1.

It is closed vessel used for heating water or liquid of for generating steam or vapor by
direct application of heat from combustible fuels or electricity.
A. BOILER
B. Condenser
C. Turbine
D. Pump
2. It is a pilot that burns without turndown throughout the entire period that the boiler is in
service, whether or not the main burner is firing.
A. Continuous Pilot
B. Discontinous Pilot
C. Draft Pilot
D. Tubeless Pilot
3. It is a device to convey fuel into the combustion chamber in proximity to its combustion
air supply so as to permit a stable controlled heat release.
A. Automatic boiler burner
B. Manual boiler burner
C. Burner
D. Continuous burner
4. It is a boiler having a volume exceeding 120 gallons (454L), a heat input exceeding
200,000 BTU/hr (58.62 KW) or an operating temperature exceeding 210 F/ 99 C that
provides hot water to be used externally to itself.
A. Hot water heating boiler
B. Cold water heating boiler
C. Hot air heating boiler
D. Cold air heating boiler
5. It is a device that senses a limit of off limit condition or improper sequence of events nad
shuts down the offending or related piece of equipment of prevents proceeding in an
improper sequence in order to prevent a hazardous condition.
A. Interlock
B. Common Interlock
C. Actual Interlock
D. Regain Interlock
6. The discharge from relief valves shall be piped to within ___inches of the floor or to the
open receptacle and when the operation temperature is in excess of ___F shall be
equipped with a splash shield or centrifugal separator.
A. 18, 212
B.
C.
D.
7. The maximum setting to which a pressure-limiting device may be set by use of the
adjusting means provided shall not exceed the design pressure of the high side of a

system not protected by a pressure-relief device or ___ percent of the pressure setting of
the pressure-relief device installed on the high side of the system.
A. 90
B.
C.
D.
8. Refrigeration machinery rooms shall be provided with a continuous source of _____ air
for ventilation and removal of rejected heat.
A. Outside
B.
C.
D.
9. A refrigeration scheme for cooling by a mist or spray of brine.
A. Refrigerating System, Absorption
B. Refrigerating System, Brine
C. Refrigerating System, Brine spray
D. Refrigerating System, Cascade
10. An indirect refrigeration system employing brine as the circulation liquid.
A. Refrigerating System, Absorption
B. Refrigerating System, Brine
C. Refrigerating System, Brine spray
D. Refrigerating System, Cascade
11. All business occupancy buildings over 15 meters high shall be provided with ______
sprinkler protection.
A. Automatic
B. Semi automatic
C. Manual
D. None of these
12. It is a type of stand pipe system in which the pipes are not normally filled with water.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Wet stand pipe

Dry stand pipe
Moist stand pipe
Steam stand pipe

13. In inspection, _________ and electrically operated brakes shall be inspected periodically.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Mechanically
Hydraulically
Pneumatically
Electronically

14. A truck or a carriage on which the hoisting mechanism is mounted and which travels on
an overhead beam or track.
A. Radius
B. Slewing
C. Trolley
D. Jib
15. This kind of pump represents the application of vertical centrifugal pump to deep well
service and is built for heads up to 305 m and for capacities up to 26,495 liters per
minute.
A. Ejector-Centrifugal Pump
B. Plunger Pump
C. Turbine Pump
D. Deep well Pump
16. This device should have all the equipments to have an effective safety.
A. Marking device
B. Warning device
C. Hoisting device
D. Chain device
17. According to hoist way access doors, access opening shall be provided with doors which
shall be kept closed and ______.
A. Open
B. Locked
C. Reduced
D. None of these
18. According to locations of boilers, no part of the steam boiler should be closer than ____
from any wall.
A. 1 m
B. 2 m
C. 3 m
D. 4 m
19. This is a term that is applied to a device of a function that can be used or seen by an
operator for the purpose of controlling actions.
A. Accessible
B. Bubble
C. Valve
D. Monitor
20. A waste water treatment where there is using granulated activated carbon is a reliable
and effective way of removing organic Impurities found in most water supplies.
A. Dialysis

B. Adsorption
C. Coagulation
D. Electro Dialysis
21. Combustion converts the combustible constituents of a gas stream into carbon and water.
A. Filtration Device
B. Afterburners
C. Vapor Condensers
D. Electrostatic Precipitators
22. A valve that separates one piece of equipment to the other.
A. Isolation valve
B. Service valve
C. Source valve
D. Riser valve
23. A valve at the base of a vertical riser that isolates the riser.
A. Isolation valve
B. Service valve
C. Source valve
D. Riser valve
24. A single valve at the source that controls a number of units that make up the source.
A. Isolation valve
B. Service valve
C. Source valve
D. Riser valve
25. A valve that controls the gas or vacuum to that particular area.
A. Zone valve
B. Service valve
C. Source valve
D. Riser valve
26. Gas used in medical facility, including oxygen, carbon dioxide, helium, medical air and
mixtures of these gases.
A. Hospital gas
B. Medical gas
C. Operation gas
D. None of the above
27. An integrated system of devices and equipment which automatically detects a fire and
discharges an approved fire-extinguishing agent onto or in the area of fire.
A. Automatic fire extinguisher system
B. Automatic sprinkler system
C. Fire alarm system

D. Automatic fire detector

28. A signal indicating an emergency requiring immediate action.
A. Fire alarm
B. Detector system
C. Emergency alarm
D. Alarm signal
29. A sprinkler system employing open sprinklers attached to a piping system connected to a
water supply through a valve that is opened by the operation of a detection system.
A. Deluge system
B. Automatic fire extinguisher system
C. Automatic sprinkler system
D. Fire alarm system
30. An apparatus usually closed for driving off superfluous liquid.
A. Evaporator
B. Condenser
C. Boiler
D. Heater
31. CNG tanks will be considered acceptable if prepared and coated by:
A. Clean and prime
B. Coat with asphalt enamel
C. Wrap with Kraft paper
D. All of the above
32. a shape of groove used on the drive sheave of a double wrap traction machine,
A. V-groove
B. U-groove
C. Undercut U-groove
D. Any of the following
33. A modified V-groove which has the lower sides cut in the shape of a U.
A. V-groove
B. U-groove
C. Undercut U-groove
D. Any of the following
34. One form of traction sheave groove which is contoured in the shape of a straight sided,
flat bottom V.
A. V-groove
B. U-groove
C. Undercut U-groove
D. Any of the following

35. To protect any person against exposure to or accidental contact with dangerous moving
parts, all prime movers, machines and machine parts, power transmission equipment shall
be:
A. Guarded
B. Shielded
C. Enclosed
D. All of the above
36. Pipe with threads that are stripped, chipped, corroded or otherwise damaged are referred
to as.
A. Loose thread
B. Damaged thread
C. Unusable thread
D. None of the above
37. Lapped flanges shall be used only ____________ or in _________ locations.
A. Underground; closed
B. Aboveground; closed
C. Underground; exposed
D. Aboveground; exposed
38. An assembly consisting of two independently acting internally loaded check valves, a
differential pressure relief valve, four properly located test cocks, and two isolation
valves.
A. Double check valve backflow prevention assembly (DC)
B. Pressure Vacuum Breaker Backflow Prevention Assembly (PVB)
C. Pressure Vacuum Breaker Spill Resistant Type Backflow Prevention Assembly
(SVB)
D. Reduced Pressure Principle Backflow Prevention Assembly (RP)
39. It consists of a loaded air inlet valve, an internally loaded check valve, two properly
located test cocks and two isolation valves. It shall be installed indoors only.
A. Double check valve backflow prevention assembly (DC)
B. Pressure Vacuum Breaker Backflow Prevention Assembly (PVB)
C. Pressure Vacuum Breaker Spill Resistant Type Backflow Prevention Assembly
(SVB)
D. Reduced Pressure Principle Backflow Prevention Assembly (RP)
40. Unlisted enclosed illuminating appliances shall be installed with clearances in all
direction of not less that ___ inches.
A. 12 (300mm)
B. 18 (460mm)
C. 30 (760mm)
D. 24 (610mm)

41. It is a multipiece joint with cup shaped threaded nuts that, when tightened, compress
tapered sleeves so that they form a tight joint on a periphery of the tubing they connect.
A. Joint, Soldered
B. Joint, Brazed
C. Joint, Compression
D. Joint, Flared
42. It is the general form for gastight joint obtained by the joining of metal parts through a
positive holding mechanical construction.
A. Joint, Mechanical
B. Joint, Flanged
C. Joint, Brazed
D. Joint, Soldered
43. Any metal to metal compression joint in which a conical spread is made on the end of a
tube that is compressed by a flare nut against a mating flare.
A. Joint, Flanged
B. Joint, Flared
C. Joint, Mechanical
D. Joint, Brazed
44. It means and includes a material that is composed predominantly of any of the following
hydrocarbons or mixtures of them: propane, propylene, butane and butylenes.
A. Kerosene
B. Liquefied Petroleum Gas
C. Diesel
D. Gasoline
45. It is a boiler furnishing at pressures not exceeding 160 lb/in (1,102.4 kPa) and at
temperatures not exceeding 250 F (121 C).
A. Low Pressure Hot Water Heating Boiler
B. High Pressure Hot Water Heating Boiler
C. Low Pressure Steam Heating Boiler
D. High Pressure Steam Heating Boiler
46. It is a boiler furnishing at pressures not exceeding 15 lb/in (103.4 kPa).
A. Low Pressure Hot Water Heating Boiler
B. High Pressure Hot Water Heating Boiler
C. Low Pressure Steam Heating Boiler
D. High Pressure Steam Heating Boiler
47. It is an air compartment or chamber or chamber including uninhabited crawl spaces areas
above ceiling or below a floor.
A. Duct
B. Plenum
C. Chamber
D. Hood
48. It discharges the conditioned air directly into the conditioned area without the use of
ducts and can be readily transported from place to place without dismantling any portion
thereof.
A. Portable Cooling Unit

B. Cooling Unit
C. Evaporative Cooler
D. Portable Evaporative Cooler
49. It is designed for environmental heating that may have a self- contained fuel supply and
is not secured or attached to a building.
A. Portable Heating Appliance
B. Portable Ventilating Equipment
C. Portable Cooling Unit
D. Portable Evaporative Cooler
50. It is a pressure actuated valve or rupture member or fusible plug designed to
automatically relieve excessive pressure.
A. Pressure Test
B. Pressure Limiting Device
C. Pressure Relief Device
D. Pressure Imposing Element
51. It is a heat operated closed refrigeration cycle in which a secondary fluid, the absorbent,
absorbs a primary fluid, the refrigerant that has been vaporized in the evaporator.
A. Refrigeration System, Mechanical
B. Refrigeration System, Absorption
C. Refrigeration System, Self-contained
D. Refrigeration System
52. It is a complete factory assembled and tested system that is shipped in one or more
sections and has no refrigerant containing parts that are joined in the field by other than
companion.
A. Refrigeration System, Mechanical
B. Refrigeration System, Absorption
C. Refrigeration System, Self-contained
D. Refrigeration System
53. It is a freestanding, non-recessed, environmental heating appliance installed in the space
being heated and not connected to ducts.
A. Refrigeration Room
B. Room Heater
C. Riser Heat Pipe
D. Room Heater, Unvented
54. It is the highest stress level that the component can tolerate without rupture.
A. Yield Strength
B. Ultimate Strength
C. Elastic Limit
D. Proportional Limit
55. Having all essential working parts, except energy and control connections, so contained
in a case or framework that they do not depend on appliances or fastenings outside of the
machine.
A. Self-contained
B. Mechanical
C. Absorption

D. Installation
56. It is an interior space enclosed by walls or construction extending through one or more
stories or basements that connects openings in successive floors, or floors and roof, etc.
to transmit light or ventilation air.
A. Plenum
B. Hood
C. Duct
D. Shaft
57. It is a heating appliance designed for non-residential space heating and equipped with an
integral means for circulation of air.
A. Radiant Heater
B. Room Heater
C. Room Heater, Unvented
D. Unit Heater
58. It is a heater designed to transmit heat primarily by direct radiation.
A. Radiant Heater
B. Room Heater
C. Room Heater, Unvented
D. Unit Heater
59. It is also called as safety valve; a pressure actuated valve held closed by a spring and
designed to relieve pressure in excess of its setting automatically.
A. Stop Valve
B. Pressure Relief Valve
C. Three-Way-Type-Stop Valve
D. Block Valve
60. It is a manually operated valve with one inlet that alternately can stop flow to either of
two outlets.
A. Stop Valve
B. Pressure Relief Valve
C. Three-Way-Type-Stop Valve
D. Block Valve
61. These are pairs of mating stop valves valving off sections of refrigeration systems and
arranged so that these sections maybe joined before opening these valves or separated
after closing them.
A. Stop Valve
B. Pressure Relief Valve
C. Three-Way-Type-Stop Valve
D. Block Valve
62. It is a factory made gas vent for approved appliances equipped to burn gas only.
A. Type L
B. Type BW Gas Vent
C. Type B Gas Vent
D. Vent
63. It is an appliance that operates with a positive vent static pressure and with vent gas
temperature that avoids excessive condensate production in the vent.

A. Category I
B. Category II
C. Category III
D. Category IV
64. It is an appliance that operates with a non-positive vent static pressure and with a vent gas
temperature that may cause excessive condensate production in the vent.
A. Category I
B. Category II
C. Category III
D. Category IV
65. It is a vented environmental heating appliance designed for incorporation in a wall, floor,
ceiling, or partition and arranged to furnish heated air by a fan.
A. Duct Furnace
B. Forced Airtype Central Furnace
C. Floor Furnace
D. Vented Wall Furnace
66. This equipment is intended or installed for the purpose of supplying air to, or removing
air from, any room or space by mechanical means that is a portion of an environmental
heating, cooling, absorption, or evaporative cooling system.
A. Cooling System
B. Ventilation System
C. Evaporative Cooling System
D. Heating System
67. It is a system that depends entirely on the heat from the fuel being used to provide the
energy required to vent an appliance.
A. Ventilation System
B. Venting System- Power Type
C. Venting System
D. Venting System- Gravity Type
68. It is a system that depends on a mechanical device to provide a positive draft within the
venting system.
A. Ventilation System
B. Venting System- Power Type
C. Venting System
D. Venting System- Gravity Type
69. It is an environmental heating appliance designed or arranged to discharge heated air
through any duct or ducts.
A. Warm Air Furnace
B. Duct Furnace
C. Floor Furnace
D. Vented Wall Furnace
70. It is an appliance designed primarily to supply hot water and equipped with automatic
controls limiting water temperature to a maximum of 210 F (99 C).
A. Radiant Heater
B. Room Heater

C. Water Heater
D. Unit Heater
71. Under equipment on roofs: Equipment installed on roof shall be enclosed and designed to
withstand climatic conditions in the areas in which it is installed. Each enclosure shall be
of reasonable height, and shall have at least a ________inch clearance between the entire
service access panel/s of the equipment and the wall of the enclosure.
A. 30
B. 32
C. 34
D. 36
72. Under access to equipment on roofs from inside: Buildings of more than
___________feet in height shall have an inside means of access to the roof.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
73. Under door or scuttle: Such scuttles or trap doors shall be at least _____________in size,
shall open easily and safely accessible under all conditions and shall be constructed so as
to permit access on the inside.
A. 20 in. x 22 in.
B. 22 in. x 20 in.
C. 22 in. x 24 in.
D. 24 in. x 22 in.
74. Under automatic control devices: Electric duct heaters shall be equipped with an
approved automatic reset air outlet temperature limit control that will limit the outlet air
temperature to not more than __________.
A. 200 F
B. 250 F
C. 300 F
D. 350 F
75. For heat pump and electric cooling appliances: The appliance shall be accompanied by
clear and complete installation instructions, including required clearances from
combustible other than mounting or adjacent surfaces, and temperature rating of field
installed wiring connections over __________.
A. 135 F
B. 140 F
C. 145 F
D. 150 F
76. These are roofs where equipment is to be installed shall be designed to be capable of
supporting the additional load or shall be reinforced to support the additional load.
A. Roof Drainage
B. Guards or Rails
C. Roof Support
D. Door or Scuttle
77. This is equipment that shall be installed on a well drained surface of the roof.

A. Roof Drainage
B. Guards or Rails
C. Roof Support
D. Door or Scuttle
78. ____________ shall be provided at the roof access. The switch for such lighting shall be
located inside the building near the access means leading to the roof.
A. Roof Drainage
B. Permanent Lighting
C. Roof Support
D. Door or Scuttle
79. From Section 309.1 Condensate disposal: If discharged into the drainage system,
equipment shall drain by means of an indirect wastepipe. The waste pipe shall have a
slope of not less than ______inch per foot (10.5 mm/m).
A.
B. 1/8
C.
D.
80. From Section 311.5 Outside air inlet protection: Required outside air inlets shall be
covered with a screen having not less than _________ inch (6.4 mm).
A.
B. 1/8
C.
D.
81. ___________ shall have an exposed surface on each side of a joint not less than threefourths () inch (19.1 mm) and at least as thick as the material being joined.
A. Flared joints
B. Soldered joints
C. Threaded joints
D. Wiped joints
82. These are joints in copper tubing that shall be made by the appropriate use of approved
copper or copper alloy fittings.
A. Flared joints
B. Soldered joints
C. Threaded joints
D. Wiped joints
83. Under Section 325.8 Screwed fittings: which material is not included for screwed
fittings?
A. ABS
B. Steel
C. Copper
D. Aluminum
84. Under Section 327.3: All trenches deeper than the footing of any building or structure and
paralleling the same shall be at least __________degrees (0.79 rad).
A. 45
B. 40

C. 35
D. 30
85. Under Section 327.9: Plastic and copper piping penetrating a framing members to within
one (1) inch (25.4 mm) of the exposed framing shall be protected by steel nail plates not
less than ___________ inches (18 gauge) (1.3 mm) in thickness.
A. 0.0476
B. 0.0478
C. 0.0480
D. 0.0482
86. Under Section 329.2: Tunnels shall have a clear height of _________ feet (610 mm)
above the pipe and shall be limited in length to one-half () the depth of the trench, with
a maximum length of eight (8) feet (2438 mm).
A. 2
B. 6
C. 10
D. 14
87. This is non- permitted mechanical connection that depends on an internal retention device
to prevent pipe or tubing separation. Connection is made by inserting the pipe or tubing
into the fitting to a prescribed depth.
A. Brazing and Welding
B. Pressed fitting
C. Pressure- lock- type connection.
D. Flared joints
88. This is non- permitted mechanical connection for joining copper tubing that uses a
crimping tool to affix the O- ring seal copper or copper alloy fitting to the tubing. .
A. Brazing and Welding
B. Pressed fitting
C. Pressure- lock- type connection
D. Flared joints
89. ____________shall be used at all points of connections where there is a dissimilarity of
metals.
A. Plastic pipe to other materials
B. Unions
C. Copper tubing to screw pipe joints
D. Dielectric unions
90. From Section 333.2: Required pressure tests exceeding ten (10) psi (69 kPa) but less than
__________hundred psi (689 kPa) shall be performed with gauges of one (1) psi (6.9
kPa) increment or less.
A. 500
B. 300
C. 200
D. 100
91. Under Section 402.2.1 Location and Size of Openings: Spaces provided with natural
ventilation shall have a minimum permanent wall opening of _________ of the net

occupied area and shall be within twenty- five (25) feet (7,620 mm) of the operable wall
or roof openings to the outdoors.
A. 2%
B. 3%
C. 4%
D. 5%
92. The breathing zone outdoor airflow shall be determined in accordance of what equation?
A. Vbz = RpPz + RaAz
B. Zp = Voz / Vpz
C. Vou = D all zones RpPz + all zones RpAz
D. Vot = Vou / Ev
93. The primary outdoor air fraction shall be determined in accordance of what equation?
A. Vbz = RpPz + RaAz
B. Zp = Voz / Vpz
C. Vou = D all zones RpPz + all zones RpAz
D. Vot = Vou / Ev
94. The uncorrected outdoor air intake shall be determined in accordance of what equation?
A. Vbz = RpPz + RaAz
B. Zp = Voz / Vpz
C. Vou = D all zones RpPz + all zones RpAz
D. Vot = Vou / Ev
95. The outdoor air intake shall be determined in accordance of what equation?
A. Vbz = RpPz + RaAz
B. Zp = Voz / Vpz
C. Vou = D all zones RpPz + all zones RpAz
D. Vot = Vou / Ev
96. This Section states that ventilation systems shall be designed to be capable of providing
the required ventilation rates in the breathing zone whenever the zones served by the
system are occupied; including all full and part load conditions.
A. Dynamic reset
B. Short- term conditions
C. Variable load conditions
D. Exhaust ventilation
97. This section states that exhaust airflow shall be provided in accordance with the
requirements in Table 4-4. Exhaust make- up air shall be permitted to be any combination
of outdoor air, re- circulated air, and transfer air.
A. Dynamic reset
B. Short- term conditions
C. Variable load conditions
D. Exhaust ventilation
98. The section 404.0 states ____________ requirements shall be based on the amount of
exhaust airflow. Pre- cooling of make-up air shall be allowed.
A. Dynamic reset
B. Make-up air
C. Variable load conditions
D. Exhaust ventilation

99. Under Evaporative Cooling Systems: The Section 405.3 states an evaporative cooler
supported by the building structure shall be installed on a substantial level base and shall
be secured directly or indirectly to the building structure by suitable means to prevent
displacement of the cooler.
A. Installation
B. Location
C. Access
D. Inspection and Repair
100.
A moving walk with the treadway supported throughout its width by a
succession of rollers.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Roller-bed type
Slider-bed type
Belt pallet type
Pallet type

101. A moving walk with a series of connected and power driven pallets which together constitute the
treadway.
A. Roller-bed type
B. Slider-bed type
C. Belt pallet type
D. Pallet type
102. Operation of an elevator wherein the starting of the elevator is affected in response to the
momentary actuation of operating devices in the landing. The car is automatically stopped in the
landings.
A. Call and send operation
B. Automatic operation
C. Car-switch operation
D. Signal operation
103. Operation by means of single buttons or switches or both.
A. Car-switch operation
B. Continous-pressure operation
C. Signal operation
D. Car-switch automatic floor-stop operation
104. Operation in which the buttons are provided at the landings both for calling the elevator to that
landing or for dispatching the elevator to other landings.
A. Call and send operation
B. Signal operation
C. Pre-register operation
D. Automatic operation
105. Operation wherein the movement and direction of travel of the car are directly and solely under

the control of the operator by means of a manually operated car switch or of continous-pressure
buttons in the car.
A. Pre-register operation
B. Car-switch operation
C. Continous-pressure operation
D. Signal operation
106. Operation in which the stop is initiated by the operator from within the car with a definite
reference to the landing at which it is desired to stop, after which the slowing down and the
stopping of the elevator is affected automatically.
A. Car-switch operation
B. Continous-pressure operation
C. Signal operation
D. Car-switch automatic floor-stop operation
107. Operation in which signal stops are registered in advance by buttons in the car and at the
landings.
A. Car-switch operation
B. Continous-pressure operation
C. Signal operation
D. Pre-register operation
108. A seat or chair that travels on a stairway.
A. Inclined stairway lift
B. Stage lift
C. Platform(wheelchair) lift
D. Gurney lift
109. A hoisting and lowering mechanism for used by a person unable to use stairs.
A. Inclined stairway lift
B. Stage lift
C. Platform(wheelchair) lift
D. Gurney lift
110. A hoisting and lowering mechanism to be used by person(s) in a gurney, stretcher or similar
device.
A. Inclined stairway lift
B. Stage lift
C. Platform(wheelchair) lift
D. Gurney lift
111. A hoisting and lowering mechanism with a platform that at some elevation is a stage or a part of
a stage.
A. Inclined stairway lift
B. Stage lift
C. Platform(wheelchair) lift

D. Gurney lift
112. A wheelchair lift designed to operate on an incline which is often a stairway.
A. Runway
B. Inclined platform lift
C. Vertical platform lift
D. Horizontal platform lift
113. A lift designed to operate vertically.
A. Runway
B. Inclined platform lift
C. Vertical platform lift
D. Horizontal platform lift
114. The space in which the car, platform or seat moves in a stairway lift.
A. Toe guard
B. Runway
C. Side guard
D. Body guard
115. The panels of the sides of the wheelchair not used for entrance.
A. Toe guard
B. Runway
C. Side guard
D. None of the above
116. It refers to the panels extending below the platform.
A. Toe guard
B. Runway
C. Side guard
D. None of the above
117. An appliance used to dry wet laundry by means of heat derived from the combustion of fuel
gases or electric heating elements.
A. Clothes dryer
B. Condenser
C. Evaporator
D. Tumbler
118. A type of clothes dryer primarily used for family living environment.
A. Clothes dryer Type I
B. Clothes dryer Type II
C. Clothes dryer Type III
D. Clothes dryer Type IV
119. A type of clothes dryer used in business with direct intercourse of the function of the public.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Clothes dryer Type I

Clothes dryer Type II
Clothes dryer Type III
Clothes dryer Type IV

120. An area accessible by crawling having a clearance less than human height.
A. Breathing zone
B. Conditioned space
C. Crawl area
D. Crawl space
121. The region within an occupied space between three planes and seventy two inches above the
floor and more than two feet from the walls or fixed air-conditioning equipment.
A. Breathing zone
B. Conditioned space
C. Crawl area
D. Crawl space
122. An area, room or space normally occupied and being heated and cooled for human habitation by
equipment.
A. Breathing zone
B. Conditioned space
C. Crawl area
D. Confined space
123. A furnace designed with airflow essentially in a vertical path, discharging air at or near the top of
the furnace.
A. Up-flow type central furnace
B. Down-flow type central furnace
C. Horizontal type central furnace
D. Enclosed furnace
124. A specific heating or heating and ventilating furnace incorporating an integral total enclosure
and using only outside air for combustion.
A. Up-flow type central furnace
B. Down-flow type central furnace
C. Horizontal type central furnace
D. Enclosed furnace
125. A predefined operational configuration of a system or device for the purpose of smoke control.
A. Smoke damper
B. Smoke-control mode
C. Smoke-control system
D. Smoke barrier

126.

The part of the system designed to liquefy refrigerant vapor by removal of heat.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Evaporator
Condenser
Compressor
Valve

127.
It is provided to protect all piping through concrete and masonry walls and
concrete floors.
A. Sleeves
B. Gasket
C. Plunge
D. Hub
128.
It is a type of joint for soft copper tubing, it shall be made with fittings meeting
approve standards.
A. Flared Joints
B. Soldered Joints
C. Threaded Joints
D. Lap Joints
129.
A closure device used to cover an opening into a duct, an enclosure, equipment, or
an appertenance.
A. Access Panel
B. B.Closing device
C. Duct Closer Device
D. Enclosure Device
130.
An accessory or subordinate part that enables the primary device to perform or
improve its intended function.
A. Appurtenance
B. Subortenance
C. Subordinates
D. Fractunace
131.
A valve or plate within a duct or its terminal components for controlling draft of
the flow of gases, including air.
A. Damper
B. Valve Duct
C. Dips
D. Filter
132.
.A type of smoke-control system in which stair shafts are mechanically
pressurized with outdoor air to keep smoke from contaminating them during a fire
incident.

A.
B.
C.
D.

Pressurized stairtowers
Smoke Control towers
Smoke damper
Pressure Smoke Duct

133.
It is the airborne solid and liquid particulates and gases evolved when a material
undergoes pyrolysis and combustion.
A. Smoke
B. Solid Gas
C. Carbon Dioxide
D. Nitrogen gas
134.
A fan may be used to prevent excessive pressure when all stairtower doors are
closed.
A. Exhaust fan
B. Electric fan
C. Stand Fan
D. Discharge fan
135.
A type of fan that shall be used in ducted single or multiple injection stairtower
pressurization system.
A. Centrifugal or in-line axial fans
B. Exhaust fan
C. Discharge fan
D. Adjacent or out-line fans
136.
A closed vessel used for heating water or liquid or for generating steam or vapor
by direct application of heat from combustible fuels or electricity.
A. Boiler
B. Heater
C. Pressurize vessel
D. Tanks
137.
A.
B.
C.
D.

A pilot that burns during lightoff and that is shut off during normal operation.
Interrupted pilot
Intermittent pilot
Burner pilot
Shut off pilot

138.
A pilot that burns during light off and while the main burner is firing, and that is
shut off with the main burner.
A. Intermittent Pilot
B. Interrupted pilot
C. Shut off pilot

D. Burner pilot
139.
A burner smaller than the main burner that is ignited by a spark or other
independent and stable ignition source, and that provides ignition energy required to
immediately light off the main burner.
A. Pilot
B. Stove
C. Bunsen burner
D. Boiler
140.
A boiler in which steam is generated at pressures exceeding 15psi.
A. Power Boiler
B. Steam Boiler
C. Heating Boiler
D. Mega Boiler
141.
How many liters for a 1US gallon?
A. 3.785
B. 4.781
C. 2.22
D. 3.587
142.
A.
B.
C.
D.

In spark-ignition engine, it shall be fully shielded against flashover.

Spark Plug
Starter
Piston
Crank arm

143.
It is used for heat transfer, heat recovery, or solar heating that protect potable
water system from being contaminated by the heat transfer medium.
A. Heat exchanger
B. Intercooler
C. Cooling tower
D. heat duct
144.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Acronym for cross linked polyethylene aluminum cross linked polyethylene.

PEXALPEX
PEALPE
PP
PEX

A.
B.
C.
D.

Acronym for polyethylene aluminum polyethylene.

PEALPE
PEXALPE
PEX
PAP

145.

146.

In water piping, this joints may be used only on the exposed fixture supply.

A.
B.
C.
D.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Slip joints
Flare joints
Solder joints
Thread joints
A natural, manufactures, liquefied petroleum, or a mixture of these.
Fuel Gas
Biofuel
Biomass
Fossil fuel

A.
B.
C.
D.

Any installation of pipe, valves or fittings that is used to convey fuel gas.
Gas piping
Conveyor gas
Gas fit
Fuel convey

147.

148.

149.

LNG stands for:

A. Liquify Nitrogen Gas
B. Liquefied Natural Gas
C. Low Neutral Gas
D. Lithmus Natural Gaseous
150.
Gas used in a medical facility, including oxygen, nitrous oxide, carbon dioxide,
helium, medical air, and mixtures of these gases.
A. Medical gas
B. Ospital gas
C. Purify gas
D. Clean gas
151.
A valve at the base of a vertical riser that isolates that riser.
A. Riser Valve
B. Isolation Valve
C. Service Valve
D. Base Valve
152.
A signal indicating an emergency requiring immediate action, such as signal
indicative of fire.
A. Alarm Signal
B. Signal Indicator
C. Action Signal
D. Fire signal
153.
A unit containing one or more indicator lamps, alphanumeric displays, or other
equivalent means in which each indication provides status information about a circuit,
condition or location.
A. Annunciator

B. Detector
C. Indicator
D. Alphenumericator
154.
A.
B.
C.
D.

A device that senses visible or invisible particles of combustion.

Smoke Detector
Smoke Signal
Smoke alarm
Combustible Alarm

155.
A special system dicharging a foam made from concentrates, either mechanically
or chemically, over the area to provide protection.
A. Foam-extinguishing system
B. Halogenated extinguishing system
C. Special Foam system
D. Concentrated Foam System
156.
A solution of water and potassium-carbonate-based chemical, potassium-acetatebased chemical or a combination thereof, fanning an extinguishing agent.
A. Wet-Chemical extinguishing agent
B. Water extinguishing agent
C. Carbonate water extinguishing agent
D. Halogenated extinguishing agent
157.
ASTM stands for:
A. American Society for Testing Materials
B. Association of Steel Testing Materials
C. Automotive Standard Testing Materials
D. American Standard Testing Materials
158.
A concrete, metal, or compacted earth structure used to confine an accidental spill
within an impounding area.
A. Dike
B. Storage
C. Canal
D. Dam
159.
A form of matter having extreme molecular mobility and capable of diffusing and
expanding rapidly in all directions.
A. Gas
B. Liquid
C. Plasma
D. Solid
160.

SAE stands for:

A. Society of Automotive Engineers

B. Society of American Engineers

C. Steel American Engineers
D. Society of Associated Engineers
161.
A hollow product of round or any other cross-section having a continuous
periphery.
A. Tube
B. Shaft
C. Round Steel
D. Pipe
162.
.Excessive clearnce between the teeth of the worm gear of a geared machine; it
permits rocking action of the drive sheave or gear when the worm is held stationary.
A. Backlash
B. Percent clearance
C. Rocking clearance
D. Gear clearance
163.
A device, other than an oil or spring buffer, designed to stop a descending car or
counterweight beyond its normal limit of travel by absorbing the impact.
A. Bumper
B. Car frame
C. Spring Platform
D. Buffer
164.
It is a type of elevator having a source of mechanical power, such as shafting, in
common with other machinery.
A. Auxillary Power elevator
B. Carriage Elevator
C. Double belt elevator
D. Electric Elevator
165.
It is a moving inclined, continuous stairway used for raising or lowering
passengers.
A. Escalator
B. Ladder
C. Lifter
D. Stairway
166.
The ratio of the ultimate strength to the working stress of a member under
maximum static loading, unless otherwise specified in a particular rule.
A. Factor of safety
B. Tension Ratio
C. Working ratio
D. Static ratio

167.
The side of an escalator extending above steps. It includes skirt panels, interior
panels, decks and handrails.
A. Balustrade
B. Deck
C. Exterior Escalator Panel
D. Interior Escalator Panel
168.
A.
B.
C.
D.

The tensile stress that is sufficient to produce a permanent deformation of 0.2%.

Yield Strength
Working Strength
Ultimate Strength
Tension Strength

169.
A friction device for slowing down conveyor components, bringing conveyor
equipment to a controlled stop, holding travelling equipment at a selected landing,
preventing reverse travel, and controlling overspeed due to the action of gravity.
A. Brake
B. Stopper
C. Controller
D. Clutch
170.
This flammable and toxic gas is colorless and has an odor resembling rotten eggs.
It is toxic in concentrations above 0.002 percent by volume.
A. Hydrogen Sulfide
B. Carbon Monoxide
C. Ammonia
D. Chloride
171.
Unit use for Luminous intensity.
A. Candela
B. Steradian
C. Lumen
D. Ampere
172.
It is the program providing rate payer with incentives for adopting solar energy
systems.
A. Solar Initiative
B. Solar panels
C. Solar Indicator
D. Solar Incentive
173.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which one is not a renewable energy source.

Nuclear Power Plant
Solar Power
Geothermal Power Plant
Hydro-electric Power plant

174.
A.
B.
C.
D.

It is the results from the fermentation or decomposition of organic matter.

Sewage gases
Flue gas
Refrigerant gas
Natural gas

175.
It can be a source of ignition and its accumulation is generally greatest in
an atmopshere of low humidity.
A. Static Electricity
B. Ignition Energy
C. Heat Energy
D. Electric Charge
176.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Unit for illuminance.

Lux
Lumen
Siemens
Becquerel

177.
A space within a building enclosed by smoke barriers, including the top and
bottom, that is part of a zoned smoke-control system.
A. Smoke damper
B. Smoke-control mode
C. Smoke-control system
D. Smoke control zone
178. An engineered system that uses mechanical fans to produce airflows and pressure differences
across smoke barriers to limit and direct smoke movement.
A. Smoke damper
B. Smoke-control mode
C. Smoke-control system
D. Smoke barrier
179. The smoke-control zone in which the fire is located.
A. Smoke zone
B. Smoke-control mode
C. Smoke-control system
D. Smoke barrier
180. Potable water should be identified by:
A. Purple background with black uppercase letter
B. Green background with white lettering
C. White background with black lettering
D. Yellow background with black lettering

181. Non-potable water supply system should be coded:

A. Green background with white lettering
B. White background with black lettering
C. Purple background with black uppercase letter
D. Yellow background with black lettering
182. Reclaimed water supply system shall be coded:
A. Green background with white lettering
B. Purple background with black uppercase letter
C. White background with black lettering
D. Yellow background with black lettering
183. Patient rooms, examining rooms, treatment rooms, clinics and other similar areas are under the
category of:
A. Critical care areas
B. General care areas
C. Restricted areas
D. Special hazard area
184. An area such as a kitchen or electrical switchgear room.
A. Critical care areas
B. General care areas
C. Restricted areas
D. Special hazard area
185. Includes special care units, intensive care units, coronary care units, angiography laboratories
and other similar areas intended to be subjected to invasive procedures and connected to line
operated, patient care related electrical appliances.
A. Critical care areas
B. General care areas
C. Restricted areas
D. Special hazard area
186. Any portion of a health care facility wherein patients are intended to be examined or treated.
A. Critical care areas
B. Restricted areas
C. Patient care area
D. General care areas
187. The following are base units except:
A. Luminous intensity
B. Thermodynamic temperature
C. Electric resistance
D. Electric current
188. Materials that are inherently hazardous are labeled

A.
B.
C.
D.

Black on orange field

White on red field
Black on yellow field
White on orange field

189. The following pipe are identified by orange color, except:

A. Acetylene
B. Oil and water
C. Oxygen
D. Ammonia
190. Tesla is the unit for:
A. Magnetic flux
B. Magnetic flux density
C. Luminous flux
D. Inductance
191. Driving machine shall be located in machine rooms and be of what type?
A. Plunger
B. Drum
C. Chain drive
D. All of the above
192. A tank used in agriculture for offering off-highway service to deliver NH3 from a transportation
tank or storage tank to an applicator tank in the field.
A. Nurse Tank
B. Mobile fuel tank
C. Motor fuel tank
D. Portable NH3 tank
193. A vessel mounted on a vehicle or other readily portable device and used only to supply fuel to an
internal combustion engine or other equipment secured to the vehicle or device.
194. A tank used in agriculture for offering off-highway service to deliver NH3 from a transportation
tank or storage tank to an applicator tank in the field.
A. Nurse Tank
B. Mobile fuel tank
C. Motor fuel tank
D. Portable NH3 tank
195. A tank installed on a trailer or semitrailer, and used temporarily to receive and store anhydrous
ammonia. Temporary means not more than 120 days.
A. Motor fuel tank
B. Mobile storage tank
C. Mobile fuel tank
D. Portable NH3 tank

196. A service tank not exceeding 1200 gallons capacity used to transport anhydrous ammonia.
A. Nurse Tank
B. Mobile fuel tank
C. Motor fuel tank
D. Portable NH3 tank
197. An air tank mounted with an air compressor on a towed device.
A. Nurse Tank
B. Portable LNG tank
C. Portable air tank
D. Portable NH3 tank
198. The chemical annotation of anhydrous ammonia.
A. NH3
B. NH4
C. NO2
D. N2H4
199. A fluid in the state composed predominantly of methane and which may contain minor
quantities of ethane, propane, nitrogen and other components normally found in natural gas and
in cryogenic state.
A. Compressed natural gas (CNG)
B. Liquefied natural gas (LNG)
C. NH3
D. Natural gas (NG)
200. Natural gas that has been compressed for storage in containers.
A. Compressed natural gas (CNG)
B. Liquefied natural gas (LNG)
C. NH3
D. Natural gas (NG)
201. ___________ is a system designed to provide heating, cooling, or ventilation in which one or
more air handling units are used to supply air to a common space or are drawing air from a
common plenum or space.
A. Air handling unit
B. Air handling system
C. Air assembly
D. Air conditioning
202. ___________is a line, imaginary or otherwise that separates a property from adjoining
property of public or private ownership.
A. property line
B. ownership
C. holding line
D. red line

203. ___________ is a hollow product of round or any other cross-section having a

continuous periphery.
A. tank
B. Vessel
C. System
D. Tube
204. ___________ is a fired or unfired pressure vessel used to generate steam pressure by the
application of heat.
A. steam engine
B. boiler
C. heat exchanger
D. oven
205. ___________ is the term for structural members to stabilize the supporting structure.
A. winding
B. bracing
C. relocking
D. stabilizing
206. PCAB means Philippine ________ Accreditation Board
A. Consistent
B. Conveyors
C. Consumers
D. Contractor
207. __________ is the tensile stress that is sufficient to produce a permanent deformation of
0.2%.
A. ultimate strength
B. bending load
C. tensile
D. yield strength
208.
___________ is a wire rope used to counter balance, or partially counter balance,
the weight of the suspension ropes.
A. . counter rope
B. compensating rope
C. friction rope
D. balance rope
209. ___________ is the substitution of a device or component in its entirety with a new unit
that is basically the same as the original for the purpose of performance.
A. warranty
B. purchase
C. replacement

D. renewal
210. ___________ is the National Building Code of the Philippines that is adopted by this
jurisdiction.
a Building system
b building code
c PSME code
d R. A. 1988
211.
A system that depends on a mechanical device to provide a positive draft within
the ventilating system.
A. Gravity type venting system
B. Power type venting system
C. Ventilation system
D. Vent system
212.
A device that will restrict, retard or direct the flow of air in any duct, or the
products of combustion in any heat producing equipment, its vent connector, vent or
chimney.
A. Smoke damper
B. Fire damper
C. Damper
D. Volume damper
213.
A device by means of which a signal registered in a car is automatically
transferred to the next car following.
A. Signal system, elevator separate
B. Signal device, elevator car flash
C. Signal system, elevator landing
D. Signal transfer device, elevator automatic
214.
Wire-rope which does not pass over the driving means and is used to connect the
car and counterweight.
A. Rope, governor
B. Rope, compensating
C. Rope, counterweight
D. Rope, car-counterweight
215.
A.
B.
C.
D.
216.

Wire rope used to raise and lower an elevator car or its counterweight, or both.
Rope sprocket drive
Rope-fastening device
Rope equalizer, suspension
Rope suspension

A final terminal stopping device operated directly by the driving machine.

A. Stopping devices, Normal
B. Terminal stopping device, machine final

C. Terminal stopping device, normal

D. Stopping device, elevator landing
217.
A car frame sufficiently offset from the center of the platform to require special
design and construction
a Underslung
b Sub-post
c Offset
d Gate
218.
load.
a
b
c
d

The structure which forms the floor of the car and which directly supports the
Car platform
Frame
Gate
Enclosure

219.
A self-supporting platform constructed of plywood with a bonded steel sheet
facing on both top and bottom surfaces.
a Laminated car platform
b Car platform frame
c Material lift
d Car stop switch
220.
A device, other than oil or spring buffer, designed to stop a descending car or
counterweight beyond its normal limit of travel by absorbing the impact.
a Buffer
b Bumper
c Spring
d All of the above.
221.
A steel angle bevelled at both ends and fastened to the guide rails to operate
terminal switches mounted on the car. Also, a device for converting regular rotary motion
or reciprocating motion.
a Cam
b Roller
c Gear
d Linkages
222.
The shortest vertical distance between the top of the car crosshead, or between the
top of the car which ever is higher,and the nearest part of the overhead structure or any
other obstruction when the car floor is level eith the top terminal landing.
a Top car clearance

b
c
d

Top counterweight clearance

Bottom car clearance
None of the above

223.
The shortest vertical distance between any part of the counterweight structure and
the nearest part of the overhead structure or any other obstruction when the car floor is
level with the bottom terminal landing.
a Top car clearance
b Top counterweight clearance
c Bottom car clearance
d None of the above
224.
The clear vertical distance from the pit floor to the lowest structural or mechanical
part, equipment or device installed beneath the car platform, except guide shoes or
rollers, safety jaw assemblies and platform aprons or guards located 12 inches
horizontally from the edge of the platform.
a Top car clearance
b Bottom car clearance
c Top counterweight clearance
d None of the above
225.
A device which opens a hoistway door or a car door or gate or both by power
other than by hand, gravity, springs, or the movement of the car; and which closes them
by power other than by hand, gravity, or movement of the car.
a Door power operator
b Designated attendant
c Displacement switch
d Open/close switch
226.
A manually opened hoistway door or a car door or gate which closes when
released.
a Self-closing door
b Manually operated door
c Semi-automatic door
d None of the above
227.
a
b
c
d

A door or gate which is opened and closed by hand.

Self-closing door
Manually operated door
Semi-automatic door
None of the above

228.
A door or gate which is opened manually and which closes automatically as the
car leaves the landing.
a Self-closing door

b
c
d

Manually operated door

Semi-automatic door
None of the above

229.
A door or gate which is opened automatically by the action of the elevator car
approaching the landing and closed by gravity as the car leaves the landing.
a Self-closing door
b Full-automatic door
c Manually operated door
d All of the above
230.
The protective assembly which closes the openings in the hoistway enclosure
normally used for loading and unloading
a Entrance
b Gate
c Door
d Exit
231.
All components of an entrance exclusive of the frame, door panels ,and interlocks,
that are necessary to maintain the position of the panels within the assembly.
a Entrance hardware
b Entrance mechanism
c Entrance parts
d Grand entrance
232.
It is a moving, inclines, continuous stairway used for raising or lowering
passengers.
a Escalator
b Inclined elevator
c Walkalator
d Stepped elevator
233.
It is an escalator on which the running gear is driven by a single drive shaft at a
terminal.
a Modular escalator
b Conventional escalator
c Escalator panel
d None of the above
234.
It is an escalator on which the running gear along the incline is driven by one or
more drive units.
a
b
c
d

Conventional escalator
Modular escalator
All of the above
None of the above

235.
The ratio of the ultimate strength to the working stress of a member under
maximum static loading, unless otherwise specified in a particular Rule.
a Factor of safety
b Design stress
c Ultimate stress
d Yield stress
236.
A measure of the elapsed time during which a material or assembly continues to
exhibit fire resistance under specified conditions of test and performance.
a Fire endurance
b Fire strength
c Fire power
d Fire resistance
237.
The property of a material to withstand fire or give protection from it. It is
characterized by the ability to confine a fire or to continue to perform a given structural
function or both.
a Fire endurance
b Fire strength
c Fire resistance
d None of the above
238.
A conveyor where the carrier pusher moves forward and back, or up and down in
the same place.
a Reciprocating conveyor
b Hoist
c Dumbwaiter
d None of the above
239.
A single or multiple-station alarm responsive to smoke and not connected to a
system.
a Single-station smoke alarm
b Smoke alarm
c Supervising station
d Alarm signal
240.
Two or more single-station alarm devices that are capable of interconnection such
that the actuation of one causes all integral or separate audible alarms to operate.
a Supervisory signal
b Multiple-station smoke alarm
c Nuisance alarm
d None of the above

241.
An alarm caused by mechanical failure, malfunction, improper installation, or
lack or proper maintenance, or an alarm activated by a cause that cannot be determined.
a Nuisance alarm
b Smoke alarm
c Signal alarm
d Trouble alarm
242.
Inspection of tanks in a fabricators shop, or at the job site during erection, as
required by the ASME Code.
a Resale inspection
b Shop inspection
c Maintenance
d All of the above
243.
The inspection of any used vessel to determine its allowable working pressure
when reinstalled in accordance with these orders
a Resale inspection
b Shop inspection
c Maintenance
d Quality control
244.
The clearance between the car and the hoistway enclosure or any projection in the
hoistway, shall nit less than ____in.
A. 12
B. 1
C. 15
D. 2
245.
A.
B.
C.
D.

The chemical notation for "anhydrous ammonia."

Cl2H2O
NH3
C8H12
C2H20Cl

246.
A.
B.
C.
D.

The scuttle or trap doors in a stairway or ladder shall be at least ______.

530 mm x 580mm
560 mm x 610 mm
590 mm x 700 mm
None of the above

247.
A portable fire extinguishers having a gross weight not exceeding 40 pounds shall
be installed so that its top is not more than _____ feet above the floor.
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7

D. 8
248.
A.
B.
C.
D.
249.
A.
B.
C.
D.

An acronym for polypropylene

PP
PO
PR
PN
Fire pumps test outlet valves shall be supervised in the closed position.
Sometimes
It depends
True
False

250.
Recommended minimum design pressure difference across smoke barriers of
building type NS with 9 feet height.
A 0.05
B 0.10
C 0.14
D 0.18
251.
Recommended minimum design pressure difference across smoke barriers of
building type NS with 15 feet height.
A 0.05
B 0.10
C 0.14
D 0.18
252.
Recommended minimum design pressure difference across smoke barriers of
building type NS with 6.40 meters height.
A 0.05
B 0.10
C 0.14
D 0.18
253.

___________ is the SI derived unit for illuminance.

A
B
C
D

lux (lx)
henry (H)
lumen (lm)
watt (W)

A
B
C
D

___________ is the base unit for amount of substance.

Meter
Ampere
Mole
Joule

254.

255.
The vertical distance between tops of all domestic hot plates and laundry stoves
and combustible material shall be at least how many inches?
A 20
B 30
C 40
D 50
256.
Unlisted enclosed illuminating appliances installed indoors shall be installed with
clearances in any direction from the combustible material of not less than how many
inches?
A 18
B 20
C 28
D 30
257.
In the elevator safety, this is toothed portion of a threshold plate designed to mesh
with a grooved treadway surface.
A Travelling Cable
B Treadway, Moving Walk
C Threshold Plate, Moving Walk
D Threshold Comb, Moving Walk
258.
In the elevator safety, this portion of the landing adjacent to the treadway
consisting of one or more stationary or slightly movable plates.
A Threshold Comb, Moving Walk
B Threshold Plate, Moving Walk
C Threshold, Moving Walk
D Threshold, Travelling Cable
259.
What is the standard test load of type E V-belt?
A 53.77 kg
B 63.32 kg
C b. 65.34 kg
D 72.35 kg
260.
The grooves of the measring sheaves should be machined and maintained to the
following tolerance: for pitch diameter?
A 0.001 inch
B 0.002 inch
C 0.003 inch
D 0.004 inch
261.
It is the smallest applicable pitch of roller chain is desirable for quiet operation
and high speed.
A Center Distance for a Given Length
B Center Distance Between Sprockets

C Selection of Chain and Sprockets

D Standard Roller Chain Numbers
262.
A machine purposely designed for finishing holes, the work table revolves on a
vertical axis and the cutting tool is arranged above the table and may be feed literally.
A Grinding Machine
B Vertical Boring Machine
C Horizontal Boring Machine
D Universal Milling Machine
263.
Height of toothe above pitch circle of the distances between the pitcht circle and
the top of the bottom.
A Arc of Action
B Addendum
C Arc of Approach
D Arc of Recess
264.
It is designed and constructed that the table be swilled to a considerable angel in a
horizontal plane to permit the milling of spiral (twisted) grooves, such as are cut in twist
drills, spiral mill.
A Grinding Machine
B Universal Milling Machine
C Horizontal Boring Machine
D Vertical Boring Machine
265.
A metal turning machine tool in which the work, while revolving on a horizontal
axis, is acted upon by cutting tool which is made to move slowly (feed) in a direction
more or less parallel to the axis of the work.
A Shaper
B Drill or Drill Press
c Horizontal Boring Machine
C Vertical Boring Machine
266.
A building or portion thereof that contains living facilities including
provisions for sleeping, eating, cooking, and sanitation, as required by this
code, for not more than one family.

A
B
C
D

Air Handling Unit

Dwelling Unit
Condensing Unit
Cooling Unit

267.
A reliable conductor to ensure the required electrical conductivity between metal
parts required to be electrically connected.
A Fusible Plug
B Copper Wire
C Bonding Jumper
D Grounding Electrode

268.
A chimney of solid masonry units, bricks, stones, listed masonry units or
reinforced concrete, lined with suitable flue liners.
A Metal Chimney
B Factory Built Chimney
C Masonry Chimney
D Plant Chimney
269.
Which of the following situations would likely prevent accidents in machine shop
to happen?
A Grinding too high above the center line of the wheel.
B Cleaning, adjusting or gauging work while the machine is in motion.
C Side grinding
D Fitted wheel guard and eye shield
270.
For proper inspection and storage in the machine shop, all must be done other
than one:
A Ring test by qualified person
B Proper storing in dry area
C Side grinding
D Speed test while installing
271.
A
B
C
D

In manufacturing processes, it is the method of cold working by compression.

Spinning
Piercing
Hobbing
Swaging

272.
A name given to an operation in manufacturing for sizing and thinning the walls
of drawn cups.
A Metal spinning
B Ironing
C Piercing
D Intraforming
273.
A force in impact which causes the metal to flow in some predetermined shape
according to the design of dies.
A Intraforming
B Swaging
C Ultrasonic grinding
D Hobbing
274.

A method of making molds for the plastics and die casting industries.
A Infiltration
B Molding
C Hobbing

D Electroplating
275.
A manufacturing process wherein a group of welding operation in which a nonferrous filler metal melts at a temperature below that of the metal joined but is heated
above 425 degrees Celsius.
A Blow molding
B Extrusion
C Brazing
D Electroplating
276.
Filler metals in the manufacturing processes are divided into two classes:
____________ and silver alloys.

A
B
C
D

Iron alloys
Copper alloys
Metal alloys
Platinum alloys

277.
It is a type of forging operation in which a hot work piece is placed on an anvil
and struck repeatedly by a hammer.
A Press forging
B Anvil forging
C Hammer forging
D Drop forging
278.
The mechanical means of permanently fastening parts together to rivet two parts,
a rivet is put through a hole and its head placed on an anvil.
A Sizing
B Riveting
C Welding
D Anviling
279.
A common weld defect wherein gas bubbles or minute impurities are trapped in
the weldment normally due to dirty or moist electrode or contaminated base metals.
A Weld cracks
B Porosity
C Lack of penetration
D Pinholes
280.
A
B
C
D

Welders must wear protective clothing, welding masks and _____________.

Eye glass
Gloves
Hard hat
Safety shoes

281.
Safety shoes In waste water treatment, this is a practical toll for recovering
chemicals from processed waste.
A Ion exchange
B Dialysis
C Neutralization
D Coagulation
282.
________________ of waste water is frequently needed to keep pH in the range
of 6 to 8 required by most water quality criteria.
A Oxidation
B Dialysis
C Adsorption
D Neutralization
283.
The solid , infusible, cellular residue left after fusible bituminous coals are
heated, in the absence of air, above temperatures at which active thermal decomposition
of the coal occurs.
A
B
C
D

Wood
Coke
Hogged fuel
Coal

a
b
c
d

Which is not classified as a solid fuel?

Coke
Tars
Charcoal
Briquets

284.

285.
There are __________ methods of coal classification which have been adopted as
standard in the United States.
A One
B Three
C Two
D Four
286.
as?

The residue of low temperature coke if made from a non-cooking coal is known
A
B
C
D

287.

Tars
Wood
Char
Hogged fuel

Any liquid or liquefiable petroleum products burned for the generation of heat .
A Peat

B Fuel oil
C Charcoal
D Shale oil
288.
A
B
C
D

It is a measure of the resistance of oil to flow.

Pour point
Flash point
Viscosity
Fluid flow

A
B
C
D

Viscosity decreases as temperature ____________.

Decreases
Remains the same
Increases
Changed

289.

290.
The alcohol that is most frequently considered as fuel for internal combustion
engines and sometimes called as grain alcohol.
A Methyl alcohol
B Isopropanol
C Ethyl alcohol
D Methanol
291.
It has a gross higher heating value of 29,639 kJ/kg and a net lower heating value
at constant pressure of 26,889 kJ/kg.
A Pure ethanol
B Pure alcohol
C Alcohol
D Ethanol
292.
It is noted for its corrosion resistance, good electrical conductivity and high-heat
transfer properties.
A Aluminum
B Copper
C Platinum
D Nickel
293.
A
B
C
D

Some properties of LPG are as follows except:

Odorless
Toxic
Colorless
Flammable

294.
A collection of instruments or their application for the purpose of observation,
measurement, control or any combination of these.
A Identification

B Distributed control system

C Measurement
D Instrumentation
295.
A device that senses a process variable through the medium of a sensor and has an
output whose steady-state value varies only as a predetermined function of the process
variable.
A Transducer
B Transmitter
C Sensor
d. Alarm
296.
A repeatable sequence of actions that defines the status of outputs as a fixed
relationship to a set of inputs.
A Scan
B c. Program
C Switch
D
Relay
297.
It is a device that connects, disconnects, selects, or transfers one or more circuits
and is not designated as a controller, a relay or a control valve.
A
B
C
D

Plug
Panel
Switch
Monitor

298.
This metal is used in its commercially pure state and in alloy for applications
requiring a metal with properties of light weight, high strength and good temperature and
corrosion resistance.
A Inconel
B Titanium
C Nickel
D Copper
299.
A
B
C
D

This is the switching of circuits by means of solid state devices.

Slack-rope switching
True switching
Static switching
False switching

300.
A non-graduated manual measuring tool consist of two three-non-graduated
slotted blades with one or two screws and knurled nuts connecting them, by loosening the
nuts, the blades can be set to varying angles.
A. Trammels

B. Bevels
C. Gages
D. Straight edge
301.
The hoistway enclosure adjacent to a landing opening shall be of sufficient
strength to maintain in _______ lateral alignment the hoistway entrances.
A True
B Minimum
C False
D Maximum
302.
A sign stating the ____________ allowable load of which the floor is designed
shall be permanently displayed in all main and secondary machine-room spaces.
A True
B Minimum
C False
D Maximum
303.

A fuel tank not located in a separate room.

A. Unenclosed Tank
B. Day Tank
C. Enclosed Tank
D. Integral Tank

304.
type?
A
B
C
D

In the case of driving machines and sheaves, all driving machines shall be of what
Winding type
Locking type
Traction type
Driver type

305.
Hydrostatic test pressure for boilers and pressure vessels should not exceed
________ the maximum allowable working pressure.
A Twice
B 1.5 times
C Half
D Thrice
306.
A tee branch of which is larger than the run.
A Butt weld tee
B Head tee
C Bull head tee
D Steel tee
307.
A cast iron heat-treated to reduce its brittleness.
A Copper iron
B Malleable iron
C Cast free iron

D Brittle iron
308.
Consists of heating a thermo-plastic sheet until it softens and then forcing it to
conform to some mold either by differential air pressure or mechanical means.
A Wire drawing
B Soldering
C Thermo-forming
D Ultrasonic machining
309.
A type of welding also known as flash welding wherein the two metal parts to be
welded are connected to a low voltage high current source.
A Plasma-arc welding
B Laser welding
C Stud welding
D Butt welding
310.
The process of adding chemicals to waste water to produce a flocculent
precipitate that will remove fine suspended matter and colloidal substances by adsorption
or mechanical entrainment.
A Adsorption
B Dialysis
C Coagulation
D Ion exchange
311.
It is recommended that the user in drawing instrumentation choose either the
dashed line electrical symbol or the __________ crossed hatch symbol and apply it
consistently.
A Single
B Triple
C Double
D Quadruple
312.
The extension of piston rod passing through a stuffing box in the outside head of
an engine cylinder, compressor cylinder or pump cylinder.
A Head rod
B Prime rod
C Tail rod
D Secondary rod
313.
A
B
C
D

A type of prime mover utilizing the potential energy.

Process machine
Pneumatic motor
Transmission motor
Electric motor

314.
A device which encloses the pulley and is provided with rounded or rolled edge
slots through which the belt passes.
A Transmission machinery
B Nip-point belt and pulley guard
C Nip-point guard
D Process machine
315.
For prime movers and machines, the trough or _____________shall be
constructed of material specified in Table 3.1 of The PME Code. Edges shall be smooth
and, if the size of guard so requires, these edges shall be reinforced.
A S guards
B L guards
C U guards
D Y guards
316.
A
B
C
D

An enclosure for housing the operator and equipment controlling a crane.

Cab
House
Cage
Boom

317.
An enclosure for housing the operator and hoisting mechanism, power plant and
equipment controlling crane.
A Boom
B Cab
C Crawler
D Cage
318.
A horizontal arm, for supporting a trolley or fall block, which does not change its
inclination with the horizontal or extension added to the head of a boom for increasing
the reach.
A Trolley
B Hoist
C Shaft
D Jib
319.
The horizontal distance from the center of rotation of a tower, hammerhead portal
or pillar crane, or derrick to the center of the or load.
A Jib
B Diameter of derrick
C Radius of a crane
D Slewing distance