Basic Medical Sciences PracticeSeries I

Basic Medical Sciences
75 Multiple Choice Single Anwer type, Multiple Answer type & True or False Type
Practice Series I
Basic Medical Sciences

Total time = 45 minutes.
Total Marks: 75
Please use a dark pencil/pen to complete the test. Read the instructions at the
begining carefully. This is an Sample Test Paper for practice. Please Note: There is a negative
marking of ( - ) for each incorrect response.
Multiple Choice Single Anwer type, Multiple answer type & True or False
QUESTION 1. Choose the SINGLE MOST CORRECT option (A-E) listed below.
A polypeptide antibiotic
A) Ethionamide
B) Linzolid
C) Colistin
D) Nystatin
E) Teicoplanin
Which of the following is a not a component of the Medial brain stem pathways?
A) Anterior Vestibulospinal tract
B) Anterior Corticospinal tract
C) Reticulospinal tract
D) Tectospinal tract
E) Rubrospinal tract
Insulin has a molecular weight of________ and contains ______ amino acids
A) 150,000 D., 31
B) 69,000 D., 167
C) 8500 D., 76
D) 57,000 D., 51
E) 55,000 D., 51
A) 1, 2, & 3 correct
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Concurrent use of Probenecid induces toxicity of which of the following drugs?
1. Indomethacin
2. Methotrexate
3. Salicylate
4. Digoxin
A 100% sensitive index for myocardial infarction
A) Troponin-I
B) Troponin-T2 (TnT2) isoform
C) Troponin-T1 (TnT1) isoform
D) Calsequestrin
E) Troponin C
Decorticate rigidity is characterized by
A) flexion at elbow of upper extremities
B) flexor hyperactivity in the lower extremities
C) posture typical of uncal herniation
D) exaggeration of extensor muscle hyperactivity
E) fasciculations
QUESTION 7. Choose the CORRECT options (A-E) listed below, MULTIPLE options may be
correct.
Lower motor neuron and its characteristic lesions
A) manifests as abnormal Babinski sign
B) characterized by flaccid paralysis, hypotonia
C) corticospinal tracts that innervate spinal motor neurons
D) axons terminate on skeletal muscles
E) characterized by spasticity, hypertonia
Tributyrase is also known as
A) gastric lipase
B) lingual lipase
C) intestinal lipase
D) pancreatic lipase
E) lipoprotein lipase
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Which of the following are Polyene antibiotics?
1. Nystatin
2. Teicoplanin
3. Hamycin
4. Bacitracin
A disulfiram-like reaction may occur after taking alcohol alongwith all of the following medications
except:
A) metronidazole
B) tolbutamde
C) famotidine
D) moxalactum
E) procarbazine
Which of the following is a three-carbon unit?
A) Oxaloacetate
B) Acetyl CoA
C) N-acetylneuraminic acid
D) Phosphoenolpyruvate
E) Isocitrate
correct.
Regarding aqueous humor:
A) contains pyruvate
B) contains urea
C) amount in anterior chamber is 230 microL - 250 microL
D) aqueous humor contains hyaluronic acid
E) amount in anterior chamber is 50 microL - 60 microL
The intermediate during formation of ribose 6-phosphate from glucose 6-phosphate
A) UDP-glucose
B) fructose 6-phosphate
C) glucose 1-phosphate
D) 6-phosphoglucoronic acid
E) 6-phosphogluconate
correct.
Regarding hemoglobin and methemoglobin mark the statements 'true' or 'false'
A) Methemoglobin is also called ferrohemoglobin
B) normal % of Sulfhemoglobin is <3%
C) Normal methemoglobin level is 0.6% to 2.5% of total Hb
D) Hb saturation at >1% CO is 15% - 20%
E) normal carboxyhemoglobin is 1% - 3%
The Oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to right in all of the following conditions
except:
A) decrease in hydrogen ion concentration

B) increase in partial presure of CO2
C) decrease in partial presure of O2
D) muscular exercise
E) Increase in hydrogen ion concentration
An ultra-long acting Sulfonamide:
A) Sulfadoxine
B) Sulfamethoxazole
C) Sulfasalazine
D) Sulfisoxazole
E) Sulfadiazine
Haptoglobin is a _________ protein with a molecular weight of ______
A) conjugated protein, 250,000
B) globular, 480,000
C) globular, 42,000
D) glycoprotein, 100,000
E) complex, 500,000
correct.
Chloramphenicol
A) bactericidal
B) causes Gray baby syndrome
C) inhibits metabolism of phenobarbitone
D) inhibits metabolism of cyclophosphamide
E) phenytoin enhances its metabolism
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Which of the following are classfied as agranulocytes?
1. lymphocytes
2. eosinophils
3. monocytes
4. basophils
correct.
Regarding Essential Pentosuria
A) barbiturates aggravates pentosuria in these patients

B) excretion of xylulose gives a negative Benedict's test
C) results in encephalopathy
D) excretion of D-xylulose
E) excretion of L-xylulose
Lymphocytopenia is characteristic of
A) Malaria
B) Rickets
C) Thyrotoxicosis
D) Tuberculosis
E) Malnutrition
Oxidation of glucose to lactate via anaerobic glycolysis produces
A) 8 ATP
B) 12 ATP
C) 2 ATP
D) 24 ATP
E) 36 ATP
Not a feature of Tuberculoid leprosy (TL)
A) bacilli rarely found in Lepromin test biopsies
B) anaesthetic patch
C) prolonged remissions
D) cell mediated immunity is normal
E) cell mediated immunity is absent
A muscarinic receptor agonist
A) oxotremorine
B) atropine
C) hydroxyzine
D) tropicamide
E) scopolamine
The pathway responsible for posture typical of decor-ticate rigidity
A) reticulospinal tract
B) vestivulospinal tract
C) corticospinal tract
D) rubrospinal tract
E) tectospinal tract
Microglia are derived from

A) basophils
B) meningocytes
C) monocytes
D) neutrophils
E) lymphocytes
correct.
Intraocular pressure:
A) measured by a tonometer
B) is maintained by vitreous humor
C) normal is 10 - 12 mmHg
D) normal is 12 - 20 mmHg
E) glaucoma occurs when IOP>60 mmHg
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Which of the following enzymes is/are inhibited by glucagon?
1. pyruvate kinase
2. fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase
3. phosphofructokinase
4. phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
C. difficile colitis is mostly associated with/due to use of
A) Metronidazole
B) Clindamycin
C) Vancomycin
D) Cholestyramine
E) Fidaxomicin
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
oxidation of terminal alcohol group (OH sixth carbon atom) of glucose produces
1. uronic acid
2. gluconic acid
3. glucoronic acid
4. aldonic acid
The activated intermediate in glycogen synthesis is
A) glucose 6-phosphate
B) UTP-glucose
C) pyruvate
D) UDP-glucose
E) glucose 1-phosphate
Which of the following is known as a thread worm or dwarf threadworm?
A) Ancyclostoma duodenale
B) Ascaris lumbricoides
C) Trichuris Trichiura
D) Necator americanus
E) Strongyloides stercoralis
Net ATP production in anaerobic glycolysis is
A) 36 ATP
B) 2 ATP
C) 24 ATP
D) 12 ATP
E) 8 ATP
Drugs which cause orange discoloration of the urine
A) propofol
B) Furazolidone
C) Tolcapone
D) indomethacin
E) amitriptyline
Which of the following drugs reduces the bioavailability of digoxin?
A) erythromycin
B) quinidine
C) verapamil
D) cyclosporin
E) phenobarbitone
Tolbutamide is metabolized mainly by the CYP P450
A) CYP4A9
B) CYP2C9
C) CYP2C8
D) CYP3A5
E) CYP2A6
The largest cells among the leukocytes
A) lymphocytes
B) monocytes
C) basophils
D) neutrophils
E) eosinophils
Drugs/Antibiotics that are Bacteriostatic
A) Cephalosporins
B) Aminoglycosides
C) Pyrazinamide
D) Sulphonamides
E) Penicillins
Not true regarding functions of T- lymphocytes:
A) promotion of inflammation
B) necrosis of tumour
C) chemotaxis
D) phagocytic actions
E) activation of immune system
Chloramphenicol prolongs the half-lives of all of the following drugs except:
A) dicumarol
B) rifampin
C) phenytoin
D) chlorpropamide
E) rifabutin
Which of the following diseases is characterized by monocytosis?
A) Kala-azar
B) Diptheria
C) Mumps
D) Chicken pox
E) immunosuppressant steroid
All of the following are derived from monocytes except:

A) kupffer cells
B) colony stimulating factor (CSF)
C) interleukin-1
D) platelet activating factor (PAF)
E) heparin
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Sulfonamides are competitive inhibitors of
1. dihydrofolate reductase
2. para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)
3. dihydropteroic acid
4. dihydropteroate synthase
Molecular weight of each heavy chain of a myosin filament
A) 400,000
B) 480,000
C) 200,000
D) 42,000
E) 80,000
Which of the following is not inhibited by penicillin G (PnG)?
A) Proteus
B) T. pallidum
C) Strep. pyogenes
D) Listeria monocytogenes
E) Strep. faecalis
correct.
Mark the following statements 'true' or 'false' about the functions of leukocytes:
A) eosinophils promote acceleration of inflammatory response
B) basophils promote chemotaxis
C) monocytes promote aggregation of platelets
D) basophils prevent intravascuar blood clotting
E) neutrophils inhibit aggregation of platelets
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Drugs highly bound to plasma protein
1. Warfarin
2. Valproic acid
3. Phenytoin
4. Disopyramide
Structural parent of all sphingolipids
A) Sphingomyelins
B) Ganglioside
C) Sialic acids
D) Ceramide
E) Cerebroside
REM sleep is characterized by all of the followng except:
A) neurotransmitter is noradrenaline
B) occupies 20% of the sleeping period
C) absence of muscle twitching
D) sleep is deep
E) dreams occurs during this period
correct.
Regarding glutathione mark the following True or False:
A) consist of aspartate
B) consist of phenylalanine
C) consist of glutamate
D) consist of glycine
E) consist of cysteine
Eosinopenia is seen in
A) Cushing's syndrome
B) Polycythemia vera
C) asthma
D) Filariasis
E) Scarlet fever
correct.
Regarding aqueous humor

A) has a pH 7.5
B) volume is 0.13 mL
C) viscosity 1.34
D) refractive index 1.029
E) rate of formation 2 -3 microL/min
correct.
Regarding muscle contraction mark the following statements 'true' or 'false'
A) troponin-tropomyosin interaction requires ATP
B) Troponin I is a marker for myocardial infarction
C) troponin C is also known as actomyosin-ATPase inhibitory element
D) actin-myosin interaction is Calcium dependent
E) results from interaction of actin and myosin
Basophilia is seen in
A) Syphilis
B) Chicken pox
C) Stress
D) Urticaria
E) Tuberculosis
Shortest acting hypoglycemic drug:
A) Repaglinide
B) Glibenclamide
C) Chlorpropamide
D) Tolbutamide
E) Gliclazide
correct.
Mark the following statements true or false regarding Penicillin:
A) Penicillin V is acid labile
B) Excetion of Penicillin is mainly via bile
C) Penicillin G is more acid stable than Pencillin V
D) elimination T1/2 of Penicillin G is 30 mins
E) Penicillins readily penetrate the CSF
Which of the following does not contain a sugar moiety?
A) ganglioside
B) N-acetylneuraminic acid
C) globoside
D) cerebroside
E) sphingomyelin
Basophils do not secrete
A) myeloperoxidase
B) interleukin-4
C) heparin
D) histamine
E) interleukin-1
The common intermediate by which ATP is generated by the oxidation of fuel molecules
A) pyruvate
B) lactate
C) glucose 6-phosphate
D) acetyl CoA
E) NADP
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Regarding Penicillin G (PnG)
1. 10% excreted by glomerular filtration
2. activity limited to gram -ve bacteria
3. acid labile
4. broad spectrum antibiotic
Half-life of digoxin is
A) 17 hr
B) 40 hr
C) 24 hr
D) 20 hr
E) 90 hr
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Antibacterial action of Dapsone is antagonized by
1. phenytoin
2. Para-amino salicylic acid (PAS)
3. warfarin
4. Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)
correct.
Regarding Neomycin mark the following statements True or False
A) active against Strept. pyogenes
B) highly toxic to internal ear and kidney
C) obtained from S. lavendulae
D) enhances the metabolism of digoxin
E) effective in hepatic coma
Drug which shows the characteristic "ion trapping"
A) aspirin
B) atropine sulphate
C) chloroquine phosphate
D) ephedrine HCl
E) morphine
Dose-dependent cholestatic jaundice is due to toxicity of
A) Captopril
B) Pyrazinamide
C) Halothane
D) Telithromycin
E) Phenytoin
Substitution of valine for which amino-acid at what position is responsible for sickle-cell anemia?
A) phenylalanine, at position 4
B) glycine, at position 4
C) alanine, at position 4
D) leucine, at position 6
E) glutamate, at position 6
Decarboxylation of lysine due to bacterial metabolism produces which amine?
A) Putrescine
B) Cadaverine
C) Tyramine
D) Tryptamine
E) Ornithine
The end product of triglyceride digestion in the mouth
A) phosphorylcholine and free fatty acids
B) fatty acid and glycerol
C) fatty acid 1,2-diacylglycerol
D) lysophospholipids
E) monoglycerides and fatty acid
Which of the following tracts is not a component/not situated in the anterior white column?
A) tectospinal tract
B) anterior vestibulospinal tract
C) anterior corticospinal tract
D) medial longitudinal fascilulus
E) olivospinal tract
B) 1, & 3 correct
C) 2, & 4 correct
D) 4 only correct
E) All correct
Regarding cardiac output (c.o.) curve:
1. shifting to left indicates increase in c.o.
2. shifting to left indicates decrease in c.o.
3. shifting to right indicates decrease in c.o.
4. shifting to right indicates increase in c.o.
Aqueous humor differs from plasma in that it contains
A) higher protein than plasma
B) higher glucose than plasma
C) lower glucose than plasma
D) no chloride
E) low ascorbate than plasma
Regarding the drainage and circulation of aqueous humor
A) drains from anterior chamber to posterior chamber via limbus
B) drains from anterior chamber to trabeculae via limbus
C) drains from posterior chamber to limbus via trabeculae
D) drains from anterior chamber to limbus via trabeculae
E) reaches posterior chamber through the Canal of Schlemm
Which of the following is a procoagulant?

A) thrombomudulin-thrombin complex
B) thromboplastin
C) sodium citrate
D) plasmin
E) heparin
A thiamine pyrophosphate ( TPP ) dependent enzyme:
A) Glutathione peroxidase
B) Kynureninase
C) ALA synthase
D) Aldehyde dehydrogenase
E) Transketolase
Elastases are secreted by
A) monocytes
B) eosinophils
C) neutrophils
D) basophils
E) T-lymphocytes
ANSWERS
QUESTION 1. Correct answer = C
QUESTION 2. Correct answer = E
QUESTION 3. Correct answer = D
QUESTION 4. Correct answer = B
QUESTION 6. Correct answer = A
QUESTION 7. Correct answers: A= F, B = T, C = F, D = T, E = F.
QUESTION 12. Correct answers: A= T, B = T, C = T, D = F, E = F.
QUESTION 14. Correct answers: A= F, B = F, C = T, D = F, E = T.
QUESTION 18. Correct answers: A= F, B = T, C = F, D = T, E = T.
QUESTION 20. Correct answers: A= T, B = F, C = F, D = F, E = T.

QUESTION 27. Correct answers: A= T, B = F, C = F, D = T, E = T.
QUESTION 46. Correct answers: A= T, B = F, C = T, D = T, E = F.
QUESTION 50. Correct answers: A= F, B = F, C = T, D = T, E = T.
QUESTION 52. Correct answers: A= T, B = T, C = F, D = F, E = T.
QUESTION 53. Correct answers: A= F, B = T, C = F, D = F, E = T.

QUESTION 56. Correct answers: A= F, B = F, C = F, D = T, E = F.
QUESTION 63. Correct answers: A= F, B = T, C = F, D = F, E = T.
Author Email: sidharta123@yahoo.com

Basic Medical Sciences PracticeSeries I

Hochgeladen von

Dokumentinformationen

Originalbeschreibung:

Copyright

Verfügbare Formate

Dieses Dokument teilen

Dokument teilen oder einbetten

Freigabeoptionen

Stufen Sie dieses Dokument als nützlich ein?

Sind diese Inhalte unangemessen?

Copyright:

Verfügbare Formate

Basic Medical Sciences PracticeSeries I

Hochgeladen von

Copyright:

Verfügbare Formate

Basic Medical Sciences

Basic Medical Sciences

A) decrease in hydrogen ion concentration

A) barbiturates aggravates pentosuria in these patients

Microglia are derived from

All of the following are derived from monocytes except:

Regarding aqueous humor

Which of the following is a procoagulant?

QUESTION 25. Correct answer = D

QUESTION 53. Correct answers: A= F, B = T, C = F, D = F, E = T.

Author Email: sidharta123@yahoo.com

Das könnte Ihnen auch gefallen