METEOROLOGY

1.

The Conditions most favourable for the formation of radiation fog are
a)
warm, moist air over low, flat land areas on clear calm nights
b)
warm, moist air moving over a cold surface
c)
cold air moving over a warm surface

2.

Weather information indicates a strong wind perpendicular to a mountain range.

Other information to confirm the existence of mountain waves in the area will be
a)
stations down-wind of the mountain range reporting Ac Lenticular clouds
b)
stations up-wind of the mountain range reporting Cu clouds
c)
stations on both sides of the mountain range reporting no clouds but good
visibility

3.

The surface winds flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the
isolars because of
a)
surface friction
b)
Coriolis force
c)
the greater atmospheric pressure at the surface.

4.

The most frequent type of ground temperature inversions over large land masses
are produced by
a)
terrestrial radiation on a clear relatively still night
b)
the advection of colder air under warm air, or the advection of warm air
over cold air
c)
widespread sinking if air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by
compression

5.

In a particular flight in the Southern Hemisphere the winds at 1000 ft AGL are
northeasterly while the surface winds are easterly. The difference in wind
direction is primarily because of
a)
a pressure gradient increasing with altitude
b)
a stronger Coriolis force at the surface
c)
friction between the wind and the surface

6.

The characteristics of unstable air are

a)
turbulence and good surface visibility
b)
turbulence and poor surface visibility
c)
smooth conditions and good surface visibility

7.

Absolute instability exists in the atmosphere when

a)
The ELR is greater than the DALR
b)
The ELR is less than the SALR
c)
The ELR is lies between the DALR and the SALR

8.

The dewpoint temperature is

a)
the temperature at which dew will always form
b)
the temperature to which air would have to be colded at a constant
pressure in order to reach saturation
c)
the spread between actual temperature and the wet bulb temperature

9.

In an occluding frontal system the air ahead of the warm front is colder than the
air in the old air mass overtaking the warm air mass. The occluded front will be a
a)
cold front occlusion
b)
warm front occlusion
c)
stationary front

10.

When crossing a cold front in the southern hemisphere either from the cold to the
warm, or from the warm to the cold side, the windshift will be such as to require
an alteration in heading to
a)
the left
b)
the right
c)
south

11.

If crossing a cold front at a higher altitude the change in the temperature and
wind direction will be
a)
less than the change at a lower altitude
b)
greater than the change at a lower altitude
c)
the same as the change at a lower altitude

12.

Warm frontal weather is associated with a

a)
lowering cloud base, precipitation and reduced visibility
b)
lowering cloud base, strong winds and good visibility
c)
narrow band of clouds, thunderstorms and good visibility

13.

heavy
range
a)
b)
c)

ice accretion in nimbostratus clouds can be expected in the temperature

00C to 100C
150C to 250C
300C to 400C

14.

Rime ice forms as a result of

a)
water vapour turning directly into ice
b)
small supercooled water droplets freezing almost instantaneously
c)
large supercooled water droplets spreading as they freeze

15.

Clear ice forms as a result of

a)
water vapour turning directly into ice
b)
small supercooled water droplets freezing, almost instantaneously
c)
large supercooled water droplets spreading as they freeze

16.

Some typical clouds associated with a cold front are

a)
stratus and nimbostratus
b)
altostratus and cirrostratus
c)
cumulus and cumulonimbus

17.

The winds which blow from opposite directions in the summer and winter in
certain regions of the tropics are called
a)
trade winds
b)
monsoon winds
c)
doldrums

18.

The characteristics of unstable air are

a)
poor
steady
b)
good
showers
c)
good
steady

stratus
cumulus
stratus

19.

Cumulus clouds are always associated with severe icing because of

a)
strong vertical currents producing a predominance of large supercooled
water
b)
strong vertical currents producing a predominance of small supercooled
water droplets in the clouds
c)
the freezing level being at a lower height

20.

Deflection of moist stable air over a gradual upslope can be expected to

a)
produce low stratus and fog
b)
produce nimbostratus or altostratus
c)
cause cumubus and thunderstorms

21.

Rising air becomes colder because the

a)
pressure decreases with height and their air expands
b)
surrounding air is colder at higher levels
c)
water vapour in the air becomes less at increased heights

22.

The saturated adiabatic lapse rate is less than the dry adiabatic lapse rate
because
a)
the rate of ascent is less
b)
water vapour does not cool as rapidly as air
c)
latent heat is released during the saturated adiabatic process

23.

The characteristics of rime ice and conditions most favourable for the rime ice
formation are
a)
opaque, rough appearance, tending to spread back over the surface. Most
frequently encountered in cumuloform cloud
b)
milky, granular appearance forming on leading edges and accumulating
forward into the airstream. Encountered in straitform clouds and
temperature -100C to -200C.

c)

transparent appearance which tends to take the shape of the surface on

which it freezes. Encountered in stratiform clouds at temperature only
slightly below freezing.

24.

The amount of water vapour which air can hold largely depends on
a)
the dewpoint
b)
the air temperature
c)
the relative humidity

25.

Clouds formed by turbulence in stable conditions are usually of the genus

a)
Cu
b)
St or Sc
c)
Ac

26.

A cold breeze blowing down a mountain slope at night is known as

a)
an anabatic wind
b)
a katabatic wind
c)
A Berg wind

27.

If an observer stands with his back to the wind in the Southern hemisphere the
lower pressure is
a)
on his left
b)
on his right
c)
ahead of him

28.

When crossing a cold front in the southern hemisphere from the warm to the cold
sector, there will be
a)
a backing in the wind direction
b)
a veering in the wind direction
c)
no change in the wind direction
Approaching the Equator, the Coriolis effect
a)
becomes very small
b)
becomes larger
c)
changes direction

29.

30.

Atmospheric pressure at a place is defined as the

a)
mass of a column of air per unit area above that place
b)
mass of a column of air above that place
c)
length of a column of air above that place

31.

Runway visual range will only be measured at an aerodrum if the meteorological

visibility is
a)
less than 10km
b)
5km or less
c)
1.5km or less

32.

The conditions necessary for the formation of a thunderstorm are

a)
moist air in lower layers, instability, lifting action
b)
moist air in upper layers, stability, frontal action
c)
sufficient moisture, instability and electricity

33.

Density altitude is equal to

a)
the true altitude corrected for temperature
b)
the indicated altitude when the altimeter sub-scale is set to QNH
c)
the pressure altitude corrected for temperature

34.

The amount of water vapour in a mass of air expressed as a percentage of total

amount of water vapour that the mass of air could contain if it was saturated at
the same temperature and pressure, is known as the
a)
absolute humidity
b)
relative humidity
c)
specific humidity

35.

In the doldrums the surface wind is

a)
mainly easterly and is often very strong
b)
light easterly and is often disturbed by local effects and tropical
disturbances
c)
mainly westerly and is often very strong

36.

When a cold front moves over Cape Town, the wind will
a)
change from fresh north-westerly to strong south westerly
b)
change from fresh north westerly to strong south easterly
c)
will remain strong westerly
A common cause of turbulence, especially at low altitudes is
a)
convective currents
b)
light wind
c)
jet steams

37.

38.

If there is no change in the pressure distribution, (southern hemisphere) the

surface wind at midday will
a)
increase and back
b)
decrease and veer
c)
decrease and back

39.

Upper wind speed and direction for aviation is usually given in

a)
knots and degrees from magnetic north
b)
knots and degrees from true north
c)
miles per hour and degrees from true north

40.

Tropical cyclones develop in most tropical oceans

a)
on the Equator
b)
between 20 and 50 from the Equator

c)

between 50 and 150 from the Equator

41.

When the reported pressure indicates a more or less continuous fall, the
following type of weather can be anticipated

42.

SPECI messages are

a)
routine weather reports from an aerodrome
b)
special messages giving information regarding the occurrence or expected
occurrence of adverse weather conditions at or near the aerodrome.
c)
special messages giving information regarding the conditions of or
changes in the meteorological forecast service at an aerodrome

43.

A particular hazard a pilot should bear in mind when he is aware of a

thunderstorm close to the terminal airfield is
a)
the danger of lighting
b)
bad visibility
c)
a sudden change in wind direction

44.

The type of thunderstorms usually associated with heavy hail showers and
destructive winds is
a)
warm front thunderstorms
b)
squall line thunderstorm
c)
thunderstorms in the dissippating stage
Wind sheer occurs
a)
only at high altitudes in the vicinity of jet streams
b)
at any level and it may be associated with change in the wind speed or
direction or both
c)
primarily at lower altitudes in the vicinity of mountain waves

45.

46.

If the wind blows across a mountain range, mountain waves and turbulence can
always be anticipated on the lee side of the mountain if the
a)
windspeed is less than 20 kts and the air is unstable
b)
wind is stronger than 30 kts and the air is unstable
c)
wind is stronger than kts and the air is stable

47.

Virga is
a)
a kind of fog
b)
precipitation from a cloud not reaching the earth
c)
a strong sea breeze experienced on the Namibian coast

48.

Pressure systems on the earth develop because of the presence of

a)
oxygen and nitrogen
b)
theory of constant mass flow
c)
the sun

49.

A property of warm air masses is

a)
b)
c)

oxygen and nitrogen

theory of constant mass flow
shower type precipitation

50.

Radiation fog is mostly likely

a)
radiation fog
b)
up-slope fog
c)
advection fog

51.

The type of fog most common over water areas is

a)
radiation fog
b)
up-slope fog
c)
advection fog

52.

In regard to the depth of fog

a)
advection fog is likely to be deeper than radiation fog
b)
the depth of the fog has no relation to its type
c)
radiation fog is likely to be the deepest type of fog

53.

Select the correct statement

a)
A monsoon wind is a rain bearing wind which blows in a constant direction
b)
a trade wind, unlike a monsoon wind, is a dry wind
c)
a monsoon wind reverses its direction at a change of a season

54.

Winds blow across isobars because of

a)
Coiolis face
b)
Surface friction
c)
The ocean currents

55.

An isobar is a line joining points of equal

a)
temperature
b)
density
c)
pressure

56.

Select the correct statement

a)
an inversion is a decrease in temperature with a decrease in altitude
b)
during the adiabatic process there is no pressure change
c)
the temperature remains constant during the adiabatic process change

57.

The air mass in which SALR of 10C/1 000 ft is likely is

a)
PWm
b)
TKc
c)
TWm

58.

The environmental lapse rate which is more likely to lead to conditional instability
is
a)
30C/1 000 ft
b)
20C/1 000 ft
c)
1.50C/1 000 ft

59.

Depressions in temperate areas tends to form along the line of

a)
the doldrums
b)
the ITCZ
c)
the polar front

60.

In a depression the air generally tends to

a)
settle towards the surface
b)
rise
c)
advect

61.

In a temperate depression the isobars are straight

a)
ahead of the warm front
b)
ahead of the cold front
c)
behind the cold front

62.

After the passage of a cold front at Cape Town the wind veers to NW. This
probably indicates
a)
the bad weather is over
b)
a col
c)
a family depression

63.

CAVOK means
a)
vis > 10 000 ft, cloud base > 5 000 ft, no thunderstorms, no fog, no sig
b)
vis > 10 000 m, cloud base > 10 000 ft or more if required, no Cb, no fog,
no sig
c)
vis > 10 000 m, no low or medium cloud, no Cb, no fog nil sig wx

64.

Select the correct statement

a)
the temperature/dewpoint spread can be used to determine the cloud
base
b)
relative humidity is the ratio of air to water
c)
vapour pressure is high when the relative humidity is low

65.

Select the correct statement

a)
for absolutely unstable air the ELR must be steeper than the SALR and
the DALR
b)
for stable air the ELR must be steeper than the SALR and the DALR
c)
for conditionally unstable air the ELR must be steeper than both SALR
and DALR

66.

The temperature at an airfield at 3 000 FT AMSL IN 84 0F, this represents

a)
ISA + 200C
8

b)
c)

ISA + 150C
ISA + 170C

67.

Select the correct statement

a)
320C = 00F
b)
C = 5/9 (f 32)
c)
F = 5/9 C + 32

68.

Select the correct statement

a)
heat and temperature are the same thing
b)
land radiates heat faster than water
c)
vapour pressure increases with an increase in temperature
A Stephenson screen is used in the measurement of
a)
wind velocity
b)
temperature
c)
rainfall

69.

70.

A lapse rate which is not adiabatic is

a)
DALR
b)
SALR
c)
ELR

71.

A lapse rate which is not a constant value is

a)
DALR
b)
SALR
c)
ELR

72.

If the SALR is 1.70C/1 000 ft and the ELR is 1.6248 0C/1 000 ft then the air mass
is likely to be
a)
conditionally unstable
b)
absolutely stable
c)
absolutely unstable

73.

A cloud type which is not classified as a medium cloud is

a)
alto-stratus
b)
cumulus
c)
nimbo-stratus

74.

Landing at Jan Smuts (elevation 5 500 ft) you are passed a QNE of 5 200ft. QNH
is
a)
1023
b)
1017
c)
1003

75.

A characteristic of stable air is

a)
unlimited visibility
b)
a high ELR
9

c)

straitform clouds

76.

Select the correct statement

a)
in mist the visibility is less than 1km
b)
radiation fog occurs after the horizontal transfer of heat
c)
if the wind speed is greater than 10 kt radiation fog will dissipate and
change into Fs, St, or Sc

77.

Air pressure is
a)
the indication of a baroderosometer
b)
w = mg and P1V1 = P2V2
c)
the weight of a column of air over a given area

78.

In South Africa the wind circulation around a low pressure area is

a)
anti-clockwise
b)
clockwise
c)
the cause of the Cape Southeaster

79.

Select the correct statement

a)
a sea breeze occurs at night and blows from land to sea
b)
a sea breeze occurs at daytime and blows from sea to land
c)
a sea breeze is also called a katabatic wind

80.

Winds are strongest

a)
in a col
b)
where the isobars are far apart
c)
when isobars are close together

81.

A wind which occurs at night at night is

a)
a anabatic wind
b)
a katabatic wind
c)
a sea breeze

82.

A cross in the middle of the station circle on a synoptic chart indicates

a)
that the sky is obscured
b)
that there is no cloud
c)
that there is 9 oktas of cloud

83.

Saturated air which is forced to rise will cool at a rate of

a)
1.980/1 000 ft
b)
30C/1 000 ft
c)
1.50C/1 000 ft

84.

Standing with your back to the wind in the Northern hemisphere, the low
pressure is
a)
to your right
b)
to your left
c)
to your front

10

85.

86.

Cloud and rain are usually associated with

a)
low pressure areas and rising air
b)
a col
c)
high pressure areas and descending air
An area formed by two anti-cyclones which force other pressure systems apart is
a)
a col
b)
a ridge
c)
a trough

87.

The fog type common along the West Coat of South Africa is
a)
advection fog
b)
radiation fog
c)
actually stratus cloud

88.

In South Africa, the wind circulation around an anticyclone is

a)
clockwise
b)
anti-clockwise
c)
the cause of an occlusion

89.

In the month of December the ITCZ will be

a)
in the northern hemisphere
b)
passing the Equator
c)
in the southern hemisphere

90.

A wind which occurs during the day is

a)
a land breeze
b)
a katabatic wind
c)
a sea breeze

91.

Radiation fog is most likely to occur when

a)
warm air moves under cold air
b)
when sinking air from aloft is heated by compression
c)
when terrestrial radiation is maximum on a clear night with light winds

92.

The environment in which aircraft icing is most likely to have the highest rate of
accumulation is
a)
heavy wet snow
b)
cumulonimbus clouds
c)
freezing rain

93.

The thunderstorms which general produce the most conditions such as heavy
hail and destructive winds are thunderstorms from
a)
warm front
b)
airmass
c)
cold front
With reference to surface horizontal visibility, the visibility as reported by code
figure 7 5 is

94.

11

a)
b)
c)

25km
7.5km
750m

95.

The saturated adiabatic lapse rate is

a)
always the same as the environmental lapse rate
b)
always greater than the DALR
c)
always less than the DALR

96.

Meteorological factors which would indicate the likelihood of fog are

a)
a large temperature difference between ambient temperature and dew
point
b)
strong winds
c)
a dew point temperature close to ambient temperature

97.

The type of cloud usually caused by air rising over a hill is

a)
cirro-cumulus
b)
alto-stratus
c)
stratus

98.

Weather changes are primary due to

a)
variations of solar energy received at the surface of the earth
b)
movement of the air masses
c)
pressure variations over the earths surface

99.

True altitude and pressure altitude will be the same when

a)
the outside air temperature is standard for that altitude
b)
when the atmospheric pressure is 1013.25hPa
c)
when standard density conditions exist

100.

The formation of cloud, mist or dew always occurs when

a)
water vapour in the atmosphere is present
b)
the dew point and the temperature are equal
c)
the air is stable

101.

The amount of water vapour which may be held in suspension in the atmosphere
depends largely on the
a)
air temperature
b)
stability of the air
c)
dew point temperature
Strong turbulence can be expected in
a)
altocumulus castellanus
b)
nimbostratus
c)
cumulonimbus

102.

103.

Choose the correct statement

12

a)
b)
c)

if the temperature remains constant and pressure decreases, the air

density will decrease.
if the temperature decreases and the pressure remains constant, the air
density will decrease
none of the above statements is correct

104.

Rising air becomes colder because the

a)
pressure decreases with height and the air expands
b)
surrounding air is colder at higher levels
c)
water vapour in the air becomes less

105.

The saturated adiabatic lapse rate is less than the dry adiabatic lapse rate
because
a)
the rate of ascent is less
b)
latent heat is released during the condensation process
c)
water vapour does not cool as rapidly as dry air

106.

Conditional instability exists in the atmosphere when

a)
the ELR is greater than the DALR
b)
the ELR is less than the SALR
c)
the ELR lies between the DALR and SALR

107.

The most frequent type of surface temperature inversion is that produced by

a)
the advection of colder air under warmer air
b)
the advection of warm air over cold air
c)
terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night

108.

Meteorological conditions producing marked low level wind shear are

a)
a low level temperature inversion
b)
fair weather cumulus clouds
c)
warm cloudless conditions

109.

Weather information indicates a strong wind blowing perpendicular to a mountain

range. Other information confirming the existence of mountain waves in the area
will be
a)
stations down-wind from the mountain range reporting patches of AC
b)
stations up-wind of the mountain range reporting Cu clouds
c)
stations on each side of the mountain range reporting no clouds but good
visibility
Deflection of moist stable air flowing upslope can be expected to
a)
produce low St or fog
b)
produce nimbostratus or altostratus
c)
cause cumulus and thunderstorms

110.

111.

Conditions most favorable for the formation of radiation fog are

a)
cold air moving over a warm surface at night
b)
warm, moist air moving over a cold surface
c)
warm, moist air over low, flat land areas on clear nights with a light breeze

13

112.

When crossing a front at higher altitude the change in the temperature and wind
direction will be
a)
greater than the change at a lower altitude
b)
less than the change at a lower altitude
c)
the same as the change at a lower altitude

113.

Clear air turbulence is frequently associated with

a)
jet streams
b)
Cb clouds
c)
cold fronts

114.

Convective clouds are most dangerous from the icing point of view because
a)
convective clouds indicate a lower freezing level
b)
the strong vertical currents mean that a predominance of small
supercooled water droplets will be present
c)
the strong vertical currents mean that a predominance of large
supercooled water droplets will be present

115.

You are flying at an indicated height of 2000 ft in the southern hemisphere. Your
track is 220oT and the wind is 300/25. If you maintain the indicated height and the
wind remains the same, your true height will
a)
increase
b)
decrease
c)
stay the same

116.

Strong winds in a humid airstream have caused the formation of an extensive

layer of turbulent cloud, the base of which is reported to be at 1000 ft amsl and
the tops at 5000 ft. Airfield elevation is 330 ft and the air temperature at take-off
is 5oC. The estimated depth of the airframe icing layer in the Sc is
a)
b)
c)

between 1000 ft and 3000 ft amsl

between 1300 ft and 3670 ft amsl
between 3000 ft and the top of the clouds

117.

Runway visual range will only be reported at an aerodrome if the meteorological

visibility is
a)
less than 10km
b)
5km or less
c)
1500 m or less

118.

Wind speed and direction received from the meteorological office are usually
given in
a)
knots and degree from true North
b)
knots and degree from magnetic North
c)
miles per hour and degree from true North

119.

Visibility in the term CAVOK as used in the METAR, TAF and SPECI is

14

a)
b)
c)

5km or more
10km or more
visibility unlimited

120.

Cloud base in the METAR, SPECI and TAF are given

a)
in ft above mean sea level
b)
in ft above aerodrome level
c)
in meters above sea level

121.

Select the correct statement

a)
a TAF is an area forecast whilst METARs and SPECIs are aerodrome
forecasts
b)
METARs and SPECIs are issued as routine whilst TAFs are issued on
and as required basis
c)
a METAR is issued on a routine basics whilst a SPECI is issued when
significant deteriorations or improvements occur in the weather.

122.

A SIGMET is issued for

a)
a deterioration of the weather at an aerodrome
b)
severe weather which may be encountered in flight
c)
a significant change in the forecast weather

123.

The instrument used to measure wind speed is

a)
a hydrometer
b)
an anemometer
c)
an anagraph

124.

The surface winds flow across isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the
isobars because of
a)
surface friction
b)
coriolis force
c)
the greater atmospheric pressure at the surface

125.

The most frequent type of ground surface bound temperature inversions over
large land masses are
a)
terrestrial radiation on a clear relatively still night
b)
the advection of colder air under warm air, or the advection of warm air
over cold air
c)
widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by
compression

126.

Absolute instability exists in the atmosphere when

a)
the ELR is greater than the DALR
b)
the ELR is less than the SALR
c)
the ELR lies between the DALR and the SALR

127.

The dewpoint temperature is

a)
the temperature at which dew will always form
15

b)
c)

the temperature to which air would have to be cooled at a constant

pressure in order to reach saturation
the spread between actual temperature and the wet bulb temperature

128.

The air ahead of the warm front is colder than the air behind the overtaking cold
front at a
a)
cold front occlusion
b)
warm front occlusion
c)
stationary front

129.

When crossing a cold front at a higher altitude the change in temperature and
wind direction will be
a)
less than the change at a lower altitude
b)
greater than change at a lower altitude
c)
the same as the change at a lower altitude

130.

Warm frontal weather is associated with a

a)
lowering cloud base, precipitation and reduced visibility
b)
lowering cloud base, strong winds and good visibility
c)
narrow band of cloud, thunderstorms and good visibility

131.

Heavy ice accretion in nimbostratus clouds can be expected in the temperature

range
a)
0oC to 10oC
b)
-15oC to -30oC
c)
-30oC to -40oC

132.

Rime ice forms as a result of

a)
water vapour turning directly into ice
b)
small supercooled water droplets freezing almost instantaneously
c)
large supercooled water droplets spreading as they freeze

133.

Clear ice forms as a result of

a)
water vapour turning directly into ice
b)
small supercooled water droplets freezing almost instantaneously
c)
large supercooled water droplets spreading as they freeze

134.

Aviation weather reports are given in

a)
code form
b)
code and abbreviated plain language
c)
plain language

135.

Some typical clouds associated with a cold front are

a)
stratus and nimbostratus
b)
altostratus and cirrostratus
c)
cumulus and cumulonimbus

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136.

The winds which blow from opposite directions in the summer and winter in
certain regions of the tropics are called.
a)
trade winds
b)
monsoon winds
c)
doldrums

137.

With reference to METARs, the change indicator INTER is used when

a)
the change is expected to take place at an approximately constant rate
throughout the forecast period.
b)
the change is expected to occur frequently for short periods of time
c)
the change is expected to take place during a period lasting less than 30
minutes

138.

A change in visibility, low cloud, surface wind and/or weather is provided for in a
a)
SPECI
b)
METAR
c)
TAF

139.

When ice pellets are encountered at 8000 ft this indicates

a)
that you are approaching an area of thunderstorms
b)
that freezing rain exists at higher altitude
c)
the existence of high altitude cold front or upper trough

140.

Wind blows across isobars because of

a)
coriolis force
b)
surface friction
c)
the ocean currents

141.

During the adiabatic process changes occur in

a)
temperature, pressure and volume
b)
temperature pressure and absolute humidity
c)
pressure, volume and absolute humidity

142.

The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of

a)
very strong turbulence
b)
heavy icing conditions
c)
an approaching storm

143.

Heat can be transferred by

a)
radiation, expansion, conduction and advection
b)
convection, advection, expansion and radiation
c)
radiation, conduction, convection and advection

144.

An increase in relative humidity with no change in temperature or pressure will

cause
a)
no change in air density
b)
a slight decrease in density altitude

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c)

a slight increase in density altitude

145.

A high pressure area in the Indian Ocean off the Natal coast usually results in
a)
a moist on-shore wind which bring low stratus an drizzle into Northern
Natal
b)
an off-shore wind resulting in warm dry conditions along the Natal North
coast
c)
unstable conditions along the Natal coast, with accompanying
thunderstorm activity

146.

The cold polar air advecting out of the Antarctic is

a)
moist if it has been moving rapidly over the Atlantic Ocean
b)
dry
c)
dry during the summer months and moist during the winter months

147.

A Fohn wind is hot and dry because

a)
like a Berg wind, it is a downslope wind
b)
much if its water vapour is lost on the windward slopes
c)
much of its moisture is lost on the leeward slopes

148.

An aircraft flying at a constant flight level from an area of high temperature to an

area of low temperature will experience
a)
an increase in density altitude
b)
a decrease in density altitude
c)
an increase in density altitude unless there is a substantial increase in
relative humidity.

149.

If pressure increases and the temperature remains the same, then the density
altitude will.
a)
stay the same as it is based purely on temperature
b)
increase, unless the density remains the same
c)
decrease

150.

A steep positive temperature lapse rate in conditions of high relative humidity will
result in
a)
extensive stratus and nimbostratus development
b)
the development of large cumulus type cloud
c)
limited or no cloud development as the conditions will be stable

151.

A jet stream may occur in the upper levels if the horizontal pressure gradient is
high and will be found in the
a)
cold sector
b)
warm sector
c)
warm or cold sector air depending on the slope of the isobaric surface

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