Cap 1

Introduction and Security Trends

1 CORRECT

Which threats are characterized by possibly long periods of preparation (years is not uncommon),
tremendous financial backing(suport), a large and organized group of attackers, and attempts to
subvert insiders(incercari de a submina din interior) or to plant individuals inside a potential target in
advance of a planned attack?
Information warfare
A)
Hacktivisim
B)
Cyber crusading
C)
Elite hacking
D)

2
CORRECT

Which of the following is an attempt (incercare) to find and attack a site that has hardware or software that
is vulnerable to a specific exploit?
*Target of opportunity attack
A)
Targeted attack
B)
Vulnerability scan attack
C)
Information warfare attack
D)

3
CORRECT

Which of the following threats(amenintari) has not grown over the last decade(deceniu) as a result of
increasing numbers of Internet users?
Viruses
A)
Hackers
B)
Denial-of-service attacks
C)
All of these have seen an increase over the last decade.
D)

4
CORRECT

The rise(cresterea) of which of the following has greatly increased the number of individuals who probe
organizations looking for vulnerabilities to exploit?
Virus writers
A)
Script kiddies
B)
Hackers
C)
Elite hackers
D)

5
CORRECT

Which of the following is generally viewed(vazut=considerat) as the first Internet worm(vierme) to have
caused significant damage(prejudicii) and to have "brought the Internet down"?
Melissa
A)
The "Love Bug"
B)

The Morris worm

C)
Code Red
D)

6
CORRECT

Which of the following individuals was convicted(condamnat) of various computer crimes(infractiuni

informatice) and was known for his ability to conduct successful social engineering attacks?
Kevin Mitnick
A)
Vladmir Levin
B)
Timothy Lloyd
C)
David Smith
D)

7
CORRECT

According to the CSI/FBI survey(studiu), which of the following statistics decreased in 2003?
The number of organizations reporting the internet as a point of attack
A)
The number of organizations that have reported unauthorized use of their systems
B)
The average loss as a result of theft of proprietary information
C)
Both B and C
D)

8
CORRECT

Which virus/worm was credited(creditat) with reaching(atinge) global proportions in less than ten minutes?
Melissa
A)
Code Red
B)
Morris worm
C)
Slammer
D)

9
CORRECT

The act of deliberately accessing computer systems and networks without authorization is generally known as:
(Actul de a accesa n mod deliberat sisteme de calculator i reele fr autorizaie este, n general, cunoscut
sub numele de)
Computer intrusions
A)
Hacking
B)
Cracking
C)
Probing
D)

10
CORRECT

What is the most common problem/threat an organization faces?

Viruses/worms
A)
Script kiddies

B)
Hackers
C)
Hacktivists
D)

11
CORRECT

Warfare conducted against(Razboi indreptat impotriva) the information and information processing equipment
used by an adversary is known as:
Hacking
A)
Cyber terrorism
B)
Information warfare
C)
Network warfare
D)

12
CORRECT

An attacker who feels that using animals to make fur coats is unethical and thus defaces the web site of a
company that sells fur coats is an example of: (Un atacator care consider c folosirea de animale pentru a
face haine de blana este lipsit de etic i, prin urmare, strice imaginea site-ul web al unei companii care vinde
haine de blana este un exemplu de)
Information warfare
A)
Hacktivisim
B)
Cyber crusading
C)
Elite hacking
D)

13
CORRECT

Which of the following is not described as a critical infrastructure?

Electricity (power)
A)
Banking and finance
B)
Telecommunicaitons
C)
Retail stores(magazine cu amanuntul)
D)

14
CORRECT

Criminal organizations would normally be classified as what type of threat?

Unstructured
A)
Unstructured but hostile
B)
Structured
C)
Highly structured
D)

15
CORRECT

Elite hackers don't account(nu reprezinta) for more than what percentage of the total number of individuals
conducting intrusive activity(desfasoara activitati de intruziune) on the Internet?
1-2 percent

A)
3-5 percent
B)
7-10 percent
C)
15-20 percent
D)

Cap 2

General Security Concepts

1
CORRECT

What is the most common form of authentication used?

Smart card
A)
Token
B)
Username/password
C)
Retinal scan
D)

2
CORRECT

The CIA of security includes:

Confidentiality, integrity, authentication
A)
Confidentiality, integrity, availability
B)
Certificates, integrity, availability
C)
Confidentiality, inspection, authentication
D)

3
CORRECT

The security principle used in the Bell-LaPadula security model that states that no subject can read from an
object with a higher security classification is the:
Simple Security Rule
A)
Ring policy
B)
Mandatory access control
C)
*-property
D)

4
CORRECT

Which of the following concepts requires users and system processes to use the minimal amount of permission
necessary to function?
Layer defense

A)
Diversified defense
B)
Simple Security Rule
C)
Least privilege
D)

5
CORRECT

Which of the following is an access control method based on changes at preset intervals?
Simple Security Rule
A)
Job rotation
B)
Two-man rule
C)
Separation of duties
D)

6
CORRECT

The Bell-LaPadula security model is an example of a security model that is based on:
The integrity of the data
A)
The availability of the data
B)
The confidentiality of the data
C)
The authenticity of the data
D)

7
CORRECT

The term used to describe the requirement that different portions of a critical process must be performed by
different people is:
Least privilege
A)
Defense in depth
B)
Separation of duties(Separarea sarcinilor)
C)
Job rotation
D)

8
CORRECT

Hiding information to prevent disclosure(divulgarea) is an example of?

Security through obscurity(Securitate prin obscuritate)
A)
Certificate-based security(securitate pe baz de certificat)
B)
Discretionary data security (Securitatea datelor discreionar)
C)
Defense in depth(Aprare n profunzime)
D)

9
CORRECT

The problem with the Low-Water-Mark policy is that it:

Is aimed at ensuring confidentiality and not integrity

A)

B)

Could ultimately result in all subjects having the integrity level of the least-trusted(fara incredere) object
on the system
Could result in the unauthorized modification of data

C)
Does not adequately prevent users from viewing files they are not entitled to
D)

10
CORRECT

The concept of blocking an action unless it is specifically authorized is: (Conceptul de a bloca o aciune dect
dac este autorizat n mod special este)
Implicit deny (Negare implicita)
A)
Least privilege
B)
Simple security rule
C)
Hierarchical defense model
D)

Capitolul 2
1. What is the most common form of authentication used - Username/password
2. The CIA of security includes: Confidentiality, integrity, availability
3. The security principle used in the Bell-LaPadula security model that states that no subject can read from an object
with a higher security classification is the: Simple Security Rule
4. Which of the following concepts requires users and system processes to use the minimal amount of permission
necessary to function? Least privilege
5. access control method based on changes at preset intervals? Job rotation
6. The Bell-LaPadula security model a security model based on: The confidentiality of the data
7. different portions of a critical process performed by different people is: Separation of duties
8. Hiding information to prevent disclosure is an example of? Security through obscurity
9. problem with the Low-Water-Mark policy : Could ultimately result in all subjects having the integrity level
of the least-trusted object on the system
10. The concept of blocking an action unless it is specifically authorized is: Implicit deny
Capitolul 3
1. a physical security threat? Cleaning crews (echipele de curatare) unsupervised access
2. benefit of fire detection equipment(echipamente de detectare a incendiilor) over fire suppression(suprimare) :
Fire detection equipment will often catch fires at a much earlier stage
3. What security feature is even more common than a lock? Physical barrier
4. During which step of the policy lifecycle does training of users take place?( n care etap a ciclului de via
politic face instruirea utilizatorilor s aib loc) Implement the plans
5. Biometric access controls are typically used in conjunction with another form of access - Biometrics are not
100 percent accurate
6. Procedures : Step-by-step instructions on how to implement the policies
7. protect against electromagnetic eavesdropping-interceptare electromagnetica (known as the van Eck
phenomenon): sufficient distance between the potential target, inside a shielded room, TEMPEST
approved" equipment
8. HVAC systems are important in which of the following locations? Large cubical farms, Server rooms,
Network equipment closets
9. When should a human security guard be used for physical access control : necessary to avoid issues such as
piggybacking
10. protect sensitive equipment from fluctuations in voltage : A surge protector (o protecie la supratensiune)

Capitolul 4
1: Which of the following are considered good practices for password security?
a. Using a combination of upper- and lowercase characters, a number, and a special character in the
password itself
b. Not writing the password down
c. Changing the password on a regular basis
d. All of the above

2: The password dilemma refers to the fact that:

a. Passwords that are easy for users to remember are also easy for attackers to guess.
b. The more difficult we make it for attackers to guess our passwords, and the more frequently we force
password changes, the more difficult the passwords are for authorized users to remember and the more
likely they are to write them down.
c. Users will invariably attempt to select passwords that are words they can remember. This means they
may select things closely associated with them, such as their spouse's or child's name, a beloved sports
team, or a favorite model of car.
d. Passwords assigned by administrators are usually better and more secure, but are often harder for
users to remember.

3: The simple tactic of following closely behind a person who has just used their own access card or
PIN to gain physical access to a room or building is called(simpla tactica de a urma ndeaproape n
spatele unei persoane care a folosit doar propria lor card de acces sau PIN-ul pentru a avea acces fizic la o
camer sau cldire este numit):
a. Shoulder surfing
b. Tagging-along
c. Piggybacking
d. Access drafting
4: The process of going through a target's trash in hopes of finding valuable information that might
be used in a penetration attempt is known as:( Procesul de a merge printr-un gunoi int n sperana de
a gsi informaii valoroase care ar putea fi utilizate ntr-o ncercare de penetrare este cunoscut sub numele
de)
a. Dumpster diving (tomberon de scufundri)
b. Trash trolling
c. Garbage gathering
d. Refuse rolling
5: An avenue (o cale) that can be used to access a system while circumventing normal security
mechanisms is known as a:
a. Master-key code
b. Secret door

c. Backdoor (usa din dos)

d. Covert channel
6: Reverse social engineering involves: (Inginerie social invers implic)
a. Contacting the target, eliciting some sensitive information, and convincing them that nothing out of
the ordinary has occurred
b. Contacting the target in an attempt to obtain information that can be used in a second attempt with a
different individual
c. An individual lower in the chain of command convincing somebody at a higher level to divulge
information that the attacker is not authorized to have
d. An attacker attempting to somehow convince the target to initiate contact in order to avoid questions
about authenticity
7: The reason for not allowing users to install new hardware or software without the knowledge of
security administrators is:
a. They may not complete the installation correctly and the administrator will have to do more work,
taking them away from more important security tasks.
b. They may inadvertently install more than just the hardware or software; they may accidentally install
a backdoor into the network.
c. They may not have paid for it and thus may be opening the organization up to civil penalties.
d. Unauthorized hardware and software are usually for leisure purposes and will distract employees
from the job they were hired to perform.
8: Once an organization's security policies have been established, the single most effective method
of countering potential social engineering attacks is:
a. An active security awareness program (Un program activ de contientizare de securitate)
b. A separate physical access control mechanism for each department in the organization
c. Frequent testing of both the organization's physical security procedures and employee telephone
practices
d. Implementing access control cards and the wearing of security identification badges
9: Security administrators should be concerned about security guards and custodial crews because:
(Administratorii de securitate ar trebui s fie preocupati de agenii de paz i a echipajelor de libertate,
deoarece)
a. These individuals may not have had a thorough background investigation.
b. These individuals have access to facilities at times when nobody else is around to view their
activities.
c. These individuals are frequently paid minimal salaries.
d. These individuals are frequently contracted and are not actually employees of the company
10: In what ways are PINs similar to passwords?
a. Users will normally pick a PIN that is easy to remember, such as a date or specific pattern.
b. Attackers know common PINs and will try to use them or will attempt to learn more about the user
in order to make an educated guess as to what their PIN might be.

c. Users may write them down to remember them.

d. All of the above are true.

Raspunsuri cap. 5 Criptografie

Cryptography
1
CORRECT

When a message is sent, no matter what its format, why do we care about its integrity?
A)
B)
C)
D)

2
CORRECT

B)
C)
D)

B)
C)
D)

To show that no one has viewed the message

It only encrypts the hash.

It hashes the message before encryption.
It uses three keys and multiple encryption and/or decryption sets.
It can display the key publicly.

If the message is edited, the hash will no longer match.

Hashing destroys the message so that it cannot be read by anyone.
Hashing encrypts the message so that only the private key holder can read it.
The hash makes the message uneditable.

What cipher was chosen to be the new AES standard?

A)
B)
C)
D)

5
CORRECT

To show that the message has not been edited in transit

If a message has a hash, how does the hash protect the message in transit?
A)

4
CORRECT

To show that the encryption keys are undamaged

How is 3DES different from many other types of encryption listed here?
A)

3
CORRECT

To ensure proper formatting

IDEA
RC6
ECC
Rijndael

What makes asymmetric encryption better than symmetric encryption?

A)

It's more secure.

B)
C)
D)
6
CORRECT

B)
C)
D)

B)
C)
D)

B)
C)
D)

It is too slow to be easily used on mobile devices.

It requires a key to be securely shared.
It is available only on UNIX.

Symmetric encryption key exchange

Signing digital contracts
Secure e-mail
Storing encrypted passwords

IDEA
DES
Diffie-Hellman
MD5

What kind of encryption cannot be reversed?

A)
B)
C)
D)

10
CORRECT

It is too easily broken.

What is AES meant to replace?

A)

9
CORRECT

It uses a hash.

What is Diffie-Hellman most commonly used for?

A)

8
CORRECT

Anyone with the public key can decrypt the data.

What is the biggest drawback to symmetric encryption?

A)

7
CORRECT

Key management is part of the algorithm.

Asymmetric
Hash functions
Linear cryptanalysis
Authentication

What is public key cryptography a more common name for?

A)
B)
C)
D)
11
CORRECT

B)
C)
D)

B)
C)
D)

Authentication

128
64
512
1024

It multiplies two large primes.

It uses the geometry of a curve to calculate three points.
It shifts the letters of the message in an increasing curve.
It uses graphs instead of keys.

A good hash function is resistant to what?

A)
B)
C)
D)

14
CORRECT

An algorithm that is no longer secure against cryptanalysis

How does elliptical curve cryptography work?

A)

13
CORRECT

SHA

How many bits are in a block of the SHA algorithm?

A)

12
CORRECT

Asymmetric encryption

Brute-forcing
Rainbow tables
Interception
Collisions

How is 3DES an improvement over normal DES?

A)
B)
C)

It uses public and private keys.

It hashes the message before encryption.
It uses three keys and multiple encryption and/or decryption sets.
It is faster than DES.

D)
15
CORRECT

What is the best kind of key to have?

A)
B)
C)
D)

Easy to remember
Long and random
Long and predictable
Short

Sumar:
1. C

3. A

5. B

7. A

9. B

11. C

13.D

2. C

4. D

6. C

8. B

10. A

12.B

14.C

15. B

Chapter 6 - Results
The correct answer for each question is indicated by a

Public Key Infrastructure

1
When a user wants to participate in a PKI, what component
does he or she need to obtain, and how does that happen?
A)

B)

C)

D)

The user submits a certificate request to the CA.

The user submits a key pair request to the CRL.

The user submits a certificate request to the RA.

The user submits proof of identification to the CA.

2
How does a user validate a digital certificate that is received
from another user?
A)

B)

C)

D)

The user first sees whether her system has been

configured to trust the CA that digitally signed the
other user's certificate and then validates that CA's
digital signature.
The user calculates a message digest and
compares it to the one attached to the message.
The user first sees whether her system has been
configured to trust the CA that digitally signed the
certificate and then validates the public key that is
embedded within the certificate.
The user validates the sender's digital signature on
the message.

Feedback: A digital certificate is validated by the receiver by first determining whether her
system has been configured to trust the CA that digitally signed the certificate. If this has
been configured, the user's software uses the CA's public key and validates the CA's
digital signature that is embedded within the certificate.
3
What is the purpose of a digital certificate?
A)

It binds a CA to a user's identity.

B)

C)

D)

It binds a CA's identity to the correct RA.

It binds an individual to an RA.

It binds an individual to a public key.

4
What steps does a user's software take to validate a CA's
digital signature on a digital certificate?
A)

B)

C)

D)

The user's software creates a message digest for

the digital certificate and decrypts the encrypted
message digest included within the digital
certificate. If the decryption performs properly and
the message digest values are the same, the
certificate is validated.
The user's software creates a message digest for
the digital signature and encrypts the message
digest included within the digital certificate. If the
encryption performs properly and the message
digest values are the same, the certificate is
validated.
The user's software creates a message digest for
the digital certificate and decrypts the encrypted
message digest included within the digital
certificate. If the user can encrypt the message
digest properly with the CA's private key and the
message digest values are the same, the certificate
is validated.
The user's software creates a message digest for
the digital signature and encrypts the message
digest with its private key. If the decryption
performs properly and the message digest values
are the same, the certificate is validated.

Feedback: The user's software calculates a message digest for the digital certificate and
decrypts the encrypted message digest value included with the certificate, which is the
digital signature. The message digest is decrypted using the CA's public key. If the two
message digest values match, the user knows that the certificate has not been modified in
an unauthorized manner, and since the encrypted message digest can be decrypted
properly with the CA's public key, the user is assured that this CA created the certificate.
5
What is a bridge CA, and what is its function?
A)

It is a hierarchical trust model that establishes a

root CA, which is the trust anchor for all other CAs.

B)

It is an entity that creates and maintains the CRL

for several CAs at one time.

C)

It is a CA that handles the cross-certification

certificates for two or more CAs in a peer-to-peer
relationship.

D)

It is an entity that validates the user's identity

information for the RA before the request goes to
the CA.

6
Why would a company implement a key archiving and
recovery system within the organization?
A)

To make sure all data encryption keys are available

for the company if and when it needs them

B)

To make sure all digital signature keys are

available for the company if and when it needs
them

C)

To create session keys for users to be able to

access when they need to encrypt bulk data

D)

To back up the RA's private key for retrieval

purposes

Feedback: To protect itself, the company will make backups of the data encryption keys its
employees use for encrypting company information. If an employee is no longer available,
the company must make sure that it still has access to its own business data. Companies
should not need to back up digital signature keys, since they are not used to encrypt data.
7
Within a PKI environment, where does the majority of the
trust actually lie?
A)

All users and devices within an environment trust

the RA, which allows them to indirectly trust each
other.

B)

All users and devices within an environment trust

the CA, which allows them to indirectly trust each
other.

C)

All users and devices within an environment trust

the CRL, which allows them to indirectly trust each
other.

D)

All users and devices within an environment trust

the CPS, which allows them to indirectly trust each
other.

8
Which of the following properly explains the m of n control?
A)

This is the process a user must go through to

properly register for a certificate through the RA.

B)

This ensures that a certificate has to be fully

validated by a user before he can extract the public
key and use it.

C)

This is a control in key recovery to enforce

separation of duties.

D)

This is a control in key recovery to ensure that the

company cannot recover a user's key without the
user's consent.

9
Which of the following certificate characteristics was
expanded upon with version 3 of the X.509 standard?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Subject

Extensions

Digital signature

Serial number

10
What is a certification practices statement (CPS), and what is
its purpose?
A)

B)

C)

D)

A CPS outlines the steps a CA goes through to

validate identities and generate certificates.
Companies should review this document to ensure
that the CA follows the necessary steps the
company requires and provides the necessary level
of protection.
A CPS outlines the steps a CA goes through to
communicate with other CAs in other states.
Companies should review this document to ensure
that the CA follows the necessary steps the
company requires and provides the necessary level
of protection.
A CPS outlines the steps a CA goes through to set
up an RA at a company's site. Companies should
review this document to ensure that the CA follows
the necessary steps the company requires and
provides the necessary level of protection.
A CPS outlines the steps a CA goes through to
become a business within a vertical market.
Companies should review this document to ensure
that the CA follows the necessary steps the
company requires and provides the necessary level
of protection.

Feedback: The CPS outlines the certificate classes the CA uses and the CA's procedures for verifying
end-entity identities, generating certificates, and maintaining the certificates throughout their
lifetimes. Any company that will be using a specific CA needs to make sure it is going through these
procedures with the level of protection the company would require of itself. The company will be

putting a lot of trust in the CA, so the company should do some homework and investigate how the
CA actually accomplishes its tasks.
11
Which of the following properly describes what a public key
infrastructure (PKI) actually is?
A)

B)

A framework that does not specify any

technologies, but provides a foundation for
confidentiality, integrity, and availability services
An algorithm that creates public/private key pairs

C)

A framework that outlines specific technologies and

algorithms that must be used

D)

A framework that does not specify any

technologies, but provides a foundation for
confidentiality, integrity, and availability services

12
Once an individual validates another individual's certificate,
what is the use of the public key that is extracted from this
digital certificate?
A)

The public key is now available to use to create

digital signatures.

B)

Once an individual validates another individual's

certificate, what is the use of the public key that is
extracted from this digital certificate?

C)

The public key is now available to encrypt future

digital certificates that need to be validated.

D)

The user can now encrypt private keys that need to

be transmitted securely

13
Why would a digital certificate be added to a certificate
revocation list (CRL)?
A)

B)

C)

D)

If the public key had become compromised in a

public repository
If the private key had become compromised

If a new employee joined the company and

received a new certificate
If the certificate expired

14
If an extension is marked as critical, what does this indicate?

A)

If the CA is not programmed to understand and

process this extension, the certificate and
corresponding keys can be used for their intended
purpose.

B)

If the end-entity is programmed to understand and

process this extension, the certificate and
corresponding keys cannot be used.

C)

If the RA is not programmed to understand and

process this extension, communication with the CA
is not allowed.

D)

If the end-entity is not programmed to understand

and process this extension, the certificate and
corresponding keys cannot be used.

15
How can users have faith that the CRL was not modified to
present incorrect information?
A)

B)

C)

D)

The CRL is digitally signed by the CA.

The CRL is encrypted by the CA.

The CRL is open for anyone to post certificate

information to.
The CRL is accessible only to the CA.

Feedback: The CRL contains all of the certificates that have been revoked. Only the CA can post
information to this list. The CA then digitally signs the list to ensure that any modifications will be
detected. When an end-entity receives a CRL, it verifies the CA's digital signature, which tells the
end-entity whether the list has been modified in an unauthorized manner and guarantees that the
correct CA signed the list.

Capitol 7
Your Results:
The correct answer for each question is indicated by a
Standards and Protocols

1
CORRECT

Which organization created PKCS?

A)
B)
C)
D)

2
CORRECT

B)
C)
D)

ISO
RSA
IEEE

A substitution cipher
The Certificate Revocation List (CRL)
The Certificate Authority (CA)
Certificates

Which of the following is used to grant permissions using rule-based, role-based,

and rank-based access controls?
A)
B)
C)
D)

4
CORRECT

OSI

Which of the following is not part of a public key infrastructure?

A)

3
CORRECT

A Qualified Certificate
A Control Certificate
An Attribute Certificate
An Optional Certificate

Which of the following is subject to reuse of its initialization vector?

A)

Certificate Enrollment Protocol (CEP)

Wireless Transport Layer Security (WTLS)

B)
C)
D)
5
CORRECT

B)
C)
D)

B)
C)
D)

The TLS Record Protocol and TLS Certificate Protocol

The TLS Certificate Protocol and TLS Handshake Protocol
The TLS Key Protocol and TLS Handshake Protocol

The TLS Certificate Protocol

The TLS Handshake Protocol
The TLS Key Protocol
The TLS Record Protocol

Which of the following provides a method for implementing a key exchange

protocol?
A)
B)
C)
D)

8
CORRECT

The TLS Record Protocol and TLS Handshake Protocol

Which of the following provides connection security by using common

encryption methods?
A)

7
CORRECT

Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)

Transport Layer Security consists of which two protocols?

A)

6
CORRECT

Wireless Access Protocol (WAP)

EISA
ISAKMP
ISA
ISAKEY

Which of the following is a detailed standard for creating and implementing

security policies?
A)

PKIX

B)
C)
D)
9
CORRECT

B)
C)
D)

B)
C)
D)

A three-way handshake
A security association
A three-way agreement
A security agreement

The session number

The session ID
The initiator cookie
The process ID

What protocol is used to establish a CA?

A)
B)
C)
D)

12
CORRECT

X.509

The entity requesting an SA sets what?

A)

11
CORRECT

FIPS

A relationship where two or more entities define how they will communicate
securely is known as what?
A)

10
CORRECT

ISO/IEC 27002

The Internet Key Exchange Protocol

The Secure Sockets Layer Protocol
The Public Key Infrastructure Protocol
The Certificate Management Protocol

What is the purpose of XKMS?

A)

Extends session associations over many transport protocols

B)
C)
D)
13
CORRECT

B)
C)
D)

Designed to replace SSL

POP3
IMAP
SMTP
S/MIME

Which of the following is a joint set of security processes and standards used by
approved laboratories to award an Evaluation Assurance Level (EAL) from
EAL1 to EAL7?
A)
B)
C)
D)

15
CORRECT

Defines services to manage heterogeneous PKI operations via XML

Which of the following is a secure e-mail standard?

A)

14
CORRECT

Encapsulates session associations over TCP/IP

Common Criteria
FIPS
ISO 17700
IEEE X.509

Secure Sockets Layer uses what port to communicate?

A)
B)
C)
D)

53
80
143
443

Chapter 9
1. Which of the following topologies connects all the network devices to a central point?
a. Mixed
b. Ring
c. Bus
d. Star
2. As it relates to networking, what does WAN stand for?
a. Wide area node
b. Wide alternate network
c. Wide area network
d. Wide automated network
3. What is Layer 1 of the OSI model called?
a. The physical layer
b. The network layer
c. The initial layer
d. The presentation layer
4. The UDP protocol:
a. Provides excellent error-checking algorithms
b. Is a connectionless protocol
c. Guarantees delivery of packets
d. Requires a permanent connection between source and destination
5. The process that dynamically assigns an IP address to a network device is called:
a. NAT
b. DNS
c. DHCP
d. Routing
6. What is the three-way handshake sequence used to initiate TCPconnections?
a. ACK, SYN/ACK, ACK
b. SYN, SYN/ACK, ACK
c. SYN, SYN, ACK/ACK
d. ACK, SYN/ACK, SYN
7. For transmission, larg amounts of data are normally broken up into smaller pieces known as:
a. UDPs
b. ICMPs
c. Packets
d. Subnets
8. Which as the following is a control and information protocol used by network devices to
determine such things as a remote networks availability and the length of time required to
reach a remote network?
a. UDP
b. NAT

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

c. TCP
d. ICMP
What is the name of the protocol that translates names into IP addresses?
a. TCP
b. DNS
c. ICMP
d. DHCP
Dividing a network address space into smaller, separate networks is called what?
a. Translating
b. Network configuration
c. Subnetting
d. Address translation
Which protocol translates private (nonroutable) IP addresses into public (routable) IP
addresses?
a. NAT
b. DHCP
c. DNS
d. ICMP
The TCP protocol:
a. Is connectionless
b. Provides no error checking
c. Allows for packets to be processed in the order they were sent
d. Has no overhead
What is the most widely used network protocol?
a. SS7
b. Token Ring
c. Ethernet
d. SNA
Which of the following would be a valid MAC address?
a. 00:07:e9
b. 00:07:e9:7c:c8
c. 00:07:e9:7c:c8:aa
d. 00:07:e9:7c:c8:aa:ba
To divide a single swich into multiple broadcast domains and/or multiple network segments, you
might use:
a. DHCP
b. Tunneling
c. NAT
d. VLANs