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6101 HW 5

Conner Herndon

September 22, 2014

1: A point particle of mass m1 moves under gravity on a circle of radius R, oriented in a vertical plane with
its center a height 2R above a horizontal frictionless line, which lies in the same vertical plane as the circle.
A bead of mass m2 moves on the line and is attached to the particle m1 by a spring of stiffness k and unextended length ` < R. Find the stable equilibrium configurations and the frequencies of the normal modes.

Define to be the angle from the bottom of the loop to m1 increasing counterclockwise. Define x
to be along the frictionless line corresponding to the location of m2 with x = 0 at the point on the line 2R
below the center of the loop. Then the kinetic energy of m1 is T1 = 12 m1 R2 2 and the kinetic energy of the
second mass is T2 = 21 m2 x 2 .
Define the point of zero potential energy to be at frictionless line. Then V1 = m1 gR (2 cos ) and
V2 = 0. There is also a potential energy contribution from the extension of the spring. To determine this
difference, we must first express the location of m1 in Cartesian
h coordinates with iorigin on the frictionless
line below the bottom of the loop. Its location is ~r1 = R sin i + (2 cos )j The location of m2 is
~r2 = xi. Then the potential energy of the spring is Vs = 1 k (|~r1 ~r2 | `)2 . Then
2

(R sin x)2 + R2 (2 cos )2

R2 sin2 + R2 cos2 + x2 + 4R2 2xR sin 4R2 cos

5R2 + x2 2R (x sin + 2R cos ).

|~r1 ~r2 | =

(1)

Then the Lagrangian is


i2
1
1
1 hp 2
5R + x2 2R (x sin + 2R cos ) ` mgR (2 cos ) .
L = m1 R2 2 + m2 x 2 k
2
2
2
We want the Lagrangian in the form of L =

(2)

1
2

(qi Mij qj qi Kij qj ). Our mass matrix M by inspection is then




m1 R2 0
M=
.
(3)
0
m2

Name the terrible, ugly quantity on the right side of the Lagrangian

p
5R2 + x2 2R (x sin + 2R cos ) `

(4)

Then we may approximate


r

R
5R2 + x2 2R(x + 2R 2 ) `
2
p
2
2
2
2
' R + x 2xR + R `
r
 x 2
x
'R 1+
2
+ 2 `
R
R

'

x
Name  ( R
)2 . Then when x << R and << 1, we have  << 1. This gives

'R 1+`


'R 1+
`.
2

(5)

(6)

We may use Euler-Lagrange on our Lagrangian to give for

m1 R2 k
k
= mgR sin k ,

dt

(7)

and for x
m2 x
k

k
= k .
x
dt x
x

We know that does not depend explicitly on or x,


so = x = 0. Also
1/2

R 
x
. Then our equations of motion are
= 2 = R R
h 
m1 R2 = mgR sin k R 1 +
h 
i x

m2 x
=k R 1+
` R
2
R

(8)

R 
2 x

x
R

1/2

ix
1/2

`

2
R
1/2

and

(9)

The Lagrangian may be written


1
L = m1 R2 2 +
2
1
= m1 R2 2 +
2
1
= m1 R2 2 +
2

1
m2 x 2 mgR (2 cos )
2
1
m2 x 2 mgR (2 cos )
2
1
m2 x 2 mgR (2 cos )
2

1 2
k
2 



 2
1

2
2
k R 1+
+`
2R` 1 +
2
2
2

1  2
k x 2xR + R2 2 + R2 2R` x2 R` + 2x` R`2 + `2 .
2
(10)

The constant terms in the Lagrangian may be ignored as they do not affect the equations of motion. Then
we will have K matrix


2kR(R `) m1 gR k(R `)
K=
.
(11)
k
k(R `)
R (R `)
The matrix = M1 K is then
=
Define G g/`, K1

2k(R`)
m1 R ,

and K2

m1 g+2k(R`)
m1 R
k(R`)
m2

k(R`)
m2 R .

k(R`)
m1 R 2

k(R`)
m2 R .

(12)

Then



1
(G + K1 ) K
2R
=
.
K2 R
K2

(13)

The stable equilibrium will be when x = = 0. Our eigenvalues of are


i
1 h p
(2GR 2K2 R + 2K1 R)2 4(4GK2 R2 6K1 K2 R2 ) 2GR + 2K2 R 2K1 R
4R
i
1 hp
2 =
(2GR 2K2 R + 2K1 R)2 4(4GK2 R2 6K1 K2 R2 ) 2GR + 2K2 R 2K1 R
4R
1 =

or

(14)


p
1
K2 K1 G (G + K1 + K2 )2 + 2K1 K2 R2 ,
2

p
1
K2 K1 G + (G + K1 + K2 )2 + 2K1 K2 R2 .
2 =
2

1 =

(15)

with corresponding eigenvectors


~v (1) =
~v (2) =

G+K1 +K2 +

G+K1 +K2

(G+K1 +K2 )2 +2K1 K2 R2


2K2 R

1
(G+K1 +K2 )2 +2K1 K2 R2
2K2 R

(16)

1
So the eigenmodes are moving together and moving opposite.
2: Determine the fundamental frequencies and the normal modes of oscillation of a system of n equal
point masses m constrained to move on a line and sequentially linked by springs with stiffness k. The first
particle is elastically attracted to the origin with a constant k and the last particle is likewise elastically
attracted with constant k to a fixed point a distance a from the origin.

Let xi be the position of the ith mass from its equilibrium position. Then our kinetic energy is
n

1 X 2
T = m
x i .
2

(17)

i=0

Our potential energy, over the n 1 springs, is


n1

1 X
V = k
(xi xi+1 )2 .
2

(18)

#
"
n1
m 2 X 2
2
2
L =
x n +
x i + 0 (xi xi+1 )
2
i=0
" n
#
n1
X
X
m
=
x 2i + 02
(x2i 2xi xi+1 + x2i+1 ) .
2

(19)

i=0

Then we have a Lagrangian

i=1

i=1

where 02 k/m. By simple inspection we see that the mass matrix is


M = mInn .
By not-so-simple inspection (a lot of time and

1
1

K= 0
0

..
.

thinking), our potential matrix is

1 0
0 ... 0
1 1 0 . . . 0

1 1 1 . . . 0
.
0 1 1 . . . 0

..
..
.. . .
.
.
.
.

(20)

(21)

Now we may rewrite our Lagrangian as


1
L = (x i Mij x j xi Kij xj )
2

(22)

Then the eigenmodes of this system are the eigenvectors of M1 K, as our Euler-Lagrange equation reads
x
i = ij xj .

(23)

For an n-dimensional matrix A, det(A) = n det(A). Then M1 = mn Inn . So = mn K. Let ~v (i)


be an eigenvector of with corresponding eigenvalue i . By symmetry and positiveness of K, we know
the eigenvalues of must be real and nonnegative. Then the eigenvectors are independent 1-dimensional
harmonic oscillators pointing along the normal modes. The angular frequency of each normal mode is
1/2
i = i . Our general solution is then
xj (t) = v (j) j eij t + j0 eij t

(24)

for each integer j [1, n].


3: Chapter 6, Exercise 3. A bead of mass m is constrained to move on a hoop of radius R. The hoop
rotates with constant angular velocity around a diameter of the loop, which is a vertical axis (line along
which gravity acts).
(a) Set up the Lagrangian and obtain the equations of motion of the bead.
(b) Find the critical angular velocity below which the bottom of the hoop provides a stable equilibrium
for the bead.
(c) Find the stable equilibrium position for > .

Let be the angle that mass m makes on the hoop with respect to the bottom, increasing counterclockwise.
Then the kinetic energy of the mass about the loop is T1 = 12 mR2 2 . The kinetic energy of the mass as the
loop rotates is T2 = 21 mR2 2 cos2 . Then potential energy (with V = 0 located at the bottom of the loop)
is V = mgR(1 cos ). Then our Lagrangian is
1
1
L = mR2 2 + mR2 2 cos2 mgR (1 cos ) .
2
2
Then our equation of motion is


d L
L
= mR2 = mR2 2 sin cos mgR sin =
dt

2
R = R sin cos g sin .

(25)

(26)

For small angle , we have




' 2 g ,
(t)
R

(27)

(t) = eit + eit

(28)

which has solution

where 2 = 2 Rg . This is oscillatory motion unless is imaginary, which is when 2 < Rg . Then the critiq
cal below which the bottom of the hoop is an equilibrium position for the bead is = Rg . If we have an
angular velocity above this value, the new equilibrium position is the side of the hoop ( = /2 or = /2).
4: Chapter 6, Exercise 4. Obtain the normal modes of vibration for the double pendulum shown in Figure
1.4, assuming equal lengths, but not equal masses. Show that when the lower mass is small compared to
the upper one, the two resonant frequencies are almost equal. If the pendula are set in motion by pulling
the upper mass slightly away from the vertical and then releasing it, show that subsequent motion is such
that at regular intervals one pendulum is at rest while the other has its maximum amplitude. This is the
familiar phenomenon known as beats".

Define 1 to be the angle m1 makes with the vertical, increasing counterclockwise. Then 2 will be
the
counterclockwise.
The vector 
extending
the m2 is then ~r2 =
h angle m2 makes with the vertical, increasing
i
h

i
d
` (sin 1 + sin 2 ) i (cos 1 + cos 2 ) j . Then dt ~r2 = ` 1 cos 1 + 2 cos 2 i + 1 sin 1 + 2 sin 2 j .
Then the kinetic energy of the system is
T = T1 + T2
1
= m1 `2 12 +
2
1
= m1 `2 12 +
2
1
' m1 `2 12 +
2

1 d 2
m2 ~r2
2
dt
h
i
1
2 2
m2 ` 1 + 22 + 21 2 (sin 1 sin 2 + cos 1 cos 2 )
2


1
m2 `2 12 + 22 + 21 2 ,
2

(29)

which can be written


 

 (m1 + m2 )`2 m2 `2
1
1

T '
,
1 2
2
2
m2 `
m2 `
2
2

(30)

and define M to be the inner matrix. The potential energy is


V = V1 + V2
= m1 g`(1 cos 1 ) + m2 g` (2 cos 1 cos 2 )

1
1
' m1 g`12 + m2 g` 12 + 22 ,
2
2

(31)

which may be written



 
 (m1 + m2 )g`
1
0
1
1 2
V '
,
0
m2 g`
2
2

(32)

and we define K to be the inner matrix. Then we have Lagrangian


L =T V
1
' [qi Mij qj qi Kij qj ] ,
2

(33)

where we sum over repeated indices and qi are each coordinate. The eigenmodes of this system are then
the eigenvectors of M1 K. We have




1
m2
m2
(m1 + m2 )g`
0
=
0
m2 g`
m1 m2 m2 m1 + m2


1+

= 02
,
(1 + ) 1 +
where

m2
m1

(34)

and 02 g/`. Then our eigenvalues are found by the secular equation which gives eigenvalues


p
1 = 02 1 + (1 + )


(35)
p
2 = 02 1 + + (1 + ) .

These have corresponding eigenvectors

~v (1) =
~v

(2)

(1+)
1+

(1+)
1+

(36)

Then our general solution is









1 (t)
(1)
i t
0 i t
(2)
i 2 t
0 i 2 t
= ~v
e
+ e
+ ~v
e
+ e
.
2 (t)
When the lower mass is much smaller than the upper mass, =
quencies are

m2
m1

(37)

<< 1. If this happens, our eigenfre-

1 ' 1 + /2
1

(38)

2 ' 1 + + /2 .
1

The difference between the two frequencies is on the order of 21/2 , which is very small. Our solution is then
  1/2  


  1/2  

1/2
1/2
1 (t)

0 i (1+1/2 )t
i (1+1/2 )t
+
ei (1++ )t + 0 ei (1++ )t .
+ e
=
e
2 (t)
1
1
(39)
If we start the system by pulling the upper mass  away from the vertical we get equations
+ 0 + + 0 = 0
+ 0 0 =  /2
p
p
1 ( 0 ) 2 ( 0 ) = 0
p
p
1 ( 0 ) + 2 ( 0 ) = 0.
1

(40)

The last two equations mean = 0 , which implies = 0 . Using this information in the first equation
gives = . Then the second equation gives = 14 1/2 . Now we have the solution







1 1/2 i1 t
1 1/2 i2 t 1 1/2 i2 t
1 (t)
(1) 1
1/2 i 1 t
(2)
= ~v

e
+ 
e
+ ~v

e

e
2 (t)
4
4
4
4
(41)
 
 

p
p
1


1
=  /2
cos( 1 t)
cos( 2 t) .
1
1
2

But since 2 = 1 + 21/2 ,


1 (t) =  cos(t) cos( /2 t)
1

2 (t) =  /2 sin(t) sin( /2 t).


1

(42)

We may view the right term in each of these equations to be a slowly varying amplitude. The amplitude
has period T = 21/2 . This is the beat".