Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
GOVERNMENT GAZETTED
ISSUE
2
3
4
5
DATE
AMMENDED
24/12/1997
31/12/1998
1/12/1999
1/5/2001
GOV NOTICE
NOT
R1753
R1701
R639
R1219
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
GOV
GAZETTE NO
18562
19644
20076
21390
SIGNATURE
INDEX
VOLUME I
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
PREAMBLE
This document ( hereafter referred to as FTC-CARs) is an abridged edition of the
New Civil Aviation Regulations ( hereafter referred to as CARs) of 1997 and is
designed for use only by the students of Flight Training College of S.A.c.c. as a study
guide for the Commercial Pilots Licence and Instrument Rating Examinations. The
official implementation date was the 1st. of January 1999 replacing the older Air
Navigation Regulations of 1976 ( hereafter referred to as the ANRs). There will no
doubt be many changes in content in the immediate future, and FTC will update and
keep current all subsequent editions of the copy of the CARs. But due to certain
constraints FTC will not be able to update this or any older copies as we publish the
latest available information, and thus only subsequent copies may include changes
and even extra Parts. Whilst every effort has been made to ensure correctness and
accuracy of this copy of the FTC-CARs, FTC of S.A. c.c. cannot be held liable for
any possible errors and is not responsible for any actions arising from any litigation
resulting from the use of this copy of the CARs. The information was obtained from
documents obtained from the SACAA and has been reproduced in our own format.
The document has been split into Volume I and Volume II and follows the numbering
of the CARs which is specific and where possible is designed for fixed wing powered
aircraft pilot and excludes the more esoteric categories such as micro lights, gliders,
hot air balloons, and the like. Consequently the numerical sequence of the Subparts
may show gaps, this will be when references to any other categories such as micro
lights etc have been excluded. For continuity purposes this preamble is followed by
a complete list of all the contents of the new CARs although many are not included
in this edition, the relevant contents as found in this document will be highlighted in
Bold and Italics for easy reference for the student.
Next will follow all the definitions and then in numerical order the Parts ( i.e. Part 12
then the next number highest number Part 61 etc.) and if applicable the relevant Civil
Aviation Technical Standards ( hereafter referred to as the CATS). Specific Part and
Chapter and Subpart numbers such as for example Part 91.02.7 will have the same
number in the relevant CATS document, i.e. 91.02 7. In this way the student will be
able to find the information in both the CARs as well as the relevant CATS
document. The CARs has been divided into Parts referring to various segments of
the act and the subject matter they relate to, and if necessary a CATS document,
however not every Part will necessarily have a CATS document, and example of this
is Part 12. The CATS document will be included if it is present and will in this
document always follow the relevant CARs Part for easy reference.
This FTC-CARs edition includes Part 135 which is Air Transport Operations for Small
Aircraft, but excludes Part 121 which is not yet in the Syllabus, and covers Air
Transport Operations Large Aircraft, this being more for Airlines and no doubt Airline
Transport Pilots.
The contents cover the syllabus for the South African Commercial Licence as well as
the Instrument Rating.
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
At the time of the issue of this edition (1999) the new part of the CARs that cover
Flight Crew licensing, have not been brought into force and as a result chapters 2
and 3 of the old ANRs still apply, this will in time will be replaced by Part 61 and its
relevant CATS document which will form part of Volume I, but as yet no final
introduction date for this has been officially announced. Subsequent editions of this
document will contain Part 61 which is Flight Crew Licensing.
If the reader finds any errors FTC of SA would be grateful if we could informed so as
to effect any corrections necessary. These can be forwarded to Fax 011 805 6564 or
telephonically to 011 315 3992 0r 011- 315 0974.
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
CONTENTS
VOLUME I
Definitions
Part 1
Procedures
Part 11
Part 12
Part 13
Aircraft
Part 21
Part 34
Part 36
Part 43
Part 47
Personnel
Part 61
Part 63
Part 64
Part 65
Part 66
Part 67
Pilot Licensing
Flight Engineer Licensing
Cabin Crew Licencing
Air Traffic Service Personnel Licencing
Aircraft maintenance Engineer Licencing
Medical Certification
VOLUME II
Rules of the Air and General Operating Rules
Part 91
Part 92
Part 98
Part 100
Part 101
Part 102
Part 103
Part 104
Part 105
Part 106
139
141
145
148
Administration
Part 1185
Part 187
Offences
Fees
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
CHAPTER 2 ANRS
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
2.1A
Licence Fees
The fees for the issue reissue renewal and validation of a licence or rating
and for the issue of a duplicate of such licence or rating shall be as prescribed
in Annexure A.
2.2
2.3
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(2)
(3)
(b)
(b)
(ii)
(c)
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
2.4
Aircraft ratings for pilots and flight instructors shall comprise (a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(2)
(3)
category rating;
class rating;
type rating;
Group type rating.
aeroplanes;
helicopters;
gyroplanes;
gliders;
micro-light aeroplanes;
free balloons; and
unconventional aircraft, that is aircraft excluding the aircraft
mentioned in paragraph (a) to (f).
(b)
(c)
(d)
single-rotor helicopters;
multi-rotor helicopters;
gyroplanes;
for gliders (i)
(ii)
(4)
single-engine, land;
single-engine, sea;
multi-engine, land;
multi-engine, sea;
unpowered gliders;
powered gliders.
2 700 kg or less;
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(ii)
5 700 kg or less;
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(c)
(d)
(5)
Type ratings for rotorcraft shall comprise a rating by name for each
type of rotorcraft;
(6)
Type ratings for gliders shall comprise a rating by name for each type
of glider;
(7)
Type ratings for free balloons shall comprise a rating by name for each
type of free balloon;
(8)
(9)
(10)
(11)
A night flight rating shall comprise a rating permitting the holder to act
as pilot-in-command by night.
(12)
A tug pilot rating shall comprise a rating permitting the holder to act as
pilot-in-command of a tug aircraft.
(13)
A safety pilot rating which shall comprise a rating permitting the holder
to act, on an aircraft in respect of which he is the holder of the
appropriate type or group type rating in the case of piston-engined
aeroplanes having a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kg or less,
or in the case of aircraft in respect of which a type rating by name is
required, he is the holder of the appropriate type rating for such
aircraft, as safety pilot to a pilot engaged in simulated instrument flying
practice.
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
2.5
(14)
Ratings for flight engineers shall comprise a rating by name for each
type of aircraft when the design of the aircraft necessitates the
carriage of a flight engineer.
(15)
An agricultural pilots rating shall permit the holder to act as pilot-incommand of an agricultural application aircraft involved in agricultural
aviation activities.
(2)
3.
(4)
The holder of a Grade II flight instructors rating shall be the holder of(a)
(b)
(5)
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
2.6
2.7
2.8
2.9
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(3)
if application for renewal is made more than 30 days before the date
on which the current licence or rating expires from the date of
application; ( see next page for validity)
for a period of:
twelve months for a student pilot;
twenty-four months for micro-light pilot;
twenty-four months for a private pilot;
twenty four months for a free balloon pilot;
twelve months for a commercial pilot;
twelve months for an airline transport pilot;
twelve months for a flight navigator;
twelve months for a flight engineer (restricted)
twelve months for a flight engineer;
twelve months for a flight radiotelephony operator;
twelve months for an instrument rating;
twelve months for a flight instructor rating;
twelve months for an air traffic controller;
twenty four months for a gyroplane pilot;
twenty-four months for a glider pilot:
Provided that
(a)
(b)
(c)
2.13
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
2.14
2.15
2.16
Signature on Licence
(1)
(2)
Any licence which has not been signed by the holder as required in
sub regulation (1) shall be deemed to be invalid and any person
exercising a privilege granted by such licence, shall be guilty of an
offence
(2)
(3)
(4)
2.17
Validation
(1)
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(2)
2.18
The validity of the authorisation shall not extend beyond the period of
validity of the foreign licence at the time of authorisation
(3)
(4)
(5)
(ii)
(b)
(c)
(6)
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(7)
2.19
(b)
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
2.20
Provided that
2.21
(i)
(ii)
Medical Incapacity
(1)
The holder of a licence shall not exercise the privileges of his licence
during any period when such holder is aware of any illness or
decrease in medical fitness, nor after any accident or injury, the effects
of which would render him unable to meet, for a period, the medical
requirements for the issue of his current licence.
(2)
Should any such incapacity render a licence holder unable to meet the
medical requirements for the issue of his current licence he shall,
before again exercising the privilege of his licence, obtain a certificate
in duplicate by a qualified medical practitioner indicating the nature of
the incapacity to which he has been subjected and that he has fully
recovered, forward the original thereof to the Institute for Aviation
Medicine and the duplicate copy to the Commissioner and await
confirmation from the Commissioner that he has again been assessed
as medically fit.
(3)
The Commissioner may, however, require the full or any part of the
examination prescribed in Chapter 6.
(4)
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
2. 22
2.23
(2)
(3)
2.24
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
2.25
Private Pilots
The holder of a valid private pilots licence shall be permitted, subject to
regulations 2.23, 2.35, 2.36 and 2.37, to act, but not for remuneration(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
2.26
Commercial Pilots
The holder of a valid commercial pilots licence shall be permitted, subject to
regulations 2.3, 2.36 and 2.37(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
2.28
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(b)
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
2.34
The holder of a valid pilot category rating, class rating or type rating
shall be permitted to act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft of that
category, class or type concerned: Provided that the holder of a valid
type rating endorsed for co-pilot shall only be permitted to act as copilot on such aircraft type.
(2)
(3)
(c)
(d)
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(4)
(5)
(6)
2.35
(7)
(8)
The holder of a valid tug pilot rating shall be permitted to act as pilotin-command of a tug aircraft.
(9)
(10)
(11)
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(b)
(c)
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
CHAPTER 3 ANRs
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
Student Pilots
(1)
(b)
(2)
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
3.2
(iii)
(d)
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GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(e)
(2)
The test shall be completed in one flight and should any portion of
such test be below the required standard the entire test shall be
retaken after an interval of not less than three days:Provided that
sequence 27 may be completed separately and if it is so completed
and is found to be below the required standard, that sequence shall be
retaken after an interval of not less than three days.
(3)
(4)
(Deleted)
(5)
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(b)
(6)
(7)
has completed not less than three hours flight time as pilot-in
command of an aeroplane within the 12 months immediately
preceding the date of application; and
has satisfactorily completed the practical flight test prescribed
in regulation 3.2(1) (e) and in regulation 3.2(2) and (3), with the
exception of sequences 3, 15 and 27 of the flight instruction
syllabus prescribed in Chapter 4, within the 30 days
immediately preceding the date of application: Provided that
the requirement for a practical flight test shall not apply in the
case of the first renewal of a licence where the applicant
furnishes proof to the Commissioner that he has satisfactorily
completed the practical flight test prescribed in regulation 2.35
within the six months immediately preceding the date of
application for such renewal.
for the first renewal of the licence, and thereafter for alternate
renewals, a certificate of competency signed by a Grade I or
Grade II flight instructor wherein it is certified that the applicant(i)
(ii)
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(b)
(8)
(b)
3.3
If a period of not more than two years has expired since the
lapse of such Licence, the requirements set out in regulation
3.2 (5). 3.2 (6) or 3.2 (7), as the case may be, shall be
complied with.
If a period of more than two years has expired since the lapse
of such licence, the requirements shall be the same as those
for the initial issue of such licence as set out in sub regulations
(1) to (4) of regulation 3.2, except that the Commissioner may
exempt the applicant from any or all of the prescribed written
examinations.
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
have completed not less than 200 hours of flight time, which
may include 20 hours of flight
instruction
time
on
simulators approved by the Commissioner, or 150 hours of
flight time if he has satisfactorily completed a course of
approved training, which may include 10 hours of flight
instruction time on simulators approved by the Commissioner:
Provided that the total of 200 hours or 150 hours, as the case
may be, shall include:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(e)
navigation;
elementary meteorology;
the technical subjects detailed in Chapter 5;
[Deleted]
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(1A)
Only a candidate who is the holder of a valid pilots licence may enter
for or write examinations referred to in subregulation (1) of this
regulation.
(2)
(3)
An applicant who has qualified as a pilot in the South African Air Force
may be exempted by the Commissioner (a)
(b)
(4)
(d)
(ii)
Air Law
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Revision : 1/1/2001
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(5)
(iii)
(6)
comply with paragraphs (4)(a) and (b)either satisfy the Commissioner that he has completed
not less than 10 hours of flight time as pilot-incommand within the six months immediately preceding
the date of application by either submitting his pilots
logbook in which the said hours have been recorded or
submitting a certificate signed by a Grade I or Grade II
flight instructor in which it is certified that such applicant
has complied with this requirement; or have passed the
practical flight test prescribed in subparagraph (1)(e) (i)
with an official examiner within the 30 days immediately
preceding the date of application; and
comply with regulation 3.12(4).
(c)
3.5
if a period of more than two years but not more than five years
has expired since the lapse of such licence, comply with the
requirements for the renewal thereof as set out in regulation
3.3(4) or 3.3(5) or 3.3A, as the case may be and in addition
pass a written examination in regulations as prescribed for the
commercial pilots licence; and
if a period of more than five years has expired since the lapse
of such licence, comply with the requirements for the initial
issue of such licence as set out in regulation 3.3(1) or 3.3(5) or
3.3A, as the case may be except that the Commissioner may
exempt the applicant from any or all of the prescribed written
examinations.
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(e)
(v)
(iv)
Air Law
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Revision : 1/1/2001
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(f)
(2)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
3.6
Category Ratings
An applicant for a category rating shall undergo the examinations and tests
required for a type rating for an aircraft of the category which is sought.
3.7
Class Ratings
An applicant for a class rating shall:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(iv)
(c)
(4)
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
3.8
Type Ratings
An applicant for a type rating for an aircraft, excluding helicopters, with a
maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kg or less shall(1)
(ii)
(c)
with the examiner at the dual controls, where the design of the
aircraft permits, consisting of(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
submit an application for the rating together with his licence and a
copy of the certificate prescribed in regulation 2.3 to the
Commissioner for the issue of the rating in the case of aircraft in
respect of which a type rating by name required or, in the case of
piston-engined aeroplanes with a maximum certificated mass of 5 700
kg or less, his flying logbook to the flight instructor or designated pilot
who conducted the tests for the insertion of the endorsement referred
to in regulation 2.3(3)(a).
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(4)
3.9
The Commissioner may exempt an applicant for a type rating from the
requirements prescribed in subregulation (1) or (2).
(b)
(c)
(d)
3.10
(2)
(3)
submit, an application for the rating together with his licence and a
copy of the certificate prescribed in regulation 2.3 or in regulation 3.10,
as the case may be to the Commissioner for the issue of the rating
(2)
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
3.12
Instrument Ratings
(1)
An applicant for an instrument rating who is not the holder of a multiengine class rating (aeroplane) shall (a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(g)
(iv)
(2)
An applicant for an instrument rating who is the holder of a multiengine class rating (aeroplane) shall (a)
(b)
(c)
(2A)
(3)
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(b)
(4)
Should a candidate for the renewal of an instrument rating fail the test
prescribed in subregulation (3) prior to the date of expiry of his
instrument rating stated in his licence, such rating shall expire with
effect from the date and time of the completion of the test.
(5)
3.13
if a period of not more than five years has expired since the
lapse of such rating comply with the requirements for the
renewal thereof as set out in subregulation (3);
if a period of more than five years has expired since lapse of
such rating, comply with the requirements for the initial issue of
such rating as set out in subregulation (1), except that the
Commissioner may exempt the applicant from any or all of the
prescribed written examinations.
theory of flight;
principles of flying instruction;
navigation and meteorology; and
the regulations made under the Act relating to the
licensing requirements applicable to all pilots licences
and ratings:
Air Law
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Revision : 1/1/2001
(d)
(e)
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GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(f)
(1A)
(2)
(ii)
(b)
(3)
(a)
The endorsement referred to in subregulation (2) (a) shall be
made in the column marked Details of flight and remarks and shall
contain the following
(i)
(ii)
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(iii)
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(iv)
(v)
(b)
(4)
(c)
(d)
(5)
his licence:
his logbook showing that he has given not less than 20 hours
flight instruction (excluding cross-country flight instruction)
during the 12 months immediately preceding the date of
application;
in the case of a flight instructor Grade III applying for the
renewal of his rating, and for a renewal in every third year
thereafter, a certificate of competency signed by an official
examiner, wherein it is certified that the applicant has
satisfactorily completed the practical flight instruction tests
prescribed in subregulation (1)(e), within the 30 days
immediately preceding the date of application; and
in the case of a flight instructor Grade I or Grade II applying for
a first renewal of his rating, and for a renewal in every third
year thereafter, a certificate of competency signed by an official
examiner, wherein it certified that the applicant has
satisfactorily completed the practical flight instruction tests
prescribed in subregulation (1)(e), within the 30 days
immediately preceding the date of application.
The holder of a flight instructor rating Grade III applying for regarding
to Grade II shall(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(6)
(ii)
(iii)
(b)
(v)
The holder of a flight instructor rating in the South African Air Force
may, on having satisfactorily completed a practical flight instruction
test with an official examiner, be granted a flight instructor rating under
these regulations by the Commissioner.
(7)
if a period of not more than two years has expired since the
lapse of such rating, pass a practical flight instruction test
conducted by an official examiner or a Grade I flight instructor
in(i)
(ii)
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(b)
(c)
if a period of more than two years but not more than five years
has expired since the lapse of such rating comply with the
requirements for the renewal thereof as set out in
subregulation (1)(e);
if a period of more than five years has expired since the lapse
of such rating, comply with the requirements for the initial issue
of such rating as sent out in sub-regulation (1), except that the
Commissioner may exempt the applicant from any or all of the
prescribed written examinations; on the satisfactory completion
of such flight test the applicant will be issued with a Grade III
flight instructors rating and after he has given 50 hours or more
of flight instruction he shall be required to pass a practical flight
instruction test as prescribed in subregulation (1) before the
original grade flight instructors rating will be reissued.
his licence;
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
3.16
his licence;
a certificate signed by a Grade I or Grade II flight instructor stating that
he has completed not less than 100 hours flight time as pilot-in
command, that he is competent to control the aircraft from the co-pilot
seat and that he is capable of undertaking such duties in the category
of aircraft for which such a rating is applied for.
(b)
have completed not less than 300 hours flight time, which shall
include at least 30 hours flight practice in aerial application, which
flight practice shall take place under the supervision of a Grade I or
Grade II flight instructor or a person designated for the purpose by the
Commissioner, and who shall be the holder of the appropriate
category, type and agricultural pilots rating: Provided that the 30
hours flight practice shall include at least 10 hours dual instruction;
in the case of aeroplanes, pass a practical flight test with an official
examiner or a person designated for the purpose by the
Commissioner, in(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(v)
maximum-rate turns;
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(vi)
(vii)
(vii)
(ix)
(x)
(xi)
(xii)
Provided that such tests shall be carried out in an aircraft that is equipped
with dispensing apparatus and that is certificated for agricultural aerial
applications;
(c)
Provided that such tests shall be carried out in an aircraft that is equipped
with dispensing apparatus and that is certificated for agricultural aerial
applications;
(d)
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
CHAPTER 4 ANR's
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
2.
3.
Air experience The aim of this sequence is to instill confidence in a pupil who
has previously flown very little or not at all, as well as to impart knowledge
4.
Effect of controls
(a)
(b)
(c)
5.
Taxiying.
6.
7.
Climbing
(a)
(b)
8.
Descending.
(a)
(b)
(c)
9.
Flaps up
Flaps and undercarriage down
Engine assisted
Stalling.
a) From straight glide
b) With engine delivering cruising power.
c) With engine delivering reduced power (as in the engine-assisted
approach).
d) After engine failure while climbing steeply at full throttle.
e) With flaps and undercarriage down
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
10.
Medium turns.
11.
(a)
(b)
12.
13.
14.
Spinning
(a)
(b)
Descending turns,
Climbing turns.
Full spin
Incipient spin.
15.
First solo, before flying solo a pupil shall, in addition to being proficient in
sequences 1 to 14, be able to make a reasonable effort at the exercise of
"Elementary forced landing", i.e. the ability to execute and approach on a
large open space without the use of a side slip, and have had sequence 23
demonstrated to him. He shall also have completed a minimum of six
hours of dual flight instruction.
16.
Sideslipping.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
17.
Steep turns
(a)
(b)
18.
With engine
Without engine.
Instrument flying
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(i)
(j)
(k)
19.
Effect of drift.
Effect of wind on ground speed.
Effect of wind in reducing apparent skids and slips in turns
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
20.
21.
Precautionary landing
(a)
(b)
22.
Forced landing
23.
24.
25.
Acrobatics.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
Loop.
Stall turn.
Half roll.
Slow roll.
Barrel roll.
Half roll off top of loop.
Inverted gliding.
26.
Night flying.
27.
Navigation
(a)
(b)
(c)
Dual, triangular, cross country flight of not less than 100 nautical
miles.
Solo, triangular, cross-country, with full stop landings at two airports
away from base of not less than 100 nautical miles and with a radius
not exceeding 100 nautical miles from the base, along any sector
of the flight.
Test cross country flight, accompanied by the flight instructor
conducting the test (who shall not, unless otherwise authorised in
writing by the Commissioner, be the instructor from whom the pilot
undergoing the test has received his practical training) of not less than
200 nautical miles and not less than 50 nautical miles distant from
the point of departure, including a full stop landing at two airports,
other than the base. At least one of the airports from which the aircraft
takes off for this flight shall be an airport at which an air traffic
services unit is in operation and at which a flight plan shall be
submitted.
During this flight test the applicant shall satisfy the flight instructor that
he is able to-
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
DEFINITIONS
& ABBREVIATIONS
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
CONTENTS:
1.0.1
1.0.2
Definitions.
Part 1 3
Abbreviations ..
Part 1 35
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
1.00.1 In these Regulations any word or expression to which a meaning has been
assigned in the Act shall have that meaning and, unless the context otherwise
indicates
"accelerate-stop distance available" means the length of the take-off run available
plus the length of stopway, if such stopway is declared available and is capable of
bearing the mass of the aeroplane under the prevailing operating conditions;
"accident" for the purposes of the definition of "accident" in section 1 of the Act,
includes an ocurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place
between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight until such
time as all such persons have disembarked, during which (a) a person is fatally or seriously injured as result of
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(c) the aircraft is still missing after an official search has been terminated and the
wreckage has not been located; or
(d) the aircraft is in a place where it is completely inaccessible;
"accredited representative" means an authorised officer or authorised person
designated by the Commissioner in terms of Regulation 12.01.6;
"acoustical change" means any voluntary change in type design which may
increase the noise levels of the aircraft;
"acrobatic flight" means manoeuvres intentionally performed by the pilot-incommand of an aircraft and involving an abrupt change in attitude of the aircraft, an
abnormal attitude or an abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normal flight;
"acts of unlawful interference" means sabotage, unlawful seizure of aircraft or any
other act by a person which endangers other persons, property or the aircraft;
"additional cabin crew member" means a cabin crew member carried over and
above the minimum number required by subpart 2 of Part 91,
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Revision : 1/1/2001
"additional flight deck crew member" means a flight deck crew member carried
over and above the minimum number required by subpart 2 of Part 91,
"adjustable-pitch propeller" means a propeller, the pitch setting of which can be
conveniently changed in the course of ordinary field maintenance, but which cannot
be changed when the propeller is rotating;
"advisor" means an authorised person designated by the Commissioner in terms of
Regulation 12.01.1;
"advisory airspace" means an airspace of defined dimensions, within which an air
traffic advisory service is available;
"advisory area" means a designated area within a flight information region where
air traffic advisory services are available;
"advisory route" means a designated route along which air traffic advisory services
are available;
"aerodrome" means an aerodrome as defined in the Act, and for the purposes of
these Regulations includes a heliport;
aerodrome control service" means an air traffic control service provided for the
control of aerodrome traffic;
aerodrome control tower" means an air traffic control unit established to provide
an air traffic control service;
"aerodrome flight information service" means a flight information service provided
in the area of an aerodrome;
"aerodrome manager" means the person appointed as aerodrome manager in
terms of Part 139 by the holder of an aerodrome licence;
"aerodrome operating minima" means the limits of usability of an aerodrome for
either take-off or landing, usually expressed in terms of visibility or runway visual
range, decision altitude/height or minimum descent altitude/height and cloud
conditions;
aerodrome operational area" means
(a) excluding restricted areas and aprons, the movement area at an aerodrome and
its associated strips and safety areas; and
(b) any ground installation or facility provided at an aerodrome for the safety of
aircraft operations;
"aerodrome traffic" means all traffic on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome and
all aircraft in, entering or leaving an aerodrome traffic circuit;
"aerodrome traffic area" means an airspace of defined dimensions at an
aerodrome where an aerodrome flight information centre is in operation;
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"break" for the purposes of Part 65, means a period not exceeding 60 minutes within
the period of operational duty, during which an air traffic controller is released from all
duties;
"cabin crew member" means a flight crew member, other than a flight deck crew
member, licensed in terms of Part 64;
"cargo aircraft" means any aircraft, other than a passenger aircraft, which is
carrying goods or property;
"cause" for the purpose of Part 12, means any action, omission, event, condition or
any combination thereof, which leads to an accident or incident;
"ceiling" means the height above the surface of the base of the lowest layer of cloud
below 20 000 feet covering more than half the sky;
"child" means a passenger who has reached his or her second but not his or her
twelfth birthday;
"Class C airspace" means that portion of the airspace classified in terms of
Regulation 112.02.2;
"Class D airspace" means that portion of the airspace classified in terms of
Regulation 112.02.2;
"Class E airspace" means that portion of the airspace classified in terms of
Regulation 112.02.2;
"Class G airspace" means that portion of the airspace classified in terms of
Regulation 112.02.2;
"Class A helicopter-load combination" means a helicopter-load combination in
which the external load can not move freely, or be jettisoned, and which does not
extend below the landing gear;
"Class B helicopter-load combination" means a helicopter-load combination in
which the external load is capable of being jettisoned and which is lifted free of land
or water during the helicopter external-load operation;
"Class C helicopter-load combination" means a helicopter-load combination in
which the external load is capable of being jettisoned and which remains in contact
with land or water during the helicopter external-load operation;
"Class D helicopter-load combination" means a helicopter-load combination, other
than a Class A, Class B or Class C helicopter-load combination, which has been
approved by the Commissioner for a specific helicopter external-load operation;
"Class I product" means a complete aircraft, aircraft engine or propeller, which
(a) has been type certificated in accordance with the provisions of these Regulations
and for which the South African Specifications or type certificate data sheets have
been issued; or
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(a) which is clear, reasonable, practically executable and appropriate to the relevant
matter;
(b) which is calculated to achieve the particular objectives of the relevant
empowermg provision, read with the Act and these Regulations and any other
relevant and appropriate law, and, in general, the promotion of civil aviation safety
and the public interest;
(c) which may during the period of validity of the matter in respect of which the
condition is imposed (if any) from time to time be amended on written application
of the person, body or institution in respect of which the condition applies;
(d) which provides that if the functionary imposing the condition is satisfied, after the
person, body or institution referred to in paragraph (c) has been afforded a
reasonable opportunity to be heard, that a contravention or failure to comply with
the condition or a provision thereof has occurred, the functionary may, in his, her
or its discretion, permit the person, body or institution within a stated period to
cease the contravention or rectify the failure to comply, to the satisfaction of the
functionary, or to notify that person, body or institution that the condition is
deemed as having lapsed and that such a person, body or institution shall
forthwith cease carrying out any activity in respect of which the lapsed condition
applied; and which is to be reduced to writing, delivered to the other person, body
or institution in a manner ensuring proper receipt thereof, and recorded by the
functionary imposing the condition in an appropriate manner;
"configuration" means a particular combination of the positions of the moveable
elements which affect the aerodynamic characteristics of the aircraft;
"contaminated runway" means a runway of which more than 25 per cent of the
runway surface area within the required length and width being used is covered with (a) surface water more than three millimeters deep;
(b) slush or loose snow, equivalent to more than three millimeters of water;
(c) snow which has been compressed into a solid mass which resists further
compression and will hold together or break into lumps if picked up; or
(d) ice,including wet ice;
"control area" means a controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified
height above the surface wilthout an upper limit, unless an upper limit is specified as
published in an AIP, AIC or NOTAM and designated as a control area;
"controlled airspace" means an airspace or defined dimensions within which an air
traffic control service is provided to IFR fights and to VFR fights in accordance with
the airspace classification as prescribed in Regulation 112.02.2;
"controlled flight" means any flight which is subject to an air traffic control
clearance ;
"control system" means a system by which the flight path, attitude or propulsive
force of an aircraft is changed, including the flight, engine and propeller controls, the
related system controls and the associated operating mechanisms;
"control zone" means as controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface to
a specified upper limit as published in an AIP, AIC or NOTAM;
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GEN 39-45 & 53,54
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"defined point" (a) in relation to a defined point after take-off, means the point, within the take-off
and initial climb phase, before which the helicopter's ability to continue the flight
safely, with one engine inoperative, is not assured and a forced landing may be
required; and
(b) in relation to a defined point before landing, means the point, within the approach
and landing phase, after which the helicopter's ability to continue the flight safely,
with one engine inoperative, is not assured and a forced landing may be required;
"designated aviation medical examiner" means an aviation medical examiner
designated by the Commissioner in terms of Regulation 61.00.4;
"destination alternate aerodrome" means an aerodrome specified in the air traffic
service flight plan to which a flight may proceed when it becomes impossible or
inadvisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing;
"disembarkation" means the leaving of an aircraft after landing, except by flight
crew or passengers continuing on the next stage of the same through flight;
"Document SA-CATS-ACCID and INCID" means a document on the South African
Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Aviation Accident and Incident
Investigation, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act;
"Document SA-CATS-AH" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation
Technical Standards relating to Aerodromes and Heliports, which is published by the
Commissioner in terms of the Act;
"Document SA-CATS-ATRS" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation
Technical Standards relating to Aeronautical Information and Related Services, which
is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act;
"Document SA-CATS-AMEL" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation
Technical Standards relating to Aircraft Maintenance Engineer Licensing, which is
published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act;
"Document SA-CATS-AMO" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation
Technical Standards relating to Aircraft Maintenance Organisations, which is
published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act;
"Document SA-CATS-AR" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation
Technical Standards relating to Airworthiness Requirements, which is published by
the Commissioner in terms of the Act;
"Document SA-CATS-ARM" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation
Technical Standards relating to Aircraft Registration and Marking, which is published
by the Commissioner in terms of the Act;
"Document SA-CATS-ARO" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation
Technical Standards relating to Aviation recreation Organisations, which is published
by the Commissioner in terms of the Act;
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dry operating mass" means the total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type
of operation, excluding all usable fuel and traffic load, and includes
(a) flight crew members and flight crew member baggage;
(b) catering and removable passenger service equipment; and
(c) portable water and lavatory chemicals;
"dry runway" means a dry runway which is neither wet nor contaminated, and
includes those paved runways which have been specially prepared with grooves or
porous pavement and maintained to retain "effectively dry" braking action even when
moisture is present;
"elevated heliport" means a heliport located on a raised structure on land;
"embarkation" means the boarding of an aircraft for the purpose of commencing a
flight, except by such flight crew or passengers who have embarked on a previous
stage of the same through-flight;
"emergency locator transmitter" means equipment which broadcast distinctive
signals on designated frequencies and, depending on application, may either sense a
crash and operate automatically or may be manually activated;
"emergency parachute" means a parachute assembly designed and intended to be
used by persons in an emergency;
"emission charge" means any voluntary change in type of design of the aircraft or
engine which may increase fuel venting or engine emission;
en route alternate aerodrome" means an aerodrome at which an aircraft would be
able to land after experiencing an abnormal or emergency condition while en route;
"en route safe altitude" means an altitude which will ensure a separation height of
at least 1 500 feet above the highest obstacle located within five nautical miles of the
aircraft in flight;
"ensure" in relation to any person, body or institution and in respect of any matter,
activity, process, condition, requirement or other person, or anything else, means to
take, considering the nature and context of the provision requiring the ensuring, and
any other appropriate legal provisions, in good faith, all necessary, and all reasonably
incidental and practically executable preliminary, precedent and precautionary steps
in order to be able and prepared to take, and aftewards to take, all necessary and
reasonably incidental and practically executable steps, to substantially achieve the
clear particular objectives of the provision requiring the ensuring and, in general, the
promotion of civil aviation safety and the public interest,
"estimated time of arrival" (a) in respect of IFR flights, means the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft
will arrive over that designated point, defined by reference to navigation aids,
from which it is intended that an instrument approach procedure will be
commenced or, if no navigation aid is associated with the aerodrome, the time at
which the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome; and
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GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
(b) in respect of VFR flights, means the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft
will arrive over the aerodrome;
"examiner" means an authorised officer or authorised person designated by the
Commissioner in terms of Regulation 61.01.11;
"extended range operations" means flights conducted over a route that contains a
point further than one hour flying time at the approved one-engine inoperative cruise
speed, under standard conditions in still air, from an adequate aerodrome;
"extended range operations with twin-engine aircraft" means flights conducted
with a twin-engine aircraft, over a route that contain a point further than one hour
flying time at the approved one-engine inoperative cruise speed, under standard
conditions in still air, from an adequate aerodrome;
"facility" for the purpose of Part 172, means any facility used for providing an air
traffic control service;
"final approach fix" means the fix from which the final approach (IFR) to an
aerodrome is executed and which identifies the begining of the final approach
segment;
"first aid" means first aid appropriate to the type of aircraft, and includes
(a) the recognition and treatment of food poisoning;
(b) the recognition and treatment of contamination of the skin and eyes by aviation
fuel and other fluids;
(c) the recognition and treatment of hypoxia and hyperventilation;
(d) first aid associated with survival training, appropriate to the routes to be operated;
and
(e) other related aeromedical aspects; "flight" means from the moment an aircraft
commences its take-off until the moment it completes its next landing,
"flight" means from the moment an aircraft commences its take-off until the moment
it completes its next landing.
"flight crew member" means a person licensed in terms of Part 61, 63 or 64 and
assigned by an operator to duty on an aircraft during flight;
"flight deck crew member" means a licensed flight crew member charged by the
operator of an aircraft with duties essential to the operation of an aircraft;
"flight information centre" means an air traffic service unit established to provide
flight information services and alerting services;
"flight information region" means an airspace of defined dimensions within which
flight information services and alerting services are provided;
"flight information service" means a service provided for the purpose of giving
advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights;
"flight instructor" means a pilot who is the holder of the appropriate flight instructor
rating,
Air Law
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"international flight" means a flight which passes through the airspace over the
territory of more than one State;
"International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea" means the
International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea made under the
Convention on the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, signed
in London on 20 October 1972. set out in the Third Schedule to the Merchant
Shipping Act, 1951 (Act No 51 of 1951);
"investigation" in relation to accidents and incidents, means a process conducted
for the purpose of accident prevention and includes the gathering and evaluation of
information, the drawing of conclusions, including the determination of the cause,
causes, probable cause or probable causes of an accident or the underlying cause
or causes leading to an incident and, when appropriate, the making of
recommendations in connections with aviation safety;
"investigator" means an authorised officer or authorised person designated by the
Commissioner in terms of Regulation 12.01.4;
'investigator-in-charge '' means an authorised officer designated by the
Commissioner on the basis of his or her qualifications and charged with the
responsibility for the organisation, conduct and control of and the reporting on the
investigation of an accident or incident;
"landing area" means that part of a movement area intended for the landing or takeoff of aircraft;
"landing decision point" means the point used in determing landing performance
from which, a power unit failure having been recognised at this point, the landing may
be safely continued or a baulked landing initiated;
"landing distance available" means the length of the runway which is declared
available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane landing;
"letter of TSO design approval" means a design approval for a foreign
manufactured article which complies with a specific TSO;
"lighter-than-air aircraft" means any aircraft supported mainly by its buoyancy in
the air;
"line flight" means a commercial flight carried out under normal operations by the
holder of a licence issued in terms of the Air Services Licensing Act, 1990 (Act No
115 of 1990), or the International Air Services Act, 1993 (Act No 60 of 1993);
"line flying" means flying done by flight crew under normal commercial operations;
"low visibility procedures" means procedures applied at an aerodrome for the
purpose of ensuring safe operations during low visibility approaches and take-offs;
"low visibility take-off' means a take-off where the runway visual range is less than
400 metres;
"Mach number" means the ratio of true airspeed to the speed of sound;
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"production-built aircraft" means an aircraft with not more than four seats and a
maximum certificated mass of 2 100 kilograms or less
(a) which is manufactured for resale in the fully constructed condition; or
(b) of which less than 51 per cent of the airframe has been constructed and
assembled exclusively for non-commercial purposes;
"prohibited area" means any area defined in Regulation 91.06. 19,
"proper shipping name" means the name to be used to describe a particular article
or substance in all shipping documents and notifications and, where applicable, on
packagings;
"pro-tem investigator" means an authorised
Commissioner in terms of Regulation 12.01.5;
person
designated
by
the
"public air transport service" means an air service that has as its main purpose the
transport of passengers, cargo or mail;
"rapid exit taxiway" means a taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle and
designed to allow landing aeroplanes to turn off at higher speeds than are achieved
on other exit taxiways and thereby minimising runway occupancy times;
"rating" means an authorisation entered on or associated with a licence and forming
part of such licence, stating special conditions, privileges or limitations relating to
such licence;
"receptacle" means any container used for or capable of retaining and holding
substances or articles, including any means of closing,
"register" means the register of South African aircraft referred to in Regulation
41.00.14;
"rejected take-off distance required" means the horizontal distance required from
the start of the take-off to the point where the helicopter comes to a full stop following
a power unit failure and rejection of the take-off at the take-off decision point;
"release to service"
(a) in relation to an aircraft , means
(i) in respect of scheduled maintenance, the issuing of a certificate of
release to service; and
(ii) in respect of line maintenance, the appropriate entry in the technical log-book or flight folio, as the case may be; and
in relation to an aircraft component, means the issuing of
(i) a serviceable label; or
(ii) a certificate relating to the maintenance of an aircraft;
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"seaplane" means an aeroplane designed and constructed to take-off from and land
on water surfaces only;
"seat" includes any area occupied by a passenger, excluding the area occupied by
the baggage of such passenger, inside an aircraft;
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"sector" includes take-off, en route flight time and landing, but excludes circuit
operations;
"Selcal watch" and Selcal call sign" means a selective calling system to effect
communication with aircraft by the use of a specific code which is detected by
apparatus in the aircraft;
"serious injury" means an injury which
(a) requires hospitalisation for more than 48 hours, within seven days from the date
on which the injury was sustained;
(b) results in a fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes or nose);
(c) involves lacerations which cause severe haemorrhage, or nerve, muscle or
tendon damage;
(d) involves injury to any internal organ;
(e) involves second or third degree burns or any burns affecting more than five per
cent of the surface of the body; or
(f) involves verified exposure to infectious or toxic substances or injurious radiation;
"serviceable" means, when used in relation to an aircraft, that the aircraft has been
maintained and inspected in accordance with the requirements of the approved
maintenance schedule and that all adjustments and rectifications found to be
necessary, have been satisfactorily made;
"shift" means the period between the actual commencement and the actual end of a
period of duty during which an air traffic controller exercises, or may be called upon
to exercise, the privileges of the rating at the traffic service unit for which such rating
is validated, and includes breaks and time spent on duties including training,
aerodrome inspection, administration, flight information service and any extension of
duty;
"shift cycle" means a consecutive 28 day period;
"shipper" means any person who prepares or offers a package or over-pack of
dangerous goods for conveyance by air;
"SIGMET information" means information issued by a meteorological watch office
concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence or specified en route weather
phenomena which may affect the safety of aircraft operations;
"simulator" means
(a) a flight procedures trainer or synthetic flight training device;
(b) a type specific flight simulator;
(c) any other training device approved by the Commissioner;
"South African registered aircraft" means an aircraft which is registered by the
Commissioner in terms of Regulation 41.00.6;
"special purposes operations" includes
(a) agricultural spraying, seeding and dusting;
(b) cloud spraying, seeding and dusting;
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(c) culling;
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(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
"special VFR flight" means a VFR flight cleared by air traffic control to fly within a
control zone under meteorological conditions below the visual metorological
conditions;
"standard category" means a category for normal, transport, utility and commuter
operations, including acrobatic, emergency medical service, flying training, semiacrobatic, helicopter external-load and manned free balloon operations;
"standard training" means ongoing training;
"State of Design" means the State which has authority over the organisation
responsible for the type design of an aircraft ;
"State of Manufacture" means the State which has authority over the organisation
responsible for the final assembly of an aircraft;
"State of Registry" means the State on whose register an aircraft is entered;
"State of the Operator" means the State in which the principal place of business of
an operator of an aircraft is located or, if there is no such place of business, the State
where the operator of the aircraft has permanent residence;
"stores" means articles of a readily consumable nature for use or sale on board an
aircraft during flight, including commissary supplies;
"student parachutist" means a person who is on the first level of training of an
approved aviation recreation organisation;
"student pilot-in-command instrument time" means flight time during which a
flight instructor will only observe the student acting as pilot-in-command without
influencing or controlling the flight of the aircraft;
"subsonic aeroplane" means an aeroplane incapable of sustaining level flight at
speeds exceeding flight Mach number of one;
"supplemental type certificate" means a certificate issued in terms of regulations
21.05.3, which authorises the holder thereof to alter a product for which such holder
is not the type certificate holder, by introducing a major change in the type design
which is not great enough to require a new application for a type certificate;
"take-off alternate aerodrome" means an aerodrome to which a flight may proceed
should the weather conditions at the aerodrome of departure preclude a return for
landing;
"take-off decision point" means the point used in determining take-off performance
from which, a power unit failure having been recognised at this point, either a
rejected take-off may be made of a take-off safely continued;
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ABBREVIATIONS
1.0.1
In these Regulations
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(i)
(j)
(k)
(l)
(m)
(n)
(o)
(p)
(q)
(r)
(s)
(t)
(u)
(v)
(w)
(x)
(y)
(z)
(aa)
(bb)
(cc)
(dd)
(ee)
(ff)
(gg)
(hh)
(ii)
(jj)
(kk)
(ll)
(mm)
(nn)
(oo)
(pp)
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12.01.1
12.01.2
12.01.3
12.01.4
12.01.5
12.01.6
12.01.7
12.01.8
Applicability
Designation of body or institution
Designation of investigator-in-charge
Designation of investigator
Designation of pro tem investigator
Designation of accredited representative
Designation of advisor
Establishment of confidential aviation hazard reporting system
12.02.1
12.02.2
12.02.3
12.02.4
12.02.5
Notification of accidents
Notification of incidents
Notification of accidents or incidents outside Republic
Particulars of notification
Notification of hazards
1203.1
1203.2
1203.3
12.04.1
12.04.2
12.04.3
12.04.4
12.04.5
12.05.1
12.05.2
12.05.3
12.05.4
Reporting
Appeal against findings in investigation
Reopening of investigation
Application
Air Law
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Revision : 1/1/2001
SUBPART 1 : GENERAL
Applicability
12.01.1
This part shall, subject to the provisions of section 12 of the Act, apply to
the procedures relating to the reporting and investigation of accidents and incidents
other than accidents and incidents involving
(a) aircraft so designed to remain moored to the earth or to be kept in tow by vehicles
or vessels moving on the surface of the earth; and
(b) aircraft designed to fly without any person on board.
Designation of body or institution
12.01.2
(1) The Commissioner may, subject to the provisions of section 4(2) and
(3) of the Act, designate a body or institution to
(a) promote aviation safety or to reduce the risk of aviation accidents or incidents;
and
(b) advise the Commissioner on any matter connected with the promotion of aviation
safety or the reduction of the risk of aviation accidents or incidents .
(2) The designation referred to in subregulation (1) shall be made in writing and shall
be published by the Commissioner in the Gazette within 30 days from the date of
such designation.
(3) The powers and duties referred to in subregulation (1) shall be exercised and
performed according to the conditions, rules, requirements, procedures or
standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-ACCID and INCID.
Designation of investigator-in-charge
12.1.3
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(4) The conditions and requirements for and the rules, procedures and standards
connected with a designation referred to in subregulation (1), shall be as
prescribed in Document SA-CATS-ACCID and INCID.
(5) The Commissioner shall sign and issue to each pro tem investigator so
designated, a document which shall state the full name of such pro tem
investigator and contain a statement indicating that (a) such pro tem investigator has been designated in terms of subregulation (1); and
(b) such pro tem investigator is empowered to exercise any power entrusted to him
or her in terms of this part.
Designation of accredited representative
12.01.6
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(h) participate in deliberations on the analysis, findings, cause or causes and safety
recommendations; and
Air Law
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(2) The conditions and requirements for and the rules, procedures and standards
connected with a designation referred to in subregulation (1), shall be as
prescribed in Document SA-CATS-ACCID and INCID.
Establishment of confidential aviation hazard reporting system
12.01.8
(1) The designated body or institution referred to in Regulation 12.01.2,
shall establish a confidential aviation hazard reporting system to promote aviation
safety or reduce the risk of accidents or incidents.
(2) The requirements for and the procedures of a confidential aviation hazard
reporting system and the manner in which such system shall be operated, shall
be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-ACCID and INCID.
(3) Any person who exercises or has exercised any function in terms of the
confidential aviation hazard reporting system, shall not disclose any information
which he or she obtained in the performance of such function which could identify
the originator of the notice referred to in Regulation 12.02.5.
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(viii.)
(ix.)
(x.)
(xi.)
(b) be submitted forthwith to the Commissioner, and any information which is not
Immediately available shall be submitted in writing as soon as it becomes
available.
Notification of hazards
12.02.5
(1) Any person involved in an accident or incident, or observing any
accident, incident, hazard or discrepancy that may affect aviation safety, may notify
the designated body or institution referred in Regulation 12.01.2, of such accident,
incident, hazard or discrepancy.
Air Law
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(3) Any person who notifies the designated body or institution referred to in
Regulation 12.01.2 of an accident or incident, shall not be absolved from the duty
to notify the Commissioner of such accident or incident in terms of Regulation
12.02.1, 12.02.2 or 12.02.3, as the case may be.
Air Law
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Air Law
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(1)
Control of evidence
12.4.3
The aircraft, the wreck or wreckage and anything transported therein and
any marks resulting from the accident which may be of assistance in an
investigation, shall remain under the control of the investigator-in-charge
until released by such investigator-in-charge .
Air Law
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(a) of which the findings are set aside in terms of Regulation 12.05.2(6);
(b) if new and significant information which indicates that the findings on the
investigation may be incorrect, becomes available; or
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MEDICAL CERTIFICATION
PART 67
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001
MEDICAL CERTIFICATION
Applicability
67.00.1 This part shall apply to the issuing of medical certificates in respect of flight
crew, cabin crew and air traffic service personnel.
Classes of medical certificates
67.0.1
(b) Class 2 i)
ii)
iii)
(c)
Class 3 i)
An air traffic service personnel member who holds a valid Class III medical certificate
referred to in subregulation (l)(c), shall be deemed to hold a valid Class 4 medical
certificate referred to in subregulation (l)(d).
Upon expiry of a Class I medical certificate referred to in subregulation(1) (a), such
medical certificate shall be deemed to be valid for the remainder of the period for
which it would have been valid as a Class II medical certificate referred to in
subregulation (l)(b) and a Class IV medical certificate referred to in subregulation (l)
(d), as specified in Regulation 67.00.6.
Upon expiry of a Class 3 medical certificate referred to in subregulation (l)(c), such
medical certificate shall be deemed to be valid for the remainder of the period for
which it would have been valid as a Class IV medical certificate referred to in
subregulation (l)(d), as specified in Regulation 67.00.6.
The medical requirements and standards to be complied with by an applicant for, or
the holder of, a Class I, II, III or IV medical certificate shall be as prescribed in
Document SA-CATS-MR.
Designation of body or institution
67.00.3 (1) The Commissioner may, subject to the provisions of section 4(2) and (3)
of the Act, designate a body or institution to a. exercise control over medical examinations or tests and over aviation medical
examiners performing such examinations or tests;
b. determine standards for such examinations or tests and for the training of such
aviation medical examiners;
c. issue, amend, suspend or withdraw medical certificates and keep all books or
documents regarding such examinations or tests; and
d. subject to the provisions of Regulation 67.00.9, advise the Commissioner on any
matter connected with such examinations, tests or aviation medical examiners
and on the training of flight crew and cabin crew in first aid.
The designation referred to in subregulation (1) shall be made in writing and shall be
published by the Commissioner in the Gazette within 30 days from the date of such
designation.
The powers and duties referred to in subregulation (1) shall be exercised and
performed according to the conditions, rules, requirements, procedures or standards
as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-MR.
Any medical practitioner employed by the body or institution designated in terms of
subregulation (1), shall not be disqualified by virtue of such designation from being
designated as an aviation medical examiner.
Designation of aviation medical examiners
67.00.4 (1) The Commissioner may, after consultation with the designated body or
institution, designate aviation medical examiners to perform medical examinations or
tests required for the issuing of medical certificates.
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(2) The conditions and requirements for and the rules, procedures and standards
connected with a designation referred to in subregulation (1) shall be as
prescribed in Document SA-CATS-MR.
(3) The Commissioner shall sign and issue to each designated aviation medical
examiner a document which shall state the full name of such aviation medical
examiner and contain a statement that a. such aviation medical examiner has been designated in terms of
subregulation (1); and
b. such aviation medical examiner is empowered to i)
Air Law
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(5) On receipt of the documents referred to in subregulation (3), the designated body
or institution shall a. verify the application concerned: and
b. if the applicant complies with the appropriate medical requirements and
standards referred to in Regulation 67.00.2(6), issue the medical certificate.
(6) The designated body or institution may a. if medical conclusion requires that i. medical examinations or tests be performed at shorter intervals; or
ii. additional examinations or tests be performed; or
b. when the safe performance of the duties essential to the operation of an aircraft,
of the holder of the medical certificate, depends on compliance with any special
limitation, endorse the medical certificate with such requirement or limitation.
Period of validity of medical certificates
67.00.6 (1) A Class I medical certificate shall be issued for a period not exceeding
a. 12 calendar months, calculated from the last day of the calendar month in which
the medical certificate is issued, where the applicant is less than 40 years of age
on the date on which the medical certificate is issued; and
b. six calendar months in the case of an airline transport pilot aeroplane and
helicopter, a commercial pilot: aeroplane and helicopter, a commercial microlight
aeroplane pilot, a gyroplane pilot for commercial purposes, a commercial glider
pilot, an airship pilot for commercial purposes, a free balloon pilot for commercial
purposes or a powered paraglider pilot for commercial purposes, calculated from
the last day of the calendar month in which the medical certificate is issued,
where the applicant is 40 years of age or more on the date on which the medical
certificate is issued: Provided that a medical certificate may be issued for a
period of 12 months to an applicant who is less than 60 years of age on the date
on which the medical certificate is issued if (i) the applicant has no identified medical condition or excessive risk
factors for conditions leading to sudden incapacity; and
(ii) the medical certificate is, for the latter six months of the period,
endorsed with a special limitation referred to in subregulation (4) (b).
(2) A Class 2 and 3 medical certificate shall be issued for a period not exceeding a. 24 calendar months, calculated from the last day of the calendar month in which
the medical certificate is issued, where the applicant is less than 40 years of age
on the date on which the medical certificate is issued; and
b. 12 calendar months, calculated from the last day of the calendar month in which
the medical certificate is issued, where the applicant is 40 years of age or more
on the date on which the medical certificate is issued.
Air Law
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(3) A Class IV medical certificate shall be issued for a period not exceedinga. 60 calendar months, calculated from the last day of the calendar month in which
the medical certificate is issued, where the applicant is less than 40 years of age
on the date on which the medical certificate is issued; and
b. 36 calendar months, calculated from the last day of the calendar month in which
the medical certificate is issued, where the applicant is 40 years of age or more
on the date on which the medical certificate is issued.
(4) Notwithstanding the provisions of subregulations (1), (2) and (3), a designated
aviation medical examiner maya. indications require that i. medical examinations or tests be performed at shorter intervals; or
ii. additional exanimations or tests be performed; or
b. when the safe performance of the duties essential to the operation of an aircraft,
of the holder of such medical certificate, depends on compliance with any special
limitation, endorse the medical certificate with such requirement or limitation.
Application for medical certificate
67.00.7 (1) An application for the issuing of a medical certificate shall be made on
the appropriate form as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-MR.
(2) An applicant who attends a medical examination or test for the issuing of a
medical certificate shall a. produce proof of his or her identity; and
b. produce for inspection any licence held for which the certificate is required and
the most recent medical certificate held, if any.
(3) Subject to the provisions of Regulations 67.00.3(l)(c) and 67.004(3) (b)(iii), an
applicant who complies with the appropriate medical requirements and standards
referred to in Regulation 67.00.2(6), shall be entitled to a medical certificate.
Issuing of medical certificate
67.00.8(1) A medical certificate shall be issued by the designated aviation medical
examiner concerned on the appropriate form as prescribed in Document SA-CATSMR.
(2) The designated aviation medical examiner concerned shall, within 60 days from
the date on which the medical certificate has been issued, submit the original
application together with any appropriate a. supporting medical reports; and
Air Law
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(3) On receipt of the documents referred to in subregulation (2), the designated body
or institution shall verify that the holder of the medical certificate complies with the
appropriate medical requirements and standards referred to in Regulation
67.00.2(5).
(4) A medical certificate issued by a designated aviation medical examiner, shall
remain in force, subject to any requirement or limitation endorsed thereon and for
the period for which it was issued: Provided that the designated body or institution
may a. if the medical certificate has been issued to an applicant who does not comply
with the appropriate medical requirements and standards referred to in
Regulation 67.00.2(6), cancel the medical certificate; or
b. if medical conclusion requires that (i)
(ii)
(iii)
(5) For the purposes of subregulation (2), the words "original application" includes
any incomplete application.
Duties of holder of medical certificate
67.0.9
a. carry such medical certificate on his or her person when carrying out the duties
as a flight crew member, an air traffic service personnel member or a cabin crew
member, as the case may be;
b. not act as a pilot-in-command, or in any other capacity as a flight crew member,
an air traffic service personnel member or a cabin crew member, as the case may
be (i)
(ii)
(iii)
Air Law
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
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(c ) without undue delay, notify the designated body or institution of any (i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
injury;
hospitalisation;
surgical operation or invasive procedure;
regular use of medication;
pregnancy;
absence due to illness for a period of more than 21 days: or psychiatric
treatment, which renders such holder unable to comply with
the appropriate medical requirements and standards referred to
in Regulation 67.00.2(6).
(2)
(3)
The holder of a Class 4 medical certificate shall, after the medical certificate
has been issued to him or her, on an annual basis complete and submit to the
designated body or institution the medical declaration as prescribed in
Document SA-CATS-MR.
Air Law
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b. two consecutive periods, each of three months, in the case of a flight crew
member or a cabin crew member, as the case may be, of an aircraft used in
commercial operations: Provided that the flight crew member or cabin crew
member concerned i. obtains in that State or territory, in either instance, a valid medical certificate
after examination by an appropriate authority; and
ii. undergoes the appropriate medical examination as soon as he or she returns to
the Republic.
Appeal
67.00.11 (1) An applicant for, or the holder of, a medical certificate who feels
aggrieved by (2) a decision by the designated body or institution in terms of Regulation 67.00.8(4)
(a) to cancel his or her medical certificate;
(3) a decision by a designated aviation medical examiner, declaring him or her unfit
or temporarily unfit;
(4) any endorsement made by the designated body or institution in terms of
Regulation 67.00.5(6) or 67.00.8(4)(b) on his or her medical certificate; or
(5) any endorsement made by a designated aviation medical examiner in terms of
Regulation 67.00.6(4) on his or her medical certificate, may appeal against such
decision or endorsement to the Commissioner, within 30 days after he or she
becomes aware of such decision or endorsement.
(2) The appellant shalla. deliver his or her appeal in writing, staling the reasons why, in his or her opinion,
the decision or endorsement should be varied or set aside;
b. pay the appropriate fee as prescribed in Part 187; and
c. be responsible for the payment of any additional medical expenses incurred as a
result of the appeal.
(3) The appellant shall submit a copy of his or her appeal and any documents or
records supporting such appeal, to the designated aviation medical examiner
concerned or the designated body or institution, as the case may be, and shall
furnish proof of such submission for the information of the Commissioner.
(4) The designated aviation medical examiner concerned or the designated body or
institution, as the case may be, may, within 30 days of receipt of the copy of the
appeal referred to in subregulation (3), deliver his, her or its written reply to such
appeal to the Commissioner.
(5) The Commissioner may designate a panel of medical practitioners to assist him
or her in adjudicating the appeal.
Air Law
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(6) The panel referred to in subregulation (5) shall consist of at least two medical
practitioners who are registered in terms of section 17 of the Medical, Dental and
Supplementary Health Service Professions Act, 1974, one of whom shall have
obtained a postgraduate qualification in aviation medicine, and the other shall be
a specialist in the field of medicine concerned.
(7) The Commissioner may a. adjudicate the appeal on the basis of the documents submitted to him or her;
b. order the appellant and the designated aviation medical examiner concerned or
the designated body or institution, as the case may be, to appear before him or
her, either in person or through a representative, at a time and place determined
by him or her, to give evidence.
(8) The Commissioner may confirm, vary or set aside the decision or endorsement
referred to in subregulation (1).
Period of validity of medical records
67.00.12 The records of a medical examination shall, for the purpose of issuing a
medical certificate, be valid for a period not exceeding 90 days, and medical
certificate may not be issued after this period on the records of such examination.
Medical confidentiality
67.00.13 (1) Subject to the provisions of subregulation (2), all information provided
by or on behalf of an applicant for a medical certificate, which is personal medical
information, shall be confidential, and shall be used only in respect of the medical
certificate and the entire medical certification process, unless otherwise authorised
by the applicant.
(2) Any medical practitioner employed by the designated body or institution shall
ensure the protection of information referred to in subregulation (1) which is kept
by such designated body or institution: Provided that when medical information
appears to be fraudulent, false or misleading, or when such medical information
will jeopardise aviation safety, or when it is necessary for the purpose of an
appeal in terms of Regulation 67.00.11, the medical practitioner shall release to
the Commissioner such information for appropriate investigation and action.
Air Law
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Revision : 1/1/2001
AMENDMENTS
AMMENDMENT
NO
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
DATE
AMMENDED
24/12/1997
14/08/1998
18/9/1998
14/12/1998
31/12/1998
21/5/1999
17/2/2000
18/2/2000
GOV NOTICE
NO
R1753
R1041
R1184
R1664
R1701
R639
R170
R171
GOV GAZETTE
NO
18562
19155
19248
19612
19644
20076
20895
20896
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SIGNATURE
AIRLAW
1
I N D E X VOLUME II
SECTIONS
PART 91
CATS OPS PART 91
PART 92
PART 135
CATS PART 135
AIR LAW APPENDIX A
APPENDIX B QUESTIONS
MOCK EXAM PAPER 1
All Rights Reserved. No part of this manual my be reproduced in
any manner whatsoever including electronic, photographic,
photocopying, facsimile, or stored in a retrieval system, without
the prior permission of Flight Training College of S.A. c.c.
Revision: 4
AIRLAW
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CONTENTS
VOLUME I
Definitions
Part 1
Procedures
Part 11
Part 12
Part 13
Aircraft
Part 21
Part 34
Part 36
Part 43
Part 47
Personnel
Part 61
Part 63
Part 64
Part 65
Part 66
Part 67
Pilot Licensing
Flight Engineer Licensing
Cabin Crew Licencing
Air Traffic Service Personnel Licencing
Aircraft maintenance Engineer Licencing
Medical Certification
VOLUME II
Rules of the Air and General Operating Rules
Part 91
Part 92
Part 98
Part 100
Part 101
Part 102
Part 103
Part 104
Part 105
Part 106
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139
141
145
148
Administration
Part 1185
Part 187
Offences
Fees
Revision: 4
AIRLAW
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GENERAL OPERATING
AND FLIGHT RULES
PART 91
Revision: 4
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LIST OF REGULATIONS:
GENERAL OPERATING AND FLIGHT RULES
SUBPART 1: GENERAL PROVISIONS
91.01.1
Applicability..
91.01.2
Authority of pilot-in-command
91.01.3
Authorisation of personnel to taxi aeroplanes
91.01.4
Search and rescure information
91.01.5
Information on emegency and survival equipment carried
91.01.6
Method of carriage of eprsons
91.01.7
Admisison of flight deck
91.01.8
Unauthrorised carriage
91.01.9
Portable electronic devices
91.01.10
Endangering safety
91.01.11
Presevation of documents
`
SUBPART 2: FLIGHT CREW
91.02.1
91.02.2
91.02.3
91.02.4
91.02.5
91.02.6
91.02.7
91.02.8
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Communication equipment
Navigation equipment
Landing on roads
Dropping objects, spraying o dusting
Picking up objects
Towing
Operation of vehicle- or vessel-towed aircraft
Proximity and formation flights
Right of way
Following line features
Aircraft speed
Lights to be displayed by aircraft
Taxi rules
Operation on and in the vicinity of aerodrome
Signals
Water operatons
Reporting position
Mandatory radio communication in controlled airspace
Mandatory radio communication in advisory airspace
Commpliance with air traffic control clearance and instruction
Prohibited areas
Restricted areas
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General provisions
Helicopter operating limitations
Helicopter performance classification
Aeroplane performance classification
General
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Applicability
91.01.1(1) Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (2), this part shall apply to
(a) aircraft operated within the Republic;
(b) aircraft registered in the Republic and operated internationally,
(c) persons acting as flight crew members of aircraft registered in the Republic; and
(d) persons who are on board an aircraft operated under this part.
(2) Additional rules to, and exemptions from, the provisions of this part, are
prescribed, in respect of(a) the conveyance of dangerous goods, in Part 92;
(b) the operation of powered paragliders, in Part 98;
(c) the operation of gyroplanes, in Part 100;
(d) the operation of unmanned free balloons, kites and remotely piloted aircraft, in
Part 101;
(e) the operation of free balloons and airships, in Part 102;
(f) the operation of microlight aeroplanes, in Part 103,
(g) the operation of gilders, in Part 104;
(h) parachuting operations, in Part 105;
(i) the operation of hang gliders, in Part 106,
(j) large aeroplanes engaged in commercial air transport operations,in Part 121;
(k) helicopters engaged in commercial air transport operations, in Part 127;
(l) helicopters engaged in external-load operations, in Part 133;
(m) small aeroplanes engaged in commercial air transport operations, in Part 135;
(n) aircraft engaged in agricultural operations, in Part 137; and
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(2) The minimum information to be contained in the list referred to in sub- regulation
(1) shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91.
Method of carriage of persons
91.01.6 No person shall be in any part of an aircraft in flight which is not a part
designed for the accommodation of persons, unless temporary permission has been
granted by the pilot-in-command to access such part of the aircraft
(a) for the purpose of taking action necessary for the safety of such aircraft or of any
person, animal or goods therein; and
(b) in which cargo or stores are carried, being a part which is designed to enable a
person to have access thereto while such aircraft is in flight.
Admission to flight deck
91.01.7 (1) No person other than the assigned flight deck crew shall be carried on the
flight deck of a South African registered aircraft except with the permission of the
pilot-in-command.
(2) The admission of any person to the flight deck shall not interfere with the
operation of the aircraft.
(3) Any person carried on the flight deck shall be made familiar with the applicable
procedures.
Unauthorised carriage
91.01.8 No person shall secrete himself, herself or cargo on board an aircraft.
Portable electronic devices
91.01.9 (1) Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (2), no owner, operator or
pilot-in-command of an aircraft or person shall permit the operation of, or operate on
board the aircraft during flight time, any portable electronic device which may
adversely affect the performance of the systems and equipment of the aircraft.
(2) The provisions of sub-regulation (1) shall not apply to
(a) a heart pacemaker;
(b) a hearing aid;
(c) a portable voice recorder;
(d) an electric shaver; or
(e) any other portable electronic device, the operation of which-
Revision: 4
AIRLAW
14
i.
ii.
(3) A portable electronic device referred to in sub-regulation (2)(c), (d) or (e) shall not
be used by any person during the critical phases of flight.
Endangering safety
91.01.10 No person shall, through any act or omission
(a) endanger the safety of an aircraft or person therein; or
(b) cause or permit an aircraft to endanger the safety of any person or property.
Preservation of documents
91.01.11 (1) The owner or operator of an aircraft who is required to retain any of the
documents for the specified period referred to in subpart 3, shall retain such
documents for such specified period irrespective of the fact that such owner or
operator, before the expiry of such period, ceases to be the owner or operator of the
aircraft.
(2) The owner or operator of an aircraft operated in the mass category specified
under Table 1 of Part 187 and issued with a certificate of airworthiness in any
category in terms of Part 21, shall be liable for a currency fee, as prescribed in
Part 187. Such fees shall be payable in advance on the anniversary date on
which the certificate of airworthiness was issued or re-issued as the case may be.
Should the aircraft be unserviceable and not in possession of a valid certificate of
airworthiness at that time, the currency fee mentioned will be waived until the
aircraft is again serviceable and the certificate of airworthiness reissued. The fee
for the re-issue of the certificate of airworthiness as prescribed by Part 187 shall
then be applicable.
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(e) if the flight crew member is in any doubt of being able to accomplish his or her
assigned duties on board the aircraft.
(2) No flight crew member shall (a) consume any alcohol less than 12 hours prior to commencing standby for flight
duty or flight duty, which flight duty shall be deemed to commence at the specified
reporting time, if applicable;
(b) commence flight duty while the concentration of alcohol in any specimen of blood
taken from any part of his or her body, is more than 0,00gram per 100 millilitres;
or
(c) consume alcohol during flight duty or whilst on standby, or within eight hours after
an accident or reportable incident involving the aircraft, unless the accident or
incident was not related to his or her duties.
(3) Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (4), no person shall act as a flight deck
crew member of an aircraft if, prior to each flight, the flight time exceeds, or is
likely to exceed, the permissible aggregate of
(a) in the case of an operation other than an operation referred to in paragraph (e),
irrespective of whether such operation is carried out under a licence issued in
terms of the Air Services Licencing Act, 1990 (Act No. 1 15 of 1990), or the
International Air Services Act, 1993 (Act No. 60 of 1993)
(i.) 400 hours, during the preceding 90 days;
(ii.) 700 hours, during the preceding six months; or
(iii.) 1000 hours, during the preceding 12 months;
(b) in the case of flight instructors conducting ab initio training, six hours within one
calendar day;
(c) as part of a multi-pilot crew for a flight to be undertaken wholly or partly under
instrument flight rules
(i.) 120 hours, during the preceding 30 days;
(ii.) 300 hours, during the preceding 90 days; or
(iii.) 1000 hours, during the preceding 12 months;
(d) as the sole pilot of an aircraft for a flight to be undertaken wholly or partly under
instrument flight rules
(i.) 100 hours, during the preceding 30 days; or
(ii.) 1000 hours, during the preceding 12 months; or
(e) in the case of an operation carried out in terms of Part 121, Part 127, Part 135 or
Part 138
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(i.)
(ii.)
(iii.)
(iv.)
(4) If a flight deck crew member expects his or her cumulative flight hours projected
for a particular operation, to exceed the appropriate limit
(a) referred to in sub-regulation (3); or
(b) specified in the flight time and duty scheme of an operator carrying out operations
in terms of Part 121, Part 127, Part 135 or Part 138, the flight deck crew member
shall inform the operator accordingly.
Recency
91.02.4
(1)A pilot shall not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying
passengers by day, unless such pilot has, within the 90 days immediately preceding
the flight, carried out either by day or by night at least three take-offs and three
landings in the same class and category of aircraft as that in which such flight is to be
undertaken, or in a simulator.
(2) A pilot shall not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers by
night, unless the pilot has, within the 90 days immediately preceding the flight,
carried out at least three take-offs and three landings by night, in the same class
and category of aircraft as that in which such flight is to be undertaken, or in a
simulator.
(3) A pilot shall not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft on an instrument approach
to an aerodrome in IMC unless the pilot has, within the 90 days immediately
preceding such approach, by means of an instrument approach procedure or
procedures established by the Commissioner or an appropriate authority
(a) executed at least two actual approaches with reference to flight instruments only;
(b) executed at least two approaches either under actual or simulated conditions with
reference to flight instruments only; or
(c) executed at least one actual approach with reference to flight instruments only
and one approach in a simulator for the purpose of practising instrument
approach procedure;
(d) or undergone the appropriate skill test as prescribed in Part 61.
Flight crew members at duty station
91.02.5(1) In the case of a multi-crew aircraft
(a) each flight crew member shall be at his or her assigned station or seat, properly
secured by all seat belts and shoulder harnesses provided,during take-off and
landing and whenever deemed necessary by the pilot-in-command in the
interests of aviation safety;
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(b) each flight deck crew member shall keep his or her seat belt fastened while at his
or her assigned station, during phases of the flight, other than the phases referred
to in subparagraph (a);
(c) each flight deck crew member required to be on flight deck duty, shall be at his or
her assigned station, during take-off and landing;
(d) all flight deck crew members on flight deck duty shall remain at their assigned
stations during all phases of the flight other than the phases referred to in
subparagraph (c): Provided that
(i.)
(ii.)
a flight deck crew member may leave his or her assigned station, in the
course of the performance of his or her duties with regard to the operation
of the aircraft or for physiological needs; and
at least one suitably qualified pilot remains at the controls of the aircraft at
all times.
(e) the pilot-in-command or, where applicable, the operator shall ensure that flight
crew members do not perform any activities during critical phases of the flight
other than those required for the safe operation of the aircraft.
(2) In the case of a single-pilot aircraft, the pilot-in-command shall, during all phases
of the flight, remain at the controls of the aircraft.
Laws, regulations and procedures
91.02.6(1) In an emergency situation which endangers the aircraft, flight crew
members or passengers, the pilot-in-command may, in the interests of aviation safety
(a) take any action which he or she considers necessary under the circumstances;
and
(b) deviate from any law, regulation and operational procedure of the State within or
over the territory of which the aircraft is operated.
(2) If a pilot-in-command deviates from any law, regulation or operational procedure
in an emergency situation referred to in sub-regulation (1), he or she shall notify
the appropriate authority of the State within or over the territory of which the
deviation occurs, of such deviation without delay.
(3) If the appropriate authority of the State within or over the territory of which the
deviation occurs, requests the pilot-in-command to submit a report on such
deviation, the pilot-in-command shall submit the report
(a) within the period specified by such appropriate authority, to such appropriate
authority; and
(b) within 10 days from the date on which such report is requested by such
appropriate authority, to the Commissioner.
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(k) the requirements in respect of fuel, oil, oxygen, minimum safe altitudes,
aerodrome operating minima and availability of alternate aerodromes are
complied with;
(l) the aerodrome operating minima are not less than the operating minima of the
aerodrome being operated to or from, established by the appropriate authority of
the State in which the aerodrome is located, unless such appropriate authority
approves lower aerodrome operating minima;
(m) the status of the aircraft and the relevant airborne systems appropriate for the
specific flight to be undertaken;
(n) the external surfaces are clear of any deposit which might adversely affect the
performance or controllability of the aircraft, unless otherwise permitted in the
aircraft flight manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2;
(o) according to the information available to him or her, the weather at the aerodrome
and, in respect of an aeroplane, the condition of the runway intended to be used,
will not prevent a safe take-off and departure or a safe landing at the destination
aerodrome or alternate aerodrome, as applicable ;
(p) the RVR or visibility in the take-off direction of the aircraft is equal to, or better
than, the applicable minimum;
(q) the flight crew members are properly qualified for the specific operation to be
undertaken;
(r) the status of the visual and non-visual facilities are sufficient prior to commencing
a low visibility take-off, or a Category II or III approach as specified in Document
SA-CATS-OPS 91, if such approaches are planned;
(s) an adequate and suitable aerodrome as specified in Document SA-CATS-OPS
91, is available for take-off, en route and destination, should it become
inadvisable to continue to or land at the destination aerodrome; and
(t) the flight crew members are not apparently incapacitated as a result of injury,
sickness, fatigue or the consumption of alcohol or drugs having a narcotic effect.
(2) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall
(a) not commence a flight unless he or she has ascertained through the relevant
NOTAM, ATC, AIP or AIP SUP that the aerodromes, navigation aids and
communication facilities are adequate for the manner in which the flight is to be
conducted;
(b) prior to take-off from an aerodrome at which an air traffic service unit is in
operation, determine through the aeronautical information services available from
the unit or any other reliable source, that the unserviceability of any aerodrome,
navigation aids or communication facilities required for such flight, will not
prejudice the safe conduct of the flight; and
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(c) advise an air traffic service unit, as soon as it is practical to do so, of any
inadequate facilities encountered in the course of operations.
(3) Where a load and trim sheet is required in terms of these Regulations,the load
and trim sheet shall be acceptable to and countersigned by the pilot-in-command
before a flight commences: Provided that if the load and trim sheet is submitted to
the pilot-in-command by electronic data transfer, commencement of the flight
shall be deemed to be the acceptance thereof by such pilot-in-command.
(4) Before take-off and landing, and whenever deemed necessary in the interest of
aviation safety, the pilot-in-command shall ensure that all flight crew,passengers,
equipment and baggage is properly secured and all exit and escape paths are
unobstructed.
Duties of pilot-in-command regarding flight operations
91.02.8(1) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall be responsible for(a) the operation and safety of the aircraft while he or she is in command;
(b) the conduct and safety of flight crew members and passengers carried;and
(c) the maintenance of discipline by all persons on board;
(2) The pilot-in-command of the aircraft shall have the authority
(a) to give such commands he or she deems necessary in the interest of the safety
of the aircraft, persons or property; and
(b) to disembark any person or cargo which in his or her opinion, represents a
potential hazard to the safety of the aircraft, persons or property.
(3) The pilot-in-command of the aircraft shall ensure that all passengers are informed
as to(a) when and how oxygen equipment is to be used, if the carriage of oxygen is
required;
(b) the location and use of life jackets or equivalent individual flotation devices,
where the carriage thereof is required;
(c) the location and method of opening emergency exits;
(d) when seat belts are to be fastened;
(e) when smoking is prohibited; and
(f) when portable electronic devices may be used.
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(4) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall (a) ensure that the pre-flight inspection has been carried out, and that the checklists,
and where applicable, the flight deck procedures and other instructions regarding
the operation of the aircraft, the limitations contained in the aircraft flight manual
referred to in Regulation 91.03.2, or equivalent certification document, are fully
complied with at the appropriate times during a flight;
(b) decide whether or not to accept an aircraft with unserviceabilities allowed by the
CDL or MEL, where applicable;
(c) before take-off, ensure that the passengers are briefed on the location and
general manner of use of the relevant emergency equipment carried for collective
use and, when an emergency arises, shall instruct the passengers to take such
emergency action as may be appropriate;
(d) ensure that during take-off and landing and whenever, by reason of turbulence or
any emergency occurring during a flight, the precaution is considered necessary,
all persons on board the aircraft are secured in their seats by means of the seat
belts or shoulder harnesses provided;
(e) when replanning, whilst in flight, to proceed along a route or to a destination other
than the route or destination originally planned, shall amend the operational flight
plan, if such a plan was required in terms of Regulation 91.02.7(1)(f);
(f) report any accident or incident involving the aircraft in accordance with Part 12;
(g) report any dangerous goods accident or incident involving the aircraft in
accordance with Part 92;
(h) if the aircraft is endangered in flight by a near collision with any other aircraft or
object, faulty air traffic procedure or lack of compliance with applicable
procedures by an air traffic service unit or a flight crew member or a failure of air
traffic service facilities, submit an air traffic service incident report in accordance
with Regulation 12.02.2;
(i) record any technical defect and the exceeding of any technical limitation which
occurred while he or she was responsible for the flight, in the flight folio; and
(j) if a potentially hazardous condition such as bird accumulation, an irregularity in a
ground or navigation facility, meteorological phenomena, a volcanic ash cloud or
a greater than normal radiation level is observed during flight, notify an air traffic
service unit as soon as possible.
(5) The pilot-in-command of the aircraft shall ensure that
(a) breathing oxygen is available to flight crew members and passengers if flights in
a non-pressurised aircraft are contemplated above 10 000 feet up to 12 000 feet
in excess of 60 minutes, or above 12 000 feet; and
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(b) breathing oxygen is carried in sufficient quantities for all flights at such altitudes
where a lack of oxygen might result in impairment of faculties of flight crew
members, or harmfully affect passengers.
(6) The pilot-in-command of the aircraft shall not
(a) require a flight crew member to perform any duties during a critical phase of the
flight, except those duties required for the safe operation of the aircraft;
(b) permit any activity during a critical phase of the flight which could distract any
flight crew member from the performance of his or her duties or which could
interfere in any way with the proper conduct of those duties; and
(c) continue a flight beyond the nearest suitable aerodrome in the event of a flight
crew member becoming unable to perform any essential duties as a result of
fatigue, sickness or lack of oxygen.
(7) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft, or in his or her absence, the owner or
operator thereof, shall report any act of unlawful interference with the operation of
the aircraft, or the authority of the pilot-in-command
(a) if the act of unlawful interference occurs within the Republic, to the
Commissioner; or
(b) if the act of unlawful interference occurs within or over the territory of a foreign
State, to the appropriate authority of the State and the Commissioner.
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a local flight;
a flight crossing an airway or advisory routes at right angles; or
a VFR flight entering or departing from an aerodrome traffic zone or
control zone, from or to an unmanned aerodrome and where no other
controlled or advisory airspace will be entered during the flight;
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(5) An air traffic control unit may instruct a flight for which an air traffic service flight
plan is required in terms of sub-regulation (4) and for which an air traffic service
flight plan has not been filed, to clear or to remain clear of controlled airspace,
and not to cross the border of the Republic or to enter its airspace until such
time as the required air traffic service flight plan has been filed.
(6) Unless otherwise authorised by the responsible air traffic service unit, an air
traffic service flight plan for a flight to be conducted in controlled or advisory
airspace, shall be filed at least 30 minutes before departure or, if filed during
flight while outside controlled or advisory airspace for a flight to be conducted in
such airspace, it shall be filed with the responsible air traffic service unit at least
10 minutes before the aircraft is estimated to reach the intended point of entry
into the controlled or advisory airspace.
(7) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall ensure that all changes which become
applicable to an air traffic service flight plan before departure or in flight, are
reported, as soon as practicable, to the responsible air traffic service unit.
(8) If an air traffic service flight plan has been filed with an air traffic service unit prior
to departure, and is not activated with an air traffic service unit within one hour of
original estimated time of departure or amended estimated time of departure, the
air traffic service flight plan shall be regarded as cancelled and a new air traffic
service flight plan shall be filed.
(9) Where an air traffic service unit is not in operation at the aerodrome of intended
landing a report shall be submitted to an air traffic service unit, by the quickest
means of communication available, immediately before or after landing, in
respect of a flight for which an air traffic service flight plan was submitted and not
as yet closed.
(10) Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (11), the pilot-in-command shall
ensure that the aircraft adheres to the current air traffic service flight plan filed
for a controlled flight, unless a request for a change has been made and
accepted by the air traffic control unit responsible for the controlled airspace in
which the aircraft is operating, or unless an emergency situation arises which
necessitates immediate action, in which event the responsible air traffic control
unit shall, as soon as circumstances permit, be notified of the action taken and
that such action was taken under emergency authority.
(11) In the event of a controlled flight inadvertently deviating from its current air traffic
service flight plan, the following action shall be taken:
(a) If the aircraft is off track, action shall be taken forthwith to adjust the heading of
the aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable;
(b) if the average true airspeed at cruising level between reporting points varies, or is
expected to vary, from that given in an air traffic service flight plan by
approximately five per cent of the true airspeed, the responsible air traffic service
unit shall be so informed;
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(c) if the estimated time at the next applicable reporting point, flight information
regional boundary, or aerodrome of intended landing, which ever comes first, is
found to be in error in excess of three minutes from that notified to the
responsible air traffic service unit, a revised estimated time shall be notified to
such air traffic service unit as soon as possible; or
(d) if the aircraft deviates from its altitude, action shall be taken forthwith to correct
the altitude of the aircraft.
Flight folio
91.03.5(1) The owner or operator of a South African registered aircraft shall ensure
that the aircraft carries a flight folio or any other similar document which contains the
information as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91, at all times.
(2) The flight folio shall be kept up-to-date and maintained in a legible manner.
(3) All entries shall be made immediately upon completion of the occurrence to which
they refer.
(4) In the case of maintenance being undertaken on the aircraft, the entry shall be
certified by the person taking responsibility for the maintenance performed.
(5) The owner or operator shall retain the flight folio for a period of five years
calculated from the date of the last entry therein.
Fuel and oil record
91.03.6(1) The owner of operator of an aircraft shall maintain fuel and oil records for
each flight undertaken by the aircraft under the control of such owner or operator.
(2) The pilot-in-command of the aircraft shall enter the fuel and oil records referred to
in sub-regulation (1) in the flight folio.
Certificate of release to service
91.03.7(1) No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate a South African
registered aircraft without holding a valid certificate of release to service signed by
the holder of an appropriately rated aircraft maintenance engineer licence or aircraft
maintenance organisation approval; or
(a) a foreign aircraft without holding a valid certificate, equivalent to the certificate
referred to in paragraph (a), issued by an appropriate authority.
(2) The owner or operator shall
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(a) ensure that one copy of the certificate of release to service or equivalent
certificate is carried on board the aircraft to which it relates and, in the case of a
South African registered aircraft, a second copy shall be filed at the normal
station of the aircraft; and
(b) retain the certificate of release to service for a period of 12 months calculated
from the date of issue of such certificate of release to service
Flight recorder records
91.03.8
shall-
(a) in the case of an accident or incident involving such aircraft, preserve the original
recording, as retained by the flight recorder, for a period of not less than 60 days
calculated from the date of the accident or incident, or until permission for
disposal of such recording has been given by the investigator in charge or an
appropriate authority, whichever is the latter date;
(b) when the Commissioner so directs, preserve the original recording, as retained
by the flight recorder, for a period of not less than 60 days calculated from the
date of such direction or until permission for disposal of such recording has been
given by the Commissioner.
(2) If an aircraft is required under this part to be fitted with a flight data recorder, the
owner or operator of the aircraft shall
(a) save the recording for the period of operating time as required by sub-regulation
(l)(a) and (b): Provided that for the purpose of testing and maintaining a flight data
recorder one hour of the oldest recorded material at the time of testing may be
erased;
(b) keep a recording of at least one representative flight made within the preceding
12 months which includes a take-off, climb, cruise, descent, approach and
landing, together with a means of identifying the recording with the flight to which
it relates; and
(c) keep a document which represents the information necessary to retrieve and
convert the stored data into engineering units.
(3) The owner or operator of an aircraft on which a flight recorder is carried shall,
within a reasonable time after being requested to do so by the Commissioner or
an appropriate authority, produce any recording made by such flight recorder
which is available or has been preserved.
(4) A cockpit voice recorder recording may be used for purposes other than for the
investigation of an accident or incident only with the consent of all the flight crew
members concerned.
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(5) The flight data recorder recordings may be used for purposes other than the
investigation of an accident or incident which is subject to mandatory reporting,
only when such recordings are
(a) used by the owner or operator for airworthiness or maintenance purposes only;
(b) de-identified; or
(c) disclosed under secure procedures.
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(2) No owner or operator of an aeroplane shall operate the aeroplane by night unless
such aeroplane is equipped with (a) the instruments and equipment referred to in sub-regulation (1);
(b) navigation or position lights;
(c) two landing lights or a single light having two separately energised filaments; and
(d) in the case of an aeroplane with a maximum certificated mass exceeding 5 700
kilograms, two parachute flares.
(3) No owner or operator of a helicopter shall operate the helicopter by night unless
such helicopter is equipped with
(a) in the case of a flight by night within 10 nautical miles, a light or lights providing
adequate illumination both forward and downward to facilitate safe approaches,
landings and take-offs; or
(b) in the case of a flight by night of more than 10 nautical miles, two landing lights or
a single light having two separately energised filaments which are capable of
providing adequate illumination both forward and downward to facilitate safe
approaches, landings and take-offs.
(4) No owner or operator of a seaplane or an amphibious aircraft shall operate the
seaplane or amphibious aircraft unless it is equipped with
(a) the instruments and equipment referred to in sub-regulation (1), (2) or(3), as the
case may be; and
(b) when operating on water by night, display lights to conform with the International
Regulations for Prevention Collisions at Sea.
(5) The navigation lights to be displayed by aircraft at night, on the water or on the
manoeuvring area of an aerodrome, shall be as prescribed in Regulation
91.06.10.
Flight, navigation and associated equipment for aircraft operated
under VFR
91.04.4 No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft in accordance
with VFR, unless such aircraft is equipped with
(a) a magnetic compass;
(b) an accurate time-piece showing the time in hours, minutes, and seconds;
(c) a sensitive pressure altimeter with a subscale setting, calibrated in hectopascal,
adjustable for any barometric pressure setting likely to be encountered during
flight,
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(b) a headset with boom microphone or equivalent and a transmit button on the
control wheel, joy stick or cyclic stick.
Mach number indicator
91.04.7 No owner or operator of an aircraft with speed limitations expressed in terms
of Mach number, shall operate the aircraft unless such aircraft is equipped with a
Mach number indicator.
Radio altimeter
91.04.8 No owner or operator of a helicopter shall operate the helicopter on a flight
over water at a distance from land corresponding to more than 10 minutes at normal
cruise speed, unless such helicopter is equipped with a radio altimeter with an audio
voice warning or other means, operating below a preset height and with a visual
warning capable of operating at a height selectable by the pilot.
Equipment for operations in icing conditions
91.04.9 (1) No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft in forecast or
actual icing conditions unless such aircraft is certificated and equipped to operate in
icing conditions.
(2) The owner or operator shall not operate the aircraft in forecast or actual icing
conditions by night unless such aircraft is equipped with a means to illuminate or
detect the formation of ice.
(3) The means of illumination referred to in sub-regulation (2), shall be of a type
which does not cause glare or reflection which may handicap flight deck crew
members in the performance of their duties.
Flight recorder
91.04.10(1) The owner or operator of a South African registered aircraft which is
required to be with a flight recorder in terms of Regulation 91.04. 12 or 91.04. 13,
shall ensure that the flight recorder complies with the specifications as prescribed in
Document SA-CATS-OPS 91.
(2) There shall be an aural or visual means for pre-flight checking to determine that
the flight recorder is operating properly.
(3) The flight recorder shall not be switched off during flight.
(4) Each flight recorder installed in an aircraft shall be located in such a manner that
maximum practicable protection is provided, in order that, in the event of an
accident/ incident, the recorded data may be recovered in a preserved and
intelligible state.
(5) Where a flight recorder is installed, it shall not
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which is secured in such a manner that the device shall be required when the
cockpit voice recorder and the flight data recorder required under this part are
installed adjacent to each other in such a manner that they are not likely to be
separated during crash impact.
(9) The owner or operator of the aircraft shall
(a) copy and check the data on the flight recorder every six months, for the purpose
of ensuring that such flight recorder is serviceable; and
(b) record and retain the results of such check for a period of five years calculated
from the date of such check.
Foil data recorder
91.04.11 The owner or operator of a South African registered aircraft which is
required to be equipped with a flight recorder in terms of Regulation 91.04.12 or
91.04.13, shall, if the flight recorder is a foil data recorder, replace the foil data
recorder with a digital flight recorder before or on 1 July 1998.
Cockpit voice recorder
91.04. 12(1) No owner or operator shall operate
(a) an aeroplane with a maximum certificated mass exceeding 5 700 kilograms,
classified for operation in the transport category, and to which an individual
certificate of airworthiness was first issued on or after 1 January 1981;
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(4) The cockpit voice recorder may be combined with a night data recorder referred
to in Regulation 91.04.13.
(5) An aircraft may commence a flight with the cockpit voice recorder inoperative.
Provided that
(a) the aircraft shall not take-off from an aerodrome where repairs or replacements to
such cockpit voice recorder can be made;
(b) the aircraft does not exceed six further consecutive flights with the cockpit voice
recorder unserviceable;
(c) not more than 48 hours have elapsed since the cockpit voice recorder became
unserviceable, and
(d) any flight data recorder required to be carried, is operative, unless the flight data
recorder is combined with a cockpit voice recorder.
Flight data recorder
91.04.13(1) No owner or operator of an aircraft specified in Document SA- CATSOPS 91, shall operate the aircraft unless such aircraft is equipped with the
appropriate flight data recorder as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91.
(2) The flight data recorder shall be capable of retaining the data recorded during at
least(a) in the case of an aeroplane, the last 25 hours of its operation; or
(b) in the case of a helicopter, the last 10 hours of its operation.
(3) The data obtained from a flight data recorder shall be obtained from aircraft
sources which enable accurate correlation with information displayed to the flight
crew.
(4) The flight data recorder shall start automatically to record the data prior to the
aircraft being capable of moving under its own power and shall stop automatically
after the aircraft is incapable of moving under its own power.
(5) An aircraft may commence a flight with the flight data recorder inoperative:
Provided that
(a) the aircraft shall not depart from an aerodrome where repairs or replacements to
such flight data recorder can be made;
(b) the aircraft does not exceed six further consecutive flights with the flight data
recorder unserviceable,
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(c) not more than 48 hours have elapsed since the flight data recorder became
unserviceable; and
(d) any cockpit voice recorder is combined with the flight data recorder.
Seats, seat safety belts, harnesses and child restraint devices
91.04.14(1) No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft unless such
aircraft is equipped, as applicable, with
(a) a seat or berth for each person who is aged two years or more;
(b) a safety belt with or without a diagonal shoulder strap, or a safety harness, for
use in each passenger seat for each passenger who is aged two or more;
(c) a restraining belt for use in each passenger berth;
(d) a child restraint device for each passenger who is less than two years of age;
(e) a safety harness for each flight deck crew member seat, incorporating a device
which will automatically restrain the occupant's torso in the event of rapid
deceleration; and
(f) a safety harness for each cabin crew member seat:
Provided that a safety belt with one diagonal shoulder strap is permitted if the
fitting of a safety harness is not reasonably practical.
(2) Seats for cabin crew members shall, where possible, be located near a floor-level
emergency exits, the additional cabin crew member seats required shall be
located such that a cabin crew member may best be able to assist passengers in
the rearward facing within 15 of the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
(3) If the pilot-in-command cannot see all the passenger seats in the aircraft from his
or her own seat, a means of indicating to all passengers and cabin crew members
that seat belts should be fastened, shall be installed.
(4) All safety harnesses and safety belts shall have a single point release.
Stowage of articles, baggage and cargo
91.04.15 No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft unless all
articles, baggage and cargo carried on board, except those items in use by either the
flight crew or by passengers, if such use is not prohibited by the pilot- in-command in
the interest of the safety of the aircraft or its occupants, are placed
(a) in a manner which prevents movement likely to cause injury or damage and does
not obstruct aisles and exits; or
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(a) is equipped with equipment to protect the eyes, nose and mouth of each flight
deck crew member while on flight deck duty and to provide oxygen for a period of
at least 15 minutes;
(b) has sufficient portable protective breathing equipment to protect the eyes, nose
and mouth of all cabin crew members required to be carried in terms of this part
and to provide breathing gas for a period of at least 15 minutes; and
(c) if no cabin crew member is carried, is equipped with portable protective breathing
equipment to protect the eyes, nose and mouth of one member of the flight deck
crew and to provide breathing gas for a period of at least 15 minutes.
(2) The supply of protective breathing equipment may be provided by supplemental
oxygen referred to in Regulation 91.04.19 or 91.04.19.
(3) Protective breathing equipment intended for use by flight deck crew, shall be
conveniently located on the flight deck and be easily accessible for immediate
use by each required flight deck crew member at his or her assigned duty station.
(4) Protective breathing equipment intended for use by cabin crew shall be installed
adjacent to each required cabin crew member duty station.
(5) Additional, easily accessible portable protective breathing equipment shall be
provided and located at, or adjacent to, the hand fire extinguishers referred to in
Regulation 91.04.21. Provided that where the fire extinguisher is located inside a
cargo compartment, the protective breathing equipment shall be stowed outside,
but adjacent to, the entrance to such compartment.
(6) Protective breathing equipment, while in use, shall not prevent communication,
where required.
Hand fire extinguishers
91.04.21 No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft unless such
aircraft is equipped with the appropriate hand fire extinguishers as prescribed in
Document SA-CATS-OPS 91.
Crash axes and crowbars
91.04.22(1) No owner or operator of an aeroplane with a maximum certificated mass
exceeding 5 700 kilograms or a maximum approved passenger seating configuration
of more than nine seats, shall operate the aeroplane unless such aeroplane is
equipped with at least one crash axe or crowbar located on the flight deck.
(2) If the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is more than 200
seats, an additional crash axe or crowbar shall be carried in the aeroplane and
located in or near the most rearward galley area.
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(ii)
a life jacket containing a survivor locator light, for each person on board,
stowed in a position easily accessible, with safety belt fastened, from the
seat or berth of the person for whose use it is provided, and an individual
infant floatation device, containing a survivor locator light, for use by each
infant on board; and
life jackets, other than the life jackets referred to in subparagraph (I), for 20
per cent of the number of persons on board such seaplane or amphibious
aeroplane, located in the passenger compartment near the emergency
exits and readily accessible;
(ii.)
(c) a helicopter, shall operate the helicopter over water beyond authoritative distance
from land, other than only for take-off and initial climb, or final approach and
landing, unless
(i.)
(ii.)
A. an individual infant floatation device containing a locator survival light for use by
each infant on board, stowed in a position easily accessible for the person in
which care the infant is; and
B. floatation equipment to ensure a safe ditching: Provided that in the case of aerial
spraying operations over water, the owner or operator may apply to the
Commissioner for an exemption in terms of Part 11.
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Life rafts and survival radio equipment for extended over-water flights
91.04.28(1) No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft over water
at a distance equivalent to
(a) 120 minutes at normal cruising speed or 400 miles, whichever is the lesser, away
from land, if such aircraft has four engines,
(b) 90 minutes at normal cruising speed or 300 miles, whichever is the lesser, away
from land, if such aircraft has three turbine engines, or
(c) 30 minutes at normal cruising speed or 100 miles, whichever is the lesser, away
from land, in the case of aircraft other than the aircraft referred to in paragraph (a)
or (b), unless such aircraft is equipped with life rafts sufficient to accommodate all
persons on board.
(2) The conditions, rules, requirements, procedures or standards for the life rafts and
survival radio equipment for such extended over-water flights, shall be as
prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91.
Survival equipment
91.04.29(1) No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft over areas
where search and rescue would be especially difficult, unless such aircraft is
equipped with the appropriate survival equipment as prescribed in Document SACATS-OPS 91.
(2) The conditions, rules, requirements, procedures or standards for the survival
equipment shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91.
Seaplanes, amphibious aeroplanes and amphibious helicopters
91.04.30 No owner or operator of a seaplane, amphibious aeroplane or amphibious
helicopter shall operate the seaplane, amphibious aeroplane or amphibious
helicopter on water, unless it is equipped with
(a) a sea anchor and other equipment necessary to facilitate mooring, anchoring or
manoeuvring such seaplane, amphibious aeroplane or amphibious helicopter on
water, appropriate to its size, mass and handling characteristics; and
(b) equipment for making the sound signals prescribed in the international
Regulations for Prevention of Collisions at Sea, where applicable.
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(5) An aircraft which is being overtaken has the right-of-way and the overtaking
aircraft, whether climbing, descending or in horizontal flight, shall keep out of the
way of the overtaken aircraft by altering its heading to the right, and no
subsequent change in the relative positions of the two aircraft shall absolve the
overtaking aircraft from its obligation until such aircraft is entirely past and clear:
Provided that where a right-hand circuit is being followed at an aerodrome, the
overtaking aircraft shall alter its heading to the left.
(6) An aircraft in flight or operating on the ground or water, shall give way to other
aircraft landing or on final approach to land.
(7) When two or more heavier-than-air aircraft are approaching an aerodrome for the
purpose of landing, the aircraft at the higher level shall give way to the aircraft at
the lower level, but the latter aircraft shall not take advantage of this provision to
cut in front of another aircraft which is on final approach to land, or to overtake
such aircraft.
(a) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a), power-driven heavier-than-air
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Aircraft speed
91.06.9(1) No person shall, outside controlled airspace and between 1 000 feet
above the surface and flight level 100, fly an aircraft at an indicated air speed of more
than 250 knots.
(2) Unless otherwise authorised or required by an air traffic service unit, no person
shall fly an aircraft within a control zone or an aerodrome traffic zone at an
indicated air speed of more than
(a) 160 knots, in the case of a reciprocating-engine aircraft; or
(b) 200 knots, in the case of a turbine-powered aircraft:
Provided that if the minimum safe indicated air speed for a particular flight is
greater than the maximum indicated air speed prescribed in this regulation, the
aircraft may be flown at the minimum safe indicated air speed.
Lights to be displayed by aircraft
91.06.10 The lights which have to be displayed by aircraft by night, on water or on
the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome, shall be as prescribed in SA-CATS-OPS 91.
Taxi rules
91.06.11(1) Aircraft which are landing or taking off, shall be given right of way by
other aircraft and by vehicles.
(2) An aircraft shall, after landing, unless otherwise authorised or instructed by an air
traffic service unit, move clear of the runway in use, as soon as it is safely
possible to do so.
(3) A vehicle which is towing an aircraft shall be given right of way by the vehicles
and by other aircraft which are not landing or taking off.
(4) An aircraft shall be given right of way by a vehicle which is not towing an aircraft.
(5) An aircraft or vehicle which is obliged by the provisions of this regulation to give
right of way to another aircraft, shall, if necessary in the circumstances in order to
do so, reduce its speed or stop.
(6) If danger of collision exists between an aircraft or vehicle and another aircraft or
vehicle, such of the following procedures as may be appropriate in the
circumstances, shall be applied:
(a) when the two are approaching head-on or nearly head-on, each shall turn to the
right;
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(b) when one is overtaking the other, the one which is overtaking shall keep out of
the way of the other by turning to the right, and no subsequent change in the
relative positions of the two shall absolve the one which is overtaking from this
obligation, until it Is finally past and clear of the other;
(c) subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (2), when the two are converging, the
one which has the other on its right, shall give way to the other and shall avoid
crossing ahead of the other unless passing well clear of it.
(7) A vehicle moving along a runway or taxiway, shall as far as practicable keep to
the right side of the runway or taxiway.
(8) When an aircraft is being towed, the person in charge of the towing vehicle shall
be responsible for compliance with the provisions of this regulation.
(9) Nothing in this regulation shall relieve the pilot-in-command of an aircraft or the
person in charge of a vehicle, from the responsibility for taking such action as will
best aid to avert collision.
Operation on and in the vicinity of aerodrome
91.06.12(1) The pilot-in command of an aircraft operated on or in the vicinity of an
aerodrome, shall be responsible for compliance with the following rules :
(a) observe other aerodrome traffic for the purpose of avoiding collision;
(b) conform with or avoid the pattern of traffic formed by other aircraft in operation;
(c) make all turns to the left when approaching for a landing and after taking off,
unless otherwise instructed by an air traffic service unit, or unless a right hand
circuit is in force: Provided that a helicopter may, with due regard to other factors
and when it is in the interest of safety, execute a circuit to the opposite side;
(d) land and take-off, as far as practicable, into the wind unless otherwise instructed
by an air traffic service unit;
(e) fly across the aerodrome or its environs at a height of not less than 2 000 feet
above the level of such aerodrome: Provided that if circumstances require such
pilot-in-command to fly at a height of less than 2 000 feet above the level of the
aerodrome, he or she shall conform with the traffic pattern at such aerodrome;
and
(f) taxi in accordance with the ground control procedures which may be in force at
the aerodrome.
(2) If an aerodrome control tower is in operation, the pilot-in-command shall also,
whilst the aircraft is within the aerodrome traffic zone
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(a) maintain a continuous radio watch on the frequency of the aerodrome control
tower responsible for providing aerodrome control service at the aerodrome,
establish two way radio communication as necessary for aerodrome control
purposes and obtain such clearances for his or her movements as may be
necessary for the protection of aerodrome traffic; or
(b) if this is not possible, keep a watch for and comply with such clearances and
instructions as may be issued by visual means.
(3) If an aerodrome flight information service unit is in operation, the pilot- incommand shall also, whilst the aircraft is within the aerodrome traffic zone
(a) maintain a continuous radio watch on the frequency of the aerodrome flight
information service unit responsible for providing aerodrome flight information
service at the aerodrome, establish two-way radio communication as necessary
for aerodrome flight information service purposes and obtain information in
respect of the surface wind, runway in use and altimeter setting and in respect of
aerodrome traffic on the manoeuvring area and in the aerodrome traffic zone; or
(b) if this is not possible, keep a watch for visual signals which may be displayed or
may be issued by the aerodrome flight information service unit.
(4) An aircraft which is unable to communicate by radio shall, before landing at an
aerodrome, make a circuit of the aerodrome for the purpose of observing the
traffic, and reading such ground markings and signals as may be displayed
thereon, unless it has the consent of the appropriate air traffic service unit to do
otherwise.
Signals
91.06.13 The pilot-in-command of an aircraft in flight shall, upon observing or
receiving any of the signals as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91, take such
action as may be required by the interpretation of the signal as prescribed in
Document SA-CATS-OPS 91.
Water operations
91.06.14(1) In areas in which the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions
at Sea are in force, aircraft operated on the water shall comply with the provisions
thereof.
(2) Aircraft in flight near the surface of the water shall, as far as possible, keep clear
of all vessels and avoid impeding their navigation.
Reporting position
91.06.15 The pilot-in-command of an aircraft
(a) flying in controlled airspace;
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(c) if such communication is not possible, broadcasts are made on the designated
radio frequency giving information on the aircraft's intention to enter the airspace,
and such pilot-in-command shall ensure that, while the aircraft is within the
advisory airspace and until it departs therefrom, a continuous radio watch is
maintained on the designated radio frequency and that
(i.)
(ii.)
(iii.)
B.
(a) comply with any air traffic control clearance which is obtained, unless the pilot
obtains an amended clearance;
(b) not operate the aircraft contrary to an air traffic control instruction in an area in
which an air traffic control service is provided: and
(c) when deviating from an air traffic control clearance or instruction, notify the air
traffic control unit of the deviation, as soon as practicable.
Prohibited areas
91.06.19(1) The Commissioner may by notice in the AIP, AIC or NOTAM declare any
area to be a prohibited area and shall, for the purposes of the prohibition contained in
sub-regulation (2), when so declaring an area to be a prohibited area
(a) specify a height above the ground surface of such area; or
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(b) specify an altitude in respect of such area, as the Commissioner may deem
expedient, in the notice in question.
(2) No person shall fly any aircraft whatsoever in the air space above a prohibited
area
(a) below the height specified in terms of sub-regulation (l)(a);
(b) or below the altitude specified in terms of sub-regulation (l)(b), as the case may
be, in respect of the prohibited area in question.
Restricted areas
91.06.20 (1) The Commissioner may by notice in the AIP, AIC or NOTAM declare
any area to be a restricted area and shall, when so declaring an area to be a
restricted area, specify in the notice in question
(a) the nature and extent of the restriction applicable in respect of the area in
question; and
(b) the authorisation under which flights in such restricted area shall be permitted.
(2) No person shall, in contravention of a restriction contemplated in sub-regulation
(l)(a), fly any aircraft to which the said restriction applies, in any restricted area,
unless the flight in question has been permitted by virtue of an authorisation
contemplated in sub-regulation (l)(b).
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Flight
visibility
Five km
Distance
from clouds
Horizontally:
2 000 feet
Vertically:
500 feet
Within
the Five km
aerodrome
traffic
zone
(which does not
also comprise a
control zone or
part of a control
zone) or an
aerodrome
traffic area
Horizontally:
2 000 feet
Vertically:
500 feet
Footnotes:
(1) Minima not applicable to special VFR flights
(2) When the pilot in an aircraft maintains two-way radio communication with the
aerodrome control tower or aerodrome flight information service unit, the pilot
may, in respect of a cross-country flight, leave or enter the aerodrome traffic zone
or aerodrome traffic area, as the case may be, when the ground visibility is equal
to or greater than five km and the ceiling is equal to or higher than 500 feet.
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Airspace excluding
control zones or
aerodrome traffic
zones or aerodrome
traffic areas
At or below 1 000 feet
above the surface, by
day only
At or below 1 500 feet
above the surface, by
night only
Flight visibility
Distance from
clouds
Ground visibility
and
ceili
ng
Clear of cloud
Five km
Horizontally;
2 000 feet
Vertically;
500 feet
Airspace excluding
control zones or
aerodrome traffic
zones or aerodrome
traffic areas
From above 1 000 feet
to 1 500 feet above the
surface, by day only
Flight visibility
Five km
Distance from
clouds
Horizontally;
2 000 feet
Vertically;
500 feet
Horizontally
2 000 feet
Vertically
500 feet
Horizontally: One
and a half km
Vertically;
1 000 feet
Horizontally: One
and a half km
Vertically
1 000 feet
Ground visibility
an
d
ce
ili
ng
-
(b) In the case of helicopters, under conditions of visibility and distance from cloud
equal to, or greater than, those conditions specified in the following table:
Provided that the limitations as contained in the above-mentioned table shall not
prevent a helicopter from conducting hover-in-ground-effect or hover-taxi
operations if the visibility is not less than 100 m.
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Airspace
Control zones (1)
Flight
Distance from
visibility
clouds
Two and a Horizontally:
half km
1 000 feet
Vertically;
Clear of cloud
Within
an Two and
aerodrome traffic half km
zone (which does
not also comprise
a control zone or
part of a control
zone)
or
an
aerodrome traffic
area
a Horizontally;
1 000 feet
Vertically;
Clear of cloud
Airspace excluding
Flight visibility
control zones or
aerodrome traffic
zones or aerodrome
traffic areas
At or below 1 500 feet One km
above the surface, by
day only
At or below 1 500 feet Five km
above the surface, by
night only
Above 1 500 feet above Five km
the surface, by day and
night
Ground visibility
and ceiling
Clear of cloud
Clear of cloud
Horizontally:
2 000 feet
Vertically
500 feet
Footnote:
(1) Minima not applicable to special VFR flights.
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(2) The aerodrome operating minima for a specific type of approach and landing
procedure shall be applicable if(a) the ground equipment shown on the respective instrument approach and landing
chart required for the intended procedure, is operative;
(b) the aircraft systems required for the type of approach, are operative;
(c) the required aircraft performance criteria are complied with; and
(d) the flight deck crew is qualified to conduct the type of approach.
(3) In determining or establishing the aerodrome operating minima applicable to any
particular operation, the owner or operator shall take into account
(a) the type, performance and handling characteristics of the aircraft;
(b) the composition of the flight deck crew, their competence and experience;
(c) the dimensions and characteristics of the runways or touch-down areas which
may be selected for use;
(d) the adequacy and performance of the available visual and non-visual ground
aids;
(e) the equipment available in the aircraft for the purpose of navigation or control of
the flight path, as appropriate, during the take-off, approach, flare, landing or
missed approach;
(f) the obstacles in the approach and missed approach areas and the climbout areas and necessary clearance;
(g) the obstacle clearance altitude or height for the instrument approach procedures;
(h) the means to determine and report meteorological conditions; and
(i) the availability and adequacy of emergency services.
Threshold crossing height
91.07.6(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall establish operational
procedures designed to ensure that the aircraft being used to conduct precision
approaches, crosses the threshold by a safe margin, with such aircraft in the landing
configuration and attitude.
(2) The operational procedures applicable to Category I and Category III
approaches, shall be approved by the Commissioner.
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(7) The owner or operator shall select two destination alternate aerodromes when (a) the appropriate weather reports or forecasts for the destination aerodrome, or any
combination thereof, indicate that during a period commencing one hour before
and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival, the weather conditions
will be below the applicable planning minima; or no meteorological information
can be obtained.
(8) The owner or operator shall specify the destination alternate aerodrome in the air
traffic service flight plan referred to in Regulation 91.03.3.
(9) The owner or operator shall specify en route alternate aerodromes for extendedrange operations with twin-engine aeroplanes and shall specify such en route
alternate aerodromes in the air traffic service flight plan referred to in Regulation
91.03.3.
(10)
When planning a flight, the owner or operator shall only select an aerodrome
as a destination or alternate aerodrome, if the appropriate weather reports or
forecasts, or a combination thereof, are at or above the applicable planning
minima for a period of one hour before to one hour after the estimated time of
arrival of the aircraft at the aerodrome.
Planning minima for IFR flights
91.07.8(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall not select an aerodrome as a
take-off alternate aerodrome for a flight to be conducted, wholly or partly in
accordance with IFR under IMC unless the appropriate weather reports or forecasts,
or any combination thereof, indicate that, during a period commencing one hour
before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the
weather conditions will be at or above the applicable landing minima prescribed in
Regulation 91.07.5. (Refer Part 135 135.7.7 CATs Ops)
(2) The ceiling shall be taken into account when the only approaches available are
non-precision or circling approaches.
(3) Any limitation related to one-engine inoperative operations shall be taken into
account.
(4) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall only select the destination aerodrome or
destination alternate aerodrome when the appropriate weather reports or
forecasts, or any combination thereof, indicate that, during a period commencing
one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the
aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at, or above, the applicable planning
minima as follows:
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(a) VFR flights are conducted in accordance with the visual flight rules prescribed in
subpart 6; and
(b) special VFR flights are not commenced when the visibility is less than 3 km and
not otherwise conducted when the visibility is less than the visibility prescribed in
Regulation 91.06.22(d).
Mass and balance
91.07.11(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that, during any phase
of the operation, the loading, mass and the centre of gravity of the aircraft complies
with the limitations specified in the approved aircraft flight manual referred to in
Regulation 91.03.2, or the operations manual referred to in Part 121, Part 121 or Part
135, as the case may be, if the limitations therein are more restrictive.
(2) The owner or operator shall establish the mass and the centre of gravity of the
aircraft by actual weighing prior to initial entry into operation and thereafter at
intervals of five years.
(3) The accumulated effects of modifications and repairs on the mass and balance of
the aircraft, shall be accounted for and properly documented by the owner or
operator.
(4) The aircraft shall be weighed in accordance with the provisions of sub-regulation
(2), if the effect of modifications on the mass and balance is not accurately
known.
(5) The owner or operator shall determine the mass of all operating items and flight
crew members included in the dry operating mass of the aircraft, by weighing or
by using the appropriate standard mass as prescribed in Document SA-CATSOPS91.
(6) The influence of the mass of the operating items and night crew members
referred to in sub-regulation (5), on the centre of gravity of the aircraft shall be
determined by the owner or operator of such aircraft.
(7) The owner or operator shall establish the mass of the traffic load, including any
ballast, by actual weighing, or determine the mass of the traffic load in
accordance with the appropriate standard passenger and baggage mass as
prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91.
(8) The owner or operator shall determine the mass of the fuel load by using the
actual specific gravity or, if approved by the Commissioner, a standard specific
gravity.
Fuel and oil supply
91.07.12(1) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall not commence a flight unless
he or she is satisfied that the aircraft carries at least the planned amount of fuel and
oil to complete the flight safely, taking into account operating and meteorological
conditions and the expected delays.
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(2) The pilot-in-command shall ensure that the amount of usable fuel remaining inflight, is not less than the fuel required to proceed to an aerodrome or, in the case
of a helicopter, a suitable landing place, where a safe landing can be made.
(3) If the usable fuel on board the aircraft is less than the final reserve fuel, the pilotin-command of such aircraft, shall
(a) in the case of an aeroplane, declare an emergency; or
(b) in the case of a helicopter, land as soon as possible.
(3) The method of calculating the amount of fuel to be carried for each flight shall be
as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91.
Refuelling or defuelling with passengers on board
91.07.13(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that the aircraft is not
refuelled or defuelled with aviation gasoline or wide-cut type fuel when passengers
are embarking, on board or disembarking such aircraft.
(2) In cases other than the cases referred to in sub-regulation (1), necessary
precautions shall be taken and the aircraft shall be properly manned by qualified
personnel ready to initiate and direct an evacuation of such aircraft by the most
practical and expeditious means available.
Smoking in aircraft
91.07.14(1) No person shall smoke in a South African registered aircraft or in any
foreign registered aircraft when in or over the Republic, unless and except in so far
as smoking is permissible in accordance with the aircraft flight manual referred to in
Regulation 91.03.2 or other equivalent document for such aircraft.
(2) In an aircraft in which smoking is permitted, smoking shall nevertheless be
prohibited
(a) when the aircraft is on the ground;
(b) during take-off; and
(c) during an approach to land.
(3) In all South African registered aircraft, notices shall be displayed in a prominent
place in all passenger and flight crew compartments, indicating to what extent,
and when, smoking is permitted or prohibited.
Instrument approach and departure procedures
91.07.15(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that the instrument
approach and departure procedures, established by the appropriate authority of the
State in which the aerodrome to be used, is located, are used.
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(2) Notwithstanding the provisions prescribed in sub-regulation (1), a pilot-incommand may accept an air traffic control clearance to deviate from a published
approach or departure route: Provided that (a) obstacle clearance criteria are observed and full account is taken of the operating
conditions; and
(b)
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(3) The owner or operator shall ensure that, after take-off, passengers are reminded
of(a) whether smoking is prohibited or permitted; and
(b) the use of safety belts or safety harnesses.
(4) The owner or operator shall ensure that, before landing, passengers are
reminded of(a) whether smoking is prohibited or permitted;
(b) the use of safety belts or safety harnesses;
(c) when the back of the seat is to be in the upright position and the tray table
stowed, if applicable;
(d) the re-stowage of carry-on baggage; and
(e) any restrictions on the use of portable electronic devices.
(5) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that, after landing, passengers
are reminded of-
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relevant instruction and has been declared competent to control the helicopter
while stationary on the ground, by a Category B flight instructor, at the controls of
such helicopter.
Starting of engines
91.07.28(1) Except when the brakes are serviceable and are fully applied, chocks
shall be placed in front of the wheels of an aeroplane before starting the engine or
engines, and a competent person shall be seated at the controls when the engine or
engines are running.
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(2) Where the pilot of an aeroplane is the only competent person present and it has
been necessary for chocks to be used, he or she shall ensure that the controls of
the aeroplane are left unattended for as short a time as possible when removing
the chocks.
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(b) the flight deck crew qualification is specific to the operation and the aircraft type.
Operating procedures for low-visibility operations
91.08.5(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall establish procedures and
instructions to be used for low-visibility take-offs and Category II and III operations.
(2) The pilot-in-command shall satisfy himself or herself that (a) the status of the visual and non-visual facilities is sufficient prior to commencing a
low-visibility take-off or a Category II or III approach;
(b) appropriate low-visibility procedures are in force according to information
received from an air traffic service unit, before commencing a low visibility takeoff or a Category II or III approach; and
(c) the flight deck crew members are properly qualified to carry out a low visibility
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(b) Class 2 helicopter - a helicopter with performance such that, in case of critical
power unit failure, the helicopter is able to safely continue the flight, except when
the failure occurs prior to a defined point after takeoff or after a defined point
before landing, in which case a forced landing may be required; and
(c) Class 3 helicopter - a helicopter with performance such that, in case of power unit
failure at any point in the flight profile, a forced landing has to be performed.
Aeroplane performance classification
91.09.4 For performance purposes, aeroplanes are classified as follows:
(a) Class A aeroplanes
(i)
(ii)
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SA CATS OPS 91
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1. GENERAL
Section 22A of the Aviation Act, 1962 (as amended by section 5 of the Aviation Laws
Amendment Act, 1996) empowers the Commissioner for Civil Aviation to issue technical
standards for civil aviation on the matters which are prescribed by regulation.
2. PURPOSE
Document SA-CATS-OPS 91 contains the standards, rules, requirements, methods,
specifications, characteristics and procedures which are applicable in respect of general
operating and flight rules.
Each reference to a technical standard in this document, is a reference to the
corresponding regulation in the Civil Aviation Regulations, 1997, for example,
technical standard 91.02.8 refers to regulation 8 of Subpart 02 of Part 91 of the
Regulations.
The abbreviation CAR is used throughout this document when referring to any
regulation.
The abbreviation TS refers to any technical standard.
3. SCHEDULES AND NOTES
Guidelines and recommendations in support of any particular technical standard, are
contained in schedules to, and/or notes inserted throughout the technical standards.
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91.04.24 MEGAPHONES
(1) Megaphones
91.04.25 EMERGENCY LIGHTING
(1) Emergency lighting
91.04.26 AUTOMATIC EMERGENCY LOCATOR TRANSMITTER
(1) Distress frequencies
(2) Types of ELT's
(3) Installation
91.4.28
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An owner or operator must have a list containing the following minimum information
regarding the emergency and survival equipment carried on board:
(1) The number, colour and type of life rafts
and pyrotechnics;
(2) details of emergency medical supplies;
(3) water supplies; and
(4) type and frequencies of emergency portable radio equipment.
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91.2.7
1.
Category II approach
A Category III approach is divided into a 1) Category III A approach, which is an ILS approach procedure which provides for
an approach with either a decision height lower than 100 feet or with no decision
height and with a RVR of not less than 200 m,
2) Category III B approach, which is an ILS approach procedure which provides for
an approach with either a decision height lower than 50 feet or with no decision
height and with a RVR of less than 200 m but not less than 50 m, and
3) Category III C approach which is an ILS approach procedure which provides for
an approach with no decision height and no RVR limitations.
3.
For the purposes of CAR 91 02.7(l)(s) 1) an adequate aerodrome is an aerodrome licensed in terms of Part 139 or is found
to be equivalent to the safety requirements prescribed in Part 139; and
2) a suitable aerodrome is an adequate aerodrome with weather reports, or
forecasts or any combination thereof, indicating that the weather conditions are at
or above operating minima, as specified in the operation specifications, the field
condition reports indicate that a safe landing can be accomplished at the time of
the intended operation and the facilities necessary to complete an approach at
such aerodrome is operational.
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91.3.4
1)
(2) An air traffic service flight plan filed prior to departure must contain the following
items:
(d) Aircraft identification and transponder data;
(e) flight rules and type of flight;
(c) number and type(s) of aircraft and wake turbulence category;
(f) radio communication, navigation and approach-aid equipment;
(g) aerodrome of departure and time;
(h) flight information region boundaries and estimated times;
(i) cruising speed and flight level;
(j) route to be followed;
(k) aerodrome of destination and estimated times of arrival;
(l) alternate aerodrome(s);
(m) alerting action required;
(n) fuel endurance;
(o) total number of persons on board;
(p) emergency and survival equipment and colour of aircraft;
(q) other pertinent information; and
(r) name, postal address, telephone and telefax number of the owner or operator of
the aircraft which must be completed in field 18 of the standard flight plan form.
(2) An air traffic service flight plan filed in flight to comply with CAR 91.03.4(6)
must contain the following items:
(a) Aircraft registration;
(b) flight rules;
(c) type of aircraft;
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FLIGHT FOLIO
91.3.5
1.
1) An owner or operator must retain the following information for each flight in the
form of a flight folio:
(a) Aircraft registration;
(b) date;
(c) name(s) of flight crew member(s);
(d) duty assignment of flight crew member(s);
(e) place of departure;
(f) place of arrival;
(g) time of departure (off-block time);
(h) time of arrival (on-block time);
(i) hours of flight;
(j) nature of flight;
(k) incidents, observations (if any);
(l) signature of pilot-in-command;
(m) the current maintenance statement giving the aeroplane maintenance status of
what maintenance, scheduled or out of phase, is next due;
(n) all outstanding deferred defects which affect the operation of the aeroplane;
(o) fuel used; and
(p) fuel uplift.
(2) The owner or operator need not keep a flight folio or parts thereof, if the relevant
information is available in other documentation.
(3) The owner or operator must ensure that all entries are made concurrently and
that they are permanent in nature.
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91.04.10
1.
FLIGHT RECORDER
2.
Parameters
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Types of aircraft
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(i) time
(ii) altitude
(iii) airspeed;
(iv) normal acceleration;
(v) heading; and
(vi) pitch.
(5) In the case of an aeroplane or helicopter referred to in paragraph (1), in respect
of which an individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued before 1
January 1987, the flight data recorder may be combined with the cockpit voice
recorder.
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91.4.16
1.
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Note:
(1) All, eye irrigator whilst not required to be carried in the First Aid kit should,
Number of passenger
Seats isntalled
0 to 99
100 to 199
200 to 299
300 and more
Number of standard
First Aid Kits required
1
2
3
4
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91.04.17
1.
1) The amount of oxygen must be calculated using an average flow rate of at least 3
litres Standard Temperure Pressure Dry (STPD)/minute/person and provided for
the entire flight after cabin depressurisation at cabin altitudes of more than 8 000
ft for at least 2% of the passengers carried, but in no case for less than one
person. There must be a sufficient number of dispensing units, but in no case
less than two, with a means for cabin crew to use the supply.
2) The amount of first aid oxygen required for a particular operation must be
determined on the basis of cabin pressure altitudes and flight duration, consistent
with the operating procedures established for each operation and route.
2.
Oxygen equipment
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General
(1) An owner or operator may not operate a pressurised aircraft above 10 000 feet
unless supplemental oxygen equipment, capable of storing and dispensing the
oxygen supplies required by this technical standard, is provided.
(2) The amount of supplemental oxygen required required must be determined on
the basis of cabin altitude, flight duration and the assumption that a cabin
pressurisation failure will occur at the altitude or point of flight that is most critical
from the standpoint of oxygen need, and that, after the failure, the aircraft will
descend in accordance with emergency procedures specified in the aircraft
flight manual to a safe altitude for the route to be flown that will allow continued
safe flight and landing.
(3) Following a cabin pressurisation failure, the cabin altitude must be considered the
same as the aircraft altitude, unless it is demonstrated to the Commissioner that
no probable failure of the cabin or pressurisation system will result in a cabin
pressure altitude equal to the aircraft altitude. Under these circumstances, this
lower cabin pressure altitude may be used as a basis for determination oxygen
supply.
2.
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(b) When operating above 25 000 feet there must be provided sufficient spare outlets
and/or portable oxygen units are to be distributed evenly throughout the cabin to
Ensure immediate availability of oxygen to each required cabin crew member
regardless of his or her location at the time of cabin pressurisation failure.
(c) When operating above 25 000 feet there must be an oxygen dispensing unit
connected to oxygen supply terminals immediately available to each occupant,
wherever seated. The total number of dispensing units and outlets must exceed
the number of sets by at least 10%. The extra units are to be evenly distributed
throughout the cabin.
(d) The oxygen supply requirements, as specified in paragraph 3 for aircraft not
certificated to fly at altitudes above 25 000 feet, may be reduced to the entire
flight time between 10 000 feet and 14 000 feet cabin pressure altitudes for all
required cabin crew members and for at least 10% of the passengers if, at all
points along the route to be flown, the aircraft is able to descend safely within 4
minutes to a cabin pressure altitude of 14 000 feet.
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2. All required cabin crew Entire flight time when cabin pressure altitude exceeds 13
members
000 feet but not less than 30 minutes (Note 2), and entire
flight time when cabin pressure altitude is greater than 10
000 feet but does not exceed 13 000 feet after the 30
minutes at these altitudes.
3. 100% of passengers
10 minutes or the entire flight time when the cabin pressure
(Note 5)
altitude exceeds 15 000 feet whichever is the greater (Note
4)
4. 30% of passengers
Entire flight time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds
(Note 5)
14 000 feet but does not exceed 15 000 feet.
5. 10% of passengers
Entire flight time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds
(Note 5)
10 000 feet but does not exceed 14 000 feet after the first
30 minutes at these altitudes.
Note 1:
The supply provided must take account of the cabin pressure altitude and
descent profile for the routes concerned.
Note 2:
The required minimum supply is that quantity of oxygen, necessary for a
constant rate of descent from the aircraft's maximum certificated operating
altitude to 10 000 feet in 10 minutes and followed by 20 minutes at 10 000 feet.
Note 3:
The required minimum supply is that the guantity of oxygen necessary for
a constant rate of descent from the aircraft's maximum certificated operating
altitude to 10 000 feet in 10 minutes and followed by 100 minutes at 10 000
feel. The oxygen required in CAR 91.04.20 may be included in determinining
the supply required
Note 4
The required minimum supply is that guantity of oxygen, necessary for a
constant rate of descent from the aircraft's maximum certificated operating
altitude to 15 000 feet.
Note 5:
For the purpose of this table passengers' means passengers actually
carried and includes infants.
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1. General
1) An owner or operator may not operate a nonpressurised aircraft at altitudes above
10 000 feet and up to 12 000 feet for longer than 60 minutes, or above 12 000 feet
unless supplemental oxygen equipment, capable of storing and dispensing the
oxygen supplies required, is provided.
2) The amount of supplemental oxygen for sustenance required for a particular
operation must be determined on the basis of flight altitudes and flight duration,
consistent with the operating procedures established for each operation in the
operations manual and with the routes to be flown, and with the emergency
procedures specified in the operations manual, if applicable.
2.
1) Flight deck crew members. Each flight deck crew member on flight deck duty must
be supplied with supplemental oxygen in accordance with paragraph 3. If all
occupants of flight deck seats are supplied from the flight crew source of oxygen
supply, then they are to be considered as flight deck crew members on flight deck
duty for the purpose of oxygen supply.
2) Cabin crew members, additional flight crew members and passengers. Cabin crew
members and passengers must be supplied with oxygen in accordance with
paragraph 3. Cabin crew members carried in addition to the minimum number of
cabin crew members required, and additional flight crew members, are to be
considered as passengers for the purpose of oxygen supply.
Note: For the purpose of this table passengers means passengers actually carried and includes infants
under the Age of 2.
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are
accessible
under
any cargo
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2.
An owner or operator may not operate an aircraft unless hand fire extinguishers
Are provided for use in flight crew, Passenger and, as applicable, cargo
compartments and galleys in accordance with the following:
1) The type and quantity of extinguishing agent must be suitable for the kinds of
fires likely to occur in the compartment where the extinguisher is intended to be
used and, for personnel compartments, must minimise the hazard of toxic gas
concentration.
2) At
least
one
hand
fire
extinguisher,
containing
Halon
1211
(bromochlorodifluoromethane, CBrCIF,), or equivalent as the extinguishing agent,
must be conveniently located on the flight deck for use by the flight deck crew.
3) At least one hand fire extinguisher must be located in, or readily accessible for
use in, each galley not located on the main passenger deck.
4) At least one readily accessible hand fire extinguisher must be available for use in
each Class A or Class B cargo or baggage compartment and in each Class cargo
compartment that is accessible to flight crew members in flight.
At least the following number of hand fire extinguishers must be conveniently
located in the passenger compartment(s):
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Number of
extinguishers
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
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10)Where two or more hand fire extinguishers are required in the passenger
compartments and their location is not otherwise dictated by consideration
of subparagraph (7) above, an extinguisher must be located near each
end of the cabin with the remainder distributed through the cabin as
evenly as is practicable.
Unless an extinguisher is clearly visible, its location must be indicated by a
placard or sign, and appropriate symbols may be used to supplement such
a placard or sign.
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91.4.24 MEGAPHONES
1. Megaphones
1) An owner or operator may not operate an aircraft with a Maximum approved
passenger seating configuration of more than 60 seats and carrying one or more
passengers unless it is equipped with portable battery-powered megaphones
readily accessible for use by flight crew members during an emergency
evacuation, to the following scales:
(a) For each passenger deck:
Passenger seating
configuration
61 to 99
100 or more
Number of
Megaphones required
1
2
(b) For aircraft with more than one passenger deck, in all cases when the total
passenger seating configuration is more than 60 seats, at least 1 megaphone is
required.
2) When one megaphone is required, it must be readily accessible from a cabin
crew member's assigned seat. Where two or more megaphones are required,
they must be suitably distributed in the passenger cabin(s) and readily accessible
to cabin crew members assigned to direct emergency evacuations. This does
not necessarily require megaphones to be positioned such that they can be
reached by a cabin crew member when strapped in a cabin crew member's seat.
3) Unless the megaphone is clearly visible, its location must be indicated by a
placard or sign, and appropriate symbols may be used to supplement the placard
or sign.
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91.04.25
1.
EMERGENCY LIGHTING
Emergency lighting
(v)
(b) for aircraft which, in accordance with their individual certificate of airworthiness
have a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of less than 20 seats
or are certificated to TS 21.02.3(3) and (4).
(i.)
(ii.)
(iii.)
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(c) for aircraft which in accordance with their individual certificate of airworthiness
have a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of less than 20 seats
and are not certificated to TS 21.02.3(3) and (4).
(i)
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91.04.26
Distress frequencies
An owner or operator must ensure that the automatic emergency locator transmitter
(ELT) is capable of transmittirig on the distress frequencies 121.5 MHz and 243
MHz, except that, where the whole of a proposed flight is within an area where, for
search and rescue purposes, only one of these frequencies is required, the use of
that single frequency may be specifically authorised, if so agreed by the authority
responsible for search and rescue in the area concerned.
2.
Types of ELT's
Types of ELT's are defined as follows:
2.1
This type of ELT is intended to be permanently attached to the aircraft before and
after a crash and is designed to aid search and rescue teams in locating a crash site;
2.2 Automatic Portable (ELT (AP))
This type of ELT is intended to be rigidly attached to the aircraft before a crash, but
readily removable from the aircraft after a crash. It functions as an ELT during the
crash sequence. If the EL does not employ an integral antenna, the aircraft-mounted
antenna may be disconnected and an auxiliary antenna (stores on the ELT case)
attached to the ELT. The ELT can be tethered to a survivor or a life-raft. This type of
ELT is intended to aid search and rescue teams in locating the crash site or
survivor(s);
2.3 Automatic Deployable (ELT (AD))
This type of ELT is intended to be rigidly attached to the aircraft before the crash and
automatically ejected and deployed after the crash sensor has determined that a
crash has occurred. This type of ELT should float in water and is intended to aid
search and rescue teams in locating the crash site.
3.
Installation
To minimise the possibility of damage in the event of crash impact, the ELT should be
rigidly fixed to the aircraft structure as far aft as practicable with its antenna and
connections so arranged as to maximise the probability of the signal being radiated
after a crash.
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Equipment
1) An owner or operator must ensure that the aircraft is equipped with sufficient life
rafts to carry all persons on board. Unless excess rafts or enough capacity are
provided, the buoyancy and seating capacity beyond the rated capacity of the
rafts must accommodate all occupants of the aircraft in the event of a loss of one
raft of the largest rated capacity.
2) The life rafts must be equipped with
(a) a survivor locator light; and
(b) life saving equipment including means of sustaining life as appropriate to the
flight to be undertaken.
3) The following should be included in each life-raft
(a) means for maintaining buoyancy;
(b) a sea anchor;
(c) life-lines and means of attaching one life-raft to another;
(d) paddles for life-rafts with a capacity of 6 or less;
(e) means of protecting the occupants from the elements;
(f) a water resistant torch;
(g) signalling equipment to make the pyrotechnical distress signals prescribed in
CAR 91.06.13;
(h) for each 4, or fraction of 4, persons which the life-raft is designed to carry:
-
(i)
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5) Unless the life rafts and survival radio equipment are clearly visible, its location
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91.04.29
1.
SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT
Survival equipment
An owner or operator may not operate an aircraft across areas in which search
and rescue would he especially difficult unless it is equipped with the following:
1) Signalling equipment to make the pyrotechnical distress signals prescribed in
CAR 91.06.13;
2) at least one ELT; and
3) additional survival equipment for the route to be flown taking account of the
number of persons on board as prescribed in paragraph 3. Provided that the
additional equipment need not be carried when the aircraft either (a) remains within a distance from an area where search and rescue is not especially
difficult corresponding to:
120 minutes at the one engine inoperative cruising speed for aircraft capable
of continuing the flight to an aerodrome with the critical power unit(s)
becoming inoperative at any point along the route or planned diversions; or
Interpretation
For the purposes of this technical standard, the expression "area in which search and
rescue would be especially difficult" means
1) an area so designated by the State responsible for managing search and rescue;
or
2) an area which is largely uninhabited and where (a) the State responsible for managing search and rescue has not published any
information to confirm that search and rescue would not be especially difficult;
and
(b) the State referred to in (a) does not, as a matter of policy, designate areas as
being especially difficult for search and rescue.
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3.
Duplicates
If any item of equipment contained in the above list is already carried on board the
aircraft in accordance with another requirement, there is no need for this to be
duplicated.
1. Location
Unless the survival equipment is clearly visible, its location must be indicated by a
placard or sign, and appropriate symbols may be used to supplement the placard or
sign.
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General
1) An owner or operator must ensure that a Flight does not commence unless the
communication and navigation equipment required under Subpart 5 of the CARs
Part 91 is(a) approved and installed in accordance with the requirements applicable to them,
including the minimum performance standard and the operational and
airworthiness requirements;
(b) installed in such manner that the failure of any single unit required for either
communication or navigation purposes, or both, will not result in the inability to
communicate andlor navigate safely on the route being flown;
(c) in an operable condition for the kind of operation being conducted except as
provided in the MEL; and
(d) so arranged that if equipment is to be used by one flight deck crew member at his
or her station during flight, it must be readily operable from his or her station.
When a single item of equipment is required to be operated by more than one
flight deck crew member, it must be installed so that the equipment is readily
operable from any station at which the equipment is required to be operated.
2) Communication and navigation equipment minimum performance standards are
those prescribed in the applicable ZA-TSO as listed in the ZA-TSO, unless
different performance standards are prescribed. Communication and navigation
equipment complying with design and performance specifications other than ZATSO on the date of commencment of the CARs may remain in service, or be
installed, unless additional requirements are prescribed in Subpart 5 of the CARs
Part 91.
2. Radio equipment
1) An owner or operator may not operate an aircraft unless it is equipped with radio
required for the kind of operation being conducted.
2) Where two independent (separate and complete) radio systems are required
under Subpart 5 of the CARs Part 91, each system must have an independent
antenna installation except that, where rigidly supported non-wire antennae or
other antenna installations or equivalent reliability are used, only one antenna is
required.
3.
An owner or operator may not operate an aircraft under IFR unless it is equipped
with an audio selector panel accessible to each required flight crew member.
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connected.
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Notes:
1) Operators should be made aware that not all TSO C129 receivers will meet
the requirements for future non-precision approaches, other than 'GPS
Arrivals': and "DME or GPS Arrivals':
2) Operators should also be aware that TSO C-129 receivers may not be able
to take advantage of future enhanced GPS capabilities, such as wide area
or local area augmentation systems (WAAS orLAAS).
3) Operators should ensure that receivers are upgradable to accommodate
future augmentation which will be reguired in terminal areas and for
approaches.
6.6 Pilot training
The following pilot training requirements must be satisfied:
1) Prior to using GPS in IFR operations for any of the purposes specified in this
paragraph, the holder of a valid instrument rating must, unless exempted by the
Commissioner, have completed a course of ground training based on the syllabus
contained in Annexure A. The course must be conducted by an aviation training
organisation approved in terms of the CARs Part 141; and
2. the course must cover both general information and procedures applicable to all
types of GPS equipment, as well as the essential operating procedures for a
specific type of aircraft equipment. Pilots who have completed the course and
who wish to use a different type of GPS aircraft equipment, must ensure that they
are familiar with, and competent in, the operating procedures required for that
type of equipment, before using it in flight for any of the purposes approved in this
paragraph.
6.7
Operational requirements
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5) ATS may require GPS equipped aircraft to establish on, and track with reference
to, a particular VOR radial or NDB track for the application of separation;
6) GPS must not be used as a navigation reference for flight below the MSA, except
as otherwise authorised by CAA.
6.8
RAIM is lost for periods greater than ten minutes, even if GPS is still
providing positional information;
RAIM is not available when the ATS unit requests GPS distance, or if an
ATC clearance or requirement based on GPS distance is imposed;
The GPS receiver is in DR mode, or experiences loss of navigation
function,for more than one minute; or
indicated displacement from track centreline is found to exceed 2 nm., and
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Data integrity
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(c) at hourly intervals during area type operations when operating on established
routes; and
(d) after insertion of new data eg creation of new flight plan.
16.11
Co-incident with the approvals contained in this technical standard, and in order to
build up the data base on GPS integrity in South Africa, a system validation period
has been established to verify operationally the availability of RAIM, and the quality
of navigation provided by GPS at other times.
Note:
Operators or pilots using GPS for the puposes of this technical
standard are requested to provide GPS system information, as detailed below:
(a) Private operators : Private operators are requested to submit information
on GPS interference as it occurs.
(b) Commercial operators : Commercial operators are requested to submit
integrity reports for the first 30 flights after installation of approved GPS
equipment After this period, operators are requested to monitor and record
the performance of OPS, and provide details of the system accuracies and
reliabilities from time to time. In addition to these reports, operators are
requested to submit information on GPS interference as it occurs.
Pilots should particularly note cases of GPS degradation/interference around
aerodromes, over populated areas, near radio or television transmission
towers, and during radio or SA TCOM transmissions.
Information about the additional types of data required as detailed on the data
sheet. This data will be used to verify the predicted integrity of the GPS system
in South African airspace, and will, in part, form the basis for future extension
of GPS approvals and revisions to ATC separation minima.
Data should be entered on the System Verification Data Sheet contained in
annexure B
16.12
Pilots of aircraft equipped with GPS systems that comply with the requirements of
this technical standard, should insert the following addition to other indicators in the
air service flight plans.
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1) An INS/IRS must meet the following criteria for operational approval and must be
maintained to ensure performance in accordance with the criteria:
(a) With a 95% probability to radial error rate is not to exceed 2 per hour for flights up
to 10 hours duration;
(b) with a 95% probability the crosstrack error is not to exceed 20 nm and along
track error is not to exceed 25 nm at the conclusion of a flight in excess of 10
hours.
2) The INS/IRS should have the capability for coupling to the aircraft's autopilot to
provide steering guidance.
3) The navigation system should have the capability for updating the displayed
present position.
7.3 Serviceability requirements
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The operator is to monitor and record the performance of INS/IRS and may be
required to provide details of the system accuracies and reliabilities from time to time.
7.5 Navigation criteria
(a) If, during a flight, 10 hours elapsed time since the last ground alignment will be
exceeded, ground alignment is to be included in the pre-flight flight deck
procedures prior to pushback/taxi for departure.
(b) INS/IRS may be used as the sole source of tracking information for continuous
periods not exceeding -
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(i)
(ii)
Notes: (1) Provided that the use of INS/IRS as the sole means of navigation
does not exceed the time limit, the aircraft may be operated for longer periods
using the INS/IRS with either manual or automatic updating.
The 5 hour limit on single INS/IRS ensures 99.74%(3 sigma) probability that
loss of satisfactory navigation capability will not occur with equipment mean
time between failures (MTBF) of approximately 1900
hours. If the
demonstrated MTBF exceeds 2000 hours, the maximum time may be
increased.
(c) Updating present position. Updating inertial present position in flight is permitted
in the following instances only:
(i)
(ii)
Manually:
Over a visual fix when at a height not more than 5 000 ft above the
feature.
Automatically:
Within 200 nautical miles of a DME site when the aircraft's track will
pass within 140 nm of the site.
Notes: (1) En route VOR and DME sites separated by not more than 500
metres are considered to be co-located
2) DME slant range
circumstances.
error
correction
might
be
necessary
in
some
3) Updating a present position from a visual fix may not be planned for IFR
nights.
4) A receding beacon is
increasing.
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5) Updating in other circumstances (for example, over a NDB) will not provide
sufficient accuracy to ensure that the INS/IRS operates within the
prescribed tolerances for navigation.
6) Because INS/IRS are essentially accurate and reliable, and ground
alignment is not accurate than in-flight updating of present postion is
usually not warranted especially during the initial few hours of operation.
However, INS/IRS errors general increase with time and are not selfcorrecting. Unless the error is fairly significant (fo example, more than 4
nm or 2 nm/hr) it may be preferable to retain the error rather than manually
update.
(d) Limitation on use. Wherever track guidance is provided by radio navigation aids,
the pilot-in-command must ensure that the aircraft remains within the appropriate
track keeping tolerances of the radio navigation aids. INS/IRS is not to be used
as a primary navigation reference during IFR flight below lowest safe altitude
(LSALT).
Pre-flight and en route procedures.
The following practices are required:
(i.)
New data entries are to be cross-checked between at least two flight crew
members for accuracy and reasonableness, or, for single pilot
operations, an independent check (for example of INS/IRS-computed
tracks and distances against the flight plan) must be made.
(ii.)
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(b) If(i.)
(ii.)
Note: This check and its isolation action are unnecessary if a multiple
INS/IRS installation is protected by a serviceabilily self-test algorithm
(iii) if neither condition (i) or (ii) can be satisfied, another means of
navigation should be used, and the pilot-in-command must advise the
appropriate ATS unit.
2) Single INS/IRS installations
For single INS/IRS installations, if the INS/IRS fails or exceeds the serviceability
tolerance:
(a) The pilot-in-command must advise the appropriate ATS unit of INS/IRS failure;
(b) another means of navigation is to be used; and
(c) the aircraft is not to begin a route sector for which area navigation is specified
unless it is equipped with an alternative, serviceable, approved area navigation
system.
3) Autopilot coupling
Autopilot coupling to the INS/IRS should be used, whenever practicable, if this
feature is available. If for any reason the aircraft is flown without Autopilot coupling,
the aircraft is to be flown within an indicated cross-track tolerance of 2 nm. In
controlled airspace the ATS unit is to be advised if this tolerance is exceeded.
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1) The maximum drift rate expected from INS/IRS is 2 nm per hour (2 sigma
probability). For the purposes of navigation and determining aircraft separation,
the 3 sigma figure of 3 nm is allowed so that the maximum radial error with 3
sigma confidence equals 3+3t nm where t equals the time in hours since the
INS/IRS was switched into the navigation mode.
2) DME and other inputs can automatically influence the INS/IRS to improve the
accuracy of its computed position. The pilot may also insert known position
coordinates to update the INS/IRS. Therefore, if the system is updated with
known position information the position error is reduced and the INS/IRS can be
assumed to operate within the radial error tolerance of 3+3T nm where T is the
time (hours elapsed since the last position update).
3) The accuracy of the data used for updating must be considered. The navigation
aid positions used for updating inertial present position are accurate to within 01
nm. However, the aircraft in flight cannot be "fixed" to the same order of
magnitude. The accuracy of the position fix is taken as 3 nm radial error.
4) Because the INS/IRS error, the navigation aid position accuracy and the position
fix errors are independent of each other, the total radial error is determined by the
root-sum-square method:
____________________
Total error = (3 + 3T) + 0.1 + 3 nm
5) The effect of navigation aid position accuracy on the total error is negligible,
and so,
______________
Total error = (3 = 3T) + 3 nm
_____________
= (1 + T) + 1nm
Substituting values for T
at time of update, total
radial error
after 1 hour
after 2 hours
after 3 hours
after 4 hours
after 5 hours
after 6 hours
= 4.2 nm
= 6.7 nm
= 9.5 nm
=12.4 nm
=15.3 nm
= 18.2 nm
= 21.2 nm
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6) Dual installation
If two INS/IRS are installed and the aircraft is navigated by averaging, the
inertial present position formula for the total radial error given in subparagraph (4) is
modified by multiplying by.
1
2
(= 0.7)
7) Triple installations
If three INS/IRS are installed and "triple mix" is used, the total radial error is further
reduced. For simplicity for navigation and aircraft separation the tolerances
applicable to dual installations apply and the third system provides redundancy.
1.
MNPS specifications
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2.1 Definitions
Any word or expression to which a meaning has been assigned in the Aviation Act,
1962, and the Civil Aviation Regulations, 1997, bears, when used in this technical
standard, the same meaning unless the context indicates otherwise,
and
"angles of coverage" means 1) Angle of coverage A is formed by two intersecting vertical planes making angles
of 70 degrees to the right and 70 degrees to the left respectively, looking aft along
the longitudinal axis to a vertical plane passing through the longitudinal axis.
2) Angle of coverage F is formed by two intersecting vertical planes making angles
of 110 degrees to the right and 110 degrees to the left respectively, looking
forward along the longitudinal axis to a vertical plane passing through the
longitudinal axis.
3) Angle of coverage L is formed by two intersecting vertical planes one parallel to
the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane, and the other 110 degrees to the right of
the first, when looking forward along the longitudinal axis.
4) Angle of coverage R is formed by two intersecting vertical planes one parallel to
the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane, and the other 110 degrees to the right of
the first, when looking forward along the longitudinal axis.
"horizontal plane" means the plane containing the longitudinal axis and
perpendicular to the plane of symmetry of the aeroplane;
"longitudinal axis of the aeroplane" means a selected axis parallel to the direction
of flight at a normal cruising speed, and passing through the centre of gravity of
the aeroplane;
"making way" means that an aeroplane on the surface of the water is under way
and has a velocity relative to the water;
"under command" means that an aeroplane on the surface of the water is able to
execute manoeuvres as required by the International Regulations for Preventing
Collisions at Sea for the purpose of avoiding other vessels;
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"under way" means that an aeroplane on the surface of the water is not aground
or moored to the ground or to any fixed object on the land or in the water;
"vertical planes" means planes perpendicular to the horizontal plane; and
visible" means visible on a dark night with a clear atmosphere.
2.2 Navigation lights to be displayed in the air
As illustrated in Figure 1, the following unobstructed navigation lights must be
displayed:
1) A red light projected above and below the plane through angle of coverage L;
2) a green light projected above and below the horizontal plane through angle of
coverage R;
3) a white light projected above and below the horizontal plane rearward through
angle of coverage A.
Figure 1
2.2
1)
General
The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea require different lights
to be displayed in each of the following circumstances:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
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(b) The lights required by aeroplanes in each case are described below.
2) When under way
(a) As illustrated in Figure 2, the following appearing as steady unobstructed
lights:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
a red light projected above and below the plane through angle of coverage
L;
a green light projected above and below the horizontal plane through
angle of coverage R;
a white light projected above and below the horizontal plane rearward
through angle of coverage A; and
a white light projected through angle of coverage F.
(b) The lights described in the first three items should be visible at a distance of at
least 3.7 km (2 nm) The light described in the fourth item should be visible at a
distance of 9.3 km (5 nm) when fitted to an aeroplane of 20 m or more in length
or visible at a distance of 5.6 km (3 nm) when fitted to an aeroplane of less than
20 m in length.
3. When towing another vessel or aeroplane
Figure 2
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Figure 3
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1 metre at least
Figure 5
Note: The display of lights prescribed in subparagraph (5) and (6) above is to
be taken by other aircraft as signals that the aeroplane showing them it is not
under command cannot therefore get out of the way. They are not the signals
of an aeroplane in distress and requiring assistance
7) When at anchor
(a) If less than 50 m in length, where it can best be seen, a steady white light (Figure
6), visible all around the horizon at a distance of at least 3.7 km (2 nm)
Figure 6
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(b) If 50 m or more in length, where they can best be seen, a steady white forward
light and a steady white rear light (Figure 7) both visible all around the horizon at
a distance of at least 5.6 km (3 nm)
Figure 7
(c) If 50 m or more in span a steady white light on each side (Figures 8 and 9) to
indicate the maximum span and visible, so far as practicable, all around the
horizon at a distance of at least 1.9 km (1 nm)
Figure 8
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Figure 9
8) When aground
The lights prescribed in paragraph (7) and in addition two steady red lights in vertical
line, at least 1 m apart so placed as to be visible all around the horizon.
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91.06.13
SIGNALS
1. Distress signals
1) The following signals, used either together or separately, mean that grave and
imminent danger threatens, and immediate assistance is requested:
(a) A signal made by radiotelegraphy or by any other signalling method consisting of
the group SOS (. .. _ _ _... in the Morse Code);
(b) a signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken word MADAY;
2) Alarm signals for actuating radiotelegraph and radiotelephone auto-alarm
systems
(a)
3268 The radiotelegraph alarm signal consists of a series of twelve dashes sent
in one minute, the duration of each dash being four seconds and the duration of
the interval between consecutive dashes one second. It may be transmitted by
hand but its transmission by means of an automatic instrument is recommended.
(b) 3270 The radiotelephone alarm signal consists of two substantially sinusoidal
audio frequency tones transmitted alternately. One tone has a frequency of 2 200
Hz and the other a frequency of 1 300 Hz, the duration of each tone being 250
milliseconds.
(c) 3271 The radiotelephone alarm signal, when generated by automatic means,
must be sent continuously for a period of at least thirty seconds but not exceeding
one minute; when generated by other means, the signal must be sent as
continuously as practicable over a period of approximately one minute.
2.
Urgency signals
1) The following signals, used either together or separately, mean that an aircraft
wishes to give notice of difficulties which compel it to land without requiring
immediate assistance:
(a) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights;
(b) The repeated switching on and off of the navigation lights in such a manner as to
be distinct from flashing navigation lights.
2) The following signals, used either together or separately, mean that an aircraft
has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or
other vehicle, or of some person on board within sight:
(a) A signal made by radiotelegraphy or by any other signaling method consisting of
the group XXX;
(b) a signal sent by radiotelephone consisting of the spoken words PAN, PAN
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(1)
(a) Instructions
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Light
Directed
towards
Aircraft
concerned
(see figure
1.1)
{
{
Cleared to land
Steady red
Stop
Series of
green
flashes
Cleared to taxi
Series of
red flashes
Series of
white
flashes
Steady red
on final
approach
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Note: This signal should not be expected on the base and final legs of the
approach
Figure 1.2
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Figure 1.3
The same horizontal white dumb-bell as in Figure 1.4 but with a black bar
placed perpendicular to the shaft across each circular portion of the dumb-bell
(Figure 1.5) when displayed in a signal area indicates that aircraft are
required to land and take off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need not
be confined to runways and taxi-ways.
Figure 1.5
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Note: When used at night, the landing T is either illuminated or outlined in white
coloured lights
A set of two digits (Figure 1.8) displayed vertically at or near the aerodrome control
tower indicates to aircraft on the manoeuvring area the direction for take-off,
expressed in units of 10 degrees to the nearest 10 degrees of the magnetic compass.
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(e) When displayed in a signal aarea, or horizontally at the end of the runway or stipr
in use, a righthand arrow of conspicuous colour (Figure 1.9) indicates that turns
are to be made to the right before landing and after take-off.
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Agricultural flights in operation. A figure A (figure 1.12) in the signal. Area indicates that
the aerodrome is being used for agricultural flights.
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Marshalling signals
From a signalman to an aircraft Prior to using the following signals, the signalman
must ascertain that the area within which an aircraft is to be guided is clear of objects
which the aircraft, in complying with this technical standard, might otherwise strike.
Note: Figure 1.12 The design of many aircraft is such that the, path of the
wing tips, engines and other extremities cannot always be monitored is
usually from the flight deck while the aircraft is being manoeuvred on the
ground.
Figure 1.12
Proceed under further guidance by signalman
Signalman directs pilot if traffic conditions on
aerodrome require this action
This bay
Arms above head in a vertical position with the
palms facing inward
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Move ahead
Arms a little aside, palms facing backward and repeatedly
Moved upward-backward from shoulder height.
Turn
a)
b)
Stop
Arms repeatedly crossed above head (the rapidity of the
Arm movement should be related to the urgency of the
Stop, i.e. the faster the movement the quicker the stop).
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7.
Brakes
Engage brakes: raise arm and hand, with fingers
Extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist.
8.
Chocks
9.
Starting engine(s)
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10.
Cut engines
12.
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14.
For tail to port: point right arm down, and left arm
Brought from overhead, vertical position to horizontal
Forward position, repeating left arm movement.
15.
All clear
Notes:
1) These signals are designed for use by the signalman, with hands
illuminated as necessary to facilitate observation by the pilot, and facing
the aircraft in a position:
(a) For fixed-wing aircraft, forward of the left-wing tip within view of the pilot;
2) The meaning of the relevant signals remains the same if bats, illuminated
wands or torch lights are held.
3) The aircraft engines are numbered, for the signalman facing the aircraft,
from right to left (i.e. No 1 engine being the port outer engine).
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Brakes engaged
Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of face, then
clench fist.
Brakes released
Raise arm, with fist clenched, horizontally in
front of face, then extend fingers.
(b) Chocks
Insert chocks
Arms extended, palms outwards, move hands inwards to cross in front of
face.
Remove chocks
Hands crossed in front of face, palms outwards, move arms outwards.
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Meaning
First series
(a)
Rocking wings
(b)
Rocking wings
(c)
Night
(a)
(b)
(c)
Weather conditions or the terrain may require the intercepting aircraft to take up a position in front and to the right of
the intercepted aircraft to complete the successive turn to the right.
Meaning
Day or night
Second series
Third series
Land on this landing area
Night
As for day and showing steady
landing light
Day
First of Second series dependent on
what further action intercepting aircraft
requires to be taken either:
follow me, or
You may proceed.
Fourth series
Landing terrain unsuitable
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IFR
20
40
60
80
100
120
140
160
180
200
220
240
260
280
310
350
390
430
470
510
etc
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VFR
25
45
65
85
105
125
145
165
185
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91.07.2
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1.
Planning minima
Cat I minima with RVR in accordance with TS 121.07.7
Non-precision minima and ceiling must be above the MDH
Non-precision minima plus 200 ft added to MDH and 1000m added to
RVR/Visibility. Ceiling must be above the MDH + 200 ft.
Circling
Note: Only operators approved for Cat II and III operations must use planning minima based on a Cat II and
III approach in Table 1.
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2.
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Type of Approach
Precision approach
Cat II, III (ILS MLS)
Precision approach
Cat I (ILS MLS)
Non-precision approach
Circling approach
Planning minima
(RVR/visibility required and ceiling if applicable)
Aerodrome with
At least 2 separate apAt least 2 separate apAt least 1 approach
proach procedures
proach procedures
procedure based on 1
based on 2 separate
Based on 2 separate
aid
Aids serving 2 separate
Aids serving 1 runway
Serving 1 runway
runways
Precision approach
Non-precision approach minima
Cat I minima
Non-precision approach
Circling minima or, if not available, non-precision
Minima
Approach minima plus 200 ft / 1000m
The lower of nonThe higher of circling minima or non-precision
Precision approach
Approach minima plus 200 ft / 1000 m
Minima plus 200 ft /
1000 m or circling
Minima
Circling minima
Notes:
1) "Tempo" and "lnter" conditions published in the forecast are not limiting
unless these conditions are forecast to be below published planning
minima. Where a condition is forecast as "Prob, provided the probability
percent factor is less than 40%, it is not limiting. However the pilot-incommand will be expected to exercise good aviation /judgement in
assessing the overall "Prob" conditions.
2) Runways on the same aerodrome are considered to be separate runways
when
(a) they are separate landing surfaces which may overlay or cross such that if
one of the runways is blocked, it will not prevent the planned type of
operations on the other runway; and
(b) each of the landing surfaces has a separate approach procedure based on
a separate aid.
3) Only operators approved for Category II or III operations may use the
planning minima applicable to categories II and III in Table 2 and then only
If the aeroplane is certificated for a one engine inoperative Category II or III
approach as applicable.
4) The JAA Information Leaflet No. 20 IL20, may be used by an operator to
conduct an ETOPS operation, together with the ETOPS alternate weather
criteria determined in this technical standard.
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91.7.11
1.
Definitions
Any word or expression to which a meaning has been assigned in the Aviation Act,
1962, and the Civil Aviation Regulations, 1997, bears, when used in this technical
standard, the same meaning unless the context indicates otherwise,and
"maximum structural landing mass" means the maximum permissible total aircraft
mass upon landing under normal circumstances;
"maximum structural take off mass" means the maximum permissible total aircraft
mass at the start of the take-off run or lift-off; and
"maximum zero fuel mass" means the maximum permissible mass of an aircraft
with no usable fuel. The mass of the fuel contained in particular tanks must be
included in the zero fuel mass when it is explicitly mentioned in the aircraft flight
manual limitations;
"traffic load" means the total mass of passengers, baggage and cargo, including
any non-revenue load.
2.
1) An owner or operator must use the following mass values to determine the dry
operating mass:
(a) Actual masses including any flight crew baggage; or
(b) standard masses, including hand baggage, of 85 kg for flight deck crew members
and 75 kg for cabin crew members.
2) An owner or operator must correct the dry operating mass to account for any
additional baggage. The position of this additional baggage must be accounted
for when establishing the centre of gravity of the aircraft.
3.
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20 and more
Male
All flights
except
holiday
charters
Holiday
Charters
Children
Female
30 and
more
All adult
88 kg
70 kg
84 kg
83 kg
69 kg
76 kg
35 kg
35 kg
35 kg
15
104 kg
86 kg
35 kg
69
96 kg
78 kg
35 kg
10 - 19
92 kg
74 kg
35 kg
(a) Where the total number of passenger seats available on an aircraft is 19 or less,
the standard masses in Table 2 are applicable.
(b) On flights where no hand baggage is carried in the cabin or where hand baggage
is accounted for separately, 6 kg may be deducted from the above male and
female masses. Articles such as an overcoat, an umbrella, a small handbag or
purse, reading material or a small camera are not considered as hand baggage
for the purpose of this paragraph.
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Baggage
standard
Mass
11 kg
15 kg
7) If an owner or operator wishes to use standard mass values other than those
contained in Tables 1 to 3 above, he or she must advise the Commissioner of his
or her reasons and gain such approval in advance. After verification and approval
by the Commissioner of the results of the weighing survey, the revised standard
mass values are only applicable to that operator. The revised standard mass
values can only be used in circumstances consistent with those under which the
survey was conducted. Where revised standard masses exceed those in Tables
1 to 3, then such higher values must be used.
8) On any flight identified as carrying a significant number of passengers whose
masses, including hand baggage, are expected to exceed the standard
passenger mass, an owner or operator must determine the actual mass of such
passengers by weighing or by adding an adequate mass increment.
9) If standard mass values for checked baggage are used and a significant number
of passengers check-in baggage that is expected to exceed the standard
baggage mass, an owner or operator must determine the actual mass of such
baggage by weighing or by adding an adequate mass increment.
10) An owner or operator must ensure that a pilot-in-command is advised when a non
standard method has been used for determining the mass of the load and that
this method is stated in the load and trim sheet.
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An owner or operator must base the fuel policy, including calculation of the amount of
fuel to be carried, by an aeroplane on the following planning criteria:
The amount of
taxi fuel, which must not be less than the amount, expected to be used prior to takeoff. Local conditions at the departure aerodrome and APU consumption must be
taken into account;
Trip fuel, which must include
(i) fuel for take-off and climb from aerodrome elevation to initial cruising
level/altitude, taking into account the expected departure routing;
(ii) fuel from top of climb to top of descent, including any step
climb/descent;
(iii) fuel from top of descent to the point where the approach is initiated,
taking into account the expected arrival procedure; and
(iv) fuel for approach and landing at the destination aerodrome;
(c) contingency fuel, which must be the higher of item (i) or (II) below:
(i)
Either:
5% of the planned trip fuel or, in the event of in-flight replanning, trip fuel
for the remainder of the flight; or
not less than 3% of the planned trip fuel or, in the event of in-flight
replanning, trip fuel for the remainder of the flight,
subject to the
approval of the Commissioner,
provided that an en route alternate is
available; or
an amount of fuel sufficient for 20 minutes flying time based upon the
planned trip fuel consumption: Provided that the owner or operator has
established a fuel consumption monitoring programme for individual
aeroplanes and uses valid data determined by means of such a
programme for fuel calculation; or
an amount of fuel of not less than that which would be required to fly for
15 minutes at holding speed at 1 500 feet (450 m) above the destination
aerodrome in standard
conditions, when an owner or operator has
established a programme, approved by the Commissioner, to monitor the
fuel consumption on each individual route /aeroplane combination and
uses this data for a statistical analysis to calculate contingency fuel for
that route/aeroplane combination; or
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(ii) an amount to fly for 5 minutes at holding speed at 1 500 feet (450 m) above
the destination aerodrome in standard conditions;
(d) alternate fuel, which must be sufficient for
(i.)
(ii.)
(iii.)
(iv.)
descent from top of descent to the point where the approach is initiated,
taking into account the expected arrival procedure; and
(v.)
(vi.)
(e) final reserve fuel, which must be (i) for aeroplanes with reciprocating engines, fuel to fly for 45 minutes; or
(ii) for aeroplanes with turbine power units, fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding
speed at 1 500 feet (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard
conditions, calculated with the estimated mass on arrival at the alternate
or the destination, when no alternate is required;
The minimum additional fuel which must permit
(i) holding for 15 minutes at 1 500 feet (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in
standard conditions, when a flight is operated under IFR without a destination
alternate; and
(ii) following the possible failure of a power unit or loss of pressurisation, based
on the assumption that such a failure occurs at the most critical point along
the route, the aeroplane to:
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taxi fuel;
trip fuel to the destination aerodrome, via the decision point;
contingency fuel equal to not less than 5% of the estimated fuel
consumption from the decision point to the destination aerodrome;
alternate fuel, if a destination alternate is required;
final reserve fuel;
additional fuel; and
extra fuel, if required by the pilot-in-command; or
taxi fuel;
the estimated fuel consumption from the departure aerodrome to a
suitable e en-route alternate, via the decision point;
contingency fuel equal to not less than 3% of the estimated fuel
consumption from the departure aerodrome to the en-route alternate;
final reserve fuel;
additional fuel;
and extra fuel, if required by the pilot-in-command.
taxi fuel;
(b)
trip fuel;
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(i)
for aeroplanes with reciprocating engines, fuel to fly for 45 minutes plus
15% of the flight time planned to be spent at cruising level, or two hours,
whichever is the lesser; or
(ii)
for aeroplanes with turbine engines, fuel to fly for two hours at normal
cruise consumption after arriving overhead the destination aerodrome,
including final reserve fuel; and
(v)
taxi fuel;
trip fuel from the departure aerodrome to the alternate aerodrome, via
the predetermined point
contingency fuel calculated in accordance with subparagraph (l)(c) above;
additional fuel if required but not less than
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(5) A helicopter employed in any category on a VFR flight by day may carry fuel and
oil additional to that available to the powerplant, provided that this is carried in a
safe manner. The additional fuel and oil may be included in the quantities
specified in subparagraphs (3) and (4). Provided that for the purpose of self
refuelling there must be a safe landing site en route, which can be reached before
the levels specified in subparagraph (4)(c) are reached.
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91.8.4
1.
General
1) An owner or operator must ensure that flight deck crew member training
programmes for low visibility operations include structured courses of ground,
simulator and/or flight training. The owner or operator may abbreviate the course
content as prescribed by subparagraphs (2), (3) and (4) below provided the
content of the abbreviated course is acceptable to the Commissioner.
2) Flight deck crew members with no Category II or Category III experience must
complete the full training programme prescribed in paragraphs 2, 3 and 4 below.
3) Flight deck crew members with Category II or Category III experience with
another owner or operator may undertake an abbreviated ground training course.
4) Flight deck crew members with Category II or Category III experience with the
owner or operator may undertake an abbreviated ground simulator and/or flight
training course. The abbreviated course is to include at least the requirements of
paragraph 4(1) or 4(4)(a) or (b) as appropriate.
2.
Ground training
An owner or operator must ensure that the initial ground training course for low
visibility operations covers at least
1) the characteristics and limitations of the ILS and/or MLS;
2) the characteristics of the visual aids;
3) the characteristics of fog;
4) the operational capabilities and limitations of the particular airborne system;
5) the effects of precipitation, ice accretion, low level wind shear and turbulence;
6) the effect of specific aircraft malfunctions,
7) the use and limitations of RVR assessment systems;
8) the principles of obstacle clearance requirements;
9) recognition of and action to be taken in the event of failure of ground equipment;
10) the procedures and precautions to be followed with regard to surface movement
during operations when the RVR is 400 m or less and any additional procedures
required for take-off in conditions below 150 m (200 m for Category D
aeroplanes) or with visibility less than 225 m;
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11) the significance of decision heights based upon radio altimeters and the effect of
terrain profile in the approach area on radio altimeter readings and on the
automatic approach/landing systems;
12) the importance and significance of alert height, if applicable, and the action in the
event of any failure above and below the alert height;
13) the qualification requirements for pilots to obtain and retain approval to conduct
low visibility take-offs and Category II or III operations, and
14) the importance of correct seating and eye position.
3.
1) An owner or operator must ensure that simulator and/or flight training for low
visibility operations includes (a) checks of satisfactory functioning of equipment, both on the ground and in flight;
(b) effect on minima caused by changes in the status of ground installations;
(c) monitoring of automatic flights control systems and Autoland status annunciators
with emphasis on the action to be taken in the event of failures of such systems;
(d) actions to be taken in the event of failures such as engines, electrical systems,
hydraulics or flight control systems;
(e) the effect of known unserviceabilities and use of minimum equipment lists;
(f) operating limitations resulting from airworthiness certification;
(g) Guidance on the visual cues required at decision height together with information
on maximum deviation allowed for glidepath or localliser; and
(h) the importance and significance of alert height, if applicable, and the action in the
event of any failure above and below the alert height.
2) An owner or operator must ensure that each flight deck crew member is trained to
carry out his or her duties and instructed on the co-ordination required with other
flight crew members. Maximum use must be made of suitably equipped flight
simulators for this purpose.
3) Training must be divided into phases covering normal operation with no aircraft or
equipment failures but including all weather conditions which may be
encountered and detailed scenarios of aircraft and equipment failure which
could affect Category II or III operations. If the aircraft system involves the use of
hybrid or other special systems (such as head up displays or enhanced vision
equipment) then flight deck crew members must practise the use of these
systems in normal and abnormal modes during the simulator phase of training.
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reversion to manual flight to control flare, landing and roll out or missed
approach; or
(ii)
(d) failures of the system which will result in excessive localiser and/or glideslope
deviation, both above and below decision height, in the minimum visual
conditions authorised for the operation. In addition, a continuation to a manual
landing must be practised if a head-up display forms a downgraded mode of the
automatic system or the head-up display forms the only flare mode; and
(e) failures and procedures specific to aircraft type or variant.
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8) The training programme must provide practice in handling faults which require a
reversion to higher minima.
9) The training programme must include the handling of the aircraft when, during a
fail passive Category III approach, the fault causes the autopilot to disconnect
at or below decision height when the last reported RVR is 300 m or less.
10) Where take-offs are conducted in RVRs of 400 m and below, training must be
established to cover systems failures and engine failure resulting in continued as
well as rejected take-offs.
4. Conversion training requirements to conduct low visibility take-off and
Category II and III operations
An owner or operator must ensure that each flight deck crew member completes
the following low visibility procedures training if converting to a new type or
variant of aircraft in which low visibility take-off and Category II and III operations
will be conducted. The flight deck crew member experience requirements to
undertake an abbreviated course are prescribed
in paragraphs 1(3) and (4).
1) Ground training
The appropriate requirements prescribed in paragraph 2 above, taking into
account the flight deck crew member's Category II and Category III training and
experience.
2) Simulator training and/or flight training
(a) A minimum of 8 and/or landings in approaches a simulator approved for the
purpose.
(b) Where no type-specific simulator is available, a minimum of 3 approaches
including at least 1 go-around is required on the aircraft.
(c) Appropriate additional training if any special equipment is required such as headup displays or enhanced vision equipment.
3) Flight deck crew qualification
The flight deck crew qualification requirements are specific to the owner or
operator and the type of aircraft operated.
(a) The owner or operator must ensure that each flight deck crew member completes
a check before conducting Category II or III operations.
(b) The check prescribed in item (a) above may be replaced by successful
completion of the simulator and/or flight training prescribed in paragraph 4(2).
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Low visibility take-off with RVR less than 150/200 m or visibility less than
225 m
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3) An owner or operator must ensure that a flight crew member has completed a
check before conducting low visibility take-offs in RVRs of less than 150 m (less
than 200 m for Category D aeroplanes) or in visibility less than 225 m if
applicable. The check may only be replaced by successful completion of the
simulator and/or flight training prescribed in subparagraph (I)on initial conversion
to an aircraft type.
7.
1) An owner or operator must ensure that, in conjunction with the normal recurrent
training and proficiency checks, a pilot's knowledge and ability to perform the
tasks associated with the particular category of operation, including LVTO, for
which he or she is authorised, is checked. The required number of approaches
to be conducted during such recurrent training is to be a minimum of two, one of
which is to be a missed approach and at least one low visibility take off to the
lowest applicable minima. The period of validity for this check is 6 months
including the remainder of the month of issue.
2) For Category III operations an owner or operator must use a flight simulator
approved for Category ill training.
3) An owner or operator must ensure that, for Category III operations on aeroplanes
with a fail passive flight control system, a missed approach is completed at least
once every 18 months as the result of an autopilot failure at or below decision
height when the last reported RVR was 300 m or less.
4) The Commissioner may authorise recurrent training for Category II operations in
an aircraft type where no approved simulator is available.
8.
1) An owner or operator must ensure that, in order for pilots to maintain a Category
II and Category III qualification, they have conducted a minimum of 3
approaches and landings using approved Category II or III procedures during the
previous six month period, at least one of which must be conducted in the aircraft.
2) Recency for LVTO is maintained by retaining the Category II or III qualification
prescribed in subparagraph (1) above.
3) An owner or operator may not substitute this recency requirement for recurrent
training.
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TABLE 1
Serial
Number
1
2
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
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TABLE 1
Serial
Number
Parameter
Measurement
range
Recording
Interval
(seconds)
1
20
Radio altitude
-6 m to 750 m
(-20 ft to 2500 ft)
21
22
23
Signal range
Signal range
Discrete
1
1
1
Discrete
Full range
1
4
As installed
0 370 km
As installed
Discrete
Discrete
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
Full range
Discrete
0.5
2
As installed
As installed
As installed
Discrete
As installed
Note: The preceding 32 parameters satisfy the requirements for Type I FDR
Notes:
1)
Vso stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.
2)
3)
4)
For aeroplanes with conventional control systems or applies. For aeroplanes with nonmechanical control systems and applies. In aeroplanes with split surfaces, a suitable
combination of inputs is acceptable in lieu of recording each surface separately.
5)
6)
7)
Recording of latitude and logitude from INS or other navigation system is a preferred
alternative.
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ANNEXURE A
GPS TRAINING SYLLABUS
1.
2.
3.
Accuracy
Integrity
Means of providing GPS integrity; RAIM; procedural systems integration
Availability
Continuity of service.
Recall the requirements applicable to pilots and equipment for GPS operations:
4.
Ephemeris
Clock
Receiver
Atmospheric / ionospheric
Multipath
SA (Selected availability)
Typical total error associated with C/A code
Effect of PDOP / GDOP on position accuracy
Susceptibility to interference
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5.
Mode errors
Data entry errors
Data validation and checking including independent
procedures
Automation induced complacency
Non-standardisation of the GPS pilot interface
Human information processing and situational awareness.
cross-checking
7.
For the specific type of aircraft equipment, carry out the following GPS
operational and serviceability checks at appropriate times:
8.
TSO status
Satellites acquired
RAIM status
PDOP / GDOP status
IFR database currency
Receiver serviceability
CDI sensitivity
Position indication
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For the specific type of aircraft equipment, recognise and take appropriate action
for GPS warnings and messages, including the following:
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Loss of RAIM
2D navigation
in Dear Reckoning mode
Database out of date
Database missing
GPS fail
Barometric input fail
Power / battery fail
Parallel offset on
Satellite fail.
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ANNEXURE B
GLOBAL POSITIONING SYSTEM
SYSTEM VERIFICATION DATA SHEET
A.
Name:
GENERAL
Company:
Telephone / Facsimile:..
(Address is only used in the event of clarification. Please report each occurrence separately)
Make and type of receiver and any special features in use at the time that may have affected its
performance:
.
.
B.
INTERFERENCE REPORT
Purpose for which GPS was being used (survey, navigation, etc) and its mode of use (eg. Stationary, In
flight, OCA, over land, etc):
.
Location of receiver antenna (eg. Remote mounted on A/C
.
Date, time and nature of GPS malfunction and variation with time / distance travelled:
.
.
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ANNEXURE B
C. INTEGRITY RAIM LOSS REPORT
RAIM mode:
En route
Period of loss
Location
Comments:
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
CAA
FLYING INSPECTORATE
Fax: (012) 328-7169
ATNS
AIR TRAFFIC
SERVICES
Fax (011) 392-3946
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PART 92
CONVEYANCE OF DANGEROUS GOODS
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92.00.1
92.00.2
92.00.3
92.00.4
92.00.5
92.00.6
92.00.7
92.00.8
92.00.9
92.00.10
92.00.11
92.00.12
92.00.13
92.00.14
92.00.15
92.00.16
92.00.17
92.00.18
92.00.19
92.00.20
92.00.21
92.00.22
92.00.23
92.00.24
92.00.25
92.00.26
92.00.27
92.00.28
Applicability
Conveyance of dangerous goods forbidden
Exemption
Classification, division and listing of dangerous goods
Designated body or institution
Designation of dangerous goods inspectors
Powers of dangerous goods inspectors
Training
Validation of foreign certificates
Packing and packaging
Responsibility of shipper
Labeling and marking
Dangerous goods transport document
Acceptance procedures
Information to be provided
Inspection of damage or leakage by operator
Storage and loading
Loading restrictions in cabin or on flight deck
Separation and segregation
Securing of dangerous goods
Loading in cargo aircraft
Dangerous goods accident and incident reporting
Dangerous goods accident and incident investigation
Dangerous goods accident and incident information
Notification of undeclared and misdeclared dangerous goods
Retention of documents
Dangerous goods carried by passengers or flight crew members
Information to passengers
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Applicability
92.00.1 (1) This part shall apply to
(a) any aircraft used for the conveyance of dangerous goods;
(b) any person who
i.
ii.
iii.
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(b) the dangerous goods identified in Document SA-CATS-DG as being forbidden for
conveyance by air under normal circumstances;
(c) any other dangerous goods, unless in accordance with the provisions of the Act,
this part and the requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SACATS-DG; and
(d) infected live animals.
Exemption
91.00.3 (1)The Commissioner may, upon application in writing by any person
referred to in Regulation 92.00.1 (l)(b), exempt such person from the provisions of
Regulation 92.00.2 (b), in the case of (a) extreme urgency;
(b) Other forms of conveyance being appropriate; or full compliance with the
provisions of this part being contrary to aviation safety.
(2) The Commissioner may grant an exemption referred to in subregulation (1),
under such conditions and for such period which the Commissioner may
determine, but only after the applicant has made every effort to achieve the
overall level of safety required by the Act, this part and Document SA-CATS-DG.
(3) In the event of an exemption being granted for a period exceeding 90 days, the
Commissioner shall, within 30 days from the date on which the exemption has
been granted, publish the full particulars thereof in the Gazette.
Classification, division and listing of dangerous goods
92.00.4 The classes, divisions and listing of dangerous goods shall be as prescribed
in Document SA-CATS-DG.
Designated body or institution
92.00.5 (1) The body or institution designated under Part 12 shall, in addition to
the powers and duties referred to in Regulation 12.00.3
(a) promote the safety of the conveyance of dangerous goods by air and an
awareness thereof; and
(b) advise the Commissioner on any matter connected with the safe conveyance of
dangerous goods by air.
(2) The powers and duties referred to in subregulation (1) shall be exercised and
performed according to the conditions, rules, requirements, procedures or
standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG.
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iii.
aerodrome or hangar;
premises where goods intended for conveyance by air are made,
produced or manufactured or where goods or baggage intended
for the conveyance by air are packed, held or received or where
goods or baggage are received after being conveyed by air; and
aircraft, vehicle, freight container or unit load device used
for the conveyance of dangerous goods, in order to ensure
that the provisions of the Act, this part and the requirements
and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG, are
complied with; and
(b) request any person to produce or furnish him or her with all documents and
information relating to dangerous goods or baggage in so far as this may be
necessary for the proper execution of his or her functions.
(2) A designated dangerous goods inspector who on reasonable grounds suspects
that any baggage, consignment, freight container or unit load device contains
goods which may not, in terms of the provisions of the Act, this part and the
requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG, be
conveyed by air, or goods which constitute a danger or potential danger to
persons, aircraft or any other property, may inspect such baggage, consignment,
freight container or unit load device and, if he or she deems it necessary in the
interest of aviation safety, order that such goods be detained and not be loaded in
an aircraft.
(3) A designated dangerous goods inspector may at any time
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(a) search
i.
ii.
iii.
(c) satisfy himself or herself that the requirements and standards as prescribed in
Document SA-CATS-DG are complied with regarding the separation of the
classes of dangerous goods in storage areas, unit load devices, vehicles and
aircraft;
(d) require goods to be removed from an aircraft if the requirements and standards
referred to in paragraphs (b) and (c) are not complied with;
(e) request any person to produce or cause to be produced for inspection any
document relating to a consignment intended for conveyance by air or which has
been conveyed by air, or any other document specified in Document SA-CATSDG;
(f) question any person handling dangerous goods in order to ascertain whether that
person complies with the provisions of the Act, this part and the requirements and
standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG relating to the handling of
such dangerous goods; and
(g) condemn any dangerous goods which, in his or her opinion, are not in a good
condition, or the storage or use of which he or she deems to be dangerous and
order any such dangerous goods to be destroyed forthwith, in which case the
owner of goods so condemned, shall have no claim against such inspector or
against the State for the loss thereof and shall, in connection with the destruction
of explosives, be responsible for any expense Incurred.
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Training
92.00.8
(1) Any -
(d) engaged in the security screening of passengers and their baggage, shall ensure
that the following categories of personnel in his, her or its employ successfully
complete initial dangerous goods training and refresher dangerous goods
training:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
H.
Cargo personnel;
personnel engaged in the ground handling, storage and
loading of dangerous goods;
passenger handling personnel;
security personnel who deal with the screening of passengers
and their baggage;
flight crew members;
packers;
shippers; and
shipper's agents.
(2) Training as required by this part shall only be provided by a dangerous goods
training organisation approved by the Commissioner in terms of Part 141.
(3) The subject matter of initial dangerous goods training and refresher dangerous
goods training shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG.
(4) Any person, employee or agency, referred to in subregulation (1) shall complete
refresher dangerous goods training every 24 months, calculated from the date of
the successful completion of the initial dangerous goods training or the preceding
refresher dangerous goods training, as the case may be.
(5) Upon the successful completion of the initial dangerous goods training or the
refresher dangerous goods training referred to in subregulation (3), the
dangerous goods training organisation concerned shall issue to the candidate a
certificate in the handling of dangerous goods to be conveyed by air.
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(7) If a receptacle, used for the conveyance of dangerous goods by air, is re-used by
the shipper, all necessary measures shall be taken by the shipper to prevent
contamination of subsequent dangerous goods conveyed therein.
(8) If, because of the nature of their former contents, uncleaned empty receptacles
may present a hazard, the shipper shall ensure that such receptacles are tightly
closed and treated according to the hazard that they constitute.
(9) A shipper shall ensure that no harmful quantity of any dangerous substance
adhere to the outside of a package.
Responsibility of shipper
92.00.11 (1) A shipper shall ensure that dangerous goods offered for conveyance by
air, are not dangerous goods identified as forbidden for conveyance by air in terms of
Regulation 92.00.2 and are (a) identified, classified, packed, marked and labelled; and
(b) accompanied by a properly executed dangerous goods transport document, in
accordance with the provisions of this part and the requirements and standards
as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG.
(2) A shipper shall ensure that any person employed by him or her or any person
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(9) Any person responsible for the conveyance and opening of packages containing
infectious substances who becomes aware of damage to or leaking from such
packages, shall
(a) avoid handling such infectious substances, where possible;
(b) inspect adjacent packages for contamination;
(c) inform the appropriate public health authority or veterinary authority of such
damage or leakage;
(d) provide the appropriate authority of the country of transit with information
regarding any possible contamination; and
(e) notify the shipper or the consignee accordingly.
Storage and loading
92.00.17 The operator of an aircraft in which dangerous goods are to be conveyed
shall comply with the storage and loading provisions of this part and the requirements
and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG.
Loading restrictions in cabin or on flight deck
92.00.18
Unless otherwise provided for in Document SA-CATS-DG, dangerous
goods shall not be stowed in an aircraft cabin occupied by passengers or on the flight
deck of an aircraft.
Separation and segregation
92.00.19 (1) The operator of an aircraft in which dangerous goods are to be
conveyed shall ensure that packages containing dangerous goods which might react
dangerously when coming into contact with each other, are not stowed in an aircraft
next to each other or in a position that would allow interaction between them in the
event of leakage.
(2) The operator referred to in subregulation (1) shall ensure that a package
containing poison or an infectious substance, is stowed in an aircraft in
accordance with the requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SACATS-DG.
(3) The operator referred to in subregulation (1) shall ensure that a package
containing radioactive materials, is stowed in an aircraft in a manner which
separates the package from persons, live animals and undeveloped film, in
accordance with the requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SACATS-DG.
Securing of dangerous goods
92.00.20 (1) The operator of an aircraft in which dangerous goods are to be
conveyed, shall, when dangerous goods are loaded in the aircraft, protect such
dangerous goods from being damaged, and shall secure such dangerous goods in
the aircraft in a manner which will prevent any movement in flight that could change
the orientation of the packages.
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(2) When securing packages containing radioactive materials, the operator shall
ensure that the securing is adequate in order that the requirements regarding the
separation of radioactive materials referred to in Regulation 92.00.10(3) are
complied with.
Loading in cargo aircraft
92.00.21 Unless otherwise provided for in Document SA-CATS-DG, a package or
overpack containing dangerous goods and bearing a "cargo aircraft only" label, shall
be loaded in a manner that any night crew member or other person authorised by the
operator, can see, handle and, where size and weight permit, separate such package
or overpack from other cargo in flight.
Dangerous goods accident and incident reporting
92.00.22 (1) The operator of an aircraft involved in a dangerous goods accident or
dangerous goods incident within the Republic, shall within 48 hours after such
accident or incident has occurred, notify (a) in the case of an accident, any air traffic service unit or the nearest police station;
or
(b) in the case of an incident, any air traffic service unit,
(c) of such accident or incident, and such air traffic service unit or police station, as
the case may be, shall immediately on receipt of the notification, notify
i.
ii.
(2) The operator of a South African aircraft involved in a dangerous goods accident
or dangerous goods incident outside the Republic, shall, as soon as practicable,
notify(a) the appropriate authority in the State for territory where the accident or incident
has occurred, directly or through any air traffic service unit; and
(b) the Commissioner, of such accident or incident.
(3) Any notification of a dangerous goods accident or dangerous goods incident
referred to in subregulation (1) or (2) shall, in addition to the provisions of
Regulation 12.00.5(3)(a), contain the particulars as prescribed in Document SACATS-DG .
Dangerous goods accident and incident investigation
92.00.23 The investigator-in-charge shall investigate all dangerous goods accidents
and dangerous goods incidents of which the Commissioner is notified in terms of
Regulation 92.00.22(1), and Part 12 shall apply mutatis mutandis to such
investigation.
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PART 135
AIRPORT TRANSPORT OPERATIONS
SMALL AEROPLANES
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1. GENERAL
Section 22A of the Aviation Act, 1962 (as amended by section 5 of the Aviation Laws
Amendment Act, 1996) empowers the Commissioner for Civil Aviation to issue
technical standards for civil aviation on the matters which are prescribed by
regulation.
2. PURPOSE
Document SA-CATS-OPS 135 contains the standards, rules, requirements, methods,
specifications, characteristics and procedures which are applicable in respect of air
transport operations : small aeroplanes.
Each reference to a technical standard in this document, is a reference to the
corresponding regulation in the Civil Aviation Regulations, 1997, for example,
technical standard 135.01.10 refers to regulation 10 of Subpart 01 of Part 135 of the
Regulations.
The abbreviation "CAR" is used throughout this document when referring to any
regulation.
The abbreviation "TS" refers to any technical standard.
3. SCHEDULES AND NOTES
Guidelines and recommendations in support of any particular technical standard, are
contained in schedules to, and/or notes inserted throughout the technical standards.
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LIST OF REGULATIONS:
AIRPORT TRANSPORT OPERATIONS SMALL AEROPLANES
SUBPART 1: GENERAL
135.01.1
135.01.2
135.01.3
135.01.4
135.01.5
135.01.6
135.01.7
135.01.8
135.01.9
135.01.10
135.01.11
Applicability
Exemptions
Admission to flight deck
Drunkenness
Dry lease-in of small commercial air transport aeroplane
Wet lease-in of small commercial air transport aeroplane
Dry lease-out of small commercial air transport aeroplane
Wet lease-out of small commercial air transport aeroplane
Leasing of small commercial air transport aeroplane
between two South African operators
Subchartering
Preservation of documents
Conversion training
Differences training and familiarisation training
Upgrading to pilot-in-command
Pilot-in-command holding commercial pilot licence
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135.03.7
135.03.8
135.03.9
Training
Operating certificate
Application for operating certificate
Adjudication of application for operating certificate
Period of validity of operating certificate
Safety inspections and audits
Suspension and cancellation of operating certificate and appeal
Duties of holder of operating certificate
Register of operating certificates
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Classification
General provisions for all classes of aeroplanes
General
Take-off
Net take-off flight path
En route with one engine inoperative
Landing at destination and alternate aerodromes
Landing on dry runways
Landing on wet and contaminated runways
General
Take-off
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135.08.12
135.08.13
135.08.14
135.08.15
135.08.16
General
Take-off
Take-off flight path
En route
Landing at destination and alternate aerodromes
Landing on dry runways
Landing on wet and contaminated runways
SUBPART 9: MAINTENANCE
135.09.1
135.09.2
135.09.3
General
Aeroplane maintenance schedule
Maintenance contracted to approved aircraft maintenance organisation
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SUBPART 1: GENERAL
Applicability
135.01.1
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(4) Any person carried on the flight deck shall be made familiar with the applicable
procedures.
Drunkenness
135.01.4
(1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall
not permit, and no person shall enter or be in, the aeroplane while under the
influence of alcohol or a drug having a narcotic effect, to the extent where the safety
of such aeroplane or its occupants is, or is likely to be, endangered.
(2) The operator shall establish procedures to ensure that any person referred to in
subregulation (1) is
(a) refused embarkation; or
(b) if such person is on board, restrained or disembarked.
Dry lease-in of small commercial air transport aeroplane
135.01.5
(1) An operator who intends to dry lease-in a small foreign
registered aeroplane for commercial air transport purposes, shall
(a) ensure that such aeroplane can be operated and is operated in accordance with
the requirements prescribed in this Part;
(b) obtain prior approval from the Commissioner to operate such aeroplane.
(2) The approval referred to in subregulation (l)(b) shall, subject to such conditions as
the Commissioner may determine, be granted if such aeroplane is
(a) type certificated in accordance with the requirements prescribed in Part 21;
(b) maintained in accordance with an aeroplane maintenance schedule referred to in
Regulation 135.09.5;
(c) operated under the operating certificate held by the operator referred to in
subregulation (1).
(3) The conditions of approval referred to in subregulation (2) shall be part of the
lease agreement between the operator referred to in subregulation (1) and the
operator from which the small foreign registered aeroplane is leased.
Wet lease-in of small commercial air transport aeroplane
135.01.6
(1)
An operator who intends to wet lease-in a small foreign
registered aeroplane for commercial air transport purposes shall, subject to such
conditions as the Commissioner may determine, obtain prior approval from the
Commissioner to operate such aeroplane.
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(2) The duration of the lease agreement concerned shall be limited to a maximum
period of six calendar months in one year.
(3) The approval referred to in subregulation (1) shall, subject to such conditions as
the Commissioner may determine, be granted if such aeroplane
(a) Is wet leased-in from an operator who Is the holder of an operating certificate or
similar document issued by an appropriate authority;
(b) has been type certificated by the appropriate authority;
(c) holds a valid certificate of airworthiness or similar document issued by such
appropriate authority;
(d) is maintained and operated in accordance with safety standards at least
equivalent to the safety standards referred to in this Part; and
(e) will be operated in terms of the operating certificate or similar document held by
the operator referred to in paragraph (a).
(4) The operator referred to in subregulation (1) shall
(a) satisfy the Commissioner that the safety standards of the lessor are not less than
the safety standards referred to in this Part;
(b) ensure that any law applicable to the aeroplane to be wet leased-in, the
maintenance or operation thereof, is complied with.
(5) The total number of wet leased-in aeroplanes shall be such that an operator
referred to in subregulation (1) will not be predominantly dependent on foreign
registered aeroplanes.
(6) The conditions of approval referred to in subregulation (1) shall be part of the
lease agreement between the operator referred to in subregulation (1) and the
operator from which the small foreign registered aeroplane is leased.
Dry lease-out of small commercial air transport aeroplane
135.01.7
(1) Subject to the provisions of subregulation (2), the operator of a
small South African registered aeroplane may dry lease-out the aeroplane to any
operator in a contracting State.
(2) On request of the operator of a small South African registered aeroplane, the
Commissioner may exempt the operator from the applicable provisions of this
part and remove the aeroplane from the operating certificate held by such
operator: Provided that
(a) the appropriate authority of the State of the Operator to which such aeroplane is
dry leased has accepted, in writing, responsibility for surveillance of the
maintenance and operation of such aeroplane; and
(b) such aeroplane is maintained according to an approved maintenance programme
.
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Preservation of documents
135.01.11
The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane who is
required to retain any of the documents for the specified period referred to in subpart
4, shall retain such document for such specified period irrespective of the fact that
such operator, before the expiry of such specified period, ceases to be the owner or
possessor of the aeroplane concerned.
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135.02.1
(1) The minimum number and composition of the flight crew shall not
be less than the minimum number and composition specified in the aeroplane flight
manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.4.
(2) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall allocate
additional flight crew members when it is required by the type of operation, and
the number of such additional flight crew members shall not be less than the
number specified in the operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2.
(3) The operator shall ensure that the flight crew members
(a) are competent to perform the duties assigned to them; and
(b) hold the appropriate valid licences and ratings.
(4) The flight crew shall include at least one member who holds a valid
radiotelephony operator licence or an equivalent document issued by an
appropriate authority, authorising such member to operate the type of radio
transmitting equipment to be used.
(5) When deemed necessary for the safe conduct of a flight, the flight crew shall
include at least one member who is proficient in navigating over the route to be
flown.
(6) For operations under IFR or by night in a small commercial air transport turbopropeller or turbojet aeroplane, an operator shall ensure that the minimum flight
crew is two pilots: Provided that in the case of a turbojet aeroplane, a single-pilot
operation is allowed if
(a) the aeroplane has been certificated for single-pilot IFR operation; and
(b) the operator has included in the operations manual, referred to in Regulation
135.04.2, a conversion and recurrent training programme for pilots which includes
the additional requirements for a single-pilot operation.
(7) The operator shall designate one pilot among the flight crew as pilot-in-command
of a small commercial air transport aeroplane and the pilot-in-command may
delegate the conduct of the flight to another suitably qualified pilot.
In-flight relief of flight crew members
135.02.2
(1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall
establish procedures in accordance with the provisions of this regulation, to prevent
inexperienced flight crew members from doing duty together on the same flight.
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(2) A flight deck crew member may be relieved in flight of his or her duties. at the
controls of a small commercial air transport aeroplane by another suitably
qualified flight deck crew member.
(3) A pilot assigned to the pilot-in-command station may be relieved by another pilot
who (a) is the holder of the appropriate valid pilot licence (aeroplane) and ratings;
(b) has completed
i.
ii.
iii.
(c) may not operate below FL 200 unless he or she is the holder of the applicable
type rating and has been assigned to the pilot-in-command station.
(4) The co-pilot of a small commercial air transport aeroplane may be relieved by
(a) another suitably qualified pilot; or
(b) a cruise-relief co-pilot who holds a valid commercial pilot licence (aeroplane) and
instrument rating and who has completed:
i.
ii.
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(2) The functions referred to in subregulation (1) shall be such as to ensure that any
reasonably anticipated emergency can be adequately dealt with and shall take
into consideration the possible incapacitation of individual flight crew members.
(3) A flight crew member shall not accept an assignment of emergency functions
unless such flight crew member has been trained to perform emergency functions
in accordance with the requirements prescribed in subpart 3.
Recency, route and aerodrome qualifications
135.02.4 (1) A pilot shall not act as pilot-in-command of a small commercial air
transport aeroplane used in a scheduled public air transport service operation,
unless the pilot has within the preceding 12 months demonstrated to the operator of
such aeroplane an adequate knowledge of
(a) the route to be flown;
(b) the aerodromes to be used;
(c) the procedures applicable to flight paths over densely inhabited areas and areas
of higher traffic density; and
(d) obstructions, physical layout, lighting, approach aids and arrival, departure,
holding and instrument approach procedures including operating minima.
(2) If a route requires a specific type of navigation qualification, the pilot-in-command
shall within the 12 months immediate preceding a flight on such route,
demonstrate his or her ability to the operator of a small commercial air transport
aeroplane by
(a) flying over a route or area as pilot-in-command using the applicable special type
of navigation system; or
(b) flying over a route or area under the supervision of a suitably qualified pilot using
the applicable special types of navigation system.
Flight time and duty periods
135.02.5 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall (a) establish a scheme for the regulation of flight time and duty periods for each flight
crew member;
(b) include the scheme referred to in paragraph (a) in the operations manual referred
to in Regulation 135.04.2;
(c) ensure that each flight crew member complies with the provisions of the scheme
referred to in paragraph (1);
(d) not cause or permit any flight crew member to fly in the aeroplane if such
operator knows or has made aware that such flights crew member
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i.
ii.
(e) not schedule a flight crew member for active flight duty for a period exceeding
eight consecutive hours during any given flight time and duty period unless
authorised in the scheme referred to in paragraph (a).
(2) The provisions to be included in a scheme referred to in subregulation (1) shall be
as described in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135.
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(d) the amount of training required by the operator's type conversion course is
determined after due note has been taken of the flight crew member's previous
training as recorded in the training records referred to in Regulation 135.04.8;
(e) the minimum standards of qualification and experience required of flight deck
crew members before undertaking type conversion training are specified in the
operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2;
(f) each flight deck crew member undergoes the checks prescribed in Regulation
135.03.1(2) and
(g) and the training and checks prescribed in Regulation 135.03.1(6) before
commencing operational flying; and
(h) if multi-crew operations are contemplated, flight deck crew resources
management training as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135 is
incorporated in the conversion class.
(2) In the case of changing aeroplane type of class, the check prescribed in
Regulation 135.03.1(2) may be combined with the type or class rating skill test
prescribed in Part 61.
(3) The operator's type conversion course and the type or class rating course
prescribed in Part 61, may be combined.
(4) The operator's type conversion course shall include the items, and shall be
condition in the order as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135.
(5) When a flight deck crew members has not previously completed the operators'
type conversion course, such operator shall ensure that, in addition to
subregulation (4), the flight deck crew members undergoes general first aid
training and, if applicable, ditching procedures training using the appropriate
equipment in water.
Differences training and familiarisation training
135.03.4
(1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall
ensure that a flight deck crew member completes differences training when
(a) operating another variant of an aeroplane of the same type or another type at the
same class currently operated; or
(b) a change of equipment or procedures on types or variants currently operated,
requires the acquisition of additional knowledge.
(2) The operator shall ensure that a flight deck crew member completes
familiarisation training when (a) operating another aeroplane of the same type or variant; or
(b) a change of equipment or procedures on types or variants currently operated,
requires the acquisition of additional knowledge.
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(3) The operator shall specify in the operations manual referred to in Regulation
135.04.2 when differences training or familiarisation training is required.
Upgrading to pilot-in-command
135.03.5
(1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall
ensure that, for an upgrade to pilot-in-command from co-pilot, and for a pilot joining
as pilot-in-command (a) a minimum level of experience is specified in the operations manual referred to in
Regulation 135.04.2; and
(b) if multi-crew operations are contemplated, the co-pilot, as the case may be,
completes an appropriate command course.
(2) The command course referred to in subregulation (l)(b) shall be specified in the
operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2 and shall include:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
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ii
(b) In addition to paragraph (a)(ii), when operating under IFR as a single pilot, the
requirements prescribed in Regulation 135.02.1(6) are complied with;
(c) in multi-pilot flight crew operations, and prior to operating as pilot-in-command,
the command course prescribed in Regulation 135.03.5(1) is completed.
Recurrent training and checking
135.03.7
(1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall
ensure that
(a) each flight deck crew member undergoes recurrent training and checking and
that all such training and checking is relevant to the type or variant of aeroplane
on which the flight deck crew member is licensed to operate;
(b) a recurrent training and checking programme is included in the operations
manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2;
(c) recurrent training is conducted by
i.
ii.
iii
iv
(e) when multi-crew operations are contemplated, each flight deck crew member
undergoes operator proficiency checks every six calendar months as part of a
normal flight deck crew complement.
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(2) The operator shall ensure that, in the case of the operator proficiency check
referred to in subregulation (l)(e)
(a) each flight deck crew member undergoes such checks to demonstrate his or her
competence in carrying out normal, abnormal and emergency procedures; and
(b) such check is conducted without external visual reference when the flight deck
crew member will be required to operate under IFR.
(3) Upon successful completion of the operator proficiency check referred to in
subregulation (l)(e), the operator shall issue a certificate of competency to the
flight deck crew member concerned, which certificate shall be valid for a period of
six calendar months calculated from the last day of the calendar month in which
such certificate is issued.
(4) The operator shall ensure that, in the case of an operational check, each flight
deck crew member undergoes the operational check on the aeroplane to
demonstrate his or her competence in carrying out normal operations specified in
the operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2.
(5) Upon successful completion of the operational check referred to in subregulation
(4), the operator shall issue a certificate of competency to the flight deck crew
member concerned, which certificate shall be valid for a period of 12 calendar
months calculated from the last day of the calendar month in which such
certificate is issued.
(6) The operator shall ensure that, in the case of emergency and safety equipment
training and checking, each flight deck crew member undergoes training and
checking on the location and use of all emergency and safety equipment carried.
(7) Upon successful completion of the emergency and safety equipment check
referred to in subregulation (6), the operator shall issue a certificate of
competency to the flight deck crew member concerned, which certificate shall be
valid for a period of 12 calendar months calculated from the last day of the
calendar month in which such certificate is issued.
(8) The operator shall ensure that, in the case of flight deck crew resource
management training, each flight deck crew member undergoes such training as
part of the recurrent training as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135.
(9) The operator shall ensure that, in the case of ground and refresher training, each
flight deck crew member undergoes training every 12 calendar months.
Pilot qualification to operate in either pilot's seat
135.03.8 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall ensure
that
(a) a pilot to be assigned to operate in either pilot's seat, completes the appropriate
training and checking; and
(b) the training and checking programme is
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i.
ii
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(5) If the Commissioner is satisfied that the operator will comply with the provisions
of subregulation (3)(a) and (b), the Commissioner shall certify in writing on both
copies of the amendment to the approved operations manual that such
amendment has been approved, and shall return one copy of the approved
amendment to the operator.
(6) The operator shall at all times operate the small commercial air transport
aeroplane in accordance with the approved operations manual or a approved
amendment thereto.
(7) The operator shall(a) ensure that all operations personnel are able to understand the technical
language used in those sections of the operations manual which pertain to their
duties;
(b) ensure that every flight is conducted in accordance with the operations manual
and that those parts of the operations manual which are required for the conduct
of a flight, are easily accessible to the flight crew members on board;
(c) make the operations manual available for the use and guidance of operations
personnel;
(d) provide the flight crew members with their own personal copy of the sections of
the operations manual which are relevant to the duties assigned to them;
(e) keep the operations manual up to date; and
(f) keep the operations manual in a safe place.
(8) The contents of the operations manual shall not contravene the conditions
contained in the operating certificate issued to the operator in terms of Regulation
121.06.3.
(9) The structure and contents of the operations manual referred to in subregulation
(1) shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135.
Aeroplane operating manual
135.04.3
(1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall
compile and make available an aeroplane operating manual for use by the flight crew
members in such operator's employ.
(2) manual shall contain
(a) the normal, abnormal and emergency procedures relating to the aeroplane;
(b) details of the aeroplane system; and
(c) the checklists to be used by the flight crew members.
(3) The operator shall provide each flight crew member with a copy of those parts of
the aeroplane operating manual, which are relevant to the operational duties
assigned to such flight crew member.
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(4) The operator shall ensure that the aeroplane operating manual is provided in a
hard copy or in an approved electronic format.
(5) The aeroplane operating manual shall be included in the operations manual
referred to in Regulation 135.04.2.
Aeroplane flight manual
135.04.4
The aeroplane flight manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2 may be
included in the aeroplane operating manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.3.
Operational flight plan
135.04.5
(1)
The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall
ensure that, where practical, an operational flight plan is completed for each flight
undertaken by the aeroplane.
(2) The operational flight plan and its use shall be contained in the operations
manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2.
(3) All entries in the operational flight plan shall be current and permanent in nature.
(4) The items to be contained in the operational flight plan shall be as prescribed in
Document SA-CATS-OPS 135.
(5) The operational flight plan shall be retained by the operator for a period of at least
90 days.
Flight time and duty period records
135.04.6
(a) maintain current flight time and duty period records of all flight crew members in
such operator's employ; and
(b) retain the flight time and duty period records for a period of 15 calendar months
calculated from the date of the last flight of each flight crew member.
(2) A flight crew member in the part-time employ of an operator shall maintain his or
her own flight time and duty period records and shall provide copies thereof to the
operator to enable such operator to ensure that such flight crew member does
not exceed the limits prescribed in the flight time and duty scheme of the operator
referred to in Regulation 135.02.5.
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(a) registered in the Republic with a maximum certificated mass exceeding 1 600
kilograms, and which is operated into, within or from the Republic under
i
ii
(b) registered in a foreign State and operated into, within or from the Republic underi
ii
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(2) A load and trim sheet shall be completed in duplicate and one copy shall be
carried in the aeroplane and one copy shall be retained in accordance with the
provisions of Regulation 135.04.1
(3) The load and trim sheet shall be retained by the operator for a period of at least
90 days calculated from the date on which the flight was undertaken.
(4) The minimum contents of a load and trim sheet shall be as prescribed in
Document SA-CATS-OPS 135.
Aeroplane checklist
135.04.10
The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall, in
addition to the aircraft checklist referred to in Regulation 91.03.3, compile and make
available to the flight crew and other personnel members in such operator's employ,
a checklist of the procedures to be followed by such flight crew and personnel
members when searching for concealed weapons, explosives or other dangerous
devices.
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Operating certificate
135.06.1
The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall not
operate the aeroplane unless such operator is the holder of a valid
(a) licence issued in terms of the Air Services Licensing Act, 1990, or the
International Air Services Act, 1993; and
(b) operating certificate issued in terms of Regulation 135.06.3.
Application for operating certificate
135.06.2
An application for an operating certificate shall be made to the
Commissioner in the appropriate form as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS
135 and shall be accompanied by the appropriate fee as prescribed in Part 187.
Adjudication of application for operating certificate
135.06.3 (1) In considering an application referred to in Regulation 135.06.2 the
Commissioner may conduct the investigation he or she deems necessary.
(2) An application shall be granted and the operating certificate issued if the
Commissioner is satisfied that
(a) the applicant will comply with the provisions of Regulation 135.06.1; and
(b) the applicant will not operate the air service concerned contrary to any provision
of the Act, the Civil Aviation Offences Act, 1972, the International Air Services Act,
1993, or the Air Service Licensing Act, 1990.
(3) If the Commissioner is not so satisfied he or she shall notify the operator thereof,
stating the reasons in the notification, and grant the operator the opportunity to
rectify or supplement any defect within the period determined by the
Commissioner, after which period the Commissioner shall grant or refuse the
application concerned.
(4) An operating certificate shall be issued on the appropriate form as prescribed in
Document SA-CATS-OPS 135, under such conditions which the Commissioner
may determine.
Period of validity of operating certificate
135.06.4
(1) An operating certificate shall be valid for such period as may be
determined by the Commissioner: Provided that such period shall not exceed a
period of 12 months from the date of issuing thereof.
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(2) If the holder of an operating certificate applies at least 30 days prior to the expiry
thereof for a new operating certificate, that first-mentioned operating certificate
shall, notwithstanding the provisions of subregulation (1), remain in force until
such holder is notified by the Commissioner of the result of the application for the
issuing of a new operating certificate.
Safety inspections and audits
135.06.5 (1) An applicant for the Issuing of an operating certificate shall permit an
authorised officer, inspector or authorised person to carry out such safety inspections
and audits which may be necessary to verify the validity of an application made in
terms of Regulation 135.06.2.
(2) The holder of an operating certificate shall permit an authorised officer, inspector
or authorised person to carry out such safety inspections and audits which may
be necessary to determine compliance with the appropriate requirements
prescribed in this part.
Suspension and cancellation of operating certificate and appeal
135.06.6 (1) An authorised officer, inspector or authorised person may suspend for
a period not exceeding 30 days, an operating certificate issued under this subpart, if(a) after a safety inspection and audit carried out in terms of Regulation 135.06.5, it
is evident that the holder of the operating certificate does not comply with the
requirements prescribed in this part, and such holder fails to remedy such noncompliance within 30 days after receiving notice in writing from the authorised
officer, inspector or authorised person to do so; or
(b) the authorised officer, inspector or authorised person is prevented by the holder
of the operating certificate to carry out a safety inspection and audit in terms of
Regulation 135.06.5; or
(c) the suspension is necessary in the interests of aviation safety.
(2) The authorised officer, inspector or authorised person who has suspended an
operating certificate in terms of subregulation (1), shall deliver a report in writing
to the Commissioner, stating the reasons why, in his or her opinion, the
suspended operating certificate should be cancelled.
(3) The authorised officer, inspector or authorised person concerned shall submit a
copy of the report referred to in subregulation (2), to the holder of the operating
certificate which has been suspended, and shall furnish proof of such submission
for the information of the Commissioner.
(4) The holder of an operating certificate who feels aggrieved by the suspension of
the operating certificate may appeal against such suspension to the
Commissioner, within 30 days after such holder becomes aware of such
suspension.
(5) An appellant shall deliver an appeal in writing, stating the reasons why, in his, her
or its opinion, the suspension should be varied or set aside.
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(6) The appellant shall submit a copy of the appeal and any documents or records
supporting such appeal, to the authorised officer, inspector or authorised person
concerned and shall furnish proof of such submission for the information of the
Commissioner.
(7) The authorised officer, inspector or authorised person concerned may, within 30
days of receipt of the copy of the appeal referred to in subregulation(6) deliver his
or her written reply to such appeal to the Commissioner.
(8) The Commissioner may
(a) adjudicate the appeal on the basis of the documents submitted to him or her; or
(b) order the appellant and the authorised officer, inspector or authorised person
concerned to appear before him or her, either in person or through a
representative, at a time and place determined by him or her, to give evidence,
(9) The Commissioner may confirm, vary or set aside the suspension referred to in
subregulation (1).
(10)
(a) notify the Commissioner in the manner as prescribed in Document SA-CATSOPS 135 before any change is effected to the particulars on the operating
certificate;
(b) keep the operating certificate in a safe place and produce such operating
certificate to an authorised officer, inspector or authorised person for inspection if
so requested by such officer, inspector or person; and
(c) not commence or continue with the air service concerned unless such holder is
the holder of a valid operating certificate.
Register of operating certificates
135.06.8 (1) The Commissioner shall maintain a register of all operating certificates
issued in terms of the regulations in this part.
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(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
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(b) approval or authorisation has been obtained, where required, from the
appropriate authority concerned;
(c) if a twin-engine aeroplane is used, adequate aerodromes are available within the
time or distance limitations as prescribed in Document SA CATS-OPS 135; and
(d) if a single-engine aeroplane Is used, surfaces are available which permit a safe
forced landing to be executed.
(2) The operator shall ensure that
(a) the performance of the aeroplane intended to be used, is adequate to comply
with minimum flight altitude requirements; and
(b) the equipment of the aeroplane intended to be used, complies with the minimum
requirements for the planned operation.
Establishment of procedures
135.07.2 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall
(a) establish procedures and instructions, for each aeroplane type, containing ground
personnel and flight crew member's duties for all types of operations on the
ground and in flight;
(b) establish a checklist system to be used by flight deck crew members for all
phases of operation under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions, to
ensure that the operating procedures in the operations manual referred to in
Regulation 135.04.2, are followed; and
(c) ensure that flight crew members do not perform any activities during critical
phases of the flight other than those required for the safe operation of the
aeroplane.
Operational control and supervision
135.07.3 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall exercise
operational control and establish and maintain an approved method of supervision of
flight operations.
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(3) The operator shall ensure that the calculation of usable fuel required by such
aeroplane for a flight includes
(a) taxi fuel;
(b) trip fuel;
(c) reserve fuel consisting of
i
ii
iii
iv
v
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contingency fuel;
alternate fuel, if a destination alternate aerodrome is required,
including selection of the departure aerodrome as the destination
alternate aerodrome;
final reserve fuel; and
additional fuel, if required by the type of operation; and
extra fuel, if required by the pilot-in-command.
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(4) A mentally disturbed person shall not be carried in the aeroplane unless
(a) accompanied by an able-bodied assistant; and
(b) a medical certificate has been issued by a medical practitioner certifying such
mentally disturbed person's suitability for carriage by air, and confirming that
there is no risk of violence from such person.
(5) The operator shall undertake the carriage of a mentally disturbed person who,
according to his or her medical history, may become violent, only after special
permission has been obtained from the Commissioner by such operator.
(6) A passenger with a splinted or artificial limb may travel unaccompanied provided
he or she is able to assist himself or herself.
(7) The affected limb or supporting aids of a passenger referred to in subregulation
(6) shall not obstruct an aisle or any emergency exit or equipment.
(8) If a passenger with a splinted or artificial limb cannot assist himself or herself then
he or she shall be accompanied by an able-bodied assistant.
Limitations of carriage of infants, children and passengers with disability
135.07.15 (1) Only one passenger with a disability or one unaccompanied minor
may be carried in a small commercial air transport aeroplane.
(2) An able-bodied assistant shall accompany a passenger with a disability who
cannot assist himself or herself, and such assistant shall be assigned with the
responsibility of the safety of such passenger.
(3) The operator may establish procedures, other than the procedures referred to in
subregulations (1) and (2), for the carriage of infants, children, and passengers
with a disability: Provided that such procedures
(a) do not jeopardise aviation safety; and
(b) prior written approval is obtained from the Commissioner.
Carriage of inadmissible passengers, deportees or persons in custody
135.07.16 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall
establish procedures for the carriage of inadmissible passengers, deportees or
persons in custody to ensure the safety of the aeroplane and its occupants.
(2) The pilot-in-command of the aeroplane shall be notified by the operator of such
aeroplane prior to departure, of the intended carriage, and the reason for
carriage, of any of the persons referred to in subregulation (1).
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(3) For the purposes of this regulation, "inadmissible passenger" means any person
who is not entitled to board the aeroplane and includes those persons who are
not in the possession of a valid passenger ticket, passport or visa.
Carry-on baggage
135.07.17 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall
establish adequate procedures to ensure that only such baggage is carried onto the
aeroplane and taken into the passenger cabin as can be adequately and securely
stowed.
(2) The minimum requirements for the procedures referred to in subregulation (1)
shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135.
Securing of passenger cabin and galley
135.07.18 (1) Before take-off and landing and whenever deemed necessary in the
interests of aviation safety, the pilot-in-command of a small commercial air transport
aeroplane shall ensure that
(a) all equipment, baggage and loose articles in the cabin of the aeroplane, including
passenger service items and flight crew members' and passengers' personal
effects, are properly secured and stowed so as to avoid the possibility of injury to
persons or damage to such aeroplane through the movement of such articles
caused by in-flight turbulence or by unusual accelerations or manoeuvres; and all
aisles, passage ways, exits and escape paths are kept clear of obstructions.
(b) All solid articles shall be placed in approved stowage areas in the aeroplane, at
all time whenever the seat belt lights are illuminated or when so directed by the
pilot-in-command of such aeroplane.
(3) For the purposes of subregulation (2), "approved stowage area means
(a) the area under a passenger seat; or
(b) a locker, overhead; or other, utilised in accordance with the placard mass
limitation of the locker.
(4) No take-off or landing shall be commenced by the pilot-in-command of the
aeroplane, unless he or she has been informed of the safe condition of the cabin.
Passenger services
135.07.19 (1) Except when in use, all items for passenger services, including food
containers, thermos flasks and servicing trays, shall be carried in their respective
stowages and secured against movements likely to cause injury to persons or
damage to the aeroplane.
(2) All items referred to in subregulation (1) shall be stowed during take-off and
landing or during emergency situations, as directed by the pilot-in-command of
the aeroplane.
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Classification
135.08.1
(1) The classification of aeroplanes for performance limitation purposes
is prescribed in Regulation 91.09.4 (2) The operator of a small commercial air
transport aeroplane shall ensure that(a) a Class A aeroplane is operated in accordance with the performance operating
limitations prescribed in Division One;
(b) a Class B aeroplane is operated in accordance with the performance operating
limitation prescribed in Division Two; and
(c) a Class D aeroplane is operated in accordance with the performance limitations
prescribed in Division Three.
(3) Where specific design characteristics of an aeroplane prevents the compliance
with the regulations in Division One, Two or Three of this subpart, the operator
shall, notwithstanding the provisions of subregulation (2), ensure that the
aeroplane is operated in accordance with such standard that a level of safety
equivalent to the level of safety prescribed in the appropriate Division in this
subpart is maintained.
General provisions for all classes of aeroplanes
135.08.2 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall
ensure that the mass of the aeroplane, at the start of the take-off, is not greater than
the mass at which the requirements prescribed in the appropriate Division can be
complied with for the flight to be undertaken, allowing for expected reductions in
mass as the flight proceeds.
(2) The operator shall ensure that the approved performance data contained in the
aeroplane flight manual prescribed in Regulation 135.04.4, is used to determine
compliance with the requirements prescribed in the appropriate Division
supplemented as necessary with other approved data prescribed in the
appropriate Division.
(3) A twin-engine propeller-driven small commercial air transport aeroplane which
does not comply with the requirements as prescribed in Document SA-CATSOPS 135 for take-off and landing shall, for the purposes of this subpart, be
deemed to be a single-engine aeroplane, to be operated in accordance with the
performance operating limitations prescribed in Division Three.
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(3) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1), track changes shall
not be allowed up to the point on the net take-off path where a height of 50 feet
above the take-off surface has been achieved and thereafter, up to a height of
400 feet, it is assumed that the aeroplane is banked by not more than 15:
Provided that(a) above 400 feet, height bank angles greater than 15, but not more than 25, may
be scheduled; and
(b) adequate allowance is made for the effect of bank angle on operating speeds and
flight path, including the distance increments resulting from increased operating
speeds.
(4) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1) in those cases where the
intended flight path does not require track changes of more than 15, the
operator shall not be required to consider those obstacles which have a lateral
distance greater than
(a) 300 metres, if the pilot is able to maintain the required navigation accuracy
through the obstacle accountability area; or
(b) 600 metres, for flights under all other conditions.
When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1) in those cases where the
intended flight path does not require track changes of more than 15, the operator
shall not be required to consider those obstacles which have a lateral distance
greater than (a) 600 metres if the pilot is able to maintain the required navigation accuracy
through the obstacle accountability area; or
(b) 900 metres for flights under all other conditions.
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ii
(6) When complying with the provisions of this regulation, the operator may reduce
the width margins referred to in subregulations (4) and (5), to five nautical miles if
the required navigation accuracy can be achieved.
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(a) the operator of a Class A aeroplane which does not comply with the performance
operating instruction prescribed in Division One on the date of commencement of
the Regulations, and who may, until 30 June 1998, operate the aeroplane under
performance operating limitations approved by the Commissioner: Provided that
such limitations shall not be less restrictive than the performance operating
instructions prescribed in this Division; and
(b) the operator of a Class B aeroplane.
Take-off
135.08.11
(1) The operator of a Class A aeroplane prescribed in Regulation
135.08.10, or a Class B aeroplane, shall ensure that the take-off mass of the
aeroplane does not exceed the maximum certificated mass for the pressure altitude
and the ambient temperature at the aerodrome of departure.
(2) The operator shall ensure that the take-off distance, as specified in the aeroplane
flight manual prescribed in Regulation 135.04.4, multiplied by a factor of 1.3,
does not exceed the take-off run available.
(3) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (2), the operator shall take
account of(a) the mass of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take-off run, and
(b) the requirements prescribed in Regulation 135.08.4(3)
Take-off flight path
135.08.12
(1) The operator of a Class A aeroplane prescribed in Regulation
135.08.10, or a Class B aeroplane, shall ensure that the take-off flight path of the
aeroplane clears all obstacles by a vertical margin of at least 295 feet plus 0,125 x D,
where D is the horizontal distance the aeroplane has travelled from the end of the
take-off distance available except as prescribed in subregulations (3) and (4).
(2) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1), it shall be assumed that
(a) the take-off flight path begins at a height of 50 feet above the take-off surface at
the end of the take-off distance prescribed in Regulation 135.08.11(2) and ends
at a height of 1 500 feet above the take-off surface;
(b) the aeroplane is not banked before such aeroplane has reached a height of 50
feet above the take-off surface, and that thereafter the angle of the bank does not
exceed 15;
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(c) failure of the critical engine occurs at the point of the all-engines take-off flight
path where the loss of visual reference for the purpose of avoiding obstacles is
expected to occur;
(d) the gradient of the take-off flight path from 50 feet to the assumed engine-failure
height is equal to the average all-engines gradient during climb and transition to
the en route configuration, multiplied by a factor of 0,77; and
(e) the gradient of the take-off flight path from the height reached in accordance with
the provisions of paragraph (d) to the end of the take-off flight path, is equal to the
one-engine-inoperative en route climb gradient shown in the aeroplane flight
manual prescribed in Regulation 135.04.4.
(3) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1), in those cases where
the
intended flight path does not require track changes of more than 15, the operator
need not consider obstacles which have a lateral distance greater than(a) 300 metres, if the flight is conducted under conditions allowing visual course
guidance navigation, or if navigation aids or available enabling the pilot to
maintain the intended flight path with the same accuracy; and
(b) 600 metres for flights under all other conditions.
(4) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1),in those cases where the
intended flight path requires heading changes of more than 15, an operator need
not consider obstacles which have a lateral distance greater than
(a) 600 metres for nights under conditions allowing visual course guidance
navigation; or
(b) 900 metres for flights under all other conditions.
(5) When complying with the provisions of this regulation, an operator shall take
account of the requirements prescribed in Regulation 135.08.5(2).
En route
135.08.13
(1) The operator of a Class A aeroplane prescribed in Regulation
135.08.10, or a Class B aeroplane, shall be able to demonstrate that the aeroplane,
in the meteorological conditions expected for the flight, and in the event of the failure
of one engine, with the remaining engine or engines operating within the maximum
continuous power conditions specified, is capable of continuing flight at or above the
relevant minimum altitudes for safe flight stated in the operations manual prescribed
in Regulation 135.04.2, to a point 1 000 feet above an aerodrome at which the
performance requirements can be complied with.
(2) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1)
(a) the aeroplane shall be assumed not to be flying at an altitude exceeding the
altitude at which the rate of climb equals 300 feet per minute with all engines
operating within the maximum continuous power conditions specified in the
operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2; and
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(b) the assumed en route gradient with one-engine-inoperative shall be the gross
gradient minus 0,5 per cent gradient.
Landing at destination and alternate aerodromes
135.08.14
The operator of a Class A aeroplane prescribed in Regulation
135.08.10, or a Class B aeroplane, shall ensure that the landing mass of the
aeroplane does not exceed the maximum landing mass specified for the altitude and
the ambient temperature expected for the estimated time of arrival at the destination
and alternate aerodrome.
Landing on dry runways
135.08.15
(1) The operator of a Class A aeroplane prescribed in Regulation
135.08.10, or a Class B aeroplane, shall ensure that the landing mass of the
aeroplane for the estimated time of arrival, allows a full-stop landing from 50 feet
above the threshold within 70 per cent of the landing distance available at the
destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome: Provided that the
Commissioner may permit the use of a screen height of less than 50 feet, but not
less than 35 feet, for steep-approach and short-landing procedures.
(2) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1), the operator shall take
account of(a) the runway surface condition and the type of runway surface;
(b) the runway slope in the direction of take-off; and
(c) the requirements referred to in Regulation 135.08.8(2)(a) and (b).
(3) For dispatching the aeroplane in accordance with the provisions of subregulation
(1), it shall be assumed that
(a) such aeroplane will land on the most favourable runway, in still air; and
(b) such aeroplane will land on the runway most likely to be assigned considering the
probable wind speed and direction and the ground handling characteristics of the
aeroplane, and considering landing aids and terrain.
(4) If the operator is unable to comply with the provisions of subregulation 30(b) for
the destination aerodrome, the aeroplane may be dispatched if an alternate
aerodrome is designated which permits full compliance with the provisions of
subregulations (1), (2) and (3).
Landing on wet and contaminated runways
135.8.16
(1) The operator of a Class A aeroplane prescribed in Regulation
135.08.10, or a Class B aeroplane, shall ensure that, when the appropriated weather
reports or forecasts, or a combination thereof, indicate that the runway at the
estimated time of arrival may be wet, the landing distance available is at least 115
per cent of the required landing distance determined in accordance with the
provisions of Regulation 135.08.15.
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(2) The operator shall ensure that, when the appropriate weather reports or
forecasts, or a combination thereof, indicate that the runway at the estimated
time of arrival may be contaminated, the landing distance available is at least the
required approved landing distance.
(3) A landing distance on a wet runway shorter than the landing distance required by
the provisions of subregulation (1), but not less than the landing distance
required by the provisions of Regulation 135.08.15(1), may be used if the
aeroplane flight manual prescribed in Regulation 135.04.4, includes specified
additional information on landing distances on wet runways.
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(a) by night; or
(b) in IMC except under special VFR or under special conditions as approved by the
Commissioner.
Take-off
135.08.18 (1) The operator of a Class D aeroplane shall ensure that the take-off
mass of the aeroplane does not exceed the maximum certificated mass for the
pressure altitude and the ambient temperature at the aerodrome of departure.
(2) The operator shall ensure that the take-off distance, as specified in the aeroplane
flight manual prescribed in Regulation 135.04.4, multiplied by a factor of 1.3,
does not exceed the take-off run available.
(3) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (2), the operator shall take
account of
(a) the mass of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take-off run; and
(b) the requirements prescribed in Regulation 135.08.4(3).
Take-off flight path
135.08.19 (1) The operator of a Class D aeroplane shall ensure that the take-off
flight path of the aeroplane clears all obstacles by a vertical margin of at least 295
feet plus 0,125 x D, where D is the horizontal distance the aeroplane has travelled
from the end of the take-off distance available, except as provided in subregulations
(3) and (4).
(2) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1), it shall be assumed that
(a) the take-off flight path begins at a height of 50 feet above the take-off surface at
the end of the take-off distance required by Regulation 135.08.12(2) and ends at
a height of 1 500 feet above the take-off surface;
(b) The aeroplane is not banked before such aeroplane has reached a height of 50
feet above the take-off surface, and that thereafter the angle of bank does not
exceed 15,
(c) engine failure occurs at the point of the take-off flight path where the loss of visual
reference for the purpose of avoiding obstacles is expected to occur; and
(d) the gradient of the take-off flight path from 50 feet to the assumed engine-failure
height is the gradient during climb and transition to the en route configuration,
multiplied by a factor of 0,11.
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(3) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1), in those cases where
the intended flight path does not require track changes of more than 15, the
operator need not consider obstacles which have a lateral distance greater than(a) 300 metres, if the flight is conducted under conditions allowing visual course
guidance navigation, or if navigation aids are available enabling the pilot to
maintain the intended flight path with the same accuracy; and
(b) 600 metres for flights under all other conditions.
(4) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1), in those cases where
the intended flight path requires heading changes of more than 15, an operator
need not consider obstacles which have a lateral distance greater than
(a) 600 metres for flights under conditions allowing visual course guidance
navigation; or
(b) 900 metres for flights under all other conditions.
(5) When complying with the provisions of this regulation, the operator shall take
account of the requirements referred to in Regulation 135.08.5(2).
En route
135.08.20 (1) The operator of a Class D aeroplane shall be able to demonstrate
that the aeroplane, in the meteorological conditions expected for the flight, is capable
of continuing flight at or above the relevant minimum altitudes for safe flight stated in
the operations manual prescribed in Regulation 135.04.2, to a point 1 000 feet above
an aerodrome at which the performance requirements can be complied with.
(2) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1) the aeroplane shall be
assumed not to be flying at an altitude exceeding the altitude at which the rate of
climb equals 300 feet per minute within the maximum continuous power
conditions specified in the aeroplane flight manual prescribed in Regulation
135.04.4.
Landing at destination and alternate aerodromes
135.08.21 The operator of a Class D aeroplane shall ensure that the landing mass
of the aeroplane does not exceed the maximum landing mass specified for the
altitude and the ambient temperature for the estimated time of arrival at the
destination and alternate aerodrome.
Landing on dry runways
135.08.22
(1) The operator of a Class D aeroplane shall ensure that the landing
mass of the aeroplane for the estimated time of arrival allows a fun-stop landing from
50 feet above the threshold within 70 per cent of the landing distance available at the
destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome:
Provided that the Commissioner may permit the use of a screen height of less than
50 feet, but not less than 35 feet, for steep-approach and short-landing procedures.
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(2) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1), the operator shall take
account of(a) the runway surface condition and the type of runway surface;
(b) the runway slope in the direction of take-off; and
(c) the requirements referred to in Regulation 135.08.8(2)(a) and (b).
(3) For dispatching the aeroplane in accordance with the provisions of subregulation
(1), it shall be assumed that
(a) such aeroplane will land on the most favourable runway, in still air; and
(b) such aeroplane will land on the runway most likely to be assigned considering the
probable wind speed and direction and the ground handling characteristics of the
aeroplane, and considering landing aids and terrain.
(4) If the operator is unable to comply with the provisions of subregulation 3(b) for the
destination aerodrome, the aeroplane may be dispatched if an alternate
aerodrome is designated which permits full compliance with the provisions of
subregulations (1), (2) and (3).
Landing on wet and contaminated runways
135.08.23 (1) The operator of a Class D aeroplane shall ensure that, when the
appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or a combination thereof, indicate that the
runway at the estimated time of arrival may be wet, the landing distance is at least
115 per cent of the required landing distance in accordance with the provisions of
Regulation 135.08.22.
(2) The operator shall ensure that, when the appropriate weather reports or
forecasts, or a combination thereof, indicate that the runway at the estimated time
of arrival may be contaminated, the landing distance available is at least the
required approved landing distance.
(3) A landing distance on a wet runway shorter than the landing distance required by
the provisions of subregulation (1), but not less than the landing distance required
by the provisions of Regulation 135.08.22(1), may be used if the aeroplane flight
manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.4, includes specified additional
information on landing distances on wet runways.
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SUBPART 9: MAINTENANCE
General
135.09.1
The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall not
operate the aeroplane unless such aeroplane is maintained in accordance with the
regulations in Part 43.
Aeroplane maintenance schedule
135.09.2 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall
ensure that the aeroplane is maintained in accordance with an aeroplane
maintenance schedule established by the operator.
(2) The schedule shall contain details, including frequency, of all maintenance
required to be carried out on the aeroplane.
(3) The schedule shall include a reliability programme if the Commissioner
determines that such a reliability programme is necessary.
(4) The schedule referred to in subregulation (1) and any subsequent amendment
thereof shall be approved by the Commissioner.
Maintenance contracted to approved maintenance organisation
135.09.3 If maintenance on a small commercial air transport aeroplane is carried
out by the holder of an aircraft maintenance organisation approval with the
appropriate rating issued in terms of Part 145, the operator of the aeroplane shall
ensure that all contracted maintenance is carried out in accordance with the
regulations in Part 43.
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EXEMPTIONS
1. Exemptions
135.01.10
SUBCHARTERING
1. Subchartering
135.02.5
135.03.1
135.03.3
CONVERSION TRAINING
1. Operators conversion training course syllabus
2. Flight deck crew resource management training
35.03.5
UPGRADING TO PILOT-IN-COMMAND
1. Flight deck crew resource management training
135.03.6
135.03.8
135.04.2
OPERATIONS MANUAL
1. Structure of operations manual
2. Contents of operations manual
135.04.5
135.04.7
135.04.9
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135.05.13
135.06.2
135.06.3
135.06.7
135.07.1
135.07.7
135.07.10
FUEL POLICY
1. Contingency fuel
135.07.18
CARRY-ON BAGGAGE
1. Procedures for stowing of carry-on baggage
TABLES
TABLE 1:
CREWS
TABLE 2 :
TABLE 3.
TABLE 4
TABLE 5
ANNEXURES
ANNEXURE A :
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ANNEXURE B:
ANNEXURE C :
ANNEXURE D :
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135.01.2 EXEMPTIONS
1. Exemptions
(1) The Commissioner may, on application, exempt any person or aeroplane involved in
or used for emergency operations, from the provisions of Part 135, on condition that
the Commissioner is satisfied that
(a) exceptional circumstances prevail which necessitates the exemption;
(b) there is a need for the exemption; and
(c) an acceptable level of safety is maintained.
(2) The Commissioner may determine any supplementary condition that he or she
deems necessary in order to ensure that an acceptable level of safety is
maintained.
(3) An application for an exemption must be made in terms of the provisions of Part 11.
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135.01.10
SUBCHARTERING
Subchartering
An operator may subcharter an aeroplane or flight crew, or both an aeroplane and flight
crew in circumstances where such operator is
faced with an immediate, urgent and unforeseen need for a replacement aeroplane
and/or flight crew.
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2.
(1) CAR 135.02.5 requires that an operator of an aircraft must have a scheme for the
regulation of flight times and duty times of his or her flight crews.
(2) CAR 135.02.5 also requires that a flight crew member may not fly, and an
operator may not require that flight crew member to fly, if either has reason to
believe that he or she is suffering or is likely to suffer while flying, from such
fatigue as may endanger the safety of the aeroplane or of its occupants.
(3) Every flight crew member is required to inform the operator of all flying he or she
has undertaken if the cumulative amount of such flying and any scheduled duties
is likely to exceed the maximum laid down in the Regulations.
3. Operators' schemes and their approval
(1) An operator must submit a proposed scheme for the regulation of flight time and
duty periods and minimum rest periods to the Commissioner for approval.
(2) Any deviation from the approved scheme must be submitted to the Commissioner
for consideration.
(3) Non-availability of auto pilot or auto stabilisation systems requires a reduction in
flight time and duty period in respect of public air transport and IFR operations.
4. General principles of control of flight, duty and rest time
(1) The prime objective of any scheme of flight time limitations is to ensure that flight
crew members are adequately rested at the beginning of each flight duty period.
Aeroplane operators will therefore need to take account of interrelated planning
constraints on (a) individual duty and rest periods;
(b) the length of cycles of duty and the associated periods of time off; and
(c) cumulative duty hours within specific periods.
(2) Duties must be scheduled within the limits of the operator's scheme. To allow for
unforeseeable delays the pilot-in-command may, within prescribed conditions,
use his or her discretion to exceed the limits on the day. Nevertheless, flight
schedules must be realistic, and the planning of duties must be designed to avoid
as far as possible exceeding the flight duty limits.
(3) Other general considerations in the sensible planning of duties are
(a) the need to construct consecutive work patterns which will avoid as far as
possible such undesirable rostering practices as alternating day/night duties and
the positioning of flight crews in a manner likely to result in a serious disruption of
established sleep/work patterns;
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(b) the need, particularly where flights are carried out on a programmed basis, to
allow a reasonable period for the preflight notification of duty to flight crews, other
than those on standby; and
(c) the need to plan time off and also to ensure that flight crews are notified of their
allocation well in advance.
5. Responsibilities of flight crew members
It is the responsibility of all flight crew members to make optimum use of the
opportunities and facilities for rest provided by the operator, and to plan and use their
rest periods properly so as to minimise the risk of fatigue.
6. Standard provisions required for an operator's scheme
(1) The standard provisions which the Commissioner regards as the basis for an
acceptable scheme of flight and duty limitations and which, if included in an
operator's scheme, will facilitate approval by the Commissioner are contained in
paragraphs 7 to 13 below.
(2) Although operators are expected to plan their schemes in accordance with the
requirements, it is however, recognised that the standard provisions will not
necessarily be completely adaptable to every kind of operation. In exceptional
circumstances therefore operators may apply to have variations from the
standard provisions included in their schemes. However, such variations
should be kept to a minimum and approval will only be granted where an operator
can show that these proposed provisions will ensure an equivalent level of
protection against fatigue.
7. Limitations of single flight duty periods flight deck crew
7.1 Maximum rostered flight duty periods
The maximum rostered flight duty period (FDP) tin hours) must be in accordance with
Table 1, or Table 2 or 3, or Table 4 or 5. Rostering limits in the tables may be
extended by in-flight relief or split duty under the terms of paragraphs 7.2 and 7.3.
On the day, the pilot-in-command may at his or her discretion further extend the FDP
actually worked in accordance with paragraph 7.6
(1) Maximum FDP - Two pilot crews : aeroplanes
Table 2 applies when the FDP starts at a place where the flight crew member is
acclimatised to local time, and Table 3 applies to other times. To be considered
acclimatised for the purpose of this technical standard, a flight crew member
must be allowed three consecutive local nights free of duty within a local time
zone band which is two hours wide. He or she will thereafter be considered to
remain acclimatised to that same time zone band until he or she ends a duty
period at a place where local time falls outside this time zone band.
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(2) Maximum FDP - Two pilots plus additional flight crew member : aeroplanes
Table 4 applies when the FDP starts at a place where the flight crew member is
acclimatised to local time, and Table 5 applies at other times. To be considered
acclimatised for the purposes of this technical standard, a flight crew member
must be allowed three consecutive local nights free of duty within a local time
zone band which is two hours wide. He or she will thereafter be considered to
remain acclimatised to that same time zone band until he or she ends a duty
period at a place where local time falls outside this time zone band.
(3) Limits on two flight crew long range operations
(This paragraph does not apply to cabin crew members.)
When an aeroplane flight deck crew comprises only two pilots, the allowable FDP is
calculated as follows: A sector scheduled for more than 7 hours is considered as a
multi-sector flight, as below:
Scheduled
sector times
Acclimatised to local
time
Sector length
over 7 hrs but
not more than
9 hrs
Sector length
over 9 hrs but
not more than
11 hrs
Sector length
over 11 hrs
Sectors
2
Not applicable
Table 2 is then entered with the start time of the duty period and the 'modified'
number of sectors, to determine the allowable FDP.
When an additional, current, type rated pilot is a flight crew member, then these
limits do not apply and the permissible FDP is determined by entering Table 2 or 3
with time of start and the actual sectors planned.
7.2 Extension of flight duty period by in- Flight relief
(1) When any additional flight crew member is carried to provide in-flight relief for the
purpose! of extending a FDP, he or she must hold qualifications which will meet
the requirements of the operational duty for which he or she is required as a
relief.
(2) When in-flight relief is provided, there must be available, for the flight crew
member who is resting, a comfortable reclining seat or bunk separated and
screened from the flight deck and passengers.
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(3) A total of in-flight rest of less than three hours will not count towards extension of
an FDP, but where the total of in-flight rest (which need not be consecutive) is
three hours or more, the rostered FDP may be extended beyond that permitted in
Tables 2 and 3 or 4 and 5 by:
(a) If rest is taken in a bunk, a period equal to one half of the total of rest taken,
provided that the maximum FDP permissible is 18 hrs (or 19 hrs in the case of
cabin crew members); and
(b) if rest is taken in a seat, a period equal to one third of the total of rest taken,
provided that the maximum FDP permissible is 15 hrs (or 16 hrs in the case of
cabin crew members).
The maximum extension allowable is equivalent to that applying to the basic flight
crew member with the least rest.
(4)Where a flight crew member undertakes a period of in-flight relief and after its
completion is wholly free of duty for the remainder of the flight, that part of the
flight following completion of duty may be classed as positioning and be subject
to the controls on positioning detailed in paragraph 7.4.
7.3
When a FDP consists of two or more duties separated by less than a minimum rest
period, then the FDP may be extended beyond that permitted in the tables by the
amounts indicated below:
Consecutive hour
rest
Less than 3
3 10
The rest period must not include the time required for immediate post-flight and preflight duties. When the rest period is not more than six hours it will be sufficient if a
quiet and comfortable place is available, not open to the public, but if the rest period
is more than six consecutive hours, then a bed must be provided.
7.4 Positioning
All time spent on positioning as required by the operator is classed as duty, but
positioning does not count as a sector when assessing the maximum permissible
FDP. Positioning, as required by the operator, which immediately precedes a FDP, is
included as part of the FDP for the purpose of paragraph 7.1.
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(c) When a flight crew member has completed a flight time and duty period in excess
of eighteen hours, he or she must receive a rest period of at least eighteen hours
including a local night before he or she commences any further duties.
(d) Time on flight watch and home reserve duty may be counted towards the
required rest periods preceding a period of duty.
(3) Pilot-in-command's discretion to reduce a rest period
A pilot-in-command may, at his or her discretion, reduce a rest period to below
the minimum required by paragraph 8(2) and 12(2)(b). The exercise of such
discretion must be considered exceptional and should not be used to reduce
successive rest periods. A rest period must be long enough to allow flight crew
members at least eight hours, at the accommodation where the rest is taken. If a
rest period is reduced, the pilot-in-command must submit a report to his or her
employer, and if the reduction exceeds two hours, must submit a written report to
the Commissioner within thirty days. (See note 1 to paragraph 7.6(2)).
(4) For the purpose of calculating the minimum rest period before commencement of
duties, the required post flight duties on completion of the previous FDP is added
to such FDP.
9. Duty periods
(1) The following limits apply:
Duty
Flight watch
Maximum duration
No limit *
Home reserve
No limit*
Positioning
No maximum**
Standby
Standby + FDP
20 hours
**
(2) For the purpose of calculating duty time, the following applies:
(a) For the calculation of accumulated duty time in terms of paragraph 11, flight
watch and home reserve is credited on the basis of eight hours for every period of
twenty four or fewer consecutive hours, or on a one-for-one basis, whichever is
the lesser.
(b) Standby duty time must count fully as duty time for the calculation of accumulated
duty time in terms of paragraphs 8(2)(c) and (d) and 11.
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(d) The combined sum of standby duty and following FDP may not exceed twentyone hours.
(e) The average weekly total of duty hours may not exceed fifty-five hours.
(f) The annual and monthly limits on flying hours need not be applied.
13. Records to be maintained
An operator must retain all pilot-in-command discretion reports of extended flight
duty periods and reduced rest periods for a period of at least six months.
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(1) An operator's conversion course syllabus must include the following items.
(a) Ground training and checking including aeroplane systems, normal, abnormal and
emergency
procedures;
(b) emergency and safety equipment training and checking which must be completed
before aeroplane
training commences;
(c) flight deck crew resource management training;
(d) aeroplane/flight simulator training and checking; and
(e) line flying under supervision and line check.
(2) The conversion course must be conducted in the order set out in subparagraph(l)
above.
2.
The flight deck crew resource management training referred to in CAR 135.03.3(1)(h) is
the flight deck crew resource management training contemplated in TS 135.03.5.1.
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1.1 Procedures
(1) If the flight deck crew member has not previously completed an operator's
conversion course then the operator should ensure that a flight deck crew
resource management (CRM) course with a full length syllabus is completed .
The flight deck crew member should not be assessed either during or upon
completion of this course.
(2) If the flight deck crew member undergoes a subsequent conversion course with
the same or a change of operator, he or she should complete the appropriate
elements of the CRM course. The flight deck crew member should not be
assessed either during or upon completion of this training.
(3) Recurrent training:
(a) Where an operator utilises line orientated flying training (LOFT) in the recurrent
training programme, the flight deck crew member should complete elements of
CRM training. The flight deck crew member should not be assessed.
(b) Where an operator does not utilise LOFT, the flight deck crew member should
complete elements of CRM training every year. The flight deck crew member
should not be assessed.
(c) An operator should ensure that flight deck crew members complete the major
elements of the full length CRM course over a four year recurrent training cycle.
The flight deck crew member completing this refresher training should not be
assessed.
(d) When a flight deck crew member undergoes an operator proficiency check, line
check or command course, then CRM skills should be included in the overall
assessment.
(4) Operators should, as far as is practicable, provide combined training for flight
deck crew and cabin crew.
(5) There should be an effective liaison between flight deck crew and cabin crew
training departments. Provision should be made for flight deck and cabin crew
instructors to observe and comment on each others training.
(6) The successful resolution of aeroplane emergencies requires interaction between
flight deck crew and cabin crew and emphasis should be placed on the
importance of effective co-ordination and two-way communication between all
flight deck crew members in various emergency situations. Initial and recurrent
CRM training should include joint practice in aeroplane evacuations so that all
who are involved are aware of the duties other flight crew members should
perform. When such practice is not possible, combined flight deck crew and cabin
crew training should include joint discussion of emergency scenarios.
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Notion of
Senergy
Inquiry(
or
explore, examine,
scrutinise)
Conflict resolution
Decision making
Critique
Feedback
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(h) effective communication and co-ordination within the flight deck crew, and between flight
crew members and other operational personnel (air traffic controllers, maintenance
personnel etc);
(i) error chain and taking actions to break the error chain; and
(j) implications of automation on CRM.
(4) CRM training should also address the nature of the operator's operations as well as the
associated flight crew operating procedures. This will include areas of operations which
produce particular difficulties, adverse climatological conditions and any unusual
hazards.
(5) CRM training should include both:
(a) Classroom training; and
(b) practical exercises including group discussions and accident reviews to analyse
communication problems and instances or examples of a lack of information or flight
crew management.
(6) Ideally, the CRM training course should last a minimum of 3 days, but providing
the whole syllabus is covered, then a 2 day course may be acceptable. A one day
course for single pilot operations may be acceptable.
(7) As part of the operations manual, the CRM course (for conversion and recurrent
training) will be approved by the Commissioner. An operator may use a course
provided by another operator, if that course has already been accepted.
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Training
(1) A pilot-in-command whose duties also require him or her to operate in the righthand seat and carry out the duties of co-pilot, or a pilot-in-command required to
conduct training or examining duties from the right-hand seat, must complete
additional training and checking as specified in the operations manual, concurrent
with the operator proficiency checks prescribed in CAR 135.03.7. This
additional training must include at least the following:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(2) When engine-out manoeuvres are carried out in an aeroplane, the engine failure
must be simulated.
(3) When operating in the right-hand seat, the checks required for operating in the
left-hand seat must, in addition, be valid and current
(4) A pilot relieving as pilot-in-command must demonstrate practice of drills and
procedures, concurrent with the operator proficiency checks prescribed in CAR
135.03.7, which would otherwise have been the responsibility of the pilot-incommand. Where the differences between left and right seats are not significant
(for example because of use of autopilot) then practice may be conducted in
either seat.
(5) A pilot other than the pilot-in-command occupying the left-hand seat must
demonstrate practice of drills and procedures, concurrent with the operator
proficiency checks prescribed in CAR 135.03.7 which would otherwise have been
the pilot-in-command's responsibility acting as pilot non-flying. Where the
differences between left and right seats are not significant (for example because
of use of autopilot) then practice may be conducted in either seat.
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(1) Introduction
(a) A statement that the manual complies with all applicable CARs and with the terms
and conditions of the applicable operating certificate.
(b) A statement that the manual contains operational instructions that are to he
complied with by the relevant personnel.
(c) A list and brief description of the various parts, their contents, applicability and
use.
(d) Explanations and definitions of terms and words needed for the use of the
manual.
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(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
Pilot-in-command
Go-pilot
Pilot under supervision
Operation on more than one type or variant.
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(1) Flight time and duty period limitations and rest requirements
A description of the flight time and duty period limitations and rest requirements
prescribed in TS 135.02.10 as applicable to the operation.
(2) Exceedances of flight time and duty period limitations and/or reductions of rest
periods
Conditions under which flight time and duty period may be exceeded or rest
periods may be reduced and the procedures used to report these modifications.
Operating procedures
(1) Flight preparation instructions
As applicable to the operation:
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(iv) the method for determining the applicable passenger, baggage and cargo
mass;
(v) the applicable passenger and baggage masses for various
types of operations and aeroplane type;
(vi) general instruction and information necessary for verification of the various
types of mass and balance documentation in use;
(vii) last minute changes procedures;
(viii) specific gravity of fuel, oil and water methanol; and
(ix) seating policy/procedures.
(i) ATS flight plan
Procedures and responsibilities for the preparation and submission of the air
traffic service flight plan. Factors to be considered include the means of
submission for both Individual and repetitive flight plans.
(j) Operational flight plan
Procedures and responsibilities for the preparation and acceptance of the
operational flight plan. The use of the operational flight plan must be described
including samples of the operational flight plan formats in use.
(k) Operator's flight folio
The responsibilities and the use of the operator's flight folio must be described,
including samples of the format used.
A technical log may be used in place of a flight folio, if it contains the required
information.
(l) List of documents, forms and additional information to be carried.
(2) Ground handling instructions
(a) Fuelling procedures
A description of fuelling procedures, including
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(i.) safety precautions during refuelling and defuelling including when an APU
is in operation or when a turbine engine is running and the prop-brakes
are on;
(ii) refuelling and defuelling when passengers are embarking, on board or
disembarking ; and
(iii) precautions to be taken to
avoid mixing fuels.
(b) Aeroplane, passengers and cargo handling procedures related to safety
A description of the handling procedures to be used when allocating seats and
embarking and disembarking passengers and when loading and unloading the
aeroplane. Further procedures, aimed at achieving safety whilst the aeroplane is
on the apron, must also be given. Handling procedures must include
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
v.
vi.
vii.
viii.
ix.
x.
xi.
xii.
xiii.
xiv.
xv.
disembarking of persons
sick passengers and persons with reduced
mobility
transportation of inadmissible passengers,deportees or persons in custody
permissible size and weight of hand baggage
loading and securing of items in the aeroplane
special loads and classification of load compartments
positioning of ground equipment
operation of aeroplane doors
safety of the apron, including fire prevention, blast and suction areas
start-up on the apron departure
and arrival procedures
servicing of aeroplanes
documents and forms for aeroplane handling and
multiple occupancy of aeroplane seats.
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i. Proprietary or commercial
Names
ii. Characteristics
iii. Effects on aeroplane performance
iv. Hold-over items and
v. Precautions during usage.
(3) Flight procedures
(a) VFR/IFR policy
A description of the lowing flights to be made under VFR, or of requiring flights to
be made under IFR, or of changing from one to the other.
(b) Navigation procedure
A description of all navigation procedures relevant to the type(s) and area(s) of
operation.
Consideration must be given to
(i)
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i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
v.
vi.
vii.
viii.
ix.
thunderstorms;
icing conditions;
turbulence;
windshear
jetstream;
volcanic ash clouds;
heavy precipitation;
sand storms;
mountain waves; and
x. significant temperature inver sion s.
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Training flights
Test flights
Delivery flights
Ferry flights
demonstration flights; and
positioning flights,
including the kind of persons who may be carried on such flights.
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(5) the forms used for reporting and the procedure for submitting them to the relevant
authority must also be included; and
(6) if the operator develops additional safety related reporting procedures for its own
internal use, a description of the applicability and related forms to be used.
2.1.13 Rules of the air
Rules of the air including
(1) visual and instrument flight rules;
(2) territorial application of the rules of the air;
(3) communication procedures including COM-failure procedures;
(4) information and instructions relating to the interception of civil aeroplanes;
(5) the circumstances in which a radio listening watch is to be maintained;
(6) signals;
(7) time system used in operation;
(8) ATC clearances, adherence to flight plan and position reports;
(9) visual signals used to warn an unauthorised aeroplane flying in or about to enter
a restricted, prohibited or danger area;
(10)procedures for pilots observing an aviation accident or receiving a distress
transmission;
(11)the ground/air visual codes for use by survivors, description and use of signal
aids; and
(12)distress and urgency signals.
PART 2 : AEROPLANE OPERATING MATTERS - TYPE RELATED
Taking account of the differences between types, and variants of types, under
the following headings:
2.2.1
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2.2.2
Limitations
A description of the certified limitations and the applicable operational
limitations including
runway slope;
(11)
(12)
(13)
system limitations.
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(11)
missed approach;
(12)
normal landing;
(13)
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(11)
(12)
TCAS warning;
(13)
windshear; and
(14)
emergency landing/ditching.
2.2.5 Performance
(1) Performance data must be provided in a form in which it can be used without
difficulty.
(2) Performance data
Performance material which provides the necessary data for compliance with the
performance requirements prescribed in Part 1 of this technical standard must be
included to allow the determination of
(a) take-off climb limits - mass, altitude, temperature;
(b) take-off field length (dry, wet, contaminated);
(c) net flight path data for obstacle clearance calculation or, where applicable take-off
flight path;
(d) the gradient losses for banked climbouts;
(e) en route climb limits;
(f) approach climb limits;
(g) landing climb limits;
(h) landing field length (dry, wet, contaminated) including the effects of an in-flight
failure of a system or device, if it affects the landing distance;
(i) brake energy limits; and
(j) speeds applicable for the various flight stages (also considering wet or
contaminated runways).
(3) Supplementary data covering flights in icing conditions
Any certificated performance related to an allowable configuration, or configuration
deviation, such as anti-skid inoperative, must be included.
If performance data, as required for the appropriate performance class, is not
available in the approved AFM, then other data acceptable to the Commissioner
must be included. Alternatively, the operations manual may contain cross-reference
to the approved data contained in the AFM where such data is not likely to be used
often or in an emergency.
(4) Additional performance data
Additional performance data, where applicable, including
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(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
Loading
Procedures and provisions for loading and securing the load in the aeroplane.
2.2.9
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(7) search and rescue facilities in the area over which the aeroplane is to be flown;
(8) a description of the aeronautical charts that must be carried on board in relation
to the type of flight and the route to be flown, including the method to check their
validity;
(9) availability of aeronautical information and MET services;
(10)
(11)
(ii)
(d) For operations personnel other than flight crew members (e.g. dispatcher, handling
personnel etc. )
All other relevant items pertaining to their duties.
(3) Procedures
(a) Procedures for training and checking.
(b) Procedures to be applied in the event that personnel do not achieve or maintain the
required standards.
(c) Procedures to ensure that abnormal or emergency situations requiring the application
of part or all of abnormal or emergency procedures and simulation of IMC by artificial
means, are not simulated during commercial flights.
(4) Description of documentation to be stored and storage periods.
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(7) An operator must ensure that all entries in the operational flight plan are made
concurrently and that they are permanent in nature.
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(1) The load and trim sheet must contain the following information:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(i)
(j)
(k)
(l)
(2) The person superintending the loading of an aeroplane must certify that the load
distribution is in accordance with the requirements prescribed in the operations
manual or flight manual and that the maximum certificated mass has not been
exceeded.
(3) The load and trim sheet must be signed by the pilot-in-command unless the load
and trim sheet is sent to the aeroplane by electronic data transfer.
(4) Electronic data transfer
When the load and trim sheet is sent to the aeroplane by electronic data transfer,
a copy of the final load and trim sheet, as accepted by the pilot-in-command,
must be available on the ground.
(5) An example of a load and trim sheet is contained in Annexure B.
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135.07.1
1. Time/distance limitations
(1) An operator may not, unless specifically approved by the Commissioner (ETOPS
approval), operate a twin-engine performance Class A aeroplane, with a
maximum certificated mass of less than 45 454 kg and a maximum approved
passenger seating configuration of more than 19 seats, over a route that contains
a point further from an adequate aerodrome than the distance flown, under
standard conditions in still air, in 120 minutes at the one-engined inoperative
cruise speed.
Upon application by an operator, the Commissioner may approve a distance
equivalent to 180 minutes at the one engine inoperative cruise speed under
standard conditions in still air, provided the operator can demonstrate an
equivalent level of safety to the 120 minute operation and subject to any other
conditions that the Commissioner may deem necessary.
(2) An operator may not operate a twin engined performance Class B aeroplane on a
route that contains a point further, from an adequate aerodrome, than the
distance flown, under standard conditions in still air, in 90 minutes at the allengines maximum-range cruise speed, or 300 nautical miles, whichever is the
lesser.
(3) An operator may not, unless specially approved by the Commissioner (ETOPS
approval), operate a twin-engined aeroplane other than the aeroplanes referred
to in paragraph (1) or (2) above including cargo aeroplanes, on a route that
contains a point further, from an adequate aerodrome, than the distance flown,
under standard conditions in still air, in 120 minutes at the one-engineinoperative cruise speed.
(4) In the case of approved ETOPS operation, an operator must ensure than an
enroute alternate aerodrome is available within the authorised diversion time.
2.
Adequate aerodrome
(1) When defining aerodromes for the type of aeroplane(s) and operation(s)
concerned, an operator must take account of the following:
(a) An adequate aerodrome is an aerodrome which the operator considers to be
satisfactory, taking account of the applicable performance requirements and
runway characteristics. In addition, it should be anticipated that, at the expected
time of use, the aerodrome will be available and equipped with necessary
ancillary services, such as ATS, sufficient lighting, communications, weather
reporting, navaids and emergency services.
(2) For an ETOPS on route alternate aerodrome, the following additional points must
be considered:
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Take-off minima
(1) General
(a) Take-off minima established by the operator must be expressed as visibility or
RVR limits, taking into account all relevant factors for each aerodrome planned to
be used and the aeroplane characteristics. Where there is a specific need to see
and avoid obstacles on departure and/or for a forced landing, additional
conditions (e.g. ceiling) must be specified.
(b) The pilot-in-command may not commence take-off unless the weather conditions
at the aerodrome of departure are equal to or better than applicable minima for
landing at that aerodrome unless a suitable take-off alternate aerodrome is
available.
(c) When the reported meteorological visibility is below that required for take-off and
RVR is not reported, a take-off may only be commenced if the pilot-in-command
can determine that the RVR/visibility along the take-off runway is equal to or
better than the required minimum.
(d) When no reported meteorological visibility or RVR is available, a take-off may
only be commenced if the pilot-in-command can determine that the RVR/visibility
along the take-off runway is equal to or better than the required minimum.
(2) Visual reference
The take-off minima must be selected to ensure sufficient guidance to control the
aeroplane in the event of both a discontinued take-off in adverse circumstances
and a continued take-off after failure of the critical power unit.
(3) Required RVR/Visibility
(a) For multi-engined aeroplanes, whose performance is such that, in the event of a
critical power unit failure at any point during take-off, the aeroplane can either
stop or continue the take-off to a height of 1 500 feet above the aerodrome while
clearing obstacles by the required margins, the take-off minima established by an
operator must be expressed as RVR/visibility values not lower than those given in
Table 1 below except as provided in paragraph (4) below:
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Note
(1) The higher values apply to Category D aeroplanes.
(2) For night operations at least runway edge and runway end lights are
required.
(3) The reported RVR Visibility value representative of the initial part of the
take-off run can be replaced by pilot assessment.
(4) The required RVR value must be achieved for all of the relevant RVR
reporting points with the exception given in Note 3 above.
(b) For multi-engined aeroplanes whose performance is such that they cannot
comply with the performance conditions in subparagraph (3)(a) above in the
event of a critical power unit failure, there may be a need to re-land immediately
and to see and avoid obstacles in the take-off area.
Such aeroplanes may be operated to the following take-off minima provided they are
able to comply with the applicable obstacle clearance criteria, assuming engine
failure at the height specified. The take-off minima established by an operator must
be based upon the height from which the one engine inoperative net take-off flight
path can be constructed. The RVR minima used may not be lower than either of the
values given in Table 1 above or Table 2 below.
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Table 2:
Assumed engine failure height above the runway versus
RVR/Visibility
Take-off RVR/Visibility flight path
Assumed engine
RVR/Visibility (Note
failure height
2)
above the take-off
runway
< 50 ft
200 m
51 100 ft
300 m
101 150 ft
400 m
151 200 ft
500 m
201 300 ft
1 000 m
> 300 ft
1 500 m (Note 1)
Note
(c) When reported RVR, or meteorological visibility is not available, the pilot-incommand may not commence take-off unless he or she can determine that the
actual conditions satisfy the applicable take-off minima.
(4) Exceptions to paragraph (3)(a):
(a) Subject to the approval of the Commissioner, and provided the requirements in
paragraphs (i) to (v) below have been satisfied, an operator may reduce the takeoff minima to 125 m RVR (Category A, B and C aeroplanes) or 150 m RVR
(Category D aeroplanes) when
(i)
(iii)
(iv)
(iv)
(v)
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2. Non-precision approach
(1) System minima
An operator must ensure that system minima for non-precision approach procedures,
which are based upon the use of ILS without glidepath (LLZ only), VOR, NDB, SRA
and VDF are not lower than the MDH values given in Table 3 below.
Table 3 : System minima for non-precision approach aids
System minima
Facility
Lowest MDH
ILS (no glide path LLZ)
250 ft
SRA (terminating at NM) 250 ft
SRA (terminating a 1 NM)
300 ft
SRA (terminating at 2 NM)
350 ft
VOR
300 ft
VOR/DME
250 ft
NDB
300 ft
VDF (QDM and QGH)
300 ft
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MDH
250 ft 299 ft
300 ft 449 ft
450 ft 649 ft
650 ft and above
D
1 200m
1 400 m
1 600 m
1 800 m
RVR/Aeroplane category
A
1 000 m
1 200 m
1 400 m
1 500 m
B
1 100 m
1 300 m
1 500 m
1 500 m
C
1 200 m
1 400 m
1 600 m
1 800 m
D
1 400 m
1 600 m
1 800 m
2 000 m
RVR/Aeroplane category
A
1 200 m
1 300 m
1 500 m
1 500 m
B
1 300 m
1 400 m
1 500 m
1 500 m
C
1 400 m
1 600 m
1 800 m
2 000 m
D
1 600 m
1 800 m
2 000 m
2 000 m
Table 4 (d) : RVR for non-precision approach Nil approach light facilities
Non-precision approach minima
Nil approach light facilities (Notes (4), (5), (6) and (7)
MDH
250 ft 299 ft
300 ft 449 ft
450 ft 649 ft
650 ft and above
RVR/Aeroplane category
A
1 500 m
1 500 m
1 500 m
1 500 m
B
1 500 m
1 500 m
1 500 m
1 500 m
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C
1 600 m
1 800 m
2 000 m
2 000 m
D
1 800 m
2 000 m
2 000 m
2 000 m
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Note:
(1) Full facilities comprise runway markings, 720 m or more of HI/MI approach
lights, runway edge lights, threshold lights and runway end lights. Lights
must be on.
(2) Intermediate facilities comprise runway markings, 420 - 719 m of HI/MI
approach lights, runway edge lights, threshold lights and runway end
lights. Lights must be on.
(3) Basic facilities comprise runway markings, < 420 m of HI/MI approach
lights, any length of LI approach lights, runway edge Iights, threshold lights
and runway end lights. Lights must be on.
(4) NiI approach light facilities comprise runway markings, runway edge Iights,
threshold lights, runway end lights or no Iights at all.
(5) The tables are only applicable to conventional approaches with a nominal
descent slope of not greater than 4 . Greater descent slopes will usually
reguire that visual glide slope guidance (e.g. PAPI) is also visible at the
Minimum Descent Height.
(6) The above figures are either reported RVR or meteorological visibility
converted to RVR as in TS 135.07.7.8 below.
(7) The MDH mentioned In Table 4(a). 4(b), 4(c) and 4(d) refers to the initial
calculation of MDH When selecting the associated RVR, there is no need to
take account of a rounding up to the nearest ten feet, which may be done
for operational purposes, e.g. conversion to MDA.
(5) Night operations
For night operations at least runway edge, threshold and runway end lights must
be on.
3 Precision approach - Category I operations
(1) General
A Category I operation is a precision instrument approach procedure which
provides for an approach to a decision height not lower than 200 ft and a visibility
not less than 800 m or RVR not less than 555m.
(2) Decision height
An operator must ensure that the decision height to be used for a category
Iprecision approach is not lower than
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(a) the minimum decision height specified in the aeroplane flight manual (AFM) if
stated;
(b) the minimum height to which the precision approach aid can be used without the
required visual reference;
(c) the OCH/OCL for the category of aeroplane; or
(d) 200 ft.
(3) Visual reference
A pilot may not continue an approach below the Category I decision height,
determined in accordance with paragraph (2) above, unless at least one of the
following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and
identifiable to the pilot:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(g)
(h)
(i)
Facilities/RVR (Note 5)
Full
(Notes 1 and 6)
550 m
600 m
650 m
800 m
Interim.
(Notes 2 and 6)
700 m
700 m
800 m
900 m
Basic
(Notes 3 and 6)
800 m
800 m
900 m
1 000 m
Nil
(Notes 4 and 6)
1 000 m
1 000 m
1 200 m
1 200 m
Note :
1. Full facilities comprise runway markings, 720 m or more of HI/MI approach
lights, runway edge lights, threshold lights and runway end lights. Lights
must be on.
Note :
2. Intermediate facilities comprise runway markings, 420 719 m of HI/MI
approach lights, runway edge lights, threshold lights and runway end
lights. Lights must be on.
Revision: 4
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Note :
3. Basic facilities comprise runway markings, 420m of HI/MI approach lights,
any length of LI approach lights, runway edge lights, threshold lights and
runway end lights. Lights must be on.
Note :
4. Nil approach light facilities comprise runway markings, runway edge lights,
threshold lights, runway end lights or no lights at all
Note :
5. The above figures are either the reported RVR or meteorological visibility
converted to RVR as in accordance with technical standard 131.6
Note:
6. The table is applicable to conventional approaches while a glide slope
angle up to and including 4.
Note:
7. The DH mentioned in Table 5 refers to the initial calculation of DH. When
selecting the associated RVR, there is no need to take account of a
rounding up to the nearest ten feet, which may be done for operational
purposes, e.g. conversion to DA.
(5) Single pilot operations
For single pilot operations, an operator must calculate the minimum RVR for all
approaches in accordance with CAR 135.07.7 and this technical standard. An
RVR of less than 800 m is not permitted except when using a suitable autopilot
coupled to an ILS or MLS, in which case normal minima apply. The decision
height applied may not be less than 1.25x the minimum disengagement height for
the autopilot.
(6) Night operations
For night operations at least runway edge. threshold and runway end lights must
be on.
4. Precision approach -Category II operations
(1) General
A Category II operation is an ILS approach procedure which provides for an
approach to a decision height lower than 200 feet but not lower than 100 feet and
a RVR of not less than 350 m.
Revision: 4
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Notes 1 :
The reference to auto-coupled to below DH in this table means continued use
of the automatic flight control system down to a height which is not greater
than 80% of the applicable DH. Thus airworthiness requirements may, through
minimum engagement height for the automatic flight control system, affect the
DH to be applied.
Note 2:
300 m May be used for a Category D aeroplane conducting an Autoland.
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Fail Passive
Approach
category
IIIA
IIIB
IIIC
Decision height
(ft)
Less than 100 ft
Less than 50 ft
No DH
200 m (Note 1)
Not authrised
Not authrised
200 m
125 m
Not authorised
200 m
75 m
75 m
Note 1:
For operations to actual RVR values less than 300 m a go-around is assumed
in the event of an autopilot failure at or below DH.
6. Circling
(1) The lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling are:
Revision: 4
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MDH
Minimum
meteo
rological
visibilit
y
Aeroplane category
A
B
C
400 ft
500 ft
600 ft
1500
1600
2400
m
m
m
D
700 ft
3600
m
(2) Circling with prescribed tracks is an accepted procedure within the meaning of
this paragraph.
7.
Visual approach
An operator may not use an RVR of less than 1 500 m for a visual approach.
8.
(1) An operator must ensure that a meteorological visibility to RVR conversion is not
used for calculating take-off minima, Category II or III minima or when a reported
RVR is available.
(2) When converting meteorological visibility to RVR in all other circumstances than
those in paragraph (1) above, an operator must ensure that the following table is
used:
Table 9 : Conversion of visibility to RVR
Lighting elements in
operation
HI approach and runway
Lighting
Any type of lighting
installation
Other than above
No lighting
1.5
Not
applicable
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Contingency fuel
At the planning stage, not all factors which could have an influence on the fuel
consumption to the destination aerodrome can be foreseen. Therefore, contingency fuel
is carried to compensate for items such as
(1) deviations of an individual aeroplane from the expected fuel consumption data;
(2) deviations from forecast meteorological conditions; and
(3) deviations from planned routings and/or cruising levels/altitudes.
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135.07.17
CARRY-ON BAGGAGE
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135.08.2
(Reserved.)
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Local time of
start
0500 0659
0700 1359
1400 2059
2100 - 0459
Sectors
Up to 4
10
11
10
9
5
9
10
9
8
6
8
9
8
8
7
8
8
8
8
8 or more
8
8
8
8
Note:
Pilots engaged in repetitive short flights, with an average eight or more takeoffs and landings per hour, must have a break of at least thirty minutes within
any continuous period of three hours, away from the aircraft; however for the
purpose of these technical standards each such series of repetitive flights
must be counted as a single sector.
Local time of
start
0500 0659
0700 1359
1400 2059
2100 2159
2200 - 0459
1
13
14
13
12
11
2
12
13
12
11
10
3
11
12
11
10
9
4
10
11
10
9
9
Revision: 4
Sectors
5
6
10
9
11
10
10
9
9
9
9
9
7
9
9
9
9
9
8 or more
9
9
9
9
9
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Length of
preceding
Rest (hours)
Up to 18 or over
30
Between 18 and
30
Sectors
4
13
12
11
12
11
10
10
10
7 or
more
9
Note:
The reason that available duty times are less following rest periods inside 18
30 hours is the aeromedical advice that the quality of rest isless due to the
disturbance of the bodys natural rhythm.
Local time
of
start
0500 0659
0700 1359
1400 2059
2100 2159
Sectors
1
13
14
13
12
12
13
12
11
11
12
11
10
10
11
10
9
10
11
10
9
9
10
9
9
9
9
9
9
8 or
more
9
9
9
9
2200 - 0459
11
10
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Length of
Preceding
Rest
(hours)
Up to 18 or
over 30
Between 18
and
30
Sectors
4
7 or
more
11
10
10
10
13
12
12
11
Note:
The reason that available duty times are less following rest periods inside 18
30
Hours is the aeromedical advice that the quality of rest is less
due to the disturbance of the bodys natural rhythm.
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ANNEZURE A
Operator
Aircraft type
Flight number
Pilot-in-command
Date
Note: If discretion exercised for part crew or individual state name(s) and
Operating capacity below.
Part B
Flight details
YES/NO*
(2) Length of preceding rest eighteen to thirty hrs/under eighteen or over thirty hours *
(3) Split duty: actual time offtime on
(4) Extended FDP for in-flight relief
YES/NO*
Actual
UTC
Local
Start of duty
Depart
Arrive
Depart
Arrive
Depart
Arrive
Depart
Arrive
FDP to end
Schedule FDP
Local
Duty started
Departed
Arrived
Departed
Arrived
Departed
Arrived
Departed
Arrived
FDP ended
Actual FDP
Maximum permitted
FDP
Revision: 4
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323
: .
: .
Forwarded to CAA
Date
: .
SECTION 2 : REDUCTION OF REST
Note: All times to be recorded as date/time six-figure groups, expressed in both UTC
and
Local time.
Part A: Operator
Flight number
Aircraft type
Pilot-in-command
Date
Note: If discretion exercised for part crew or individual state name(s) and operating
Capacity below.
Part B: Last duty started
Last duty ended
Rest earned
Calculated earliest next
Avialable
Actual start of next
FDP
Rest period reduced
By crew affected
UTC/Local
UTC/Local
Hours
UTC/Local
UTC/Local
UTC/Local
: .
: .
Forwarded to CAA
Filed
: .
Revision: 4
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ANNEXURE B
LOADSHEET
Aircraft ZS.
Type
Flight No.
Date
From.
To.
AIRCRAFT
Operating mass, empty
Extra equipment (water injectants, defluid etc)
Crew (No)
Crew Baggage
Operating mass, empty
MASS
ARM
MOMENT
PAYLOAD
Passengers (No.)
(Passenger manifest must accompany
this load sheet)
Free baggage
Excess Baggage
Freight
Mail
(Other)
Aircraft zero fuel mass
C FUEL
(USABLE)
Tank No
Tank No
Tank No
Tank No
..
..
..
..
(QUANTITY)
.
.
.
.
.
SIGNATURE OF LOADER
LOAD SHEET EXAMINED
Date..
Signed
Pilot - in - command
Revision: 4
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ANNEXURE C
(LOGO)
SOUTH AFRICAN CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 1997
APPLICATION FOR NOTIFICATION OF CHANGES TO THE ISSUING OF AN OPERATING
CERTIFICATE TO THE PARTICULARS ON AN OPERATING CERTIFICATE
Notes:
(i.)
Where the required information cannot be furnished in the space provided on this form, the
information must as a separate memorandum and attached hereto.
(iii.)
..
..
..
..
..
..
..
Postal code:
Revision: 4
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*I/We herby declare that * I/we are in possession of an approved operations manual, that it is
up to date and that
*I/We may not operate the air service concerned contrary to the relevant approved operations
manual and any provisions of the Air Services Licensing Act, 1990 (Act No. 115 of 1990), the
Aviation Act, 1962 (Act No. 74 of 1962), and the Civil Aviation Offences Act, 1972 (Act No 10.
of 1972).
Name(s) of signatory(ies)
Signature(s)
I certify that the deponent(s) *has/have acknowledged that * he knows and understands/they
know and understand the contents of this statement, which was signed and *affirmed/sworn to
before me at
.on
19.
.
Commissioner of Oaths
Full
.
Name:
Business
.
address:
.
.
Capacity
.
Area
.
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ANNEXURE D
(LOGO)
SOUTH AFRICAN CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY
CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 1997
OPERATING CERTIFICATE
Operating certificate number : ..
This is to certify that .
Of
Expiry date : ..
Issued
at
PRETORIA
..19..
on
Revision: 4
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APPENDIX A
Revision: 4
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329
AIR LAW
Appendix A
Questions are often asked in the examination concerning the use of navigation lights at night
to avoid collision. Once a few principles are understood, these problems should not prove
difficult at all.
Using the diagram below let us examine the illustrated situations and formulate some rules.
Revision: 4
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Red to red and green to green is safe therefore no risk of collision exists. Easy enough.
Red to green (and vice versa!) is unsafe - but when and ,what must you do?
If the relative bearing between yourself and the other aircraft is either increasing or
decreasing then, although not safe, there is no collision risk.
If the bearing remains constant then there is a risk of collision and if:
You have the other aircraft on your right, the ANR's say you must alter
heading to the right to avoid collision.
You have the other aircraft on your left, maintain heading but be prepared to
take action should the other aircraft not take avoiding action. (Remember he
has you on his right and he must therefore give way.)
Finally, should you be approaching an aircraft from behind (with its white tail light visible,
that is, within 70 of its fore-aft axis and it is getting closer, bearing remaining constant,
you are on a collision course. You are in fact busy overtaking the other aircraft and you must
thus alter heading to the right.
In the table below consider the conditions given in columns (1) to (3). Select the correct
answer from the following 4 alternatives and insert it in column 4.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Revision: 4
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331
NOTES:
(i.)
Increases or decreases in column (3) refers to the numerical change in the value of the
bearing.
(ii.)
A dash in column (3) means that no information about change in relative bearing is required to
answer that question.
Lights of the other
flying machine seen in
addition to its anti
collision light
(1)
Relative
bearing of
the lights
when first
seen
(2)
Subsequent change
in the relative
bearing, if any
Answer
(3)
(4)
Question 1
040
Remains constant
Question 2
080
Question 3
Steady Green
030
Question 4
Steady Green
350
Decreases quickly
Question 5
Steady Red
045
Decreases quickly
Question 6
010
Remains constant
Question 7
300
Decreases quickly
Question 8
000
Question 9
Steady Red
050
Increases quickly
Question 10
Steady Green
340
Increases quickly
Question 11
Steady Red
030
Decreases quickly
Question 12
350
No change
Question 13
330
Remains constant
Question 14
040
Question 15
Steady Red
020
Increasing slowly
Question 16
310
No change
Question 17
320
Question 18
Steady Green
290
No change
Question 19
Steady Red
030
No change
Question 20
Steady Green
340
No change
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ANSWERS
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
C
A
A
A
A
C
A
C
A
A
A
B
D
A
A
C
A
D
C
D
Revision: 4
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APPENDIX B
Revision: 4
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335
QUESTIONS
1.
The final decision regarding the admission of any person to the flight deck shall be the
responsibility of the:
a)
b)
c)
2.
A person may smoke in a South African registered aeroplane when such aeroplane is
used in a scheduled air transport service operation and has departed from and will be
landing within the Republic
a)
b)
c)
3.
3 years or younger
Not yet reached his/her second birthday
1 year or younger
7.
1
2
3
6.
Windows
Adults laps
Exits
5.
True
False
Not Applicable
Where may infants in small commercial air transport aeroplanes NOT be seated:
a)
b)
c)
4.
Co-pilot
Pilot-in-command
Commissioner
Over a 14 day period, the number of days off should not be less than:
a)
b)
c)
3 days
2 days
4 days
Revision: 4
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336
8.
The minimum RVR/visibility for take-off with runway edge lighting and/or center-line
marking in an aircraft other than a category D aircraft is:
a)
b)
c)
9.
For a visual approach, the minimum RVR may not be less than:
a)
b)
c)
10.
No aircraft shall be used to conduct single pilot IFR flights unless equipped with:
a)
b)
c)
13
20h00 to 06h00
24h00 to 06h00
02h00 to 06h00
No twin or single engine aircraft may be operated over water without a life raft if more
than:
a)
b)
c)
12
1000 m
1500 m
2000 m
11
500 m
250 m
300 m
No aircraft owner or operator shall operate an aircraft without each seat being
equipped with:
a)
A seat belt;
b)
A safety harness for all crew members;
c)
A seat belt for cabin crew members and a safety harness for each flight deck
crew member.
14
An aircraft may not be operated over water without a life jacket for each person aboard
more than .. from the shore:
a)
b)
c)
Gilding distance;
50 NM;
10 NM.
Revision: 4
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15
16
17
When an aircraft is being overtaken by another aircraft, which aircraft has the right of
way and in which direction must the aircraft giving way turn:
a)
b)
c)
21
8 hours;
12 hours;
none of the above.
When two aircraft are converging at the same level, which aircraft has the right of way:
a)
b)
c)
20
No person acting as a flight crew member, may consume alcohol before commencing a
flight, within:
a)
b)
c)
19
18
Revision: 4
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22.
At what time intervals must an operator establish the mass and the centre of gravity of
the aircraft by actually weighing the aircraft
a)
b)
c)
23.
24
As stated under Part 1 of the CARs, day means the period of time from:
a)
b)
c)
28
By day only
When visibility is less than 1500m.
Both A & B.
Every VFR flight shall be so conducted that the aircraft is flown with visual reference to
the surface by day and at no time above more than.
a)
b)
c)
27
26
An aircraft following a line feature at or below 1500 ft. AGL and within 1 nm. of that line
feature shall:
a)
b)
c)
25
Every 5 years
Every 3 years
Every 4 years
As stated under Part 1 of the CARs, estimated time of arrival in respect of a VFR
flight, means:
a)
b)
c)
Estimated time that the aircraft will touchdown at the destination aerodrome.
Estimated time that the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome
Estimated time that the aircraft commences shutdown
Revision: 4
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29
As stated under Part 91, no person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft:
a)
b)
c)
30
As stated under Part 91 CARs, no person shall consume alcohol less than:
a)
b)
c)
31
If a flight plan is to be filed in flight, at least how long must it be filed before entering
controlled or advisory airspace:
a)
b)
c)
35
90 days
60 days
6 months
As stated in part 91 CARs, the PIC of the aircraft shall ensure that breathing oxygen is
available if flights in a non-pressurised aircraft are contemplated:
a)
b)
c)
34
As stated in Part 91 CARs, a pilot shall not act as PIC of an aircraft carrying
passengers by night unless the pilot has carried out 3 take-offs and landing by night in
the same class/category aircraft within:
a)
b)
c)
33
As stated under Part 91 CARs, no person shall act as a flight deck crew member of an
aircraft if flight time exceeds:
a)
b)
c)
32
30 minutes
60 minutes
10 minutes
A flight folio must be retained for at least how many years from the date of its last
entry:
a)
b)
c)
3 years
5 years
7 years
Revision: 4
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36
37
At least one hand fire extinguisher must be conveniently located on the flight deck for
use by flight deck crew. This must be of the following type :
a)
b)
c)
38
The meaning of an intercepting aircraft rocking its wings whilst in front of and to the
right of an intercepted aircraft, by day, is :
a)
b)
c)
42
For marshalling of fixed - wing aircraft, the signalman shall be facing the aircraft, within
view of the pilot, in a position :
a)
b)
c)
41
40
CO 2.
Halon 1211.
Dry Chemical.
An aircraft owner / operator must ensure that the ELT on board the aircraft is capable of
transmitting on the distress frequencies :
a)
b)
c)
39
12000'/14000'/ 60 minutes.
10000/2000'/ 45 minutes.
10000' /12000'/ 60 minutes.
FL 185.
FL 195.
FL 205.
Revision: 4
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43
. . . - - -
b)
- - . - - .
c)
---...
44
When using GPS in controlled airspace, the ATS unit must be advised if RAIM is lost for
periods greater than minutes, even if GPS is still providing positional information.
a)
b)
15 minutes.
5 minutes.
c)
45
10 minutes.
Critical phase of flight includes all ground operations and taxi, take-off and climb to cruise.
a)
b)
c)
Up to 1 500 feet
Above 10 000 feet
Up to 10 000 feet
Revision: 4
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ANSWERS
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
B
B
C
A
B
B
A
B
B
A
C
B
B
B
A
A
A
A
A
A
B
A
B
A
A
B
A
B
A
C
B
A
A
C
B
C
B
C
A
B
B
B
A
C
C
Revision: 4
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Revision: 4
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MOCK EXAM
CPL AIR LAW
TIME:
2 HOUR
TOTAL MARKS:
NO. OF QUESTIONS:
PASS MARK:
75%
Revision: 4
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345
1.
2.
Except with the written permission of the Commissioner, and subject to any
condition he may impose in the interests of safety, no aircraft shall circle over
or within one kilometre of, or do repeated overflights over an open air
assembly of persons below a height of:
a) 3000 feet above the surface,
b) 2000 feet above the surface,
c) 1500 feet above the surface.
3.
4.
An aircraft flown in accordance with VFR shall not be required to comply with
the provisions of Flight Levels if flown at a height above the surface of less
than :
a) 1000 feet,
b) 1500 feet,
c) 2000 feet.
5.
No pilot shall use a public road as a place of landing or take off, except :
a) in the case of emergency involving the safety of the aircraft,
b) with the permission of the Public Roads Department,
c) where no licensed aerodrome is available.
6.
Revision: 4
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7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
The pilot in command shall, prior to undertaking an IFR flight, obtain a weather
forecast for the destination and alternate aerodromes for a duration of at least:
a) one hour before and one hour after the ETA at both aerodromes,
b) the fuel endurance of the aircraft,
c) the ETA plus 1 hours at both aerodromes.
13.
Revision: 4
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14.
VMC minima for IFR flights above flight level 200 are :
a) visibility 8 kilometres distance from cloud 1 km horizontally, 1000 feet
vertically,
b) visibility 5 kilometres distance from cloud 2000 feet horizontally, 500 feet
vertically,
c) visibility 5 kilometres distance from cloud 1 km horizontally, 1000 feet
vertically.
15.
16.
An applicant for a commercial pilot's licence shall be not less than 18 years of
age and have completed not less than 200 hours of flight time which shall
include :
a) 100 hours as pilot in command, 20 hours cross country flight time as pilot
in command, 10 hours of night flying as pilot in command and 20 hours of
instrument flight instruction,
b) 100 hours as pilot in command, 30 hours cross country flight time as pilot
in command, 20 hours of night flying as pilot in command and 20 hours
of instrument flight instruction,
c) 100 hours as pilot in command, 20 hours cross country flight time as pilot
in command, 10 hours of night flying as pilot in command and 40 hours of
instrument flight instruction.
17.
An applicant for an instrument rating shall have completed not less than :
a) 150 hours of flight time as pilot in command and 40 hours of instrument
time,
b) 100 hours of flight time as pilot in command and 40 hours of instrument
time,
c) 150 hours of flight time as pilot in command and 20 hours of instrument
time.
Revision: 4
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18.
19.
A loadsheet shall be completed for flights made by South African aircraft which
are classified and operated under the public transport category and have a
maximum certified mass greater than :
a) 1600Kg,
b) 2700Kg,
c) 5700Kg.
20.
21.
You are requested to fly a foreign registered aeroplane for which you have the
appropriate type rating on your South African licence.
a) You may fly the aeroplane in South African airspace subject to SA Air
Navigation Regulations,
b) You may fly the aeroplane with written permission of the owner,
c) You may not fly the aeroplane if you do not hold a licence as prescribed
under the laws of the country in which the aeroplane is registered.
22.
23.
Revision: 4
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349
24.
25.
When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same height, the
aircraft that has he other on its right shall give way, except :
a) gliders shall give way to balloons, airships shall give way to aircraft which
are seen to be towing other aircraft,
b) gliders shall give way to airships and balloons.
26.
The loadsheet of a public transport aircraft must be retained after a flight for a
period of not less than:
a) 30 days
b) 90 days
c) 60 days
27.
28.
A pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft unless he has, in the
preceding:
a) 90 days carried out three take offs and landings in an aircraft of the same
class and category or an approved simulator,
b) six months carried out three take offs and landings in an aircraft of the
same class and category or an approved simulator,
c) six months carried out six take offs and landings in an aircraft of the same
class and category or an approved simulator,
29.
30.
The holder of any licence, certificate or rating shall inform the Commissioner
of any change of permanent address within a period of:
a) 7 days,
b) 14 days,
c) 1 month.
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31.
The vehicle moving along a runway or taxiway shall as far as practical keep to
the :
a) right side of the runway or taxiway,
b) either edge of the runway or taxiway,
c) left side of the runway or taxiway.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
Life saving rafts and associated equipment shall be carried over water if the
distance and time from the shore is:
a) 400 miles or 120 minutes, whichever is the greater, if the aircraft has four
engines
b) 400 miles or 120 minutes, which ever is the lesser, if the aircraft
has four engines
c) 400 miles or 120 minutes, whichever is the lesser, if the aircraft
has three or more engines.
37.
All aeroplanes operating in the public transport category shall carry a flight
data recorder if the maximum certified mass is :
a) 2 700 Kg or over
b) 4 700 Kg or over
c) 27000 Kg or over
38.
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39.
The pilot of an aircraft observes the anti collision beacon and the red
navigation light of another aircraft on a relative bearing of 030, the bearing
remaining constant.
a) there is a danger of collision, alter heading to the right,
b) there is no danger of collision.
c) there is a danger of collision, alter heading to the left.
40.
The pilot of an aircraft observes the anti collision beacon and the green
navigation light of another aircraft on a relative bearing of 330, the bearing
remaining constant.
a) there is a danger of collision, alter heading to the right,
b) there is no danger of collision.
c) there is a danger of collision.
41.
42.
43.
If a flight plan has been filed prior to departure and the departure of the
aircraft is delayed and the ATC is not informed, the fight plan will be cancelled
after:
a) 30 minutes after the ETD,
b) 1 hour after the ETD,
c) 1 hours after the ETD.
44.
45.
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46.
47.
No article other than fine sand or clean water used as ballast or chemical
substances for the purpose of spraying or dusting may be dropped from an
aircraft in flight, except:
a) by special permission granted by the Commissioner for Civil Aviation;
b) in an emergency;
c) both (a) and (b) are correct.
48.
49.
The pre flight inspection regarding serviceability of the aircraft and its
equipment and instruments are the responsibility of:
a) the flight engineer and the co pilot;
b) the flight engineer:
c) the pilot in command.
50.
51.
52.
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53.
From 1500 feet above the surface to FL 100 flight visibility and distance from
cloud must be:
a) one nautical mile and clear of cloud:
b) 5 km visibility, 2000 feet horizontally and 500 feet vertically:
c) 5 km visibility, 1 nm horizontally and 1000 feet vertically.
54.
From above FL 100 up to and including FL 200 flight visibility and distance
from cloud must be:
a) 5 km visibility, horizontally 2000 feet and 500 feet vertically;
b) 8 km visibility, horizontally 1,5 km and 1000 feet vertically;
c) 8 km visibility, horizontally 1,5 km and 500 feet vertically.
55.
From above FL 200, day and night, flight visibility and distance from cloud
must be:
a) 8 km visibility, horizontally 1,5 km and 1000 feet vertically;
b) 8 km visibility, horizontally 1500 feet and 500 feet vertically;
c) 5 km visibility, horizontally 1,8 km and 1500 feet vertically.
56.
An aircraft is to maintain a track of 357 degrees (T). TAS 110 KTS : wind
velocity 285/20 variation 10 W. Which of the following IFR flight levels can be
selected?
a) F115:F080:F215:
b) F 205 :F100 :F 230;.
c) F 090 :F210:F 130.
57.
An aircraft is to maintain a track of 175 degrees (T). TAS 110 KTS: wind
velocity 070/20; variation 07 W. Which of the following IFR flight levels can be
selected?
a) F 140 : F 280 :F 310;
b) F 160 : F 195 :F 280:
c) F 210 : F 240 :F 310.
58.
59.
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60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
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66.
67.
The pilot in command may depart from the prescribed Rules and Regulations
in the interest of safety, when such a departure has been made the pilot must
report it to the:
a) Director General : Department of Transport;
b) Nearest convenient Air Traffic Service Unit:
c) Nearest police station.
68.
Except when necessary for taking off or landing, or except with the individual
permission from the Commissioner for Civil Aviation, an aircraft shall be flown
over built up areas at a height:
a) of not less than 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a radius
of 2000 feet from the aircraft;
b) which, in the event of the failure of a power unit, will permit an emergency
landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface;
c) of not less than 1500 feet above the highest obstacle within a radius 2000
feet from the aircraft:
69.
70.
71.
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72.
Whilst flying at night, you observe the green side light of another aircraft on a
relative bearing of 320 deg. at the same flight level and the bearing remains
constant; you should;
a) maintain heading and speed but be prepared to take action if the
other aircraft fails to give way:
b) alter heading to starboard;
c) maintain speed and alter heading to port.
73.
In order to fly according to visual flight rules, below 1000 feet outside
controlled airspace, the flight visibility must be at least
a) 5 kilometres:
b) 3 kilometres:
c) 1 kilometres.
74.
The signal which, when directed from an aerodrome at an aircraft in the air
shall constitute an instruction to the aircraft to give way to other aircraft and
continue circling
a) an intermittent green beam;
b) a continuous red beam;
c) an intermittent read beam.
75.
76.
The mandatory red and green lights on wingtips for a night flight should be
visible above and below the horizontal plane, and from dead ahead through
an angle ofa) 70 deg.;
b) 110 deg.:
c) 120 deg.:
77.
78.
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79.
80.
81.
In Item 10 of an ICAO flight plan, the letters S, D and Z appear; this means
that the following equipment is carried: a) VHF, ADF, VOR, ILS, DME and other;
b) VHF, ADF, ILS, DME and GPS;
c) VHF, ADF, DME and Transponder.
82.
83.
Acrobatic fight, including spins, may not take place, except with the
permission of the CAA
a) below 4000 feet;
b) below 2000 feet;
c) below 3000 feet.
84.
85.
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86.
87.
88.
89.
When a pilot departs from the provisions of the ANR's in the interests of
safety, he shall:
a)
b)
c)
d)
90.
Which of the following series of flight levels apply to a magnetic track of 150
deg.
a) 190,230,290,310:
b) 70, 250, 290, 330:
c) 155,195,270,350.
91.
When flying to VD on a QDM of 150 deg., an appropriate flight level would be:
a) 310;
b) 290,
c) 215.
92.
93.
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94.
95.
You are to fly VFR from A to B having to cross an airway at right angles. Both
A and B are situated outside controlled airspace a) it is not necessary to file a flight plan;
b) it is only necessary to file a flight plan if altering acting is required;
c) both a) and b) are correct.
96.
97.
A safety pilot must be rated on the type of aircraft and he must also:a) occupy a control seat;
b) be able to keep a look out in all directions:
c) occupy a control seat and be able to keep a good look out.
98.
With reference to aircraft speed no person shall fly a turbine aircraft within an
ATA at an IAS of more than (safety permitting) a) 200 kts;
b) 160 kts;
c) 250 kts.
99.
100.
An AFIS operates at :
a) an aerodrome with an ATZ;
b) an aerodrome with an ATA;
c) a private aerodrome.
101.
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102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
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110.
111.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
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118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
Who is responsible for the signing of the load and trim sheet.
a) The operator
b) The Pilot in Command
c) The Loadmaster
124.
125.
When is the PIC not required to sign and load and trim sheet.
a) When the co pilot signs for it.
b) When the operator signs it.
c) When it is sent as an electronic copy.
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126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
When would a non precision approach MDA not refer to the runway threshold
elevation.
a) When a circling to land approach was intended.
b) When a missed approach was carried out.
c) Both a and b are correct.
132.
When is the MDA in a non precision approach not related to the Runway
threshold.
a) When the outer marker is u/s.
b) When the FAF is u/s.
c) When the runway threshold is more than 2 meters ( 7 feet lower than
the aerodrome elevation).
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133.
Two aircraft are in controlled airspace one has filed an IFR flight plan the other
not, which one has the right of way?
a) The one having filed the IFR flight plan
b) Neither
c) The a/c that is lower.
134.
How many handicapped passengers and infants may be carried on any one
flight under part 135 of the CAR's?
a) One of each.
b) One only.
c) One of each provided they are accompanied by an adult.
135.
136.
137.
138.
When does a pilot not have to comply with the semi circular rule.
a) When not permitted by weather conditions.
b) When flown below 1500 feet AGL VFR
c) When flying due North or South.
139.
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140.
141.
142.
143.
When does the Commissioner not require 2 crew in a small commercial air
transport turbo prop or turbo jet under IFR or by night.
a) (a)A/C certified for 1 crew and operator has a recurrent training program
for the pilot.
b) A/C certified for 1 crew and fully IFR equipped with autopilot with altitude
and heading hold.
c) (c) A/C certified for 1 crew and fully IFR equipped with autopilot with
altitude and heading hold and boom mike.
144.
How many hours must a newly qualified commercial pilot have before being
able to carry passengers more that 50 nautical miles from the aerodrome of
departure under VFR.
a) 200 hours and a suitable type rating
b) 300 PIC hours and a suitable type rating.
c) 300 hours Total Time or 200 hours and a valid Instrument rating.
145.
How many hours must a newly qualified commercial pilot have before being
able to carry passengers in a single crew multi engine type VFR more than 50
nautical miles from the aerodrome of departure.
a) 300 hours and a suitable type rating.
b) 300 PIC hours and a suitable type rating.
c) 300 hours Total Time or 200 hours and a valid Instrument rating.
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146.
How many hours must a commercial pilot have before being able to carry
passenger in a single crew multi engine aircraft under IFR .
a) 400 hours Total Time 200 hours PIC and 100 Hours multi hours.
b) 400 hours Total Time 200 PIC and 40 hours multi hours.
c) 400 hours Total Time 100 PIC and 40 hours multi hours.
147.
Under part 135 how often must a pilot have proficiency checks .
a) Every six months
b) Every 12 months.
c) 90 days.
148.
What is the validity of proficiency and operational checks under part 135.
a) Six months.
b) Six and 12 months respectively.
c) 12 months.
149.
150.
During a Cat 1 ILS what is the minimum RVR a pilot of a Class D aircraft may
use and when may this be decreased?
a) 800 meters may be decreased using a suitable coupled autopilot.
b) 1500 meters may be decreased using a suitable coupled autopilot
c) 550 meters if pilot is recent in terms of Part 91.02.4 a or b.
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C
A
B
B
A
A
C
A
B
B
C
A
C
A
B
A
B
C
A
B
C
A
B
C
A
B
C
A
C
B
A
A
B
C
C
B
C
C
A
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75
76
77
78
C
B
A
B
A
A
C
C
C
C
C
B
B
B
B
A
C
A
C
C
C
B
C
A
B
B
B
B
A
A
A
B
A
C
B
B
B
B
C
79
80
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
100
101
102
103
104
105
106
107
108
109
110
111
112
113
114
115
116
117
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A
A
A
B
B
C
B
C
B
B
C
B
B
C 500 met
A
C
C
C
C
A
A
B
A
C
A
A
A
A
A
B
A
C
C
C
A
B
A
B
B
118
119
120
121
122
123
124
125
126
127
128
129
130
131
132
133
134
135
136
137
138
139
140
141
142
143
144
145
146
147
148
149
150
A
A
C
A
B
B
C
C
B
A
C
A
C
A
C
C
B
C
A
C
B
A
C
B
C
A
C
A
B
A
B
C
A
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