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1. The chief distinguishing feature of psychotic disorders is

a. confusion of fantasy and reality.
b. antisocial conduct.
c. overwhelming anxiety.
d. obsessive behavior.

2. A common form of mental disorder afflicting 10-20% of the population is

a. schizophrenia.
b. senile dementia.
c. depression.
d. delusional disorder.

3. Bob has never met Madonna but he is convinced that she is deeply in love with
him. Bob is suffering from
a. grandiose delusions.
b. jealous delusions.
c. obsessive-compulsive disorder.
d. erotomanic delusions.

4. If you met an individual who appeared to be very charming at first, but later you
discovered that he or she manipulated people, caused others hurt without a
second thought, and could not be depended upon, you might suspect him of
a. dependent.
b. narcissistic.
c. paranoid.
d. antisocial.

5. A much-feared outcome of Alzheimer's disease is

a. functional psychosis.
b. paranoia.
c. general paresis.
d. senile dementia.

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6. Multiple personality or dissociative identity disorder often begins

a. as a result of combat exhaustion.
b. in adulthood as a response to unremitting phobias.
c. as a consequence of post-traumatic stress disorders.
d. in childhood as a result of unbearable experiences.

7. A person who has an extreme lack of self-confidence and who allows others to
run his or her life is said to have a(n) __________ personality.
a. dependent
b. narcissistic
c. paranoid
d. antisocial
8. In south and east Asia, a man may experience Koro, which is
a. schizophrenia.
b. insanity.
c. anxiety about his penis receding into his body.
d. depression.

9. Because there is considerable overlap among the types of schizophrenia, and

because patterns of behavior shift over time, many patients are simply
classified as suffering from __________ schizophrenia.
a. borderline
b. atypical
c. mixed
d. undifferentiated

10. Retreat from reality by hallucinations and delusions and by social withdrawal
typically characterizes
a. somatoform disorders.
b. anxiety disorders.
c. psychotic disorders.
d. personality disorders.

11. Persons who suffer from paraphilias are categorized as having

a. somatoform disorders.
b. generalized anxiety.
c. sexual disorders.
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d. personality disorders.

12. Which of the following is related to recent attempts to find biochemical

explanations for schizophrenia?
a. schizotaxin
b. psychotropin
c. dopamine
d. diazepam

13. Which of the following is one reason given that more women than men are
treated for psychological problems?
a. Women are subject to greater stress than men.
b. As a result of cultural norms, women may be more willing to
admit distress.
c. Some forms of mental disorders are sex-linked recessive.
d. Developmental tasks required of women are far more difficult
than those required of men.

14. The Freudian explanation of anxiety disorders emphasizes

a. the avoidance paradox.
b. learned habits of self-defeating behavior.
c. forbidden impulses that threaten a loss of control.
d. the development of a faulty or inaccurate self-image and
distorted self-perceptions.

15. Statistical approaches to abnormality define as "abnormal" those who

a. show evidence of loss of contact with reality.
b. are unhappy, withdrawn, and depressed.
c. deviate from typical or average patterns of behavior.
d. are disabled by anxiety.

16. A rare condition in which separate personalities exist in the same person is
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dissociative identity disorder.

split personality.

17. A PET scan involves the injection of

a. radioactive sugar.
b. iodine.
c. metal particles.
d. xenon gas.

18. If a person suffering from schizophrenia has an identical twin, that twin
a. will have a 46 percent chance of becoming schizophrenic.
b. will be no more likely than anyone else to become
c. is almost sure to become schizophrenic.
d. is also likely to have more than one personality.

19. The most severe psychological disorder is a(n)

a. personality disorder.
b. psychosomatic illness.
c. anxiety disorder.
d. psychosis.

20. Persons who are excessively narcissistic, dependent, or antisocial are

characterized as having
a. somatoform disorders.
b. generalized anxiety.
c. conversion reactions.
d. personality disorders.

21. Mood disorders are those in which the person may

a. experience severe depression and threaten suicide.
b. exhibit symptoms suggesting physical disease or injury but for
which there is no identifiable cause.
c. exhibit behavior that is the result of an organic brain pathology.
d. experience delusions and hallucinations.
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22. Schizophrenia is most commonly found in

a. adolescents.
b. young adults.
c. the middle aged.
d. the elderly.
23. The famous ruling that led to the present day plea of "not guilty by reason of
insanity" is the
a. common law defense.
b. Harrison decision.
c. M'Naghten rule.
d. Twinkie defense.
24. __________ schizophrenics shift from one pattern of schizophrenic behavior to
a. Catatonic
b. Disorganized
c. Paranoid
d. Undifferentiated

25. DSM stands for

a. diagnostic schedule of medicine.
b. diagnostic and statistical manual.
c. depressive scale modalities.
d. doctor of surgical medicine.

26. Conversion disorder and hypochondriasis are classified as

a. physio-mental disorders.
b. somatoform disorders.
c. psychosomatic disorders.
d. somatization disorders.

27. In most anxiety disorders, the person's distress is

a. focused on a specific situation.
b. related to ordinary life stresses.
c. greatly out of proportion to the situation.
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d. based on a physical cause.

28. An unusual state called "waxy flexibility" is sometimes observed in

__________ schizophrenia.
a. borderline
b. disorganized
c. catatonic
d. paranoid

29. Roger has been extremely anxious for much of the past year, but can't explain
why. There is a good chance that he is experiencing
a. a generalized anxiety disorder.
b. sociopathy.
c. psychosis.
d. a nervous breakdown.

30. Irrational and very specific fears that persist even when there is no real danger
to a person are called
a. anxieties.
b. dissociation's.
c. phobias.
d. obsessions.

31. In some countries, it is normal to defecate or urinate in public. This makes it

clear that judgments of the normality of behavior are
a. culturally relative.
b. statistical.
c. a matter of subjective discomfort.
d. related to conformity.

32. Three year old Shawn ate lead paint which was chipping off the walls in an
older home. Consequently, he developed a psychosis based on brain damage
due to lead poisoning. Shawn's psychosis would be called a(n)
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functional psychosis.
organic psychosis.
neural psychosis.
neo-cortical psychosis.

33. False beliefs that are held even when the facts contradict them are called
a. fantasies.
b. hallucinations.
c. illusions.
d. delusions.
34. Jim is in a constant state of anxiety and also has brief, sudden periods of panic.
He also believes these periods of panic will occur when he's in a public
location; therefore, Jim is afraid to leave his house. Jim's diagnosis is
a. agoraphobia.
b. panic disorder.
c. panic disorder with agoraphobia.
d. panic disorder without agoraphobia.

35. Mary believes that she is the Queen of England. She is having
a. depressive delusions.
b. delusions of grandeur.
c. delusions of reference.
d. delusions of persecution.

36. True paranoids are rarely treated or admitted to hospitals because

a. they are potentially harmful and dangerous to others.
b. they resist the attempts of others to offer help.
c. their severe hallucinations make reasoning with them
d. psychiatric hospitals are primarily for psychotics.

37. The most widely used system of psychological classification today is

a. the Freudian Psychoanalytic System (FPS).
b. found in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental
Disorders (DSM-IV).
c. the system designed by Emil Kraepelin and Eugen Bleuler.
d. to be found in the Federal Uniform Code of Psychopathology
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38. The insanity defense dates back to the English courts, where it was originally
held that to be responsible for an act, the defendant must
a. understand the wrongfulness of the act.
b. be in a state of diminished capacity.
c. have acted on an irresistible impulse.
d. be able to recall the criminal act.

39. Behaviorists would say that self-defeating behaviors are maintained by

immediate reinforcement in the form of
a. relief from anxiety.
b. defending the ego.
c. protecting one's self-image.
d. avoiding existential anxiety.

40. When a person's sexual identity does not match his or her physical gender, the
diagnosis is
a. paraphilia.
b. sexual dysfunction.
c. gender identity disorder.
d. androgyny.

41. It has been discovered that all major anti-psychotic drugs

a. block the action of dopamine.
b. facilitate the action of dopamine.
c. increase levels of dopamine.
d. decrease levels of dopamine.

42. An inability to behave in ways that foster the well-being of the individual and
ultimately of society defines
a. insanity.
b. psychopathology.
c. self-destructiveness.
d. social nonconformity.

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43. Discomfort in social situations, fear of evaluation, and timidity are

characteristic of what personality disorder?
a. histrionic
b. obsessive-compulsive
c. schizoid
d. avoidant

44. The term schizophrenia can be interpreted to mean

a. a split between thought and emotion.
b. having more than one personality.
c. the same thing as a dissociative reaction.
d. that a person is insane.

45. Carson recently lost his job and has a great debt accumulated from gambling.
He also has been feeling extreme pressure about not being able to take care of
his eight children. After having too much to drink, Carson ran over a child
crossing the street. Immediately following this episode, Carson could not
remember who he was. This example illustrates
a. dissociative amnesia.
b. dissociative fugue.
c. dissociative identity disorder.
d. multiple personality disorder.

46. A person who experiences a long series of imagined physical complaints suffers
a. a conversion reaction.
b. somatization disorder.
c. a traumatic disorder.
d. an obsession.

47. When Sara returned from combat in the Gulf War, she began experiencing high
anxiety that has persisted without any improvement. This example illustrates
which anxiety related disorder?
a. panic
b. post-traumatic stress
c. phobia
d. obsessive-compulsive

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48. Gregory has been homeless for the past 3 years. The stress of being homeless
seems to have contributed to the onset of psychosis. This example illustrates
what risk factor for mental disorders?
a. social
b. family
c. psychological
d. biological

49. A researcher seeking an organic basis for schizophrenia would be well-advised

to investigate the role of
a. amphetamines and amphetamine receptors.
b. adrenaline and noradrenaline.
c. histamine and antihistamine.
d. dopamine and dopamine receptors.

50. Which of the following is characteristic of a dissociative disorder?

a. phobic disorder
b. amnesia
c. paranoia
d. depression

51. __________ schizophrenia usually involves delusions of persecution and

a. Catatonic
b. Disorganized
c. Paranoid
d. Undifferentiated

52. A psychosis arising from an advanced stage of syphilis, in which the disease
attacks brain cells, is called
a. Korsakoff's syndrome.
b. delirium tremens.
c. schizotypical psychosis.
d. general paresis.

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53. A disorder characterized by continuous tension and occasional anxiety attacks

in which persons think they are going insane or are about to die is called a
a. panic disorder.
b. phobia.
c. depressive psychosis.
d. hysterical reaction.

54. The extreme reaction known as fugue refers to

a. physical flight to escape conflict.
b. severe depression.
c. hallucinations.
d. obsessive behavior.

55. Disorganized schizophrenia is characterized by

a. attacks of fear or panic.
b. silliness, laughter, and bizarre behavior.
c. delusions of persecution.
d. severe depression.

56. In the United States and Latin America, Latinos use the term __________ to
refer to chronic psychosis.
a. mania
b. hispania
c. locura
d. agua

57. The term "nervous breakdown"

a. refers to very severe psychotic behavior episodes.
b. is a legal, not a psychological, term.
c. has no formal psychological meaning.
d. refers to a severe, but transient, depression.

58. Psychological dependence on mood- or behavior-altering drugs is known as

a. drug psychosis.
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b. a substance related disorder.

c. an orthopsychosis.
d. a psychotropic disorder.

59. Grace's actions resemble movie stereotypes of "crazy" behavior. Her personality
disintegration is extreme. She engages in silly laughter, bizarre mannerisms,
and obscene behavior. Her diagnosis is probably
a. paranoid schizophrenia.
b. borderline schizophrenia.
c. catatonic schizophrenia.
d. disorganized schizophrenia.

60. Which of the following is classified as a mood disorder?

a. bipolar disorder
b. multiple personality disorder
c. delusional disorder
d. dissociative disorder

61. Current research suggests the cause of Alzheimer's disease is

a. brain pathology.
b. a traumatic childhood.
c. inconsistent and ineffective parenting.
d. persistent delusional thoughts.

62. Dysthymic disorder and cyclothymic disorder are two varieties of

a. mood disorder.
b. conversion disorder.
c. schizophrenia.
d. somatoform disorder.

63. Which of the following is a dissociative disorder?

a. depression
b. phobic disorder
c. multiple personality
d. paranoia
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64. The antisocial personality

a. avoids other people as much as possible.
b. is relatively easy to treat effectively by psychotherapy.
c. tends to be selfish and lacking remorse.
d. usually gives a bad first impression.

65. Belief that one's body is "rotting" and ravaged by disease would be classified as
a. somatic delusions.
b. delusions of grandeur.
c. delusions of influence.
d. delusions of persecution.

66. The distinction between obsessions and compulsions is the distinction between
a. engaging in behaviors that are merely inconvenient and those
that are severely disruptive.
b. having positive and negative feelings toward an object or
c. thoughts that are evidence of neurosis or those that are
evidence of psychosis.
d. having repetitious thoughts or engaging in repetitious actions.

67. Hearing voices that are not really there would be called a(n)
a. hallucination.
b. delusion.
c. auditory regression.
d. depressive psychosis.

68. Behavioral problems in which the person exhibits symptoms suggesting

physical disease or injury, but for which there is no identifiable cause, are
a. mood disorders.
b. schizophrenia.
c. organic brain pathologies.
d. somatoform disorders.

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69. Mutism, stupor, and a marked decrease in responsiveness to the environment

are often seen in
a. catatonic episodes.
b. paranoid schizophrenia.
c. manic episodes.
d. borderline schizophrenia.
70. Obsessive-compulsive behavior, panic, and phobias are formally classified as
__________ disorders.
a. psychotic
b. manic
c. anxiety
d. mood

71. Robert was found wandering naked in the campus parking lot, proclaiming
himself to be "Father Time." He shows evidence of a(n) __________ disorder.
a. anxiety
b. psychotic
c. personality
d. affective

72. A person who mistrusts others and is hypersensitive and guarded may be
classified as a(n) __________ personality.
a. dependent
b. antisocial
c. narcissistic
d. paranoid

73. Delusional thinking is characteristic of

a. psychosis.
b. obsessive-compulsive disorder.
c. conversion disorder.
d. fugue.

74. "I believe Amanda's anxiety and defensiveness are the result of an unrealistic
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self-image and an inability to take responsibility for her feelings." This

statement would most likely have been made by a
a. psychodynamic theorist.
b. Freudian therapist.
c. humanistic psychologist.
d. behavioristic theorist.

75. A person who is preoccupied with fears of having a serious disease suffers from
a. a conversion reaction.
b. hypochondriasis.
c. a traumatic disorder.
d. an obsession.

76. Sensory experiences that occur in the absence of a stimulus are called
a. illusions.
b. hallucinations.
c. delusions.
d. affect episodes.

77. In general, schizophrenia is characterized by

a. rapid and unpredictable changes in emotion.
b. delusions of persecution and somatic complaints.
c. blunted or inappropriate emotions and withdrawal.
d. high levels of anxiety coupled with a lack of conscience.

78. One who is quite concerned with orderliness, perfectionism, and a rigid routine
might be classified as a(n) __________ personality.
a. histrionic
b. obsessive-compulsive
c. schizoid
d. avoidant

79. Irrational acts a person feels driven to repeat are called __________. They help
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control anxiety caused by __________.

a. obsessions; compulsions
b. compulsions; obsessions
c. compulsions; defense mechanisms
d. defense mechanisms; obsessions

80. Sudden temporary amnesia or instances of multiple personality are __________

a. dissociative
b. anxiety
c. psychotic
d. schizophrenic

81. John has a lack of interest in friends or lovers and experiences very little
emotion. He can be described as having which of the following personality
a. avoidant
b. schizoid
c. borderline
d. paranoid

82. Amnesia, fugue, and multiple personality are all classified as which behavior
a. obsessive-compulsive disorder
b. organic brain syndrome
c. affective disorder
d. dissociative disorder

83. Obsessive-compulsive disorders involve

a. loss of contact with reality.
b. unresolved anger.
c. unresolved Oedipal conflict.
d. high levels of anxiety.

84. When sadness and despondency are exaggerated or prolonged and an extremely
negative self-image prevails, we would suspect a(n)
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dissociative reaction.
mood disorder.
somatoform disorder.
anxiety disorder.

85. The dopamine-psychosis link is based on the observation that

a. low dopamine levels of activity in the brain seem to produce
psychotic symptoms.
b. there are high levels of dopamine activity in the brains of
psychotic people.
c. there are high levels of amphetamine in the brains of
d. dopamine interacts with serotonin creating psychosis.

86. The antisocial personality is one who

a. is irresponsible and seems to lack remorse.
b. is frequently dangerous and out of contact with reality.
c. is always a delinquent or criminal.
d. benefits greatly from humanistic and psychoanalytic therapies.

87. Behavioral problems caused by senility, drug damage, brain injury or disease,
and the toxic effects of poisons are classified as __________ disorders.
a. organic
b. psychotic
c. somatic
d. substance use

88. Which of the following personality disorders describes a person who has an
extremely unstable self image, is moody, and does not develop stable
a. borderline
b. histrionic
c. narcissistic
d. schizoid

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89. Phobias differ from ordinary fears in that they frequently involve
a. specific objects or situations.
b. bugs and crawling things.
c. intense reactions like vomiting or fainting.
d. heights and unfamiliar places.

90. Julie can't stop thinking about germs and dirt. She spends all day cleaning her
house. She is suffering from
a. phobic disorder.
b. paranoia.
c. delusional disorder.
d. obsessive-compulsive disorder.

91. Which of the following personality disorders describes a person who has an
exaggerated sense of self-importance and who needs constant admiration?
a. dependent
b. histrionic
c. narcissistic
d. schizoid

92. CT scans of the brains of some young schizophrenics show __________ than
a. wider ventricles
b. smaller fissures
c. smaller ventricles
d. fewer fissures

93. A core feature of all abnormal behavior is that it is

a. culturally absolute.
b. learned.
c. maladaptive.
d. dependent on age.

94. The most effective method of predicting that a mental patient will commit an
act of violence is by
a. psychological tests.
b. psychiatric interviews.
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In bright light, the iris __________ and the

1. pupil __________ to control the amount of
light entering the eye.
a. c.expands;
b. d.constricts;
There is no
effective method.
c. focuses; constricts
d. constricts; focuses

95. Failure of hospital staff to detect fake patients in David Rosenhan's studies can
be attributed to the
a. acting ability of the pseudo-patients.
b. generally low quality of training of hospital staff members.
The pain-killing effects of acupuncture may be
c. effects of labeling and context.
2. d.related
to pseudo-patients were so heavily drugged.
fact that
a. sensory adaptation.
b. stabilization of physiological
c. the triggering of perceptual defense
d. release of endorphins.


Information picked up by the body's receptor

cells is termed

The function of the lens is to

a. locate an image.
b. focus an image on the retina.
c. combine the location and projection
on the blind spot.
d. project an image on the cornea.


Hearing aids are of no use to an individual

5. with __________ deafness.
a. ossicle
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c. conduction
d. auditory

In differentiating between the

1. terms sex and gender,
a. sex refers to biological aspects of
identity, and gender refers to
psychological and social identity.
b. gender refers to sociocultural identity,
and sex refers to sociocultural
c. sex refers to sociocultural identity, and
gender refers to biological identity.
d. none of these represent the terms

Primary sexual characteristics refer to

a. all those physical structures and
psychological traits influenced by
the sex hormones.
b. development of breasts and body
shape in the female, and changes in
hair development and voice in the
c. the sexual and reproductive organs
d. estrogen in the female and testosterone
in the male.


Which of the following occurs first
3. developmentally?
a. gender identity
b. secondary sexual characteristics
c. primary sexual characteristics
d. reproductive maturity

a. conditioned response.
b. unconditioned stimulus.
c. conditioned stimulus.
Secondary response.
sexual characteristics include
d. unconditioned
a. the development of breasts and body
shape in the female and changes in
hair development and voice in the
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b. the sexual and reproductive organs in
males and females.
c. the development of appropriate sex


In __________ reinforcement, the reinforcer follows every
correct response.

In Pavlov's experiments with dogs, salivation was the

The presentation of an aversive stimulus or the removal of a positive stimulus are both examples of
a. negative reinforcement.
b. punishment.
c. positive reinforcement.
d. secondary reinforcement.

In classical conditioning, learning is evident when a
a. stimulus automatically produces a response without a prior history of experience.
b. stimulus which did not initially produce a response now elicits that response.
c. spontaneously emitted response increases in frequency as a result of its consequences.
d. subject repeats an action he or she has observed in another and is praised for it.

In Thorndike's law of effect, events critical for conditioning
a. occur after the response.
b. occur before the response.
c. occur simultaneously with the response.
d. are unrelated to the response except during extinction.

If you have a snake phobia because you once heard a loud noise while looking at a snake, for you a snake is a(n)
a. US.
b. CS.
c. UR.
d. CR.
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A series of responses that gradually approach a desired pattern of behavior are called
a. adaptations.
b. gradients.
c. successive approximations.
d. conditioning trials.

If the conditioned stimulus is presented many times without reinforcement, we can expect
a. an increase in stimulus generalization.
b. the strength of the UR to increase.
c. an increase in response generalization.
d. extinction to occur.

A child has learned to avoid a furry, black cat. However, she still plays with her grandmother's short-haired tabby. Her
response demonstrates
a. negative transfer.
b. extinction.
c. discrimination.
d. successive approximation.

Punishment is most effective in suppressing behavior when it is
a. immediate, consistent, and intense.
b. delayed, consistent, and mild.
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immediate, consistent, and mild.

delayed, inconsistent, and intense.

The greatest degree of resistance to extinction is typically caused by a __________ schedule of reinforcement.
a. variable interval
b. variable ratio
c. fixed interval
d. fixed ratio

In Pavlov's experiments with dogs, the conditioned stimulus was the
a. food.
b. bell.
c. salivation to the food.
d. salivation to the bell.

Ivan Pavlov has been credited with the initial discovery of
a. operant conditioning.
b. reinforcement.
c. classical conditioning.
d. vicarious conditioning.

In Pavlov's experiments with dogs, the bell (prior to conditioning) was the
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neutral stimulus.
unconditioned stimulus.
conditioned stimulus.
unconditioned response.

Reinforcement in operant conditioning is most effective when it is
a. response contingent.
b. stimulus contingent.
c. US-CS contingent.
d. NS-CS contingent.

After pairing the CS and US in a series of conditioning trials, the organism learns to respond to the CS alone. This response
is then called
a. unconditioned stimulus.
b. conditioned stimulus.
c. unconditioned response.
d. conditioned response.

Jimmy helps his father put away the dishes after dinner. Jimmy's father wants to increase the probability of this behavior
and will be most successful by praising Jimmy
a. after all the dishes are put away.
b. at bedtime.
c. the next morning at breakfast.
d. the next time they are putting away dishes.

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After a response has been extinguished, it will often reappear after a short time has passed. This is called
a. adaptiveness.
b. expectation checking.
c. extinction recovery.
d. spontaneous recovery.

The first grade teacher gives students stickers when they perform well. If they earn five stickers in one day they are exempt
from homework. The stickers in this example could also be called
a. tokens.
b. primary reinforcers.
c. generalized reinforcers.
d. prepotent responses.

A student does a good job on math problems for homework, and the teacher awards a sticker. This demonstrates the use of
a. extinction.
b. reinforcement.
c. spontaneous recovery.
d. antecedents.

In Pavlov's experiments with dogs, the bell (during and after conditioning) was the
a. conditioned response.
b. unconditioned stimulus.
c. conditioned stimulus.
d. unconditioned response.

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One difference between classical and operant conditioning is that
a. animals learn only by operant conditioning.
b. operant conditioning involves learning in which antecedent events are associated with one
c. classical conditioning involves learning in which antecedent events are associated with one
d. operant conditioning occurs when a response is not affected by consequences.

In classical conditioning, events critical to the learning occur __________ the response.
a. before
b. after
c. simultaneously with
d. in a manner unrelated to

A punisher can be
a. the onset of an unpleasant event.
b. the removal of a positive state of affairs.
c. any consequence that reduces the occurrence of a behavior.
d. a positive reinforcer.

In a study of punishment, shock is administered to a hamster through a wire grid on the bottom of the cage. To the
researcher's surprise, the hamster learns to roll on its back when shocked so that its fur insulates it from the shock. The
hamster's response demonstrates
a. positive reinforcement.
b. negative reinforcement.
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discovery learning.
cognitive learning.

Becoming addicted to gambling is related to the effects of
a. shaping.
b. vicarious classical conditioning.
c. unconditioned emotional reflexes.
d. partial reinforcement.

The technique of using desensitization involves
a. flooding the person with images of the feared stimulus.
b. gradually exposing the person to the feared stimulus.
c. gradually exposing the person to the feared stimulus only when they are fully relaxed.
d. systematically increasing the stimulus intensity up to the breaking point.

A dog that gets rewarded for the first bark it makes in each ten minute period is being reinforced on a __________
schedule of reinforcement.
a. continuous
b. fixed interval
c. variable interval
d. fixed ratio

In Pavlov's experiments with dogs, food was the
a. conditioned response.
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unconditioned stimulus.
conditioned stimulus.
unconditioned response.

To strengthen the connection between the CS and the CR, the CS must
a. generalize to the UR.
b. precede the US.
c. be identical to the US.
d. be followed by the UR.

Which of the following statements about punishment is FALSE?
a. Punishment teaches new responses.
b. Punishment temporarily suppresses a response.
c. Punishment may permanently suppress a response.
d. Punishment applies an aversive event.

Operant conditioning was studied by
a. Pavlov.
b. Maslow.
c. Freud.
d. Skinner.

Using poker chips to reinforce mental patients for healthy behavior would be an example of using
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negative reinforcement.
classical conditioning.

Advertisers often try to use higher order conditioning by
a. pairing images that evoke good feelings with pictures of their products.
b. sounding loud tones at key points in the advertisement.
c. reducing fear or anxiety as they repeatedly show the same commercial.
d. associating the unconditioned stimulus with a cognitive response.

A neutral stimulus is one that
a. leads to an increase of the UR.
b. leads to a decrease of the UR.
c. depends on the size of the UR.
d. does not evoke the UR.

Which of the following might serve as a secondary reinforcer?
a. sex
b. grades
c. food
d. a pain-relieving drug

29 | P a g e

For conditioning to occur, the proper order of events is

a. US-UR-CR.
b. CS-CR-UR.
c. CS-US-UR.
d. UR-US-CR.

A team coach who benches a player for poor performance is using
a. aversive conditioning.
b. modeling.
c. negative reinforcement.
d. punishment.

For the connection between the CS and the CR to be strengthened, the CS must
a. generalize to the UR.
b. precede the US.
c. be identical to the US.
d. be followed by the UR.

In operant conditioning, what is the relationship between events critical to learning and the response to be learned?
a. They occur before the response.
b. They occur after the response.
c. They occur simultaneously with the response.
d. They are unrelated to the response.

30 | P a g e

The unconditioned stimulus, by definition, leads to a(n)
a. conditioned response.
b. conditioned stimulus.
c. unconditioned response.
d. classic response.

In a classic experiment, "Little Albert," a very young boy, was conditioned to be afraid of a rat. He also became fearful of
white furry rabbits and bearded men. This is an example of
a. spontaneous recovery.
b. higher order conditioning.
c. extinction.
d. stimulus generalization.

When a stimulus acquires the power to elicit a response as a result of being paired with a stimulus that already produces
the response
a. classical conditioning has occurred.
b. spontaneous recovery has occurred.
c. operant conditioning has occurred.
d. aversive conditioning has occurred.

Which of the following describes the state of affairs after conditioning?
a. CS-CR
b. US-CR
c. CS-UR
d. US-UR

31 | P a g e

The most basic form of learning that is not heavily dependent on higher order intellectual processes is known as
a. symbolic interaction.
b. information processing.
c. reductionism.
d. conditioning.

Which of the following best describes punishment?
a. addition of a positive event
b. addition of an aversive event
c. declining response frequency
d. withdrawal of a negative event

Negative reinforcement __________ responding; punishment __________ responding.
a. increases; increases
b. decreases; decreases
c. increases; decreases
d. decreases; increases

Two schedules of reinforcement that produce the highest rates of response are
a. continuous and fixed interval.
b. fixed interval and variable interval.
c. variable interval and variable ratio.
d. fixed ratio and variable ratio.
32 | P a g e

__________ occurs when making a response removes an unpleasant event.
a. Positive reinforcement
b. Negative reinforcement
c. Extinction
d. Punishment

To shape the behavior of their students, teachers employ
a. tertiary reinforcers.
b. secondary reinforcers.
c. negative reinforcers.
d. vicarious conditioning.

If you give a child her favorite licorice candy for doing well in school and she continues to do well in school, the licorice
candy is
a. a reward and a reinforcer.
b. a reward, but not a reinforcer.
c. a reinforcer, but not a reward.
d. neither a reinforcer nor a reward.

Increased feedback
a. sometimes improves learning and performance.
b. has no effect on learning and performance.
33 | P a g e


almost always improves learning and performance.

is not as effective as computer-assisted learning.

A child is conditioned to fear a furry, black cat. Soon she becomes fearful of any black, furry object. Her new response
a. spontaneous recovery.
b. negative transfer.
c. stimulus generalization.
d. operant conditioning.

The schedule of reinforcement in which a set number of responses must be made for each reward is called
a. fixed ratio.
b. fixed interval.
c. variable ratio.
d. variable interval.

The fact that responses become more resistant to extinction, after partial reinforcement, is called
a. the stimulus generalization effect.
b. the partial reinforcement effect.
c. the Skinner effect.
d. the resistance effect.

If you slow down every time you see a police car, your slowing down is probably due to
34 | P a g e


positive reinforcement.
negative reinforcement.

Your niece has a temper tantrum in the store when she is shopping. If you buy her a toy you are
a. being practical.
b. being kind.
c. encouraging more tantrums.
d. discouraging more destructive behaviors.

Negative reinforcement and punishment
a. have opposite effects on behavior.
b. are different terms for the same procedure.
c. have the same effect on behavior.
d. are not very effective in changing behavior.

A puppy has begun to cry and bark in order to be let into the house. To extinguish this response, you would
a. let the puppy in the house.
b. ignore the crying, letting the puppy in when quiet.
c. swat the puppy with a newspaper whenever it cried.
d. let the puppy in when it cries, then swat it with a newspaper.

35 | P a g e

Acquiring a fear of a light because you saw someone else getting shocked when the light came on is an example of
a. vicarious conditioning.
b. instrumental conditioning.
c. classical extinction.
d. vicarious withdrawal.

Secondary reinforcers are
a. almost never effective.
b. much more effective than primary reinforcers.
c. innate.
d. learned.

Which form of learning would most likely be studied in a Skinner box?
a. classical conditioning
b. vicarious conditioning
c. operant conditioning
d. conditioned emotional responses

A child is frightened by a loud noise while playing with a cat. If the child learns to fear the cat, it can be said that the cat
a. the UR.
b. a generalization gradient.
c. the US.
d. a CS.

36 | P a g e

A child bitten by a white dog is not afraid of black dogs. This is an example of
a. discrimination.
b. spontaneous recovery.
c. shaping.
d. generalization.

Presenting the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus will result in
a. reinforcement.
b. generalization.
c. spontaneous recovery.
d. extinction.

A corporate pay policy comparable to a fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement is
a. paying employees a fixed salary.
b. payment of employees on a piece-work basis.
c. salary adjustments based on the quality of work performed.
d. paying employees at the end of each day.

By a continuous reinforcement schedule, we mean that
a. reinforcements occur continuously regardless of the subject's behavior.
b. responding without pausing is the requirement for reinforcement.
c. each correct response is reinforced.
d. reinforcement continues even when errors are made.
37 | P a g e

When you are first learning golf, you may hit one or two great shots in an entire round. You are being reinforced on what
kind of partial reinforcement schedule?
a. fixed interval
b. fixed ratio
c. variable ratio
d. variable interval

To teach a child to eat spaghetti, you would reinforce initial responses, such as holding the fork, and then increasingly
closer approximations to the final response, a procedure known as
a. counter conditioning.
b. secondary conditioning.
c. desensitization.
d. shaping.

A rat learns to push a button in order to turn on a tone previously associated with food. The button pushing has been
rewarded by a(n) __________ reinforcer.
a. unconditioned
b. primary
c. secondary
d. generalized

38 | P a g e

Your handsome successful boyfriend winks at you each time before he tells you "I love you." Your expectation when he
winks is a(an)
a. unconditional stimulus.
b. conditioned response.
c. conditioned stimulus.
d. unconditional response.

The process through which a response is taught by rewarding successive approximations to the final desired response is
a. extinction.
b. fading.
c. shaping.
d. secondary reinforcement.

A child who occasionally gets rewarded with candy after asking her grandmother for a "treat" is being rewarded on a
__________ schedule.
a. fixed ratio
b. variable ratio
c. fixed interval
d. partial interval

Teaching your cat to turn on the living room lights would best be accomplished by
a. spontaneous recovery.
b. shaping.
c. classical conditioning.
d. extinction.

39 | P a g e

In operant conditioning, the reinforcer occurs __________ the response, and in classical conditioning, it occurs
a. after; before
b. before; after
c. before; before
d. after; after

Two principles of conditioning that have aided our learning and improved our adaptability as a species are
a. stimulus generalization and stimulus discrimination.
b. spontaneous recovery and extinction.
c. lower order and higher order conditioning.
d. extinction and inhibition.

Learning is best defined as
a. any change in behavior.
b. a relatively permanent change in behavior due to past experience.
c. a permanent change in behavior due to physical development.
d. any change in behavior caused by punishment.

Responses that are reinforced and tend to be repeated illustrate
a. stimulus control.
b. operant conditioning.
c. generalization.
d. discrimination.
40 | P a g e

To be effective, punishment should be
a. delivered late in the day.
b. immediate and severe.
c. explained in detail to the child.
d. paired with reinforcement.

Which of the following best describes the unusual events that occurred in Pavlov's laboratory leading him to the discovery
of classical conditioning?
a. Dogs salivated after meat powder was placed in their mouths.
b. Dogs sometimes salivated before meat powder was placed in their mouths.
c. Salivation existed in dogs as an unlearned reflex.
d. Dogs salivated if and only if they were given a reward.

After weeks of successful extinction trials, your pet dachshund suddenly resumes burying bones in the front yard. Your pet
therapist advises you that the dog's behavior is an example of
a. token reinforcement.
b. stimulus generalization.
c. spontaneous recovery.
d. satiation.

41 | P a g e

The chief characteristic of hypnosis is

1. a. heightened arousal.
b. increased suggestibility.
c. enhanced creativity.
d. increased clairvoyance.


The most frequently used psychoactive drug in the

2. United States is
a. marijuana.
b. cocaine.
c. alcohol.
d. caffeine.


Operant conditioning is to
Skinner as classical
conditioning is to

short-term behavior.
negative behavior.
positive behavior.


Classical conditioning is most
often used to condition

Which of the following sleep phenomena could be

detected without the aid of an EEG machine?
a. Stage 2 sleep
b. REM sleep
c. Stage 3 sleep
d. sleep spindles


Dissociation or a split in awareness is an experience

commonly associated with
a. hypnotic induction.
b. amphetamine intoxication.
c. withdrawal symptoms.
d. relaxation training.

Which of the following best describes the stability of

5. sleep cycles?
a. They are innate so they cannot be
b. They are innate but can be modified in
times of emergency.
c. They are entirely learned but are difficult
to modify.
d. They are entirely learned and, thus, may
be easily modified.
42 | P a g e




You are daydreaming in the middle of a lecture. Are you

1. actually thinking?
a. Yes.
b. No.
c. No, but daydreaming is an example of
d. Yes, you are thinking and daydreaming is an
example of cognition.


Computer programs capable of doing things that require

intelligence when done by people are associated with
a. artificial intelligence.
b. proxemics.
c. cerebronics.
d. computerized creativity.


__________ is the study of the meaning of words and

a. Linguistics
b. Encoding
c. Semantics
d. Syntax

Representations used in thinking include

4. a. mnemonic devices.
b. kinesthesis.
c. concepts.
d. primarily figments of the imagination.

43 | P a g e

Basic speech sounds are called

5. a. morphemes.
b. syllables.
c. phonemes.
d. syntax.


Freud's theory was based on the belief that neuroses were caused
1. by
a. repressed memories, motives, and conflicts.
b. learned maladaptive behaviors.
c. negative self-regard.
d. destructive interpersonal relationships.

In an institution for delinquent adolescents, a behavioral system

2. has been implemented in which the adolescents earn points for
target behaviors like getting up on time, making beds, attending
class, etc. They are allowed to exchange their earned points for
privileges, activities, etc. This system is called __________ and
is based on __________.
a. systematic desensitization; gradual exposure.
b. time out; extinction.
c. a token economy; reinforcement.
d. primary reinforcement; non-reward

Freud considered the distinction between manifest content and

3. latent content essential for
a. free association.
b. dream analysis.
c. resistance.
d. transference.

In psychoanalysis, patients avoid talking about certain subjects.

4. This is called
a. avoidance.
b. transference.
c. analysis.
d. resistance.


44 | P a g e

In psychoanalysis, an emotional attachment to the therapist that

symbolically represents other important relationships is called
a. resistance.
b. transference.
c. identification.
d. empathy.


main function
of anofovum
is to a woman's body is called
a protective
coating over nerve axons.
in vitro
speed of nerve impulses.
the reception of acetylcholine.
a nerve's
receptivity to neurotransmitters by increasing the
number of receptor sites available.


The part of the nerve cell specialized for conducting information is
2. The
the first milk produced by a woman in the first few days after
2.a. axon.
giving birth is called
d. amniocentesis.
The cell body of a neuron is also called the
3. a. dendrite.
b. axon.
c. myelin.
soma. of the Head Start Program indicate that
3. a. children improve their school performance and abilities.
b.Dearly childhood educational programs are a waste of the
taxpayers' money.
c. the gains are about the same as if the child was in a caring
are made up of dendrites, a soma, and
4. a.d.axons.
children improve their performance while they are in the
b. axles.
program but lose it in elementary school.
c. atoms.
d. axes.
When a gene is __________, the trait it controls will be present
4. every time the gene is present.
a. recessive
of the following is NOT a part of a neuron?
b. dominant
5. a.c.axon
c. synapse
d. soma

45 | P a g e

Which represents the correct order of Piaget's stages of

5. intellectual development?
The nature of a nerve impulse is primarily a/an __________ event;
a. sensorimotor, concrete operational, formal operational,
6. whereas, the nature of the communication between neurons is
a/an __________
concrete operational,
formal operational,
a. chemical;
preoperational, concrete operational, formal
c. dendrite; axon
d. electrical; chemical
d. preoperational, informal operational, formal operational,
D postoperational

Experiments involving infants' perception of 3-D figures, when

in thinking
1. am
visual cliff
data, suggest
that I am a __________
1. a.psychologist."
at least some level of depth perception is innate.
a.b. cognitive
depth perception is heavily dependent on skillful
b. learning
motor coordination.
c.c. perception
depth perception is almost entirely learned.
d.d. personality
neither innate mechanisms nor learning have much
effect on depth perception.

live more
and meaningful
are Iplaced
in people
the middle
of atovisual
cliff, creative
they usually
2.2. a.lives.
name is
a.b. Wertheimer.
move to the shallow side of the apparatus.
b.c. Washburn.
move to the deep side of the apparatus.
c.d. Skinner.
approach their mothers when called, whether that
d. Maslow.
requires moving to the shallow or deep side.

area primarily
in street will look
If you stand in
the middle of
street, the
3.3.a. coarse
near your feet
and finer if you look into the distance. This is
b. animal behavior.
c. the comparison of functional and behavioral psychology.
gradient.of different types of psychotherapy.
d. the
b. linear perspective.
c. relative size.
d. relative motion.
Of the following, who is associated with the Gestalt school of psychology?
4. a. Ivan Pavlov
B. F.traveling
Skinner in a car, near objects seem to move past you faster
c. Max Wertheimer
4. than distant objects. This is called
d. John Watson
a. aerial perspective.
b. linear perspective.
c. relative size.
d. relative motion.

46 | P a g e

Of the following, who is a humanistic psychologist?
5. a. Sigmund Freud
b. Abraham Maslow
c. B. F. Skinner
standards used to judge stimuli are referred to as
John Watson
5. a. adaptation level.
b. context.
c. intuition.
d. frames of reference.