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Chapter 1

The Field of Organizational Behavior

1) The field of organizational behavior is most firmly rooted in:


A) science.
B) biology.
C) political science.
D) philosophy.
2) ________ is a structured social system consisting of groups and individuals working together to meet
some agreed-upon objective.
A) An open system
B) An organization
C) A work team
D) Scientific management
3) Organizational behavior:
A) is a social science that examines people's behavior in society, like physics or sociology.
B) studies how organizations compete and applies that knowledge to improve the organization's quality.
C) is an intuitive, qualitative approach to the understanding of group behavior both on and off the job.
D) is a discipline based in science that studies human behavior in organizations.
4) According to its definition, organizational behavior:
A) is firmly grounded in the scientific method.
B) focuses on the organization as a whole, and not the individual.
C) considers the group-oriented approach of sociology, rather than the individual-oriented approach of
psychology.
D) All of the above.
5) All of the following are characteristics of the field of organizational behavior except:
A) a basis for enhancing individual well-being.
B) a study of individuals, groups, and organizations.
C) a commitment to the scientific method.
D) a focus on qualitative, observational research.
6) When an OB specialist is looking at how an organization is structured and its operating environment
and the effect these have on employee communication and coordination, he/she is conducting research at
the ________ level of OB.
A) organizational
B) group
C) individual
D) None of these; this is not OB research.
7) John is looking at employee perceptions, attitudes, and motives in order to improve worker
productivity. John is conducting OB research at which level?
A) Organizational
B) Group
C) Individual
D) None of these; this is not OB research.
8) The social science that relates to the OB topics of organizational culture and leadership is:
A) anthropology.
B) sociology.
C) psychology.
D) political science.
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9) The social science that contributed to organizational behavior the tools and perspective to examine
conflict and power within an organization is:
A) political science.
B) psychology.
C) sociology.
D) management science.
10) The management theory that views workers as self-motivating, interested in their work, having a
need to achieve and be recognized, etc., is:
A) Theory X.
B) Theory Y.
C) classical management theory.
D) scientific management theory.
11) A Theory Y supervisor would feel that:
A) people work best when left alone.
B) different people should be managed in different ways based on the situation.
C) the only way to get people to work hard is to push them.
D) people motivate themselves, all you need to do is give them some direction.
12) In a recent survey of a wide range of professionals, which of the following was NOT found to be
related to job performance?
A) Management
B) Organization
C) Information technology
D) Supervisory mistreatment
13) ________ is self-sustaining through the conversion of external resources into organizational outputs.
A) An open system
B) Organizational behavior research
C) An organization
D) Contingency management
14) The open systems model of OB assumes that ________.
A) organizations exist in a vacuum
B) organizations are contingent
C) organizations are self-sustaining
D) organizations operate in discrete intervals
15) Which one of the following statements would be most likely made by a supervisor who endorses a
contingency approach to management?
A) "People work best when left alone."
B) "I treat different people in different ways based on the situation we're facing."
C) "The only way to get people to work hard is to push them."
D) "Focus on organizations and people will take care of themselves."
16) The perspective suggesting that organizational behavior is affected by a large number of interacting
individual, situational, and organizational factors is:
A) the contingency approach to OB.
B) classical management theory.
C) Theory X and Theory Y.
D) an organizational change perspective.
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17) The contingency perspective is useful because it respects that:


A) organizations may be rigid.
B) the scientific method may be limited.
C) different situations produce different answers.
D) few managers address personal characteristics.
18) Time-and-motion studies:
A) look at visual perception and performance.
B) try to find the best way to perform jobs by streamlining individual movements.
C) try to find ways to humanize the jobs of people.
D) focus on improving work group coordination.
19) Which of the following strategies would Frederick Taylor recommend to improve productivity?
A) Paying workers a salary or hourly wage.
B) Improving worker job satisfaction.
C) Implementing a program of careful selection and training of all employees.
D) Expanding job responsibilities for each worker.
20) In one set of experiments in the Hawthorne studies, researchers were puzzled when they found that
________ for subjects in the test room relative to subjects in a control room.
A) productivity improved when physical conditions were improved
B) productivity improved when physical conditions were made worse
C) productivity was lowest when illumination was the greatest
D) productivity improved regardless of whether brightness increased or decreased
21) The Hawthorne studies:
A) stressed efficiency and monetary rewards for workers.
B) focused on the noneconomic and social factors that influence behavior in organizational settings.
C) permitted the proper assignment of management responsibilities based on 14 key principles.
D) led to the effective restructuring of large organizations into bureaucracies.
22) The Hawthorne studies were an example of OB research at the ________ level.
A) individual
B) group
C) organizational
D) managerial
23) The value of the Hawthorne studies to OB lay in their discovery that:
A) physical working condition had no impact on worker productivity.
B) employee productivity and job satisfaction were directly related to the supervision they received.
C) human needs, attitudes, motives, and relationships were important to worker performance.
D) there is a most effective way to organize every work team, although it will vary among teams.
24) Fayol's principles of classical organizational theory include:
A) a concern for human motives like Mayo's Hawthorne studies.
B) a focus on maximum efficiency through the selection and training of employees.
C) the empowerment of employees through the elimination of the chain-of-command and increased
participation.
D) a division of labor, permitting people to specialize in those jobs they do best.

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25) Employees performing very specialized jobs, whether they are blue collar workers or managers, are
an example of which principle of organizational theory?
A) Unity of command
B) Scalar chain
C) Division of labor
D) Employee initiative
26) Max Weber's contribution to organizational behavior lay in his search for:
A) the best way to identify and consider employee motivation and attitude.
B) the ideal way to perform a job.
C) the most efficient way to structure an organization.
D) the key characteristics of effective executive leadership.
27) An organization in which there are a lot of formal rules, people are treated in an impersonal manner,
jobs are carefully divided into specialized tasks, and employees must check with their supervisors before
making decisions, exemplifies:
A) scientific management theory.
B) the application of a human relations approach.
C) contingency management theory.
D) an ideal bureaucracy.
28) Written guidelines that are used to control all employee behaviors refer to what characteristic of an
ideal bureaucracy?
A) Impersonal treatment
B) Formal rules and regulations
C) Authority structure
D) Rationality
29) The pursuit of efficiency refers to what characteristic of an ideal bureaucracy?
A) Impersonal treatment
B) Formal rules and regulations
C) Authority structure
D) Rationality
30) Higher-ranking people having authority over those in lower-ranking positions refers to what
characteristic of an ideal bureaucracy?
A) Impersonal treatment
B) Formal rules and regulations
C) Authority structure
D) Hierarchical structure
31) The Gordon and Howell report on business education in 1959:
A) recommended that the study of management pay greater attention to the social sciences.
B) refuted the findings of the Hawthorne Study.
C) supported the bureaucratic organizational structure as the best organizational form.
D) stressed the ethical implications of business.
32) Organizational behavior draws from a variety of social sciences including:
A) anthropology.
B) sociology.
C) political science.
D) All of the above.
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33) People who are citizens of one country but who are living and working in another country are called:
A) multinationals.
B) repatriates.
C) expatriates.
D) depatriates.
34) Jane and Bill are discussing the values, beliefs, and customs they observed on their business trip to
Europe. What Jane and Bill are discussing is:
A) expatriation.
B) culture shock.
C) a subculture.
D) culture.
35) Chuck recently returned to the U.S. from a six-month job assignment in Taiwan. His feelings of
disorientation would best be described as:
A) expatriation.
B) repatriation.
C) parochialism.
D) ethnocentrism.
36) When a person adjusts to a foreign culture he/she tends to:
A) experience frustration and confusion after being in the culture for a few months.
B) immediately experience frustration and confusion.
C) pass from understanding to frustration and confusion after about six months in a culture.
D) begin to experience optimism and excitement about the new culture only after a few months in that culture.
37) Culture shock tends to result from an individual's tendency:
A) to be overly optimistic about their international experience.
B) to be parochial or ethnocentric in their worldview.
C) to depend on a contingency management approach in other countries.
D) All of these experiences.
38) The narrow belief that there is one best way of doing things can be referred to as
A) patriotism.
B) divergence.
C) ethnocentrism.
D) parochialism.
39) When an American believes that everyone in the world should speak English, he/she is being
A) parochial.
B) ethnocentric.
C) convergent.
D) divergent.
40) Exposure to other cultures helps people to become
A) less parochial and more ethnocentric.
B) more parochial and less ethnocentric.
C) less parochial and less ethnocentric.
D) more parochial and more ethnocentric.

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41) The basic assumptions that management practices are universal and that U.S. management practices
are the best is known as the:
A) multicultural hypothesis.
B) divergent hypothesis.
C) convergence hypothesis.
D) culture shock syndrome.
42) Under the ________, the assumption about effectively managing people is that it requires the
appreciation of the cultural context in which they operate.
A) multicultural hypothesis
B) divergence hypothesis
C) convergence hypothesis
D) diversity efficacy
43) Approximately ________ of women are employed outside the home.
A) 20%
B) 35%
C) 50%
D) 75%
44) The percentage of ________ as a proportion of the total labor force is shrinking.
A) Asians
B) Hispanics
C) white non-Hispanics
D) African Americans
45) Companies are taking positive steps to help employees with personal needs and family obligations
because doing so:
A) helps them retain employees.
B) attracts the best-qualified candidates for jobs.
C) permits employees to focus on the job and achieve higher performance.
D) results in all of these outcomes.
46) By 2050, at the current population growth, the number of people who consider themselves to be
multiracial is expected to:
A) increase twofold.
B) double.
C) triple.
D) quadruple.
47) The fastest growing segment of the U.S. population is:
A) baby boomers.
B) minorities.
C) young people under 25.
D) people over 85.
48) In 2009, the overall percentage of men and women in the work force was reported to be:
A) equal.
B) divergent.
C) growing.
D) stationary.
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49) The process of using information technology to change a physical task into one manipulating data or
digital commands is called:
A) outsourcing.
B) rightsizing.
C) automation.
D) informating.
50) Organizations have been reducing the number of employees needed to operate. This is known as:
A) compression.
B) downsizing.
C) outsourcing.
D) core competency.
51) Hiring outside firms to perform non-core functions is known as:
A) compression.
B) downsizing.
C) outsourcing.
D) core competency.
52) The use of outsourcing allows the firm to focus on:
A) business continuity plans.
B) downsizing.
C) telecommuting.
D) core competency.
53) The trend in outsourcing has led to the development of highly flexible, temporary organizations
formed for a specific opportunity, each contributing a specific expertise. This is a ________ organization.
A) contingency
B) telecommuting
C) reengineered
D) virtual
54) More and more companies are allowing employees to spend part of their regular working hours
performing their jobs at home. This is called:
A) job sharing.
B) compressed work weeks.
C) voluntarily reduced work time programs.
D) telecommuting.
55) Telecommuting works best with jobs that:
A) involve a lot of driving.
B) are manufacturing based.
C) are customer-service oriented.
D) are easily portable.
56) A mutual commitment between employer and employees to do things to help one another achieve each
other's goals and aspirations is known as:
A) engagement.
B) core competency.
C) i-deals.
D) corporate restructuring.
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57) All of the following are key drivers of engagement except:


A) involving employees in decisions.
B) giving employees opportunities to express ideas.
C) establishing rules that will constitute the "gameplan."
D) showing concern for individual employee's well-being.
58) The practice of working fewer days each week, but longer hours each day is called:
A) i-deal.
B) engagement.
C) the compressed work week.
D) flextime.
59) The manager of human resources wants a program that will permit single parents who want to work,
but can't work a regular 8-hour-a-day job, to work for his company. The best program to solve his
problem would be:
A) flextime.
B) telecommuting.
C) compressed work weeks.
D) voluntarily reduced work time programs.
60) The term contingent workforce can be used to describe:
A) part-time employees.
B) freelancers.
C) on-call workers.
D) All of the above.
61) The need to draw on the services of temporary employment firms is necessitated by:
A) compressed workweeks.
B) core competency.
C) i-deals.
D) corporate restructuring.
62) When a company allows its employees to work fewer but longer days, it is using:
A) a flextime program.
B) job sharing.
C) compressed work weeks.
D) voluntarily reduced work time programs.
63) Currently, the highest number of contingency workers fall into the job category:
A) professional specialty.
B) clerical.
C) services.
D) operators, fabricators, laborers.
64) A flexwork program that permits regular part-time work where the duties for one job are divided
between two people is called:
A) a flextime program.
B) job sharing.
C) compressed work weeks.
D) voluntarily reduced work time programs.

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65) Programs that allow employees to reduce the amount of time they work by a certain amount with a
proportional reduction in pay are known as:
A) V-time programs.
B) U-time programs.
C) compressed workweeks.
D) flextime programs.
66) A uniquely customized agreement negotiated between an employer and an employee with respect to
the employment terms that benefit each party is known as:
A) benchmarking.
B) an informating program.
C) an idiosyncratic work arrangement.
D) reengineering.
67) If Bill negotiates his salary and fringe benefits prior to beginning a job, Bill is:
A) making an ex ante i-deal.
B) making an ex post i-deal.
C) benchmarking.
D) doing none of the above.

Table 1.1
Simon is initiating an organizational behavior effort at his company.He wants to look at how people
communicate with each other and coordinate their work efforts. His boss, Bill, is skeptical, "We conducted a
study of this kind ten years ago. I'm not sure we need to do it again at this time." Simon convinces his boss they
need to press ahead anyway. As Bill and Simon discuss the OB effort, Simon learns several things about his
boss. Bill believes that the key thing for a business is to fit the right person to the right job. He agrees with
Simon's interest in careful selection and training of current and future employees.But, Bill believes that there is
only one right way to run a company and do a job. Simon thinks that the company should create clearer lines of
authority by eliminating their matrix organizational structure, they should encourage employees to formulate
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and implement plans, and they should increase specialization among employees and managers. As Bill and
Simon discuss the company's problems and ways to improve performance, they mutually come to the
conclusion that company's current poor performance is probably a function of the fact that they are setting the
same goals and expectations for everyone and not considering individual strengths and weaknesses or taking the
different work circumstances into consideration.
68) Refer to Table 1.1. Simon's initial analysis will probably be focused on what level?
A) Individual
B) Group
C) Organizational
D) Macroenvironment
69) Refer to Table 1.1. What characteristic of organizational behavior is the "boss" apparently not aware
of?
A) OB's tie to the improvement of people's quality of work life.
B) The contingency orientation of OB.
C) OB's recognition of the dynamic nature of organizations.
D) OB's confrontation of the changing nature of work.
70) Refer to Table 1.1. Simon's and Bill's agreement on the problem makes ________ the best
management approach to take in solving the problem.
A) classical management theory approach
B) a scientific management theory approach
C) a bureaucratic approach
D) a contingency approach
71) Refer to Table 1.1. Bill's management philosophy would seem to be most compatible with a ________
view of people and business.
A) scientific management
B) human relations
C) classical organizational theory
D) modern era
72) Refer to Table 1.1. Simon's management philosophy would be most compatible with:
A) scientific management theory.
B) the human relations movement.
C) classical organizational theory.
D) a modern era OB perspective.

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Table 1.2
Mini-Markets, Inc. specializes in providing grocery and convenience products to inner-city neighborhoods.
They are highly committed to valuing cultural diversity. Their workforce consists of single parents, people who
are ethnically diverse, and people who are undereducated. The following individuals exemplify their workforce.
Jim is a single parent with two young, school-aged children. He lives about an hour from work and works the
morning shift. Jane is just starting her working career, having been out of college only a year. She has just had a
baby. Her husband also works full-time for Mini-Markets. They have been saving her salary and living on her
husband's while waiting for the baby to be born. Wilma is 66 and wants to retire in a few years but isn't sure
what she'll do with herself when she does. Plus, she'd like to have some extra time right now to spend with her
grandchildren. Tim is a high school drop-out who struggled with drugs. Since Mini-Markets gave him a chance,
he's really turning his life around. He's one of his store's most reliable and productive employees. Tim would
like to move into management, but he needs a college degree. Married with a small child, he can't afford to go
back to school.
73) Refer to Table 1.2. Wilma could benefit most from which flextime program?
A) Flextime
B) Voluntary reduce work time
C) Compressed work week
D) Job-sharing
74) Refer to Table 1.2. What flexible work programs would be of most help to Jim?
A) Flextime
B) Personal support policies
C) Compressed work week
D) Job-sharing
75) Refer to Table 1.2. Jane could benefit most from which of the following flextime programs?
A) Maternity leave
B) Personal support policies
C) Compressed work week
D) Job-sharing
76) Refer to Table 1.2. Tim could benefit most from which of the following?
A) Personal support policies
B) Voluntary reduced work time
C) Flexplace policies
D) Job-sharing

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77) Organizational behavior is an organization productivity orientation approach to


organizational effectiveness.
78) The concept that work can be both a productive effort while being a pleasant experience
for the employee is an example of Theory Y.
79) The contingency approach to OB recognizes that behavior in work settings is the
complex result of many interacting forces.
80) The human relations movement in OB emphasized the importance of designing jobs as
efficiently as possible.
81) The best known classical organizational theorist is Elton Mayo.
82) It was the work of Max Weber that led managers to consider organizations as social
systems.
83) The adjustment someone goes through when returning to their native culture after living
in a foreign culture is culture shock.
84) By 2050, it is estimated that racial and ethnic minorities will comprise the majority of
the U.S. population, making the term minority obsolete.
85) The fastest-growing segment of the U.S. population is the Baby Boom generation.
86) Much like the gradual process of automation, today's technology and the process of
informating are occurring very slowly and steadily.
87) As a result of today's technology, both blue-collar, manual labor jobs, as well as whitecollar, mental labor jobs, are being eliminated.
88) It is estimated that about 30 % of the largest American industrial firms outsource more
than 50% of their manufacturing.
89) The high-tech revolution has contributed to the trend of downsizing at many
organizations.
90) A virtual organization is a type of contingency organization that uses workers for
specific jobs and then disbands them.
91) A key consideration for an employee telecommuting is the ability to work
independently.
92) In 2010, about one in four members of the U.S. workforce was a contingent worker.

93) Discuss the fundamental assumptions of organizational behavior as a field.

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.
94) What were the early influences on the study of organizational behavior?

.
95) Discuss organizational behavior's development in the modern era, noting key current trends.

.
96) What are the benefits of employee support policies, and what steps can companies take to facilitate
employees' work and allow them to meet their family obligations?

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97) Explain how future, leaner organizations will use technology and staffing policies to become more
efficient.

.
98) What is the underlying premise of scientific management?

99) Why were researchers confused over their initial findings in the Hawthorne Studies? What
conclusions did they ultimately come to?

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.
100) What are the major characteristics of classical organizational theory as proposed by Fayol?

.
101) What is culture shock, who does it affect, and how might it be lessened for expatriates?

.
.
102) What is telecommuting, and how will it affect workers in the future?

.
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Chapter 2

Organizational Justice, Ethics and Corporate Social Responsibility

1) The concept of ________ involves people's perceptions of the fairness of the manner in which others
treat them.
A) distributive justice.
B) informational justice.
C) procedural justice.
D) interpersonal justice.
2) A form of organizational justice that focuses on people's beliefs that they have received fair amounts of
valued work-related outcomes is:
A) distributive justice.
B) corporate social responsibility.
C) procedural justice.
D) interpersonal justice.
3) People's perception of the fairness of the procedures used to determine the outcomes they receive is:
A) distributive justice.
B) corporate social responsibility.
C) procedural justice.
D) interpersonal justice.
4) Imposing new rules on workers without consulting them is thought to violate:
A) distributive justice.
B) informational justice.
C) procedural justice.
D) interpersonal justice.
5) When decisions that are made on the basis of unfair procedures make people dissatisfied with the
outcomes they receive, the dissatisfaction with those outcomes alone is about:
A) distributive justice.
B) informational justice.
C) procedural justice.
D) interpersonal justice.
6) Charles belittles his employees and makes insensitive comments to them. Charles's behavior is likely to
reduce:
A) distributive justice.
B) informational justice.
C) procedural justice.
D) interpersonal justice.
7) The concept of ________ involves people's perceptions of the fairness of the information used as the
basis for making a decision.
A) distributive justice
B) informational justice
C) procedural justice
D) interpersonal justice
8) Steadman provides clear reasons for the decisions he makes. His behavior is likely to increase:
A) distributive justice.
B) informational justice.
C) procedural justice.
D) interpersonal justice.
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9) Feeling valued by others in the organization provides an explanation for organizational justice effects.
This explanation is known as:
A) interaction effects.
B) informational justice.
C) group-value explanation.
D) interpersonal justice.
10) The fair process effect is associated with:
A) distributive justice.
B) informational justice.
C) procedural justice.
D) interpersonal justice.
11) Letting employees know that you are always available to talk is BEST known as which of the
following?
A) Using suggestion systems
B) Willingness to meet regularly
C) Conducting employee surveys
D) Using an open door policy
12) Which should NOT be done by managers who want to "promote voice" in an organization?
A) Invite input
B) Meet regularly
C) Avoid suggestion systems
D) Use an open-door policy
13) The results of training to promote justice have shown that:
A) employees of trained managers are less inclined to respond negatively.
B) employees of trained managers are more likely to engage in organizational citizenship behaviors.
C) employees of trained managers are not impacted at all.
D) Both A and B.
14) People's fundamental beliefs regarding what is right or wrong, good or bad are known as:
A) ethical values.
B) moral values.
C) business ethics.
D) social responsibility.
15) Standards of conduct that guide people's decisions and behavior are known as:
A) ethics.
B) morals.
C) business ethics.
D) corporate social responsibility.
16) It is a company's responsibility to set clear ________ and train employees to recognize and follow
them.
A) moral values
B) standards of behavior
C) normative guidelines
D) representational axioms
17) Which of the following companies had its founder serve time in prison after being found guilty of
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insider trading?
A) Adelphia
B) Arthur Andersen
C) Martha Stewart
D) WorldCom
18) Executives at which of the following companies were charged with using corporate funds for making
exorbitant purchases?
A) Adelphia Communications
B) Arthur Andersen
C) Enron
D) Tyco
19) Which company had its officers cited for "cooking the books" for personal gain?
A) Enron
B) Sears
C) Tyco
D) Fortes Telecom
20) Companies whose leaders explicitly express strong ethical commitment returned ________ the value
to shareholders.
A) twice
B) three times
C) four times
D) ten times
21) Companies with reputations for treating people well are:
A) ignored by prospective employees.
B) highly sought by prospective employees.
C) unknown by prospective employees.
D) None of the above.
22) Companies that deliver products and services ethically:
A) do not draw more customers.
B) do not draw more employees.
C) draw more customers and employees.
D) draw only more customers.
23) Which of the following laws was the earliest law enacted bearing on ethical behavior?
A) Foreign Corrupt Practices Act
B) False Claims Act
C) Sarbanes-Oxley
D) Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations
24) Which of the following laws provides mechanisms for reporting fraudulent behavior against U.S.
government agencies?
A) Foreign Corrupt Practices Act
B) False Claims Act
C) Sarbanes-Oxley
D) Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations
25) Which of the following laws forbids paying bribes to foreign officials?
A) Foreign Corrupt Practices Act
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B) False Claims Act


C) Sarbanes-Oxley
D) Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations
26) Which of the following laws specifies guidelines for judges to follow?
A) Foreign Corrupt Practices Act
B) False Claims Act
C) Sarbanes-Oxley
D) Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations
27) Which of the following laws was enacted to guard against future accounting scandals?
A) Foreign Corrupt Practices Act
B) False Claims Act
C) Sarbanes-Oxley
D) Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations
28) Which of the following laws specifies that actions taken by the organization to discourage criminal
behavior will be recognized?
A) Foreign Corrupt Practices Act
B) False Claims Act
C) Sarbanes-Oxley
D) Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations
29) Being ethical is not the same as being legal. Therefore, it is useful to think of the law as:
A) something that ethical corporations simply have to work around.
B) raising the bar for acceptable standards that companies must reach.
C) taking the place of ethical behavior by corporate executives.
D) providing the minimum acceptable standard to which companies must adhere.
30) Which of the following laws is a revision of a previous law?
A) Foreign Corrupt Practices Act
B) Federal Prosecution of Business Organizations
C) Sarbanes-Oxley
D) Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations
31) Which of the following laws was the most recent law enacted bearing on ethical behavior?
A) Foreign Corrupt Practices Act
B) Federal Prosecution of Business Organizations
C) Sarbanes-Oxley
D) Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations
32) In which of the following countries is using pirated software considered acceptable?
A) Indonesia
B) Japan
C) Germany
D) China

33) In which of the following countries is bribing an official considered an acceptable cost of doing
business?
A) Indonesia
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B) Japan
C) Germany
D) China
34) In which of the following countries must you purchase a gift for the other party in order to conduct
business?
A) Indonesia
B) Japan
C) Germany
D) China
35) The idea that no culture's ethics are better than any other is embraced by which of the following:
A) ethical imperialism.
B) ethical relativism.
C) Sarbanes-Oxley.
D) False Claims Act.
36) The possibility of condoning acts that violate one's own sense of morality can occur in which of the
following:
A) ethical imperialism.
B) ethical relativism.
C) Sarbanes-Oxley.
D) False Claims Act.
37) Which of the following countries allows companies to dispose of toxic chemical waste?
A) Canada
B) Japan
C) Nigeria
D) China
38) The idea that no matter where you are, you should do whatever you consider to be right at home is
called:
A) ethical imperialism.
B) ethical relativism.
C) ethical convenience.
D) ethical double standards.
39) The U.S. style of training in avoiding sexual harassment would be questioned in which of the
following regions?
A) South America
B) Africa
C) Middle East
D) Northern Europe

40) The U.S. style of training in avoiding sexual harassment when done abroad would be a problem in
terms of:
A) ethical relativism.
B) ethical imperialism.
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C) organizational justice.
D) None of the above.
41) Hiring one's own relatives would be considered ethical in which of the following countries?
A) India
B) Japan
C) Nigeria
D) China
42) "I'm not going to behave unethically because I don't want to get into trouble." This is moral thinking
at which of the following levels?
A) Preconventional level
B) Conventional level
C) Postconventional level
D) Relativistic level
43) In which of the following levels of moral reasoning do two-thirds of adults fall?
A) Preconventional level
B) Conventional level
C) Postconventional level
D) Ethical imperialism
44) "I'm going to do what society thinks is right." This is moral thinking at which of the following levels?
A) Preconventional level
B) Conventional level
C) Postconventional level
D) Relativistic level
45) The belief that financial success is the only thing that matters is known as:
A) ethical relativism.
B) bottom-line mentality.
C) exploitative mentality.
D) Madison Avenue mentality.
46) "I'm not going to do what is right, even if others don't agree." This is moral thinking at which of the
following levels?
A) Preconventional level
B) Conventional level
C) Postconventional level
D) Relativistic level
47) Most employees are sensitive to organizational efforts to promote ethical behavior because these
represent social standards of right and wrong. This thinking is prevalent at which of the following levels?
A) Preconventional level
B) Conventional level
C) Postconventional level
D) Relativistic level
48) Which of the following situational forces do NOT feature prominently in people's tendency to behave
unethically?
A) Organizational norms that encourage unethical behavior
B) Managerial values that discourage integrity
C) Impact of unethical behavior by leaders
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D) National culture
49) Kohlberg's theory of cognitive moral development includes which of the following stages?
A) Preconventional level
B) Conventional level
C) Postconventional level
D) All of the above.
50) In which of the following stages does an individual do whatever keeps her from getting punished?
A) Preconventional level
B) Conventional level
C) Postconventional level
D) All of the above.
51) In which of the following stages does an individual do whatever fulfills the obligations of society?
A) Preconventional level
B) Conventional level
C) Postconventional level
D) Ethical relativism
52) In which of the following stages does an individual do whatever adheres to universal moral
principles?
A) Preconventional level
B) Conventional level
C) Postconventional level
D) Ethical relativism
53) The practice of willingly hiding relevant information by being secretive and deceitful is known as:
A) counternorms.
B) ethical relativism.
C) stonewalling.
D) ethical imperialism.
54) Practices that are accepted within the organization, although they are contrary to the prevailing
ethical standards of society at large, are known as:
A) counternorms.
B) ethical relativism.
C) stonewalling.
D) ethical imperialism.
55) The belief that financial success is the only thing that matters is known as:
A) ethical relativism.
B) bottom-line mentality.
C) exploitative mentality.
D) Madison Avenue mentality.

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56) The belief that concern for others is less important than one's own immediate interests is known as:
A) ethical relativism.
B) bottom-line mentality.
C) exploitative mentality.
D) Madison Avenue mentality.
57) The _______ asserts that one's own immediate interests are more important than the concern for
others.
A) conventional paradigm
B) bottom-line mentality
C) exploitative mentality
D) internal-external model
58) Greater concern for how things appear to others rather than how they really are is known as:
A) ethical relativism.
B) bottom-line mentality.
C) exploitative mentality.
D) Madison Avenue mentality.
59) "If it looks ethical, it is ethical" represents which of the following mentalities::
A) imperialist mentality.
B) bottom-line mentality.
C) exploitative mentality.
D) Madison Avenue mentality.
60) ________ involve doing what is right and good for everyone.
A) Philanthropic responsibilities
B) Legal responsibilities
C) Ethical responsibilities
D) Financial responsibilities
61) The tendency for companies to do well by doing good is known as:
A) corporate social responsibility.
B) the pyramid of corporate social responsibility.
C) the virtuous circle.
D) ethical imperialism.
62) In which of the following do senior-level managers assist the CEO in making ethical decisions?
A) Ethics officers
B) Ethics hotlines
C) Ethics audits
D) Ethics committees
63) Which of the following involves a high-ranking organizational official who is expected to provide
strategies for ensuring ethical conduct throughout the organization?
A) Ethics officers
B) Ethics hotlines
C) Ethics audits
D) Ethics committees
64) Which of the following involves special phone numbers that employees can call to ask questions?
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A) Ethics officers
B) Ethics hotlines
C) Ethics audits
D) Ethics committees
65) The active investigation and documentation of incidents of dubious ethical value occur in which of the
following?
A) Ethics officers
B) Ethics hotlines
C) Ethics audits
D) Ethics committees
66) Which of the following is NOT an element in the pyramid of corporate social responsibility?
A) Philanthropic
B) Ethical
C) Financial
D) Cultural
67) Donating money to social causes would fall under which of the responsibilities of corporate social
responsibility?
A) Philanthropic
B) Ethical
C) Economic
D) Financial
68) Which of the following is at the base of the pyramid of corporate social responsibility?
A) Cultural
B) Financial
C) Ethical
D) Legal
69) Adhering to Sarbanes-Oxley would fall under which of the responsibilities of corporate social
responsibility?
A) Philanthropic
B) Ethical
C) Legal
D) Financial

70) Exceeding the prevailing legal and ethical standards and embracing values that promote
the greater welfare of society at large is the domain of distributive justice.
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71) Organizational justice that focuses on people's beliefs that they have received fair
amounts of valued work-related outcomes is known as distributed justice.
72) The perception of the fairness of the procedures used to determine the outcomes they
receive is known as procedural justice.
73) The anterior insula part of the brain is activated in response to procedural injustice.
74) Procedural injustice activates the part of the brain associated with cognition.
75) Departments in which employees felt treated unfairly had significantly higher rates of
turnover.
76) Providing employees explanations of why something had to be done will not reduce
some of the problems of distributive injustice.
77) Justice training reaps many benefits to managers.
78) Standards are about ethics while beliefs are about moral values.
79) Sears was found guilty of creating bogus partnerships.
80) Starbucks and Dell have been recognized for their efforts to advance the interests of
women.
81) The False Claims Act provides procedures for reporting fraudulent behavior against
U.S. government agencies.
82) Sarbanes-Oxley is designed to guard against future accounting scandals.
83) The Federal Prosecution of Business Organizations is a revision of the Federal
Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations.
84) In Japan, you must give a small gift to conduct business.
85) Ethical relativism calls for adopting the ethics of the country in which one is doing
business.
86) Ethical imperialism asserts that the ethical standards in one's own culture are superior.
87) Decisions made on conventional levels of moral development are motivated by doing
what society thinks is
88) Decisions made on preconventional levels of moral development are motivated on not
getting into trouble.
89) An exploitative mentality believes that what looks right is right.

90) Identify the different factors that people take into consideration when forming judgments of
procedural justice.

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91) Discuss the steps organizations take to mitigate the severity of the Federal Sentencing Guidelines.

.
92) Identify the three levels of moral reasoning.

93) Identify the three managerial mentalities that discourage ethical behavior.

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94) Identify the four types of corporate social responsibility.

95) What does one do to promote voice in organizations?

.
96) Distinguish between ethical relativism and ethical imperialism.

.
97) Identify the three guiding principles of global ethics.

.
98) Identify the typical components of a corporate ethics program.

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99) Identify what happens to employees when companies have ethics programs.

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1) The process of social perception:


A) is inherently nonjudgmental.
B) is a public process that can be objectively observed.
C) involves the combination, integration, and interpretation of sensory information.
D) is unrelated to the process of selectivity on the part of individuals.
2) In the attribution process, correspondent inferences are:
A) explanations for events.
B) judgments about people's dispositions.
C) judgments about organizational contexts.
D) inferences based on similarities between people.
3) You have an employee who is usually late and it takes him a half an hour to
become productive. You believe that his behavior stems from being lazy and
unorganized. This belief is an example of:
A) an attribution.
B) a correspondent inference.
C) a causal attribution.
D) observational learning.
4) We all make inferences about people, but they may be inaccurate because:
A) our judgments may be inaccurate.
B) we may not know all of the possible causes of the behavior.
C) individuals may be concealing information about themselves and their traits.
D) of all of these.
5) We can improve the accuracy of our inferences about others by:
A) using appropriate stereotypes.
B) focusing on behavior that appears to have only one explanation.
C) observing people's behavior in situations where they are pressured to act a certain
way.
D) studying psychology and human behavior before judging others.
6) According to Kelley's theory of causal attribution, when we form judgments
on the basis consensus, our attribution is based on the fact that:
A) the person we're judging acts the same way at other times when he/she is in a similar
situation.
B) this person behaves in the same manner in other contexts.
C) other people behave in the same manner as the person we're judging.
D) this person's traits match the traits of other people we know.
7) We believe that a person is motivated by external causes if:
A) other people do not act like this, the person behaves consistently like this, and the
person acts the same in other situations.
B) other people act like this, the person does not behave consistently like this, and the
person acts the same in other situations.
C) other people do not act like this, the person behaves consistently like this, and the
person acts differently in other situations.
D) other people act like this, the person behaves consistently like this, and the person
does not act like this in other situations.
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8) We will attribute another's actions to internal causes under conditions in


which:
A) consensus is high, consistency is high, and distinctiveness is high.
B) consensus is high, consistency is low, and distinctiveness is high.
C) consensus is low, consistency is high, and distinctiveness is low.
D) consensus is low, consistency is low, and distinctiveness is low.
9) Suppose you observe your neighbor running away from a dog who comes
into your backyard during a picnic. You've seen him run away from dogs
before, and you've seen him run away from all dogs. Also, you don't see
anyone else run away from this dog. You would say that he ran away from this
dog because ________, which is an example of an ________ attribution.
A) the dog is scary; internal
B) the dog is scary; external
C) he is afraid of dogs; internal
D) he is afraid of dogs; external
10) Perceptual biases are:
A) types of judgment errors that people are prone to make.
B) characteristics of the person who interprets a specific situation.
C) attempts to identify the causes of others' behavior.
D) tendencies to categorize people based on the groups to which they belong.
11) When we attribute another's behavior to internal factors more than
external factors we are:
A) experiencing the similar-to-me effect.
B) making a fundamental attribution error.
C) projecting the halo effect.
D) making a first-impression error.
12) When Berry wrecked the company car, his boss immediately assumed that
the accident occurred because Berry was careless. He never considered that
another driver could have hit the car. This perceptual bias is called:
A) the first-impression error.
B) the fundamental attribution error.
C) selective perception.
D) the halo effect.
13) If we form a negative impression of someone, we tend to evaluate all
future behavior negatively as well. This is an example of the perceptual bias
of:
A) selective perception.
B) stereotyping.
C) halo effect.
D) first-impression error.

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14) Research has shown that when supervisors rate their subordinates, the
more similar the subordinate is to them, the higher the rating the superior
tends to give. This is an example of the perceptual bias of:
A) the similar-to-me effect.
B) selective perception.
C) the halo effect.
D) first-impression error.

15) Li is an accountant by training, although he now works in human


resources. There are problems within his department: employees are fighting
with each other, morale is low, etc. But when asked how his department is
doing, Li reports they are right on target with their compensation figures, their
turnover rates, and their training expenses. Li's misperception is a function of
the perceptual bias of:
A) selective perception.
B) the similar-to-me effect.
C) fundamental attribution error.
D) the first-impression error.
16) When Samantha meets Joe, she is impressed with his professional
appearance, quick responses, and articulation. She assumes he knows of what
he speaks and follows his suggestions with disastrous results. This is an
example of the consequences of the perceptual bias of:
A) selective perception.
B) stereotyping.
C) halo effect.
D) first-impression error.
17) Prior to the start of the semester, Dr. Blankenship was told that three of
her students, in particular, had high potential for success. While those three
students had, in fact, been only average students in the past, they ended up
scoring very high on exams. The performance of the students could be the
result of:
A) selective perception.
B) a fundamental attribution error.
C) the Pygmalion effect.
D) the Golem effect.
18) How can we minimize stereotyping and promote more accurate
perceptions of people?
A) Make more correspondent inferences.
B) Categorize and use your stereotypes more carefully.
C) Make more causal attributions and fewer correspondent inferences.
D) Do not overlook the external causes of behavior.
19) Police recruits whose instructors expected them to perform poorly in their
training class did, in fact, perform worse than those about whom instructors
had no advance expectations. The performance of the recruits could be
attributed to:
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A) fundamental attribution error.


B) the halo effect.
C) the Pygmalion effect.
D) the Golem effect.
20) The belief that all members of a specific group share the same traits and
behaviors describes:
A) selective perception.
B) stereotyping.
C) halo effect.
D) similar-to-me error.
21) Which of the following is true about stereotypes?
A) We can learn to never use them through self-awareness and careful training.
B) Despite the fact people don't like them, the use of stereotypes does little real harm to
people.
C) Stereotypes allow people to do as little cognitive work as possible when it comes to
thinking about others.
D) Only bad people, who are inherently evil, use stereotypes.
22) We use stereotypes:
A) because we need mental shortcuts.
B) to help us understand the differences among people.
C) to reinforce our perceptual biases.
D) as a way of accurately classifying people in order to interact more effectively.
23) The desire to make a favorable impression is known as:
A) Golem effect.
B) Pygmalion effect.
C) stereotyping.
D) impression management.
24) Research on impression management shows that:
A) it tends to backfire in that the interviewing manager tends to react negatively to it.
B) managers form their first impression of a job candidate only after the first half hour.
C) job candidates have used this technique with great success.
D) most job candidates don't know about it, so it is not used very often in interviews.
25) The most common form of impression management technique is:
A) directly describing oneself in a positive manner for the current situation.
B) describing past events in a way that makes oneself look good.
C) claiming a positive event was more positive than it really was.
D) denying responsibility for one's actions.
26) Claiming responsibility for successful events is best known as:
A) enhancement.
B) overcoming obstacles.
C) justification.
D) entitlement.

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27) When Fred claimed that his national award not only helped him but also
helped his department and his company, he was using a technique known as:
A) enhancement.
B) overcoming obstacles.
C) justification.
D) entitlement.
28) Accepting responsibility for one's poor performance by denying the
negative implications of that performance is known as:
A) enhancement.
B) overcoming obstacles.
C) justification.
D) entitlement.
29) The least used impression management technique was:
A) directly describing oneself in a positive manner for the current situation.
B) personal stories.
C) claiming a positive event was more positive than it really was.
D) denying responsibility for one's actions.
30) The performance appraisal process in organizations is:
A) a rational and objective process.
B) often heavily influenced by perceptual bias.
C) unaffected by the impression management process.
D) a fair process based on cognitive and behavioral objectives, free of bias.
31) Research of bank managers showed that when employees were rated four
months after beginning their jobs, their performance evaluations:
A) were consistent with current performance.
B) were significantly lower than expected due to fundamental attribution error.
C) were still unaffected by the impression management strategies by the employees.
D) were consistent with manager expectations, not performance.
32) Perceptual biases in performance appraisal depend on:
A) the professional training of the appraiser.
B) characteristics of both the appraiser and the appraised employee.
C) the interpersonal relationship between the supervisor and the appraised employee.
D) the race and gender of the two people involved in the appraisal process.
33) In Japan, an overall evaluation of performance effectiveness is usually
given:
A) after around 21 years.
B) upon termination.
C) annually.
D) after around 12 years.
34) All of the following statements about performance appraisals are true in
Japan, except:
A) comments about performance are handled orally.
B) the group or work team tends to be judged as a whole.
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C) evaluations occur annually.


D) judgments are not usually challenged.
35) Learning is:
A) a relatively permanent change in behavior occurring as a result of experience.
B) reflected by temporary changes in behavior, such as those produced by drugs, illness,
or fatigue.
C) synonymous with improvements in performance.
D) based on the fact that our behavior results in positive or negative consequences.
36) You worked very hard on a key report. As a finishing touch you add some
clip art to the document. Your boss loves it and asks why you haven't done it
before. So in all future reports you add clip art images. This is an example of
what form of learning?
A) Classical conditioning
B) Operant conditioning
C) Observational learning
D) Modeling
37) When people repeat actions that have positive effects, and do not repeat
actions that have negative effects, they are demonstrating:
A) operant conditioning.
B) observational learning.
C) the transfer of training.
D) the law of effect.
38) Mary learns that she can avoid a fight with her supervisor by not taking
too long a lunch break. This is an example of which of the following in
operation?
A) Negative reinforcement
B) Positive reinforcement
C) Punishment
D) Extinction
39) Punishment:
A) removes an aversive stimulus, thereby increasing the strength of the response that
led to its removal.
B) applies an aversive stimulus, thereby decreasing the strength of the response to its
presentation.
C) gradually reduces or eliminates behavior after it is no longer reinforced.
D) removes an aversive stimulus, thereby decreasing the strength of the response to its
presentation.
40) The phenomenon in which people identify themselves with the success of
others is known as:
A) cutting off reflected failure.
B) social identity.
C) basking in reflected glory.
D) social perception.
41) Observational learning occurs when one person acquires new information
or behaviors:
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A) in a specified time period.


B) through practice and repetition of the task.
C) by having correct behavior rewarded and poor performance punished.
D) vicariously.
42) Suppose you see your co-worker getting chewed out by your boss because
he took too long a coffee break. Now, you refrain from taking coffee breaks
that are too long yourself. This is an example of which of what type of
learning?
A) Classical conditioning
B) Instrumental conditioning
C) Observational learning
D) Feedback training
43) The clearest application of the principles of learning in organizations is the
area of:
A) recruitment and hiring.
B) training.
C) performance appraisal.
D) benefits and financial management.
44) The form of training that combines classroom training with on-the-job
training is:
A) corporate universities.
B) executive training.
C) leadership training.
D) apprenticeship programs.
45) When companies are so serious about training that they form their own
centers to handle the company's training full-time, they are pursuing:
A) corporate universities.
B) executive training.
C) leadership training.
D) apprenticeship programs.
46) The four major principles that make training effective include:
A) participation, evaluation, retention, feedback.
B) feedback, evaluation, perception, repetition.
C) participation, repetition, transfer, feedback.
D) repetition, transfer, feedback, learning.
47) People learn and retain skills longer when they:
A) are permitted to evaluate their experience.
B) are able to transfer training back to work.
C) provide feedback to their instructors.
D) participate in the learning process.
48) The benefits of repetition in learning are enhanced when practice is:
A) modeled by others.
B) spread out over time.
C) condensed into small periods of time.
D) supervised.
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49) ________ enhances the effectiveness of training by permitting application


during the learning process.
A) Transfer of training
B) Repetition
C) Participation
D) Feedback
50) You are working in a machine shop where you are learning to operate a
lathe. Your supervisor tells you what you are doing correctly, and what needs
to be improved. This is an example of the principle of learning:
A) participation.
B) repetition.
C) transfer of training.
D) feedback.
51) A feedback process that uses multiple sources from around the
organization to evaluate one person is:
A) multiple regression.
B) team feedback.
C) 360-degree feedback.
D) a baseline audit.
52) Organizational Behavior Modification (OBMod) is/are:
A) the application of positive reinforcement principles in an organizational setting to
increase the incidence of desirable organizational behaviors.
B) the use of punishment to decrease negative organizational behaviors such as
absenteeism and employee turnover.
C) programs established by organizations to help employees stop smoking and drinking
and avoid other risks to their health.
D) programs developed within organizations to select employees who have the potential
to be managers.
53) The use of discipline in organizations to eliminate undesirable behavior is:
A) in decline due to unfair labor practices lawsuits.
B) infrequently used because most managers dislike doing it.
C) a relatively common practice in organizations.
D) quite similar across organizations, in that most use a standard one-step process.
54) When discipline is imposed on an employee in an organization through a
series of steps designed to match the severity of the problem, the
organization is using:
A) progressive discipline.
B) administrative discipline.
C) informal discipline.
D) continuous discipline.
55) John is caught stealing product from his company's warehouse, over
$15,000 worth. His company has a progressive discipline process. The
company's most likely action would be to:
A) give him an oral reprimand and return him to work.
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B) talk with him about his problem and recommend counseling.


C) transfer him to another warehouse.
D) terminate him immediately.
56) Managers consider _______ the most severe type of discipline they can
impose before firing an employee.
A) probation
B) written warning
C) suspension without pay
D) transfer to another job
57) To be effective, organizational discipline should:
A) be delivered after a short delay to reinforce the intensity of the punishment.
B) start with a severe negative consequence for the first offense to ensure it being
extinguished.
C) use moderate levels of punishment.
D) be directed at the individual personally.
58) Effective organizational discipline:
A) follows punishment with noncontingent awards to show there are no hard feelings.
B) applies punishment consistently, across occasions.
C) takes extenuating circumstances into consideration.
D) begins the discipline interview with a statement of the probable punishment by the
manager.
59) Suppose that as a supervisor, you find it necessary to discipline one of
your employees for consistently showing up for work late. Which one of the
following actions would be correct to perform?
A) Punish the individual by focusing on his or her irresponsibility.
B) Make an example out of this person by punishing him or her, but not others who are
also consistently late.
C) Give the person the rest of the day off after you discuss the problem.
D) Clearly communicate the reasons for the disciplinary action.

Table 3.1
Joe and Mary Jane are observing the new class of management trainees as they enter the
training room for their initial orientation. As they watch each person enter, they observe
how they are dressed, how they carry themselves when they walk, if they talk to the
persons next to them when they sit down, and so forth. Joe notices one man who is
casually dressed, who walks with a relaxed stride, and who talks to everyone within
reach of his seat. Joe believes this man will be a good 'volunteer' for role plays because
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he is obviously very outgoing. Joe has watched hundreds of trainees before and everyone
who acted this way turned out to be good up in front of everyone else. Mary Jane sees a
young woman she interviewed. In the interview she was outgoing, smiled a great deal,
and was very expressive. Mary Jane sees her now sitting by herself, having taken a seat
away from everyone, arms folded across her chest, with a scowl on her face. Mary Jane
thinks that this woman obviously does better in one-on-one settings than she does in
large groups.
60) Refer to Table 3.1. Joe's belief about the man he noticed is an example of:
A) attribution.
B) correspondent inference.
C) perception.
D) causal attribution.
61) Refer to Table 3.1. The basis of Joe's belief about the man he noticed is an
example of ________ information.
A) consensus
B) consistency
C) distinctiveness
D) enhancement
62) Refer to Table 3.1. What type of information are both Joe and Mary Jane
missing in order to validate their observations about the two people they saw?
A) Consensus
B) Consistency
C) Distinctiveness
D) Enhancement
63) Refer to Table 3.1. The basis of Mary Jane's thinking about the woman she
interviewed is an example of basing a judgment on ________ information.
A) consensus
B) consistency
C) distinctiveness
D) enhancement

Table 3.2
William and Malcolm are interviewing high school students for jobs at a newly opened
fast food restaurant. William knows his first interviewee; he coached him on the local
community softball team. William doesn't expect the interview to go well or to hire the
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young man because he wasn't very open to advice when he was coached. Malcolm's first
candidate is late and runs up disheveled and out of breath. Malcolm assumes the young
man had difficulty on his way to the interview and gives him time to calm down and
improve his appearance. Several hours into the process William is interviewing his 20th
candidate, Jane. When she sits down she drops into her seat, folds her arms, and pinches
her lips together. She's wearing a T-shirt with the image and name of a local heavy metal
band on it. William prepares himself for a hostile and unfriendly interview but is surprised
that after the first couple of questions Jane turns out to be quite polite and friendly.
Malcolm's last candidate is friendly, has similar interests to Malcolm and knows several
of the people Malcolm knows in the community. Malcolm comments to William as they
are picking up their files, "That kid reminds me of me when I was 17."
64) Refer to Table 3.2. Even though Malcolm gave the young man the benefit of
the doubt, Malcolm demonstrated a perceptual bias, because he didn't know
why the young man was late. Which perceptual bias does Malcolm
demonstrate?
A) Fundamental attribution error
B) Halo effect
C) Similar-to-me effect
D) Selective perception
65) Refer to Table 3.2. William is demonstrating which perceptual bias error
with his first interviewee?
A) Fundamental attribution error
B) Halo effect
C) Similar-to-me effect
D) First-impression error
66) Refer to Table 3.2. Malcolm is probably making what perceptual bias error
with his last job candidate?
A) Fundamental attribution error
B) Halo effect
C) Similar-to-me effect
D) First-impression error
67) Refer to Table 3.2. William's perceptual bias with Jane is an example of:
A) selective perception.
B) the halo effect.
C) the similar-to-me effect.
D) a first-impression error.

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Table 3.3
Tony manages a small group of customer service representatives and is responsible for
all their training. His coaching style is to catch people doing this right, then offer praise
and small rewards for proper performance. When Tony works with the customer service
representatives who handle customer correspondence, he pays random surprise visits to
each representative to encourage, coach, and correct behavior. He believes this keeps
the representatives on their toes. With his customer service representatives who handle
phone calls, Tony drops in on each one after they have taken between 50-100 calls. He's
able to monitor their call rate from his computer terminal.
68) Refer to Table 3.3. Tony's learning philosophy is an example of:
A) operant conditioning.
B) observational learning.
C) modeling.
D) classical conditioning.
69) B. F. Skinner's work on instrumental conditioning would be best able to
explain which of the following?
A) The tendency for people to continue playing slot machines although they are bound to
lose money.
B) The tendency for a supervisor's praise to increase a subordinate's good behavior.
C) The tendency for a person chastised by his co-workers for wearing inappropriate
clothing to the office to refrain from doing so again.
D) All of the above.
Table 3.4
Ted is designing a training program for his company's sales force. His training program
must permit quick learning with maximum retention. He has built an interactive
computer simulation for sales representatives to practice their sales skills. To evaluate
the results of the training,Ted has the sales representatives evaluate themselves, their
managers evaluate them, and their peers evaluate them.
70) Refer to Table 3.4. What principle must Ted incorporate into his training to
ensure quick learning and retention?
A) Participation
B) Repetition
C) Feedback
D) Transfer of learning
71) Refer to Table 3.4. The interactive computer simulation incorporates what
principle of effective training best?
A) Participation
B) Repetition
C) Feedback
D) Transfer of training
72) Refer to Table 3.4. The evaluation process Ted is using is an example of
which principle of effective training?
A) Participation
B) Repetition
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C) Feedback
D) Transfer of learning
73) Social perception is the process of understanding others' behavior
and attributing causes to their behavior.
74) Cliff sees his roommate burst into the room, slam his books on the
desk, and yell, "That horse's ________." Cliff believes his roommate is
angry with someone. Cliff has made a correspondent inference.
75) In terms of causal attribution, to the extent that someone's behavior
is same regardless of the context, is the extent to which a person's
behavior is consistent.
76) If we allow our initial judgment of someone to shape our subsequent
impressions and behavior, we have made a halo effect error.
77) Ted puts in long hours on the job and his boss notices. His boss
assumes that Ted is committed to the company and wants to succeed
because that's the way the boss did it, so he promotes him. Actually Ted
is so overwhelmed in his current job he can't his work done and the
promotion really sinks him. The boss's thinking is an example of the
similar-to-me effect.
78) The Pygmalion effect is simply the self-fulfilling prophecy in its
positive form.
79) When positive expectations results in good performance, it is known
as the Golem effect.
80) During the bombing of Kosovo, the news media kept warning against
a ground invasion because the Serbians are tough people and make
good soldiers. This is an example of a stereotype.
81) People use stereotypes as mental shortcuts to help them know how
to treat others.
82) Research has found that obese African American women tend to be
paid less than their average-weight counterparts, due to prevalent
negative stereotypes within the African American community.
83) The least commonly used image management technique is that of
personal stories, followed by entitlements.
84) Research shows that the performance appraisal process used to be
subject to bias, but now due to diversity training and cultural awareness
programs, almost all bias has been eliminated.
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85) Due to standardizations in organizational performance evaluations,


the appraisal process is generally an unbiased, rational procedure.
86) In Japan, performance evaluations tend to focus on the team or
group rather than the individual.
87) For learning to take place there must be a relatively permanent
change in behavior as a consequence of the corresponding experience.
88) Another term for operant conditioning is instrumental conditioning.
89) Negative reinforcement and punishment are synonyms.
90) Area briefings are used to allow a trainee to act out situations he
might face working in a foreign country.
91) For someone to learn through the observational learning process,
they must not only pay attention to their role model but also remember
and use what they learn because they want to.
92) Apprenticeship programs combine classroom training and on-the-job
training.
93) Participation in the learning process is important for learning both
cognitive and motor skills.
94) When it comes to disciplining employees, 83% of companies have no
discipline process or even offer the threat of discipline to poor or
misbehaving employees.
95) For punishment to be effective, it should be immediate, moderate,
and directed at the undesired behavior, not the person.

96) What is the attribution process, and why is it important to organizational


behavior?

.
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97) Social perception has a number of inherent biases in it. Identify and
explain them.

.
98) Discuss operant conditioning as a learning theory.

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99) Explain how you might use schedules of reinforcement to administer


rewards, naming and explaining each of the four types of schedules.

100) Discuss the discipline process in organizations, offering the key principles
to successful discipline.

101) How can you overcome bias in social perception?

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102) Define the term 'stereotype' and explain why people stereotype others.

103) What is 'impression management'? Describe the term and offer some tips
as to how it is done.

104) Describe the processes involved in observational learning.

105) Explain the four key principles to effective training.

.
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