MCAT Topical Tests

Dear Future Doctor,

The following Topical Test and explanations should be used to practice and to assess
your mastery of specific topical information in test format. This is an opportunity to
practice the STOP, THINK, PREDICT methodology learned in the Kaplan classroom.
There are Discrete questions and Passage-based questions that test your ability to apply
your foundation knowledge to MCAT-style questions, using critical thinking. Simply
completing the tests is inadequate; a solid understanding of your performance through
your Score Reports and the explanations is necessary to diagnose your specific
weaknesses and address them before Test Day.
All rights are reserved pursuant to the copyright laws and the contract clause in your
enrollment agreement and as printed below. Misdemeanor and felony infractions can
severely limit your ability to be accepted to a medical program and a conviction can
result in the removal of a medical license. We offer this material for your practice in your
own home as a courtesy and privilege. Practice today so that you can perform on test
day; this material was designed to give you every advantage on the MCAT and we wish
you the best of luck in your preparation.
Sincerely,

Albert Chen
Executive Director, Pre-Health Research and Development
Kaplan Test Prep

2003 Kaplan, Inc.

All rights reserved. No part of this book may be reproduced in any form, by Photostat, microfilm,
xerography or any other means, or incorporated into any information retrieval system, electronic
or mechanical without the written permission of Kaplan, Inc. This book may not be duplicated,
distributed or resold, pursuant to the terms of your Kaplan Enrollment Agreement.

Biology Discretes Test 2

BIOLOGY DISCRETES TEST 2 ANSWER KEY

KAPLAN

1.

11.

21.

2.

12.

22.

3.

13.

23.

4.

14.

24.

5.

15.

25.

6.

16.

26.

7.

17.

27.

8.

18.

28.

9.

19.

29.

10.

20.

30.

MCAT
1.

During an action potential, Na+ flows in and K+ flows out. Thus, choices (A) and (D)
may be eliminated. More specifically, Na+ first flows out down its electrochemical gradient to
depolarize the cell membrane. K+ flows out down its electrochemical gradient to repolarize
the cell. It is when this outflow is excessive that the membrane becomes hyperpolarized.
Thus, choice (C) is the correct answer.
2.

The Hershey-Chase experiment proved that DNA is the genetic material of viruses. In the
first stage of the experiment, in which the viral proteins were radioactively labeled, the
radioactivity was found in the supernatant that contained the virus protein coats. In the
second stage of the experiment, the radioactivity was found in the cell pellet, indicating that the
DNA had entered the bacterial cells and was the genetic material of the virus. Thus, while
both choices (B) and (C) were observations made during the course of the Hershey Chase
experiment, the results of the second stage of the experiment, choice (B), were the ones that
were conclusive. Choice (B) is the correct answer.
3.

Directional selection, choice (A), is the shift in allele frequencies of the population as a
whole towards variants of one extreme. Disruptive selection is the shift in allele frequencies of
the population towards variants of either extreme, leading to the creation of two
subpopulations that do not favor the intermediate variants of the original population and which
grow more disparate over time. Thus, disruptive selection, choice (B), is most likely to lead to
speciation. Sexual selection, choice (C), is the selection for factors that give the individual an
advantage in finding a mate. Sexual selection often acts opposite to the effects of natural
selection; e.g., brighter feathers may make a male bird more vulnerable to predators, but give
him an advantage during reproduction. It has been hypothesized that sexual selection is the
factor that has lead to sexual dimorphism. Stabilizing selection, choice (D), is the shift in
variants towards the intermediate by disfavoring variants at either extreme. This type of
selection reduces variation within the species and helps maintain the status quo. Choice (B) is
the correct answer.
4.

Most of the ATP generated during cellular respiration is generated via oxidative
phosphorylation. Oxidative phosphorylation generates about 32 ATP per molecule of glucose,
while glycolysis generates a net of 2 ATP per molecule of glucose and substrate-level
phosphorylation generates 2 ATP per molecule of glucose.
5.

Piloerection (hair standing on end) is a "fight-or flight" response that is mediated by the
sympathetic nervous system, ruling out choices (A) and (B). Sensory neurons bring
information to the central nervous system from sensory receptors, while motor neurons carry
signals from the central nervous system to effector cells. In this case, a signal from the central
nervous system is relayed to cells that cause hair to stand on end; thus a motor neuron is
involved. The correct answer is therefore choice (C).

as developed by

Biology Discretes Test 2

6.

Insulin is a peptide hormone, while testosterone, estrogen, and progesterone are steroid
hormones. Steroid hormones pass through the plasma membrane and directly affect the
transcription of specific genes. Peptide hormones are unable to cross the plasma membrane.
When a peptide hormone binds to its receptor on the plasma membrane, a second messenger
system is activated to relay the signal to the interior of the cell. Thus the correct answer is
choice (A).
7.

Remember that in DNA, thymine (T) base-pairs with adenine (A), and cytosine (C) basepairs with guanine (G). Two hydrogen bonds join T to A, while three hydrogen bonds join C
to G. More energy is required to break three bonds than to break two bonds, so a DNA
sequence with more C-G pairs would have a higher melting point. Looking at the answer
choices, choices A and B have 3 T-A pairs and 4 C-G pairs; choice C has 4 T-A pairs and 3 CG pairs; and choice D has 2 T-A pairs and 5 C-G pairs. Thus, the strand in choice D has the
most C-G pairs and the highest melting point. Choice D is correct.
8.

Facilitated diffusion transports a molecule down its concentration gradient. Facilitated

diffusion requires a carrier molecule such as a transport protein, but does not require an input
of energy in the form of ATP. Active transport requires a transport protein as well as ATP, and
is used to transport a molecule against its concentration gradient. Endocytosis is used to
transport materials too big for a transport protein from the exterior of a cell to the interior of a
cell, and requires ATP, since the rearrangement of the cytoskeleton to form vesicles requires
energy. Thus, both active transport and endocytosis, choices II and III respectively, require an
input of ATP. Choice (C) is correct.
9.

There are four stages to the cell cycle: M, G1, S, and G2. Cell division, or mitosis, occurs
during the M phase. In G1, the cell doubles in size, and new organelles are produced. In S
(synthesis), each chromosome is replicated. In G2, the cell continues to grow, and assembly of
new organelles continues. The correct answer is choice (C).
10.

Use a Punnett square to determine the possible blood types of the children.
I
i

IA
IA IA
IA i

IB
IB IA
IB i

From the Punnett square, 25% of the children will be IA IA, or type A, 25% will be IB IA,
or type AB, 25% of the children will be IA i, or type A, and 25% of the children will be IB i, or
type B. Thus the correct answer is choice (B), 25%.
11.

ADH (antidiuretic hormone) is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland in response to high
plasma osmolarity. ADH increases water reabsorption in the kidneys, resulting in a lowered
urine volume, decreased plasma osmolarity and an increased urine osmolarity. A patient with
insufficient ADH production would therefore have decreased water absorption in the kidneys,
KAPLAN

MCAT
which results in an increase in urine volume, increased plasma osmolarity and a decrease in
urine osmolarity. The correct answer is choice (B).
12.

Use a Punnett square to determine the possible genotypes of the children.

X
Y

Xc
X cX
X cY

X
XX
XY

From the Punnett square, 25% of the children will be XcX, or a carrier for color-blindness,
25% will be XX, or normal, 25% of the children will be XcY, or a color-blind male, and 25%
of the children will be XY, or a normal male. Thus the probability that they will have a colorblind child is 25%. The probability that they will have another color-blind child is 25%. The
probability that they will have two color blind children is equal to the probability having a
color-blind child multiplied by the probability of having a color-blind child, or (25%)(25%) =
6.25%. This corresponds with answer choice (A).
13.

Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme produced by retroviruses. Retroviruses use reverse

transcriptase to produce DNA from an RNA template. The DNA that results is then integrated
into the host's genetic material as a provirus. One example of a retrovirus is HIV, the virus that
causes AIDS. The correct answer is choice (A).
14.

Parathyroid hormone acts to increase serum calcium levels by promoting the release of
calcium from bone. Calcitonin acts antagonistically to parathyroid hormone by promoting the
incorporation of calcium into bone, thereby decreasing serum calcium levels. Choice (A) is
incorrect because thyroxine is a thyroid hormone involved in the regulation of metabolism.
Choice (B) is incorrect because prolactin is a hormone that stimulates the secretion of milk
from mammary glands in females. Choice (C) is incorrect because HCG (human chorionic
gonadotropin) is a hormone secreted by the placenta of a newly implanted embryo. The
correct answer is choice (D).
15.

The partial pressure of oxygen is highest in vessels carrying oxygenated blood. The aorta
carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the body, so choice (C) is correct. The inferior vena
cava carries deoxygenated blood from the lower regions of the body back to the heart, so
choice (A) is incorrect. The pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood away from the heart
and toward the lungs, so choice (B) is incorrect. The coronary veins carry deoxygenated blood
to the right side of the heart, so choice (D) is incorrect. The correct answer is choice (C).
16.

Lysosomes are the organelles that are specialized for intracellular digestion; lysosomes
contain enzymes necessary for breaking down macromolecules into their components. Smooth
endoplasmic reticulum is involved in carbohydrate metabolism, lipid synthesis, and the
detoxification of poisons. Rough endoplasmic reticulum is where membranes and secretory
proteins are synthesized. The Golgi apparatus packages and distributes the products of the
endoplasmic reticulum. The correct answer is choice (C).
4

as developed by

Biology Discretes Test 2

17.

Viruses consist of genetic material in the form of DNA or RNA packaged in a protein
coat. Peptidoglycan cell walls are characteristic of some bacteria, not viruses; thus, choice (A)
is incorrect. Viruses do not have a lipid bilayer outer membrane or membrane-bound
organelles, so choices (B) and (C) are incorrect. The correct answer is choice (D).
18.

Passive diffusion of sodium occurs at the loop of Henle. Active transport of sodium
occurs at the proximal convoluted tubule, the distal convoluted tubule, and the thick segment
of the ascending limb. The correct answer is choice (B).
19.

Epinephrine increases blood sugar. Glucocorticoids increase blood sugar by affecting

many aspects of carbohydrate metabolism. Insulin lowers blood sugar. Thus, statements I and
II result in a lowering of blood sugar, and choice (B) is correct.
20.

Organisms are classified according to evolutionary relationships in the following

categories: Kingdom > Phylum > Class > Order > Family > Genus > Species. The largest
group or kingdom is broken down into smaller and smaller subdivisions. Each smaller group
has more specific characteristics in common. Of the choices listed, genus is the smallest
subdivision, and organisms in the same genus would be more similar than organisms that were
only classified in the same kingdom, class, or family. Thus, the correct answer is choice (D).
21.

DNA is composed of four bases: adenine (A), thymine (T), cytosine (C) and guanine (G).
A base-pairs with T, and C base-pairs with G. Therefore, the amount of A is equal to the
amount of T, and the amount of C is equal to the amount of G, and (A+T) + (C+G) = 100%. If
the organism's DNA is composed of 12% A, then it follows that the DNA is composed of 12%
T. So the total (A+T) = 24%. C+G must therefore equal 100%-24% = 76%. Since the amount
of C equals the amount of G, (C+G) = 2G = 76%. The percentage of G is (76%/2) = 38%.
This corresponds with choice C.
22.

This question involves the use of the Hardy-Weinberg equations: p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 and p
+ q = 1, where p = the frequency of the dominant allele, q = the frequency of the recessive
allele. In the question stem, we are told that the frequency of the recessive allele is 0.4, so q =
0.4, and p = 1 - q = 1 - 0.4 = 0.6. The frequency of individuals expressing the heterozygote
phenotype would be 2pq = 2(0.6)(0.4) = 0.48. This corresponds with choice (D).
23.

Enzymes are biological catalysts that increase the rate of a reaction. The rate of an
enzyme-catalyzed reaction can be increased by adding more substrate, so statement I should be
part of the correct answer. Most enzymes are proteins; the ability of a protein enzyme to
function is dependent on its three-dimensional structure. A protein's three-dimensional
structure may be affected by changes in temperature or pH (recall that pH is a measure of
hydrogen ion concentration), so statements II and III should also be part of the correct answer.
Thus, I, II and III, or choice (D), is correct.
KAPLAN

MCAT
24.

The chemical breakdown of proteins involves deamination of amino acids (removal of the
amino group); living organisms excrete this nitrogenous waste in the form of urea, uric acid, or
ammonia. Choice (A) is correct.
25.

The cardiac sphincter regulates the flow of material from the esophagus into the stomach.
The epiglottis is the structure that blocks the opening to the windpipe when a person swallows.
The pyloric sphincter regulates the flow of material from the stomach into the small intestine.
The gallbladder stores the digestive secretions of the liver. Choice (A) is correct.
26.

A zymogen is an enzyme that is secreted in inactive form. A zymogen is cleaved under

certain physiological conditions to form the active enzyme. Some examples of zymogens
include pepsinogen and trypsinogen, which are cleaved in the digestive tract to yield pepsin
and trypsin. A competitive inhibitor competes with an enzyme's normal substrate for binding
to the active site of the enzyme. A noncompetitive inhibitor binds to a part of an enzyme other
than the active site and renders the active site unable to bind substrate. A coenzyme is an
organic cofactor. A cofactor is a nonprotein molecule required for the activity of an enzyme.
Choice (D) is the correct answer.
27.

The urethra transports urine out of the body and is also the same structure that transports
sperm out of the body. The ureter connects the kidney to the bladder. The vas deferens
connects the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct. The prostate gland contributes fluid to semen,
the fluid that is ejaculated. Prostatic fluid is alkaline, which balances the acidity of residual
urine in the urethra. Choice (B) is the correct answer.
28.

In human females, secondary oocytes do not complete meiosis II until fertilization by a

sperm. During puberty, one primary oocyte a month completes meiosis I, yielding a secondary
oocyte and a polar body. The secondary oocyte is expelled from the follicle during ovulation;
meiosis II does not occur until fertilization. Menopause is the time in a woman's life when
menstruation ceases. Menstruation is the sloughing off of the lining of the uterus during a
woman's monthly cycle. Choice (B) is correct.
29.

During muscle contraction, calcium binds to troponin molecules, causing the tropomyosin
strands to shift, thereby exposing the myosin-binding sites on the actin filaments. Choice (A)
is correct.
30.

The sympathetic nervous system acts to prepare the body for action ("fight or flight"). It
acts to decrease digestive tract activity, raise heart rate, dilate the pupils and relax the bronchi.
Of the answer choices listed, choice (B), increased heart rate, would result from stimulation of
the sympathetic nervous system. The other choices: increased gut motility, constriction of the
pupils, and constriction of the bronchi, would result from stimulation of the parasympathetic
nervous system. Choice (B) is the correct answer.
6

as developed by

Biology Discretes Test 2

KAPLAN