Questions 1-9

Carbon tetrachloride is a colorless and inflammable liquid that can be

produced by combining carbon disulfide and chlorine. This compound is
widely used in industry today because of its effectiveness as a solvent as
well as its use in the production of propellants.
Despite its widespread use in industry, carbon tetrachloride has been banned
for home use. In the past, carbon tetrachloride was a common ingredient in
cleaning compounds that were used throughout the home, but it was found
to be dangerous: when heated, it changes into a poisonous gas that can
cause severe illness and even death if it is inhaled. Because of this
dangerous characteristic, the United States revoked permission for the home
use of carbon tetrachloride in 1970. The United States has taken similar
action with various other chemical compounds.

1. The main point of this passage is that

A. carbon tetrachloride can be very dangerous when it is heated
B. the government banned carbon tetrachloride in 1970
C. although carbon tetrachloride can legally be used in industry, it is not
allowed in home products.
D. carbon tetrachloride used to be a regular part of cleaning compounds

2. The word widely in line 2 could most easily be replaced by

A. grandly
B. extensively
C. largely
D. hugely

3. The word banned in line 4 is closest in meaning to

A. forbidden
B. allowed
C. suggested
D. instituted

4. According to the passage, before 1970 carbon tetrachloride was

A. used by itself as a cleanser
B. banned in industrial use
C. often used as a component of cleaning products
D. not allowed in home cleaning products

5. It is stated in the passage that when carbon tetrachloride is heated, it

becomes
A. harmful
B. colorless
C. a cleaning compound
D. inflammable

6. The word inhaled in line 7 is closest in meaning to

A. warmed
B. breathed in
C. carelessly used
D. blown

7. The word revoked in line 8 could most easily be replaced by

A. gave
B. granted
C. instituted
D. took away

8. It can be inferred from the passage that one role of the U.S. government is
to
A. regulate product safety
B. prohibit any use of carbon tetrachloride
C. instruct industry on cleaning methodologies
D. ban the use of any chemicals

9. The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses

A. additional uses of carbon tetrachloride
B. the banning of various chemical compounds by the U.S. government
C. further dangerous effects of carbon tetrachloride

D. the major characteristic of carbon tetrachloride

Questions 10-19
The next artist in this survey of American artist is James Whistler; he is
included in this survey of American artist because he was born in the United
States, although the majority of his artwork was completed in Europe.
Whistler was born in Massachusetts in 1834, but nine years later his father
moved the family to St. Petersburg, Russia, to work on the construction of a
railroad. The family returned to the United States in 1849. Two years later
Whistler entered the U.S. military academy at West Point, but he was unable
to graduate. At the age of twenty-one Whistler went to Europe to study art
despite familial objections, and he remained in Europe until his death.
Whistler worked in various art forms, including etchings and lithographs.
However, he is most famous for his paintings, particularly Arrangement in
Gray and Black No. 1: Portrait of the Artists Mother or Whistlers Mother, as
it is more commonly known. This painting shows a side view of Whistlers
mother, dressed I black and posing against a gray wall. The asymmetrical
nature of the portrait, with his mother seated off-center, is highly
characteristic of Whistlers work.

10. The paragraph preceding this passage most likely discusses

A. A survey of eighteenth-century art
B. a different American artist
C. Whistlers other famous paintings
D. European artists

11. Which of the following best describes the information in the passage?
A. Several artists are presented
B. One artists life and works are described
C. Various paintings are contrasted
D. Whistlers family life is outlined.

12. Whistler is considered an American artist because

A. he was born in America

B. he spent most of his life in Americat
C. he served in the U.S. military
D. he created most of his famous art in America

13. The world majority in line 2 is closest in meaning to

A. seniority
B. maturity
C. large pices
D. high percentage

14. It is implied in the passage that Whistlers family was

A. unable to find any work at all in Rusia
B. highly supportive of his desire to pursue art
C. working class
D. military

15. The word objections in line 7 is closest in meaning to

A. protests
B. goals
C. agreements
D. battles

16. In line 8, the etchings are

A. a type of painting
B. the same as a lithograph
C. an art form introduced by Whistler
D. an art form involving engraving

17. The word asymmetrical in line 11 is closest in meaning to

A. proportionate
B. uneven
C. balanced
D. lyrical

18. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passsage?

A. Whistler work with a variety of art forms.
B. Whistlers Mother is not the official name of his painting.
C. Whistler is best known for his etchings.
D. Whistlers Mother is painted in somber tones.

19. where in the passage does the author mention the types of artwork that
Whistler was involved in?
A. Lines 1-3
B. Lines 4-5
C. Lines 6-7
D. Lines 8-10

Questions 20-30
The locations of stars in the sky relative to one another do not appear to the
naked eye to change, and as a result stars are often considered to be fixed in
position. Many unaware stargazers falsely assume that each star has its own
permanent home in the nighttime sky.
In reality, though, stars are always moving, but because of the tremendous
distances between stars themselves and from stars to Earth, the changes are
barely perceptible here. An example of a rather fast-moving star
demonstrates why this misconception prevails; it takes approximately 200
years for a relatively rapid star like Bernard's star to move a distance in the
skies equal to the diameter of the earth's moon. When the apparently
negligible movement of the stars is contrasted with the movement of the
planets, the stars are seemingly unmoving.

20. Which of the following is the best title for this passage?
a. What the eye can see in the sky
b. Bernard's star
c. Planetary Movement
d. The Evermoving stars

21. The expression "naked eye" in line 1 most probably refers to

a. a telescope
b. a scientific method for observing stars
c. unassisted vision
d. a camera with a powerful lens

22. According to the passage, the distances between the stars and Earth are
a. barely perceptible
b. huge
c. fixed
d. moderate

23. The word "perceptible" in line 5 is closest in meaning to which of the

following?
a. noticeable
b. persuasive
c. conceivable
d. astonishing

24. In line 6, a "misconception" is closest in meaning to a (n)

a. idea
b. proven fact
c. erroneous belief
d. theory

25. The passage states that in 200 years Bernard's star can move
a. around Earth's moon
b. next to the earth's moon
c. a distance equal to the distance from earth to the moon
d. a distance seemingly equal to the diameter of the moon

26. The passage implies that from earth it appears that the planets
a. are fixed in the sky
b. move more slowly than the stars
c. show approximately the same amount of movement as the stars

d. travel through the sky considerably more rapidly than the stars

27. The word "negligible" in line 8 could most easily be replaced by

a. negative
b. insignificant
c. rapid
d. distant

28. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

a. starts do not appear to the eye to move.
b. the large distances between stars and the earth tend to magnify
movement to the eye
c. Bernard's star moves quickly in comparison with other stars
d. although stars move, they seem to be fixed

29. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses

a. the movement of the planets
b. Bernard's star
c. the distance from earth to the moon
d. why stars are always moving

30. This passage would most probably be assigned reading in which course?
a. astrology
b. geophysics
c. astronomy
d. geography

Questions 31-40
It has been noted that, traditionally, courts have granted divorces on fault
grounds: one spouse is deemed to be at fault in causing the divorce. More
and more today, however, divorces are being granted on a no-fault basis.

Proponents of no-fault divorces argue that when a marriage fails, it is rarely

the case that one marriage partner is completely to blame and the other
blameless. A failed marriage is much more often the result of mistakes by
both partners.

Another argument in favor of no-fault divorce is that proving fault in court, in

a public arena, is a destructive process that only serves to lengthen the
divorce process and that dramatically increases the negative feelings present
in a divorce. If a couple can reach a decision to divorce without first deciding
which partner is to blame, the divorce settlement can be negotiated more
easily and equitably and the postdivorce healing process can begin more
rapidly.

31. What does the passage mainly discuss?

a. Traditional grounds for divorce
b. Who is at fault in a divorce
c. Why no-fault divorces are becoming more common
d. The various reasons for divorces

32. The word "spouse" in line 1 is closest in meaning to a

a. judge
b. problem
c. divorce decree
d. marriage partner

33. according to the passage, no-fault divorces

a. are on the increase
b. are the traditional form of divorce
c. are less popular that they used to be
d. were granted more in the past

34. It is implied in the passage that

a. there recently has been a decrease in no-fault divorces
b. not all divorces today are no-fault divorces
c. a no-fault divorce is not as equitable as a fault divorce
d. people recover more slowly from a no-fault divorce

35. The word "proponents" in line 4 is closest in meaning to which of the

following?
a. Advocates
b. Recipients
c. Authorities
d. Enemies

36. The passage states that a public trial to prove the fault of one spouse can
a. be satisfying to the wronged spouse
b. lead to a shorter divorce process
c. reduce negative feelings
d. be a harmful process

37. Which of the following is NOT listed in this passage as an argument in

favor of no-fault divorce?
a. Rarely is only one marriage partner to blame for a divorce
b. A no-fault divorce generally costs less in legal fees
c. Finding fault in a divorce increases negative feelings
d. A no-fault divorce settlement is generally easier to negotiate

38. The word "present" in line 9 could most easily be replaced by

a. existing
b. giving
c. introducing
d. resulting

39. The word "settlement" in line 10 is closest in meaning to

a. development
b. serenity
c. discussion
d. agreement

40. The tone of this passage is

a. emotional
b. enthusiastic
c. expository
d. reactionary

Questions 41-50
Whereas literature in the first half of the eighteenth century in America had
been largely religious and moral in tone, by the latter half of the century the
revolutionary fervor that was coming to life in the colonies began to be
reflected in the literature of the time, which in turn served to further
influence the population. Although not all writers of this period supported the
Revolution, the two best-known and most influential writers, Ben Franklin and
Thomas Paine, were both strongly supportive of that cause.
Ben Franklin first attained popular success through his writings in his
brother's newspaper, the New England Current. In these articles he used a
simple style of language and common sense argumentation to defend the
point of view of the farmer and the Leather Apron man. He continued with
the same common sense practicality and appeal to the common man with
his work on Poor Richard's Almanac from 1733 until 1758. Firmly established
in his popular acceptance by the people, Franklin wrote a variety of
extremely effective articles and pamphlets about the colonist's revolutionary
cause against England.

Thomas Paine was an Englishman working as a magazine editor in

Philadelphia at the time of the Revolution. His pamphlet Common Sense,
which appeared in 1776, was a force in encouraging the colonists to declare
their independence from England. Then throughout the long and desperate
war years he published a series of Crisis papers (from 1776 until 1783) to
encourage the colonists to continue on with the struggle. The effectiveness
of his writing was probably due to his emotional yet oversimplified depiction
of the cause of the colonists against England as a classic struggle of good
and evil.

41. The paragraph preceding this passage most likely discusses

a. how literature influence the population

b. religious and moral literature
c. literature supporting the cause of the American Revolution
d. what made Thomas Paine's literature successful

42. The word "fervor" in line 2 is closest in meaning to

a. war
b. anxiety
c. spirit
d. action

43. The word "time" in line 3 could best be replaced by

a. hour
b. period
c. appointment
d. duration

44. It is implied in the passage that

a. some writers in the American colonies supported England during the
Revolution
b. Franklin and Paine were the only writers to influence the Revolution
c. because Thomas Paine was an Englishman, he supported England against
the colonies
d. authors who supported England did not remain in the colonies during the
Revolution

45. The pronoun "he" in line 8 refers to

a. Thomas Paine
b. Ben Franklin
c. Ben Franklin's brother
d. Poor Richard

46. The expression "point of view" in line 9 could best be replaced by

a. perspective
b. sight
c. circumstance

d. trait

47. According to the passage, the tone of Poor Richard's Almanac is

a. pragmatic
b. erudite
c. theoretical
d. scholarly

48. The word "desperate" in line 16 could best be replaced by

a. unending
b. hopeless
c. strategic
d. combative

49. Where in the passage does the author describe Thomas Paine's style of
writing?
a. lines 4-6
b. lines 8-9
c. lines 14-15
d. lines 18-20

50. The purpose of the passage is to

a. discuss American literature in the first half of the eighteen century
b. give biographical data on two American writers
c. explain which authors supported the Revolution
d. describe the literary influence during revolutionary America

Kunci Jawaban
CBAC ABDA BBBA DCAD BCDD CBAC DDBB ACCD ABAD BADC BCBA
BAAB DD

Questions 1-10 refer to the following passage.

The most familiar speleothems (from the Greek word spelaion for the cave and thema for
deposit), the decorative dripstone features found in caves, are stalactites and stalagmites.
Stalactites hang downward from the ceiling of the cave and are formed as drop after drop of
water slowly trickles through crack on the cave roof. Stalagmites grow upward from the floor of
the cave, generally as a result of water dripping from an overhead stalactite. A column forms
when a stalactite and a stalagmite grow until they join. A curtain or drapery begins to form
on an inclined ceiling when drops of water trickle along a slope.
Natural openings on the surface that lead to caves are called sinkholes. or swallow holes.
Streams sometimes disappear down these holes and flow through the cavern. Rivers may flow
from one mountain to another through a series of caves . Some caverns have sinkholes in their
floors. Water often builds up a rim of dripstone around the edge of the hole. Dripping water often
contains dissolved minerals as well as acid. These minerals too will be deposited; and they may
give rich coloring to the deposits. If minerals in the water change, layers of different colors may
be formed.
1.Stalagmites are formed by
(A) drops of water which enter through cracks in the ceiling.
(B) underground rivers which flow through the cave.
(C) water dripping from an overhead stalactite.
(D) water which trickles down a slope.
2. Sinkholes are
(A) the decorative dripstone features found in caves.
(B) natural openings on the surface that lead to caves.
(C) colorful layers of mineral deposits.
(D) None of the above
3. Which speleothem grows upward from the floor?
(A) Stalagmites

(B) Stalactites
(C) Sinkholes
(D) Curtains
4. An inclined ceiling is one which
(A) is straight.
(B) is crooked.
(C) is slanted.
(D) is wet.
5. Which of the following are NOT caused by dripping water?
(A) Stalactites
(B) Stalagmites
(C) Slopes
(D) Curtains
6. The information in the passage is most relevant to which field of study?
(A) Geography
(B) Archaeology
(C) Physics
(D) Geology
7. Curtains can also be called
(A) column.
(B) draperies.
(C) stalagmites.

(D) rims.
8. The word speleothem comes from which language?
(A) Latin
(B) French
(C) Greek
(D) English
9. Stalagmites are formed by
(A) drops of water which enter the cave through cracks in the ceiling.
(B) underground rivers which flow through the cave.
(C) water which seeps through the cave floor.
(D) water which trickles down a slope.
10. Which speleothem hangs from the ceiling of a cave?
(A) Stalagmites
(B) Stalactites
(C) Columns
(D) Rimstones
Questions 11-20 refer to the following passage.
Horse owner who plan to breed one or more mares should have a working knowledge of heredity
and know how to care for breeding animals and foals. The number of mares bred that actually
conceive varies from about 40 to 85 percent, with the average running less than 50 percent. Some
mares that do conceive fail to produce living foals. This means that, on average, two mares are
kept a whole year to produce one foal, and even then, some foals are disappointments from the
standpoint of quality.
By careful selection, breeders throughout history have developed various kinds of horses with a
wide variety of characteristics to suit many different needs. The Great Horse of the Middle Ages,

for example was bred for size and strength to carry a heavily armored knight. The massive horses
of such breeds are often called cold blooded. The Arabs bred lithe dessert horses that were
small and swift. These animal are often referred to as hot blooded. Cross-breeding of hot
blooded and cold-blooded horses for certain characteristics produced breeds ranging from riding
horses to draft horses.
The Thoroughbred id considered by many to be high point of elegance and fine selective
breeding. Many person mistakenly apply the name Thoroughbred to any purebred horse. But a
Thoroughbred is a distinct breed of running horses that traces its ancestry through the male line
directly back to three Eastern stallions: the Byerly Turk, the Darley Arabian, and the Godolphin
Barb. For convenience the breeds of horses are often divided into three major groups: (1) ponies,
(2) heavy, or draft horses, and (3) light horses.
11. Which of the following is not an example of an Eastern stallion?
(A) Byerly Turk
(B) Darley Arabian
(C) Thoroughbred
(D) Godolphin Barb
12. Which of the following was NOT a characteristic of the Great Horse of the Middle Ages?
(A) Largesize
(B) Swiftness
(C) Strength
(D) Cold-bloodedness
13. It can be inferred from the passage that cold-blooded and hot-blooded horses were cross-bres
for what reason?
(A) Such cross-breeding was a safer means of reproduction.
(B) Cross-bred horses were preferred by Arabs.
(C)By cross-breeding, horses with desirable mixed characteristic could be produced.

(D) Cross-breeding produced Thoroughbred horses.

14. In line 11. lithe most nearly means
(A) graceful
(B) clumsy
(C) massive
(D) bulky
15. Which of the following is NOT one of the major divisions of horse breeds?
(A) Draft horses
(B) Ponies
(C) Foals
(D) Light horses
16. According to the passage, which of the following horses is considered to be the finest
purebred?
(A) Darley Arabian
(B) Thoroughbred
(C) Godolphin Barb
(D) Byerly Turk
17. To conceive is to
(A) become sick.
(B) become pregnant.
(C) die.
(D) be born.

18. A foal is a
(A) male horse
(B) female horse
(C) old horse
(D) baby horse
19. The average amount of mares bred which actually conceive is less than what percent?
(A) 40
(B) 85
(C) 50
(D) 75
20. A mare is a
(A) Male horse
(B) Baby horse
(C) Female horse
(D) Old horse.
Questions 21-30 refer to the following passage.
We believe the Earth is about 4.6 billion years old. At percent we are forced to look to other
bodies in the solar system for hints as to what the early history of the Earth was like. Studies of
our moon, Mercury, Mars, and the large satelites of Jupiter and Saturn have provided ample
evidence that all these large celestial bodies had formed. This same bombardment must have
affected Earth as well. The lunar record indicates that the rate of impacts decreased to its present
low level about 4 billion years ago. On Earth, subsequent erosion and crustal motions have
obliterated the craters that must have formed during this epoch.
Scientists estimate the Earths age by measuring the ratios of various radioactive elements in
rocks. The oldest Earths rocks tested thus far are about 3 1/3 billion years old. But no one knows

whether these are oldest rocks on Earth. Tests on rocks form the moon and on meteorites show
that these are about 4.6 billion years old. Scientists believe that this is the true age of the solar
system and probably the true age of the Earth.
21. In line 8, the word obliterated means
(A) created
(B) destroyed
(C) changed
(D) eroded
22. According to this passage, how do scientists estimate the age of the Earth?
(A) By measuring the ratios of radioactive elements in rocks
(B) By examining fossils
(C) By studying sunspots
(D) By examining volcanic activity
23. Scientists estimate the age of the Earth as
(A) 3 1/3 billion years old.
(B) 4 billion years old.
(C) 4.6 billion years old.
(D) 6 billion years old.
24. Which of the following processes led to the obliteration of the craters formed by the
bombardment of the Earth by the celestial bodies?
(A) Volcanic activity
(B) Solar radiation
(C) Gravity

(D) Crustal motions

25. According to the passage, why are scientists forced to look at other bodies in the solar system
to determine the early history of the Earth?
(A) Human alteration of the Earth
(B) Erosion and crustal motions
(C) Solar flares
(D) Deforestation
26. What is the BEST title for this passage?
(A) Determining the Age of the Earth
(B) Determining the Age of the Solar System
(C) Erosion and Crustal Motion of Earth
(D) Radioactive Elements in Rocks
27. Which of the following bodies was NOT studied to give evidence that the Earth was
bombarded in its early history?
(A) Mars
(B) Mercury
(C) Jupiter
(D) Earths moon
28. Bombardment of the Earth at one time by various sized bodies is
(A) inferred from what happened on other planetary bodies.
(B) documented fact.
(C) proven by the lunar record.
(D) indicated by erosion.

29. The level of impacts of the bombardments of Earth have

(A) decreased to below normal.
(B) increased to a current high.
(C)increased after a periodic low.
(D) decreased to a current low.
30. In line 6, the word bombardment means
(A) an avoidance.
(B) an assault.
(C) an effect.
(D) a cause.

Jawaban : (C) water dripping from an overhead stalactite.

Jawaban : (B) natural openings on the surface that lead to caves.
Jawaban : (A) Stalagmites
Jawaban : (C) is slanted.
Jawaban : (C) Slopes
Jawaban : (D) Geology
Jawaban : (B) draperies.
Jawaban : (C) Greek

Jawaban : (A) drops of water which enter the cave through cracks in the ceiling.
Jawaban : (B) Stalactites
Jawaban : (C) Thoroughbred
Jawaban : (B) Swiftness
Jawaban : (C) By cross-breeding, horses with desirable mixed characteristic could be produced.
Jawaban : (A) graceful
Jawaban : (C) Foals
Jawaban : (B) Thoroughbred
Jawaban : (B) become pregnant.
Jawaban : (D) baby horse
Jawaban : (C) 50
Jawaban : (C) Female horse
Jawaban : (B) destroyed
Jawaban : (A) By measuring the ratios of radioactive elements in rocks
Jawaban : (C) 4.6 billion years old.
Jawaban : (D) Crustal motions
Jawaban : (B) Erosion and crustal motions
Jawaban : (A) Determining the Age of the Earth
Jawaban : (C) Jupiter
Jawaban : (A) inferred from what happened on other planetary bodies.
Jawaban : (D) decreased to a current low.
Jawaban : (B) an assault.

Now begin work on the questions.

1. The committee has met twice and ....
A. they reached a final decision
B. a final decision was reached
C. its decision was reached
D. it has reached a final decision
2. The manager won't be able to attend the shareholders' meeting tomorrow because....
A. he must to give a lecture
B. he will be giving a lecture
C. of he will give lecture
D. he will have giving a lecture
3. Brenda's score on the test is the highest in class.
A. She should study hard last night.
B. She should have studied hard last night.
C. She must have studied hard last night.
D. She had to study hard last night
4. To answer accurately is more important than...
A. to finish quickly
B. a quick finish
C. you finish it quickly
D. quick finish
5. Having been served lunch,....
A. the problems were discussed by the participants.
B. the participants discuss the problems.
C. it was discussed by the participants.
D. A discussion of the problems were made by the participants.
6. East Kalimantan relies heavily on income from oil and natural gas, and....
A. Aceh province also.
B. Aceh province too.
C. Aceh province is as well.
D. so does Aceh province.
7. The participants have had some problems deciding....
A. when they should announce the result of the meeting.
B. when are they sgoing to announce the result of the meeting.
C. when should they announce the result of the meeting.
D. the time when the result of the meeting to announce.
8. This year will be more difficult for our organization because....
A. we have less money and volunteers than last year.

B. there is a little money and volunteers than last year.

C. it has less money and fewer volunteers than it had last year.
D. it has fewer money and less volunteers than it had last year.
9. Professor Baker told his students that...
A. they can turn over their reports on Mondays.
B. the reports can turn over on Monday.
C. they could hand in their reports on Monday.
D. the reports they can hand in on Monday.
10. The adder is a venomous snake ... bite may prove fatal to humans.
A. its
B. whom its
C. that
D. whose
11. .... a bee colony gets, the more the queen's egglaying capability diminishers.
A. It is more overcrowded.
B. The more overcrowded.
C. More overcrowded than.
D. More than overcrowded.
12. The chairwoman requested that ....
A. the participants studied more careful the problem.
B. the participants study the problem more carefully.
C. the participants studied the problem with more careful.
D. the problem be studied more carefully.
13. Unlike the earth, which rotates once every twenty-four hours ... once every ten hours.
A. the rotation of Jupiter
B. Jupiter rotates
C. Jupiter rotation
D. Jupiter rotate
14. Jackson,... capital of Mississippi, is the largest city in the state.
A. the
B. it is the
C. is the
D. where the
15. The various types of bacteria are classified according to...shapes.
A. whose
B. how they are
C. have
D. their

KUNCI JAWABAN
1. D
2. B
3. C
4. A
5. B
6. D
7. C
8. C
9. C
10.D

11. B
12. B
13. B
14. A
15. D

1. Amanda Way's career as a social reformer____ in 1851 when, at an antislavery meeting in Indiana, she called for
a state woman's rights convention.
(A) begin
(B) began
(C) have begun
(D) to have begun
2. The celesta, an orchestral percussion instrument, resembles___.
(A) a small upright piano
(B) how a small upright piano
(C) a small upright piano is
(D) as a small upright piano
3. Thomas Paine, _____, wrote Common Sense, a pamphlet that identified the American colonies with the cause of
liberty.
(A) writer of eloquent
(B) whose eloquent writing
(C) an eloquent writer
(D) writing eloquent
4. Although beavers rarely remain submerged for more than two minutes, they can stay underwater ___fifteen
minutes before having to surface for air.
(A) as long
(B) as long as
(C) so long
(D) so long that
5. Protein digestion begins in the stomach ____ends in the small intestine.
(A) while
(B) and
(C) how
(D) because
6. When natural gas burns, its___ into atoms of carbon and hydrogen.
(A) hydrocarbon molecules, breaking up
(B) broke up by hydrocarbon molecules
(C) hydrocarbon molecules break up
(D) broken up hydrocarbon molecules
7. _____ ballet dancers learn five basic positions for the arms and feet.
(A) All of
(B) Of every
(C) All
(D) Every
8. Some colonies of bryozoans, small marine animals, form ___with trailing stems.
(A) creeping colonies
(B) which colonies creep
(C) creeping colonies are
(D) colonies creep
9. Ruth Bader Ginsburg argued six women's rights cases before the United States Supreme Court in the 1970's,____
(A) of five winning them
(B) five winning of them
(C) of them five winning
(D) winning five of them
10. Natural selection is defined as the process ___the course of evolution by preserving those traits best adapted for
an organism's survival.
(A) to which directs
(B) of which directs it

(C) directs it
(D) that directs
11. ____ 363 miles between the cities of Albany and Buffalo in New York State, the Eric Canal helped link the Atlantic
Ocean with the Great Lakes.
(A) The extension of
(B) The extension
(C) Extending
(D) Extends
12.The chief sources of B12, a water-soluble vitamin ____ stored in the body, include meat, milk and eggs.
(A) is not
(B) that is not
(C) not that is
(D) that not
13. ____ is rooted in experiments in iron and steel conducted in the nineteenth century.
(A) While the history of twentieth-century architecture
(B) The history of twentieth-century architecture
(C) That the history of twentieth-century architecture
(D) Both twentieth-century architecture and its history
14.The primary source of energy for tropical cyclones is the latent heat released when ____
(A) does water vapor condense
(B) condensed water vapor
(C) water vapor condenses
(D) the condensation of water vapor
15. Maufacturing is Canada's most important economic activity, ____17 percent of the workforce.
(A) engages
(B) and to engage
(C) that it engage
(D) engaging
Kunci jawaban dari soal TOEFL structure di atas yaitu: BACBB CCADD CBBCD. Di bawah kami telah
berikanpembahasan terkait soal-soal TOEFL tersebut. Semoga dapat membantu kecakapan Anda dalam
menajwabsoal-soal TOEFL ke depannya terutama pada hari ujian.

Pembahasan Soal TOEFL

1. Jawaban (B) began.
Kalimat tersebut terdiri dari dua clause:
1. Amanda Way's career as a social reformer____ in 1851 when
2. she called for a state woman's rights convention.
Anda bisa lihat bahwa clause pertama kehilangan verb (kata kerja) olehnya yang harus kita cari yaitu verb yang bisa
mengisi clause tersebut. Jawaban A salah. Clause ke dua menggunakan kata kerja bentuk past (called) jadi begin
yang berbentuk present tidak paralel dengan clause ke dua tersebut. Kalimat harus paralel.Jawaban C berbentu past
perfect. Ingat past perfect tak akan menggunakan kata keterangan waktu yang pasti seperti pada kalimat ini. Kata
keterangan waktu yang pasti pada klaimat ini yaitu in 1851. Jawaban D lebih jelas tak sesuai.
2. Jawaban (A) a small upright piano.

Kalimat ini membutuhkan objek dari kata kerja resemble = mirip.

3. Jawaban (C) an eloquent writer.
Di antara ke dua koma stelah subject itu membutuhkan appositive yang menjelaskan terkait identitas subject Thomas
Paine.
4. Jawaban (B) as long as.
as long as = and.
5. Jawaban (B) and.
dua kata kerja begins dan ends. jadi dibutuhkan kata penghubung and untuk menghubungkannya.
6. Jawaban (C) hydrocarbon molecules break up.
Kata its membutuhkan Noun (phrase) setelahnya. Phrase hydrocarbon molecules sesuai dengan persyaratan in,
sementara kata break up menjadi verb dari its hydrocarbon molecules.
7. kunci jawaban (C) All.
Jika menggunakan jawaban A maka seharusya all of the ballet dancers. Jawaban D salah. Kata every harus bertemu
noun singular sementara dancers berbentuk jamak.
8. Jawaban (A) creeping colonies.
Kata kerja form membutuhkan object.
9. Jawaban yang benar yaitu (D) winning five of them.
Hanya saja saya kurang yakin bagaimana cara menjelaskannya. Kalau saya lihat-lihat bentuk ini masuk di reduction
(adverb clause). Jadi winning five of them itu merupakan phrase yang direduksi (hasil reduction) dari adverb
clause. Hanya saja yang saya lihat di buku referensi saya -Betty semua contoh Phrase hasil reduction dari adverb
clause posisinya di depan kalimat. Jadi itulah mengapa saya kurang yakin dengan penjelasan terkait soal ini.
Menurut saya inilah soal TOEFL. Kalau kita perhatikan di buku-buku akademik tingkat advanced banyak kalimat yg
menurut kita agak aneh.
10. Jawaban yang sesuai adalah (D) that directs.
Jawaban soal ini terkait penggunaan adjective clause yang menjelaskan kata the process.
11. Jawaban yang benar yaitu (C) Extending.
Pelajari tentang reduction dalam adverb clause.
Extending 363 miles between the cities of Albany and Buffalo in New York State. merupkan hasil reduction dari the
Eric Canal extends 363 miles between the cities of Albany and Buffalo in New York State.
12. Jawaban yang tepat ialah (B) that is not.
Ada dua clause:
1. The chief sources of B12 include meat, milk and eggs.
2. a water-soluble vitamin ____ stored in the body.
Clause ke dua menjelaskan subejct dari clause pertama. Clause ke dua tersebut membutuhkan verb.
13. Jawaban yang benar yaitu (B) The history of twentieth-century architecture.
Kalimat ini membutuhkas subject.
14. Jawaban yang benar yaitu (C) water vapor condenses.
Sudah jelas

15. Jawaban (D) engaging.

Mirip dengan bentuk soal no. 9.