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MULTIPLE CHOICE
Republic Act No. 9298 b. Violate the provisions dealing with specialization.
1. Which of the following is required for a partnership for c. Violate the provisions dealing with encroachment.
public accountancy practice? d. Not be a violation.
a. At least one of the partners must be a CPA.
7. May a CPA hire for the CPAs public accounting firm a
b. All partners must be PICPA members.
non-CPA systems analyst who specializes in developing
c. All partners must be CPAs.
computer systems?
d. Firm name must contain names of partners only.
a. Yes, provided the CPA is qualified to perform each
2. The CPA Registration Number shall be engraved in of the specialists tasks.
what part of the CPAs seal? b. Yes, provided the CPA is able to supervise the
a. Upper portion of the space between the specialist and evaluate the specialists end product.
bigger and smaller circle. c. No, because non-CPA professionals are not
b. Lower portion of the space between the permitted to be associated with CPA firms in public
bigger and smaller circle. practice.
c. Left and right portion of the space between d. No, because developing computer systems is not
the bigger and smaller circle and in the middle of recognized as a service performed by public
the smaller circle. accountants.
d. Middle of the smaller circle.
8. After beginning an audit of a new client, Larkin, CPA,
3. Which statement is incorrect regarding CPE discovers that the professional competence necessary for
requirements for renewal of professional license? the engagement is lacking. Larkin informs management
a. The total CPE credit units required for CPAs shall of the situation and recommends another CPA, and
be sixty (60) units for three (3) years, provided management engages the other CPA. Under these
that a minimum of fifteen (15) credit units shall be circumstances
earned in each year. a. Larkin's lack of competence should be construed to
b. A registered professional shall be permanently be a violation of GAAS.
exempted from CPE requirements upon reaching b. Larkin may request compensation from the client for
the age of 65 years old. any professional services rendered to it in connection
c. A registered professional who is working abroad with the audit.
shall be temporarily exempted from compliance c. Larkin's request for a commission from the other
with CPE requirement during his/her stay abroad, CPA is permitted because a more competent audit
provided that he/she has been out of the country can now be performed.
for at least one year immediately prior to the date d. Larkin may be indebted to the other CPA since the
of renewal. other CPA can collect from the client only the
d. Those who failed to renew professional licenses for amount the client originally agreed to pay Larkin.
a period of five (5) continuous years from initial
9. In which of the following circumstances would a CPA be
registration, or from last renewal shall be declared
bound to refrain from disclosing confidential
delinquent.
information obtained during a professional
Code of Ethics engagement?
4. In relation to the AICPAs Code of ethics, the IFACs a. The CPA is issued a summons enforceable by a
Code of ethics court order that orders the CPA to present
a. has more outright prohibitions confidential information.
b. has fewer outright prohibitions b. A major stockholder of a client company seeks
c. has no outright prohibitions accounting information from the CPA after
d. applies only to professional accountants in management declined to disclose the information.
business c. Confidential client information is made available as
part of a quality review of the CPA's practice by a
5. Ethically, the auditor could
review team authorized by the BOA/PICPA.
a. Advertise only as to his expertise in preparing
d. An inquiry by a disciplinary body of PICPA requests
income tax returns.
confidential client information.
b. Base his audit fee on a percentage of the proceeds
of his client's stock issue. AASC and its Pronouncements
c. Own preferred stock in a corporation which is an 10. Which statement is incorrect regarding AASC?
audit client. a. The AASC shall be composed of 14 members plus a
d. Perform an examination for a financially distressed chairman
client at less than his customary fees. b. The chairman and members of the AASC shall be
appointed by PRC upon the recommendation of
6. Warner, CPA, places a 2 x 2 display advertisement in
BOA
a national financial newspaper. The advertisement
c. The chairman and members of the AASC shall have
reads: Wanted: Outgoing CPA with partnership
a non-renewable term of 3 years
potential. Must have 5 years experience in a tax
d. The chairman should have been or presently a
department of a CPA firm. Reply Box 1940. Under
senior practitioner in public accountancy
the Code of Professional Ethics such an advertisement
would 11. Which of the following is true of Practice Statements?
a. Violate the provisions dealing with advertising.
a. These statements are intended to replace d. evaluation of all matters of continuing accounting
standards significance
b. These statements are intended to have the
19. This quality control element requires a CPA firm to
authority of the standards
establish policies and procedures to provide it with
c. These statements are issued to provide practical
reasonable assurance that engagements are performed
assistance to auditors in implementing the
in accordance with professional standards and
standards
regulatory and legal requirements, and that the firm or
d. These are form of interpretation issued by the
the engagement partner issue reports that are
AASC
appropriate in the circumstances.
12. The exposure period allowed for each exposure draft of a. Ethical requirements c. Monitoring
PSA to be considered by the organizations and persons b. Engagement performance d. Human resources
to whom it is sent for comment is generally
a. 120 days c. 60 days 20. A process designed to provide an objective evaluation,
b. 90 days d. 180 days before the auditors report is issued, of the significant
judgments the engagement team made and the
Fundamentals of Assurance and Non-assurance conclusions they reached in formulating the auditors
Services report.
13. Which statement is (are) correct regarding assurance a. Peer review
engagements? b. Management review
a. It is an engagement in which a practitioner c. Engagement quality control review
expresses a conclusion designed to enhance the d. Concurring review
degree of confidence of the intended users other
than the responsible party about the outcome of Introduction to Auditing
the evaluation or measurement of a subject matter 21. Which one of the following is most difficult to evaluate
against criteria. objectively?
b. All engagements performed by professional a. Presentation of financial statements in accordance
accountants are assurance engagements. with generally accepted accounting principles.
c. Whether a particular engagement is an assurance b. Compliance with government regulations.
engagement will depend upon whether it exhibits c. Efficiency and effectiveness of operations.
all the following elements - a three party d. All three of the above are equally difficult.
relationship, a subject matter and suitable criteria. 22. Which of the following is least likely an application of
d. All of the above maintaining an attitude of professional skepticism?
14. A service that always requires that a report be a. The auditor does not consider representations from
provided to a third party is management as substitute for obtaining sufficient
a. Assurance c. Audit appropriate audit evidence to be able to draw
b. Attestation d. Both b and c. reasonable conclusions on which to base the audit
opinion.
Quality Controls
b. In planning and performing an audit, the auditor
15. The policies and procedures adopted by a firm to
assumes that management is dishonest.
provide reasonable assurance that all audits done by
c. The auditor is alert to audit evidence that
the firm are being carried out in accordance with the
contradicts or brings into question the reliability of
Objective and General Principles Governing an Audit of
documents or management representations.
Financial Statements.
d. The auditor makes a critical assessment, with a
a. Internal controls c. Peer review
questioning mind, of the validity of audit evidence
b. Quality controls d. General controls
23. An audit is conducted on the premise that
16. Quality control policies and procedures are designed to
management and, where appropriate, those charged
ensure that all audits are conducted in accordance with
with governance, have acknowledged and understand
PSAs or relevant national standards or practices.
that they have responsibilities that are fundamental to
These policies and procedures should be implemented.
the conduct of an audit in accordance with PSAs.
a. At the audit firm level only.
Which of the following is not one of those
b. On individual audits only.
responsibilities?
c. Either at the audit firm level or on individual
a. To provide the auditor unrestricted access to
audits.
persons within and outside the entity from which
d. Both at the audit firm level and on individual
the auditor determines it necessary to obtain audit
audits.
evidence
17. The implementation of quality control procedures that
b. The preparation and presentation of financial
are applicable to the individual audit engagement is
statements in accordance with an identified
the responsibility of the
financial reporting framework
a. CPA firm
c. The establishment and maintenance of internal
b. Engagement quality control review
control relevant to the preparation and
c. Engagement team
presentation of financial statements that is free
d. Expert contracted by the firm in connection with
from material misstatement, whether due to fraud
the audit engagement
or error
18. Before accepting an audit engagement, a successor d. To provide complete information to the auditor.
auditor should make specific inquiries of the 24. The following are the general principles governing an
predecessor auditor regarding the predecessors audit of FS Audit, except
a. opinion of any subsequent events occurring since a. Independence c. Confidentiality
the predecessors audit report was issued b. Professionalism d. Professional behavior
b. understanding as to the reasons for the change of
25. The expectation gap is made up of the standards gap
auditors
and the performance gap. Which of the following best
c. awareness of the consistency in the application of
describes the standards gap?
GAAP between periods
a. The difference between the publics assessment of d. A significant change in the nature or size of the
the performance by auditors and what the client's business.
standards require of auditors
33. Which of the following is not included in an
b. The difference between what current standards
engagement letter?
require and auditors actual performance
a. Restriction on cash balances, lines of credit by
c. The difference between the publics expectation of
similar arrangements
auditors and what the standards require of
b. Accessibility to all financial records
auditors
c. Client imposed limitation in the scope
d. The difference between the publics expectation of
d. Limitation in the scope of examination as imposed
auditors and the publics assessment of auditors
by circumstances
actual performance
Audit Evidence and Documentation 34. The form and content of audit engagement letters may
AUDIT EVIDENCE (PSA 500) vary for each client, but they would generally include
26. Other information that the auditor may use as audit reference to the following, except
evidence least likely includes a. The objective of the audit of financial statements.
a. Minutes of meetings. b. Auditors responsibility for the financial statements.
b. Confirmation from third parties. c. The form of any reports or other communication of
c. Information obtained by the auditor from such results of the engagement.
audit procedures as inquiry, observation, and d. Unrestricted access to whatever records,
inspection. documentation and other information requested in
d. Adjustments to the financial statements that are connection with the audit.
not reflected in formal journal entries.
Audit Planning
27. Which of the following generalizations in assessing the 35. The nature and extent of planning will vary according
reliability of audit evidence is incorrect? the following, except
a. Audit evidence is more reliable when it is obtained a. Size of the auditing firm
from independent sources outside the entity. b. Complexity of the entity
b. Audit evidence that is generated internally is not c. Auditors experience with the entity
affected by the effectiveness of the controls d. Changes in circumstances that occur during the
imposed by the entity. audit engagement
c. Audit evidence obtained directly by the auditor is
36. The following are the matters to be considered by the
more reliable than audit evidence obtained
auditor in establishing the overall audit strategy,
indirectly or by inference.
except
d. Audit evidence is more reliable when it exists in
a. Defining the scope of the examination
documentary form.
b. Assess risk and materiality
AUDIT DOCUMENTATION (PSA 230) c. Computation of audit fees
28. The permanent (continuing) file of an auditors working d. Ascertaining the reporting objectives of the
papers most likely would indicate copies of the engagement
a. Bank statements c. Lead schedules
37. It serves as a set of instructions to assistants involved
b. Debt agreements d. Attorneys letters
in the audit and as a means to control the proper
29. No deletions of audit documentation are allowed after execution of the work.
the a. Audit program c. Engagement letter
a. Client's year-end. b. Overall audit plan d. Control questionnaire
b. Documentation completion date.
38. Refers to the audit procedures deemed necessary in
c. Last date of significant fieldwork.
the circumstances to achieve the objective of the audit.
d. Report release date.
a. Scope of an audit c. Audit program
30. Audit documentation may be recorded on paper or on b. Scope of a review d. Scope limitation
electronic or other media. Examples of audit
Materiality and Risks
documentation include the following, except:
39. Inherent risk and control risk differ from detection risk
a. Audit programs c. Control manuals
in that inherent risk and control risk are
b. Analyses d. Issues memoranda
a. elements of audit risk while detection risk is not
Preliminary Engagement Activities b. changed at the auditors discretion while detection
31. Which of the following factors do not influence the risk is not
decision of the auditor to send a separate engagement c. considered at the individual account-balance while
letter to the parent entity and its component detection risk is not
(subsidiary, branch or division) assuming the same d. functions of the client and its environment while
auditor handles both entities? detection risk is not
a. legal requirements
40. Since materiality is relative, it is necessary to have
b. degree of ownership by parent
bases for establishing whether misstatements are
c. ethical requirements
material. Normally, the most common base for
d. whether a separate audit report is to be issued on
deciding materiality is:
the component
a. net income before taxes. c. total assets.
32. Assuming a recurring audit, in which of the following b. net working capital. d. profit after taxes.
situations would the auditor be unlikely to send a new
Understanding the Entity and its Environment
engagement letter to the client?
41. The auditor should perform the following risk
a. A recent change in partner and/or staff involved in
assessment procedures to obtain an understanding of
the audit engagement.
the entity and its environment, including its internal
b. A change in the terms of engagement.
control, except:
c. A recent change of client management.
a. Inquiries of management and others within the
entity
b. External confirmation 47. Which of the following is not useful for obtaining an
c. Analytical procedures understanding of internal controls?
d. Observation and inspection a. Make inquiries of the clients personnel.
b. Examine documents and records.
42. Inquiries directed towards those charged with
c. Read industry trade magazines.
governance may most likely
d. Observe client activities and operations.
a. Relate to their activities concerning the design and
effectiveness of the entitys internal control and 48. The following are the different techniques in
whether management has satisfactorily responded documenting the auditors understanding of the clients
to any findings from those activities internal control system, except
b. Help the auditor in understanding the environment a. Narrative c. Flowchart
in which the financial statements are prepared b. Questionnaires d. Procedures manual
c. Relate to changes in the entitys marketing Transaction Cycles and Related Controls
strategies, sales trends or contractual Revenue and Receipt Cycle
arrangements with its customers 49. An auditor is reviewing internal control for accounts
d. Help the auditor in evaluating the appropriateness receivable:
of the selection and application of certain I. The billing function should not be assigned to the
accounting policies person who is responsible for maintaining accounts
receivable records.
ANALYTICAL PROCEDURES (PSA 520)
II. Responsibility for approval of the write-off of
43. Analytical procedures enable the auditor to predict the
accounts receivable that are uncollectible should
balance or quantity of an item under audit.
not be assigned to the cashier.
Information to develop this estimate can be obtained
a. Only I is true c. Both I and II are true
from all of the following, except
b. Only II is true d. Neither I nor II is true
a. Comparison of financial data with data for
comparable prior periods, anticipated results (e.g., 50. Which of the following would best protect a company
budgets and forecasts), and similar data for the that wishes to prevent lapping?
industry in which the entity operates. a. Segregating duties so that accounting has no
b. Study of the relationships of elements of financial access to an incoming mail
data that would be expected to conform to a b. Segregating duties so that no employee has access
predictable pattern based upon the entitys both to checks from customers and to currency
experience. from daily cash receipts
c. Study of the relationships of financial data with c. Having customers send payments directly to the
relevant nonfinancial data. companys bank
d. Tracing transactions through the system to d. Requesting that customers checks be made
determine whether procedures are payable to the company and be addressed to the
treasurer
44. Auditor try to identify predictable relationships when
using the analytical procedures. Relationships Expenditure and Disbursement Cycle
involving transactions from which of the following 51. Internal control is improved when the quantity of
accounts most likely would yield the highest level of merchandise ordered is omitted from the copy of the
evidence. purchase order sent to the
a. Accounts payable c. Accounts receivable a. Department that initiated the requisition
b. Advertising expense d. Payroll expense b. Receiving department
c. Purchasing agent
45. Analytical procedures are used for the following d. Accounts payable department
purposes:
a. To assist the auditor in assessing the risk of 52. When goods are received, the receiving clerk should
material misstatements of the FS match the goods with the
b. As a substantive test to obtain evidential matter a. Purchase order and requisition.
about particular assertion related to account b. Vendors invoice and the receiving report.
balances or classes of transaction. c. Vendors shipping document and the purchase
c. As an overall review of financial information in the order.
final review stage of the audit. d. Receiving report and the vendors shipping
d. All of the above. documents.
Understanding the Entitys Internal Control 53. The accounts payable department should compare the
46. Control environment information on each vendors invoice with the
a. Consists of the policies and procedures that help a. Receiving report and the purchase order.
ensure that management directives are carried b. Receiving report and the vendor.
out. c. Vendors packing slip and the purchase order.
b. Includes the governance and management d. Vendors packing slip and the voucher.
functions and the attitudes, awareness, and 54. The mailing of disbursement checks and remittance
actions of those charged with governance and advices should be controlled by the employee who
management concerning the entitys internal a. Signed the checks last
control and its importance in the entity. b. Approved the vouchers for payment
c. Is the entitys process for identifying business risks c. Matched the receiving reports, purchase orders,
relevant to financial reporting objectives and and vendor invoices
deciding about actions to address those risks, and d. Verified the mathematical accuracy of the vouchers
the results thereof. and remittance advices
d. Consists of the procedures and records established
55. Which of the following would prevent a paid
to initiate, record, process, and report entity
disbursement from being paid a second time?
transactions (as well as events and conditions) and
a. Individuals responsible for signing checks should
to maintain accountability for the related assets,
prepare vouchers.
liabilities, and equity.
b. Disbursements should be approved by at least two a. Emphasizing to the audit team the need to
responsible officials. maintain professional skepticism in gathering and
c. The disbursement date should be within a few days evaluating audit evidence
of the date the voucher is presented for payment. b. Assigning more experienced staff or those with
d. The official signing the check should cancel the special skills or using experts.
supporting documents. c. Incorporating additional elements of
unpredictability in the selection of further audit
Investing and Financing Cycle
procedures to be performed.
56. A company holds bearer bonds as a short-term
d. Performing substantive procedures at an interim
investment. Responsibility for custody of these bonds
date instead of at period end.
and submission of coupons for periodic interest
collections probably should be delegated to the 64. The auditor should design and perform further audit
a. Chief accountant c. Cashier procedures whose nature, timing, and extent are
b. Internal auditor d. Treasurer responsive to the assessed risks of material
misstatement at the assertion level. Which of the
57. When no independent stock transfer agents are following is the most important consideration in
employed and the corporation issues its own stocks responding to the assessed risks?
and maintains stock records, canceled stock a. The nature of the audit procedures
certificates should b. The extent of the audit procedures
a. Not be defaced but segregated from other stock c. The timing of the audit procedures
certificates and retained in a canceled certificates d. All of these are equally important
file. 65. A procedure that would least likely be used by an auditor
b. Be destroyed to prevent fraudulent reissuance. in performing tests of control is
c. Be defaced and sent to the secretary of state. a. Inspection. c. Observation.
d. Be defaced to prevent reissuance and attached to b. Reperformance. d. Recalculation
their corresponding stubs.
66. As the acceptable level of detection risk decreases an
Personnel and Payroll auditor may
58. Which of the following departments most likely would a. Reduce substantive testing by relying on the
approve changes in pay rates and deductions from assessments of inherent risk and control risk.
employee salaries? b. Postpone the planned timing of substantive tests
a. Personnel c. Controller from interim dates to the year-end.
b. Treasurer d. Payroll c. Eliminate the assessed level of inherent risk from
Identifying and Assessing Risks of Material consideration as a planning factor.
Misstatement d. Lower the assessed level of control risk from the
59. Which of the following conditions and events may most maximum level to below the maximum.
likely indicate the existence of risks of material 67. Which of the following is the best example of a
misstatements? substantive test?
a. Having personnel with appropriate accounting and a. Examining a sample of cash disbursements to test
financial reporting skills. whether expenses have been properly approved.
b. Accounting measurements that involve simple b. Confirmation of balances of accounts receivable.
processes c. Comparison of signatures on checks to a list of
c. Significant amount of routine or systematic authorized signers.
transactions d. Flowcharting of the clients cash receipts system.
d. Constraints on the availability of capital and credit
68. A high-level view of how much risk management and
60. An identified and assessed risk of material the board are willing to accept
misstatement that in the auditors judgment require a. Tolerable error c. Risk tolerance
special audit consideration b. Risk appetite d. Risk management
a. Business Risk c. Significant Risk
b. Inherent Risk d. Sampling Risk 69. The acceptable level of variation around objectives of
Enterprise Risk Management
61. Assertions about classes of transactions and events for a. Tolerable error c. Risk tolerance
the period under audit least likely include b. Risk appetite d. Risk management
a. Transactions and events that have been recorded
have occurred and pertain to the entity. Specific Substantive Audit Procedures
b. All transactions and events that should have been Audit of Cash
recorded have been recorded. 70. Cash receipts should be deposited on the day of receipt
c. Transactions and events have been recorded in the or the following business day. Select the most
correct accounting period. appropriate audit procedure to determine that cash is
d. All assets, liabilities and equity interests that promptly deposited.
should have been recorded have been recorded. a. Review the functions of cash receiving and
disbursing for proper separation of duties.
62. Which of the following is not a financial statement as- b. Review cash register tapes prepared for each sale.
sertion relating to account balances? c. Review the functions of cash handling and
a. Completeness. c. Rights and obligations. maintaining accounting records for proper
b. Existence. d. Valuation and competence. segregation of duties.
Responding to Assessed Risks d. Compare the daily cash receipts totals with the
63. The auditor should determine overall responses to bank deposits
address the risks of material misstatement at the 71. The primary evidence regarding year-end bank
financial statement level. Such responses least likely balances is documented in the
include a. Standard bank confirmations
b. Bank reconciliations
c. Interbank transfer schedule
d. Bank deposit lead schedule b. Provide a list of securities added and removed from
the box between the balance sheet and the
Audit of Receivables
security-count date.
72. Which of the following statements is correct concerning
c. Confirm that there has been no access to the box
the use of negative confirmation requests?
between the balance sheet date and the security-
a. Unreturned negative confirmation requests rarely
count date.
provide significant explicit evidence.
d. Count the securities in the box so that the auditor
b. Negative confirmation requests are effective when
have an independent direct verification.
detection risk is low.
c. Unreturned negative confirmation requests indicate 78. An auditor would most likely verify the interest earned
that alternative procedures are necessary. on bond investments by
d. Negative confirmation requests are effective when a. Vouching the receipt and deposit of interest
understatements of account balances are checks.
suspected. b. Confirming the bond interest rate with the issuer of
the bonds
73. It is sometimes impracticable or impossible for an
c. Recomputing the interest earned on the basis of
auditor to use normal accounts receivable confirmation
face amount, interest rate and period held.
procedures. In such situations, the best alternative
d. Testing the internal controls over cash receipts.
procedure the auditor might resort to would be
a. Examining subsequent receipts of year-end Audit of PPE
accounts receivable. 79. When there are few property and equipment
b. Reviewing accounts receivable aging schedules transactions during the year, the continuing auditor
prepared at the balance sheet date and at a makes a
subsequent date. a. Complete review of the related internal accounting
c. Requesting that management increase the controls and performs compliance test of controls
allowance for uncollectible accounts by an amount being relied upon.
equal to some percentage of the balance in those b. Complete review of the related internal accounting
accounts that cannot be confirmed. controls and performs analytical review tests to
d. Performing an overall analytic review of accounts verify the current year additions to property and
receivable and sales on a year-to-year basis. equipment.
c. Preliminary review of the related internal
Audit of Inventory
accounting controls and performs a thorough
74. After accounting for a sequence of inventory tags, an
examination of the balance at the beginning of the
auditor traces a sample tags to the physical inventory
year.
listing to obtain evidence that all items
d. Preliminary review of the related internal
a. Included in the listing have been counted.
accounting controls and performs extensive tests
b. Represented by inventory tags are included in the
of current year property and equipment
listing.
transactions.
c. Included in the listing are represented by inventory
tags. Audit of Liabilities
d. Represented by inventory tags are bona fide. 80. Which of the following procedures would an auditor
most likely perform in searching for unrecorded
75. Which of the following audit procedures would provide
payables?
the least reliable evidence that the client has legal title
a. Reconcile receiving reports with related cash
to inventories?
payments made just prior to year-end.
a. Confirmation of inventories at locations outside the
b. Contrast the ratio of accounts payable to purchases
clients facilities
with the prior years ratio.
b. Analytical review of inventory balances compared
c. Vouch a sample of creditor balances to supporting
to purchasing and sales activities
invoices, receiving reports, and purchase orders.
c. Observation of physical inventory counts
d. Compare the cash payments occurring after the
d. Examination of paid vendors invoices
balance sheet date with the accounts payable trial
Audit of Investments balance.
76. To establish the existence and ownership of a long-
Audit of SHE
term investment in the common stock of a publicly-
81. When a clients company does not maintain its own
traded company, an auditor ordinarily performs a
stock records, the auditor should obtain written
security count or
confirmation from the transfer agent and the registrar
a. Relies on the clients internal accounting controls, if
concerning:
the auditors procedures are being applied as
a. Restrictions on the payment of dividends
prescribed.
b. The number of shares issued and outstanding
b. Confirms the number of shares owned that are
c. Guarantees of preferred stock liquidation value
held by an independent custodian.
d. The number of shares subject to agreements to
c. Determine the market price per share at the
repurchase
balance sheet date from published quotation.
d. Confirms the number of shares owned with the Audit of Litigations, Claims and Assessments
issuing company. 82. The refusal of a clients lawyer to provide a
representation on the legality of a particular act
77. When an auditor is unable to inspect and count a
committed by the client is ordinarily
clients investment securities until after the balance
a. Sufficient reason to issue a subject to opinion.
sheet date, the bank where the securities are held in a
b. Considered to be a scope limitation.
safe deposit box should be asked to
c. Insufficient reason to modify the auditors report
a. Verify any differences between the contents of the
because of the lawyers obligation of
box and the balances in the clients subsidiary
confidentiality.
ledger.
d. Proper grounds to withdraw from the management.
Audit Sampling
83. The risk that the auditors conclusion based on a a. Undue time pressures imposed by management to
sample may be different from the conclusion if the resolve complex or contentious issues.
entire population were subjected to the same audit b. Complaints by management about the conduct of
procedure the audit or management intimidation of
a. Sampling risk engagement team members.
b. Confidence levels c. Usual delays by the entity in providing requested
c. Statistical sampling information
d. Tolerable rate and the expected rate of deviation d. An unwillingness to address identified weaknesses
84. Which of the following is not an element of in internal control on a timely basis.
nonsampling risk, which is defined as the risk that the 92. Based on PSA 240 Redrafted, in a financial statement
auditor does not recognize misstatements or deviations audit, the auditor should consider categories of fraud
included in the sample for what they are? risk factors relating to misstatements arising from (1)
a. The auditor uses inappropriate procedures in fraudulent financial reporting and (2) misappropriation
auditing accounts receivable of assets. Which of the following is not a category of
b. The use of unreasonable small sample size fraud risk factors in relation to misstatements arising
c. Misinterpretations of audit evidence from misappropriation of assets?
d. Auditor fails to recognize the error in the sample a. Opportunities c. Pressures/Incentives
85. At times a sample may indicate in the case of a test of b. Controls d. Attitudes/Rationalizations
details that a material misstatement does not exist
93. According to PSA 240 Redrafted, the auditor may
when in fact it does. This situation illustrates the risk of
consider withdrawing from the engagement
a. incorrect rejection c. over reliance
a. When the entity does not take the remedial action
b. incorrect acceptance d. under reliance
regarding fraud, even if it not material to the
86. In assessing sampling risk, the risk of assessing financial statements.
control risk too high (under reliance) and risk of b. If the fraud is perpetrated through the connivance
incorrect rejection relate to the of some employees
a. Efficiency of the audit. c. When the fraudulent act affects the financial
b. Effectiveness of the audit. statements, even if such effect is reflected in the
c. Selection of the sample. financial statements
d. Audit quality controls. d. When the auditor is unable to gather evidence that
87. Which of the following statements is correct concerning will corroborate his suspicion that possible
statistical sampling in tests of controls? occurrence of fraud may have materially affected
a. There is an inverse relationship between the the financial statements
sample size and the expected control deviation 94. The following are conditions that non-compliance may
rate. have occurred, except
b. As the population size doubles, the sample size a. Payments for unspecified services or loans to
should also double. consultants, related parties, employees or
c. The qualitative aspects of deviations are not government employees
considered by the auditor. b. Existence of an accounting system which fails,
d. There is an inverse relationship between the whether by design or by accident, to provide an
sample size and the tolerable rate of deviation. adequate audit trail or sufficient evidence.
88. Which of the following is correct about sampling risks? c. Payments without proper exchange control
a. The risk of incorrect acceptance relates to the documentation.
efficiency of the audit. d. Sales commissions or agent's fees that appear
b. The risk of assessing control risk too low relates to reasonable in relation to those ordinarily paid by
the efficiency of the audit. the entity or in its industry or to the services
c. Sampling risk includes the auditors failure to actually received.
recognize errors in the documents examines for
Completing the Audit and Post-audit Responsibilities
the chosen sample.
Subsequent Events
d. The likelihood of assessing control risk too high is
95. Which of the following is least likely a procedure that
the risk that the sample selected to test controls
would be performed by the auditor near the auditors
are less effective than they actually are
report date?
89. If all other factors specified in a variables sampling a. Reviewing the procedures that management has
plan remain constant, increasing the acceptable risk of established to ensure that subsequent events are
incorrect acceptance would cause the required sample identified.
size to b. Inquiring of management as to whether any
a. Decrease. c. Increase. subsequent events have occurred which might
b. Remain the same. d. Become indeterminate. affect the financial statements.
The Auditor's Responsibilities to Fraud and Error and c. Reading the minutes of the meetings of
Non-compliance shareholders, the BOD and audit executive
90. The primary responsibility for the prevention and committees held throughout the audit year.
detection of fraud and error rests with. d. Reading/comparing the entitys latest available
a. The auditor interim financial statements.
b. Those charged with governance
Going Concern Considerations
c. The management of an entity
96. What is the auditors responsibility of detecting
d. Both b and c
significant doubt about the entitys ability to continue
91. The following are examples of circumstances that may as a going concern?
indicate the possibility that the financial statements a. Analyze the ability of the company to generate
may contain a material misstatement resulting from cash flows.
fraud, except b. The auditor should make extensive analytical
procedures.
b. Pro forma financial presentations designed to operations, and cash flows based on one or more
demonstrate the effect of hypothetical transactions hypothetical assumptions
c. Feasibility studies presented to illustrate an entitys d. A prospective financial statement that presents an
results of operations entitys expected financial position, results of
d. Interim financial information reviewed to operations, and cash flows based on one or more
determine whether material modifications should hypothetical assumptions
be made to conform with PFRS
129. Which of the following statements concerning
123. An auditors report on financial statements prospective financial statements is correct?
prepared on the cash receipts and disbursements basis a. Only a financial forecast would normally be
of accounting should include the following appropriate for limited use.
a. A reference to the note to the financial statements b. Only a financial projection would normally be
that describes the cash receipts and disbursements appropriate for general use.
basis of accounting. c. Any type of prospective financial statements would
b. An opinion as to whether the financial statements normally be appropriate for limited use.
are presented fairly in conformity with the cash d. Any type of prospective financial statements would
receipts and disbursements basis of accounting. normally be appropriate for general use.
c. A statement that the audit was conducted in
accordance with PSA. 130. Comfort letters ordinarily are signed by the client's
d. All of the above a. Independent auditor.
b. Underwriter of securities.
Review and Other Assurance Services c. Audit committee.
124. Which of the following is not included in the scope d. Senior management.
paragraph of a review report?
a. A statement that a review is limited primarily to Related Services
inquiries and analytical procedures. 131. Which of the following is not correct concerning
b. A reference to PSREs. specified parties of an agreed-upon procedures
c. A statement the review included an evaluation of report under either the auditing or attestation
reasonableness of accounting estimates made by standards?
management. a. They must agree on the procedures to be
d. A statement that an audit has not been performed. performed
b. They must take responsibility for the adequacy of
125. Which of the following would not be included in an the procedures performed
accountants report based upon a review of the c. They must sign an engagement latter
financial statements of a nonpublic entity? d. After completion of the engagement, another party
a. A statement that the review was in accordance may be added as a specified user
with PSAs.
b. A statement that all information included in the 132. A summary of findings (Report of Factual Findings)
financial statements are the representations of rather than assurance is most likely to be included in
management a. Agreed-upon procedures report.
c. A statement describing the principal procedures b. Compilation report.
performed. c. Examination report.
d. A statement describing the accountants d. Review report.
conclusions based upon the results of the review. 133. An accountant may accept an engagement to apply
agreed-upon procedures to prospective financial
126. In a review engagement, if there has been a
statements provided that:
material scope limitation, the auditor should describe
a. distribution of the report is to be restricted to the
the limitation in the review report and either
specified users involved.
a. Express a qualification of the negative assurance or
b. the prospective financial statements are also
not provide any assurance.
examined.
b. Express a qualification of the negative assurance
c . responsibility for the adequacy of the procedures
provided or issue an adverse statement that the
performed is taken by the accountant.
financial statement are not presented fairly.
d. negative assurance is expressed on the prospective
c. Express an adverse statement that the financial
financial statements taken as a whole.
statements are not presented fairly or the auditor
not issue any assurance. 134. A compilation report is not required when compiled
d. Not modify the negative assurance or not issue an financial statements are expected to be used by
assurance. a. Management only
b. Management and third parties
127. A review engagement differs in scope as compared
c. Third parties only
to an audit due to:
d. A compilation report is required whenever financial
a. the subject matter of the service
statements are compiled
b. the quantity and type of evidence obtained
c. ethical requirements with respect to independence 135. Contingency fee based pricing of accounting
d. the users of the financial statements services is:
a. Always strictly prohibited in public accounting
128. What is meant by a financial forecast?
practice.
a. A prospective financial statement that predicts an
b. Allowed in an engagement to compile financial
entitys expected financial position, results of
statements.
operations, and cash flows
c. Not prohibited if associated with report based on
b. A prospective financial statement that presents an
agreed-upon procedures.
entitys expected financial position, results of
d. Always considered an act discreditable to the
operations, and cash flows
profession.
c. A prospective financial statement that predicts an
entitys expected financial position, results of 136. An accountant should perform analytical
procedures during an engagement to
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