NOV - 60211/II

Law
Paper II
Time Allowed : 75 Minutes]
[Maximum Marks : 100
Note : This Paper contains Fifty (50) multiple choice questions. Each question
carrying Two (2) marks. All questions are compulsory.
1.

Notion of Justice envisaged by the

3.

Preamble of the Indian Constitution

Art.....................of the Indian

Constitution envisages separation of

connotes in order..................... .
judiciary from executive.
(A) Economic, Social, Political
(A) Art. 51
(B) Social, Political, Economic
(B) Art. 49
(C) Political, Social, Economic
(C) Art. 50

(D) Social, Economic, Political

2.

(D) Art. 48

Section 4 of the 42nd Constitutional

Amendment Act, 1976 was declared

4.

invalid by the Indian Supreme

Clause (4-B) in Art. 16 was added

in

the

Indian

Constitution

Court in :
by...................... .
(A) Bhimsingh v. Union of India
(A) 77th Amendment
(B) Union Territory of Goa v.
(B) 80th Amendment

Laxmibai
(C) Indira Gandhi v. Rajnarayan

(C) 85th Amendment

(D) Minerva Mills Ltd. v. UOI

(D) 81st Amendment

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5.

Proclamation

issued

by

the

7.

President of India under Art. 352

Doctrine of Res-Judicata is an
exception to the writ of................. .

to impose an emergency is to be laid

(A) Mandamus

before each House of the Parliament

(B) Quo-Warranto

within a period of.................... .

(C) Certiorari

(A) One month

(D) Habeas Corpus

(B) Six months

8.

(C) Three months

provides for..................... .

(D) One year

6.

Art. 245(2) of the Indian Constitution

(A) extra territorial operation of law

Power of the Parliament under Art.

368 is a constituent power and is

(B) territorial limitation of law

not subject to the Constitutional

(C) limitation on law making power

scheme as to distribution of

(D) scope of law making power

legislative power according to

9.

entries in the VII schedule. It was

Member

of

either

House

of

Parliament shall not be disqualified

held so by the Indian Supreme

Court in..................... .

on the ground of................... .

(A) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain

(A) if he holds office of profit

(B) Keshvananda Bharati v. Kerala

(B) he is of unsound mind

(C) Kihota Hollohan v. Zachillu

(C) he is undischarged insolvent

(D) Sasanka v. UOI

(D) he is indulged in bigamy

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12. Principle

10. Recommendation made by the Chief

of

Lex-divina

was

enunciated by ST. Acquinas, meant

Justice of India without complying

as...................... .

with the norms and requirements of

(A) Law of Jungle

the consultation process were not

(B) Law of God

binding on the Government. It was

held so by the Indian Supreme

(C) Positive law of God

Court in..................... .

(D) Law of nature

13. Positive natural law, according to

(A) S.P. Gupta v. UOI

Duguit is nothing but.................. .

(B) UOI v. Sankalachand
(A) Law of State Legislature
(C) In re Presidential Reference

(B) Law of King

(D) Supreme Court Advocates on

(C) Law of People

Record Association v. UOI

(D) Decision delivered by the

tribunal

11. Wambaughs test is the test to be

14. Social interest is a device to balance

applied to determine the nature

competing and conflicting interests.

of.................... .

It was stated by..................... .

(A) Ratio
(A) Prof. Pound
(B) Obiter

(B) Prof. Selznick

(C) Law

(C) Prof. David Hume

(D) Delegated Legislation

(D) Prof. Patterson

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17. Ownership is an unlimited right to

15. A. K. Gopalans v. State of Madras

use, possess or transfer. This

was considered as....................... .

statement

was

propounded

by................... .

(A) instance of social engineering

(A) Austin
(B) Victory of natural law
(B) Savigny
(C) high watermark of positivism

(C) Holmes

(D) instance of grund norm

(D) Salmond
18. Will theory of right is advocated

16. Rights

in

wider

sense

by...................... .

connote....................... .

(A) Bentham

(A) rights co-related to duties

(B) Prof. Hart

(C) Joseph Raz

(B) rights which are not co-related

(D) Prof. Pound
to duties
19. Rule of Recognition is a rule meant
for/to.................... .

(C) rights which are to be enforced

(A) creation of rules

against state

(B) determine validity of rules

(D) rights enforceable against
(C) revocation of rules
individual

(D) legal systems aspect

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20. ..............................is not the source of

23. When a state possesses all the

law.
essentials of statehood and is
(A) Custom
capable of being a member of the

(B) Precedent
(C) Legislation

International Community, then the

(D) Scriptures

recognition given is :

21. Who is the father of International

(A) de facto

Law ?
(A) Kelson

(B) de novo

(B) Jeremy Bentham

(C) de minimis
(C) Hugo Grotius
(D) de jure

(D) Aristotle
22. According to Monoism..................... .

24. The following is the direct source of

(A) Law is a single unity of

International Law :

composed legal rules binding

upon States and Individuals

(A) Bilateral Treaty

(B) International Law is supreme

(B) Non-treaty Contracts

(C) Municipal Law is superior to

International Law

(C) Municipal Law

(D) International Law is not a law

(D) Law Making Treaty

at all
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25. Which of the following is the correct

27. Pleading retrospective Talaq in the

statement relating to subjects of

written statement as a counter to

International Law ?
the wifes maintenance petition was
(A) Only states are subjects
not

accepted

as

valid

and

(B) Individuals alone are subjects

enforceable in which of the following
(C) There is no place for individuals
cases :
(D) States are main subjects but
individuals,

(A) Daniel Latif v. Union of India

International

(2001) 7 Sec. 740

Organizations and certain nonentities are also subjects

(B) Mohammad Ahmed Khan v.

26. A second marriage of a married

Shah Bano Begum, AIR 1985

Hindu man contracted after his

Sec. 945
conversion to Muslim faith is :
(C) Shamim Ara v. State of Uttar
(A) Valid
Pradesh, 2002 Cr. L.J. (Sec.)
(B) Void
(D) Fazlanbi v. Khadir Vali, (1980)

(C) Voidable

4 Sec. 125

(D) Irregular
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30. A

28. Marriage of a fifteen year old girl

with

sixty

year

old

husband

cannot

claim

maintenance from his wife under :

man

solemnized without her consent but

(A) Hindu Marriage Act, 1955

with the consent of her parents

(B) Indian Christian Marriage Act,

under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955,

1872

is :

(C) Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act,

1936

(A) Perfectly valid

(D) The Special Marriage Act, 1954

(B) Totally void

31. The term consensus ad idem means :

(C) Voidable at the option of the girl
(A) Formation of the contract
(D) Voidable at the option of the
(B) Reaching of agreement
man
(C) Meeting of minds
29. What is the minimum age difference
(D) General consensus
that must be adhered to if a person
32. When a person signifies his assent

adopts a child of opposite sex under

to a proposal made to him to refrain

the

Hindu

Adoptions

and

from doing something, the resultant

Maintenance Act, 1956 :

transaction is known as :

(A) 10 years

(A) Promise

(B) 15 years

(B) Agreement

(C) 18 years

(C) Contract

(D) 21 years

(D) Understanding
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35. The big corporations like LIC supply

33. A consideration is :

ready forms of contract with all

(A) a reason behind making a

conditions printed; the offree has

proposal

either to take all or let go. Such

contracts are known as.................. .

(B) a condition of the fulfilment of

(A) Company contracts

the others promise

(B) Corporation contracts

(C) doing or abstaining from doing

(C) Government contracts

something at the desire of

(D) Standard form contracts

promiser

36. An association undertakes to supply

(D) rewards for something which

competent servants and exercises

one has done for another

ordinary care and skill in such

servants selection. If these servants

34. Which one of the following is not the

fail to exercise due care and skill.

legal requirement of a valid offer ?

(A) the association would be
(A) It must be communicated to the

responsible generally

offeree

(B) the association would be

responsible only when the

(B) It must express offerors final

servant is accused of a grave

willingness

negligence

(C) It must be made to a specific

(C) the association would be

person and not to public at

responsible only if the hirer

suffers loss due to such

large

servants negligence

(D) It must be made with a view to

(D) the association would not be

obtain offerees assent

responsible
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37. The maxim In jure non remota

38. A journalist gets published a

causa sed proxima spectator

defamatory statement against a

means :

person X in a newspaper. X sues him

for damages.

(A) law will permit no damages to

be recovered except such as are

(A) the journalist is not liable as he

the direct consequences of the

merely gave the piece to the

tort

editor of the newspaper for

(B) an

action

for

publishing it, and the editor had

malicious

the discretion on whether to

prosecution

publish it or not.
(C) liability of the head of a
(B) the newspapers are entitled to

department for the neglect or

torts

of

officials

in

special rights and privileges

the

(C) the journalist is not liable as he

department

genuinely

(D) a public officers guilt of

believed

the

statement to be true

misfeasance in the exercise of

the powers entrusted to him by

(D) the journalist is liable as he has

law and in discharge of his

a greater liability to guard

duty

against untruths
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40. Contributory

39. When is the master responsible for

Negligence

means....................... .

the wrongful acts of his servants ?

(A) negligence is not avoiding the

(A) Where the act is done by the

consequences arising from the

servant in his personal capacity

negligence of some other person

but during the course of his

when means and opportunity

are afforded to do so

employment

(B) a breach of duty as between the

(B) Where the act is done by the

plaintiff and the negligent

servant in his personal capacity,

defendant

but is within the knowledge of

(C) an intentional wrong by the

defendant and the plaintiff

the master

(D) a husband suing for damages

(C) Where the act is in the scope

caused to him by reason of

of servants employment and in

injuries negligently inflicted on

executing the matter for which

his wife

he was engaged at that time

41. Nothing an offence which is done by

accident or misfortune provided :

(D) Where the act is done by the

(A) it is will of God

servant in his personal capacity

(B) without any criminal intention

and is brought to the knowledge

(C) done with common consensus

of the master, after it is

(D) with valid justification

executed
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42. Ignorance of fact is.......................,

45. De minimis non curat lex is covered

whereas ignorance of law is.............. .

under :

(A) punishable, not punishable

(A) Section 85 IPC, Triffles

(B) not excusable, excusable

(B) Section 90 IPC, Triffles
(C) excusable, not excusable
(C) Section 95 IPC, Triffles
(D) offence, not an offence
(D) Section 59 IPC, Triffles
43. Common intention is defined
46. The definition of Industry under

under :

Sec. 2(J) of the ID Act does not

(A) Section 34 of Cr. P.C.

include activities that are in the

(B) Section 43 of IPC
nature of..................... .
(C) Section 34 of IPC
(A) Agricultural and domestic work
(D) Section 54 of IPC
(B) Trade,

44. Consent under misconception is :

business

and

undertaking
(A) not an offence
(C) Scientific research and training

(B) a good defence

institution
(C) not a defence
(D) Khadi or village industries

(D) an offence
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47. Every Individual dispute can

49. Workman is a person hired to do

become an Industrial dispute

skilled or unskilled work but does

provided that :

not include :

(A) the individual involved in the

dispute should be the member

(A) Clerk

of the trade union

(B) Apprentice

(B) the individual concern should

be a permanent employee with

(C) Managerial work

5 years service
(D) Supervisory work

(C) the individual victim should be

dismissed

50. The machinery for settlement of

(D) the victim individual should

industrial dispute, that can not only

have been refused bonus

promote settlement but inquire into
48. A dispute is an industrial dispute
them and can also give award is :

only when it arises in any activity

which is an industry as defined in

(A) Tribunals

Sec. 2(J) of the Industrial Dispute

(B) Board of Conciliation after

Act. This was held in the case :

arriving at settlement

(A) D.N. Banerji v. P.R. Mukherjee

(B) Shridharan v. Delhi Cloth Mills

(C) Works Committee on arriving

(C) Sunder Money v. State Bank of

at agreement

India
(D) Conciliation officer authorised

(D) Ramakant Mishra v. State of

to give award

U.P.
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ROUGH WORK

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ROUGH WORK

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