AEROSPACE TUTORIAL

1. CAR Series R, Part I covers the subject:

1. Cockpit Voice Recorder Test, 2.Aircraft Radio Equipments,
3. Aircraft Communication & Navigation systems, 4. Wooden Aircraft Structure.
2. CAR Series, Part I deals with:
1. Radio Equipments, 2. Cockpit Voice Recorders,
3. Ground Proximity Warning System, 4. Communication system,
3. Rule 57 of IAR deals with:
1. A/c shall fitted & equipped with Electrical System,
2. A/c shall fitted & equipped with Instruments,
3. A/c shall fitted & equipped with Radio apparatus.
4. A/c shall fitted & equipped with Engine only.
4. Radio equipment fitted on an Aircraft, accordance with:
1. I=IV, 2. I=V 3. 1= III, 4. 1= II,
5. In case aircraft fitted with Radio equipments of foreign made, then it shall be approved by:
1. R.A.O., 2. Airworthiness Directorate,
3. Sub R. A. 0., 4. Airworthiness Authority of that country.
6. In what year, Indian Telegraphy Act was made:
1. 1895, 2. 1875, 3. 1865, 4. 1885.
7. Radio equipments install & equipped in accordance with:
1. Indian Telegraphy Act 1885. 2. Act % A of Aircraft Act 1934,
3. Under Rule 57 D, 4. CAR Series E Part II.
8. Radio Equipments operate by a person holding licence issued by:
1. DGCA, 2. Ministry of Communication, 3. Both 1 & 2, 4. None of above
9. Aircraft Radio Equipments shall not be used or aircraft shall not be flown, unless:
1. Flight Crews are not satisfied, 2. Pilot-in-Command is satisfied,
3. Operator is satisfied, 4. Technical officer is satisfied.
10. Radio equipment has been inspected & certified in accordance with:
1. Series F Part VIII, 2. Series F Part VII,
3. Series F Part X 4. Series F Part XI,
11. CAR issued under Indian Aircraft Rule:
1. 133C, 2. 133B, 3. 133A, 4. 133D.
12. Licence to operate for Radio equipments is given by:
1. DGCA, 2. R A O, 3. Radio Officer, 4. Sr. Technician.

13. CAR Series R: Part II covers the subject:

1. Aircraft Radio equipment, 2. Maintenance of Radar Equipments,
3. Airborne Communication, 4. Installation of Comm. Naviga. & Radar Equipments.
14. Every Aircraft shall be fitted & equipped with Radio apparatus under:
1. Rule 61, 2. Rule 57 3. Rule 15, 4. Rule 50.
15. Who is responsible for FTD check before the actual installation of equipment:
1. DGCA, 2. R A O, 3. A M E, 4. All above.
16. A new Radio equipment installed on aircraft, the person check the equipment:
1 Q.C.M., 2. Manufacturer, 3. Approved person, 4. Licenced AME/Approved person
17. AME/Approved person study & check the feasibility of:
1. Equipment is approved type, 2. Electrical power is available,
3. Suitable location/C.G. with in limits, 4. All the above
18. After satisfactory checks, operator should obtain regular Aero mobile Licence from:
1. DGCA, 2. Ministry of Communication, 3. R. A. O., 4. F. A. A.
19. All relevant documentation/entries shall be completed by:
1. A.M.E., 2. Q.C.M., 3. R.A.O., 4. DGCA.
20. Radio apparatus shall be fitted on aircraft under Sub Rule:
1. Rule 57,Sub-Rule 15, 2. Rule 61 Sub-Rule 3,
3. Rule 9 Sub-Rule 3 4. Rule 57 Sub-Rule 3.
21. Drawing(s) are made after feasibility study of:
1. Structural Installation/Wiring, 2. 3 D Drawing,
3. Structural Drawing, 4. None of the above.

22. Empty weight and .G. shall be amended accordingly by:

1. DGCA, 2. Manufacturer, 3. AME/Authorised/Approved Person, 4. R.A.O.
23. Drawing(s) submitted to:
1. Local Airworthiness Office 2. DGCA, 3. R.A.O.,
4. Local Airworthiness Officer.
24. After feasibility study, the drawings are made b y:
1. Q.C.M., 2. Approved person, 3. Draftsman, 4. Appropriately Licenced A.M.E.
25. How many copies of Drawing submitted to the Airworthiness Office:
I. Seven, 2. Three, 3. Six, 4. Five.
26. Comm.& Navigation, Radio equipment/system installation work is to be under taken by:
1. Q.C.M., 2. R.A.O., 3. AME/Authorised person, 4. None of above.
27. Operator shall prepare the Schedule of Tests, based on the guidelines:
1. BCAR, Sector R, 2. FAA Advisory Circular AC 43-13,
3. FAA Advisory Circular AC 3 1-34. 4. Both 12 & 2.
28. The Flight Tests for any newly installed Radio equipment shall be carried out to assess its range and performance at various:
1. Altitudes, 2. Speeds, 3. Both 1 & 2 are correct, 4. None of above.
29. The Antenna installed on aircraft shall be checked by AME for proper installation to ensure minimum:
1. Vibrations, 2. Electromagnetic interference,
3. Precipitation static interference 4. None of the above.
30. On completion of structural and electrical wiring of an Aircraft, the complete wiring
shall be checked for:
1. Installation, 2. Continuity, 3. Proper layout, 4. Insulation & Continuity.
31. Maintenance of Airborne Communication & Navigational equipment shall be carried out in accordance with:
1. CAR Series R Part II, 2. CAR Series R Part III,
3. CAR Series R Part IV 4. None of the above.
32. CAR series R Part III pertains to maintenance of:
1. Ground Radio & Radar equipment, 2. Airborne Radio Equipment,
3. Installation of airborne Radio equipment, 4. None of the above.
33. Every aircraft shall be fitted & equipped with Radio apparatus, as per Aircraft Rule:
1. 9A, 2. 9Sub-rules3, 3. 57 Sub-rules 1, 4. Both 1&2.
34. Maintenance checks to be carried out on Radio equipment are:
1. Bench Checks, 2. In situ & Bench checks,
3. In situ & Baroscopic checks, 4. In situ and N.D.T
35. During scheduled maintenance check or 180 days Inspection of Radio system, it is
necessary to check:
1. Bonding of RF cables, 2. Insulation of equipment Installation,
3. Equipment for corrosion & safety, 4. All are correct.
36. Final test data (FTD) check of conventional equipment shall be carried out:
1. Once a year, 2. Twice a year, 3. Once in two years, 4. None above.
37. Final Test Data(FTD) check on solid state equipment shall be carried out:
1. Once in six months, 2. Once a year, 3. Once in two years, 4. None of the above.
38. After Major inspection at 180 days of flying, pilots shall file Debriefing Reports on
performance of Radar equipment regarding:
1. Range & endurance, 2. Range and performance
3. Both I & 2 are correct. 3. None of the above.
39. Aircraft after flying through electric storm or lightening strikes has to be inspected for:
1. S W R check of transmitter, 2. Insulation of equipment installation,
3. Corrosion & security of equipment 4. All are correct.
40. Major Modification regarding aircraft Radio equipment shall be carried out by:
1. AME Category R, 2. AME Category B,
3. AME Category B(Radio), 4. AME Category X(Radio).
41. FTD is essential for the equipment(s):
1. ADF and VHF, 2. As in I and VOR,
3. As in 2 and ILS, 4. As in 3 and VOL/Omega.
42. Installation of Mode A/c. & Mode S transponders is given in:
1. CAR Series R, Part IV, 2. IAR Rule,57,
3. CAR Series R Part V, 4. Both 1 & 2

43. Operation of Federal & General Aviation Aeroplane is given:

1. CAR Series R, Part IV, 2. CAR Series R, Part V,
3. ICAO Annexure 6,Part.II, 4. ICAO Annexure 6 Part III.
44. Traffic Advisory is provided by:
1. Mode A/ C when fitted with ACAS-I/TCAS-I,
2. Mode S when fitted with ACAS-I/TCAS-I,
3. ACAS-I / TCAS-I, 4. Both I & 2
45. Mode A/c of Mode S provides following when fitted with ACAS-Il / TCAS-II
1. Traffic Advisory, 2. RAs
3. Both 1 & 2 4. None of the above.
46. Source of reliable Air space surveillance is:
1. Mode A, 2. Mode C, 3. Mode A/C. 4. Mode 5.
47. Aircrafts altitude is determined by:
1. Mode I, 2. Mode C, 3. Mode A / C 4. Mode S.
48. ASA function is performed by:
1. Mode A /C, 2. Mode 5, 3. Both I & 2, 4. Mode C.
49. A beam of Radio frequency range energy is transmitted and received by:
I. Secondary Radar, 2. S S R, 3. Primary Radar, 4. Mode S.
50. SSR operates on frequencies of:
1. 1030 MHz, - 1080 MHz 2. 1030 MHz 1090 MHz,
3. 1040 MHz 1090 MHz, 4. None of the above
51. Reply from transponder for identity and surveillance is de-cited by:
1. Mode A! C, 2. Mode C, 3. Mode A, 4. Mode S.
52. For automatic pressure altitude transmission of surveillance is de-cited:
1. Mode C, 2. Mode A, 3. Mode A/C 4. Mode S.
53. Mode used during interrogation of Air Traffic services:
1. Mode A, 2. Mode C, 3. Mode A/ C, 4. Mode S.
54. No. of total bits in address of Mode S:
1. 20, 2. 12, 3. 24, 4. 22.
55. Country code of India:
1. 111111, 2. 110000, 3. 100000, 4. 100001.
56. The transponders should be operated in accordance with:
1. CAR Series R, Part IV, 2. As per Rule 57,
3. Annexure 10 Volume IV, 4. None of the above.
57. Mode A/C transponder shall meet the specification given in:
1. TSOc74C, 2. TSOC75C, 3. TSOC112, 4. TSOC76C.
58. Mode S transponders shall meet the specification of:
1. TSO C74C, 2. TSO Cl 12, 3. TSO Cl 19, 4. TSO Clii.
59. MEL shall include:
1. Landing gears, 2. Entertainment system, 3. Transponder, 4. None above.
60. Engineers inspecting/certifying Transponders should hold type Rated licence in:
1. Cat. R, 2. Cat: V, 3. Both 1&2. 4. Either l or 2.
61. CAR Series M, Part I relates to:
1. Mandatory Modificationl.Repair, 2. Mandatory Modification /Inspection
3. Mandatory Modification/Supervision, 4. Mandatory Modification/Oversight.
62. Aircraft Rule 49 D relates to:
1. Incorporation/Modification in aircraft and or accessories,
2. Modification/inspection to be carried out,
3. Acceptable standard for Modification/repair, 4. All above.
63. Modification/Inspection to be carried out is according to Aircraft Rules 1937:
1. 49D, 2. 50A, 3. 61A, 4. Rule52.
64. Acceptable standard for modification/repair is given in Rule:
1. 52, 2. 54, 3. 53 A, 4. 52 A.
65. Form & Manner of distribution of Compliance Certificate & its presentation is given in Rule:
1. 52, 2. 54, 3. 58, 4. 50A.

66. Purpose of Mandatory Modification/Inspection is to:

1. Rectify major defects encountered, 2. Support safety of operation/airworthiness,
3. Notify aircraft owners of unsafe & other conditions, 4. None above.
67. AD means an Instruction issued by an Airworthiness Authority:
1. To amends an approved document,
2. Requires a Modification, restriction, replacement or special inspection of an aircraft, aircraft component or equipment.
3. Either 1 or 2, 4. Both 1 & 2.
68. The Mandatory Modifications/Inspections issued by airworthiness authority are to be complied with within:
1. 24 hours, 2. With in two days, 3. With in stipulated period, 4. None above.
69. Whenever manufacturer issues changes to their products in form of SB, SI, SL or other
literature to the operators these:
1. Automatically become mandatory, 2. For better performance of the product,
3. Operator incorporate the same on the basis of operational experience.
4. Both2&3.
70. Operators are advised to get copies of ADs, Mandatory Modification/Inspections from the:
1. Manufacturers, 2. Foreign Airworthiness Authorities,
3. DGCA, 4. Only 1 & 2.
71. The procedure for intimating the compliance of Modification to the manufacturer shall included
in the:
1. Maintenance System Manual, 2. Engineering Organisation Manual,
3. Quality Control Manual, 4. None of the above.
72. To in clued Modification which require repeat Inspections at specified intervals in the
appropriate Inspection Schedule is the responsibility of:
1. Owner, 2. Operator/Maintenance agency,
3. Owner/Operator 4. As in both 1 & 2.
73. Owners/Operators are required to submit to the Regional Airworthiness Office a list of SBs
complied with during the proceeding one year at the time of:
1. Type certification, 2. Type approval,
3. C of A renewal, 4. Both 1 & 2.
74. Type certified product should not be altered unless prior approval is obtained from:
1. State of Design 2. DGCA, 3. RAO, 4. None above.
75. Consolidated list of all Modification/Inspections complied together by DGCA is to be
distributed to the operator by:
1. Manufacturer, 2. DGCA, 3. R.A.O., 4. None of the above.
76. CAR Series T Part I, deals with flight testing of:
1. Aircraft, 2. Overhauled aircraft, 3. Series aircraft, 4. None of the above.
77. As per CAR Series T, Part I, a Series Aircraft shall be tested:
1. In accordance with flight test schedule approved by DGCA,
2. To establish compliance with airworthiness requirements,
3. To get information for inclusion in documents,
4. All are correct.
78. Series Aircraft shall be Flight Tested by Pilots of:
1. Applicant, 2. Manufacturer, 3. Both 1 & 2, 4. None above.
79. Flight Test of an aircraft without any passenger on board is carried out for the purpose of
assessing:
1. Any Deterioration in performance, 2. Satisfactory maintenance,
3. Both 1 & 2, 4. None above.,
80. A Private aircraft shall be Flight Tested:
1. After Engine change, 2. During C. of A.,
3. To evaluate its engine power, 4. All are correct.
81. An Air India aircraft will be subjected to test flight:
1. During C. of A., 2. After top over haul,
3. After Overhaul, 4. Both 1 & 2.
82. On a three engine aircraft, test flight may not be carried out(Provided satisfactory Engine Ground Testing subsequent to engine change has been
carried out) after change of:
1. One engine, 2. Two engine, 3. Three Engines, 4. Both 1 & 2
83. On a Four engine aircraft, Test Flight may not be carried out after change of:
1. One Engine, 2. Two Engines, 3. Three Engines, 4. All correct.
84. Engine change means removal of an engine and its replacement with:
1. On overhauled engine, 2. Reinstallation of same engine,.
3. Any other engine from same aircraft, 4. All are correct.

85. Adverse comments by Flight Crew on the performance of an aircraft during Test Flight
shall be reported to:
1. Flight Release AME, 2. Regional Airworthiness Office,
3. Quality Control Manager, 4. D.G.C.A.
86. Pre-Test-Flight certificates stating that the aircraft is fit for the flight shall be issued by:
1. Q.C.M., 2. Licenced/Approved individual,
3. Only those permitted to issue Flight Release, 2. Both 2 & 3 together.
87. Test Flight shall be carried out, if practicable, at:
1. Minimum AUW, 2. Maximum AUW, 3. As desired, 4. Both I & 2.
88. The responsibility of recording the results of Test Flight lies with:
I. Pilot-in-Command, 2. Co-Pilot, 3. Flight Engineer, 4. A.M.I
89. For detecting any persisting shortfall in the performance of any aircraft, Scheduled Airlines
will have performance monitoring cell in:
1. Quality Control Branch, 2. Engineering Sections,
3. Flight Testing Cell, 4. Both 2 & 3.
90. The Rate of climb is related to:
1. Altitude, 2. Aircraft Weight, 3. Temperature, 4. All correct.
91. The expected climb performance shall be obtained from:
1. Operational Manual, 2. Pilots Note,
3. Flight Manual, 4. All are correct.
92. The observed actual climb performance shall in no case be lower than expected climb performance by more than:
1. 2%, 2. 3%, 3. 5% , 4. 7%.
93. After satisfactory performance of a Test Flight, an endorsement to this effect is made in:
1. Pilots detect Report & maintenance document,
2. Pilots defect Report & Aircraft Log Book,
3. Both 1 & 2, 4. None of above.
94. In rate of Climb correction factor graph for propellers for a given pressure Altitude,
Rate of Climb factor:
1. Increases with increase in ambient temperature,
2. Decrease with decrease in ambient temperature,
3. Increases with decrease in ambient temperature,
4. Increases with increase in ambient temperature.
95. The variables in Rate of Climb graph as given in appendix to CAR Series T Part II are:
1. Pressure, altitude & temperature, 2. Pressure, altitude & Weight,
3. Pressure, Altitude , Temperature & Weight, 4. None of the above.
96. CVR will be maintained in an approved manner by
1. AME 2. Approved person
3. Appropriately qualified person 4. None of the above
97. In order to preserve the recorded information the CVR shall be deactivated
upon completion of flight following an
1. Accident 2. Incedent
3. Accident or incident 4. None of the above
98. CVR shall be capable of recording
1. Voice communication transmitted or received in A/C by Radio
2. Aural environment on the flight deck
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
99. CVR shall be capable of recording communication from
1. Co-Pilot headphones and pilots headphones
2. Area microphone 3. Both a & b
100 All A/C including helicopters equipped to utilize Digital communication and required to carry CVR shall record on CVR or FDR the digital
communication with ATC from
1. 1 Jan 1987 2. 1 Jan 1997
3. 1 Jan 2005 4. None of the above