward and backward pass to determine the critical path
Fast tracking

a.
b.
c.
d.
285.
a.
b.
c.
d.
286.

A Gantt chart is useful in determining:


The level of effort of a task
When a task starts and stops
Who is assigned to do a task
Relative priority of tasks

A network analysis technique that allows for conditional and probabilistic


treatment of logical relationships is known as:
a. The Work Breakdown Structure
b. Time scaled networking diagramming
c. GERT
d. TheCPM

287.

The PDM provides project managers with knowledge of-

a. All levels of the WBS


b. Tasks likely to be involved in the project integration and resource allocation
functions
c. A graphical representation of the task interdependencies

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d. What the project-completed date is.
288.

Analogous estimating is different than expert estimating, where analogous


estimating considers:
a. "Most likely, optimistic, and pessimist" estimates
b. The actual duration of a previous similar schedule activity
c. Project team members estimate information
d. By multiplying quantity of work to be performed by the productivity rate

289.
a.
b.
c.
d.
290.

The critical path is calculated by establishing the following dates:


Start to start, start to finish, finish to finish, finish to start
Early start, early finish, late start, late finish
Predecessor to successor, predecessor to predecessor, successor to successor
Primary to secondary, primary to finish, secondary to secondary, finish to finish
Fast tracking in time management is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Doing some or ail activities in parallel rather than in sequence


Preparing progress reports on a quick turn-around basis
The timely input of data to calculate the critical path
Minimizing float

291.

As a function of Project Time Management, the process of developing a schedule


is made up of:
a. Activity definition, activity sequencing, activity execution, and activity duration
estimating
b. Activity definition, activity sequencing, and activity duration estimating
c. Activity identification, activity execution, activity resource estimating, and
activity results
d. Activity determination, activity duration estimating, activity implementation, and
activity results

292.

Using PERT duration calculation for an activity that has an optimistic duration
estimate of 1 week, a most likely duration estimation estimate of 2 weeks, and a
pessimistic duration estimate of 6 weeks, the PERT weighted average is:
a. 1 week
b. 2 weeks
,
c. 2.5 weeks
d. 3 weeks

293.

The duration estimates used in original CPM calculations is the:


a. Optimistic duration estimate
b. Most likely duration estimate
c. Pessimistic duration estimate
d. Mean of the Optimistic, Most likely, and Pessimistic duration estimates

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294.

All of the following are true about resource leveling heuristic EXCEPT:
a. Can be applied to reflect resource constraints
b. Often results in a project duration that is longer than the preliminary schedule
c. Is sometimes called the resource-based method
d. Is used to develop a meaningful WBS

295.

The following is true about critical chain:


a. It is a technique that allows development of an optimum project schedule when
resources are unlimited
b. it is a technique that modifies the project schedule to account for limited
resources
c. It is another name of Gantt chart
d. It is primarily used to ensure safety in major construction projects

296.

Complete the chart using the formulas above. All estimates are in hours.

Task O

PERT or
expected
duration

Task
Std. Deviation

Task
Variance

A
B
C
D

14
41
39
29

21
60
44
37

47
89
48
42

297.

Assuming that the tasks listed above make up the entire critical path for the
project, how long should the project take?

298.

You are the project manager for a new project and have figured out the following

dependencies.
Task 1 can start immediately and has an estimate duration of 3 weeks
Task 2 can start after task 1 is completed and has an estimate duration of 3
weeks
Task 3 can start after task 1 is completed and has an estimated duration of 6
weeks
'
Task 4 can start after task 2 is completed and has an estimate duration of 8
weeks
Task 5 can start after task 4 is completed and after task 3 is completed. This
task takes 4 weeks
a. What is the duration of the critical path?
b. What is the slack/float of the task 3?
c. What is the slack/float of tsask 2?

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d. What is the slack of the path with the longest Slack path
e. The resource working on task 3 is replaced with another resource that is less
experienced. The task will now take 10 weeks. How will this affect the project?
f. Using the original information, after some arguing between the stakeholders, a
new task 6 is added to the project. It will take 11 weeks to complete and must be
completed before task 5 and after task 3. Management is concerned that adding the
task will add 11 weeks to the project. The stakeholder argues that the time will be
less than 11 weeks. Who is correct?
299.

Considering the following data:


Activity____Preceding Activity____Est. in days
START
0
D
START
4
A
START
6
F
D,A
7
E
D
8
G
F,E
5
B
F
5
H
G
7
C
H
8
END
C, B
0

a.
b.
c.
d.
300.

What is the duration of the critical path?


What is the slack of activity B?
What is the slack of activity E?
What is the slack of activity D?
Considering the following data:
Activity
Start A
Start B
A-C
B-C
B-E
C-D
C-E
E-End
D-End

a.
b.
c.
d.

Estimate Duration (in weeks)


3
9
3
Dummy
2
2
1
4
2

What is the critical! path?


If the duration of Activity C - E changes to 2, what is the effect on the project?
What activity (s) must be completed before activity C - D begins?
If the management tells you to complete the project 2 weeks early, (i) what is the
project float? (ii) Does the critical path change?

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301.

Based on the network diagram below, what you do during planning (or executing
for that matter, while taking corrective action) to compress the schedule to 30
days?

302.
Imagine that the following project has a float of 3 mths. Assuming that the
activities listed below represent critical path activities
Act
Original Crash
Time
Original Crash
Extra
Cost Per
Duration Duration Savings COST
Cost
Cost
month
(mths)
(mths)
F
14
12
2
10,000
14,000
4,000
2,000
A
9
7
2
17,000
27,000
10,000
5,000
H
3
2
1
25,000
26,000
1,000
1,000
G
7
6
1
14,000
16,000
2,000
2,000
C
11
8
3
27,000
36,000
9,000
3,000
a. Which activity or activities presented above would you crash to save three months
on the project?
b. How much would it cost to crash this project?
303.

Management has told you to get the project completed 2 weeks early. What is the
BEST thing for you to do?
a. Consult the project sponsor
b. Crash
c. Fast track
d. Advise the customer (management) of the impact of the change.

304.

To reduce the project duration by 2 weeks on the management's request you have
assigned a more experienced resource to task Start - B in order to complete it in 7
weeks instead of 9 weeks. But it would cost an additional 20,000 do so. You
could eliminate part Task C Dor E E and save Rs. 5.000 and 1 week of work.
You could move work from Task A-C Task B -E and save Rs. 2,000- what is the
cost of compressing this

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305.

To control the schedule, 'a project manager is re-analyzing the project to predict
project duration. She does this by analyzing the sequence of activities with the
least amount of scheduling flexibility. What technique is she using?
a. Critical path
b. Flowchart
'
c. Precedence diagramming
d. Work Breakdown Structure

306. A dependency that requires that design be completed before manufacturing can start
is an example of
a. Discretionary dependency
b. External dependencies
c. Mandatory dependencies
d. Scope dependency
307.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following are GENERALLY illustrated BETTER by bar charts than
networking diagrams
Logical relations
Critical paths
Resource trade-off
Activity progress or status

308. The estimate for a task is O=3 days, P=7 days, M=4 days. What is the standard
deviation for this task?
a. 5/6 of a day
b. 2/3 of a day
c. 1 days
d. 5 2/3 days
309.
A heuristic is best described as a:
a. Control tool
h Scheduling method
c. Planning tool
d. Rule of thumb
310.
Lag means:
a. Amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project
b. Amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start of its
successor
c. Waiting time
d. The product of a forward and backward pass
311.
Which of the following is the BEST project management tool to use to
determine the longest time the project will take?
a. WBS

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b. Network diagram
c. Project schedule
d. Project charter
312.
ab.
c.
d.

Which of the following is not CORRECT?


A critical path run over a dummy
There can be only one critical path
The network diagram will change every time the end date changes
A project can have a negative float

313.

What is the duration of a milestone?


Undefined
Shorter than the activity it represents
There is no duration
Same length as the activity it represents

a.
b.
c.
d.
314.

If the optimistic estimates for a task is 12 days, pessimistic is 18 days what is the
most likely estimate?
a. 15 days
b. 13 days
c. 16 days
d. Unknown

315.

If the optimistic estimates for a task is 12 days, pessimistic is 18 days, what is the
standard deviation of the task?
a. 1
b. 1.3
c. 6
d. 3

316.

Which of the following BEST describes the relationship between standard


deviation and risk?
a. Nothing
b. Standard deviation tells you if the estimate is accurate
c. Standard deviation tells you how unsure the estimate is
d. Standard deviation tells you if the estimate includes a pad

317.

Monte Carlo analysis is used to:


a. Get an indication of the risk involved in the project
b. Estimate a task's length
c. Simulate the order in which tasks occur
d. Prove to management that extra staff is needed

318.

The slack of a task is determined by:


a. Performing a Monte Carlo analysis
b. The waiting time between tasks

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c. Lag
d. The amount of time an activity can be delayed before it delays the critical path
319.

A project has three critical paths. Which of the following BEST describes how this
affects the project?
a. It makes it easier to manage
b. It increases the project risk
c. It requires more people
d. It makes it more expensive

320.
a.
b.
c.
d.
321.
a.
b.
c.
d.

If the project time and cost are not important as the number of resources used
Each month, which of the following is the BEST thing to do?
Perform a Monte Carlo analysis
Fast track the project '
Perform resource leveling
Analyze the life cycle costs
When would a milestone chart be used instead of Gantt chart?
Project planning
Reporting to team members
Reporting to management
Risk analysis

322.

Your project plan results in a project schedule that is too long. If the project
network diagram cannot change but have extra personnel resources, what is the
BEST thing to do?
a. Fast track the project
b. Monte Carlo analysis
c. Crash the project
d. Perform a value analysis

323.

An activity-on-node diagram is different from activity-on-arrow diagram


because an activity-on-node diagram:
a. Can use PERT
b. Has four relationships among tasks
c. Has only finish-to-finish relationships
d. May use dummy activities

324.
a.
b.
c.
d.
325.

Which estimating method uses time estimate for each task?


Simulation
CPM
Monte Carlo
Control charts
Which of the following is the BEST thing to do to try to complete a project two
days earlier?

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a. Tell them that the project's critical path does not allow the project to be finished
earlier
b. Tell your boss
c. Meet with the team and look for opinions for crashing or fast tracking the critical
path
d. Work hard and see what the project status is next month
326.

327.

In attempting to complete the project faster, the project manager looks at the cost
associated with crashing each task. The BEST approach to crashing would also
include looking at the:
a. Risk impact of. crashing each task
b. Customer's opinion of what tasks to crash
c. Boss's opinion of what tasks to crash and in what order
d. Project phase in which the task id due to occur
A project manager is trying to coordinate all tasks on the project and has
determined the following:

Task 1 can start immediately and has an estimated duration of one week. Task 2 can start
after task 1 is completed and has an estimated duration of 4 weeks. Task 3 can start after
task 2 is completed and has an estimated duration of 5 weeks. Task 4 can start after Task
1 is completed and must be completed when Task 3 is completed. Its estimated duration
is 8 weeks. What is the duration of the critical path for this project?
a. 10
b. 11
c. 14
d. 8
328.

Based on the data in the question above, if Task 4 takes 10 weeks, what is the
duration of the critical path?
a. 10
b. 11
c. 14
d. 8

329.

Which of the following includes asking team members about the time estimates
for their assigned deliverables and developing on the calendar date for each
activity?
a. Activity sequencing
b. Schedule development
c. Scope defining
d. Initiation

330.

A project manager is in the middle of the executing phase of a very large


construction project when he discovers that the time needed to complete the
project is longer than the time available. What is the BEST thing to do?

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a.
b.
c.
d.

Contact the customer and tell him that their required date cannot be met
Meet with management and tell them that their required date cannot be met
Crash or fast track the project
Plan to crash or fast track the project and present options to management for
decision

331.

During planning, you estimate the time needed for each task and then add the
estimates to create the project estimate. You commit to completing the project by
this date. What is WRONG with the scenario?
a. The team did not create the estimate and estimating takes too long using that
method
b. The team did not create the estimate and a network diagram was not used
c. The estimate is too long and should be created by management
d. The project estimate should be the same as the customer's required completion
date

332.

During activity definition, a team member identifies a deliverable that needs to


be accomplished. However, another team member believes that the said
deliverable is not part of the project as interpreted by the preliminary project
scope statement. What is the BEST thing for the project manager to do?
a. Try to build a consensus of the team
b. Make the decision about inclusions herself
c. Clarify from senior management
d. Talk with the project sponsor

333.

You are a project manager on a Rs. 5,000,000/- software development project.


While working with your project team to develop a network diagram, you notice a
series of activities that can be worked in parallel but must finish in a specific
sequence. What type of activity sequencing method is required for these
activities?
a. Precedence diagramming method
b. Arrow diagramming method
c. Critical path method
d. Conditional diagramming method

334.

You are a project manager on a Rs. 5,000,000/- software development project.


While working with your project team to develop a network diagram, your data
architects suggest that quality could be improved if senior management before
moving on to other design elements approves data model. They support this
suggestion with an article from a leading software development journal. Which of
the following BEST describes this type of input is called?
a. Mandatory dependency
b. Discretionary dependency
c. External dependency
d. Heuristic

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335.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Based on the following, if you needed to shorten the duration of the project,
what task would you try to shorten?
ACTIVITY
ESTIMATE DURATION
(Weeks)
Start A
1
Start B
2
Start C
6
A-D
10
B-E
1
C-E
Dummy
C-F
2
F End
3
E-End
9
D-End
1
Activity Start - B
Activity A-D
Activity E - End
Activity C - D

336.

You have a project with the following tasks: Task A takes 40 hours and can start
after project starts. Task B takes 25 hours and should happen after the project
starts Task C must happen after task A and takes 35 hours. Task D must happen
after tasks B and C and takes 30 hours. Task E must take place after task C and
takes 10 hours Task F must take place after task E and takes 22 hours. Which of
the following is TRUE if task B actually takes 37 hours?
a. The critical path is 67 hours
b. The critical path changes to tasks B, D
c. The critical path is A, C, E, F
d. The critical path increases by 12 hours

337.

The team has provided the project manager with activity duration estimates If the
project manager is about to start schedule development, which of the following is
the MOST important item the project manager needs to adequately develop a
schedule?
a. Risk management
b. Corrective action
c. Schedule change control system
d. Change request

338.

A project manager is taking over a project from another project manager while the
project is in planning. If the new project manager wants to see what the previous
project manager planed for managing changes to the schedule, it would be BEST
to look at
a. Communications plan
b. Project plan
c. Time management plan

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d. Schedule management plan
339.

A project manager is using weighted average duration estimates to calculate


activity duration. Which type of mathematical analysis is being used
a. CPM
b. PERT
c. Monte Carlo
d. GERT

340.
The WBS, estimates for each work package, and network diagram are completed
Which of the following would be the NEXT thing for the project manager to do?
a. Sequence the activity
b. Verify that they have the correct scope of work
c. Create a preliminary schedule and get the team's approval
d. Complete risk management
341.

A new product development project has four levels in the work breakdown
structure and has been sequenced using the arrow diagramming method. The
activity duration estimates have been received. What should be done NEXT?
a. Create an activity list
b. Begin the work breakdown structure
c. Finalize the schedule
d. Compress the schedule

342.

You are a project manager for a new product development project that has four
levels in the work breakdown structure, and has been sequenced using the arrow
diagramming technique. The duration estimates have been compressed and a
schedule created. What time management activity would you do NEXT?
a. Begin schedule control
b. Begin activity resource planning
c. Analogous estimate the schedule
d. Gain approval.

343.

A team member from research and development tells you that her work is too
creative to provide you with a fixed single estimate for the task. You both decide
to use the average time the task has taken for past projects to predict the future.
This is an example of which of the following?
a. Parametric estimating
b. PERT
c. CPM
d. Mote Carlo

344.

A task has an early start of day three, late start of day thirteen, an early finish of
day nine, and a late finish of day nineteen. The task:
a. Is on a critical path
b. Has a lag

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c. Is progressing well
d. Is not on a critical path
345.

The project is calculated to be completed four days after the desired completion
date. You do not have access to additional resources. The project is low risk, the
benefit cost ratio is expected to be 1.6, and the dependencies are preferential.
Under these circumstances, what would be the BEST thing to do?
a. Cut resources from activities
b. Make more activities concurrent
c. Move resources from the preferential dependencies and external dependencies
d. Remove a task from the project

346.

A project manager for a small construction company has a project that was
budgeted for Rs. 130,000 over a six-week period. According to her schedule, the
project should have cost Rs. 60,000 to date. However, it has cost Rs. 90,000 to
date. The project is also behind schedule, because the original estimates were not
accurate. Who has the PRIMARY responsibility tc solve this problem?
a. Project manager
b. Senior manager
c. Project sponsor
d. Manager of the project office

347.

Your organization is having a difficult time managing all of its projects You have
been asked to help senior management understand this. Which of the following
types of reports would help provide summary information to senior management?
a. Detailed cost estimates
b. Project plans
c. Gantt charts
d. Milestone reports

Use the network below to answer questions 73 through 76. Activity names and duration
are provided in boxes.

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348.What is the duration of the critical path in this network?
a.10
b.12
c.14
d.16
349.What is the float for the Activity G?
a.-2
b.0
c.2
d.4
350.

lf the project planer imposes a finish time of 14 on the project with no change in
the start date or activity durations, what is the total float of Activity E?
a.-2.
b.0
c.2
d. Cannot be determined

351.

If the imposed finish time in question 75 above is removed and reset to 16 and the
duration of Activity H is changed to 3, what is the late finish for Activity G?
a.-11
b. 11
c.-13
d. 13

352.

Your company, which operates one of the regions largest chemical processing
plants, has been convicted of illegally dumping toxic substances into the town's
river. The court has mandated that the required cleanup activities be completed by
February 15. Such a constraint is an example ofa. A key event
b. A major milestone
c. An imposed date
d. An external dependency

353.

You are managing a construction project for a new city water system. The
contract requires you to use special titanium piping equipment that is guaranteed
not to corrode. The titanium pipe must be resting in the ground for a total of 10
days before the connectors can be installed. In this example, the 10-day period is
defined asa. Lag
b. Lead
c. Float
d. Slack
'

354.

Of the following, which one is not a tool and technique used in schedule control?

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a.
b.
c.
d.

Variance analysis
Project management software
What-if scenario analysis
Schedule management plan

355.

Schedule control is one important way of avoiding delays. To plan and execute
schedule recovery, recommended corrective action frequently requiresa- Making unpopular decisions
b. Immediately re-base lining
c. Root-cause analysis
d. Resource leveling
356.
Project schedule development is an iterative process. If the start and finish dates
are not realistic, the project probably will not finish as planned. You are working
with your team to define how to manage schedule changes. You documented your
decisions in which one of the following?
a. Schedule change control
b. Schedule management plan
c. Schedule risk plan
d. Service-level agreement
357.

If the project is to employ two people each for 40 hours at the labor rate of Rs 30
per hour with overhead included and a third person for 30 hours during the same
period but at a loaded labor rate of Rs 50 per hour, the PV (Planned Value) for the
week isa. Rs 2,400
b. Rs 3,600
c. Rs 3,660
d. Rs 3,900

358.

Your lead engineer estimates that a work package will most likely require 50
weeks to complete. It could be completed in 40 weeks if all goes well, but it could
take. 180 weeks in the worst case. What is the PERT estimate for the expected
duration for the work package?
a 45 weeks
b 70 weeks
c 90 weeks
d 140 weeks

359.

Your customer wants the project to be completed 6 months earlier than planned.
You believe you can meet this target by overlapping project activities. The
approach you plan to use is known asa. Concurrent engineering
b. Fast-tracking
c. Leveling
d. Crashing
360. Activity A has duration of 3 days and begins on the morning of Monday the 4th.

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The successor activity, B, has a finish-to-start relationship with A. the finish-tostart relationship has 3 days of lag, and activity B has a duration of 4 days.
Sunday is a non-work day. What can be determined from these data?
a. The duration of both activities is 8 days.
b. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 11 days.
c. The finish date of B is the 13th.
d. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 14 days.
361. One way to shorten your project schedule is to assign five people to each activity
in the project design phase instead of two. Although you are considering this
approach, your design phase project team would double in size as a result. This
approach tends toa. Reduce productivity
b. Increase productivity
c. Reduce the need for senior-level staff members, thereby reducing overall
resource costs
d. Improve production proportionately more than the increase in resources
362. "I cannot test the software until I code the software." This expression describes
which of the following dependencies?
a. Discretionary
b. Rational
c. Preferential
d. Mandatory or hard
363. It is important to re-baseline the project schedule carefully becausea. Revisions require management approval
b. Historical data will be lost for the project schedule
c. Root-cause analysis must be performed
d. Schedule recovery cannot be planned for activities delineated later in schedule
364.

Your approved project schedule was based on resource leveling due to a scarcity
of resources. Management has now mandated that the project be completed as
soon as possible. Which of the following methods will you use to recalculate the
schedule?
a. Resource manipulation
b. Reverse resource allocation
c. Critical chain scheduling
d. Resource reallocation

365.

The customer increased your project scope by 65%. This increased your cost
estimate fivefold. Now you must change the scheduled start and finished dates in
your approved project schedule. Your first step should be toa. Re-baseline the schedule
b. Modify the contract
c. Use a new target schedule
d. Add 'resources
,

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366.

a.
b.
c.
d.
367.

a.
b.
c.
d.

You are remodeling your kitchen and decide to prepare a network diagram for
this project. Your appliances must be purchased and available for installation by
the time the cabinets are completed. In this example, these relationships areStart to finish
Finish to start
Start to start
Finish to finish
Decomposition is a technique used for both WBS and activity definition. Which
statement best describes the role decomposition plays in activity definition as
compared to WBS?
Final output is described in terms of wok packages in the WBS.
Final output is described as deliverables or tangible items.
Final output is described as activities or action steps.
Decomposition is used the same way in scope definition and activity definition.

368.

Which of the following formulas provide the most accurate result for computing
activity duration (AD)?
a. AD = Work Quantity
Production rate
b. AD = Work Quantity
Number of resources
c. AD = Production rate
Work quantity
d. AD = (Production rate) (Work quantity)
Number of resources
369. To practice effective schedule control, your project team must be alert to any
issues that may cause problems in the future. To best accomplish this, the team
should- .
a. Review performance measurements.
b. Allow no changes to the schedule
c. Update the schedule management plan on a continuous basis.
d. Hold status reviews.
370.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Several tools and techniques are available for activity sequencing. The too! or
techniques selected can be determined by several factors. If the project manager
decides to include subnets or fragnets as part of his or her scheduling technique,
what would that decision say about the project?
The work is unique requiring special network diagrams at various stages.
Software that manages resources is available over an existing electronic network
Utilize schedule network templates.
Multiple critical paths exist in the project.

371.

To assess the implications of crashing a project, a project manager should first


computea. The cost and time slope for each critical activity that can be expedited.

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b. The cost of additional resources to be added to the project's critical path.
c. The time that will be saved in the overall schedule when tasks are expedited en
the critical path.
d. Three probabilistic time estimates of PERT for each critical path activity.
372.

a.
b.
c.
d.
373.

You met with your project team to discuss the best ways to control the schedule.
You want to influence the factors that can change the schedule. You also want to
recognize when the schedule has changed so you can manage changes as they
occur. Working with your team to provide the basis for measuring and reporting
schedule progress, you agree to use theSchedule management plan
Network diagram
Schedule baseline
Technical baseline

In the past, you used bar charts when presenting project status to management
because they are easy for everyone, even senior management, to understand. The
project office issued a new procedure today requiring project managers to prepare
milestone charts and to update them every two weeks. Unlike bar charts,
milestone charts showa. Scheduled completion of major deliverables and key events.
b. Activity starts and end dates of critical tasks.
c. Expected durations of critical path.
d. Dependencies between complementary projects.

374.
a.
b.
c.
d.

A benefit of using a schedule change control system is that it includes theRequirements for reporting schedule performance.
Requirements for measuring schedule performance.
Methods for assessing the magnitude of schedule variations.
Approving levels of necessary for authorizing schedule changes.

375.

An activity has an early start date of the 10th and a late start date of the 19th. The
activity has duration of 4 days. There are no non-workdays. From the information
given, what can be concluded about the activity?
a. Total float for the activity is 9 days.
b. The early finish date of the activity is the end of the day of the 14th.
c. The late finish date is the 25th.
d. The activity can be completed in 2 days if the resources devoted to it are doubled.

376.

In project development, schedule information, such as who will perform the


work, where the work will be performed, activity type, and appropriate effort are
examples ofa. Activity attributes
b. Constraints
c. Data in the WBS repository
d. Refinements

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377.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The tool that provides a basis to identify the work that must be scheduled is theMaster schedule
Budget
WBS dictionary
Gantt chart

378.

A schedule performance index of less than 1.0 indicates that thea. Project is running behind the monetary value of the work it planned to
accomplish.
b. Earned value physically accomplished this far is 100%.
c. Project has experienced a permanent loss of time.
d. Project may not be on schedule, but the project manager need not be concerned.

379.

Several types of floats are found in project networks. Float that is used by a
particular activity and does not affect the float in the latter activities is calleda. Extra float
b. Free float
c. Total float
d. Expected float

380.

You have issued severa1 revisions to your Project's schedule. In some cases your
Schedule delays are now severe- To ensure accurate Performance measurement
information, you shoulda. Issue a schedule update.
b. Re-baseline your schedule.
c. Prepare a master schedule.
d. Initiate a change request.

381.

Your engineering project is highly complex and will require hundreds of


drawings. You multiply the number of drawings by the hours needed to produce
each drawing to estimate how long the project will take to design. This results in
which one of the following
a. Three-point estimate
b. Order of magnitude range estimate
c. Analogous estimate
d. Parametric estimate

382.
The major difference between PERT and CPM is that PERTa. Uses the distribution's mean (expected value) in computing the schedule
b. Uses the most likely estimate to compute float
c. Focuses on calculating float to deter mine which activities have the least
scheduling
d. Includes non-sequential activities, such as loops or conditional branches, as part
of
the diagram

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383.

a.
b.
c.
d.
384.

a.
b.
c.
d.

You are planning to conduct the team-building portion of your new project
Management-training curriculum outdoors. You are limited to scheduling the
course at certain times of the year because it will be conducted in Greenland. The
best time for the course to begin is mid-July. One of the more common date
constraints to use as you develop your project schedule is Start no earlier than
Finish no later than
Fixed late start
Fixed early finish
Activity A has a pessimistic (P) estimate of 36 days, a most likely (ML) estimate
of 2 days, and an optimistic estimate (O) of 6 days. What is the probability that
activity A will be completed in 16 to 26 days?
55.70%
68.26%
95.46%
99.73%

385.

You are managing a project to redesign retail store layout to improve customer
throughput and efficiency. Much of the project work must be done on site and
will require the active participation of store employees. Many of these employees
are lifelong members of a powerful union that has a reputation of labor unrest.
One important component of your schedule must bea. A resource capabilities matrix
b. Buffers and reserves
c. A resource calendar
d. A resource histogram

386.

If, when developing a project schedule, you want to define a distribution of


probable results for each activity and use it to calculate a distribution of probable
results for the total project, the most common technique to use isa. PERT
b. Monte Carlo analysis
c. Linear programming
d. Concurrent engineering

387.

Project managers should pay attention to critical and sub critical activities when
evaluating project time performance. One way to do this is to analyze 10 sub
critical paths in order of ascending float. This approach is part ofa. Resource leveling
b. Simulation
c. Earned value management
d. Trend analysis

388.

Which of the following is displayed as an S-curve:

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a. Gantt
b. Cost base line
c. Critical path
d. PERT
389.
What is one of the problems with project management software:
a. The project manager manages the software instead of the project
b. Project duration calculations are sometimes approximate
c. You cannot override the project management software decisions regarding
schedules
d. It's expensive and difficult to use.
390.
Your project involves installing a new human resources software system. The
data analyst working on this project is over allocated. Which of the following is
true:
a. You should use resource requirements updates to determine availability and
smooth out resource over allocation.
b. You should use crashing to resource level the critical path tasks
c. You should use resource leveling heuristics or technique
d. You should use fast tracking to resource level

PROJECT COST MANAGEMENT


391.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Project cost management includes all of the following functions EXCEPT


Cost budgeting
Activity resource planning
Cost estimating
Cost control

392. .
a.
b.
c.
d.

The output of activity resource planning includes:


Job descriptions
Salary schedules
The types of activity resources required .
Analogous estimating

393.

Which of the following is not true of cost estimates?


May be expressed in units of currency
Must estimate costs for all resources that will be charged to the project
Do not generally consider appropriate risk response planning
May be presented in summary or in detail

a.
b.
c.
d.
394.

All of the following are functions of cost control EXCEPT


a. Informing the appropriate project stakeholder of authorized changes in the cost
baseline
b. Monitoring cost performances to detect variances from the cost baseline
c. Ensuring that all appropriate changes are recorded accurately in the cost

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baseline
d. Allocating the overall estimates to individual work packages in order to establish
a cost baseline
395.

Cost estimates include all of the following resources categories EXCEPT


a. Labor
b. Material
c, Supplies
d. Time allocation

396.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Parametric cost estimating involves:


Defining the parameters of the project life cycle
Calculating individual cost estimates for each work package
Using rates and factors based on historical experience to estimate cost
Using the actual costs of a similar project to estimate total project costs

397.

All of the following choices represent inputs to the activity resource estimating
Process EXCEPT:
a. Organizational process asset
b. Project management plan
c. The actual final cost of the last project
d. Activity list

398.

Organizational process assets used in cost estimating may include all of the
following EXCEPT:
a. Project team knowledge
b. Project database
c. Cost estimating (policies
d. Time required to compare similar projects

399.
a.
b.
c.
d.
400.
a.
b.
c.
d.
401.

Analogous estimating:
Uses bottom-up estimating techniques
Uses the actual costs of previous, similar projects
It used most frequently in the later stages of a project
Summarizes estimates for individual work items
Inputs to activity resource estimating include all the following EXCEPT:
The activity attributes
Project management plan
Resource availability
Resource requirements

Of all the following three major processes contained in Project Cost


Management, which are concerned with cost baseline?
a. Cost control and Cost estimating
b. Cost estimating and Cost budgeting

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c. Cost budgeting and Cost control
d. Activity estimating, and Cost control
402.

To determine the projects Estimate at Completion, which of the following


information is needed?
a. The Earned value and the Actual Cost
b. The Cost Performance Index and the Cost Variance
c. The Actual Cost and the Cost Performance Index
d. The actual to date or Actual Cost and the Estimate To Complete

403.

Given:
a. BAC=200
b. AC = 120
c. EV =80
d. CPl= 0.75

Assuming the current variances are atypical and that similar variances will not occur in
the future, the estimate at completion (EAC) is:
a. 120
b. 160
c. 200
d. 240
404.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Given:
BAC = 200
AC=120
EV=80
CPI = 0.666

Assuming that current variances are typical of future variances, the estimate at
completion (EAC) is
a. 220
b. 260
c. 300
d. 320
405.

The cost baseline has all the following characteristics EXCEPT:


a. It is time-phased budget that will be used as a basis against which to measure,
monitor, & control cost performance on the project
b. It shows the actual cost expenditures throughout the life cycle of the project
c. It is developed by summing estimated costs by period
d. It is usually displayed in the form of an S-curve

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406.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The cost management plan has all the following characteristics EXCEPT:
It is based on the project cost estimates, and is separated from the project plan
U describes how project cost will be planned, structured, and controlled
It is a subsidiary plan, of the project management plan
It may be highly detailed or broadly framed, based on the requirements of the
project stakeholders

407.

One common way to compute Completion ETC is to take the Budget at


Completion (BAG) and:
Divide by SPI
Multiply by SPI
Multiply by CPI
Divide by CPI

a.
b.
c.
d.
408.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Estimate at Completion (EAC) is a periodic evaluation of:


Cost of work completed
Value of work performed
Anticipated total cost at project completion
What it will estimated cost to finish the balance job

409.

If Earned value (EV) = 350, Actual Cost (AC) = 400, Planned value (PV) = 325,
what is Cost variance (CV)?
350
-75
400
-50

a.
b.
c.
d.
410.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Rearranging resources so that a constant number of resources are used each


month is called:
Crashing
Floating
Leveling
Fast tracking

411.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Double declining balance is a form of:


Decelerated depreciation
Straight line depreciation
Accelerated depreciation
Life cycle costing

412.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Analogous estimating:
Uses bottom-up estimating techniques
Is used most frequently during the executing phase of the project
Uses top-down estimating techniques
Uses actual detailed costs

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413.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The cost of choosing one project and giving up another is called:


Fixed cost
Sunk cost
NPV
Opportunity cost

414.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The main focus of life-cycle costing is to:


Estimate installing costs
Estimate the cost of operation and maintenance
Consider installation costs when planning the project costs
Consider operation costs when planning the project costs

415. Cost performance measurement is BEST done through which of the following:
a. Asking for a percentage complete from each team member and reporting that in the
monthly progress chart
b. Calculating earned value and using-the indexes and other calculations to report
project progress and evaluate future performance trends
c. Using 50/50 rule and making sure the life cost is less than the project cost.
d. Focusing on the amount expended last month and what will be expended the
following month
416.
a.
b.
c.
d.

A Cost Performance Index - CPI of 0.89 means:


At this time, we expect the total project cost 89% more than planned
When the project is completed we will have spent 89% more than planed
The project is only progressing at 89% of the rate originally planned
The project is getting 89 paisa/cents out of every Rupee/$ invested

417.
a.
b.
c.
d.

A Schedule Performance Index (SPI) of 0.76 means:


We are over budget
We are ahead of schedule
We are progressing at 24% behind the rate originally planned
We are only progressing at 24% of the rate originally planned

418.

Which of the following is not needed in order to come up with a project cost
estimate?
WBS
Network Diagram
Risks
Change control procedure

a.
b.
c.
d.
419.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following is a benefit of an analogous project estimate?


Estimates will be closer to what will actually required
It is based on a detail understanding of what the work requires
it gives the project team an understanding of management's expectations
It helps the project manager determine if the project will meet the schedule

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420.
Which of the following is an example of a parametric estimate?
a. Rupees per module
b. Learning bend
c. Bottom-up
d. CPM
421.

An "order of magnitude range" estimate is made during which project


management phase?
a. Planning
b. Closing
c. Execution
d. Initiation
422.How close to actual costs should a budget estimate be?
a.-75% to+25%
b.-10% to+25%
c.+10% to-25%
d.-5% to+10%
423.

Which factors would NOT be considered when choosing between two projects to
undertake?
a. NPV
b. BCR
c. Payback period
d. Law of diminishing returns

424.
a.
b.
c.
d.

If project A has a Net Present value - NPV of Rs. 30,000 and project B has a NPV
of Rs. 50,000, what is the opportunity cost if project B is selected?
Rs. 23,000
Rs 30,000
Rs 20,000
Rs 50,000

425. Which type of cost is team training?


a. Direct
b. NPV
c. Indirect
d. Fixed
426. Project setup costs are an example of:
a. Variable cost
b. Fixed cost
c. Overhead cost
d. Opportunity cost
427.Value analysis is performed to get:
a. More value from the cost analysis

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b. Management to buy into the project
c. The team to buy into the project
d. A less costly way of doing the same scope of work
428. Who has the cost risk in a fixed price contract?
a. The team
b. Buyer
c. Seller
d. Management
429.
a.
b.
c.
d.
430.

a.
b.
c.
d.
431.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following represents the estimated value of the work actually?
accomplished?
EV
PV
AC
ACWS
You have four projects from which to choose one. Project A is being done over a
six-year period and has a Net Present Value (NPV) of Rs 70,000. Project B is
being done over a three-year period and has a NPV of Rs 30,000. Project C is
being done over a five- year period and has a NPV of Rs 40,000. Project D is
being done over a one-period and has a NPV of Rs 60,000. Which project would
you choose?
Project A
Project B
Project C
Project D
Project A has an Internal Rate of Return (IRR) of 21 %. Project B has an IRR of
7%. Project C has an IRR of 31%. Project D has an IRR of 19%. Which of these
would be the BEST project?
Project A
Project B
Project C
Project D

432.
As a project manager, you are presented with the following information on Net
Present Value (NPV) for several potential projects. Which project is your best choice?
a. Project A with an NPV of Rs 95,000
b. Project B with an NPV of Rs 120,000
c. Project C with an NPV of Rs 20,000
d. Project D with an NPV of Rs (-) 30,000
433.

Your company can accept three possible projects. Project A has a NPV of Rs
30,000 and will take six years to complete. Project B has an NPV of Rs 60,000
and will take three years to complete. Project C has a NPV of Rs 90,000 and will

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a.
b.
c.
d.

take four years to complete. Based on this information, which project would you
pick?
They all have the same value
Project A
Project B
Project C

434.
The seller tells you that your activities have resulted in an increase in their costs.
You should:
a. Issue a change to project costs
b. Have a meeting with management
c. Ask the seller for supporting information
d. Deny anything wrongdoing
435.
a.
b.
c.
d.
436.

a.
b.
c.
d.

An analysis shows that you have a cost overrun at the end of the project. Which
of the following should you do?
Evaluate options to crash or fast track the project
Meet with management to find out what to do
Meet with customer to took for costs to eliminate
Add a reserve to the project
A new store development project requires the purchase of various equipment,
machinery and furniture. The department responsible for the development
recently centralized its external purchase process and standardized its new order
system. In which document can these new procedures be found?
Project scope management
WBS
Staff management plan
Organization process assets

437.

Early in the life of your project, you are having a discussion with the sponsor
about what estimating techniques should be used. You want a form of expert
judgment, but the sponsor argues for analogous estimating. It would be BEST to:
a. Agree to analogous estimating as it is a form of expert judgment
b. Suggest life cycle costing as a compromise
c. Determine why the sponsor wants such an accurate estimate
d. Try to convince the sponsor to allow expert judgment because it is typically more
accurate.

438.

a.
b.

You've just completed the initiating phase of a small project and are moving into
the planning phase when a project sponsor asks you for the project's budget and
cost baseline. What should you tell her?
The project budget can be found in the project's charter, which has just been
completed
The project budget and baseline will not be finalized and accepted until planning
phase is completed

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c.

The project plan will not contain the project's budget and baseline; this is a small
project
d. It is impossible to complete an estimate before the project plan is created
439.

a.
b.
c.
d.
440.

a.
b.
c.
d.

The project manager is allocating overall cost estimates to individual activities


or work packages to establish a baseline for measuring project performance. What
step is this?
Cost management plan
Cost estimating
Cost budgeting
Cost control
You are asked to prepare a budget for completing a project that was started last
year and then shelved for six months. All the following would be included in the
budget EXCEPT?
Fixed cost
Sunk cost
<
Direct cost
Variable cost

441.

To accommodate a new project in your department, you need to move resources


from one project to another. Because your department is currently working at
capacity, moving resources will inevitably delay the project from which you move
resources. You should move resources from which of the following projects?
a. Project A with a benefit cost ratio of 0.8, no project charter, and four resources
b. Project B with NPV of Rs 60,000, twelve resources, and variable costs between Rs
1,000 to Rs 2,000 per month
c. Project C with an opportunity cost of Rs 300,000, no project control plan, and an
internal rate of return of 12%
d. Project D with indirect costs of Rs 20,000 and thirteen resources

442.

a.
b.
c.
d.
443.

A manufacturing project has a Schedule Performance Index (SPI) of 0.89 and a


Cost Performance Index (CPI) of 0.91. Generally, what is the BEST explanation
for why this occurred?
The equipment purchased for the project was more expensive than expected
At least one task has taken more time than expected
Less experienced resources were used
The project baseline was changed more than once
Although the stakeholders thought there was enough money in the budget,
halfway through the project the CPI is 0.7. To determine the root cause, several
stakeholders audit the project and discover the project cost budget was estimated
analogous. Although the task estimates add up to the project estimate, the
stakeholders think something was missing in how the estimate was completed.
Which of the following describes what was missing?

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a.
b.
c.
d.

Estimated costs should be used to measure CPI


SPI should be used, not CPI
Bottom-up estimating should have been used
Past history was taken into account

444.

a.
b.
c.
d.
445.

a.
b.
c.
d.
446.
a.
b.
c.
d.

You are a project manager for a large software firm. Your superior has just
asked you for your input on a decision about which project your company should
pursue. Project A has in IRR of 12%. Project B has a predicted Benefited Cost
Ratio (BCR) of 1:3. Project C has an opportunity cost of Rs 75,000. Project D has
a NPV of Rs 150,000. If you had to choose based on this data, which project
would select?
Project A
Project B
Project C
Project D
You are about to take over a project from another project manager and find out
the following information about the project. Task Z has an early start day of 15
and a late start of day 20, task Z is a difficult task. Cost Performance Index (CPI)
is 1.1, SPI is 0.8, and there are eleven stakeholders on the project. Based on this
information, which of the following would be the MOST concerned about?
Schedule
Float
Cost
The number of available resources
During the project execution, a large number of changes are made to the project.
The project manager should:
Wait until all changes are known and print out a new schedule
Make changes as needed but retain the schedule baseline
Make only the changes approved by management
Talk to management before any changes are made

Use the current status, listed below, to questions 57 through 60


PV = Rs 2,200
EV = Rs 2,000
AC = Rs 2,500
BAC = Rs 10,000
447.

According to earned value analysis, the SV and status of the project described
above is:
a. - Rs 300; the project is ahead of the schedule
b. + Rs 8,000; the project is on schedule
c. + Rs 200; the project is ahead of the schedule
d. - Rs 200; and the project is behind schedule

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448.

What is the CPI for this project, and what does it tell us about cost performance
thus far?
a. 0.20; actual costs are exactly as planed
b. 0.80; actual costs have exceeded planned costs
c. 0.80; actual costs are less than planned costs
d. 1.25; and the project is behind schedule

446.
a.
b.
c.
d.
450.

The CV is:
+ Rs. 300
Rs. 300
+ Rs. 500
Rs. 500

What is the EAC for this project, and what does it represent?
a. Rs 12,500; the revised estimate for the total project cost (based on performance
thus far)
b. Rs 10,000; the revised estimate for the total project cost (based on performance
thus far)
c. Rs 12,500; the original project cost
d. Rs 10,000; the original project cost

451.
Your first task on your project is to prepare a cost estimate. You decide to use
analogous estimating. Which of the following is not characteristic of the analogous
estimating?
a. Supports top-down estimating
b. Is a form of expert judgment
c. Has an accuracy rate of +/-10% of actual costs
d. Involves using the cost of previous, similar project as the basis for estimating
current project cost
452.

You are employed by a Govt. agency and are managing a 3-year project with an
Rs.3 million budget. If project requirements change, you expect additional funds
to become available toward the end of each fiscal year. You may use these funds
for your project. You decide to establish a cost change control system to:
a. Define when to add contingency funds to the project
b. Define the procedures by which the cost baseline may be changed
c. Determine why a cost variance has occurred
d. Determine whether a budget update is required.

453.

You must consider direct costs, indirect costs, overhead costs, and general and
administrative costs during cost estimating. Which of the following is not an
example of a direct cost?
a. Salary of the full time project staff
b. Subcontractor expenses
c. Materials consumed by the project
d. Electricity utility for the office

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454.

If the cost variance is as small as the schedule variance and both numbers are
greater than zero, then:
a. The cost variance is due to the schedule variance
b. The variance is favorable to the project
c. The schedule variance can be easily corrected
d. Labor rates have escalated since the project began

455.

You are responsible for preparing a cost estimate for a large World Bank project.
You decide to prepare a bottom-up estimate because your estimate needs to be
accurate as possible. Your first step is to:
a. Locate a computerized tool to assist in the process
b. Use the cost estimate from the previous project to help you prepare this estimate
c. Identify and estimate the cost for each individual work item
d. Consult with subject matter experts and use their suggestions as the basis for your
estimate

456.

Your project management experience has taught you that inappropriate responses
to cost variances can produce quality or schedule problems or unacceptable
project risk. You introduce this important topic to the team, you note that cost
control is concerned with:
a. Influencing factors that create change to the cost baseline
b. Developing an approximation of the costs of the activity resources needed to
complete the project
c. Allocating the overall cost estimate to individual work items
d. Developing a cost baseline

457.

Management has grown weary of the many surprises, mostly negative, that occur
on your projects. The project management office director told you that if you do
not start using some form of project indicator so that management knows what to
expect, you would be working in the company cafeteria by the end of the week. In
an effort to provide all management levels with an effective indicator, you decide
to focus on the to complete performance index (TCPI). Its purpose is to:
a. Determine the schedule and cost performance needed to complete the remaining
work within management's financial goal for the project
b. Determine the cost performance needed to complete the remaining project scope
c. Predict final project costs
d. Predict final project schedule and costs

458.

When you review cost performance data on your project, different responses will
be required depending on the degree of variance from the baseline. For example, a
variance of 10% might not require immediate action, whereas a variance of 10%
will require investigation. A description of how to manage cost variances should
be included in the:
a. Cost management plan
b. Change management plan

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c. Performance measurement plan
d. Variance management plan
459.

If operations on a work package were estimated to cost Rs 1,500 and finish today
but, instead, have cost Rs 1,350 and are only two thirds complete, the cost
variance is:
a. +Rs150
b. -Rs150
c. - Rs 350
d. -Rs500

460.

On your project, you need to assign costs to the time period in which they are
occurred. To do this, you should:
a. Identify the project components so that costs can be allocated
b. Use the project schedule as an input to cost budgeting
c. Prepare a detailed and accurate cost baseline
d. Prepare a cost performance plan

461.

As of the fourth month on the Acme project, cumulative planned expenditures


were Rs 100,000. Actual expenditures totaled Rs 120,000. How is the Acme
project doing?
a. It is ahead of schedule
b. It is in trouble because of a cost overrun
c. It will finish within the original budget
d. The information is insufficient to make an assessment

462.

Each time you meet with your project sponsor, she emphasizes the need for cost
control on your new e-business project. She always asks you about cost
performance in terms of which budgets have been met and which has not. To
answer her concerns you should provide:
,
a.
b.
c.
d.

463.

Performance reports
Performance measurement graphs and charts
Resource productivity analyses
Trend analysis statistics

You receive a frantic phone call from your vice-president who says she is going
to meet with prospective client in 15 minutes to discuss a large and complex
project. She gives you 30-second overview and asks you how much the project
will cost. You quickly think of some similar past projects, factor in a few
unknowns, and give her a number What type of estimate did you just provide?
a. Definitive
b. Budget
c. Rough-order-of-magnitude (ROM)
d. Detailed

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464.

You lead a project team that is developing a cerebral implant that enhances due
to the project's technical complexity. They include direct and indirect costs. You
have found that managing overhead costs is particularly difficult because they:
a. Are handled on a project-by-project basis
b. Represent only direct labor cost
c. Represent only equipment and materials needed for the project
d. Are usually beyond the project manager's control

465.

You are managing an e-business project for your firm. The partner in charge is
obsessed with earning as much profit as possible. He keeps asking you for the
profit "numbers". Which of the following categories of profits is he realty
interested in?
a. Operating
b. Expected
c. Gross over
d. Cumulative

466.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Your approved project cost estimate has changed because of a major scope
change on your project. Your next step should be to:
Estimate the magnitude of the scope change
Issue budget update
Documents lessons learned
Execute the approvec1 scope change

467.

Which of the following is the tool for analyzing a design, determining its
functions, and assessing how to provide those functions costs effectively?
a. Pareto diagram
b. Value analysis
c. Configuration management
d. Value engineering

468.

It is expected to lease office spaces in cities around the world. Office space can
cost approximately US $ 80 per square foot in the United States. And it can cost
approximately Rs 5,000 per square meter in Mumbai. These "averages" can help a
person determine how much it will cost to tease office space in these cities based
on the amount of space leased. These estimates are examples of:
a. Why the United States should use the metric system
b. Parametric modeling
c. Bottom-up estimating
d. Leaseholder data

469.

The cumulative CPI has been shown to be relative stable after what percentage of
the project completion?
a. 5% to 10%
b. 15% to 20%

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c. 25% to 35%
d. 50% to 75%
470.

Your company has established a reward and recognition system for its project
management professionals. Project cost performance is used as a criterion to
determine rewards. What should you do to ensure that rewards reflect actual
performance?
a. Consider overtime work as part of the job
b. Prepare a cost baseline
c. Use earned value management to monitor performance
d. Estimate and budget controllable and uncontrollable costs separately

471.
a.
b.
c;
d.

The undistributed budget is part of the:


Management reserves
Performance measurement baseline
Level-of-efforts cost accounts
General and administrative accounts

472.

Cost baseline is important because it is used to measure and monitor project cost
performance. Overall cost estimates must be allocated to individual activities or
work packages to establish the project cost baseline. In an ideal situation, a
project manager would prefer to prepare cost estimates:
a. Before the budget request
b. After the budget is approved
c. Using a parametric model
d. Using a bottom-up estimating methods

473.

You are the controller on your project. Your project manager has requested that
you provide him a forecast of project costs for the next 12 months. He needs this
information to determine if the budget should be increased or decreased on this
major construction - project. In addition to the usual information sources, which
of the following should you also consider?
a. Cost estimates from similar projects
b. WBS
c. Project schedule
d. Approved change requests

474.
a.
b.
c.
d.
475.

Control accounts (CA):


Are charge accounts for personnel time management
Summarize project costs at level 2 of the WBS
Identify and track management services
Are management control points where measurement of performance will occur

Which of the following calculations cannot be used to determine EAC?


a. EV to date the remaining project budget
b. AC to date plus a new estimate for all the remaining work

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c. AC to date plus the remaining budget
d. AC to date plus the remaining budget modified by the performance factor
476.
a.
b.
c.
d.

By reviewing cumulative cost curves, the project manager can monitor:


EV
PV
CVs
CPI

a.
b.
c.
d.

According to learning curve theory, when many items are produced repetitively:
Unit cost decrease geometrically as the production rates increase
Unit costs decrease as production rates increase
Unit costs decrease in a regular pattern as more units are produced
Costs of training increase as the level of automation increases

477.

478.

You need to determine specific resources, people, equipment, and materials for
your e-commerce project. You also must determine the quantity of each and when
resources will be required to perform project activities. This requires interface
among a number of different project planning processes should be provided for
use in activity resource estimating through the:
a. Resource assignment matrix
b. Activity attributes
c. Scope statement
d. OBS

479.

Increased attention to return on investment (ROI) by the CIO has required you to
complete a financial analysis of the payback period on your project. Such an
analysis identifies the:
a. Ratio of discount revenues over discounted costs
b. Future value of money invested today
c. Amount of time before net cash inflow becomes positive
d. Point in time where costs exceed profit

480.

The method of calculating the EAC by adding the remaining part project budget
(modified by performance factor) to the actual to date is used often when the:
a. Current variances are viewed as atypical ones
b. Original estimating assumptions are no longer reliable because conditions have
changed
c. Current variances are viewed as typical of future variances
d. Original estimating assumptions are considered to be fundamentally flawed

481.

Recently you were named the project control officer responsible for regularly
measuring project performance. You recommended using earned value
management to estimate final project costs to the project manager because:
a. Tests the "official" position of the project manager against a statistically
forecasted range of final possibilities based on actual project performance

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b. Provides management with the final BAC, PV, and EV
c. Shows specific tasks in which cost overruns are expected to occur and, thus,
focuses the project manager's attention on critical tasks
d. Ensures that management reserves or contingency will not be needed
482.

An automotive design team will need to be familiar with the latest in automated
assembly techniques. The team can obtain this knowledge in a number of ways: it
could hire a full-time subject matter expert, it can hire a consultant, it could send
an existing design engineer to a seminar about robotics, or it could include
someone from the manufacturing department on the team. Associated costs for
each approach must be factor into the project plan. This demonstrates the
importance of:
a. Completing resource estimating before activity definition
b. Ensure that a resource assignment matrix be prepared and used as a control tool
c. Closely coordinating resource estimating with cost estimating
d. Using the resource plan as an input to earned value

483.

Re-base lining may be required in cost control when:


a. CVs are severe, to provide a realistic basis for performance measurement
b. Revised cost estimates are prepared and distributed to stakeholders
c. Corrective action must be taken to bring expected future performance in lime
with the project plan
d. EAC shows that additional funds are needed to complete the project even if a
scope change is not needed

484.

Because you recognize the importance of cost control, you identified a number
of acceptable tolerances as part of your earned value management system Project
change is inevitable, and some "unacceptable" variance occurred, you did which
one of the following first:
a. Update the budget
b. Prepare a revised cost estimate
c. Adjust the project plan
d. Update organizations! process assets

485.
a.
b.
c.
d.

All the following are outputs of the cost estimating process except:
Activity cost estimates
Activity cost estimate supporting detail
Requested changes
Cost base line

a.
b.
c.
d.

The cumulative cost curve for planned and actual expenditures:


Helps monitor project performance at a glance
Is used for calculating the CPI
Is also known as a histogram
Forecasts total project expenditure

486.

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487.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Marketplace conditions, and commercial database are considered for cost


estimating. All of the following fall into enterprise environmental factors except
Resource cost rates information
Information about what products and services are available in the market
Cost estimating templates
Published seller price lists

488.Cost management plan can establish all the following except:


a. Control thresholds
b. Organizational procedures links
c. Cost budgeting
d. Process description
489.Options to manage cost contingency reserve is:
a. The schedule activity may be buffer activity in the critical chain method
b. Add percentage to the project estimated cost
c. Add additional project manager to control cost
d. Conduct frequent review meetings
490.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Expenditures of funds are reconciled with the funding limits set by the customer
or performing organization on the disbursement of funds for the project. Objective
of funding limit reconciliation is:
To control funding expenditure limit
To control VAC ,
To control project manager
To control cost variances
PROJECT QUALITY MANAGEMENT

491.Inputs to perform quality control include all the following EXCEPT


a. Work performance information
b. Quality management plan
c. Quality metrics
d. Process analysis
492. One of the fundamental tenets of modern quality management is that quality:
a. exceeds client expectations
b. Does not cost
c. Is planned, designed, and built in - not inspected in
d. Requires constant monitoring
493. Standard for product? and services are critical to the process of satisfying:
a. Customer requirements!
b. The scope statement
c. Upper management
d. Functional requirements

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494.

All of the following represent or result from, the primary benefit of meeting
quality requirement EXCEPT
a. Less re-work
b. Higher productivity
c. Lower costs
d. Fewer change orders

495. In the quality management disciplines, benefits _______ cost of quality.


a. Equal
b.
Outweigh
c.
Are less than
d.
Cannot be evaluated in relation to
496. "Design of Experiments" is a statistical method that helps toa.
Determine how variable elements of a system interrelate
b.
Identify which factors might influence specific variables of a product or
process under development or in production.
c.
Establish a standard by which to measure performance
d.
Compare actual or planned project practices to those of other projects
497.

The quality management plan provides input to ______ and addresses quality
control, quality assurance, and continuous improvement for the projects
a.
me overall project management plan
b.
The WBS
c.
The project scope
d.
External stakeholders

498.

Quality assurance is the application of planned, systematic quality activities to:


a. Include policing the conformance of project team to specifications
b. Provide the project team and stakeholders with standards, by which the project
performance is measured
c. Ensure that the project will employ all the processes needed to meet the
requirements
d. Reduce the probability of project completion on schedule

499. The diagram that ranks defects, in the order of frequency, using a Histogram to
depict 100 percentage of the defects, is called a:
a. Pareto diagram
b. Bar chart
c. Network diagram
d. Critical path
500.Major cost categories of quality include all the following EXCEPT:
a. Appraisal
b. Prevention

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c. External failure
d. Activity resource availability
501.

Investment in defect prevention and appraisal (product quality improvement)


must be borne by:
a. The acquiring organization
b. The project management team
c. Executive management
d. The project

502.Techniques to perform Quality control include ail of the following EXCEPT:


a. Flowcharting
b. Pareto diagrams
c. Control charts
d. Estimates of cost variance
503.

The uses of project quality management techniques is essential to provide the


greatest degree of:
a. Satisfaction
b. Capability
c. improvement
d. Performance

504.

Perform quality ____ is to ensure that the project employs all processes
needed to meet requirements:
a. Planning
b. Assurance
c. Improvement
d. Benchmarking

505. The project management team must be careful not to confuse quality with grade:
a. Grade is a category assigned to products or services having same functional
use but different technical characteristics
b. Low quality may not be a problem; low grade is always a problem
c. Determining and delivering the required levels of quality are not included in
the responsibilities of the project manager and the project team
d. Determining and determining the required levels of grade and not included in
the responsibilities of the project manager and project team
506. A control chart has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT
a.
It is a graphical display of the results, over time, of a process
b.
It is used to determine if the process is "in control"
c.
Illustrates how various factors might be linked to potential problems or
effects
d.
May be used to monitor any type of output variable.

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507. When a product or service satisfies customer requirements:
a.
Quality is achieved
b.
The cost of quality is high
c.
The cost of quality is low
d.
The customer pays the minimum price ,
508.

To what does the following sentence refer? "The concept of optimally quality
level is reached at the point where the incremental revenue from product
improvement equals the incremental cost to secure it."
a.
Quality control analysis
b.
Marginal analysis
c.
Standard quality analysis
d.
Conformance analysis

509.

Who is ultimately responsible for quality management in the project?


a.
Project engineer
b.
Project manager
c.
Quality manager
d.
Team member

510.

A project manager has been overwhelmed with problems on his project. He


would like to identify the root cause of the problem in order to determine where to
focus his attention. Which of the following tools would be BEST for the project
manager to use?
a. Pareto chart
b. Conflict resolution techniques
c Fishbone diagram
d. Trend analysis

511.

A team is using a fishbone diagram to help determine what quality standards will
be used on the project. What part of the quality management processes are they
are in?
a.
Control
b.
Assurance
c.
Planning
d.
Variable analysis

512.Which of the following BEST describes the results of an increase in quality?


a. Increased productivity, increased cost effectiveness, and decreased cost risk
b. Increased productivity, decreased cost effectiveness, and increased cost risk
c. Increased productivity, increased cost effectiveness, and increased cost risk
d. Increased productivity, decreased cost effectiveness, and decreased cost risk
513. From the project perspective, quality attributes:
a. Determine how effectively the performing organization supports the project -

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b. Provide the basis for judging the project's success or failure
c. Are specific characteristics for which a product is designed and tested
d. Are objective criteria that must be met
514.Quality is:
a. Meeting and exceeding the customer's expectations
b. Adding extras to make the customer happy
c. Conformance to requirements and fitness of use
d. Conformance to management's requirements
515.All of the following are not examples of quality assurance EXCEPTa. Inspection
b. Team training
c. Pareto diagram
d. Fishbone diagram
516.Pareto diagrams help the project manager
a. Focus on the most critical issues to improve quality
b. Focus on simulation thinking
c. Explore a desired future outcome
d. Determine "f a process is out of control
517.A control chart helps the project manager:
a. Focus on the most critical issues to improve quality
b. Focus on simulation thinking
c. Explore a desired future outcome
d. Determine if a process is functioning within set limits
518.Testing the entire population would:
a. Take too long
b. Provide more information than wanted
c. Be mutual; exclusive
d. Show more defects
519.All of the following are examples of the cost of non-conformance EXCEPTa. Rework
b. Quality training
c. Scrap
d. Warranty costs
520.Standard deviation is a measure of how:
a. Far the estimate is from the highest estimate
b. Far the measurement is from the mean
c Correct the sample is
d. Much time remains in the project

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521 What percentage of the total distribution are 3 sigma from the mean equal to?
a.
68.26%
b.
99.9%
c.
95.4%
d.
99.7%
522. All of the following are examples of a variable EXCEPT:
a.
Size
b.
Shape
c.
Pounds
d. Weight
523. A control chart shows seven data points in a row on side of the mean. What
should be done?
a.
A design of experiments
b.
Adjust the chart to reflect the new mean
c.
Find an assignable cause
d.
This is the rule of seven and calls for action
524. You are managing a project in a time environment. This will require more
attention, because the amount of inventory in such an environment is generally:
a.
45%
b.
10%
c.
12%
d.
0%
525. An Ishikawa diagram helps to:
a.
Put information in its order of priority
b.
Explore past outcomes
c.
Show team responsibilities
d.
Show functional responsibilities
526. In planning your project, which would generally have the highest priority: quality,
cost or schedule?
a.
Cost is most important, quality is next, and then schedule
b.
Quality is most important than cost and schedule
c.
Schedule is most important, quality next and then cost
d.
It is situational and must be decided by the project objectives
527. A project manager is using a cause-and-effect diagram with the team to
determine how various factors might be linked to potential problems. In which
step of the quality management process is the project manager involved?
a.
Quality analysis
b.
Quality assurance
c.
Quality control
d.
Quality planning

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528.

A project manager and team from a firm that designs railroad equipment are
tasked to design a machine to load stone onto railroad cars. The design allows for
2% spillage, amounting to over two tons of spilled rock per day. In which of the
following does the project manager document quality control, quality assurance
and quality improvements for this project?
a.
Quality management plan
b.
Quality policy
c.
Control charts
d.
Project plan

529.

During a team meeting, the team adds a specific area of extra work to the project
because they have determined it would benefit the customer. What is wrong in
this situation?
a.
The team is gold plating
b.
These efforts shouldn't be done in meetings
c.
Nothing. This is how to meet or exceed customer expectations
d.
Nothing. The project manager is in control of the situation

530. The project team has created a plan describing how they will implement the
quality policy. It addresses the organizational structure, responsibilities,
procedures and other information about plans for quality. If this change during the
project, WHICH of the following plans will also change?
a.
Quality assurance
b.
Quality management
c.
Project
d.
Quality control
531. You are a project manager for a major information systems project when
someone from the quality department comes to see you about beginning a quality
audit of your project. The team, already under pressure to complete the project as
soon as possible, objects to the audits. You should explain to team that purpose of
a quality audit is:
a.
Part of ISO 9000 investigation
b.
To check if the customer is following its quality process
c.
To identify lessons learned that can improve performance on the project
d.
To check the accuracy of costs submitted by the team
532. You are in the middle of a major new facility construction project. The structural
steel is in place and heating conduits are going into place when senior
management informs you that he is worried that the project will not meet the
quality standards. What should you do in this situation?
a.
Assure senior management that during quality planning it was determined the
project would meet the quality standards
b.
Analogous estimate future results
c.
Form quality assurance team

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d.
533.

534.

Check the results from the last quality management plan


You are asked to select tools and techniques to implement a quality assurance
program to supplement existing quality control activities. Which of the following
would you choose?
a.
Quality audits
b.
Statistical sampling
c.
Pareto diagrams
d.
Trend analysis
The new software installation project is in progress. The project manager is
working with the quality assurance department to improve everyone's confidence
that the project will satisfy the quality standards. Which of the following MUST
they have before they start this process?
a.
Quality problems
b.
Quality improvement
c.
Quality control measures
d.
Rework
'

535.

The project you are working on has an increase in cost effectiveness, increased
productivity and morale. What might be the reason for these changes?
a.
Project goals are in line with those of the company
b.
Increased quality
c.
Management's focus on cost containment
d.
Rewards presented for individual efforts

536.

A project manager has just taken over the project from another project manager
during the execution phase. The previous project manager created a project
budget, determined communications requirements and went on to complete work
packages. What should the new project manager do NEXT?
a.
Coordinate performance of work packages
b.
Identify quality standards
c.
Begin risk identification
d.
Execute the project plan
A project is facing a major change to its project deliverables. If the project
manager is involved in determining which quality standards are relevant to
change, the project manager must be involved in:
a.
Quality management
b.
Quality assurance
c.
Quality planning
d.
Quality control

537.

538.

A project team member comes to the project manager during project execution to
tell him that they feel the project cannot meet its quality standards. The project
manager calls a meeting of the affected stakeholders to work through the problem.
Which step of the quality management process is the project manager in?
a.
Quality assurance

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b.
c.
d.

Quality analysis
Quality control
Quality planning

539. At the end of a project, a project manager determines that the project has added
four areas of functionality, and threeareas of performance. The customer has
expressed satisfaction with the project. What does this mean in terms of success
of the project?
a. The project was ah unqualified success
b. The project was unsuccessful because it was gold plated
c.
The project was unsuccessful because the customer being happy they would
have paid for the work
d. The project was successful because the team had a chance to learn new areas
of functionality and the customer was satisfied.

540.

Quality is very important to your company. Each project has a quality statement
that is consistent with the organization's vision and mission. Both internal and
external quality assurance is provided on all projects to:
a. Ensures that the project will employ all processes needed to meet
requirements
b Monitor specific project results to note whether they comply with relevant
standards
c. Identify ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory results
d. Use inspection to keep errors out of the process

541. Benchmarking is a technique used to:


a.
Inspection
b.
Perform root cause analysis
c.
Measure performance
d.
Develop control chart
542. Your project team is working to design and manufacture a "smart zipper" that
never jams. You established a project quality management system and are
performing a project quality management system and are performing both quality
assurance and quality control throughout the project. You recognize that some
rework may be necessary. The term rework, however, is not used in your
organization. You explain that rework is:
a.
Acceptable under certain conditions
b.
An adjustment made that is based on quality control measurements
c.
Action taken to bring nonconforming item into compliance
d.
Not a concern if errors are detected early
543. The functional analysis is used to:
a.
Provide better product definition and product development

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b.
c.
d.

Helps products succeed in the market place


Improve the functional characteristics of a product
Support production planning and the just-in-time approach

544.

Kaoru Ishikawa led the Japanese Union of Scientists and Engineers in its efforts
to introduce methods for quality control. In simplifying techniques so that
workers could understand and apply them he concentrated on seven tools. Which
of the following is not one of the seven tools he made popular?
a.
Pareto chart
b.
Cause-and-effect diagram
c.
Control chart
d.
PERT chart

545.

You are leading a research project that will require between 10 to 20


aerospace engineers. Some senior-level aerospace engineers. They are more
productive than junior-level engineers, who cost less and who are available as
well. You want to determine the optimum combination of senior- and junior-level
personnel. In this situation, the appropriate technique to use is to:
a.
Conduct a design of experiments
b.
Use the Ishikawa diagram to pinpoint the problem
c.
Prepare a control chart
d.
Analyze the process using a Pareto diagram

546 The purpose of the Taguchi is:


a.
Manage the flow of the material for better visibility and control
b.
Use statistical techniques to compute a "loss function" to determine the cost
of producing products that fail to achieve a target value
c.
Design, group, and manage production operations as self-contained flexible
cells capable of start-to-finish processing of a family of items
d.
Regulate coordination and communication among process stages
547. Quality assurance promotes quality improvement. A "breakthrough" is the
accomplishment of any improvement that takes the organization to unprecedented
levels of performance by attacking:
a.
Special causes of variation
b.
Common causes of variances
c.
Inspection over prevention
d.
Specified tolerances
548. Your company, a leading chain of manufacturer of snowmobiles and chainsaws,
is working to develop an interchangeable chain that can be used on both. To
anticipate and help develop approaches to deal with potential quality problems,
you want to use a variety of root-cause analysis techniques including all the
following except:
a.
Fishbone diagrams
b.
Ishikawa diagrams

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c.
d.
549.

Systems or process flowcharts


Checklists

Which of the following statements best describes attribute' sampling versus


Variable sampling?
a.
Attribute sampling is concerned with prevention, whereas variable sampling
is concerned by inspection
b.
Attribute sampling is concerned with conformance, whereas variable
sampling is concerned with the degree of conformity
c.
Attribute sampling is concerned with special causes, whereas variable
sampling is concerned with any causes
d.
Both are the same concepts

550. Constancy of purpose is a core concept for continuous improvement. An


organization displays constant of purpose must have the following elements
except:
a.
Documented and well-disseminated statements of purpose and vision
b.
A set of strategic and tactical plans
c.
An awareness by all members of the organization of the purpose, vision
goals and objectives and their roles in achieving them
d.
Separate quality assurance and control departments reporting to senior
management
551.

Recently your company introduced a new processing system for its products
You were the project manager for this system and now have been asked to lead to
implement needed changes to increase efficiency and productivity To help you
analyze the process, you and your team have decided to use which of the
following techniques'?
a.
Systems flowcharts
b.
Statistically sampling'
c.
Pareto analysis
d.
Control charts

552. When a process in considered to be in control, it:


a.
Should not be adjusted
b.
May not be changes to provide improvements
c.
Shows differences causes by expected events or normal causes
d.
Should not be inspected or reworked for any reason
553. Project quality management was once thought to include only inspection or
quality control. In recent years, the concept of project quality management has
broadened. Which statement is not representative of the new definition of quality
management:
a.
Quality is designed in, not inspected in

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b.
c.
d.

Quality is the concern of the quality assurance staff


Customer requirements are well documented and the processes are
adjusted to satisfy the requirements
National and international standards and guidelines for quality assurance
systems are available

554.

The project team should have working knowledge of the statistical process
control to help conduct quality activities. Of all the topics involved, which of the
following is the most important for the team to understand?
a.
Sampling and probability
b.
Attribute sampling and variable sampling
c.
Tolerances and control limits
d.
Special causes and random causes

555.

Rank ordering of defects should be used to guide corrective action This is


underlying principle behind:
a.
Trend analysis
b.
Inspections
c.
Control charts
d.
Pareto charts

556.

Long-term contracting is an important aspect of project quality management


because it:
a. Provides incentives to vendors to make quality commitments
b. Improves quality through the use fo benefit-cost analysis
c. Usually results in lower costs and increased productivity.
d. Provides for mandatory audits.

557.

Based on quality control measurements on your manufacturing project,


Management realizes that immediate corrective action is required to the material
Requirement Planning (MRP) system to prevent the necessary changes you
should
a. The organizations quality policy
b. The Quality management plan
c. Established operational definitions and procedures
d. Procedures for integrated change control

558.

In order to monitor the number of errors or defects that have been identified and
the number that remain undetected, you should:
a. Design an experiment
b. Use a checklist
c. Conduct a trend analysis
d. Perform an audit

559.

Your quality assurance department recently performed a quality audit of your

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project and identified a number of findings and recommendations. One
recommendation Seems critical and should be implemented because it affects
successful delivery of the Product to your customer. If the recommendation is not
implemented, the product will not conform to requirements. Your next step
should be to:
a. Call a meeting of your project team to see who is responsible for the problem
b. Reassign the team member who had responsibility for oversight of the problem
c. Perform product rework immediately
d. Issue a change request to implement the needed corrective action
560.

561.

You are the Project manager on a project to improve traffic flow in the company's
Parking garage. You decide to use flowcharting to:
a. Help analyze how problems occur
b. Show dependencies between tasks
c. Show the results of the process
d. Forecast future outcomes
You are managing a major international project to organize off track betting in
Your clients hotels. Your contract requires you to prepare both a project plan and
a quality management plan. Your core team is preparing quality management
plan is to :
a. Determine specific metrics to use in the quality management process
b. Identify the quality standards for the project
c. Develop the quality policy for the project
d. Identify specific quality management roles and responsibilities for the project

562.

Six sigma refers to the aim of setting tolerance limits of 6 standard deviations
from the mean, whereas the normally expected deviation of the process isa.
1 sigma deviation
b.
2 sigma deviation
c.
3 sigma deviation
d.
Undeterminable because of the unique nature of every process

563.

You recognize the importance of quality control on your project However you
also know that quality control has costs associated with it and that the project has
a limited budget. One way to reduce the cost of quality control is to:
a.
Work to ensure that the overall quality program is ISO compliant
b.
Use statistical sampling
c.
Conduct inspections throughout the process
d.
Use trend analysis

564. The continuous improvement process provides a way for organization to create
and sustain a culture of continuous improvement. As such, it should be directed
by
a.
The project manager
b.
Top management
c.
Employees participating in quality circles

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d.

Stakeholders

565. Quality inspections also may be called:


a.
Control tests
b.
Walkthrough's
c.
Statistical sampling
d.
Checklists
566. Your management has prescribed that a quality audit be conducted at the end of
every phase in a project. This audit is part of the organization's:
a.
Quality assurance process
b.
Quality control process
c.
Quality improvement program
d.
Process adjustment program

567.

Recently your company introduced a new set of "metal woods" to its established
line of golfing equipment. The product launch was spectacular. However in the
past weeks many of the clubs have been returned due to quality problems You
decide to conduct a failure mode and critically analysis to:
a.
Analyze the product development cycle after product release to determine
strength and weaknesses
b. Evaluate failure modes and causes associated with the design and
manufacturing of an existing product
c. Evaluate failure modes and causes associated with the design and
manufacturing of a new product
d. Help management set priorities in its existing manufacturing processes to
avoid failures

568.

The "rule of seven" as applied to statistical process control charts means that:
a.
Seven rejects typically occur per thousand inspections
b.
Seven consecutive measurements are ascending, descending, or the same
c.
At least seven inspectors should be in place for every thousand employees
d.
A process is not out of control even though seven measurements fall outside
the lower and upper limits.

569.

You are the project manager for residential construction. As a project manager,
you must be especially concerned with building codes; particularly in the quality
planning process. You must ensure that building codes are reflected in your
project plans because:
a.
Standards and regulations as an input to quality planning
b.
Quality audits serve to ensure there is compliance with regulations
c.
They are a cost associated with quality initiatives
d.
Compliance with standards is the primary objective of quality control

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570.

You work as a project manager in the largest hospital in the region. Studies have
shown that patients have to wait for long periods before being treated. To assist in
identifying the factors contributing to this problem, you and your team have
decided to use which of the following techniques:
a.
Cause-and-effect diagrams
b.
Pareto analysis
c.
Scatter diagrams
d.
Control charts

571. The ISO 9000 standards provide:


a.
A description of how products should be produced
b.
Specifics for the implementation of quality systems
c.
A framework for quality systems
d.
The maximum process requirements necessary to ensure that customers
receive a good product.
572.

To use statistical control effectively, the project team should know the differences
between:
a.
Prevention and quality control
b.
Special cause and random causes
c.
Attribute sampling and statistical sampling
d.
Control limits and operational sampling

573.

Having recently returned from a company-sponsored trip to Japan, you have


become an ardent supporter of Imai-san's kaizen philosophy of quality. Even
though your project is vastly different from a manufacturing operation, the
principles of kaizen will work well. The kaizen approach to continuous
improvement emphasizes:
a.
The greater importance of customer satisfaction over cost
b.
Radical changes in operating practices
c.
Incremental improvement
d.
The use of quality circles to improve morale

574.

Your company is establishing a cost-of-quality approach to determine the relative


importance of its quality problems. When setting up this approach, you were
asked to categorize four types of costs: prevention, appraisal, internal failure, and
external failure. As you examine the cost of quality, however, you realize that
training and its associated costs have become a major factor. Training costs are
included in which one of the following areas?
a.
Prevention cost
b.
Appraisal costs
c.
Internal failure costs
d.
External failure costs

575.

You recently completed a food service assessment project of the company dining
facility. You found a number of problems, including empty venting machines,

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discourteous employees, long waits, poor menu variety, and high prices. You
decide to use a Pareto diagram to display your findings because it is an excellent
way to:
a.
Show how many results were generated, by type or category of identified
cause
b.
Forecast future outcomes based on historical results
c.
Show which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome
d.
Show how various causes and sub causes combine to create potential
problems of effects
576. Results of quality control testing and measurement are used:
a.
As an input to quality planning
b.
To operate an operational definition
c.
To prepare a control chart
d.
As an input to quality assurance
577.

Statistical sampling is a method to determine the conformance to requirements


for some component or product of a project, its greatest advantage is that it:
a.
Does not require a large expenditure of resources
b.
Is accurate enough with a sampling of less that 1%
c.
Does not require 100% inspection of components to achieve a satisfactory
inference of the population
d.
Needs to be conducted only when a problem is discovered with the end
product or when the customer has some rejects

578. The control chart is a tool used primarily to help:


a.
Monitor process variations over time
b.
Measure the degree of conformance to specification
c.
Determine whether results conform to agreed schedule
d.
Determine whether results conform to requirements
579. The quality management plan describes all of the following except the:
a.
Method for implementing the quality policy
b
Project quality system
c.
Organizational structure, responsibilities, processes, and resources needed
to implement project quality management
d.
Procedures used to conduct trade-offs analysis among cost, schedule, and
quality
580 Quality metrics describes:
a What something is and how the quality control processes measure it
b
Process boundaries: the purpose, start, and the end of processes, their inputs
and outputs, data required, and stakeholders of processes
c.
Cost of quality
d.
Cost-benefit analysis

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PROJECT HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT


581.

In acquiring project team members from all available sources, all of the following
characteristics should be evaluated EXCEPT:
a.
Availability
b.
Political philosophy
c.
Previous experience
d.
Competencies

582. Project human resource planning determines project:


a.
Roles
b.
Responsibilities
c.
Reporting relationship
d.
Political philosophy
583. It is important that the staffing management plan address to when and how human
resource requirements will be met for all the following reasons EXCEPT:
a.
To assess the costs associated with each expertise needed
b.
To improve morale
c.
To control resources
d.
To protect team members from safety hazards
584.
a.
b.
c.
d.

One of the team development techniques is, reorganization and rewards systems.
It should have the following characteristics, EXCEPT
Considers activities and performance under a person's control.
Promote and reinforce desired behaviors
Consider cultural differences
Considers performance not under a person's control.

585.

Collocation is one of the techniques to develop project team. Purpose of


collocation is:
a.
To enhance project team members ability to perform as a team
b.
To reduces individual's chances of recognition and rewards
c.
Acquire efficient project team members
d.
Activity resource estimating

586.

For a large, complex project with cross-functional project needs- the following
organizational structure gives a considerable authority for the project manager:
a.
A strong matrix organization
b.
A project coordinator
c.
A project expediter
d.
A functional organization

587. Project Human Resource Management is divided into:


a.
Leadership, team building- and negotiation

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b.
c.
d.

Recruitment, labor relations, and personnel administration


Team building- communication, and labor relations
HR planning, acquire project team, develop project team. and manage
project team

588.

Inputs, tools and techniques to acquire project team include all of the following
EXCEPT:
a. Staffing management plan
b. Roles and responsibilities
c. Training
d. Negotiation
589. All of the following are outputs of HR Planning EXCEPT:
a. Project organization charts
b. Staffing management plan
c. Roles and responsibilities
d. Resource breakdown structure
590.A key barrier to team development is:
a. A strong matrix management structure
b. When major problems delay the project completion date or budget targets
c. When members are accountable to both functional and project managers
d. When formal training plans cannot be implemented
591.

All of the following statements about the level of authority of the project manager
are true EXCEPT:
a. It varies considerably from company to company
b. It is dependent on corporate policies
c. It is determined by senior management
d. It is weak in a strong matrix organization

592.The Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM):


a. Is primarily used for development of the project budget
b. Is normally developed at the activity level and used to closely link project roles
and responsibilities to project network activities
c. Is often used to closely link project roles and responsibilities to WBS
d. Is mainly used to identify accountabilities in individual performance appraisals
593. Recourse Histograms have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
a. Always show that the project has insufficient resources to be completed on
schedule
b. Are often included in the staffing management plan
c. Illustrates the number of hours that a person will be needed each week. or
month over the course of the project
d. May be used for resource leveling
594. Team building activities have all the following characteristics EXFEPT:
a.
Process of developing WBS can increase team cohesiveness
b.
Should only be considered after major conflicts within the project team,

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since they generally waste precious resource time and cause schedule delays
c.
Many actions, such as establishing ground rules for surfacing and dealing
conflict, may enhance team performance as a secondary effect
d.
Can vary from five-minute agenda item in a regular status review meeting
to an off-site, professionally facilitated experience designed to improve
interpersonal relationship among stakeholders
.
595. Training has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
a.
Includes all activities designed to enhance the. competencies of the project
team members
b.
May be formal, such as classroom training and computer-based training, or
informal, such as from other team member
c.
If the project team members lack the necessary management or technical
skills, the project should be abandoned and deemed outside the core
competencies of the performing organization
d.
If the project team members lack the necessary management or technical
skills, such skills can be developed as part of the project work.
596.

Team performance improvements can come from many sources and can affect
many areas of project performance, including all of the following EXCEPT:
a.
Assisting one another when workloads are unbalanced
b.
Communicating in ways that fit individual preferences
c.
Increase the intensity of conflict among project team members
d.
Sharing information and resources

597.

All of the following are forms of power derived from the project manager's
position EXCEPT:
a.
Formal
b.
Reward
c.
Penalty
d.
Expert

598. The highest point of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is called:


a.
Physiological satisfaction
b.
Attainment of survival
c.
Need for association
d.
Esteem
599. The "halo effect" refers to the tendency to:
a.
Promote from within
b.
Hire the best
c.
Move people into project management position because they are good in
their technical field
d.
Move people into project management because they have had project
management training.

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600. An obstacle to team building in a matrix organization is that the:
a. Team organization is technically focused
b. Team members are borrowed resources and can be hard to motivate
c. Teams are too centralized
d. Teams are too large and therefore very hard
601.

All of the following are typical concerns of team members while working in a
matrix organization EXCEPT:
a. Wondering who will handle their evaluations
b. Multiple bosses
c. Obtaining commitments
d. Computing fringe benefits when working on multiple projects

602.

Which of the following conflict resolution techniques will generate the MOST
lasting solution?
,
a. Forcing
b. Smoothing
c. Compromise
d. Problem solving

603.

Which type of organization is BEST for managing projects involving cross


disciplinary efforts?
"
a. Projectized
-'
b. Functional
c. Link
d. Matrix

604.

The MOST common cause of conflict on a project are schedules, project priorities
and:
a. Personalities
b. Resources
c. Cost
d. Management

605.

What conflict resolution technique is a project manager using when he says. "1
cannot deal with this issue now!"
a. Problem solving
b. Forcing
c. Withdrawal
d. Compromise

606.What does a Gantt chart show that a responsibility matrix does not?
a. Time
b. Tasks
c. Interrelations
d. The person in charge of each task

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607. You have been assigned as project manager for a large telecommunications
project. This one-year project is about halfway done. The project team consists of
five sellers and twenty of your company's employees. You want to understand
who is responsible for doing what on the project. Where would you find such
information?
a.
Responsibility matrix
b.
Resource histogram
c.
Gantt chart
d.
Project organization chart
608.

a.
b.
c.
d.

During project planning in a matrix organization, the project manager determines


that additional human resources are needed. From whom would he request these
resources?
Project manager
Functional manager
Team
Project sponsor

609.

A project manager must publish a project' schedule. Activities, start/end times and
resources are identified. What should the project manager do NEXT?
a.
Distribute the project schedule according to the communications plan
b.
Confirm the availability of the resources
c.
Refine the project plan to reflect more accurate costing information
d.
Publish a Gantt illustrating the timeline.

610.

During every project team meeting, the project manager asks each team member
to describe the work he or she is doing, and the project manager assigns new tasks
to team members. The length of these meetings has increased because there are
many different tasks to assign. This could be happening for all the following
reasons EXCEPT:
a.
Lack of WBS
b.
Lack of responsibility matrix
c.
Lack of resource leveling
d.
Lack of involvement in project planning

611.

You are a project manager leading a cross-functional project team in a weak


matrix environment. None of your project team members report to you
functionally and you do not have the ability to directly reward their performance.
The project is difficult, involving tight date constraints and challenging quality
standards. Which of the following types of project management power will likely
be MOST effective in this circumstance?
a.
Referent
b.
Expert
c.
Penalty
d.
Formal

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612.

A team is not performing well on the project because she is inexperienced in


system development work. There is no else available who is better qualified to do
the work. What is the BEST solution for the project manager?
a.
Consult with the functional manager to determine project completion
incentives for the team member
b.
Obtain a new resource more skilled in development work
c.
Arrange for the team member to get trained
d.
Allocate some of the project schedule reserve

613.

A project manager has just found out that a major subcontractor for her project is
consistent late delivering work. The project team member responsible for this part
of the project does not get along with the subcontractor. To resolve the problem,
the project manager says, "You both will have to give up something to solve this
problem." What conflict resolution mode is she using?
a.
Confrontation
(
b.
Compromise
c.
Smoothing
d.
Communicating

614.

A project has several teams. Team C has repeatedly missed deadlines in the past.
This has caused team D to have to crash the critical path several times. As the
project leader for team D, you should meet with the:
a. Manager of the team D
b. Project manager alone
c. Project manager and management
d. Project manager and the team C leader

615. On his first project assignment as project manager, the project manager
encounters disagreements among highly technical team members. How would the
project manager BEST deal with the conflict?
a. He should listen to the differences of opinions, determine what is the best
choice, and implement that choice
b. He should postpone further discussions, meet with each individual, and
determine the best approach
c. He should listen to the differences of opinions, encourage logical discussions,
and facilitate an agreement
d. He should help the team focus on agreeable aspects of their opinions and build
unity by using relaxation techniques and common focus team building
616.

A project manager has just been hired and is trying to gain the cooperation of
others. What is the best form of power for gaining cooperation under these
circumstances?
a.
Formal
b.
Referent
c.
Penalty

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d.

Expert

617. A project manager is trying to settle dispute between two team members. One
says the systems should be integrated before testing, and other maintains each
system should be tested before integration. The project involves over thirty
people, and twelve systems need to be integrated. What is the BEST statement the
project manager can make to resolve the conflict?
a.
Do it my way
b. Let's calm down and get the job done
c.
Let's deal with this again next week after we all calm down
d. Let's test one system after integration and one before integration and see if
there are any differences
618.

A project is in the middle of execution when a project stakeholder suggests a


minor new change. This change will cause the third major overhaul of the project.
At the same time the project manager discovers that a major task was not
completed because a team member's boss moved them to another project that had
a higher priority. Which of the following is the best person for the project
manager to address these issues with?
a.
Team
b.
Sponsor
c.
Customer
d.
Senior management

619.

Instructions for the construction of the concrete footings were poorly translated
between the different languages in use on the project. Which of the following is
the BEST thing the project manager to do?
a.
Call the team together for a meeting to determine what to do
b.
Do nothing, the work is now done and the problem has gone away
c.
Ask management for help
d.
Fix the problem himself.

620.

You have been assigned as a project manager on what could be a "bet the
company" project. You realize that to be successful you need to exercise
maximum control over project resources. Which form of project organization
should you establish for this project?
a.
Strong matrix
b.
Projectized
c.
Project coordinator
d.
Weak matrix

621. Which of the following is a ground rule for project team building?
a.
Do frequent performance appraisals
b.
Ensure that each team member reports to his or her functional manager in
addition to the project manager

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c.
d.

Start early
Try to solve team political problems.

622.

Project A is being administrated using a matrix form of organization. The project


manager reports to a senior vice president who provides visible support to the
project. In this scenario, which of the following statements best describes the
relative power of the project manager?
a.
The project manager will probability not be challenged by project
stakeholders
b.
In this strong matrix, the balance of power is shifted to the functional line
managers
c.
In this tight matrix, the balance of power is shifted to the project manager
d.
In this strong matrix, the balance of power is shifted to the project manager

623.

Because of your experience, management has asked you to lead a team to


recommend an equitable reward and recognition system for project managers.
Before finalizing the plan, you want to ensure executives understand the basic
objectives of reward systems. This objective is to:
a.
Be comparable with the award system established for functional managers
to indicate parity and to show the importance of project management to the
company
b.
Make the link between project performance and reward clear, explicit, and
achievable
c.
Motivate project managers to work toward common objectives and goals as
defined by the company
d.
Attract people to join the organization's project management career path

624. Which of the following factors contributes the most to team


a.
External feedback
b.
Performance appraisal
c.
Smoothing over of team conflicts by the project manager
d.
Collocation
625. You are managing a virtual team. Your team members all work in different
geographical locations and will meet for several months, and you have a strong
feeling that your team members do not view themselves as a team or unified
group. To help rectify this situation, you should:
a.
Ensure that every member of the project team uses e-mail as a form of
communication
b.
Mandate that the team follow the vision and mission statement of his or her
organization
c.
Create symbols and structures that solidify the unity of the dispersed work
group
d.
Provide team members with the latest in communications technology and
mandate its use

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626. Major difficulties arise when multiple projects need to be managed in functional
organizational structure because of:
a. The level of authority of the project manager
b. Conflicts over the relative priorities of different projects in competition for
limited resources
c. Project team members who focused on their functional specialty rather than
on the project
d. The need for the project manager to use interpersonal skills to resolve
conflicts informally
627.

The team you have organized for a new project consists of three people who will
work full-time and five people who will support the project on a part-time basis.
All team members know one another and have worked in the past. To ensure a
successful project start-up, your first step should be:
a.
Meet with each team member individually to discuss assignments
b.
Prepare a responsibility assignment matrix and distribute it to each team
member
c.
Distribute the project plan and WBS to the team
d.
Hold a project kickoff meeting

628. The primary result of effective team development is:


a. Improved project performance
b. An effective, smoothly running team
c. An understanding by the project team members that the project manager is
ultimately responsible for the project performance
d. Enhancement of the ability of stakeholders to contribute as individuals and
team members
629.

Given that your neighbors, you and the CEO of your company have established a
friendly personal relationship. This fact has not gone unnoticed by your peers and
associates. Recently, your company appointed you project manager for a new
project that is crucial to achieving next year's financial targets. Which type of
power available to project managers might be able to rely on?
aReferent
b.
Reward
c.
Formal
d.
Expert

630.

The team members on your project have been complaining that they do not have
any sense of identity as a team because they are located in different areas of the
building. To remedy this situation, you developed a project logo and had it
printed on T-shirts to promote the project, but this action has not worked. Your
next step is to:
a. Initiate a newsletter
b. Create an air of mystery about the project
c. Establish a "war room"

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d. Issue guidelines on how team members should interact with other stakeholders
631. Two team members on your current construction project are engaged in a major
argument concerning storm window installation. They refuse to listen to each other.
Although to hit is March and hurricane season does not begin until June, a freak storm is
Expected to hit your area in less than 8 hours. Windows must be installed now or the
Entire project is in jeopardy. The most appropriate conflict resolution approach for you to
Except this situation is:
a. Accommodating
b. Compromising
c. Collaborating
d. Boring
632. The project team directory is documented in which of the following process?
a.
Team development
b.
Project staff assignments
c.
Organizational planning
d.
Team identification
633.

Team-building activities include management and individual actions taken


specifically and primarily to improve team performance. Many of these actions
may enhance team performance as a secondary effect. An example of some action
that may enhance team performance as secondary effect is:
a.
Establishing team performance goals and holding off-site retreats to review
ways of best achieving these goals
b.
Collocating all team members in a single physical locations
c.
Establishing a team-based reward and recognition system
d.
Involving non-management-level team members in the planning process

634.

Your project has been under way from some time, but indicators show that it is in
troubles. You have observed all the following symptoms of bad teamwork in your
project team except:
a.
Frustration
b.
Excessive meetings
c.
Lack of trust or confidence in the project manager
d.
Unproductive meetings

635. A management style characterized by little or no information flowing up or down


between the project team is called:
a.
Egocentric
b.
Democratic
c.
Participative
d.
Laissez-faire
636.

As a project manager, you realize that managing team is essential for project
success. Therefore, you want to review the performance within which your team

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operates. This information can be found in the:
a.
Team charter
b.
Performance reports
c.
Staffing management plan
d.
Organizational policies and guidelines
637.

In both the weak and strong matrix organizational structures, the primary
condition leading to conflict is:
a.
Communication barriers
b.
Conflicting interests
c.
Need of consensus
d.
Ambiguous jurisdictions

638. Your project management work has taught you that you are primarily responsible
for implementing the project plan by authorizing the execution of project activities and
tasks to produce project deliverables. Because you do not work in a purely projectized
organization, however, you do not have direct access to human resource administrative
activities. Therefore you need to:
a.
Outsource these functions
b.
Prepare a project team charter that is signed-off by a member of the human
resource department to delineate responsibilities

c.
Increasingly formal procedures will need to be used, including the possible
use of disciplinary actions.
d.
Ask the head of the human resources to approve your project staffing plan
personally
639. Constant bickering, absenteeism, and substandard performance have characterized
the behavior of certain member?, of your team. You have panned a gathering in
the local mountains for the team to engage in a variety of activities. Your primary
objective for investing time and money in this event is to improve:
a.
Team performance
b.
Morale
c.
Quality
d.
Individual performance
640.

Sharma proposed an action that would improve overall project quality with minor
cost increase. Rao recommended an approach that would shorten the project
schedule, but reduce product features. Increasing quality and accelerating the
schedule are critical from your point of view. Although you believe that Sharma
and Rao could learn from each other, they typically like to agree to disagree. You
need a conflict resolution method that provides a long-term resolution. You
decide to use which one of the following approaches?
a.
Confronting
b.
Problem solving
c.
Collaboration
d.
Smoothing

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641. A constraining factor that may affect the organization of the project team is:
a.
b.
c.
d.

The organization structure of the performing organization


Poor communication among team members
Ambiguous staffing requirements
Team morale

642.

As a project manager, you believe in using a "personal touch" to further team


development. One approach that has proven effective toward this goal is:
a.
Creating a team name
b.
Providing flexible work time
c.
Issuing a project charter
d.
Celebrating special occasion

643.

Team development on a project is often complicated when individual team


members are accountable to both a functional manger and the project relationship.
Effective management of this dual reporting relationship is generally the
responsibility of the:
a.
Team members involved
b.
Project manager
c.
Project owner or sponsor
d.
Functional manager

644.

You are project manager for a 2-year project, now beginning its second year. The
mix of team members has changed. In addition, several of the completed work
packages have not received the required sign-offs. With the unplanned departure
of one of the key team member, three work packages are 5 weeks behind
schedule. You do not seem to know who is responsible for many project
activities. To gain control of his project, you need to:
a.
Re-baseline your original staffing management plan with current resource
requirements
b.
Change to a projectized organizational structure for maximum control over
resource assignments
c.
Work with your team to prepare a responsibility assignment matrix
d.
Create a new division of labor by assigning technical leads to the most
critical activities

645. You are part of a team that is working to develop a new medical implant device.
Your project manager is an expert in medical implantation devices. Although his
knowledge of the subject is vast, he continually seeks opinions from the team
about a wide variety or project and product issues. Team members often run
project team meetings while he sits silently at the head of the table. His most
likely response to a question is "What do you think we should do?" which one of
the following best characterizes his leadership style?
a.
Laissez-faire

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b.
c.
d.

Team directed
Collaborative
Shared leadership -

646. The major difference between the project coordinator and the project expediter
forms of organization is that:
a.
Strong commitment to the project usually does not exist in the project
expeditor for of the organization
b.
The project coordinator cannot personally make or enforce decisions
c.
The project expediter acts only as an intermediary between management
and the project team
d.
The project coordinator reports to the higher-level manager in the
organization
647.

Which of the following represents a constraint on the staff acquisition process?


a.
Pre-assigned of the staff to the project
b.
Recruitment practices of the organizations involved
c.
Use of outsourcing
d.
Team member training requirements

648.

During a recent status meeting for your project, one team member was critical of
others and seemed to try to diminish their status on the team. This person was
assuming which of the following destructive team roles?
a.
Recognition seeker
b.
Blocker
c.
Aggressive
d.
Dominator

649.

Each of 10 stakeholders has a copy of the project plan. In project review


meetings, many of which are attended by a majority of the stakeholders, the plan
is used as a baseline for performance measurement. Many stakeholders vocalize
their concerns at these meetings and constantly emphasize their interests to ensure
the project satisfies their requirements. External feedback such as this is:
a.
A requirement of the project's team charter
b.
An input to team development
c.
An item in the project's stakeholder management plan
d.
An output of the organizational planning process

650.

A project manager who generally makes decisions without considering


information provided by team members is using which management style?
a.
Laissez-faire
b.
Autocratic
c.
Bureaucratic
d.
Judicious '
Your organization is adopting a project-based approach, to business. The

651.

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change, however, has been very difficult. Although project teams have been
created, they are little more than a collection of functional and technical experts
who focus on their specialties. You are managing the company's most important
project. The CEO told you she would allow you all the resources you need to
complete the job on time. As you begin this project, you must place a high
priority on:
a Creating an effective team
b.
Identifying the resources needed to finish the project on time
c.
The best way to communicate status to the CEO
d.
Establishing firm project requirements
652. In organizing a project, a project manager must deal with conflict. Which
statement is true regarding conflict in projects?
a.
A matrix form of organization can produce a lack of clear role definitions
and lead to ambiguous jurisdictions between and among functional leaders
and project managers
b.
Sources of conflict include project priorities, PERT/CPM schedules,
contract administrative procedures, and type of contract.
c.
Conflict is avoided whenever possible
d.
Strong matrix project managers have few human resource conflicts, because
they can dictate their needs to functional managers.
653. The terms strong matrix, balanced matrix, and weak matrix when applied to the
matrix structure in project organization refer to:
a.
Ability of the organization to achieve goals
b.
Physical proximity of the project team members to one over another and to
the project manager
c.
Degree of authority the project manager has over team resources
d.
Degree to which team members bond together
654.

The chances for successful completion of a multidisciplinary project are increased


if project team members are:
a.
Problem oriented
b.
Politically sensitive to top management's needs
c.
Focused on individual project activities
d.
Focused on customer demands

655. Team development is based on the:


a.
Organizational structure of the project
b.
Training provided to the project team
c.
Individual development of each team member
d.
Project's organizational climate of cooperation, open communication, and
trust
656.

When choosing the most appropriate form of the project organization, the first
step is to:

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a.
b.
c.
d.

Create the WBS and let it determine the project organizational structure
Produce an initial project plan and determine the functional areas
responsible for each task
Refer to the project charter developed by top management
Develop a project schedule, including a top-down flow chart, and identify the
functional areas to perform each task

657.

The key way for a project manager to promote optimum team performance in
project teams whose members are not collocated is to:
a.
Build trust
b.
Establish a reward and recognition system
c.
Obtain the support and functional managers in the other locations
d.
Exercise his or her right to control all aspects of the project

658.

Conflicts in which of the following three areas represent over 50% of all project
conflicts?
a.
Personalities, cost objectives, and schedules
b.
Cost objectives, administrative procedures, and schedules
c.
Schedules, project priorities, and personnel resources
d.
Personalities, project priorities, and cost objectives

659.

You are outsourcing a part of your project's activities. No team members have
contract administration experience, and no contracts department staff can be
assigned to the project. You must provide two team members with project
procurement management training whose costs should be:
a.
Paid for by the performing organization
b.
Charged directly to the project budget
c.
Paid for by the procurement department
d.
Considering an input to cost budgeting
PROJECT COMMUNICATION MANAGEMENT

660.

The major process of project communication management are:


a.
Communications planning, information distribution, performance reporting,
and manage stakeholders
b. Communications planning, risk response planning, and information
distribution
c. Communication planning, information distribution, performance reporting,
and stakeholder analysis
d. Communication planning, change reporting, progress reports, and formal
acceptance

661. The three major types of communications are:


a.
Sentence structure, oral, and thoughts
b.
Written, body language, and meeting of minutes,
c.
Oral, written, and body language

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d.

Verbal, formal documentation, and informal documentation

662. A communication management plan provides all the following EXCEPT:


a.
The information that shall be distributed to the stakeholders
b.
The reason for the distribution of that information
c.
How often the information will be distributed
d.
All memos, correspondence, reports, and documents related to the project
from all personnel
663. Inputs to communication planning include:
a.
Project scope statement, lessons learnt, enterprise environmental factors,
constraints, and assumptions
b.
Stakeholder requirements, project logistics, and project schedule
c.
Stakeholder analysis, communication barriers, and organizational structure
d.
Stakeholder survey, RAM, WBS, and administrative procedures
664.

Manual filing systems, video and web conferencing, and project management
software are examples of;
a.
Information distribution methods
b.
Communication skills
c.
Verbal communication
d.
Stakeholder requirements

665. Communications technology factors include all the following EXCEPT


a.
Length of the Project
b.
Executive requirements
c.
Availability of technology
d.
Urgency of the need for information
666.

Tools and techniques for performance reporting include a!! of the following
EXCEPT:
a.
Spreadsheet analysis
b.
Decision tree analysis
c Project management software
d.
Status review meetings

667. The sender is responsible for:


a.
Ensuring the receiver agrees with the message
b.
Confirming that the message sent is properly understood
c.
Presenting the message is the most favorable manner
d.
Interpreting the message correctively
668.

The communication planning process determines the information and


communications needs of the stakeholders that typically includes all the following
a.
Who needs what information- when they need !t- how it will be given to

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b.
c.
d.
669.

them, and by whom


Identifying information needs of the stakeholders
Communication planning is done as part of the later project phases
Determining a suitable means of meeting stakeholders needs

Formal procedure for acceptance of the fina1 Product, service, or result


Deliverables by the customer or sponsor of the project should be prepared and
And distributed.
a.
As part of the 'close project' process.
b.
Following the procedure as outlined in quality management plan
c.
As directed by the upper management.
d.
As per the discretion of the project manager.

670. Your schedule analysis has shown that your project has a high likelihood of
experiencing a schedule overrun. You know this because the EV is much
a.
Higher than the AC.
b.
Higher than the PV.
c.
Lower than the PV.
d.
Higher than the CPI.
671.

Which of the following choices indicates that your project was about 10% under
budget
a.
The AC was 100, and the EV was 110.
b.
The PC was 100, and the AC was 110.
c.
The AC was 110, and the EV was 100.
d.
The EV was 100, and the PV was 110.

672. Earned value technique can be best defined as


a.
Analysis of the value of the equipment that has been installed as of the data
b.
Analysis of the sum of the labor costs, which have been incurred on the
project to
c.
A method of measuring project performance.
d.
A method of measuring the amount of money that has been spent to date.
673.

During the sixth monthly update on a ten-month. Rs 30 000 project the analysis
shows that the PV is Rs. 10,000 the EV is also determined to be Rs 15,000. all of
following can be ascertained from the following EXCEPT:
a.
Less has been accomplished than was planned
b.
Less has been spent than planned
c.
To complete the project on schedule, costs will exceed budget
d.
The project will probably complete behind schedule, but under budget

674. In earned value analysis; cost variance is computes as;


a. EV less PV
b. EV less AC
c. AC less EV

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d. PV less EV
675. Earned value (EV) includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Percentage complete
b. Actual cost
c. Completed work value
d. Budgeted cost of work performed (BCWP)
676. If PV=100, EV=98, and AC=104, the project is :
a. Ahead of schedule
b. Headed for a cost overrun
c. Operating at project cost projections
d. Likely to come in under budget at completion.
Data for questions 18 19
Item
1
2
3
4

PV
10,000
9,000
8,000
7,000

AC
11,000
8,000
8,000
7,000

EV
10,000
7,000
8,000
5,000

677. which item is MOST over budget?


a. Item 1
b. Item 2
c. Item 3
d. Item 4
678. which item has the lowest SPI?
a. Item 1
b. Item 2
c. Item 3
d. Item 4
679. As part of communications skills, the receiver is responsible for:
a. Agreeing with sender's message
b. Pretending that the message is received only partially, to encourage further
discussions.
c. Ensuring that the information is received in its entirely and understood
correctively
d. Specifying that the message is not understood, unless it is reduced to writing
680.

Performance reporting involves collecting of all baseline data and distribution


Of performance information to stakeholders. This generally provides all the
following EXCEPT:
a. How resources are being used to achieve project objectives

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b. Information about, schedule, cost, quality, risk and procurement
c. Communication technology.
d. Status, progress, and earned value analysis data
681.

Communication skills has many dimensions that generally include all of the
Following EXCEPT:
a. Written and oral, listening, and speaking
b. Internal and external
c. Conceptual and definitive
d. Vertical and horizontal

682.

Extensive use of communication is most likely to aid in solving complex


problems
a. Verbal
b. Written
c. Formal
d. Nonverbal

683.

The work breakdown structure can be effective aid for communication in which
Situation(s)?
a . internal within the project team
b. Internal within the performing organization
;
c. External with the customer
d. Internal and external stakeholders to the project

684.

Conflict resolution techniques may be used on a project include confrontation,


smoothing, forcing and:
a. Withdrawing
b. Directing
c. Organizing
d. Controlling

685.The MOST likely result of communication blockers is thata. The project is delayed
b. Trust level is enhanced
c. Conflict occurs
d. Senior management is displeased
686. Communication are often enhanced when the sender ____the receiver.
a. Speaks up to
b. Uses more physical movements when talking to
c. Talks slowly to
d. Shows concern for the perspective of
687. Formal written correspondence with the customer is required when:
a. Defects are detected

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b. The customer requests additional work not covered under contract
c. The project has a schedule slippage that includes changes to the critical path.
d. The project has cost overruns.
688. A project manager has a problem with a particular team members performance.
What is BEST form of communication for addressing this problem?
a. Formal written communication
b. Formal verbal communication
c. Informal written communication
d. Informal verbal communication
689. Communication under a contract should tend towards:
a.
Formal written communication
b.
Formal verbal communication
c.
Informal written communication
d.
Informal verbal communication
690. The project status report is an example of which form of communication'?
a. . Formal written communication
b.
Formal verbal! communication
c.
Informal written communication
d.
Informal verbal communication
691 When a project manager is engaged in negotiations, nonverbal communication
skills are of:
a.
Little important
b.
Major important
c.
Importance only when cost and schedule objectives are involved
d.
Importance only to ensure you win the negotiation
692.

A large, one-year telecommunications project is about halfway done when you


take the place of the previous project manager. The project involves three
different sellers and a project team of 30 people. You would like to see the
project's communication requirements and what technology is being used to aid in
project communications. Where will you find this information?
a.
The project management plan
b.
The information distribution plan
c.
The Gantt chart
d.
The communications management plan

693. Contract close out is similar to close project in that they both involvea.
Scope verification
b.
Kickoff meetings
c.
Quality assurance activities
d.
Creation of the scope verification plan

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694. An output of close project process is the creation of:
a.
Administrative and contract closure procedures
b.
A project charter
c.
A project management plan
d.
A risk management plan
695. All of the following are part of administrative closure procedures FXCEPT
a.
Actions and activities to define the stakeholder approval requirements for
changes and all levels of deliverables
b.
Actions and activities that are necessary to confirm that the project has met
all sponsor, customer, and other stakeholders' requirements verify that all
deliverables have been provided.
c.
Actions and activities necessary to satisfy completion or exit criteria for the
project
d
Benefit/cost analysis
696. A project is not completed until?
a.
The work is completed
b.
Formal acceptance is received
c.
The customer is satisfied
d.
Lessons learned are completed
697. You have been working on a very large software development project that has
made use of over 230 people. Finally, all scope of work is completed It would be
BEST to?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Throw a party for the team members


Make sure the project is integrated with other projects
Begin to focus on your projects
Document the results in the project performance report

698.

You provide a project cost estimate of the project to the project sponsor. He is
unhappy with the estimate, because he thinks the price should be lower. He asks
you to cut 15% off the project estimate. What should you do?
a.
Start the project and constantly look for cost savings
b.
Tell all the team members to cut 15% from their estimates
c.
Re-estimate the cost of all work packages and convince management in
writing along with the supporting data
d.
Look for resources with low hourly rates

699.

Project information has been distributed according to the communication plan.


Some project deliverables have been changed. Those changes were made
according to the change control plan. One stakeholder expressed surprise to the
project manager upon being informed of a previously published change to a
project deliverable. All stakeholders received the communications containing
notification of the change. What should the project manager do?
a.
Determine why the stakeholder did not receive the information and let him
know when it was published

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b.
c.
d.

Ask the functional manager why the stakeholder did not understand his
responsibility
Review the communications plan and make revisions, if necessary
Address the situation in the next steering committee meeting so others do
not miss published changes

700.

A project team has members in five different locations across the globe with
varying information systems. The project manager works with the project team to
determine how project stakeholders should be informed and involved during the
project life cycle. These procedures are detailed in which document?
a.
Overall project plan
b.
Scope statement
c.
Communications management plan
d.
Staffing management plan

701.

Halfway through a large, one-year project, you take the place of the project
manager. The project involves four different sellers and a project team of 40
people. Where will you find information regarding the project's communications
requirements and what technology is being used to aid in project
communications?
a.
Information distribution plan
b.
Project plan
c.
Communication management plan
d.
Work information report

As the project manager, you are preparing your methods for quality management.
In your project management system, you are looking for a method that can
demonstrate the relationship between events and the resulting effects. You want to
use a method to depict the events that cause a negative effect on quality. Which of
the following is the BEST choice for accomplishing your objective?
a.
Histogram
b.
Pareto chart
c.
Ishikawa diagram
d.
Control chart

702.

703.

A project manager had a complex problem to solve and made a decision about
what needed to be done. A few months later, the problem resurfaced. Most likely
what did the project manager not do?
a.
Proper risk management
b.
Confirm that the decision solved the problem
c.
Perform period risk review
d.
Use an Ishikawa diagram

704.

Communication is the key to the success of a project. As a project manager; you


have three stakeholders with whom you need to communicate. As such, you have
six channels of communication. A new stakeholder has been added that you also

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need to communicate with. How many communications channel do you have
now?
a.
7
b.
10
c.
12
d.
16
705.

Two people are arguing about what needs to be done to complete a task. If the
project manager wants to know what is going on, she should pay MOST attention
to;
a.
What is said
b.
What is being discussed according to those arguing
c.
Physical mannerisms
d.
The pitch and tone of the voices

706. A project manager has a project team consisting of people in four countries. The
project is very important to the company; the project manager is concerned about
its success. The length of the project schedule is acceptable. What type of
communications method should he/she use?
a.
Informal verbal
b.
Formal written
c.
Formal verbal
d.
informal written
707

The project status meeting is not going well. Everyone is talking at the same
time, there are people who are not participating and many topics are being
discussed at random. Which of the following rules for effective meetings is NOT
being adhered to?
a.
Courtesy and consideration of each other
b.
Schedule meetings in advance
c.
Have a purpose for the meeting
d.
Create and publish an agenda

708.

You have just been assigned as a project manager for a large manufacturing
project. This one-year project is about halfway done. It involves five different
sellers and twenty members of your company on a project team. You want to
quickly review where the project now stands. Which of the following reports
would be MOST helpful in finding such information?
a.
Task status
,
b.
Progress
c.
Forecast
d.
Communication

709 A project manager has just reached the end of the project. Which of the following
documents will the project manager needs for closure of the project?
a.
Documents that describe the project status

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b.
c.
d.
710

Trend analysis
Change requests
Documents that describe the product of the project

A team member is visiting the manufacturing plant of one of the suppliers. Which
of the following is the MOST important thing to be done in any telephone calls
the project manager make to the team member?
a.
Ask the team member to repeat back what the project manager says
b Review the list of contact information for all stakeholders
c.
Ask the team member to look for change requests
d.
Review the upcoming meeting schedule.

711 International activities and diverse stakeholders are a part of more projects ever.
Because the objectives of time, cost, and performance may be interpreted differently for
these types of projects, kickoff meetings (even those conducted electronically) are
especially important. AH the following are objectives of the kickoff meeting except:
a.
Establishing working relationships and standards formats for global
communication
b
Review project plans
c.
Establishing individual and group responsibilities and accountabilities
d.
Discussing specific legal issues regarding the contract
712. One of the technique used for information distribution is:
a
Information gathering and retrieval system
b. Methods that will be used for releasing team members from the project
when they are no longer needed
c.
Project organization and stakeholder responsibility relationships
d.
Experience and skill levels of each team member
713.

Current fluctuations, political instability, and completion from national and


regional governments can interfere with project management of international
projects should recognize the primary factors in cross-cultural settings and place
special emphasis on:
a.
Establishing a performance reporting system
b.
Developing information gathering and retrieval system, and information
distribution methods
c.
Establishing and following a production schedule for information
distribution to avoid responding to requests for information between
scheduled communications
d.
Using translation services for formal, written project reports

714.

You are working to close out your project. During these hectic final days of the
project having time as a primary constraint of the triple constraint, must conflict
arises from:
a.
Schedule problems

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b.
c.
d.

Cost overruns
'
Technical problems
Lack of customer acceptance

715. You finally have been appointed project manager for a major company project.
You believe it is important to share information with the team. One of your
activities as project manager has been to set up an information retrieval system,
which will include all the following except:
a.
Manual filing systems
b.
Project management software
c.
Data collection devices
d.
Electronic database

716. The 40-60 rule of progress reporting is used to:


a.
Calculate the exact EV
b.
Provide a good statistical approximation of EV
c.
Determine schedule variance
d.
Determine schedule variance in monetary terms
717. One organizational option for improving communications and teamwork is using
a tight matrix. This approach also serves to facilitate:
a.
Crashing
b.
Concurrent engineering or fast tracking
c.
Resource leveling
d.
Work on geographically dispersed or virtual teams
718.

You are a program manager responsible for five projects in your company. One
of your projects is coming to an end, and most of its team members have been
reassigned. Today, the project manager asked you if she could leave the project
before it is formally closed out so that she can take a new assignment to which she
must report in 3 days or it will be offered to someone else. You know that many
administrative details remain to be done on this project. Your best course of
action is to:
a.
Appoint another person as the closeout manager and release the project
manager to her new assignment, inquiring if she might be available for final
customer meetings
b.
Make the project manager stay with the project because she is in the best
position to close certain administrative matters
c.
Close out the project yourself, notwithstanding your multiple other duties
d.
Have the project manager report to her new assignment but have her do the
closeout tasks in her spare time, including nights and weekends

719. Which of the following qualifications is the most important for a project manager^
a.
Supervisory experience

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b.
c.
d.

Negotiation skill
Application specific knowledge
Skill to influence others

720. You are responsible for a systems integration project in your organization that
has multiple internal customers. You have just begun preparing a project plan
Because many people in your organization are interested in this system and its
progress, you decide to prepare a communication management plan. Your first
step in preparing this plan is to:
a.
Conduct communication requirement analysis
b.
Determine a production schedule to show when each type of
communication will be produced
c.
Describe the information you have planned to distribute
d.
Set up a repository for all project documents so that they will be easily
accessible
721.

Project team members often obtain new skills and increase proficiency with
existing skills during the course of their project work. When this happens it is
important to update skills in the staff pool database. This should be done in which
of the following processes?
a.
Resource estimating
b.
Communications planning
c.
Team development
d.
Administrative closure procedures

722.

Of which of the various techniques is used to integrate scope, schedule, and cost
(or resource) parameters of a project, including technical and quality parameters
and report in the performance reporting?
a.
Risk analysis
b.
Decision tree analysis
c.
Monte Carlo analysis
d.
Performance measurement baseline analysis

723. The three project situations that require the most negotiation skills are:
a.
Working with functional managers to ensure that resources are available to
support the project, providing performance appraisals to project team
members, and developing WBS
b.
Developing the WBS, determining the master schedule, and managing
project changes
c.
Using subcontracts, developing the project scope statement, and managing
changes after the project is under way
d.
Securing upper management support for the project, working with
functional managers, and building the project team.
724. Which of the following terms describe the strong pressures within a group norm
at the expense of critical and innovative thinking?

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a.
b.
c.
d.
725.

Group dynamics
Group speak
Group think
Group pressure

'

As a project manager, you try to use empathy listening skills to help


understanding another person's frame of reference. In following this approach,
you should:
a.
Mimic the content of the message
b.
Probe, then evaluate the content
c.
Evaluate the content, then advise
d.
Rephrase the content "and reflect the feeling

726. You have just received formal acceptance of the project product deliverable from
your customer. Your next step should be to:
a.

b.
c.
d.

Update the contract records to reflect final results and archiving that
information for future use in accordance to the administrative closure
procedure
ignore the acceptance documentation
Document lessons learned with your staff
Conduct a quality audit

727. Finalization of project goals and expectations, organizational resource


commitments, position descriptions, and triple constraints are examples of:
a.
Vertical communication
b.
Horizontal communication
c.
External communication
d.
Informal communication
728. The performance measurement baseline is the:
a.
PV
b.
EV
c.
AC
d.
ACWS
729.

You have decided to organize a study group of other project managers in your
organization to help prepare for the PMP exam. Everyone is highly motivated to
earn the credential because the CEO has decided to pay Rs 25,000 bonus to each
person who becomes certified. What type of communication are you employing in
your efforts to organize this group?
a.
Horizontal
b.
Vertical
c.
Formal
d.
External

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730.

Your company CEO just sent you an e-mail asking you to make a presentation
on your project, which has been in progress for 18 months, to all identified
internal and external stakeholders. He scheduled the presentation for next
Monday. You expect more than 50 people to attend. The first step in preparing the
presentation is to:
a.
Define the audience
b.
Determine the objective'
c.
Decide on the general form of the presentation
d.
Plan a presentation strategy

731.

On your project scope changes, constraints, assumptions, integration and


interface requirements, and overlapping roles and responsibilities pose
communication challenges. The presence of communication barriers is most likely
to lead to:
a.
Reduce productivity
b.
Increased hostility
c.
Low morale
d.
Increased conflict

732.

In the closing phase of your project, a number of administrative issues must be


addressed and completed. A principal concern is to assess project performance.
One way to accomplish this task is to:
a.
Prepare a performance report
b.
Prepare an inspection report
c.
Hold a performance review
d.
Conduct a procurement audit
The most common communication problem that occurs during negotiation is
that:
a.
Each side may misinterpret what the other side has said
b.
Each side may give up on the other side
c.
One side may try to confuse the other side
d.
One side may be too busy thinking about what to say next to hear what is
being said

733.

734.

The SPI, which is used to forecast project completion date, is calculated by using
which formula?
a.
EV/AC
b.
PV/EV
c.
ACEWVS/PV
d.
EV/PV

735.

The project manager can enhance project communications and team building by
doing all the following except:
a.
Having a "war room"
b.
Being a good communication blocker
c.
Being a communication expediter

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d.

Holding effective meetings

736. During closeout, many project managers tend to delay personnel reassignment
as long as possible because:
.
a.
They are reluctant to confront any interpersonal conflicts that may occur in
the process
b They believe that no one will want to leave the project
c The functional managers do not want the team members to return
d.
The team members do not want to move to new assignments
737 In dealing with the customer, the project manager should:
a Be honest to the extent that the project organization is protected from
litigation
b.
Strive to develop a friendly, honest, and open relationship
c Try to maximize profits by encouraging scope creep
d.
Do whatever it takes to satisfy the customer and win additional business
738.

You have recently heard that the client calls your progress reports the "Code of
Hammurabi" because they seem to be written in hieroglyphics and are completely
indecipherable to all but antiques scholar. This situation could have been avoided
by:
a.
Informing the client at the start of the project of al types of reports they will
receive
b.
Using risk management techniques to identify client issues
c.
Hiring an expert report writer to prepare standard reports
d.
Engaging client in communication management planning

739 When communication with an action oriented-person, a project manager should:


a. Be as brief as possible and emphasize the practicality of his or her ideas
b. Provide options, including the pros and cons
c Remain patient if the other person goes off on tangents
d. Speak as quickly as possible to ensure that al the information is conveyed
740

Both under communication and over communication can cause problems on a


project You want to ensure that the information you collect showing project
progress and status is meaningful to stakeholders. To determine the level of
detailed stakeholders require. You will document this in:
a.
WBS
b.
Project management methodology
c.
Project charter
d.
Communication management plan

741.

The process of conferring with others to come to terms or reach an agreement is


called:
a. Win-win
b Negotiation

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c. Getting to "yes"
d. Compromise
742.

At the end of each project, the project team prepare a lessons learned that
focuses on all the following except:
a.
Sharing best practices with other project teams in the organization
b.
Warning others of potential problems
c.
Suggesting methods to mitigate risk effectively to ensure success
d.
Sharing only positive aspects of the project for future replication elsewhere
in the organization

743.

As manager of an international project with a team of people representing


diverse cultures, you should create an environment that maximizes team effort.
Although most people view the values of other cultures in terms of their own
culture, a project's culture emphasis will change during different life cycle phases.
During the closing phase the emphasis basically is:
a.
Participative
b.
Competitive
c.
Focused on information transfer
d.
Cooperative

744. Administrative closure should not be delayed until project completion because:
a.
Useful information may be lost
'
b.
The project manager may be reassigned
c.
Project team members may be reassigned by that time
d.
Sellers are anxious for the payments
745.

You recently were appointed vice president of the project management. As such
you will participate in performance reviews for all projects that last more than 1
year involve major clients, or are estimated to cost more than Rs 1 million. To
prepare for these reviews and to ensure they are meaningful and can be used to
determine future project direction, you believe project managers must ensure that:
a.
Accurate, uniform information about work results is provided
b.
Earned value analysis is used for all projects
c.
All project documents are available to meeting attendees before the
meeting
d.
The focus is on the cost and schedule variances rather than scope resources
quality, and risks

746.

Performance reports are used to provide information to stakeholders on project


scope, schedule, cost, and quality. Which statement most accurately describes this
process?
a.
The configuration control board receives performance reports and generates
change requests to modify aspects of the project
b.
Performance reporting focuses on examining earned value analysis to
determine whether cost overruns will require budget revisions

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c.

d.

Performance reporting includes status reports, which describe where the


project is now; progress reports, which describe accomplishments; and
forecasts which predict future status and progress
Performance reporting includes histograms, flow charts, and bar charts to
show network dependencies and relationship

747. Which of the following is true regarding communication within a project


environment?
a.
The project manager must assure the primary burden of responsibility to
ensure that messages sent have been received
b.
Effective meetings, a "war room", and a tight matrix promote effective
communication
c.
If a project consists of 12 people, 48 potential channels of communication
exists
d.
Most project managers spend 30% of their working hours engaged in
communication*
748. Project archives are:
a.
Documentation of the project's product
b.
Lessons learned on the project
c.
A complete set of the indexed project records
d.
Maintained only on an organization's most significant and complex projects
749.

In person-to-person communication, messages are sent on verbal levels and


non-verbal levels simultaneously. As a general rule, what percentage of the
messages actually is sent through nonverbal cues?
a.
5% to 15%
b.
20% to 30%
c.
40% to 50%
d.
Greater than 50%

750.

Receiving formal confirmation that a project has met or exceeded customer


requirements is an essential part of the formal acceptance documentation. Such
confirmation includes all the following except:
a.
Formal customer acceptance of the project product, service, or results
b.
Meeting product specifications
c.
Exceeding performance requirements
d.
Performing quality audit

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PROJECT RISK MANAGEMENT


751.

The tools and techniques of Risk Response Planning include all of the following
EXCEPT:
a. Interpretation
b. Acceptance
c. Exploit
d. Avoid

752. Risk transfer could involve all the following except:


a. Cost type of contracts
b. Fixed-price contract
c. Eliminating risk through beta testing
d. Performance bonds
753.Risk management should be done:
a. Just before meeting with a client
b. Consistently throughout the project life cycle
c. As soon as time and cost estimates are ready
d. Early in the execution phase

754.

Strategy for both threats and opportunities for dealing with acceptance can be
either passive or active. The strategy to deal with passive acceptance requires:
a. Agree with the customer to deal with threats or opportunities as they occur
b. Ignore a specific threat
c. Leaving the project team to deal with threats or opportunities as they occur
d. Purchase insurance

755.The list of identified risks include:


a. Root causes, and uncertain project assumptions
b. Expected monetary value of risk events
c. Corrective actions
d. The plan for mitigation
756.A thorough review of _____ will help identify potential risks to the project.
a. Information on prior projects
b. The project's change control system
c. The project's mission statement
d. The project's budget
757.All of the following are inputs to the risk identification process EXCEPT:
a. Risk management plan
b. Categories of risk
c. Workaround plan

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d. Published information'
758. The major processes of project risk management are:
a. Enterprise environmental factors, risk register
b. Identification, planning, evaluation, response development, mitigation, and
documentation
c. Identification, response development, assessment, and documentation
d. Risk management planning, risk identification, qualitative risk analysis,
quantitative risk analysis, risk response planning, and risk monitoring and
control.
759. Outputs from risk response planning include all of the following EXCEPT:
a.
Agreed upon risk responses
b.
Corrective actions taken
c.
Symptoms and warning signs of risk occurrences
d.
Risk owners and assigned responsibilities
760. The tools and techniques of quantitative risk analysis are:
a.
Contracting, contingency planning, alternative strategies, and insurance
b.
Interviewing, historical results, workarounds, and additional response
development
c.
Checklists, damage control reports, standard allowances, and inspection
d.

Interviewing, probability distribution, expert judgment, sensitivity analysis,


EMV, decision tree analysis, and modeling and simulation

761. A group by potential causes of risk may be grouped in:


a.
Risk database
b.
Risk review meetings
c.
Risk categories
d.
Risk breakdown structure
762. One of the outputs from quantitative risk analysis include:
a.
Prioritized list of quantified risks
b.
Probabilistic analysis of the threats to ignore and opportunities to accept
c.
Checklists, corrective actions, and quantified decision tree
d.
Direction, resources, and costs
763.

Evaluating the impact of a risk on major project objectives of cost, schedule,


scope, and quality has the following characteristics, EXCEPT:
a.
The impacts on project objectives can be assessed on a scale from Very low
to Very high
b.
The impacts on major project objectives can be assessed on a numerical
scales
c.
The scaled descriptors of relative impact should be prepared by the
organization in project risk management plan

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d.

The impacts on project objectives should be only assessed at the end of the
project, as part of the lessons learned

764. The outputs from risk monitoring and control include the following EXCEPT:
a.
Outcomes of risk audits
b.
Work performance information
c.
Recommended corrective actions
d.
Closing risks that are no longer applicable
765. The risk response planning is a process of:
a.
Developing options, and determining actions to enhance opportunities and
increase threats to the project objectives
b.
Developing options, and determining actions to enhance opportunities and
reduce threats to the project objectives
c.
Developing options, and determining actions to minimize opportunities and
reduce threats to the project objectives
d.
Estimating contingency reserves of time and cost designed to provide for
stakeholders' risk tolerance

766.

The risk management plan may include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Methodology
b. Definitions of risk probability and impact matrix
c. Responses to individual risks
d. Stakeholders' tolerances

767. The Delphi techniques has all the following characteristics EXCEPT:
a. It is a way to reach a consensus of experts
b. It is a technique in which experts participate anonymously
c. It helps reduce bias in the data and keeps any person from having undue
influence on the outcome
d. It is an ancient Greek technique to ensure that actions of subordinates are
aligned with the vision of senior executives
768. The Risk rating:
a. Ratings are assigned to risks based on their assessed probability and impact
b. Is the sum of squares of the scales values assigned to estimates of probability
and impact
c. Cannot be used to determine whether a risk is considered low, moderate or
high
d. Is a very effective technique for risk avoidance
769. Sensitive Analysis:
a. Examines the extent to which the uncertainty of project objectives affects each

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770.

771.

project element simultaneously


b. Examines the extent to which the uncertainty of each project element affects
the objective being examined when all other uncertain elements are held at
their baseline values
c. Is a method for assessing stakeholders tolerance to risk
d. Cannot be used to determine which risks have the most potential impact on the
project
The decision tree has all the following characteristics EXCEPT:
a. It is usually structured using a decision tree diagram that describes a situation
under consideration, and the implications of each of the available choices and
possible scenarios
b. It incorporates the cost of each available choice, the probabilities of each
possible scenario, and the rewards of each alternative logical path
c. Is primarily a descriptive technique and cannot be effectively used in
quantitative risk analysis
d. Solving the decision tree provides the EMV for each alternative, when all the
rewards and subsequent decisions are quantified
All of the following are factors in the assessment of project risk EXCEPT:
a. List of identified risks
b. Risk probability
c. Amount of stake
d. Insurance premiums

772.

If a project has a 60% chance of a US Rs 10,000 profit and a 40% chance of a


Rs 100,000 loss, the expected monetary value for the project is:
a.
Rs 100,000 profit
b.
Rs 60,000 loss
c.
Rs 20,000 profit
d.
Rs 40,000 loss

773.

"An uncommon state of nature, characterized by the absence of any information


related to a desired outcome," is a common definition for:
a.
An act of God
b.
An amount of stake
c.
Uncertainty
d.
Risk aversion

774.

Assuming that the ends of, a range of estimates are +/- 3 sigma from the mean,
which of the following range estimates involves the LEAST risk?
a.
30 days, plus or minus 5 days
b.
22 - 30 days
c.
Optimistic = 26 days, most likely = 30 days, pessimistic = 33 days
d.
About 28 days

775.

Which of the following risk events is MOST likely to interfere with attaining a

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project's schedule objective?
a.
Delays in obtaining required approvals
b.
Substantial increases in cost of purchased materials
c.
Contract disputes that generate claims for increased payments
d.
Slippage of the planned post-implementation review meeting
776.

777.

If a risk has a 20% chance of happening in a given month, and the project is
expected to last five months, what is the probability that this risk event will occur
during the fourth month of the project?
a.
Less then 1%
b.
20%
c.
60%
d.
80%
If a risk event has a 90% chance of occurring, and the consequences will be Rs
10,000, what does Rs 9,000 represent?
a.
Risk value
b.
Present value
c.
Expected monitory value
d.
Contingency budget

778. Risks will be identified during which phase of the project management life cycle?
a.
Initiation
b.
Planning
c.
Executing
d.
All phases of project life cycle
779.

What should be done with non-critical risks?


a. Document them for historical use on other projects
b. Document them and periodically review during project execution
c. Document them set them aside because they are already covered in your
contingency plans
d. Document them and give them to the customer

780.All of the following are always inputs to the risk management process EXCEPT
a. Historical information
b. Lessons learned
c. Work breakdown structure
d. Project status reports
781.Stakeholder tolerances are determined in order to helpa. The team rank the project
b. The project manager estimate the project
c. The team to decide schedule of the project
d. Management know how other managers will act on the project
782.All of the following are common outputs of risk response plan EXCEPT-

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a.
b.
c.
d.

Risk related contractual agreements are prepared


The project management plan is updated
The contingency plans
The project charter is changed

783.Use of insurance is BEST considered an example of riska. Mitigation


b. Transfer
c. Acceptance
d. Avoidance
784.

You are finding it difficult to evaluate the exact cost impact of risks You should
evaluate on a low, medium, and high basis, and it involvesa. Quantitative analysis
b. Numerical basis
c. Qualitative analysis
d. Econometric basis

785.An output from risk response planning is:


a. Residual risks
b. Risk identified
c. Prioritized list of risks
d. Risk monitoring and control
786.Workarounds are determined in response to
a. Risk identification
b. Risk quantification
c. Risk management plan
d. Negative risk that has occurred
787. During which step of risk management is determination to transfer a risk made?
a.
Risk identification
b.
Risk quantification
c.
Risk response control
d.
Risk response planning
788.

A project manager has just finished the risk response planning for Rs 387,000
engineering project. Which of the following should probably be done NEXT:
a.
Determine the overall risk rating of the project
b.
Begin to analyze the risks that show up in the project drawings
c.
Add tasks to the project work breakdown structure
d.
Hold a project risk review

789.

A project manager asked various stakeholders to determine the probability and


impact of a number of risks. He then assessed risk probability and impact,
categorized the risks, assessed quality of the risk data, and developed probability

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and impact matrix. Based on this information, what has the project manager
forgotten to do?
a.
Evaluate trends in risk analysis
b.
Identify triggers
c.
Assessment of risk urgency
d.
Create a fallback plan
790.

A project manager has assembled the project team, identified 56 risks on the
project, determined what would trigger the risks, ranked them on a risk-rating
matrix, and measured the precision of the data used. The team is continuing to
move through the risk management process. What has the project manager
forgotten to do?
a.
Simulation
b.
Risk mitigation
c.
Overall risk ranking for the project
d.
Involvement of other stakeholders

791.

You are a project manager for a major new manufacturing plant that has never
been before. The project cost is estimated at Rs 30,000,000 and will make use of
three sellers. Once begun, the project cannot be cancelled, as there will be a large
expenditure on plant and equipment. As the project manager, it would be MOST
important to carefully:
a.
Review all cost proposals from the sellers
b.
Examine the budget reserves
c.
Complete the project charter
d.
Perform an identification of risks

792.

During risk planning; your team cannot come up with effective way to mitigate or
insure against a risk. It is not a task that could be outsourced, nor could it be
deleted. What would be the BEST solution?
a.
Accept the risk
b.
Continue to investigate ways to mitigate the risk
c.
Look for ways to avoid the risk
d.
Look for ways to transfer the risk

793.

A project manager is quantifying risk for her project. Several of her experts are
offsite, but wish to be included in the risk assessment portion of the project. How
can this be done?
a.
Use Monte Carlo simulation using the Internet as a tool
b.
Apply the critical path method
c.
Determine options for corrective action
d.
Apply the Delphi technique

794.

An experienced project manager has just begun working for a large information
technology integrator when the project manager wants to begin to identify ail of
the project risks. Which of the following would BEST help in this effort?

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a.
b.
c.
d.

795.

An article from Project Management Network Magazine


Her scope statement from the project planning phase
Her resource plan from the project planning phase
A conversation with a team member from a similar project that failed in the
past

You have been appointed as the manager of a new, large and complex project.
Because this project is business-critical and very visible, senior management has
told you to analyze the project's risks and prepare mitigation strategies for them as
soon as possible. The organization has risk management procedures that are
seldom used or followed, and has had a history of handling risks badly. The
project's first milestone is in two weeks. In preparing the risk management plan to
identity and manage risks, inputs from which of the following is generally
LEAST important?
a.
Project team members
b.
Project sponsor
c.
Individuals responsible for risk management policies and templates
d.
Key stakeholders

796. You were in the middle of deploying new technology to field offices across the
country. A hurricane caused power outrages just when the upgrade was near
completion. When the power was-restored all of the information was lost, with no
way of retrieving it. What should have been done to prevent this?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Purchase insurance
Plan for reserve fund
Monitor the weather and have a contingency plan
Schedule to installation outside of the hurricane season

797.

A system development project is nearing closure when an unidentified risk is


discovered. This could potentially affect the project's overall ability to deliver
What should be done NEXT?
a.
Alert the project sponsor of potential impacts to cost, scope or schedule
b.
Conduct workaround plan
c.
Mitigate this risk by developing a risk response plan
d.
Reorganize the responsibility matrix

798.

The CP! of a project is 0.6 and the SP! is 0.71. The project has 625 activities and
is being completed over a four-year period. The team members are very
inexperienced and the project received little support from proper planning. Which
of the following is the BEST thing to do?
a Update the risk identification and analysis
b.
Spend more time improving the cost estimates
c.
Remove an many activities as possible
d.
Reorganize the responsibility matrix

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799.

While preparing your risk responses, you identify additional risks. What should
you do?
a.
Quantify risks and add reserves to the project, if exceeds stakeholders
tolerance limit
b.
Document the unknown risk items and calculate the expected monetary
value based on probability and impact that result from the occurrences
c.
Determine the unknown risk events and associated cost, then add the cost
to the project budget as reserve
d.
Add a 10% contingency

800.

You have just been assigned as the project manager for a new
telecommunications project. There appear to be many risks on this project, but no
one has evaluated them to assess the range of possible project outcomes. What
needs to be done?
a.
Risk identification
b.
Risk quantification '
c.
Risk response planning
d.
Risk monitoring and control

801.

During project execution, a team member identifies a risk that is not in the risk
response plan. What should you do FIRST?
a.
Analyze the risk
b.
Get further information on how the team member identified the risk,
because you already performed a detailed analysis and did not identify this
risk
c.
Disregard the risk, because risks were identified during planning
d.
Inform the customer about the risk

802.

During project execution, a major problem occurred that was not included in the
risk response plan. What should you do FIRST?
a.
Create a workaround
b.
Re-evaluate the risk identification process
c.
Look for any unexpected effects of the problem
d.
Tell management

803.

The customer requests a change to the project that would increase the project
risk. Which of the following should you do before ail others?
a.
Include the expected value of the risk in the new cost estimate
b.
Talk to the customer about the impact of the change
c.
Analyze the impacts of the change with the team
d.
Change the risk management plan

804. As a project manager, you have the option of proposing one of three systems to
a client: a full-feature system that has not only satisfies the minimum
requirements but also offers numerous special functions (the "Mercedes"); a

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system that meets the client's minimum requirements (the "Yugo"); and a system
that satisfies the minimum requirements plus has a few extra features (the
"Toyota"). The on-line records and associated profits and losses are depicted on
the decision tree. What is the expected monetary value of the "Toyota" system?
a.
Rs. 9,900
b.
Rs. 44,000
c.
Rs. 45,000
d.
Rs. 48,000
805.

The target against which the project team will measure the effectiveness of its
execution of the risk response plan is based on the:
a.
Stakeholders' risk tolerances
b.
Risk related contractual agreement
c.
Probability/impact risk rating
d.
Overall risk ranking for the project
.

806.

A person estimates that a commute home will most likely take 1 hour and 45
minutes. On further questioning, she estimates that the trip could take as little as
45 minutes, in a worst case. What is the standard deviation based on the
estimates?
a.
10 minutes
b.
15 minutes
c.
50 minutes
d.
60 minutes

807. Projects are particularly susceptible to risk because:


a.
Murphy's law states that "if something can go wrong, it will"
b.
Each project is unique in some measure
c.
Project management tools are generally unavailable at the project team
level
d.
There are never enough resources to do the job
808.

Of the following types of historical information that can be used in risk


identification, which is the 'east reliable?
a.
Project files
b.
Commercial database
c.
Project team knowledge
d.
Lessons learned databases

809. You are working on identifying possible risks to your project to develop a
nutritional supplement. You want to develop a comprehensive list of risks that can
be addressed later through qualitative and quantitative risk analysis. Although a
number of possible techniques can be used, the one that is used most frequently in
risk identification is:
a.
Interviewing
b.
SWOT analysis

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c.
d.

Root cause identification


Brainstorming

810. The Delphi technique is a particularly useful method for identifying risks to:
a.
Present a sequence of decision choices graphically to decision makers
b.
Define the probability of occurrence of specific variables
c.
Reduce bias in the analysis and keep any person from having undue
influence on the outcome
d.
Help take account the attitude of the decision maker toward risk
811. A workaround is:
a.
An unplanned response to a negative risk event that has occurred
b.
A plan of action to follow when something unexpected occurs
c.
A specific response to certain types of risks as descried in the risk
management plan
d.
A proactive, planned method of responding risks
812.

Modeling and simulation of budgets, schedule, and resource allocations use


which of the following approaches?
a.
PERT
b.
Decision-tree analysis
c.
Present value-analysis
d.
Monte Carlo analysis

813.

In the path convergence example below, if the odds of completing activities 1, 2,


and 3 on time are 50%, 50%, and 50%, what are the chances of starting activity 4
on day 6?
a.
10%
b.
13%
c.
40%
d.
50%

814.

A project health check identified a risk that your project would not be completed
in time. As a result, you are quantifying the project's risk exposure and
determining what cost and schedule contingency reserves might be needed. You
performed a schedule risk analysis using Monte Carlo analysis. The basis for your
schedule risk analysis is thea.
WBS
b.
Activity sequencing
c.
PDM schedule
d.
Probability/impact risk rating matrix

815. You are developing radio frequency (RF) technology that will improve overnight
package delivery. First you select 15 project stakeholders to interviews. They
include homeowners, employees, business personnel, RF technology
manufacturers, and children. You ask each stakeholder to estimate the optimistic

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package delivery time using RF technology, the most pessimistic time, and the
most likely time. This shows that next you plan to:
a.
Use a triangle probability distribution
b.
Conduct a sensitive analysis
c.
Structure a decision analysis as a decision tree
d
Determine the strategy for risk response

816. Each of the following statements about risk avoidance is true avoidance is true
except that it:
a.
Focuses on eliminating the elements that are creating the risk
s
b.
Includes making the decision not to bid on a project in which the risk
exposure is believed to be too high
c.
Accepts the consequences of the risk event should it occur
d.
Includes leaving the risk with the customer when the customer is in the best
position to mitigate the risk
817.

If the probability of event -1 is 80% and for event - 2 is 70% and they occur
independent events, how likely is that both events will occur?
a.
6%
b.
15%
c.
24%
d.
56%

818.

The project scope statement should be used in the risk identification process
because it:
a.
Identifies all work that must be done and, therefore, helps identify potential
source of risk
b.
Identifies all the work that must be done and, therefore, includes the risk on
the project
c.
Helps organize ail the work that must be done on the project
d.
Identifies work packages, which enables specific responsibility to be
assigned

819.

Your team is working on an integrated project to build a regional cellular network


in a small, mountainous country. After 10 days of work, a major political activist
is killed leading to mass riots throughout the country. Work cannot continue, and
your team returns home. A risk such as unrest typically requires;
a.
Upfront risk management planning with continually review of the plan
throughout the project life cycle
b.
Disaster recovery actions instead of risk management
c.
Periodic risk audit and project risk reviews
d.
A repository or risk database to be established as basis of a risk lessons
learned program

820. Management reserve is used for:

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a.
b.
c.
d.

Risks that are identified at the outset of the project


Risks that are not identified at the outset of the project but are known
before they occur
Risks than cannot be known before they occur because they are external
risks
Any risks that cannot be known before they occur

821. The simplest form of risk analysis is:


a.
Probability analysis
b.
Sensitivity analysis
c.
Delphi, technique
d.
Utility theory
822.

If a business venture has a 60% chance to earn Rs 2 million and a 20% chance
to loose Rs 1.5 million, what is the expected monetary value of the venture?
a.
(Rs 50,000)
b.
Rs 300,000
c.
Rs 500,000
d.
Rs 900,000

823. You are managing the construction of a highly sophisticated data center in Port
Moresby, Papua New Guinea. The data center will house more than 500 servers
for one of the world's largest retailers who have decided to launch an e-business
program in Asia. Although this location offers significant economic advantages,
the threat of typhoons has caused you to create a backup plan to operate out of
Manila in case the center is flooded. What type of risk response is this?
a.
Passive avoidance
b.
Mitigation
c.
Acceptance
'
d.
Deflection
824.

Your project for the Department of Power, is using earned value analysis as
performance reporting technique? Your project is 20% complete. Results from a
recent earned value analysis indicate that the CPI is 0.67 and the SPI is 0 87 in
this situation you should:
a.
Perform additional resource planning, add resources, and use overtime as
needed to accomplish the same amount of budgeted work
b.
Re-baseline the schedule, then use Monte Carlo analysis
c.
Conduct a risk response audit to help control risk
d.
Update the risk identification and qualitative and quantitative risk analysis

825.

The purpose of a using non-linear scale values to risk impacts in risk


management is to:
a.
Develop risk breakdown structure

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b.

c.
d.

To understand what do numbers and their relationship to each other mean


how they were derived, and the effect they may have on the different
project objectives.
Rank order risks in terms of very low, low, moderate, high and very high
Test project assumptions

826. Risk score:


a.
Variability of the estimate
b.
Helps guide risk responses.
c.
Range of schedule and cost outcomes
d.
Reduced monetary value of the risk event
827.

Which of the following is an example of "recommended corrective action" in risk


management?
a.
Conducting a risk audit
b.
Engaging a additional risk response planning
c.
Performing the contingency plan during execution
d.
Conducting a risk review

828.

The primary advantage of using decision-tree analysis in project risk


management is that it:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Considers the attitude of the decision maker toward risk


Considers the implications of each of the available choices and possible
scenarios.
Helps identify and postulate risk scenarios for the project
Shows how risks can occur in combination

829.

Your project is using complex, unproven technology. Your team conducted a


brainstorming session to identify risks. Poor allocation of project resources was
the number one risk. Accordingly, the team recommended placing heavy
emphasis on meeting the next intermediate milestone. Thus, this immediate
milestones is known as a:
a.
Risk trigger
b.
Planned risk response
c.
Known unknown
.
d.
Root cause

830.

When managing current projects, it is important to use lessons learned from


previous projects to improve the organization's, project management processes.
Therefore, in closing projects, it is important to formally review:
a.
Secondary risks that occur
b.
Risk register
c.
WBS dictionary
d.
Team member's curriculum vitae

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831. Risk mitigation involves:
a.
Using performance and payment bonds
b.
Eliminating a specific threat by eliminating the cause
c.
Avoiding the schedule risk inherent in the project
d.
Reducing the probability of the occurrence of adverse risk event to the
acceptable threshold.
832.

On a typical project, when are risks highest and impacts (amount at stake)
lowest?
a.
During the start of the project
b.
At or near completion of the project
c.
During the implementation phase
d.
When the project manager is replaced

833. Which of the following is an example of an external risk?


a.
Poor staff assignments
b.
Incorrect cost estimates
c.
Inflation
d. . Contract type
834.

The highest risk impact generally occurs during which of the following project
life cycle phases?
a.
Concept and planning
b.
Planning and implementation
c.
Implementation and closeout
d.
Concept and closeout

835.

Which of the following statements best characterizes a cost or duration estimate


developed with a limited amount of information?
a.
It should b& part of the planning for the needed management reserve
b.
It is an input to risk identification
c.
It is an output of risk identification
d.
It must be forced into the list of prioritized project risks

836. What are the primary difference between risk audit and a risk review?
a.
A risk review is conducted at the completion of a major phase; audits are
conducted at the completion of a major phase; audits are conducted after the
project is completed
b. Project stakeholders conduct risk audits; management conducts reviews
c. Risk audits examine and document the effectiveness of risk responses,
whereas risk reviews can be an agenda item at periodic status meetings.
d.
There is no difference; they are virtually the same
837.

Accurate and unbiased data are essential for qualitative risk analysis. Which of
the following should you use to understand the accuracy of the data?
a.
Risk data quality assessment

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b.
c.
d.

Project assumptions testing sensitivity analysis


Sensitivity analysis
Influencing diagrams

838. Allocating a contingency amount, developing alternative options and changing


project scope are examples of:
a.
Contingency plans
b.
Passive risk acceptance
c.
Fallback plans
d.
Residual risks
839. Which of the following is not an objective of a risk audit?
a.
Confirming that risk management has been practiced throughout the project
life cycle
b.
Confirming that the project is well managed and that risks are being
controlled
c.
Helping to identify the deterioration of the project's value potential in its
early stages
d.
Ensuring that each risk identified and deemed critical has been computed
expected value
840. Contingency planning involves:
a.
Defining the steps to be taken if an identified risk event should occur
b.
Establishing a management reserve to cover unplanned expenditures
c.
Preparing a stand-alone document to make during the implementation
d.
Determining needed adjustments to make during the implementation phase
of a project
841.

Your firm specializes in roller-coaster construction. It recently received an RFP to


build the world's most "death-defying" roller coaster. You know that such roller
coaster has never been .built before and that this would be a high-risk project.
Accordingly, what type of contract would you want to be awarded for this
project?
a.
Firm-fixed-price
b.
Time-and-materials
c.
Cost-plus-a-percentage-of-cost
d.
Cost-plus-fixed-fee

842.

As manager of your organization's project office, you often must decide which
projects will receive additional resources. You also recommend which projects
should be initiated, continued, or cancelled. One way to help you make these
decisions is to:
a.
Determine an overall risk ranking for the project
b.
Assess trends in quantitative risk analysis results
c.
Prioritize risk and conditions
d.
Assess trends in qualitative risk analysis results

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843.

You are the project manager for the construction of an incinerator to burn refuse.
Local residents and environmental groups are opposed to this project. They have
threatened to take your company to court. You find you are spending most of your
time trying to work with these groups to alleviate their concerns. Management
agrees to move this project to a different site outside town. This is an example of
which of the following risk responses?
a.
Passive acceptance
b.
Active acceptance
c.
Mitigation
d.
Avoidance

Project Procurement Management


844. which of the following may be used as a risk mitigation tool?
a. vendor proposal
b. contract
c. quotation
d. project requirements.
845.
a.
b.
c.
d.

a contract cannot have provision for which one of the following?


a deadline for the completion of the work
illegal activities.
subcontracting the work.
penalties and fines for disclosure of intellectual rights.

846.

you are the project manager for the 89A project. You have created contract for
your customer must have what two things?
offer and consideration
signatures and the stamp of a notary public.
value and worth of the procured item
start date and acceptance of start date

a.
b.
c.
d.

847. The product description of a project can help a project manager create
procurement details. Which one of the following best describes this process?
a. The product description defines the contracted work.
b. The product description defines the requirements for the contract work.
c. The product descriptions defines the contracted work, which must support the
requirements of the project customer.
d. Both parties must have and retain own copy of the product description.
848.

a.
b.

Yolanda has outsourced a portion of the project to a vendor. The vendor has
discovered some issues that will influence the cost and schedule of its position of
the project. How must the vendor update the agreement?
As a new contract signed by Yolanda and the vendor
As a contract addendum signed by Yolanda and the vendor.

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c.
d.

As a memo and SOW signed by Yolanda and the vendor.


Project management contracts have clauses that allow vendors to adjust their
work according to unknowns.

849.
a.
b.
c.
d.

The united states backs all contracts through which of the following?
Federal law
State law
Court system
lawyers

850.

Terry is the project manager of the MVB project. She needs to purchase a piece of
equipment for her project. The According department has informed terry s he
needs a unilateral from of contract. According is referring to which of the
following?
SOW
Legal binding contract
Purchase order
Invoice from the vendor

a.
b.
c.
d.
851.

a.
b.
c.
d.
852.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Bonnie is the project manager for the HIGH construction project. She has
contracted a portion of the project to the ABC construction company. Bonnie has
offered a bonus to ABC if they complete their portion of the work by august 30.
This is an example of which one of the following?
Project requirement
project incentive
Project goal
Fixed-price contract
The purpose of a contract is to distribute between the buyer and seller a
reasonable amount of the following
Responsibility
Risk
Reward
Accountability

853.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Privity is what?
Relationship between the project manager and a known vendor.
Relationship between the project manager and an unknown vendor.
Contractual, confidential information between customer and vendor.
Professional information regarding the sale between customer and vendor.

854.

Sammy is the project manager of the DSA project. He is considering Proposals


and contracts presented by vendors for a position of the project work. Of the
following which contracts is?
Least dangerous to the DSA project?
Cost plus fixed fee

a.

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b.
c.
d.

Cost plus percentage of cost


Cost plus incentive fee
Fixed-price

855. In the following contracts types, which one requires the seller to assume the risk of
of cost overruns?
a. Cost plus fixed fee
b. Cost plus incentive fee
c. Lump sum
d. Time and materials
856. Benji is the project manager of PLP project. He has hired an independent contractor
for a position of the project work. The contractor is billing the project $120 per
hour, plus materials this is an example of which one of the following?
a. Cost plus fixed fee
b. time and materials
c. Unit-price
d. lump sum
857. Mary is the project manager of JHG project. She has created a statement of work
(SOW) for a vendor. For marys SOW to be a legal contract, what must be
included.
a. Affidavit of agreement
b. Signatures of both parties agreeing to SOW
c. Signature of vendor
d. signature of mary
858. You are the project manager for a software development project for an accounting
system that will operate over the internet. Based on your research, you have
discovered it will cost you $25,0000 to write your own code. Once the code is
written you estimate youll spend $3.000 per month updating the software with
client information, government regulation, and maintenance. A vendor has
proposed to write the code for your company and charge a fee based on the number
of clients using the program every month. The vendor will charge you $5 per
month per user of the web-based accounting system. You will have roughly 1.200
clients using the system per month. However youll need an in-house accountant to
manage the time and billing of the system so this will cost you an extra $1,200 per
month how many months will you have to use the systems before it is better to
write your own code then to hire the vendor?
a. 3 months
b. 4 months
c. 6 months
d. 15 months
859. you r completing the closeout of a project to design a warehouse in Columbus, The
contract is a cost plus incentive fee contract. The target costs are $300,000, with a

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a.
b.
c.
d.

10 percent target profit. However, the project came in at $275,000. The incentive
split is 80/20. How is the total contract cost?
$300,000
$275,000
$310,000
$330,000

860. A contract between an organization and a vendor may include a clause that
panelizes the vendor if the project is late. The lateness of a project has a monetary
penalty, penalty should be enforced or waived based on which one of the
following?
a. if the project manager could have anticipated the delay
b. if the project manager knew the delay was likely
c. whether the delay was because of an unseen risk
d. who caused the delay and the reason why
861.
a.
b.
c.
d.

A single source seller means what?


There is only one qualified seller
There is only one seller the company wants to do business with
there is a seller that can provide all aspect of project procurement needs
There is only one seller in the market

862.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Which one of the following is not a valid evaluation criterion for source selection?
Age of the contact person of the seller
Technical ability of the seller
Contract requirements
Price

863. Henry has sent the ABN contracting company a letter of intent. This means which
one of the following ?
a. Henry intends to sue the ABN contracting company
b. Henry intends to buy from the ABN contracting company
c. Henry intends to bid on a job from the ABN contracting company
d. Henry intends to fire the ABN contracting company
864. Martha is the project manager of the MNB project she wants a vendor to her one
price to do all of the detailed work martha is looking for which type of document?
a. RFP
b. RFI
c. Proposal
d. IFB

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865.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Which one of the following is true about procurement document?


They offer to bidder to suggest changes
They ensure receipt of complete proposals
They inform the performing organization why the bid is being created
The project manager creates and selects the bid

866.
a.
b.
c.
d.

In what process group does source selection happen?


Initiating
planning
Executing
Closing

867. You have an emergency on your project. You have hired a vendor that is to start
work immediately. What contract is needed now?
a. T&M
b Fixed fee
c. Letter contract
d. Incentive contract
868. you are the project manager for a seller. You are managing another companys
project. Things have gone well on the. project and work is nearly complete. There is
still a significant amount of funds in the project budget. The buyers representative
approaches you and asks that you complete some aptional requirement to use up the
remaining budget you should do which one of the following?
a. Negotiate a change in the contract to take on the additional work
b. Complete a contract change for the additional work
c. Gain the approval of the project stakeholder for the requested work
d. Deny the change because it was not in the original contract.
869. You have just started administrating a contract when management decides to
Terminate the contract. What should you do FIRST?
a. Go back to the plan procurements process.
b. Go back to the conduct procurements process.
c. Finish the administer procurements process.
d. Go to the close procurements process.
870. what type of contract do you NOT want to use if you do not have enough labor to
Audit invoices?
a. Cost plus fixed fee ( CPFF )
b. Time and material ( T&M )
c. Fixed price ( FP )
d. Fixed price incentive fee ( FPIF )

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PROFESSIONAL RESPONSIBILITY
871.

Near the end of your last project, additional requirements were demanded by a
group of stakeholders when they learned they would be effective by your project.
This became a problem because you had not included the time or cost in the
project plan to perform these requirements. What is the BEST thing you can do to
prevent such a problem in future projects?
a.
Review the WBS dictionary more thoroughly, looking for incomplete
descriptions .
b.
Review the charter more thoroughly, examining the business case for
"holes"
c.
Pay more attention to stakeholder management
d.
Do a more thorough job of solicitation planning

872.

The software development project is not going well. There are over 30
stakeholders, and no one can agree on the project objectives. One stakeholder
believes the project can achieve a 30% improvement while another believes a
50% improvement is possible. The project manager thinks a 10% improvement is
more realistic. What is the BEST course of action?
a.
Move forward with the project and hope more information comes to light
to settle the issue
b.
Average the numbers and use that as a goal
c.
Perform a feasibility analysis '
d.
Ask the sponsor to make the final decision

873.

Your management has decided that all orders will be treated as "projects" and
that project manager will be used to update orders daily, resolving issues and
ensuring that the customer formally accepts the product within 30 days of
completion. The revenue from the individual orders can vary from Rs. 100 to Rs.
150,000. The project manager will not be required to perform planning or provide
documentation other than daily status. How would you define this situation?
a.
Because each individual order is a "temporary endeavor", each order is a
project - this is truly project management
b.
This is program management since there are multiple projects involved
c.
This is a recurring process
d.
Orders incurring revenue over Rs. 100,000 would be considered projects
and would involve project management

874.

A project team has completed all the technical project deliverables, and the
customer has accepted the deliverables. However, the lessons learned required by
the project office have not been completed. What is the status of the project?
a. The project is incomplete because the project needs to be re-planned
b. The project is incomplete until all the deliverables are complete and accepted
c. The project is incomplete because the customer has accepted the deliverables
d. The project is incomplete because the project has reached the due date

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875.

876.

You are in the middle of a new product development for your publicity trade
company when you discover that the previous project manager made a Rs.
3,000,000 payment that was not approved in accordance with your company
policies. Luckily, the project CPI is 1.2. What should you do?
a.
Bury the cost in the largest cost center available
b.
Put the payment in an escrow account
c.
Contact your manager
d.
ignore the payment
During a meeting with some of the project stakeholders, the project manager is
asked to add work to the project scope of work. The project manager had access
to the correspondence about the project before the charter was signed and
remembers that the project sponsor specifically denied funding for the scope of
work mentioned by these stakeholders. The BEST thing for the project manager
to do would be to:
a.
Let the sponsor know of the stakeholders' request
b.
Evaluate the impact of adding the scope of work
c.
Tell the stakeholders the scope cannot be added
d.
Add the work if there is time available in the project schedule.

877.

When checking a calendar of a team member to schedule a meeting, you see


she has scheduled a meeting with a key stakeholder that you were not informed
of. The BEST approach would be to:
a.
Avoid mentioning it to the team member but continue to watch her
activities
b.
Notify your boss about the problem
c.
Address the concern with the team member
d.
Address the concern with the team member's boss

878.

The project manager is having a very difficult time keeping a project schedule on
track. The project is 13 months long and requires 220 people to complete. All of
the project problems have been fixed to the project manager's satisfaction, the SPI
is currently 0.67, the CPI is 1.26, there are 23 tasks on the critical path and the
project PERT duration is 26. Under these circumstances, the monthly project
status report should say that the project:
a.
Has too many people assigned to it
b.
Is behind schedule
c.
Cost is behind budget
d.
Is too risky
Your employee is three days late with a report. Five minutes before the meeting
where the topic of report is to be discussed, she hands you the report. You notice
some serious errors in it. What should you do?
a.
Cancel the meeting and reschedule when the report is fixed
b.
Go to the meeting and tell the other attendees there are errors in the report
c.
Force the employee to do the presentation and remain silent as the other
attendees find the errors
d.
Cancel the meeting and rewrite the report yourself

879.

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880.

A manager has been given the responsibility for a project that has the support of
a senior manager. From the beginning, you have disagreed with the manager as to
how the project should proceed and what the deliverables should be. You and she
have disagreed over many issues in the past. Your department has been asked
with providing some key tasks for the project. What should you do?
a.
Provide the manager with what she needs
b.
Inform your manager of your concerns to get their support
c.
Sit down with the manager at the beginning of the project and attempt to
describe why you object to the project and discover a way to solve the
problem
d.
Ask to be removed from the project

881.

A large, complex construction project in a foreign country requires coordination


to move the required equipment through crowded city streets. To ensure the
equipment is transported successfully, your contract in that country informs you
that you will have to pay the local police a fee for coordinating the traffic. What
should you do?
a.
Do not pay the fee because it is a bribe
b.
Eliminate the task
c.
Pay the fee
d.
Do not pay the fee if it is not a part of the project estimate

882.

A major negotiation with a potential subcontractor is scheduled for tomorrow


when you discover there is a good chance the project will be cancelled. What
should you do?
a.
Do not spend too much time preparing for the negotiations
b.
Cut the negotiations short
c.
Only negotiate major items
d.
Postpone the negotiations

883.

You've been assigned to take over managing a project that should be halfcomplete according to the schedule. After an extensive evaluation, you discover
that the project is running far behind the schedule, and that the project will
probably take double the time originally estimated by the previous project
manager. However, upper management has been told that the project is on
schedule. What is the BEST course of action?
a.
Try to reconstruct the structure to meet the project deadline
b.
Report your assessment to the upper management
c.
Turn the project back to the previous project manager
d.
Move forward with the schedule as planned by the previous project
manager and report at the first missed milestone
You are halfway through a major network rollout. There are 300 locations in the
S with another 20 in England. A software seller has just released a major software
upgrade with some of the equipment being installed. The upgrade would provide

884.

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the customer with functionality they requested that was not available at the time
the project began. What is the BEST course of action under these circumstances?
a. Continue as planed, your customer has not requested to change
b. Inform the customer of the upgrade and the impacts to the project's timeline
and functionality
c. implement the change and adjust the schedule as necessary because this
supports the customer's original request
d. Implement the change too the remaining sites and continue with the schedule
885. You are working on your research and development project when your customer
asks you to include a particular component in the project. You know this
represents new work, and you do not have excess funds available. What you
should do?
a.
Delete another lower priority task to make time and funds available
b.
Use funds from the management reserve to cover the cost
c.
Follow the contract change process
d.
Ask for more funds from the project sponsor
886.

You are a project manager for one of many projects in a large and important
program At a high-level status meeting, you note that another project manager has
reported her project schedule. Looking back on your project over the last few
weeks, you remember many deliverables from another project that arrived late.
What should you do?
a.
Meet with the program manager
b.
Develop a risk control plan
c.
Discuss the issues with your boss
d.
Meet with the other project manager

887.

You have always been asked by your management to cut your project estimate
by 10% after you have given it to them. The scope of your new project is unclear
and there are over 30 stakeholders. Management expects a 25% reduction in
downtime as a result of the project. Which of the following is the BEST course of
action in this situation?
a Re-plan to achieve a 35% improvement
b.
Reduce the estimates and note the changes in the risk response plan
c.
Provide an accurate estimate of the actual cost and be able to support it
d.
Meet with the team to identify where you. can find 10% saving

888. Your employee is three days late with a report. She walks into a meeting where
the report is to be discussed and hands you a copy five minutes before the topic is
to be discussed. You notice some serious errors in the report. How could this have
been prevented?
a.
Require periodic updates from the employees
b.
Coach and mentor the employee
c.
Make sure the employee was competent to do the work
d.
Cancel the meeting earlier because you have not had a chance to review the

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report
889.

You are in the middle of a project when someone discovers that a software seller
for your project is having major difficulty keeping employees due to a labor
dispute. Many other projects in your company are using the company's services.
What should you do?
a.
Attempt to keep the required people on your project
b.
Te!' the other project managers in your company about the labor problem
c.
Contact the company and advise it that you will cancel its work on the
project unless it settles its labor dispute
d.
Cease doing business with the company

890. All of the following are the responsibility of a project manager EXCEPT?
a.
Maintain the confidentiality of customer confidential information
b.
Determine the legality of company's procedures
c.
Ensure that a legal conflict of interest does not compromise the legitimate
interests of the customer
d.
891.

Provide accurate and truthful representation in cost estimates

In order to complete work on your projects, you have been provided confidential
information from all your clients. A university contacts you to help it in its
research. Such assistance would require you to provide the university with some
of the client data from your files. What should you do?
a.
Release the information, but remove all references to the client's names
b.
Provide high-level information only
c.
Contact your clients and seek permission to disclose the information
d,
Disclose the information

892. You just found out that a major subcontractor for your project consistently
provides deliverables late. The subcontractor approaches you and asks you to
continue accepting late deliverables in exchange for a decrease in project costs.
This offer is an example of:
a.
Confrontation
b.
Compromise
c.
Smoothing
d.
Forcing
893.

Management has promised you part of the incentive fee from the customer if you
complete the project early. Later, while finalizing a major deliverable, your team
informs you that the deliverable meets the requirements in the contract but will
not provide the functionality the customer needs. If the deliverable is late, the
project will not be completed early. What action should take?
a. Provide the deliverable as it is
b. Inform the customer of the situation and work out a mutually agreeable
solution

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c. Start to compile a list of delays caused by the buyer to prepare for
negotiations
d. Cut out other tasks in a way that will be unnoticed to provide more time to
fix the deliverable
894.

You have just discovered an error in the implementation plan that will prevent
you from meeting date. The BEST thing you can do is:
a.
Develop alternate solutions to meet the milestone date
b.
Change the milestone date
c.
Remove any discussion about due dates in the project status report
d.
Educate the team about the need milestone dates

895.

While testing the strength of concrete poured on your project, you discover that
over 35% of the concrete does not meet your company's quality standards. You
feel certain the concrete will function as it is, and you don't think the concrete
needs to meet the quality level specified. What should you do?
a.
Change the quality standards to meet the level achieved
b.
List in your reports the concrete simply "meets our quality needs"
c.
Ensure the remaining concrete meets the standard
d.
Report the lesser quality level and try to find a solution

896.

You are the project manager for a new international project and your project
team includes people from four countries. Most of the team members have
worked on similar projects before, but the project has strong support from senior
management. What is the BEST thing to do to ensure that cultural differences do
not interfere with the project?
a. Spend a little more time creating the work breakdown structure and making
sure it is complete
b. As the project manager, make sure you choose your words carefully whenever
you communicate
c. Ask one person at each team meeting to describe something unique about their
culture
d. Carefully encode all the project manager's communications

897.

A project has a tight budget when you begin negotiating with a seller for a piece
of equipment. The seller has told you that the equipment price is fixed. Your
manager has told you to negotiate the cost with the seller. What is your BEST
course of action?
a.
Make a good fair effort to find a way to decrease the cost
b.
Postpone negotiations until you can convince your manager to change their
mind
c.
Hold the negotiations but only negotiate other aspects of the project
d.
Cancel the negotiations

898.

You are working on a large construction project that is progressing within the
baseline. Resource usage has remained steady, and your boss has just awarded

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you a prize for your performance. One of your team members returns from the
meeting and tells you the customer said they are not happy with the project
progress. What is the FIRST thing you should do?
a.
Tell the manager
b.
Complete a team building exercise and invite the customer's representatives
c.
Change the schedule baseline
d.
Meet with the customer to uncover the data
899.

A project manager discovers a defect in a deliverable that is due to the customer


under the contract today. The project manager knows the customer does not have
the technical understanding to notice the defect. The deliverable technically meets
the contract requirements, but it does not meet the project manager's fitness of use
standard. What should the project manager do in this summer?
a. Issue the deliverable and get formal acceptance from the customer.
b. Note the problem in the lessons learned so future projects do not encounter
the same problem
c. Discuss the issue with the customer
d. Inform the customer that the deliverable will be late

900.

Management tells a project manager to subcontract part of the project to a


company that management has worked with many times. Under these
circumstances, the project manager should be MOST concerned about:
a.
Making sure the company has the qualifications to complete the project
b.
Meeting management expectations of time
c.
The cost of the subcontractor work
d.
The contract terms and conditions

901.

The customer on a project tells the project manager he has run out of money to
pay for the project. What should the project manager do FIRST?
a.
Shift more work to later in the schedule to allow for customer to get the
funds
b.
Reduce the scope of the work and enter administrative closure
c.
Stop work
d.
Release part of the project team

902. You are the project manager for a large project under contract with the
government. The contract for this two year, multi-million dollar project was
signed six months ago. You were not involved in the contract negotiations or
setting up procedures for managing changes, but now you are swamped with
changes from the customer and from people inside the organization. Who is
normally responsible for formally reviewing major changes to the
project/contract?
a.
The change control board
b.
The contracting/legal department
c.
The project manager
d.
Senior management

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903.

During project execution, a major problem occurred that was not included in the
risk response plan. What should you do FIRST?
a.
Tell management
b.
Look for any' unexpected effects of the problem
c.
Re-evaluate the risk identification process
d.
Create a workaround

904.

During planning, the project manager discovers that part of the scope of the work
is undefined. What should the project manager do?
a.
Issue a change to the project when the scope is defined
b.
Remove the scope of work from the project and include it in the upgrade of
the project
c.
Do what they can to get the scope of work defined before proceeding
d.
Continue to plan the project until the scope of work is defined

905.

The engineering department wants the project objective to be a 10%


improvement in throughput. The information technology department wants no
more than 5% of its resources to be used on the project. Management, who is also
your boss, wants the project team to decrease the tax liability. The BEST thing
you can do is:
a.
Put a plan together that meets all the objectives
b.
Have these people get together and agree on one objective
c.
Include the engineering and information technology objectives but hold
further meetings regarding management's objectives
d.
Include only management's requirements

906.

You just learned that the government has issued a new regulation for handling
toxic waste. You recommend to management that your company undertake a
project to develop guidelines in response to this regulation. For project
management professionals, this recommendation demonstrates the importance of:
a.
Adhering the legal requirements and ethical standards
b.
Continually searching for new and more effective methods of doing your
work
c.
Using legal requirements as the basis for all project selection decisions
d.
The limited time frame in which projects must be compiled

907.

Your oldest daughter recently returned from demonstrating at a meeting of the


World Trade Organization and announced that she is dedicating her life to
disrupting major development projects sponsored by the World Bank. Your
company s bidding on a World Bank project with a requirement to perform an
environmental impact study before beginning construction. The requirement to
perform such a study represents:
a.
The impact that demonstrations can have on international affairs
b.
A project constraint
c.
A factor that needs to be taken into consideration as part of the bid-no-bid

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d.

decision
An example of complying with international law

908.

Your government has provided Rs. 400,000 to your company to determine the
number of whales killed in the past 2 years. The final report is due in 1 month.
The deadline is rapidly approaching, and your project sponsor has asked you to
complete the project with incomplete data. The final report must be submitted to
the government to receive the monies due. In this situation, you should:
a.
Prepare a rough estimate based on your knowledge of the subject, and
complete the project
b.
Explain in writing and in your oral presentation that you cannot complete
the project because of the incomplete data
c.
Use the results of the research prepared by another organizations as the
basis for your effort, even though you do not have access to the raw data
d.
Inform management that you need additional time, and ask for a forma!
extension

909.

You are managing a project team that is preparing a comprehensive set of food
processing regulations. At a recent industry meeting, one of the manufacturers
presented you with some marketing literature, which included a certificate for a
free gift. In this situation, you should probably:
a. Not accept this gift it could be interpreted as being for personal gains
b. Determine whether the manufacturer gave the certificate to everyone else
attending the meeting and, if so, accept it
c. Accept the gift, and then inform your project sponsor when you return to
your job
d. Accept the gift to avoid embarrassing the provider

910.

You are managing an international joint venture construction project. It has been
made clear to you that the city experts some form of "unofficial" compensation
for such work. Their involvement is critical because to approve the issuance of
licenses and permits required to import needed equipment, supplies, and
materials. Your best approach is to:
a.
Follow local customers explicitly, even if this means-that you must make
"payments" to local officials
b.
Abide by the laws, regulations, and requirements of your own country and
follow them explicitly in this situation
c.
Refrain from knowingly engaging in professional misconduct
d.
Recognize the need for the government involvement in the project and do
whatever is required for success
Your manager, a long time PMI member, allegedly violated PMI's intellectual
property policy guidelines when he reproduced and distributed portions of the
PMBOK Guide without first requesting permission from PMI. A PMI Ethics
Review Committee now is reviewing the specifics of this case. Yesterday, an
Ethics Review Committee member asked you to answer a series of questions
related to the manager's alleged misdeeds. In this situation, you have-

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a.
b.
c.
d.

No involvement because you are not a party to the ethics proceedings


A responsibility to cooperate with PMI concerning ethics violations and
the collection of related information
No responsibility as you were not a PMI member at the time this alleged
misuse took place
No obligation to provide PMS with any information because you have no
first hand knowledge of the extant case

912.

You are a PMI member and work for a defense systems contractor. Your
company is considering submitting a proposal for the government contract, and
you are the proposal manager. One of the requirements, a noted in the evaluation
criteria, is that the project manager must be a PMP. You have the right person
for the job; however Katrina does not have the PMP, but will be taking the
exam soon. Another PMP, Rikard, works for the company; however he is
committed totally to another project. In preparing your proposal, you shoulda.
Submit Rikard's resume as the project manager after the contract award,
replace him with Katrina provided the client agrees to the substitution
b.
Submit Katrina's resume and state she is a PMP because you know h&
will pass the exam and obtain the certification
c.
Disclose Katrina's status concerning PMP certification in your proposal
and submit her resume as the project manager
d.
Request that the government change it's requirement for PMP status

913.

Your business has exploded ever since you introduced a new product. You need
to build another facility and have prepared and invitation for bid (IFB) package.
You want to avoid any confusion regarding the work to be performed because you
probability will not conduct negotiations with the sellers; however you may or
may not award the contract to the lowest-bidding seller, and you have made this
clear in the IFB. In this situation, you should be prepared toa.
Prohibit sellers from attending the bid opening because you will need time
to decide to whom to award the contract
b.
Document your award decision as completely as possible to all sellers
c.
Inform the seller who won the bid and indicate to the others that no further
discussion will take place on this issue
d.
Limit the sellers who will receive the IFB to reduce conflict

914.

As part of your proposal for an upcoming contract to provide project management


services to Arktic Research Laboratories, you must provide information about
previous experience to show that your company has the expertise and track record
to do the work. Your firm recently completed a contract for one of the Arktic's
key competitors, Polar Investigations Ltd., for similar services. The contract
requires you to keep the client information confidential for one year. Arktic has
discovered that you worked with Polar and is asking for a reference at Polar with
whom it can discuss your work. In this case you shoulda.

Give Arktic the Polar reference. After all Arktic learned of your Polar work

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b.
c.

d.

from an outside source; therefore, you are released from the terms of the
contract's confidentiality clause
Include Polar as a reference, assuming that the confidentiality agreement is
unnecessarily restrictive of trade
Contact Polar and let it know that if you can use it as a reference, you will
let it know the type of work you will be doing at Arktic so that no one is at
a competitive disadvantage
Contact Polar and ask for permission to list it as a reference in your proposal

915.

You were part of a team that worked with Harry, one of the company's most
successful project managers. Harry left your company and went to work for one
of your major competitors. Several months after he left, he asked you to send him
a copy of the charter he used on-the MCCAW project to compare to his current
assignment. In this situation you shoulda.
Send him the update because he developed the original charter and basically
knows what it includes
b.
Not send him the update; invite him to the office where he can review it in
your cubicle
c.
Send him the update along with a confidentiality agreement to sign
d.
Not send him the update; he does not have a legitimate need to know the
contents of the document
916. Your company is looking to enter new markets and is considering bidding on an
RFP issued by the province's transportation department. Your company realizes
with government work, the lowest cut proposal submitted is usually selected. You
are concerned that your company's labor rates may be too high based on industry
standards. As a PMI member with strong project management expertise, you
have been asked for ways to reduce costs. Which one of the following
recommendations should you make to the management?
a.
Reducing existing labor costs so that they are similar to those of the
competition, and, if selected, pay each person on the project extra money
out of another project's account to compensate for the lower salary
b.
Use your existing labor rates combined with a value engineering approach
as a way to lower overall cost
c.
Put resumes from the existing staff in the proposal, but plan to hire new
people at a lower rate and use them if you are successful in winning the
project
d.
Use a parametric model, and submit a different type of cost proposal using
lump-sum pricing
917.

Working in a high technology research and development organization, you


realize that project risk management is essential to project success. Many of your
decisions are based on incomplete information and have been disastrous for your
business. To support the future use and improvement of your organization's risk
management process, you establish a lessons learned program. The basis of a risk
lessons learned program is toa.
Document the results of risk response audits

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b.
c.
d.

Capture meeting minutes from project risk reviews


Provide updates to risk identification checklists
Establish a risk database

918.

You are the project manager for a construction company that specializes 'n
warehouses. Over the time, a standard WBS has been prepared and a scope
change control system has been established. On your last project, one client
wanted you to use a different material than you normally use for laying the
foundation. Although this constituted a scope change, it turned out that this new
material reduced the actual construction time by 20%. At the end of the project,
you realized that its continuous use would lead to significant improvement in your
construction practices. Your next step should be toa.
Document the lessons learned and share them within the company
b.
Adjust the schedule baseline to note the reduction in time
c.
Calculate the savings based on schedule reduction and pass on the savings
on to the dog owner
d.
Issue a new methodology and mandate that ii be followed

919.

You have been managing a project, which is almost complete using a variety of
contractors, to design and develop a new avionics system. During the past four
years, you have awarded ten different contracts of various types. Some
contractors performed well but one had numerous difficulties and you had to
terminate the contract for poor performance. Another contractor must complete
some documentation before receiving final payment. Another has some
outstanding invoices because it has not followed all the appropriate contractual
terms and conditions. As you close out these contracts, you shoulda.
Provide each contractor with formal written notice that the project is
complete
b.
Prepare a complete set of indexed records and contractual files for future
reference
c.
Conduct a variance analysis
d.
Conduct a procurement audit

920.

You are managing the development of a highly controversial, genetically altered


enzyme that must satisfy government health standards. Yesterday, you called a
team meeting and explained the project objectives to the team, which included a
description of the project's quality management plan. You explained that the
objective of any quality management plan is toa.
Ensure that all regulations governing the use of biological agents will be
followed
b.
Ensure that the process adjustments are made in a timely fashion c.
Improve quality in every aspect of project performance
d.
Ensure that scope management plan is followed ^

921.

You are responsible for quality audits in your organization. You have a practice of

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conducting not one, but multiple quality audits on a project to ensure adherence to
the quality management plan. Which one of the following types of audits is not an
example of a quality audit?
a.
Internal
b.
System
c.
Baseline
d.
Prospective
922.

Your organization has a miserable project completion rate. Your PMO director
has lost out all confidence that any one in his organization can figure out why the
project completion rate is so slow. Therefore, he has hired a consultant to find out
what is going wrong. In reviewing the lessons learned database to determine the
root cause of the problem, the consultant should be looking at all the information
excepta.
New or revised activity duration estimates
b.
Modified activity schedules
c.
Analysis of alternative schedules
d.
Schedule updates

923.

You recently completed a major environment remediation project involving the


disposal of hazardous waste from a local power plant. Your client accepted the
work, and the company had been paid. Now you are working on a new project
that happens to be located at the same power plant. You have discovered a
possible flaw in the disposal system that was delivered for the earlier project. The
drawings for the project are incomplete. In this situation, you shoulda.
Do nothing because the project is complete and the customer accepted the
work based on its own independent inspection
;
b.
Alert your management to the situation, both orally and in writing, and
request that someone else confirm your findings
c.
Contact the customer directly and inform it of the potential problem so that
it can modify your contract to correct the problem
d.
Enhance your quality assurance and project review system immediately for
future projects

924.

After completing a systems upgrade, you and your team performed a lessons
learned review. One team member pointed out the uneven use of resources that
affected team morale. Because these resources were not used productively, your
project had a 25% cost over-run. Now you are moving on to the next company
project. You realize that when starting this new project, you shoulda.
Have an outside audit team periodically review your project to provide
ideas and insight for midcourse correction.
b. Use automated software cost estimating techniques
c.
Implement a structured approach to risk management
d.
Read the qualifications of the people joining your team

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925.

926.

Your recent project required extensive overtime to meet a demanding schedule.


Although the initial tasks involving computer design were a good fit for you, you
were also required to produce numerous technical documents and to perform
several arcane programming tasks. You had to work many weekends and nights to
get everything done. You are managing the company's next project and want to
avoid a similar situation. Therefore, you shoulda.
Ensure that all work efforts are traced back to the scope statement for scope
verification
b.
Use project management software that includes resource histogram and
resource leveling
c.
Ensure that the WBS is detailed enough and that ail the activities are
defined in sufficient detail
d.
Use critical chain scheduling to account for possible unplanned events with
its emphasis on buffers
A project management maturity review reviewed that your organization is not a
learning organization, ft seems that no one shares information and that people are
managing the projects the same way they were managed three generations ago.
Accordingly, the company will now conduct regular "learning events." Your
PMO hired a chief learning officer. Her first suggestion aimed at achieving this
goal is to ensure the company supportsa. Project team meetings
b. In-progress customer review suggestions
c Kickoff meetings
d. Benchmarking forums

927.

You recently were assigned to a project in Australia. Coming from Japan, you are
excited about the opportunity to visit the Outback, tour Sydney Harbor, and travel
to the Great Barrier Reef. To make the transition as easy as possible, your
company should do which of the following first?
a.
Hire a consultant who knows the country to brief you on what to expect in
Australia
b.
Get a tourist's guide to Australia to read on the plane to your new
assignment
c.
Send you to Australia a couple of weeks before the assignment so that you
get to know the place and to meet your new team mates
d.
Arrange a meeting at the Australian embassy in Tokyo so that you can meet
Australian nationals and they can explain what it is like for a Japanese
person to live there

928.

You have always dreamed of living abroad and now find that you have been
selected to manage an international project headquartered overseas. The job
sounds exciting, but you must consider certain things. The cultural differences are
many and varied. As you list the pros and cons of accepting the assignment, there
is one question above all others, which you must answer honestly before saying
"yes" or "no". That question isa.
What common ground exists between the people with whom I will be

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b.
c.
d.
929.

930.

working and me?


How do I translate my cultural awareness and knowledge into functional
skills that I can use on the project?
How can I continue to refine my skills and develop my level of cultural
competence and adaptability
How adaptable am I?

You are working on establishing a joint venture with a Korean firm for a large etraining program. During your first conversation with the company president, you
mention that you know how to spell several words in Hangul. He is pleasantly
surprised that you are familiar with the? language, and your relation begins
favorably. Which one of the following traits best identifies the disclosure of your
knowledge of his language?
a.
Confident humility
b.
Authentic flexibility
c.
Aggressive insight
d.
Positive aggrandizement
A person's negotiating behavior is influenced by his or her culture. However,
other factors, such as education and experience, also are at work. And over time,
and individual who is living in a culture that is different from his or her own may
take on characteristics of new culture. This person may behave from a new frame
of reference. With respect to negotiation, this illustrates the importance ofa.
Always looking at those with whom you are negotiating as members of a
particular cultural group
b.
Moving beyond cultural stereotyping and seeing people as individuals with
unique personality traits and experiences
c.
Recognizing that cultural stereotyping should be used as a starting point for
all international negotiations
d Becoming overly dependent on cultural knowledge as the corner stone for all
negotiations

931.

You are ready to enter a negotiating session with people from another country
who have earned a reputation as tough negotiators. To earn your yearly bonus,
you must not be at a disadvantage in your negotiations with them. Therefore, you
must concentrate ona.
Seating arrangement in the negotiating room
b.
Ingratiating yourself to the most powerful negotiator on the other side of
the negotiating table to earn his or her trust
c.
Active listening
d.
Setting and following strict time limits at each step of the negotiating
process

932.

You are meeting with several project stakeholders, including the customer, in a
small, cramped office. A debate is under way. Everyone is irritated, hot and in
violent disagreement regarding the best way to proceed with the project. Your

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goal as a project manager is to balance the stakeholders' interests. In general,
disagreements among the stake holders should be resolved in favor of thea.
Sponsor
b.
Senior management
c.
Performing organization
d.
Customer
933.

You are managing the construction of luxury condominiums in one of the last
available plots of the city land. The client is focused on timely performance and
has provided contract incentives if the job is completed early. However, an
environmental group is concerned about adverse impact on water drainage and is
considering suing. On this project, you need toa.
Find appropriate resolutions to resolve differences between or among
stakeholders
b.
Put the owner's requirements at the top of the list as you resolve stakeholder
differences
c.
Carefully manage all communication and make status information available
only on a need-to-know basis
d.
Build the condominiums according to the specifications and not worry
about any other stakeholder

934.

Two of your team members have been arguing for the several weeks about
which project management software will work best for the project. You decide to
conduct a meeting to see whether they reach consensus on the matter by
identifying common points of agreement and striving for a fair resolution. Which
style of conflict resolution will you employ?
a.
Withdrawal
b.
Smoothing
c.
Problem solving
d.
Compromise

935.

None of the people on your 15-person project team have worked together before,
and it really shows. This team cannot seem to get past the storming stage; each
meeting is characterized by disagreements and debates. Everyone seems to speak
a different "language". You need to get this situation under control quickly.
Therefore, the first action you should take is to:
a.
Hold period group meetings
b
use a group facilitator to the next meeting
c.
Perform careful project planning
d.
Enforce strict rules about meeting behavior

936. Conflict causes problems that can slow project completing. Although each
conflict situation is unique, the project managers goal remains the same: to
achieve a win-win solution for everyone involved. This method most often used
by project managers to resolve conflict is:
a.
Compromise

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b.
c.
d.
937.

Confrontation
Smoothing
Negotiation

Communication is vitally important for conducting business and managing


projects- however, it becomes even more critical when working abroad with
people whose language is different from yours. The single best way to become an
effective communicator as expatriate is to:
a.
Learn and use local language
y
b.
Rely on interpreters
c.
Focus primarily on formal, written communication
d.
Use gestures and other form of non-verbal communication to make your
point

938. Meta-communication, paralinguistic, second-order messages, and the hidden


dimension of communication all refer to:
a.
Communication skills
b.
Communication requirements
c.
Ways to exercise tolerance and compromise
d.
Non-verbal communication
939. Some people believe that to have an effective conversation, a distance of about
20 inches between the two parties involved is required. In certain cultural groups,
however, the normal conversational distance is in the range of 14-15 inches; and
some groups say 9-10 inches is ideal. This area of nonverbal communication is
important for cross-culture communication. It is known as:
a.
Proxemics
b.
Personal space dynamics
c.
Posturing
d.
Linguistics
940.

A person who behaves in the inherent superiority and naturalness of his or her
own culture is defined as being:
a.
Racist
b.
Ethnocentric
c.
Imperialistic
d.
Jingoistic

941. After working on various projects around the world, you have come to expect
people, at times, to put other people into categories. You know that many people
categorize those from your country as "bash" and "boorish". In fact, you think
your current project team has categorized you as a brash person. Therefore, you
should:
a.
Treat the other team members accordingly to their country stereotypes
b.
Focus on the personalities involved
c.
Take a passive view and ignore the situation

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d

Behave in a manner that contradicts their expectations]

942.

Maximizing one's influence facilities communication. This involves building and


sustaining credibility. Which of the following is not a behavior that can help in this
regard?
a.
Being flexible and open to differences
b.
Being respectful
c.
Exhibiting expertise by the answers you give
d.
Being reliable and committed

943.

You have been sent abroad to conduct negotiations for a large


telecommunication project. You arrive at the office promptly at 8.00 am, ready to
engage negotiations. Although you are ready, at least 45 minutes of talk about
families and weekend adventures goes by before anyone mentions business.
Given their business approach, your hosts' culture is noted for which one of the
following characteristics?
a.
High context
b.
Low context
c.
Friendliness
d.
Expressiveness

944.

You are meeting with your project team. It is a diverse team represented by
different nationalities, level of experience, and positions in the company
hierarchy. Everyone is encouraged to state their opinion, which is considered by
the group. This team exhibits which of the following characteristics:
a.
Integrate others' worlds into your own
b.
Look globally for new ideas
c.
Be open to change
d.
Understand and value others

945.

You work for a company that hires only left-handed people. The entire company
culture is based on left-handedness. When the company decided to go global, it
replicated its left-handed culture around the world. A new manager once
mentioned at a staff meeting that it would be nice to have a few right-handed
people in the company to get a different point of view on things. Such diversity
would have which of the following impacts on this company?
a.
Have no impact
b.
Cause only problems
c.
Either cause problems or lead to benefits
d.
Can simultaneously cause problems and lead to benefits.

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LEADERSHIP EFFECTIVENESS - A CASE STUDY:


Your company has won a contract for an outside customer. The contract is for one year,
broken down as follows: R&D: six months; prototype testing: one month; manufacturing:
five months. In addition to the risks involved in the R&D stage, both your management
and the customer have stated that there will be absolutely no trade-offs on time, cost, or
performance.
When you prepared the proposal six months ago, you planned and budgeted for full-time
staff of five people, in addition to function support personnel. Unfortunately, due to
limited resources, your staff (i.e., the project team) will be as follows:
1

Tom an experienced engineer and is recognized as both technical leader and


expert, shall be available for full time for the duration of the project.
2. Bob, relatively new to the profession, will be reporting to a functional manager
shall also be available to you for full duration of the project
3. Carol is working in the company for over twenty years but has never worked in
the project. She is full time on the project.
4. George has been in the company for over 6 years, but has never worked on any
of your projects. He will be available only half time on your project until he
finished a crash job on another project. He shall be available for full time in a
month or two.
Management has informed you that there is nobody else to fill the fifth position. You will
have a spread in the increased workload over the other members. Obviously, the
customer may not be too happy about this.
In each situation that follows, choose the best answer.
946.

a.
b.
c.
d.

The project office team members have been told to report to you this morning.
They have all received your memo concerning the time and place of the kickoff
meeting. However, they have not been provided any specific details concerning
the project except that the project will be at least one year in duration. For your
company, this is regarded as a long-term project. A good strategy for the meeting
would be:
The team must already be self-motivated or else they would not have been
assigned. Simply welcome them and assign homework.
Motivate the employees by showing how they will benefit: esteem, pride, selfactualization. Minimize discussions on specifics.
Explain the project and ask them for their input. Try to get them to identify
alternatives and encourage group decision-making.
Identify the technical details of the project: the requirements, performance
standards, and expectations

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947. You give the team members a copy of the winning proposal and a "confidential"
memo describing the assumptions and constraints you considered in developing the
proposal. You tell your team to review the material and be prepared to perform detailed
planning at the meeting you have scheduled for the following Monday. During Monday's
planning meeting, you find that Tom (who has worked with you before) has established a
take-charge role and has done some of the planning that should have been the
responsibility of other team members. You should:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Do nothing. This may be a beneficial situation. However, you may wish to ask if
the other project office members wish to review Tom's planning.
Ask each team member individually how he or she feels about Tom's role If they
complain, have a talk with Tom.
Ask each team member to develop his or her own schedules and then compare
results.
Talk to Tom privately about the long-term effects of his behavior.

948. Your team appears to have trouble laying out realistic schedules that will satisfy
the customer's milestones. They keep asking you pertinent questions and seem to be
making the right decisions,' but with difficulty.
a.
b.
c.

d.

Do nothing. If the team is good, they will eventually work out the problem.
Encourage the team to continue but give some ideas as to possible alternatives
Let them solve the problem.
Become actively involved and help the team solve the problem. Supervise the
planning until completion.
Take charge yourself and solve the problem for the team. You may have to
provide continuous direction.

949. Your team has taken an optimistic approach to the schedule The functional
managers have reviewed the schedules and have sent your team strong memos stating
that there is no way that they can support your schedules. Your team's morale appears
to be very low. Your team expected the schedules to be returned for additional iterations
and trade-offs, but not with such harsh words from the line managers. You should:
a.
Take no action. This is common of these type of projects and the team must
learn to cope.
b.
Call a special team meeting to discuss the morale problem and ask the team for
recommendations. Try to work out the problem.
c. Meet with each team member individually to reinforce his or her behavior and
performance. Let members know how many other times this has occurred and
been resolved through trade-offs and additional iterations. State your availability
to provide advice and support.
d. Take charge and look for ways to improve morale by changing the schedules.
950. The functional departments have begun working, but are still criticizing the "
schedules. Your team is extremely unhappy with some of the employees assigned out of

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one functional department. Your team feels that these employees are not qualified to
perform the required work. You should:
a. Do nothing until you are absolutely sure (with evidence) that the assigned
personnel cannot perform as needed.
b. Sympathize with your team and encourage them to live with this situation until an
alternative is found.
c. Assess the potential risks with the team and ask for their input and suggestions
Try to develop contingency plans if the problem is as serious as the team
indicates.
d. Approach the functional manager and express your concern. Ask to have
different employees assigned.

951. Bob's performance as a project officer team member has begun to deteriorate.
You are not sure whether he simply lacks the skills, cannot endure the pressure or
cannot assume part of the additional work that resulted from the fifth position in the
project being vacant. You should:
;
a.
b
c
d

Do nothing. The problem may be temporary and you cannot be sure that there is
a measurable impact on the project.
Have a personal discussion with Bob, seek out the cause, and ask him for a
solution.
Call a team meeting and discuss how productivity and performance are
decreasing. Ask the team for recommendations and hope Bob gets the message.
Interview the other team members and see if they can explain Bob s actions
lately. Ask the other members to assist you by talking to Bob.

952. George who is half time on your project, has just submitted for your approval his
quarterly progress report for your project. After your signature has been attained the
report is sent to senior manager and customer. The report is marginally acceptable and
not at all what you would have expected from George. George apologizes to you for the
report and blames it on his other project, which is in its last two weeks. You should:
a sympathize with George and ask him to rewrite the report.
b. Tell George that the report is totally unacceptable and will reflect on his ability as
a project office team member.
'
. ., .. a * ^
c. Ask the team to assist George in redoing the report since a bad report reflects on
everyone.
d. Ask one of the team members to rewrite the report for George.
953. You have completed the R&D stage of your project and are entering phase II:
prototype testing. You are entering month seven of the twelve-month project.
Unfortunately, the results of the phase I R&D indicate that you were too optimistic in
your estimating for phase II and a schedule slippage of atleast two weeks is highly
probable.

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The customer may not be happy. You should:
a.
Do nothing. These problems occur and have a way of working themselves out.
The end date of the project can still be met.
b
Call a team meeting to discuss the morale problem resulting from the slippage, it
morale is improved, the slippage may be overcome.
c.
Call a team meeting and seek ways of improving productivity for phase II.
Hopefully the team will come up with alternatives.
d.
This is a crisis and you must exert strong leadership. You should take control and
assist your team in identifying alternatives.
954. Your rescheduling efforts have been successful. The functional managers have
given you adequate support and you are back on schedule. You should:
a Do nothing. Your team has matured and is doing what they are paid to do.
b Try to provide some sort of monetary or non-monetary reward for your team
(eg. management-granted time off or a dinner team meeting).
c. Provide positive feedback/reinforcement for the team and search for ideas for
shortening phase lit.
.
d.

Obviously, your strong leadership has been effective. Continue this role for the
phase Hi schedule.

955. You are now at the end of the seventh month and everything is proceeding as
planned. Motivation appears high. You should:
a.
Leave well enough alone.
b.
Look for better ways to improve the functioning of the team. Talk to them and
make them feel important.
c.
Call a team meeting and review the remaining schedules for the project. Look for
contingency plans.
d.
Make sure that the team is still focusing on the goals and objectives of the
. project.
956. The customer unofficially informs you that his company has a problem and may
have to change the design specifications before production actually begins. This would
be a catastrophe for your project. The customer wants a meeting at your plant within the
next seven days. This will be the customer's first visit to your plant. All previous
meetings were informal and at the customers facilities, with just you and the customer.
This meeting will be formal. To prepare for the meeting, you should:
a.
Make sure that the (Schedules are updated and assume a passive role since the
customer has not officially informed you of his problem.
b.
Ask the team to improve productivity before the customer's meting. This should
please the customer.
c.
Call an immediate team meeting and ask the team to prepare an agenda and
identify the items to be discussed.
d. Assign specific responsibilities to each team member for preparation of handout
material for the meeting.

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957. Your team is obviously not happy with the results of the customer interface
meeting because the customer has asked for a change in design specifications. The
manufacturing plans and manufacturing schedules must be developed anew. You
should:
a.
Do nothing. The team is already highly motivated and will take charge as before.
b.
Reemphasize the team spirit and encourage your people to proceed. Tel! that
nothing is impossible for a good team.
c.
Roll up your shirtsleeves and help the tern identify alternatives. Some degree of
guidance is necessary.
d.
Provide strong leadership and close supervision. Your team will have to rely on
you for assistance.
958. You are now in the ninth month. While your re-planning is going on (as a result of
changes in the specifications), the customer calls and asks for an assessment of the
risks in canceling this project right away and starting another one. You should:
a.
Wait for a forma! request. Perhaps you can delay long enough for the project to
finish.
b.
Tell the team that their excellent performance may result in a follow-on contract.
c.
Call a team meeting to assess the risks and look for alternatives.
d.
Accept strong leadership for this and with minimum, if any, team involvement.
959. One of the functional mangers has asked you for you evaluation of all his
functional employees currently working on your project (excluding project office
personnel). Your project office personnel appear to be working more closely with the
functional employees than you are. You should:
a.
Return the request to the functional manager since this is not part of your
b.
Talk to team members individually, telling them how important their input is, and
ask for their evaluations.
c.
As a team, evaluate each of the functional team members, and try to come to
some sort of agreement.
d.
Do not burden your team with this request. You can do it yourself.
960. You are in the tenth month of the project. Carol informs you that she has the
opportunity to be the project leader for an effort starting in two weeks. She has been with
the company for twenty years and this is her first opportunity as a project leader. She
wants to know if she can be released from your project. You should:
a
Let Carol go You do not want to stand in the way of her career advancement.
b.
Ask the team to meet in private and conduct a vote. Tell Carol that you will abide
by the team vote.
c Discuss the problem with the team since they must assume the extra workload, if
necessary. Ask for their input into meeting the constraints.
d.
Counsel her and explain her how important it is for her to remain. You are
already shorthanded.
961. Your team informs you that one of the functional manufacturing managers has
built up a brick wall around his department and all information requests must flow

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through him The brick wall has been in existence for two years. Your team members are
having trouble with status reporting, but always get the information after catering to the
functional manager. You should:
a Do nothing. This is obviously the way the line manager wants to run his
department. Your team is getting the information they need.
b Ask the team members to use their behavioral skills in obtaining the information.
c Call a team meeting to discuss the alternative ways of obtaining the information.
d.
Assume strong leadership and exert your authority by calling the tine manager
and asking for the information.
962. Your executives have given you a new man to replace Carol! for the last two
months of the project. Neither you nor your team members have worked with this man
before. You should:
a.
Do nothing. Carol Obviously filled him in on what he should be doing and what is
involved in the project.
b.
Counsel the new man individually, bring him up to speed, and assign him Carol s
work.
c.
Call a meeting and ask each member to explain his or her role on the project to
the new man.
d.
Ask each team member to talk to this new man as soon as possible and help him
come on board. Request that individual conversations be used

963. One of your team members wants to take a late-afternoon course at the local
college. Unfortunately, this course may conflict with his workload. You should:
a. Postpone your decision. Ask the employee to wait until the course is offered
again.
b. Review the request with the team member and discuss the impact on his
performance.
c. Discuss the request with the team and ask for the team's approval. The team
may have to cover for this employee's workload.
d. Discuss this individually with each team member to make sure that the task
requirements will still be adhered to.
964. Your functional employees have used the wrong materials in making a production
run test. The cost to your project was significant, but absorbed in a small cushion"
that you saved for emergencies such as this. Your team members tell you that the
test will be rerun without any slippage of the schedule. You should:
a. Do nothing. Your team seems to have the situation well under control.
b. Interview the employees that created this problem and stress the importance of
productivity and following instructions.
c. Ask your team to develop contingency plans for this situation, should it happen
again.
d. Assume a strong leadership role for the rerun test to let people know your

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concern.
965. All good projects must come to an end, usually with a final report. Your project
has a requirement for a final report. This final report may very well become the
basis of follow-on work. You should:
a. Do nothing. Your team has things under control and knows that a final report is
needed.
b. Tell your team that they have done a wonderful job and there is only one more
task to do.
c. Ask your team to meet and provide an outline for the final report.
d. You must provide some degree of leadership for the final report, at least the
structure. The final report could easily reflect on your ability as a manager.

MISCELLANEOUS
966.

A code of accounts:
a. Uniquely identifies each element of the WBS
b. Includes work packages/used to track phase completion
c. Is an organizational scheme to keep track of contracts
d. Chart elements of the WBS against the timeline

967.

The current baseline does not include:


a. Roles and responsibility matrix
b. Plus or minus approved project scope, cost, schedule, and technical changes
c. Assumptions
d. Work breakdown structure component, a work package, schedule activity

968. A stakeholder is not defined as:


a. Persons and organizations whose interests may be positively or negatively
affected by execution or completion of the project
b. Persons and organization that are not concerned with your project
c. Persons and organizations that are actively involved in the project
d. Persons and organizations who exert influence over the project and its
deliverables
969. Scope defining for a project is fully described as:
a. The project specification that includes design principles and project objectives
b. A three-level project work breakdown structure
c. A process of developing a detailed project scope statement as the basis for
future project decisions
d. The record showing that all project deliverables are completed satisfactorily
970. Create WBS is:
a. A process of subdividing the major deliverables and project work into smaller,

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more manageable components.
b. Determining the responses needed to perform project activities
c. Analysis of activity sequence, duration, and resource requirements
d. A written statement identifying the quality standards relevant to the project
971.

All of the following are characteristics of a "work package" EXCEPT:


a. It is a deliverable or project work at the lowest level of each branch of the WBS
b. It consists project phases of the entire project life cycle
c. It consists of schedule activities required to complete the work package
deliverables or project work component
d. It consists of schedule milestones required to complete the work package
deliverables or project work component

972. In what way does Free Float differ from Total Float?
a. Free Float is the amount of Total Float that does not affect the end date, whereas
Total Float is the accumulated amount of Free Float
b. There 's no difference - the two terms are functionally equivalent
c. Free Float is the amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed without
delaying the early start of any immediately following activities
d. An activity's Free Float is calculated by subtracting Its Total Float from the critical
path's Total Float
973. A standard may be defined as:
a. A procedure or process to meet deadlines
b. A document established by consensus and approved by a recognized body
c. A procedure or process to meet scope baseline
d. An organizational process asset
974. The Precedence Diagramming Method - PDM is:
a. Developing the WBS
b Developing cost histograms
.
c. A schedule diagramming network technique in which the schedule activity is are
representatives by boxes
d. Presenting project summary status to upper management
975. Which is an acceptable cause for "baseline" of a Rs. 10 million project?
a " The client has authorized a Rs. 100,000 addition to the scope of the project
b The contractor's company has instituted a Quality Program in which it has
pledged to spend one million rupees during the next year
c The productivity in the Drafting Department is lower than anticipated, which has
resulted in 1,000 additional hours over what was budgeted
d. The Engineering Department has covered to a new Rs. 200,000 CAD system
976. What does "cost of quality" mean?
^^r^
a.
The sacrifice of unessential project objectives to meet essential quality standards
b.
The life cycle cost of the project

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c.
d.

Determining the costs incurred to ensure quality


The cost of meeting project objectives

977. FFP is a acronym for:


a.
Free-Flow Performance
b.
Firm-Fixed-Price
c.
Free-Form Project
d.
Fixed-File Procurement
978. How the numbering system in the chart of accounts differs from code of
Accounts:
a Project chart of accounts used to monitor project costs by WBS elements,
whereas the chart of accounts is how to control cost
b Project chart of accounts are usually based upon the corporate chart of accounts
of the primary performing organization; whereas the chart of accounts is
identified with each component of WBS
c
d

Project chart of accounts are used to develop as part of project charter, whereas
the chart of accounts is management by finance department
Project chart of accounts provides a graphical representation of project cost in
relation to the project schedule, whereas the chart of accounts is concerned with
cost base line

979. Activity code:


a. Categorizes the schedule activity that allows filtering and ordering of activity
within reports
b. Is a label for each schedule activity used in conjunction with an activity identifier
c. Is similar to cost account code
d. Defined activity attribute
980.Authority does not provides project manager:
a. Right to apply project resources
b. Expend funds
c. Clarifies role
d. Give approvals
981.Calendar unit is:
a. Resource calendar
b Resource assignment calendar
c. Activity calendar
d. The smallest unit of time is scheduling*the project
982.Workaround is:
a. A response to a negative risk that has occurred
b. A contingency plan
c. Implementation of the contingency plan for a positive risk event

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d. Using global sourcing to continue project development

983.War room:
a. Is used by military personnel during war
b. Is used for project conferences and planning
c. Is built with superior quality of concrete in battle field
d. Place where people are encouraged to fight
984.Work typically involves:
a. Applying sustained physical or mental effort to increase obstacles and achieve
an objective
b. Applying sustained physical or mental effort to overcome obstacles and achieve
an objective
c. Encouraging others to apply physical or mental effort to overcome objectives
d. Applying efforts to increase obstacles to achieve objectives
985.Work authorization:
a. It is method to formally verify project scope
b. It is a method for sanctioning project work
c. It is a processes to authorize project manager to give orders
d. It is a method to control change requests
986.Scope creep:
a. Adding features and functionality without addressing the effects on time, costs,
and resources, and without customer approval
b. Adding features and functionality in to exceed customer's expectations
c. Adding features and functionality to increase performing organization business
needs
d. Is similar to scope control
987.RAM:
a. RAM relates OBS with WBS
b. RAM relates Resource Breakdown Structure - RBS with OBS
c. RAM relates functional manager with project manager
d. RAM is another name of the matrix organization
988. Bill of materials - BOM is:
a. Invoices for the material to be billed to the customer
b List of bills received for the material purchased
c A documented formal hierarchical tabulation of the physical assemblies,
subassemblies, and components needed to fabricate a product.
d. Bills received by the customer for the supplies made by the vendor
989. Claim is a request, demand, or assertion of rights by a seller against a buyer, or
Vice versa, for;

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a. Consideration, compensation or payment for a disputed change as agreed in the
meeting minutes
b. Consideration, compensation, or payment under the terms of a legally binding.
contract, such as for a disputed change
c. Consideration, compensation or payment for a disputed change as described in
the request for proposal
.
.
d. Consideration, compensation or payment for a disputed change against the JOD
executed, without formal approval.
990. Constraint is:
a. The state, quality, or sense of being unrestricted to a given course of action or
inaction.
.
b. The state, quality, or sense of assumptions for a given course of action or
inaction.
c The state, quality, or sense of being empowered.
d. The state, quality, or sense of being restricted to a given course of action or
inaction.
991. A type of cost reimbursement contract where buyer reimburses the seller for the
sellers costs plus fixed amount of profit is:
a. Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee contract
b. Cost-Plus-Fee contract
c. Cost-Pius-Incentive-Fee contract
d. Cost-Plus-Percentage of cost contract
992. A type of fixed price contract where buyer pays the seller a set amount (as
defined by the contract), regardless of seller's cost is a:
a.
Fixed-Price or lump-sum contract
b.
Firm-Fixed-Price contract
c.
Firm-Price-Incentive-Fee contract
d.
Firm-Contract
993. A category or rank used to distinguish items that have the same functional use,
but do not share the same requirements for quality are:
a.
Quality
b.
Specifications
c.
Grade
d.
Deliverable
994. A group of related schedule activities aggregated at some summary level, and
displayed/reported as a single activity is known as:
a. Hammock activity
b. Activity
c. Series of activities
d. Parallel activities

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995. An issue is not:


a.
Dispute
b.
Disagreements
c.
Under discussion
d. An agreement
996. Planning package is different to work package because:
a. It is a WBS component with known work content but without detailed schedule
activities
b. It is a WBS component with known work content but with detailed-schedule
activities
c.
It is a WBS component with unknown work content but without detailed
schedule
activities
d. It is a WBS component with unknown work content but with detailed schedule
activities
997. A series of steps followed in a regular definitive order to accomplish some thing
is defined as:
a.
Standards
b.
Guidelines
c.
Procedure
d.
Process
998. The process of obtaining information, quotations, bids, offers, or proposals, as
appropriate is generally known as:
a.
Request for proposal (RFP)
b.
Request for quotation (RFQ)
c.
Request for seller's response
d.
Select sellers
999. Risks that remains after risk responses have been implemented are:
a.
Secondary risks
b.
Residual risks
c.
Triggers
d.
Risk
1000. Rolling wave planning is a form of:
a.
Re-planning
b.
Progressive elaboration planning in detail for the work to be accomplished in
the near term, and tentative plan for the work to be accomplished later
c.
Re-baseline
d.
Planning in phases.

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