Gujarat PGCET Question Bank EC

1 What is total AM transmitter power if carrier power 100W modulated with
modulation index m=0.7

A 149W B 170W
C 124.5W D 135W
2 What is percentage power saving if AM transmitter with modulation index
m=0.5 is replaced by SSBSC transmitter with same modulation index
A 83.30% B 94.40%
C 96% D 88.88%
3 In television 4:3 represents
A Interlace ratio B Form factor
C Aspect Ratio D None of above

4 To permit selection of 1 out of 32 equi-probable events, number of bits
required is
A 32 B 8
C 5 D 4
5 Value of Intermediate frequency (IF) for FM receiver is
A 455 KHz B 10.7 MHz
C 70 MHz D 118.7 MHz

6 Amplitude limiter is used in FM receiver because
A It limits audio signal B It prevents overloading
C It removes distortions D It removes amplitude variations

7 Which circuit is used in FM receiver but not in AM Receiver
A RF amplifier B Mixer
C Amplitude limiter D AGC

8 Demerits of balance slope detector for FM receiver
A Poor linearity B No amplitude limiting
C Tuning is difficult D All of above

9 AM receiver is tuned to 600 KHz with quality factor Q=100, IF value 455
KHz. Image rejection in dB
A -20dB B -30dB
C -35.5dB D -46.5dB
10 Crystal oscillator can be used in
A Varactor diode modulator B Transistor reactance modulator
C Armstrong modulator D FET reactance modulator

11 Bit rate is ___________ Baud rate in QPSK system
A equal to B three times
C two times D less than

12 What is the separation of phasors in 8-PSK system?
A 900 B 450
C 22.50 D 150
13 Number of possible symbols in QAM system are
A 2 B 4
C 8 D 16
14 Muting (squelch) circuit is basically
A Low pass filter circuit B High pass filter circuit
C Level activated switch D Frequency converter circuit

15 Double conversion receiver has
A Two RF amplifier stage B Two IF
C Two detectors D Two audio amplifier stage

16 Sampling rate required to sample CD quality audio signal is .
A 8000 samples/sec B 16000 samples/sec
C 20000 samples/sec D 44100 samples/sec

17 Oversampling results into .
A Large transmission bandwidth B More transmission power
C Low SNR D Distorted speech

18 Synchronization is necessary in
A PAM system B PWM System

C PPM System D None of above
19 Nyquist bandwidth required to transmit information signal with bandwidth
10 KHz coded with total 128 quantization levels is
A 1280 Kbps B 140 Kbps
C 70 Kbps D 64 kbps
20 Companding is used to
A Save transmission bandwidth B Remove noise

Achieve uniform SNR for all
C D Achieve amplitude limiting
amplitudes
21 Uplink frequency range for GSM-900 band is
A 890-915 MHz B 935-960 MHz
C 890-960 MHz D 890-910 MHz

22 Duplex distance for GSM-1800 band is
A 45 MHz B 95 MHz
C 25 MHz D 50 MHz
23 Following is not component of GSM architecture.
A Main switching center B Base station controller
C Master station controller D Base trans receiver

5
24 If PN chip rate is 30x10 and message bit rate is 1000, Processing gain of
DSSS system is ..
A 3000 B 6000
C 30000 D 60000
25 Frequency range of Ku Band is
A 2 GHz - 4 GHz B 4 GHz - 8 GHz
C 8 GHz - 12 GHz D 12 GHz - 18 GHz

26
What is the cut-off frequency of ractangular waveguide having dimension
1.5cm x 1 cm in dominant mode TE10.
A 1 GHz B 5 GHz
C 10 GHz D 15 GHz
27 Data rate at the output of GSM speech codec is
A 104 kbps B 64 kbps
C 13 kbps D 2.2 kbps

28 CELP Speech coder is based on .
A Waveform coding B Parametric coding
C Channel coding D Hybrid coding

29 Improvement in SNR of uniform PCM system if 9 bit is used instead of 8 bit
in quantization
A 1 dB B 3 dB
C 6 dB D 12 dB
30 In adaptive delta modulation
Slope over load error
A Step size is variable B
eliminated
C Granular noise is less D All of above
31 The spectral density of real valued random process has
A an even symmetry B a conjugate symmetry
C an odd symmetry D no symmetry

32 The stationary process has
Ensemble average equal to All Statistical properties
A B
time average dependent on time
All statistical properties
C D Zero variance
independent of time
33 A random process obeys Poisson's distribution. It is given that the mean of
the process is 5. Then the variance of process is ..
A 0 B 0.5
C 1 D 5
34 Thermal noise is independent of
A Temperature B Center frequency
C Bandwidth D Boltzmann's constant

35 A system has receiver noise resistance of 50 . It is connected to an
antenna with input resistance of 50 . Noise figure of the system is ..
A 1 B 2
C 0 D None of above
36 Calculate output SNR in dB for three identical links. SNR of one link 60 dB
A 57 dB B 180 dB
C 51.23 dB D 55.23 dB
37 Positive RF peak of AM signal rise to 12V and drop to minimum value of 4V.
Modulation index is
A 0.25 B 0.33
C 0.5 D 0.66
38 Resonant frequency of RF amplifier is 1 MHz, bandwidth is 10 KHz. Q factor
will be .
A 0.1 B 10
C 50 D 100
39 Balance modulator is used to generate
A AM Signal B DSBSC Signal
C PM Signal D PWM Signal

40 Maximum modulating frequency in AM system increases from 10 KHz to 20
KHz, Modulation index ..
A doubled B halved
C remains constant D increase by 10

41 Primary function of multiplexing in communication system
To select one radio channel To allow a number of signals to
A from a wide range of B make use of a single
transmitted channels communications channel
To match the frequency range
To reduce the bandwidth of a
C D of a signal to a particular
signal.
channel.
42 Optical fiber uses ______ portion of Electromagnetic waves
A UHF B Ultraviolet
Between Infrared and
C D Infrarred
Ultraviolet
43 Glass fiber has core refractive index n1=1.5 and cladding refractive index
n2=1. Multipath dispersion would be . (c=3x108 m/s)
A 2.5 ns/m B 2.5 S/m
C 5 ns/m D 5 S/m
44 In CDMA systems
Entire bandwidth can be used Entire bandwidth is used on
A B
at a time time sharing basis
Entire bandwidth is divided
C D None of above
into narrow bands
45 Following is not usual classification of optical fiber
A Single mode step index B Multi-mode step index
C Multi-mode graded index D Single mode graded index

46 The energy gap Eg of PIN Photo detector should be _____photon energy of
light (hf)
A Equal to B Smaller than
C Greater than D Independent of

47 Numerical aperture (NA) and acceptance angle of fiber optic cable related
by equation
A NA=sin B NA=tan
C NA=sin-1 D NA=(1-sin2)1/2
48 What is total SSB transmitter power if carrier power 10W modulated with
A 0.625 W B 1.25 W
C 2.5 W D 5W
49 What is total SSB transmitter power if carrier power 10W modulated with
A 0.625 W B 1.25 W
C 2.5 W D 5W
50 Cluster of cells is the collection of adjacent cells with
A Same operating spectrum B Different operating spectrum
C both A & B D None of above
51 In GSM system case 1: cluster size N=7 case 2: cluster size N=19
A Case 1 has more SIR B Case 2 has more SIR
C Case 1 and Case 2 has equal SIR D No effect of N on SIR
Case 1 has more channel Case 2 has more channel
A B
capacity capacity
Case 1 and Case 2 has equal No effect of N on channel
C D
Channel capacity capacity
53 In AM systems if modulation index increases from 0.5 to 0.75
A Bandwidth increases by 1.5 B Bandwidth decreases by 1.5
C Bandwidth remains constant D None of above
54 In FM system, if modulation index increases from 5 to 10 .
A Transmission power doubles B Transmission power halved
C Transmission power 1.41 times D Remains same
55 In GSM system 5 MHz bandwidth is allocated to network operator,
Assuming frequency reuse factor 1/5, maximum number of simultaneous
channels that can exists in one cell is
A 15 B 25
C 40 D 200
56 The main objective of cell in cellular mobile system is
A hand-off possibilities B frequency resue
C simple modulation requires D higher bandwidth

57 Which of following mobile systems is second generation mobile
communication system?
A AMPS B GSM
C IMT-2000 D NAMTS
58 Basic purpose of cell splitting in GSM mobile systems is ..
A Reduce handoffs B Reduce channel capacity
Reduce bandwidth
C Increase channel capacity D
requirement
59 Frequency reuse ratio in mobile communication is given by
A Q=R/D B Q=RxD
2
C Q=D/R D Q=D/R
60 A cellular system has 12 macro-cells with 10 channels per cell. Each macro
cell is splitted into 3 microcells. Find out total available channels after
splitting
A 40 B 120
C 360 D 30
61 Major development under the way in the field of telecommunications..
A Data & Voice convergence B Fixed and mobile convergence
C Internet D Satellite communication
62 One of following is not part of 2.5G technologies in mobile communication
A GPRS B EDGE
C CDMA2000 1xRTT D IS95
63 Which one of following enhances data capability of 2G mobile network?
A TACS B GSM
C GPRS D ISDN
64 Population inversion phenomenon found in
A LED B Photodiode
C LASER D FET
65 Optical fiber having core refractive index n1=1.4 and cladding refractive
index n2=1.05. Its numerical aperture will be
A 0.926 B 0.8
C 0.35 D 0.15
66 Normalized frequency of step index fiber is 28 at 1300 nm wavelength.
What are total app. number of guided mode supported by fiber?
A 50 B 100
C 200 D 400
67 The SAFER+ algorithm is used to provide security in which wireless
technology?
A Bluetooth B ZigBee
C UWB D WiMAX
68 Which numbers appear in the International Mobile Equipment Identity
(IMEI)?
A Mobile Country Code B Mobile Network Code
C Equipment Serial Number D None of above

69 The term STN (Super Twisted Nematic) refers to _________.
The layered structure of the The nature of the liquid crystal
A B
display itself
The control signal applied to The application of display
C D
the display backlighting
70 Disadvantage of STN (Super Twisted Nematic) is .
A Consumes more power B Operates slowely
C Higher cost D Less life time
71 For random variable x, probability density function p(x) is given by:
p(x)=1/2 for -1 x 1 and p(x)=0 otherwise. Mean and variance
respectively .
A 1/2 and 2/3 B 1 and 2/3
C 1 and 4/3 D 2 and 4/3

72 Probability density function of the envelope of narrowband Gaussian noise
is
A Rayleigh B Poisson
C Gaussian D Rician
73 Spectral density expresses .
A Average voltage B Average current
Average power as a function of
C Average frequency D
frequency
74 Aperture effect in flat top pulses is reduced by using
A Integrator B Differentiator
C Predictor D Equalizer
75 In PCM system, quantization noise depends on
A Sampling interval B Number of quantization levels
Frequency of information
C D None of above
signal
76 In PCM system, sampling rate is determined by
A Parsevals Theorem B Nyquist Theorem
C Fourier Transform D Hysenberg Theorem

77 Frequency range of telephonic quality speech is
A 20 Hz to 20 KHz B 500 Hz to 10 KHz
C 300 Hz to 3.4 KHz D 300 Hz to 5 KHz

78 Range of Very High Frequency (VHF) is
A 3-30 MHz B 30-300 MHz
C 300-3000 MHz D 3-30 GHz

79 Process of transmitting two or more information signals on same channel is
called
A Modulation B Multiplexing
C Detection D Telemetry
80 Which one of the following requires synchronizing signal?
A PPM B PWM
C PAM D All of above

81 Quantization noise occurs in
A PWM B PPM
C PCM D AM
82 Which one of following system is digital?
A PAM B PWM
C PCM D AM
83 Which one of following pulse modulation system is analog?
A PWM B PCM
C DM D ADM
84 In delta modulation, granular noise occurs when modulating signal
A remains constant B increases rapidly
C decreases rapidly D None of above

85 For uniform quantization, 32 levels can be represented by
A 4 bit B 5 bit
C 8 bit D 32 bit
86 In QAM system following both identity are varied
A Amplitude and frequency B Frequency and phase
C Amplitude and Phase D Baud rate and phase

87 In PCM systems, if transmission path is long.
High power transmitter are
A B Sensitive receivers are used
used
C Repeaters are used D Pulse amplitude increases
88 An amplifier having noise figure of 20 dB and available power gain of 15 dB
followed by mixer circuit having noise figure of 9 dB. The overall noise
figureas referred to input in dB is
A 21.53 B 11.07
C 10.44 D 0.63
89 A parallel tuned circuit is resonated with 200 MHz with Q of 10 and
capacitance of 10 pF. Temperature of circuit is 170 C. What is noise voltage
observed across circuit by wideband voltmeter?
A 1 V B 2 V
C 8 V D 16 V
90 What is the relation between Noise Bandwidth and 3-dB bandwidth in ideal
systems?
A BN > B3dB B BN = B3dB
C BN =0.5* B3dB D BN = 0.5**B3dB

91 What is the relation between Noise Bandwidth and 3-dB bandwidth in Low
pass filter?
C BN =0.5* B3dB D BN = 0.5**B3dB

92
What is internal noise power (Pn) of microwave amplifier operating with a
bandwidth of 500 MHz and noise figure of 2.5 dB?
A 0.5 pW B 0.557 pW
C 1 pW D 1.557 pW
93 Noise voltage source has resistance of 10 . Its power density spectrum is
0.24x10-5. Corresponding available power density is ..
A 2.6x10-5 B 0.025
C 26x10-5 D 6x10-8
94 If resistance value doubled and temperature maintained at constant level,
available thermal noise power per unit bandwidth will
A remains constant B Increase two times
C Increase four times D Decrease to half

95 What will be thermal noise voltage developed across resistor of 10 . The
Bandwidth of measuring instrument is 1 MHz. Ambient temperature 270 C
A 0.40 V B 1.28 V
C 0.16 V D 1.19 V
96 Which one of following is suitable detector to detect information signal
from modulated signal (5+10cosmt)coswct
A Envelope detector B Synchronous detector
C Ratio detector D None of above

97 Plot of modulation index versus carrier amplitude in FM yields .
A Horizontal line B Vertical line
C Parabola D Hyperbola
98 Image rejection in super-heterodyne receiver occurs at ..
A RF Stage B Mixer Stage
C IF stage D Detector stage

99 Modulation index of AM wave changes from 0 to 1, transmitter power
A Increase by 100% B Increase by 50%
C Increase by 25% D Does not change

100 Which one of following modulation scheme requires minimum bandwidth
and minimum power?
A VSB B SSBSC
C DSBSC D AM
101 For FDM systems used in telephone, which of the following system used
A AM B FM
C SSB D DSBSC
102 1 MHz sinusoidal carrier is amplitude modulated by symmetrical square
wave of period 100 S . Which of the following frequencies will not present
in the modulated signal?
A 990 KHz B 1010 KHz
C 1020 KHz D 1030 KHz

103 1 MHz sinusoidal carrier is amplitude modulated by sine wave of period 100
S for one cycle . Which of the following frequencies will not present in the
modulated signal?
C 1010 KHz D 1020 KHz

104 In amplitude modulation system, total power is 600 W and power of carrier
is 400 W. Modulation index is
A 0.25 B 0.5
C 0.75 D 1
105 Carrier is amplitude modulated by three message signal with modulation
index 0.2, 0.4 and 0.5 What is total modulation index?
A 1.1 B 0.67
C 0.55 D 0.25
106 Total rms antenna current of AM radio transmitter is 6 A. It reduces to 5 A
when modulating signal is removed. What is modulation index?
A 0.94 B 0.83
C 0.69 D 0.33
107 AM signal has carrier power 1 KW. In each sideband, there is 200 Watt.
What is modulation index?
A 0.201 B 0.404
C 0.8 D 0.894
108 In low level amplitude modulation, amplifier following modulated stage
must be ..
A Non-linear amplifier B Linear amplifier
C Class C amplifier D Harmonic amplifier

109 FM signal with modulation index 10 is passed through frequency tripler,
output signal have modulation index
A 3.33 B 10
C 30 D 10
110 Bandwidth of FM signal does not depends on
A Modulating frequency B Carrier frequency

Maximum amplitude of
C D Peak frequency deviation
modulating signal
111 Following problem will occur if we keep value of IF too high in receiver
Poor adjacent channel
A B Poor sensitivity
rejection
C Tuning is difficult D Poor fidelity
112 Following diode is used in AM detector circuit
A Silicon diode B Point contact diode
C Tunnel diode D PIN diode

113 Standard bandwidth of IF amplifier in FM receiver is ..
A 10.7 MHz B 50 KHz
C 100 KHz D 200 KHz

114 Basic reason behind linearity of phase discriminator is
Primary to secondary phase
A Tuned circuit is used B
relationship is linear
C RFC is used D Parallel combination of RC
115 Following FM detector uses large capacitor to achieve amplitude limiting
A Diode detector B Phase discriminator
C Ratio detector D PLL Detector

116 UHF 900MHz frequency band is used in cellular mobile communication
because.
Below 900 MHz, band is not Good Sky wave Propogation at
A B
available 900 MHz.
Line of sight and reflected
C signal ensure the reception at D None of above
mobile handset
117 GSM cellular mobile communication system uses
A CDMA and FDMA B FDMA and TDMA
C Only FDMA D Only TDMA

118 WLAN services uses
Long distance communication Short distance communication
A B
at high data rate at high data rate
Long distance communication Short distance communication
C D
at low data rate at low data rate
119 As per IEEE 802.11g standard WLAN devices which are 50 meter apart can
send and receive data up to .
A 64 kbps B 2 MBPS
C 11 MBPS D 54 MBPS
120 GPRS is.
Circuit switched and packet Packet switching for mobile
A B
switched service users for data transfer
C Voice telephony services D useful for sending SMS
121 UMTS offers data speed
384 kbps on move and 2.048 64 Kbps on move and 1 Mbps
A B
Mbps on stationary on stationary
2.1 MBPS on move and 8 MBPS
C D None of above
on stationary
122 IEEE 802.16 WiMAX standard offers maximum data rate .
A 2 MBPS B 8 MBPS
C 54 MBPS D 75 MBPS
123 Bluetooth module communicates using .
A transmitter B receiver
C radio module D transponder

124 IEEE 802.15.1 Bluetooth system has typical frequency hop rate of ______
hops per second
A 512 B 800
C 1600 D 3200
125
IEEE 802.11 WLAN physical layer with 2 MBPS with base band modulation
DSSS uses carrier modulation scheme _____________.
A BPSK B QPSK
C DQPSK D QAM
126 The size of file transferred in 10 seconds using WLAN system operating at
2Mbps considering ideal transfer data rate.
A 2 MB B 2.5 MB
C 10 MB D 20 MB
127 Which technology is used by IEEE 802.15.1 WPAN standard to separate
piconets
A DSSS B OFDM
C FHSS-CDMA D FHSS-TDMA
128 In close loop power control, base station sends power control messages to
mobile handset at every .
A 1 ms B 10 ms
C 100 ms D 500 ms
129 WCDMA uplink uses spreading factor up to .
A 16 B 32
C 64 D 512
130 Data modulation used in WCDMA for reverse channel is
A BPSK B QPSK
C DQPSK D QAM
131 WCDMA uses chip rate of .
A 2 Mcps B 8 Mcps
C 3.84 Mcps D 16 Mcps

132 Voice encoding technique used in WCDMA
A LPC B RELP
C Adaptive CELP D DPCM

133 Maximum EIRP for class-III mobile phone in WCDMA is
A +23 dBm B +13 dBm
C +9 dBm D +3 dBm
134 After spread spectrum modulation, bandwidth of spreaded signal
A remains constant B increases
C increases significantly D decreases

135 Minimum Eb/No value required for proper system operation depends on ..
A Performance of coding method B Bit error rate
C Tolerance of digitised voice D All of these

136 CDMA IS-95 technology uses one of following multiple access technique
A FDMA B FHSS
C DSSS D THSS
137 In DSSS system, code rate is 48 Mcps and information signal rate 4.8 Kbps,
Processing gain in dB is
A 4.8 dB B 48 dB
C 40 dB D 60 dB
138 In FHSS system total bandwith is 500 MHz, individual channel bandwidth is
5 KHz. What is processing gain in dB?
A 5 dB B 50 dB
C 4 dB D 40 dB
139 Each carrier of CDMA IS-95 carrier occupies bandwidth of
A 200 KHz B 600 KHz
C 1.25 MHz D 10 MHz

140 Once link with nearest base station is established in CDMA, open loop
power setting is adjusted in 1 dB increments after every ______ by
command from base station.
A 1 second B 1.25 second
C 10 ms D 1.25 ms
141 MAHO is implemented in mobile communication in order to
A reduce co-channel interference B reduce transmission power
C reduce inter-cell interference D reduce near-far problem

142 Which one out of following offers high spectrum efficiency with constant
amplitude ?
A FSK B QPSK
C GMSK D QAM
143 The frequency hoping system used in GSM allows to change transmission
frequency once in every ______ .
A 1.25 ms B 120 ms
C 4.615 ms D 125 s
144 Modulation data rate in GSM is .
A 200 kbps B 270.833 kbps
C 64 kbps D 2 Mbps
145 Spectrum efficiency in GSM is .
A 1 bps/Hz B 1.35 bps/Hz

C 2 bps/Hz D 4 bps/Hz
146 Grey list in mobile communication means
Mobile numbers are not
A Mobile numbers are VIP B
allowed permanantly
Mobile numbers are not
C D Mobile purchased without bills
allowed momentarily
147 Broadcast Control Channel (BCCH) is by BTS to broadcast .
A Frequency of operation in cell B Channel availability
C Congestion information D All of above

148 The number of time slots available per RF channel in GSM system is ..
A 3 B 4
C 8 D 16
149 The standard interface that connects BTS to BSC is called
A Um Interface B A-bis
C A D D
150
The difference in free space propagation loss between two location 2 km
and 8 km from transmitter is
A 3 dB B 6 dB
C 12 dB D 15 dB
151 Wireless medium compared to wired medium
Quite reliable for voice and Not reliable for voice and data
A B
data communication communication
C Offers more bandwidth D Requires less power

152 In mobile radio propagation path loss exponent is
A 2 B 3
C 4 D 5
153 Cellular network is reconfigured with frequency reuse pattern of 7 instead
of 4. Increase in overall system capacity is approximately
A 28 times B 7 times
C 4 times D 1.7 times

154 Cells using same set of frequencies are called
A neighboring cells B adjacent channel cells
C Co-channel cells D Clusters

155 The distance between the centers of two hexagonal cells, if radius of cell is
2 km
A 3 B 23
C 43 D 4
156 Mobile communication system is designed with cell size of 2 km2. Cluster
size N=7. What is will be area of one cluster?
A 3.5 km2 B 7 km2
C 14 km2 D 143 km2

157 Service area is covered with 10 clusters each having 7 cells in it. 16 channels
are assigned to each cell. The number of channels per cluster are ..
A 1120 B 112
C 70 D None of above
158
Mobile communication system has an allocated number of 1000 voice
channels. If service area is divided into 20 cells with a frequency reuse
factor of 4. System capacity is .
A 1000 B 5000
C 10000 D 20000
159 In regular hexagonal geometry pattern, the number of cells in cluster
formed by i=2 and j=2 are .
A 4 B 8
C 12 D 16
160
Propagation considerations recommends cell shape _____________ and for
system design cell shape used is ______________.
A circular, circular B circular, hexagonal
C hexagonal, hexagonal D hexagonal, circular

161 If cell site antenna height is doubled, there will be
A Reduction in path loss by 6 dB B Reduction in path loss by 3 dB

C Reduction in path loss by 12 dB D No change in path loss
162 In wireless communication, transmitter power is 10W. Transmitter antenna
gain is 3 dB. EIRP is.
A 10 W B 20 W
C 30 W D 3.33 W
163 PLL can be used to demodulate
A AM B FM
C PM D PCM
164 Two sinusoids of same amplitude and frequencies of 10 KHZ and 11 KHz are
added together and applied to ideal frequency detector. Output of the
detector is .
A 21 KHz sinusoid B 1 KHz sinusoid
C 210 KHz sinusoid D 1.1 KHz sinusoid

165 In commercial FM broadcasting, modulating frequency is limited to ..
A 3.4 KHz B 5 KHz
C 15 KHz D 20 KHz
166 Modulating frequency in FM is increased from 10 KHz to 20 KH, bandwidth
A Gets doubled B Does not change
C Increase by 20 KHz D Increase by 10 KHz

167 In single tone FM discriminator, So/No is
proportional to cube of
A proportional to deviation B
deviation
inversely proportional to Proportional to square of
C D
deviation deviation
168
If modulating frequency is 20 KHz and peak frequency deviation is 50 KHz.
Bandwidth of FM signal as per Carson's rule is .
A 40 KHz B 90 KHz
C 140 KHz D 200 KHz
169 Following is not advantage of FM over AM system
A Noise immunity B Fidelity
C Capture effect D Sputtering effect

170 A sinusoidal signal with peak to peak amplitude 1.536 is quantized in 128
levels using mid-rise uniform quantizer. Quantization noise power is
A 0.12 V2 B 0.012 V2
C 0.0012 V2 D 0.000012 V2
171 Standard data rate of PCM for 30 channels is ..
A 64 KBPS B 2.048 MBPS
C 4 MBPS D 8 MBPS
172 The SQR for PCM if sinusoidal signal is quantized using 10 bit
A 48 dB B 56.8 dB
C 64 dB D 67.78 dB
173 Pulse stuffing is used in
A Synchronous TDM B Asynchronous TDM
C Any TDM D None of above

174 With compare to PCM system, delta modulation requires
A lower sampling rate B low bandwidth
C simple hardware D better SNR

175 Following is not ideal requirement from line codes
A Transmission bandwidth B large DC component
C Favorable PSD D Timing recovery

176 Which one of following line code has no DC component and clock recovery
property?
A Manchestor B NRZ
C RZ D None of above
177 Which of the following gives maximum probability of error?
A ASK B BFSK
C BPSK D DPSK
178 Output SNR of matched filter, fed at its input by a ractangular pulse of
amplitude A and duration T is given by _________ considering N as noise
PSD
A 2AT/N B 2A2T/N
C AT D A/N
179 Main circuit used in DPSK modulator is
A AND gate B OR gate
C Ex-NOR gate D NAND gate

180
In digital communication system employing FSK, 0 is represented by sine
wave of 10 KHz and 1 is represented by 25 KHz. These waveforms are
orthogonal for bit interval of .
A 45 s B 50 s
C 200 s D 250 s
181 For a bit rate of 8 kbps, best possible values of transmitted frequencies in a
coherent binary FSK systems are
A 32 KHz and 40 KHz B 8 KHz and 12 KHz
C 20 KHz and 40 KHz D 16 KHz and 20 KHz

182 ASK, FSK and PSK are examples of
A Analog transmission of data B Digital to analog converter
C Analog to Digital convertor D Analog modulators

183 Correlation receiver consists of
A Adder and integrator B Multilier and integrator
C Mutiplier and differentiator D Addre and differentiator

184 Baud rate of QPSK system is 100 then bit rate is
A 800 B 400
C 200 D 100
185 In digital communication system, the delay spreading along with fading
causes _________and hence limits maximum symbol rate.
A Multipath fading B Doppler effect
C higher bit rate D Intersymbol interference

186 Two main reasons for rapid fluctuations of the signal amplitude in mobile
communication are ..
A Reflection and refraction B diffraction and scattering

Multipath fading and doppler
C D Blocking and shadowing
effect
187 The average delay spread due to fading in urban area is ______
A <0.1 s B 0.5 s
C 3 s D 5 s
188 A base station transmitter is operating at 900 MHz carrier frequency.
Mobile moving at speed of 72 km/hr in a direction perpendicular to
direction of arrival of signal. The receiver carrier frequency is
A 899.99 MHz B 900.00006 MHz
C 900 MHz D 900.03 MHz

189 Following channel passes all spectral components with approximately equal
gain and linear phase without distortion.
A Rayleigh fading channel B Rician fading channel
C Frequency selective channel D Flat channel

190 Due to presence of object between transmitter and receiver, following will
happen.
A Scattering B Reflection
C Shadow fading D Doppler effect

191 Rayleigh fading channel model characteristics is not applicable to
Multiple indirect path between
A B No distict line of sight path
transmitter and receiver
C Direct line of sight path D None of above
192 In wireless communication system, transmitter and receiver stations are
located at distance of 10 km. transmission delay of signal typically
A 3.33 s B 33.3 s
C 333.3 s D 3 ms
193 Optimal ration between the number of fixed and dynamic channels in
hybrid channel assignment mainly depends on
A Availability of channels B Blocking probability
C Traffic characteristics D System overheads

194 Cell site transmitter power incerases by 3 dB that means
A Transmitter power doubles B Transmitter power four times

C Transmitter power 1000 times D None of above
195 Radius of split cell is one half of oringinal cell. Coverage area of split cell is
__________ the coverage area of original cell.
A Half B Double
C one fourth D Four times

196 In a flat operating terrain, doubling cell site antenna height results into ..
A 3 dB increase in gain B 6 dB increase in gain
C 9 dB increase in gain D 8 dB increase in gain

197
Modem uses 4 different amplitudes and 16 different phases. Bits used to
transmit each symbol are
A 4 B 5
C 6 D 8
198 Overall handoff delay in Mobile assisted hand off is about
A 5 to 10 second B 2 to 5 second
C 1 to 2 second D less than 1 second

199 Minimum required C/I is about _________ for narrowband digital cellular
systems.
A 3 dB B 6 dB
C 9 dB D 12 dB
200 If calling rate average is 20 calls per minute and average holding time is 3
minutes then offered traffic load in Erlang is .
A 6.66 B 30
C 60 D 360
201 One of following is not related to cyclic code.
A Error detection is simple B Look up table is required
C Code is powerful and efficient D All of above
202 Binary symmetric channel transmitting 1's and 0's with equal probabilties
has an error rate of 0.01. Channel transmission rate will be ...
A 0.9 B 0.909
C 0.99 D 0.92
203 For telephonic quality speech channel, calculate information capacity of the
telephone channel for SNR of 30 dB
A 64 KBPS B 32 KBPS
C 33.89 KBPS D 16 KBPS

204 If receiver knows the message being transmitted by the transmitter,
amount of information communicated is .
A 8 bit B 4 bit
C 1 bit D 0
205 What is amount of information in binary PCM with equal likelihood ?
A 8 bit B 4 bit
C 1 bit D 0
206 A source produces four symbols x1,x2,x3 and x4 with probabilities 0.5,
0.25,0.125 and 0.125 respectively. Amount of information carried by symol
x1 and x2 is
A 1 bit for both x1 and x2 B 2 bit for both x1 and x2
C 1 bit for x1 and 2 bit for x2 D 2 bit for x1 and 1 bit for x2
207 What is amount of information conveyed by symbol Z in bit ,if its
probability is 0.25
A 0.25 B 5
C 1 D 2
208 Entropy of message source generating 4 messages with probabilities 0.5,
0.25, 0.125 and 0.125 is
A 1 bit/message B 1.75 bit/message
C 2 bit/message D 4 bit/message
209 Capacity of communication channel with a bandwidth of 4 KHz and 15 dB
SNR is
C 20.11 kbps D 32.40 kbps

210 In T1 systems, the frame synchronization code repeats at every
A 1 s B 64 s
C 125 s D 625 s
211 Matched filter output over (0,T) to pulse waveform is
A e-T B e-Tsin(ht)
C e-Tsin(t) D e-T/2sin(2ht)
212 Inter-symbol Interference can be reduced by following
Transmit sinc pulses instead of By using suitable pulse shaping
A B
rectangular pulses techniques.
By reducing data transmission
C D All of above
rate
213 Transversal equalizer uses tapped delay line to
A Reduce ISI B Reduce data rate
C Reduce bandwidth D None of above

214 Eb/No at the receiver input should be larger than ________ in order to
recover error free data at receiver output. Eb=Received Signal and No/2 is
power spectral density.
A 0 dB B 3 dB
C -1.59 dB D 1.33 dB
215 RC load for diode detector consists of a 1000 pF capacitor in parallel with
10 k, maximum modulation depth that can be handled for sinewave of
10 KHz to avoid diagonal peak clipping.
A 0.25 B 0.5
C 0.85 D 0.9
216 HDTV has aspect ratio
A 4:3 B 16:9
C 9:16 D 3:4
217 As per new HDTV standard formats number of scan lines are
A Interlace scan mode 1080 B Progressive scan mode 780
C Both A and B D None of above

218 In 1080i HDTV system, nummber of pixels in each line are ..
A 786 B 1280
C 1920 D 2400
219 What is the approximate frequency limit of copper wire
A 1 MHz B 40 GHz
C 100KHz D 10 GHz
220 Following circuit is used to generate PPM from PWM signal
A Astable multivibrator B D-Flip flop
C Monostable multivibrator D Schmit trigger

221 What will be minimum storage requirement according to Nyquist theorem
to store audio signal of 20Hz-15KHz with 8 bit quantization for the duration
of 1 minute?
A 1.2 MB B 1.8 MB
C 30 KB D 64 KB
222 Data rate of one speech channel in LPC-10 vocoder is ..
A 2.4 kbps B 4 kbps
C 8 kbps D 16 kbps
223 Total 12 telephone quality speech channels are time division multiplexed
using DPCM technique. Total transmission rate will be..
C 256 kbps D 384 kbps

224 Following hardware is used for pulse shaping
C Transversal filter D All of above

225 HDMI Cable used in modern LCD/LED TV provides
A Digital Connection B Carries video signal
C Carries audio signal D All of above
226 Equalizer is used to ..
A Reshape incoming pulses B Boost high freq components
C To boost low freq components D Amplify incoming pulses

227 Gaussian filter is used in GMSK technique to
To achieve smooth phase To reduce bandwidth

A B
transitions of carrier requirement for transmission.
To achieve zero ISI at decision
C D All of above
making instant of neighboring
pulse
228 Following parameter is not coded in the LPC-10 vocoder
A Pitch B Gain
C Sample value D Voice/Unvoiced determination

229
How many samples are there in 40 ms frame of telephone quality speech ?
A 160 B 200
C 320 D 400
230
Following circuit is not used in detecting information from the PPM signal
A Low pass filter B Bistable multivibrator
C Amplifier D Monostable multivibrator

231 If we increase number of quantization levels in PCM system..
Large bandwidth required for
A We get good SNR B
transmission
More bits required to
C D All of above
represent information
232 If we increase sampling rate in the PCM system ..
Transmission bit rate will Storage requirement will
A B
increase increase
C No possibility of aliasing error D All of above
233 Following is not handshaking signal for RS232 serial communication
A RTS B Strobe
C CTS D DTR
234 Mean quantization noise in PCM system if sine wave of peak to peak
amplitude of 16 volt is quantized with 4 bits.
A 0.0833 B 0.05
C 0.5 D 4
235 Adaptive delta modulation is used to
Remove slope overload and

A Reduce transmission rate B
threshold error
C Dynamic sampling rate D All of above

236 Sigma-Delta modulation is used to
Pre-emphasize low frequency Increase correlation between
A B
content adjacent samples
C Simplify receiver design D All of above
237 Following is not criteria for spread spectrum system..
Bandwidth of transmitted SNR should increase as
A B
signal must be large enough bandwidth increase
Bandwidth expansion factor
C should be independent of D None of above
message signal
238 Relation between channel capacity C and bandwidth B can be given by
equation
A SNR = 7.78 + 20logC B C=2Blog10(1+SNR)
C C=2Blog2(SNR) D C=Blog2(1+SNR)
239 Noise generator is electronic model of speech generation system
represents
A Vowels B Voiced sound
C Unvoiced sound D Pitch
240 10 Speech channels are multiplexed using TDM then separation between
two frame of speech will be .
A 12.5 S B 125 S
C 1250 S D None of above

241
Number of scanning lines and trace time per line in CCIR-B Television
system used in India is
A 625 lines, 52 S B 525 lines, 53 S
C 625 lines, 64 S D 525 lines,12 S

242 One time slot of a TDMA frame in GSM standard contains ____ bits
encrypted data
A 156.25 B 114
C 57 D 26
243 One slot of TDMA frame in GSM standard contains total ___ bits
A 156.25 B 114
C 57 D 26
244 Following database at MSC keeps information about identity of mobile
phone equipment
A HLR B VLR
C EIR D AuC
245 Effects of fading is distributed to improve signal quality by technique ..
A Speech coding B Channel coding
C Bit interleaving D Equalisation

246 Following type of technique suitable for bursty type traffic in form of
packets
A PRMA B TDMA
C FDMA D CDMA
247 Antenna gain in desired direction at cell site can be maximized by ______
A Omnidirectional antenna B Parabolic antenna
C Switched beam antenna D Dish antenna

248 To mitigate problem of ISI in TDMA system ________ technique is used
A Source encoding B Channel coding
C Interleaving D Channel Equalisation

249 In M-ary coding system, signaling rate Rs=1/Ts and data rate Rb=1/Tb are
related as:
A Ts=Tblog2M B Ts=TbxM
C Ts=2Tblog10M D Rs=Rblog2M
250 Scrambling is done to achieve
A To help synchronization B To make data pattern random

To remove long string of 1s and
C D All of above
0s
1 x x E is
A . E - 2 E B 2 E - . E
C 2 E + E D . E - E .
2 Unit vector of E is
A E/E B E ( ax + ay + az )
C E.E D E/E
3
E x H is
A EH cos B EH sin
C EH sin an D EH cos an
4 E x ( A + C ) is
A ExC+ExA B E.A+ExC
C A.E + C.E D AxEExC

5 Gradient of a scalar is
A Not defined B A vector
C a scalar D Not periodic

6 Divergence of a vector is
A Not defined B a scalar
C A vector D The same as gradient of a vector

7 The unit of del is
A Does not exist B meter
C 1/meter D dB
8
2 operates
A Only on scalar B Only on vector
C On a scalar and also on a vector D Only on a constant

9 ax . ax is
A ax B 1
C 0 D ay
10 ax . ay is
A 0 B 1
C az D -az
11 ax ay is
X
A 1 B 0
C az D -az
12 ax ax is
X
A 0 B 1
C az D ay
13 For static fields
A xH=D B xH=J
C xH=0 D xH=E
14 In free space
A xE=0 B xE= v
C .D = v D x E = - B/t
t
15 Unit of E is
A Volt B Amp/m
C Volt/m D Volt/coulomb
16 Unit of H is
A Weber B ampere
C Volt/m D Amp/m
17 Unit of D is
A Wb/m B Amp/m
C C/m2 D C/m
18 D is
A E B H
C H D E/t
t
19
.D/t
D t is
A s B v
C l D 0
20 x E is
A B/t
B t B -B/t
B t
C D/t
D t + J D J
21 The electric flux density , D is
A E B E
C E / 0 D E
22 The electric flux is
A Q B D
C E D Q
23 The unit of electric flux is
A Weber B Gauss
C Tesla D Coulomb
24 In free space
A . E = 0 B xE=0
C .E = v D .E = /
v 0
25 In free space
A . B = 0 B . B = H0
C xB= H 0
D . B = H / 0
26 For free space
A =0 B J = 1 Amp/m2
C r = 0 D r = 0
27 The unit of conduction current density is
A Amp/m B Amp/m2
C Amp/m3 D Amp
28 The unit of displacement current density is
A Amp/m2 B Amp/m
C Amp D Amp-m
29 The unit of conduction current is
A Amp B Amp/m
2
C Amp/m D Amp-m
30 The unit of permittivity is
A Farad B Henry
C Farad/m D Henry/m
31 The unit of permeability is
A Henry/m B Farad/m
C Henry D Weber
32 The conduction current density is
A E B D
C E/ D D
33 The displacement current density is
A E/t
t B D
C D D 0 E
34 For uniform plane wave propagation in z-direction
A Ez = 0 B Ez f(y)
C Ez f(x) D Ez = 0 , Hz = 0
35 The line integral of E around a closed loop is
A Zero B Q
C Equal to current D v
36 The unit of attenuation is
A dB/m B V/m
C Amp/m D Coloumb/m
37 Velocity of a plane wave whose r = 4 , r = 1 is
A 3 x 108 m/s B 1.5 x 108 cm/s

C 6 x 108 cm/s D 2 x 108 cm/s
38 Velocity of uniform plane wave in free space is
A 3 x 108 m/s B 3 x 108 cm/s

C 3 x 106 cm/s D 3 x 1010 cm/s
39 The unit of depth of penetration is
A dB B Meter
C Neper D radian
40 E.H for a plane wave is
A Zero B 1
C Does not exist D EH

41 Equation of continuity is
A .J = - /t
t
v B .J = - v
C .J = /t
t
v D .J = s t
/t
42 Magnetic current density is given by
A B B D/t
D t
C B/t
B t D -B/t
B t
43 The unit of magnetic current density is
A Amp/m2 B Volt/m2
C Amp D Amp/m
44 Boundary conditions on E is
A an X (E1 E2 ) = 0 B Et1 = Et2
C an . (E1 E2 ) = 0 D an . E1 = 0
45 Boundary conditions on H is
A Ht1 = Ht2 B Ht1 - Ht2 = Js
C an X (H1 H2 ) = Js D an X (H1 H2 ) = 0
46 Boundary conditions on B is
A an X (B1 B2 ) = 0 B an . (B1 B2 ) = 0
C an . (H1 H2 ) = Js D Bn1 = Bn2
47 Boundary conditions on D is
A an . (D1 D2 ) = 0 B an . (D1 D2 ) = s
C an X (D1 D2 ) = s D an X (D1 D2 ) = 0
48 Boundary conditions on J is
A an X (J1 J2 ) = 0 B an . (J1 J2 ) = 0
C an X (J1 J2 ) = Js D an . (J1 J2 ) = Js
49 Lorentz Gauge condition is
A .A = - V /t
t B x A = H
C x A = B D .A = - V /t
t
50 Equation of continuity is
A J.dS = I B J.dS = Q
C J.dS = J D J.dS = v
51 Intrinsic impedance of a medium is given by
A Sqrt( / ) B Sqrt( j / ( + j )
C Sqrt( / ) D Sqrt( )
52 The characteristic impedance of free space is
A 277 B 120
C 377 D 1202
53 The wave equation in free space is
A 2 E = 0 0 E /t
t B 2 E = 0 0 2E /t
t
C 2 V = - v / D 2 E = 2E /t
t
54 E and H are always perpendicular to each other
A Yes B Some times
C Only for uniform plane wave D None of these

55 Velocity of propagation of a plane wave is
A / B /
C /f D f /
56 Attenuation of plane wave in free space is
A Zero B infinite
C Propagation constant D itself

57 A medium is a good conductor if
A ( / ) >> 1 B ( / ) << 1
C ( / ) = 1 D ( / ) = 0
58 A medium is a good dielectric if
A ( / ) >> 1 B ( / ) << 1
C ( / ) = 0 D ( / ) = 1
59 The ratio of conduction current to displacement current is
A / B /
C 0 D 1
60 Dissipation factor of a dielectric is
A / B /
C 1 D 0
61 depth of penetration in good conductors is

Inversely proportional to Inversely proportional to square
A B
conductivity root of conductivity
Directly proportional to
C D
Not a function of conductivity conductivity
62 Attenuation constant in good dielectrics is
Inversely proportional to
A Directly proportional to conductivity B
conductivity
Inversely proportional to square
C D
root of conductivity Not a function of conductivity
63 Phase velocityof uniform plane wave is
A Directly proportional to B Inversely proportional to

Not Inversely proportional to
C D
Not a function of square root of
64 Phase constant of a uniform plane wave in a medium is
A Directly proportional to frequency B Not a function of frequency

Is inversely proportional to Is inversely proportional to
C D
frequency square root of frequency
65 The characteristic impedance of a medium is
A Sqrt( / ) B Is a function of frequency
C Not a function of frequency D Is independent of , and f

66 Poynting vector gives
A Instantaneous power density B Average power density
C Total power D Total power density

67 Standing waves are produced when
A There are no reflections B There are full reflections

The waves are incident on good
C There is only transmission D
dielectrics
68 The minimum value of voltage standing wave ratio is
A 0 B -1
C 1 D -
69 When the load impedance ZL = Z0 , the VSWR is
A 10 B 1
C 0 D
70 Brewster angle is
Angle of incidence for which Angle of refraction for which
A B
there is no reflection there is no reflection
C Equal to reflected angle D Equal to refraction angle
71 The range of HF is
A 3-30 kHz B 30-300 kHz
C 3-30 MHz D 30-300 MHz

72 The range of VHF is
A 3-30 MHz B 30-300 MHz
C 300 MHz-3 GHz D 300 kHz 300 MHz

73 The standard antenna for reference is
A Isotropic antenna B Half-wave dipole
C Dish antenna D Yagi Uda antenna

74 The most common popular prevalent TV antenna is
A Dipole B Monopole
C dish D horn
75 Among the following the Broadband antenna is
A Log-periodic B dipole
C Yagi-Uda D Horn
76 Among the following the non-resonant antenna is
A dipole B Yagi-Uda
C Monopole D rhombic
77 The common microwave link antenna is
A dipole B Log-periodic
C Rhombic D Parabolic dish

78 Antenna for direction finding is
A Yagi-Uda B Rhombic
C Parabolic dish D Loop

79 The directivity of half-wave dipole is
A 10 B 1
C 1.5 D 1.64
80 The directivity of current element is
A 1.64 B 1.5
C 2.0 D 5.0
81 Reflectors in Yagi-Uda antenna are
A 1 B More than 1
C 3 D 10
82 Directors in Yagi-Uda antenna are
A More than 1 B 1
C 5 D 3
83 Radar antenna is
A Parabolic dish B dipole
C Horn D waveguide
84 The length of the folded dipole in yagi uda antenna is
A 468/f (MHz) feet B 492/ f (MHz) feet
C 342/f (MHz) feet D 192/f (MHz) feet

85 The impedance of folded dipole in yagi-uda antenna is
A Inductive reactance B Capacitive reactance
C Purely resistive D 73
86 The radiation resistance of a current element is
A 80 2 ( dl / )2 B 80 ( dl / )2
C 80 2 ( dl / ) D 80 ( dl / )
87 Circularly polarized antenna is
A Dipole B Parabolic dish
C Yagi-uda D helical
88 If the current element is y-directed , the resultant vector magnetic potential is
A y-directed B x-directed
C z-directed D -directed
89 For time-varying fields
A E=- V B E = - V - A /t
t
C E = - V - D /t
t D E = - V - H /t
t
100 poynting vector gives
Polarization of electromagnetic
A B
Direction of electric field wave
C Power flow D Rate of energy flow
101 The length of folded dipole in yagi-uda antenna is
A Frequency dependent B Frequency independent

C Equal to D Equal to 0.2
102 The spacing between folded dipole and reflector is
A B /2
C > /2 D < /2
103 Voltage standing wave ratio is
A Vmin / Vmax B Vmax / Vmin

C Vreflected / Vincident D Vmax
104 Antenna is a
A transducer B filter
C Regulator D amplifier
105 The radiation resistance of a half wave dipole close to earth is
A 73 B < 73
C > 73 D Infinity
106 If the directivity is high , the beam width is
A High B low
C constant D Very high

107 Director in yagi-uda antenna is
A Active element B Driven element
C Parasitic element D Identical to dipole

108 Reflector in yagi-uda antenna is
A Active element B Driven element
C Identical to dipole D Parasitic element

109 Log-periodic antenna is
A Narrow band B Wide band
C Frequency independent D Frequency dependent

110 In vertical dipole , the electric field is
A Parallel to the dipole B Perpendicular to dipole
C - directed D circular
111 The effective length of a vertical radiator is
Increased by loading with lumped

A B
Increased by capacitive hat Inductance
C Increased by supplying more power D Increased by resistance loading
112 The null-to-null beam width in end-fire array is
A 2/Nd B Sqrt(2 / N d )
C 2 sqrt( / N d ) D 2 sqrt(2 / N d )
113 The null-to-null beam width in broad side array is
A 2/Nd B 2 sqrt(2 / N d )
C 2 2 / N d D Sqrt(N d / 2 )
114 The length of resonant dipole is
A /2 B
C /4 D 2
115 The first side lobe level in uniform array is
A 0.212 B 0.121
C 0.312 D 0.51
116 The side lobe level in binomial array is
A Zero B -13.5 dB
C -20 dB D Zero dB
117 In binomial array the central elements are excited
A strongly B Weakly
C Uniformly D easily
118 In horizontal polarized waves the electric field is
A Parallel to the ground B Perpendicular to the ground
C In -direction D Elliptical
119 The maximum directive gain of current element is
A 1.76 dB B 2.15 dB
C 3 dB D 0 dB
120 Band width of an antenna is
A f0 / Q B Q / f0
2
C f0 Q D f0 / Q
121 Antenna can be used as
A Sound sensor B Light sensor
C Temperature sensor D Colour sensor

122 For far field of z-directed current element
A H = - sin Az/r
r B H = 0
C H = H D H = Hr
123 Induction and far fields have equal magnitudes at
A r = / 2 B r = / 6
C r = / D r=
124 Induction and radiation fields have equal magnitudes at
A r = v0 / B r = v0 / 2
C r = v0 / D r = v0 /
125 If the output signal power level is 1 W , power gain is
A 0 dB B 1 dB
C 10 dB D dB
126 LF antennas are usually used for
A Vertical polarization B horizontal polarization

C Circular polarization D Elliptical polarization
127 The real part of antenna impedance consists of
A Rr only B Rr and Rl
C Rl only D Zero ohms of resistance
128 Power and field patterns are related as
A P E2 B PE
C P E D P 1/ E
129 For radiation pattern measurement the distance of the far field region is
A r > 2 D2 / B r < D2 /
C r= / D r= D/
130 GTEM cell means
Geometric transverse
A B Giga Hertz TEM cell
electromagnetic cell
C Grounded TEM cell D Geo TEM cell
131 Whetastone bridge is used to measure antenna impedance at a frequency of
A Giga hertz B Upto microwave frequency range
C Upto millimeter range D Upto 30 MHz

132 2
If the field measurements are made at r < 2 D /
A Side lobe levels will be high B Bandwidth will be small
Band width and side lobe levels are
C D No side lobes appear
small
133 Null-to Null bandwith is
A Equal to 3 dB bandwith B Greater than 3 dB band width
C less than 3 dB band width D Not related to 3 dB band width

134 Antenna efficiency is
A gp / gd B gd / gp
C gp D gd
135 Phase difference is
A B /
C Path difference x D /
136 If the response of a vertical dipole is 1 for a unity normalized input power , the
polarization is
A Vertical B Horizontal
C Circular D elliptical
137 If the response of RCP helix is zero , the polarization of test antenna is
A LCP B RCP
C Horizontal D Vertical
138 If the response of RCP helix is maximum , the polarization of test antenna is
A LCP B RCP
139 If the response of LCP helix is maximum , the polarization of test antenna is
A LCP B RCP
140 If the response of a horizontal dipole is maximum , the polarization of test antenna is
A Horizontal B Vertical
C Circular D elliptical
141 If the response of any type of antenna is 0.5 for unity normalized power, the
polarization of test antenna is
A Linear B Horizontal
C Vertical D unpolarised
142 The excitation levels of a three element binomial array are
A 1,2,1 B 1,3,1
C 1,4,1 D 2,3,2
143 The excitation levels of a four element binomial array are
A 1,3,1,1 B 1,2,2,1
C 1,3,3,1 D 1,4,4,1
144 The basic transmission loss between transmitter and receiver is
A 10 log ( ( 4 d )/ )2 B 10 log ( / ( 4 d ))2

C 10 log ( GTX GRX ) D zero
145 Actual transmission loss between transmitter and receiver is
A 10 log { ( / ( 4 d ))2 * 1/ ( GT B 10 log { ( ( 4 d )/ )2 * 1/ ( GT

GR ) } GR ) }
C D 10 log { ( / ( 4 d )) * ( GT
10 log { ( ( 4 d )/ ) * GT GR } GR ) }
146 Friss formula is
A La = ( / ( 4 d ))2 B La = ( ( 4 d )/ )2
La = 10log10( ( 4 d )/ )2 * 1/ (
C D La = 10log10( ( 4 d )/ )2
GT GR )
147 Noise figure of antenna is
A Te / T0 B 1 + (Te / T0 )
C 1 - (Te / T0 ) D 1 + (Te / T0 )2
148 Actual transmission loss in dB between transmitter and receiver is
Greater than basic transmission

A B
loss less than basic transmission loss
C Equal to basic transmission loss D infinite
149 Schelkunoff polynomial method gives
A Nulls in the desired direction B Nulls in undesired directions
C Desired side lobes D Desired beam width

150 Range of VSWR is
A 0 to 1 B 1 to
C 0 to D - to
151 Tchebyscheff polynomial method gives
A Desired side lobe ratio B Desired beam width
C Desired overall pattern D Desired phase function

152 The advantage of uniform linear array is
The required number of sources

A B SLR is small
is one
C Number of side lobes are less D Grating lobes are present
153 The current distribution in half-wave dipole is
A Sinusoidal B constant
C Triangular D parabolic
154 When the array length high, the null to-null beam width is
A Small B High
C Constant D infinity
155 Conducting properties of earth are
A Constant with frequency B Change with frequency
C Change with the type of antenna D Change with excitation of antenna

156 In conductor , if charge is not moving , the radiation is
A Very high B Zero
C The same as when charge moves D moderate

157 If a charge is moving with a uniform velocity in an infinite straight wire , the
radiaton is
A Infinite B Moderate
C Zero D high
158 If the charge is moving in a curved wire , radiation
A Exists B Does not exist
C Is infinite D Same as when the wire is straight

159 If the charge oscillates with time in a straight wire , it
A Radiates B Does not radiate
C Stores energy D oscillates

160 If the charge accelerates , there exists
A No radiation B Radiation
C Stored energy D Acceleration of antenna

161 If the charge deccelerates , radiation
A Is zero B Exists
C Does not exist in any antenna D Exists only in some wire antenna
162 The primary equation for electromagnetic radiation in a very thin z-directed wire of
length L
A L dIz / dt = L L az B L dIz / dt = L L ay
C L dIz / dt = L ay D L dIz / dt = L L
163 Radiation with broad frequency spectrum is very strong if
A pulses are of shorter duration B pulses are of longer duration

C Pulses have more amplitude D Pulses have small amplitude
164 For frequency independent antennas , the band width is
A zero B
C Finite D Moderate
165 The radiation intensity of an isotropic radiator is
A Pr / 4 r2 B Pr / 4 r
C Pr / 4 D Pr
166 An omni directional antenna from the following
A Parabolic dish B Dipole
C Horn D Yagi-uda antenna

167 Loop antenna is a
A Isotropic radiator B Directional radiator
C Omni-directional radiator D Point source

168 Broad side arrays are
A Omni-directional B Point sources
C Directional antennas D Isotropic antennas

169 In linear polarization , there exists
A Three components B Only one component

Two components differing by 900 Two components differing by 2700
C D
phase phase
170 If there exists two orthogonal linear components which are in time phase,
polarization is
A Linear B Circular
C Elliptical D Not present
171 Effective area of an antenna is
Ratio of power delivered to load Ratio of radiation intensity to

A B
to power density of incident wave power density of incident wave
C gp / gd D gd / gp
172 Aperture efficiency , of an antenna is
a
Maximum effective area to physical

A B
The ratio of gp and gd area
C Effective area to physical area D Physical area to effective area
173 In far-field region , the angular field distribution is independent of
A Transmitter power B Distance from the antenna
C Angular region D Antenna type

174 Fresnel region is
A Far-field region B Near-field region
C The region of constant field D The region of no field

175 Fraunhofer region is
A Far-field region B Near-field region
C The region of constant field D The region of no field

176 Reactive near-field region exists when
A R > 0.62 * sqrt( D3 / ) B R < 0.62 * sqrt( D2 / )

C R < 0.62 * sqrt( D3 / ) D R > 0.62 * sqrt( D2 / )
177 Fresnel region exists when
R 0.62 * sqrt( D3 / ) and R <

A 3 B
R 0.62 * sqrt( D / ) 2D2 /
C R 2D2 / D R 0.62 * sqrt( D3 / )
178 Fraunhofer region exists when
A R > 2D2 / B R < 2D2 /

C R 0.62 * sqrt( D3 / ) D R 0.62 * sqrt( D3 / )
179 Unit of directivity is
A Watts B Watts/m2
C Watts/m3 D nil
180 Unit of solid angle
A Degrees B Radian
C Sterradian D nil
181 If h is the height of an antenna , the number of side lobes are
A h/ B 2 h/
C 4 D 2/h
182 Divergence factor of a field from earth is
Reflected field from flat earth / Reflected field from curved

A reflected field from curved B surface / reflected field from flat
surface surface
Reflected field from curved earth incident field from curved earth
C / incident field from curved D / reflected field from curved
surface surface
183 If Rr is radiation resistance , e is effective permeability of ferrite core , the
radiation resistance of ferrite loop is
A Rr (0 / e )2 B Rr (e / 0 )2
C Rr D Rr 0
184 The resultant field of an array antenna is
The product of element pattern

A B Array factor
and array factor
C Sum of element patterns D Element pattern
185
The excitation required to orient a beam in 0 direction is
A kd cos 0 B -kd cos 0
C -kd D kd
186 Super directivity of an array can be obtained by
A Reducing the spacing B Increasing the spacing
C Reducing the number of elements D Decreasing array length
187 Super directivity obtained by reducing the spacing and increasing the number of
elements results in
A High reactive power and Q B low reactive power and Q
High reactive power and lower
C Small Q D
Q
188 Circular antennas are most sensitive to
A Linearily polarized waves B Elliptically polarized waves

C Circularly polarized waves D Unpolarised waves
189 Circular antenna has usually a length of
A /2 B
C 2 D /4
190 The horizontal pattern of a circular antenna is
A Circle B Four equal lobe pattern
C Figure-eight pattern D Six equal lobe pattern

191
Two end fire circular antenna elements with 90 phasing produce
A Unidirectional pattern B Figure eight pattern
C Multidirectional pattern D No radiation pattern

192 Cirular antennas are widely used at
A VLF B HF
C Microwave frequency D UHF

193 Directors in yagi uda antenna
Reduces the characteristic increases the characteristic

A impedance of a driven antenna B impedance of a driven antenna
element element
Has no effect on the characteristic
C D Act as open circuit
impedance of driven element
194 Directors and reflectors are used to
A Reduce the impedance B increase the impedance

C Increase the gain D Form an array
195 Due to use of parasitic elements the bandwidth of yagi-uda antenna is
A Increased B Not affected
C Made ideal D Limited

196 Yagi-uda antenna has
A Poor front to back ratio B good front to back ratio

C infinite front to back ratio D zero front to back ratio
197 V-antenna yields
A Bidirectional pattern B Unidirectional pattern

Good signal strength compared to
C D Less band width compared to dipole
dipole
198 V-antenna is popular for
A Satellite reception B FM reception
C Mobile reception D Radar signal reception

199 If the power gain of an antenna is 0.5 dB , the power ratio is
A 0.216 B 12.6
C 1.26 D 1.06
200 If the voltage gain of an antenna is 1.0 dB , the voltage ratio is
A 1.26 B 0.126
C 1.06 D 1.0
201 If the power gain of an antenna is 30 dB , the power ratio is
A 1.477 B 1000
C 100 D 10
202 If the power gain of an antenna is 20 , the power gain in dB is
A 13 B 130
C 20 D 200
203 If a dipole is tilted forward , the band width becomes
A Zero B Infinite
C More D reduced
204 If a 300 line is terminated in 75 dipole , SWR is
A 4 B 0.25
C 8 D 2
205 The power density at a distance of 1 km from 1 kW isotropic radiator is
A 795 mW / m2 B 79.5 mW / m2
C 795 W / m2 D 79.5 W / m2
206 For radio wave propagation , fresh water is considered to be
A Very poor B Poor
C Very good D average

207 For radio wave propagation , cities are considered to be
A Poor B Very poor
C Very good D good

208 The phase velocity of a wave in medium whose = 0 is
r
A B 0
C Finite D V0
209 Antenna radiation efficiency is high when its length is
A / 2 B
C 3 / 2 D
210 Antenna resonates when its length is integer multiples of
A B / 2
C / 4 D / 3
211 For a 100 antenna with 2 A of current , radiated power is
A 400 watts B 200 watts

C 50 watts D 25 watts
212 For a perfect conductor the power transmission coefficient is
A 1 B zero
C D Reflection coeeficient
213
For a perfect conductor , the power transmission coefficient ||2 is
A Equal to transmission coefficient B 1T
C 1 D 0
214 The Rayleigh criterion in the case of reflection of electromagnetic wave from semi-
rough surface is
A Cos i > / 8d B Cos i = / 8d
C Cos i < / 8d D Cos i = 0
215 The percent bandwidth of an antenna with an optimum frequency of operation of 500
MHz and - 3 dB frequencies of 300 MHz and 350 MHz is
A 20 % B 100 %
C 500 % D 10 %
216 The received power of a receiving antenna whose effective area is 0.2 m2 for an
available power density of 100 W / m2
A 200 B 20
C 50 D 500
217 For an ideal antenna , the directivity is
A Power gain B 1
C 1.64 D 1.5
218 For an ideal antenna , the radiation resistance is
A 73 B 36.5
C 293 D Input impedance
219 The power gain in dB of isotropic radiator is
A 0 B 1
C 1.5 D 1.64
220 The normalized power of a dipole is
A 1 B 1.5
C Sin2 D 1.64
221 If the resistance part of antenna is 100 , radiation resistance is 80 , the antenna
efficiency is
A 0.8 B 10/8
C 0.4 D 8/18
222 If is the angle between the axis of a receiving dipole and the direction of electric
field , the polarization loss factor is
A Sin B cos
C tan D sec
223 The effective length of a half wave dipole is
A 0.4 B 0.45
C / D 0.55
225 Effective area of a Hertzian dipole is
A 0.2 2 B 0.25 2
C 0.119 2 D 0.3 2
226 Directive gain is equal to power gain if
A = B =1
C = gp D = gd
227 Directive gain and directivity are equal for
A Directional antenna B Dipole
C Parabolic dish D Isotropic antenna

228
For an isotropic antenna operating at = sqrt(4 ) , the effective area is
A 4 B 1
C (4 )2 D 2
229 Directivity is
inversely proportional to square of

A B
inversely proportional to beam width beam width
Directly proportional to square of
C Directly proportional to beam width D
beam width
230 If the direction of propagation of an electromagnetic wave is in z-direction , the
polarization is in
A z-direction B y-direction
C x-direction D Circular polarization
231 If the quality factor of an antenna is 1000 , resonant frequency is 10 MHz its band
width is
A 100 kHz B 10 kHz
C 10 Hz D 10 MHz
232 The maximum effective area of an antenna operating at = 10 cm with the
directivity of 100 is
A 1000 cm2 B (1/4 ) m2
C 4 m2 D 10 m2
233 The radiation resistance of an antenna which radiates 10 kW when a current of 10
ampere flows in it , is
A 100 B 1,000
C 10 D 100 k
234 When an antenna radiates 10 kW in forward and 1 kW in backward directions , the
front-to-back ratio of an antenna is
A 1 dB B 10 dB
C 100 dB D 0 dB
235 If a medium has = 81 , = 2 mho/m , f = 10 GHz , it is
r
A A conductor B A bad conductor
C An insulator D A good insulator

236 The radiated electric field is
A dl B (dl)2
C 1/ dl D 1/(dl)2
237 Poynting vector has the unit of
A Watts / m3 B watts
C Watts / m2 D Volt-ampere
238 The current element has a directive gain of
A 3/2 B 2/3
C 1 D 1.64
239 The polarization of horizontal dipole is
A Vertical B Horizontal
C - polarization D elliptical
240 To receive horizontally polarized wave , the receiving antenna should be polarised
A Vertically B Horizontally
C Circularly D Elliptically
241 The skin depth of an ideal conductor is
A B Zero
C Finite D Sqrt( )
242 The conducting properties of a medium depends on
A Only B only
C f only D , and f
243 The surface current density of a good dielectric medium is
A Zero B Infinity
C Finite D -1
244 The surface charge density of a good dielectric medium is
A -1 B Infinity
C Finite D Zero
245
In the boundary condition Dn1 - Dn2 = s , the unit of s is
A C / m3 B C / m2
C C/m D C
246 In the boundary condition H H = J , the unit of J
t1 t2 s s
A Ampere B Amp/m
C Amp/m2 D H/m
247 In the boundary condition B - B = 0 , the unit of B is
n1 n2 n1
A Wb B Wb/m
C Tesla/m D Wb/m2
248 In the boundary condition E E = 0 , the unit of E is
t1 t2 t2
A Volt/m2 B Volt/m
C Volt D Volt-m
249 H is
A xE B B/
C .B D P/E
250 The permittivity of a space is
A 1 B 0
C >1 D
251 The electric field of a circularly polarized wave is represented by
A -z) B
( ax + j ay ) e j ( t ( ax + j ay ) e j ( t )
C -z) D -z)
ax e j ( t ay e j ( t
252 A qurter wave line yields
A Zero impedance B Infinite impedance
C Impedance inversion D Real and reactive impedance

253 The tangential electric field at a perfect conductor is
A 1 B
C Zero D -
254 An electromagnetic wave when incident on a perfect conductor is
A Reflected completely B Transmitted completely
C Reflected and transmitted D Refracted completely

255 The electric field of elliptically polarized electromagnetic wave is represented by
A -z) B -z)
( ax + j ay ) e j ( t ( Ex ax + j Eyay ) e j ( t
-z)
C Ex a x e j ( t -z) D Eyay e j ( t
256 The transmission line can be converted into
A A dipole antenna B A dish antenna
C A horn D lens
257 The length of the mobile antenna is a
A B /2
C /4 D >
258 E.H of uniform plane wave is
A EH B 0
C E2 D None of these
259 For static magnetic field
A XB= B XB=J
C . B = 0 J D XB=0
260 Electric field in free space
A D / 0 B D / 0
C 0 D D / 0
261 For uniform plane wave in x-direction
A Ex = 0 B Hx = 0
C Ex = 0 and Hx = 0 D None of these
262 Displacement current density is
A D B J
C D/t D J/t
263 Depth of penetration in free space is
A B 1/
C 0 D None of these
264 Complex pointing vector P is
A P= - E x H* B P= E x H*
C P= E x H* D None of these
265 The time varying field is
A E=-V B E = - V -A/t
C E = - V -B D E=-V-D
266 Uniform plane wave is
A Longitudinal in nature B Transverse in nature
C Neither transverse nor longitudinal D Vertically directed
267 The direction of propagation of EM wave is obtained from
A ExH B E.H
C E D H
268 An electromagnetic field can exist if it satisfies
A Gausss law B Faradays law
C Coulombs law D All Maxwells equations

269 If = 2.0 mho/m , E=10.0 V/m , the conduction current density is
A 5.0 A/m2 B 20.0 A/m2

C 40.0 A/m2 D 20 A
270 Maxwells equations give the relations between
A Different fields B Different Sources

C Different boundary conditions D None of these
271 The velocity of EM wave is
A Inversely proportional to B Inversely proportional to

C Directly proportional to D Directly proportional to
272 Velocity of a wave in a good conductor is
A Very small B Very large
C Moderate D None of these

273 If E = 2 V/m , of a wave in free space , (H) is
A 1 / 60 A/m B 60 A/m
C 120 A/m D 240 A/m
274
If wet soil has = 10-2 1 /m , r =15 , r = 1 , f = 60 Hz , it is a
A Good conductor B Good dielectric
C Semi conductor D None of these

275
If wet soil has = 10-2 1 /m , r =15 , r = 1 , f = 10 GHz , it is a
A Good conductor B Good dielectric
C Semi conductor D Semi dielectric
276 The cosine of the angle between two vectors is
Sum of products of the directions Difference of products of the

A B
of the two vectors directions of the two vectors
Product of products of the
C D None of these
directions of the two vectors
277 The electric field intensity E at appoint (1,2,2) due to (1/9) nc located at (0,0,0) is
A 33 v/m B 0.333 V/m

C 0.33 V/m D Zero
278
If E is a vector , then . x E is
A 0 B 1
C Does not exist D None of these

279
The Maxwells equation .B = 0 is due to
A B=H B B=H/
C Non existence of a monopole D None of these
280 Velocity of EM wave in free space is
A Independent of f B Increases with increase in f
C Decreases with increase in f D None of these

281 The direction of propagation of EM wave is given by
A The direction of E B The direction of H

C The direction of E x H D The direction of E.H
282 For uniform plane wave propagating in z-direction
A Ex = 0 B Hx = 0
C H y = 0 , Ey = 0 D Hz = 0 , Ez = 0
283 For free space
A = B =0
C J0 D None of these
284 Velocity of propagation of EM wave is
A Sqrt(0 / 0 ) B 0 / 0
C 1/sqrt(0 0 ) D 0 / 0
285 Electric field for time varying potentials
A E=-V B E=-V-A
C E= V D E=-V+A
286 The intrinsic impedance of a medium whose = 0 , = 9 , = 1 Is
r r
A 40 B 9
C 120 D 60
287 For time varying EM fields
A xH =J B x H = D/t + J
C xE =0 D None of these
288 The wave length of a wave with a propagation constant = 0.1 + j 0.2
A 10 m B 20 m
C 30 m D 25 m
289 The electric field just above a conductor is always
A Normal to surface B Tangential to source
C Zero D
290 The normal components of D are
Continuous across a dielectric Discontinuous across a dielectric

A B
boundary boundary
C Zero D
291 An antenna is a synonyms to a
A Generator B Transformer
C Regulator D Reflector
292 A unipole is also known as
A Omnidirectional radiator B Unidirectional director
C Line radiator D None of the above
292 The directive gain of an antenna is given by
Radiation intensity in a particular

Average radiated power/maximum
A direction / maximum radiated B
radiated power
power
Radiation intensity in a particular Average radiated power / radiation
C D
direction / average radiated power intensity in a particular direction
293 The numeric value of directive gain may lie between
A - 1 And + 1 B 0 and 1
C 0 and D 1 and
294 Which of the following constitute the loss resistance of an antenna ?
A Dielectric loss B Leakage loss in insulation
C Loss in earth connection D All of the above

295 In case of antenna the ratio of the power radiated in desired direction to the power
radiated in the opposite direction is known as
A Transmission efficiency B Front to back ratio
C Loss coefficient D None of the above

296 Front-to-back ratio can be increased by
A Sacrificing gain B Increasing the size of conductor

Using the materials of high
C D All of the above
conductivity
297 A half wave dipole used at a frequency of 300 MHz has a length of
A 10 m B 3m
C 1m D 50 cm
298 A vertical earthed antenna is resonant when its physical height is equal to
A B /2
C /4 D /8
299 A folded dipole antenna is conveniently connected to
A Shielded line B Two wire line
C Coaxial line D Flat ribbon type transmission line
300 The bandwidth of an antenna is
A Directly proportional to Q B Inversely proportional to Q

C Directly proportional to Q2 D Inversely proportional to Q2
1. Frequency domain representation of periodic signals is done by
A Fourier Transform B Fourier Series
C Laplace Transform D Z-transform

2. Z transform of unit sample is
A 1 B 0
C z D 1/z
3. Discrete Fourier Transform is

A Discrete in Frequency B Continuous in frequency
domain domain
C Can be discrete or D None of the above
continuous
4. Continuous to-discrete conversion is achieved by a process of
A sampling B filtering
C inversion D multiplication
5. 2 kHz sinusoidal signal is to be sampled. What should be the sampling

interval?
A 4 msec B 0.25 msec
C 2.5 msec D 5 msec
6. Discrete time fourier transform is
A z-transform evaluated B z-transform evaluated
on unit circle outside unit circle
C z-transform evaluated at D None of the above
origin
7. Fourier series is a/an
A Finite series B Infinite series
C Waveform dependent D None of the above
finite or infinite series
8. Fourier transform represents following type of signals in frequency
domain
A Periodic signals B Aperiodic signals
C Quasi-periodic signals D All of the above
9. For causal system,

A h(n)=0 for n<0 B h(n)=0 for n>0
C h(n)=1 for n<0 D h(n)=1 for n>0
10. For an LTI system, if x(n), h(n) and y(n) are input, impulse response and
output of the system, which one of the following is true?
A y(n)=h(n) x(n) B y(n)=h(n)*x(n)
C h(n)=x(n) y(n) D x(n)= h(n)y(n)
11. Laplace transform is used for the analysis of
A Continuous time system B Discrete time system

C Both continuous time D None of the above
and discrete time
systems
12. Under force-current analogy ,displacement is analogous to
A Voltage B conductance
C Magnetic flux linkage D capacitance
13. The Laplace transform of e-at is
A 1/s B 1/(s+a)
C s/(s+a) D a/(s+a)
14. Transfer function can be obtained from

A Analogous table B Standard block system
C Output-input ratio D Signal flow graph
15. Fast Fourier transform algorithm exploits
A Symmetry property of B Periodicity property of WN
WN
C Both symmetry and C Addition property of WN
periodicity property of
WN
16. An impulse train is
A Number of pulses B A number of pulses spaced
from each other
C A number of pulses all D None of the above
originating together
17. The integral of a unit step function is
A A unit impulse function B A unit pulse function
C A ramp function of slope D None of the above

1
18. The area of an impulse is
A 1 B 0
C infinity D indefinite
19. The function sinx / x
A Has a period 2 ,decays B Has a period

with increasing x and
has zeros at n
,n=1,2,3,4
C Has a period /2 D Has a period 2 ,decays with
increasing x, is an even
function and has zeros at
n,n=(+/-) 1,2,3.
20. The function sinc x is equal to
A Sinx/x B X sinx
C x/sinx D X+sinx
21. The autocorrelation of a sampling function is a

A Triangular function B Gate function
C Signum function D None of the above
22. For a periodic waveform, the power spectral density and correlation
function form
A a Laplace transform pair B a Fourier transform pair
C a z-transform pair D a Hilbert transform pair

23. The trigonometric Fourier series of an even function of time does not
have
A dc term B Cosine term
C Sine term D Odd harmonic terms
24. The Fourier series of an odd periodic function contains
A Odd harmonics only B Even harmonics only
C Cosine terms only D Sine terms only
25. Autocorrelation function is

A An even function of B An odd function of
C May be an even or odd D Is both an even and odd
function of function of
26. The inverse Fourier transform of the function 2/j is
A Sin t B Cos t
C Sgn (t) D u(t)
27. The period of the function cos (/4)(t-1) is
A 1/8 s B 8s
C 4s D 1/4 s
28. The term energy spectral density is associated with
A Periodic waveform B Non-periodic waveform
C Cosine waveform D Exponential waveform
29. Principle of superposition is applied to
A Linear systems only B Non linear systems only
C Both linear and non D SECOND ORDER SYSTEM

linear systems ONLY
30. For the signum function sgn(t), F(j)=
A 1/j B 2/ j
C j D 2 j
31. Ideal LPF is

A Non causal system B Causal system
C FIR system D Unstable system

32. y(n)=x(Mn) defines
A multiplier B compressor
C delay D accumulator
33. If f(t) is an even function, the coefficients Fn in the exponential form of

Fourier series are
A real B imaginary
C complex D zeros
34. If f(t) is an odd function, the coefficients Fn in the exponential form of
Fourier series are
A real B imaginary
C complex D zeros
35. A function will have only sine terms if
A f(t)=-f(t) B f(-t)=f(t)
C f(-t)=-f(t) D None of the above

36. One unit of delay in time domain is equivalent to
A z-1 in z-domain B z in z-domain
C z+1 in z domain D z-1 in z -domain

37. Modulation process can be explained by which of the following
properties of Fourier transform?
A Time shifting B Frequency shifting
C differentiation D integration
38. Discrete Fourier transform is a/an
A Finite duration sequence B Infinite duration sequence

C Periodic sequence D Periodic sequence with
period of 2
39. Final value theorem is used to find
A Steady state value of B Initial value of output
system output
C Transient behavior of D None of the above
output
40. If f(t) is in volts, F(j) is in
A volts B Volts*sec
C Volts/sec D Volts*sec2
41. Undersampling of the signal results in
A Aliasing in frequency B Aliasing in time domain

domain
C Aliasing in both time D Preemphasis of the signal
domain and frequency
domain
42. Even with Nyquist rate sampling, we cannot recover signal without
distortion ,because
A Filters are non-ideal B Sampling signal is non-ideal
C Multipliers are non ideal D All of the above

43. Reconstruction of a signal from its sampled version requires
A Low pass filter B High pass filter
C Notch filter D Band reject filter

44. The discrete time signal x(n)=(-1)n is periodic with fundamental period
A 6 B 4
C 2 D 1
45. The Fourier transform of an exponential signal x(n)=ejot is
A A constant B A rectangular pulse
C An impulse D A series of impulses
46. The autocorrelation function of a rectangular pulse of duration T is
A a rectangular pulse of B a rectangular pulse of
duration T. duration 2T.
C a triangular pulse of D a triangular pulse of
duration T. duration 2T.
47. The Fourier Transform of a rectangular pulse existing between t = -T
/ 2 to t = +T / 2 is a
A sinc squared function. B sinc function.
C sine squared function. D sine function.
48. The system characterized by the equation y(t ) = ax(t )+ b is
A Linear for any value of b B Linear if b>0
C Linear if b<0 D Non-linear
49. If G(f) represents the Fourier Transform of a signal g (t), which is real
and odd symmetric in time, then G (f) is
A complex B imaginary
C real D Real and non-negative
50. A band pass signal extends from 1 KHz to 2 KHz. The minimum
sampling frequency needed to retain all information in the sampled
signal is
A 1 kHz B 2 kHz
C 3 kHz D 4 kHz
51. Two sequences x1 (n) and x2 (n) are related by x2 (n) = x1 (- n). In the z-
domain, their ROCs are
A The same B Reciprocal of each other
C Negative of each other D Complements of each other
52. The Fourier transform (FT) of a function x (t) is X (f). The FT of
dx(t )/ dt will be
A dX(f)/df B j2f X(f ).
C jf X(f) D X(f )/(jf ).
53. Inverse Fourier transform of u() is
A 0.5 (t)+1/(t) B (t)+1/(t)
C 0.5 (t)+1/(2t) D (t)+1/(2t)
54. The impulse response of a system is h(n) =a n u(n) . The condition

for the system to be BIBO stable is
A a is real and positive B A is real and negative

C |a|>1 D |a|<1
55. If R1 is the region of convergence of x (n) and R2 is the region of

convergence of y(n), then the region of convergence of x (n)
convoluted y (n) is
A R1+R2 . B R1-R2 .
C R1R2 . D R1R2 .
56. The continuous time system described by y(t)= x(t2) is
A causal, linear and time B causal, non-linear and time
varying. varying.
C non causal, non-linear D non causal, linear and
and time-invariant. time-invariant.
57. The signals x1(t ) and x2(t ) are both bandlimited to 1 to + 1 and
2 to + 2 respectively. The Nyquist sampling rate for the signal
x1(t ) x2(t ) will be
A 22 B 2
C 2(1 + 2) D 2 1
58. The signal x(n)=sin(n/4) is
A aperiodic B Periodic with period 8
C Periodic with period 12 D Periodic with period 2
59. Minimum period of discrete time periodic signal is
A 1 B 2
C 3 D 4
60. Maximum frequency (rad/sample) of discrete time signal is

A B /2
C 2 D /4
61. The derivative of unit step function is
A Unit impulse B Ramp with slope 1
C impulse D Rectangular function
62. If a periodic function f(t) of period T satisfies f(t)=-f( t + T/2) , then in

its Fourier series expansion,
A the constant term will B there will be no cosine
be zero. terms.
C there will be no sine D there will be no even
terms. harmonics.
63. A vertical line in s-plane corresponds to
A A line in z-plane B A point in z-plane
B An ellipse in z-plane D A circle in z-plane
64. For a right sided sequence, the ROC of its z-transform will be
A Exterior of a circle B Interior of a circle

C Ring D Unit circle in z-plane
65. For a left sided sequence, the ROC of its z-transform will be

66. For a two sided sequence, the ROC of its z-transform will be
67. Frequency response and impulse response are a
A z-transform pair B Fourier transform pair
C Inverse z-transform pair D DFT pair
68. In z-plane, |z|=1 is

A A circle B A line
C A square D A rectangle
69. The ROC of z-transform can not contain any
A zeros B poles
C Poles and zeros D
70. Discrete Fourier transform represents

A Time samples B Period information
C Frequency samples D All of the above

71. In z-transform, if x(n)X(z), then nx(n)
A -zdX(z)/dz B dX(z)/dz
C -zdz D zdX(z)/dz
72. In computation of N- point DFT, there are
A N complex B 2N complex multiplications
multiplications
C N/2 complex D N2 complex multiplications
multiplications
73. Circular convolution is also known as
A Linear convolution B Periodic convolution

C Simple convolution D None of the above
74. If x(n)={1,1,1,1}, its 4-point DFT coefficient X(0) is
A 0 B 4
C 1 D 2
75. DFT is
A Sampled version of DTFT B Integrated version of DTFT

C Same as DTFT D Same as z-transform
76. The frequency of a continuous time signal x (t) changes on
transformation from x (t) to x (a t), a > 0 by a factor
A a B 1/a
C a2 D a0.5
77. If x(n) is of finite duration, then its z-transform will be possibly
A Unit circle B ring

C Entire z-plane D origin
78. For DTFT to exist, the ROC must include
A Unit circle B origin

C Point (-1,1) D None of the above
79. The ROC of z-transform must be
A A discontinuous region B A connected region

C Unit circle D Entire z-plane
80. For a discrete time signal, dimension of o is
A degrees B radians
C Radian/sample D Degrees/sec
81. For discrete time signal, high frequencies are closer to
A B 0
C 2 D /2
82. Period of DTFT is

A 2 B
C /2 D /4
83. If we sample continuous signal x(t)=sin(200 t) with T=1/400 second,
discrete time signal will be x(n)=
A Sin(n/2) B Sin(n/4)
C Sin (n/8) D Sin (/2n)

84. Discrete Time Fourier Transform is a
A Periodic function in time B Aperiodic function in time
domain domain
C Periodic function in D Aperiodic function in
frequency domain frequency domain
85. The LTI system with impulse response h(n)=4n u(n) is
A stable B unstable
C Non-causal D FIR system
86. To generate cos (n/3) from cos (4000 t) by sampling, T must be
A 1200 B 12000
C 120 D 12
87. If y(n)=log(x(n)), the system is
A linear B Non-linear
C LTI D None of the above
88. The correlation of the function with itself is called
A autocorrelation B Cross correlation
C Power spectral density D Energy spectral density

89. Autocorrelation function exhibits
A Conjugate asymmetry B Nonlinearity property
C Compression of signal D Conjugate symmetry
90. Any periodic waveform can be expressed by
A Fourier series B Fourier transform
C z-transform D Discrete Fourier Transform

91. Ideal delay system is characterized by
A y(n)=x(n) B y(n)=x(n+no)
C y(n)=x(n-no) D y(n)=x(-no)
92. DTFT can be

A Sampled to get DFT B Integrated to get DFT
C Differentiated to get DFT D None of the above

93. sampling
A Causes loss of B Is non-invertible operation
information
C Is a step for D All of the above
discretization
94. To prevent aliasing, signal should be
A oversampled B undersampled
C Critically sampled D None of the above

95. DFT samples are
A Equi-spaced on unit B Samples of z-transform
circle
C Finite in number D All of the above
96. Duration of DFT sequence should be
A Greater or equal to B Less than the duration of
duration of time domain time domain sequence
sequence
C Equal to Half the D infinite
duration of time domain
sequence
97. No. of DTFT samples possible on unit circle are
A finite B infinite
C N D 2N
98. DFT is normally a
A Real number B Imaginary number

C Complex number D Integer number
99. DTFT
A Cannot be computed B Can be computed

C Can be computed for D Can be computed for
finite duration sequence infinite duration sequence
100. FFT is
A DFT only B DTFT only
C DFT computed with less D z-transform sample only

no. of computations
101. In force voltage analogy, the quantity analogous to spring constant K is
A R B C
C L D 1/C
102. Mechanical impedance is the ratio of

A Rms force to rms B Rms force to rms
velocity displacement
C Rms velocity to rms D None of the above
displacement
103. In force current analogy, displacement is analogous to
A charge B Magnetic flux linkage
C Electrostatic energy D voltage

104. Time rate of change in heat energy is analogous to
A voltage B charge
C current D Voltage gradient

105. A proportional controller is basically
A An amplifier with B An integrating amplifier
adjustable gain
C An amplifier with infinite D An amplifier with almost
gain zero gain
106. In an integral controller,
A The output is B The rate of change of
proportional to input output is proportional to
input
C The output is D None of the above
proportional to rate of
change of input
107. Which control action is called rate control ?
A proportional B derivative
C integral D Proportional plus integral
108. Which control action can never be used alone?
A proportional B derivative
C integral D Both derivative and integral
109. For a type I system and unit step input, the steady state error is
A 0 B 1
C infinity D 1/Kp
110. For a type I system and unit parabolic input, the steady state error is
A 0 B 1
C infinity D 1/Kv
111. For a type 0 system and unit ramp input, the steady state error is
A 0 B 1
C infinity D 1/Kv
112. The frequency at which phase angle is 180 is called

A Phase cross over B Stability limit frequency
frequency
C Frequency of limited D Gain margin frequency
stability
113. The system has high gain and phase margins. The system is
A Very stable B sluggish
C Very stable and sluggish D oscillatory

114. A system is highly oscillatory if
A Gain margin is high B Gain margin is close to 1
C Gain margin is close to 1 D Gain margin is high and

or phase margin is zero phase margin is 180
115. Integral control action
A Removes offset B May lead to oscillatory

response
C Both A and B D Neither A nor B
116. The addition of a pole to the open loop transfer function pulls the root
locus
A To the right B To the left
C Towards zero D Towards infinity
117. A system has its two poles on the negative real axis and one pair of
poles lies on j axis. The system is
A stable B unstable
C Marginally stable D Highly stable
118. A lead compensator
A Speeds up the transient B Increases the stability

response margin
C Increases the stability D None of the above
margin and speeds up
the transient response
119. The root locus branches
A Start from open loop B Start from open loop zeros

poles and terminate at and terminate at poles
zeros
C May start from pole or D None of the above
zero and terminate at
another pole or zero
120. If zeros at infinity are included in count, the number of zeros of G(s)H(s)
is
A Equal to number of B One more than number of
poles poles
C One less than number of D Two more than number of
poles poles
121. In root locus analysis, the breakaway and break in points
A Lie on the real axis B Either lie on the real axis or

occur in complex conjugate
pairs
C Always occur in complex D None of the above
conjugate pairs
122. In a minimum phase system,
A All poles lie on the real B All zeros lie in the left half
axis plane
C All poles and zeros lie in D All except one pole or zero
the left half plane lie in the left half plane
123. The angular location of poles depends on
A Undamped natural B Damping ratio

frequency
C Resistance alone D Capacitance alone
124. If a system is to follow arbitrary inputs accurately, the bandwidth
should be
A large B small
C Very small D medium
125. From the view point of noise, bandwidth should be
A large B small
C infinite D zero
126. The distance of poles from origin depends on

A Undamped natural B Damping ratio
frequency
C Both A and B D None of the above
127. If poles lie in the first quadrant, damping ratio is
A 1 B More than 1
C Less than 1 D zero
128. The gain margin for a stable system
A Has a positive dB value B Has a negative dB value

C Has a large negative dB D Has zero dB value
value
129. A thermometer requires 1 minute to indicate 98% of its final response
to a step input. If it is a first order system, the time constant is
A 1 minute B 0.5 minute
C 0.25 minute D 0.1 minute
130. A lead compensator is basically a
A High pass filter B Low pass filter
C Band stop filter D Band reject filter
131. A lag compensator provides attenuation in
A Very low frequency B Low frequency range

range
C High frequency range D None of the above
132. PID controlled system has
A P and I actions in B P and I actions in feedback

forward path and D path and D action in
action in feedback path forward path
C All 3 actions in forward D All 3 actions in feedback
path path
133. The ac motor used in servo application is
A Single phase induction B Two phase induction motor
motor
C 3 phase induction motor D Synchronous motor
134. Optical encoders most commonly used in control systems are
A Absolute encoders B Secondary encoders

C Incremental encoders D None of the above
135. Nichols chart consists of

A Constant magnitude loci B Constant phase angle loci
C Magnitude and phase D None of the above
angle loci in log-
magnitude versus phase
diagram
136. As the bandwidth increases, the cost of components
A Generally decreases B Generally increases
C May increase or D Does not change
decrease
137. The effects of adding poles and zeros can be determined quickly by
A Nichols chart B Nyquist plot
C Bode plot D Root locus
138. Magnetic amplifier is used for
A Voltage amplification B Power amplification

C Current amplification D Frequency multiplication
139. Robotic manipulator arms mostly use
A Hydraulic actuator B Pneumatic actuator

C Electric motor actuator D None of the above
140. Integral error compensation changes a second order system to
A First order system B Third order system

C Fourth order system D Higher order system
141. The effect of negative feedback on distortion and bandwidth are

A Both are decreased B Both are increased
C Distortion is reduced D Distortion is increased and

and bandwidth is bandwidth is decreased
increased
142. If feedback factor is , the overall gain of a closed loop system is
approximately
A 1/ B
C 2 D +A
143. In a second order system, peak overshoot is independent of
A Damping factor B Natural frequency
C Both natural frequency D Neither natural frequency
and damping factor nor damping factor
144. In a second order undamped system, the poles are on
A Positive real axis B Imaginary axis

C Negative real axis D origin
145. The polar plot of G(s)=1/[(1+s)(1+2s)]
A Does not cross real axis B Crosses real axis
C Crosses real axis at D Crosses real axis at =1.4
=0.7 rad/sec rad/sec
146. At corner frequency, the phase angle of factor 1/(1+jT) is
A 90 B -90
C 45 D -45
147. In log magnitude Bode plot ,the slope of high frequency asymptote of
(1+jT) is
A 20 dB/ decade B 10 dB/decade
C 20 dB /octave D 10 dB/octave
148. A conditionally stable system has
A One phase cross over B Two phase cross over

frequency frequency
C Two or more phase D Zero phase cross over
cross over frequencies frequency
149. A system has 12 poles and 2 zeros. Its high frequency asymptote in its
magnitude plot has a slope of
A -200 dB/decade B -240 dB/decade
C -280 dB/decade D -320 dB/decade
150. Modeling error can occur due to
A Neglecting non linear B Inaccuracy of parameters

characteristics
C Change of plant D Any of the above
characteristics with time
1 An abrupt p-n junction diode in thermal equilibrium at T = 300 K is doped such that Ec
EF = 0.21 eV in the n-region and EF- EV = 0.18 eV in the p-region. The built-in potential
barrier Vbi is
A 0.69 V B 0.83 V
C 0.61 V D 0.88 V
2 A silicon p-n junction at T = 300 K has ND = 1014 cm-3 and NA =1017 cm-3. The built-in
voltage is
A 0.63 V B 0.93 V
C 0.026 V D 0.038 V
3 An p-n junction diode is operating in reverse bias region. The applied reverse voltage, at
which the ideal reverse current reaches 90% of its reverse saturation current, is
A 59.6 mV B 2.7 mV
C 30.4 mV D 12.0 mV
4 An abrupt silicon pn junction at zero bias and T = 300 K has dopant concentration of NA
=1017 cm-3 and ND = 5 x 1015 cm-3, The Fermi level on n - side is
A 0.1 eV B 0.2 eV
C 0.3 eV D 0.4 eV
5 An ideal p-n junction diode is operating in the forward bias region. The change in diode
voltage, that will cause a increase in current by factor of 9, is
A 83 mV B 59 mV
C 43 mV D 31 mV
6 A transition region in an open circuited p-n junction contains
A free electrons only B holes only
C both free electrons and holes D uncovered immobile impurity ions

7 In unbiased p-n junction, the junction current at equilibrium is
due to diffusion of majority
A B due to diffusion of minority carriers
carriers
zero due to equal and opposite zero because no charges cross the
C D
currents crossing the junction junction
8 In the energy band diagram of an open circuited p-n junction, the energy band of n-
region has shifted relative to that of p-region
A downward by qVbi B upward by qVbi
C downwards by ( qVbi )/2 D upwards by ( qVbi )/2

9 The reverse saturation current in germanium diode varies as (where T is
the temperature in deg K)
A T B T1.5
C T2 D 1/T
10 The reverse saturation current in silicon diode varies as (where T is the
temperature in deg K)
A T B T1.5
C T2 D 1/T
11 In a p-n junction diode for constant value of current at room temperature
dV/dT varies approximately at the rate of
A -2.5 mV/deg C B 2.5 mV/deg C
C -25 mV/deg C D 25 mV/deg C
12 In a step graded reverse biased junction the width W of the depletion
layer varies as
A B
1

C D
13 In a linearly graded reverse biased junction the width W of the depletion
layer varies as
A B
1

/

C D

is the width of the depletion layer)
14 In any p-n junction diode the transition capacitance CT varies as ( where
A
B

1

C D
15 The built in potential in a p-n junction diode equals

ln ln

A B

ln ln

C D
16 Pinch off voltage VP for an FET is the drain voltage at which
significant current starts
A B drain current becomes zero
flowing
all free charges get avalanche break down takes
C D
removed from the channel place
17 The % load regulation in a rectifier output circuit is defined as

100% B 100%
+
A
+
100% D 100%

C
18 ! value for the half wave rectifier circuit can be given by

2 2
A B
2
# #
C D
19
29 $ value
For the below circuit
for the waveform
half wave for the
rectifier input
circuit canvoltage is given.
be given by The diode in

output voltage ' .
circuit has cutin voltage V = 0. Choose the option for the waveform of
2 2
A B
2
# #
C D
20 ! value for the full wave center tapped rectifier circuit can be given

by
2 2
A B
2
# #
C D
21 $ value for the full wave center tapped rectifier circuit can be given by

2 2
A B
2
# #
C D
22 The transformer utilization factor (TUF) for the half-wave rectifier is
A 0.406 B 0.286
C 0.693 D 0.512
23 The transformer utilization factor (TUF) for thefull-wave rectifier is
A 0.406 B 0.286
C 0.693 D 0.512
24 The ripple factor () for the half-wave rectifier is
A 1.41 B 0.48
C 1.11 D 1.21
25 The ripple factor () for the full-wave rectifier is
A 0.48 B 0.68
C 0.28 D 1.21
26 The rectification efficiency () for the half-wave rectifier is
A 23.1% B 40.6%
C 46.1% D 20.1%
27 The rectification efficiency () for the full-wave rectifier is
A 68.1% B 81.2%
C 40.6% D 92.1%
28 In half wave rectifier, the lowest ripple frequency is
A %/2 B %
C 2% D 3%
A B
C D
30 For the below circuit waveform for the input voltage is given. The diode in
output voltage ' .

circuit has cutin voltage V = 0. Choose the option for the waveform of
A B
C D
current ( and ( are

31 In the circuit of the following figure, D1 and D2 are ideal diodes. The
A 0, 4 mA B 4 mA, 0
C 0, 8 mA D 8 mA,
For the circuit shown the figure given below the input voltage ' . Assume
the RC time constant large and cut-in voltage of diode ) = 0. The
32
output voltage ' is
A B
C D
33 In the circuit of the figure given below, the diodes have cut-in voltages of
0.6 V. The diode in ON state are
A only D1 B only D2
C both D1 and D2 D none of the above
34 For the circuit shown in the figure below, diode cut-in voltage ) = 0. The
maximum ripple voltage is 4 V. The minimum load resistance, that can
be connected to the output is
A 6.25 k B 12.50 k
C 25 k D None of the above
current (+ that can be drawn is

35 In the voltage regulator circuit in figure given below the maximum load
A 1.4 mA B 2.3 mA
C 1.8 mA D 2.6 mA
36 A Tunnel diode is p-n diode with
A very high doping in p-region B very high doping in n-region
very high doping in both low doping in both p-region
C D
p-region and n-region and n-region
37 In a Tunnel diode, the depletion width is order of
A 100 A0 B 0.1 micron

C 1 micron D 5 micron
38 In a Tunnel diode, the impurity concentration is of the order of
A 1 in 103 B 1 in 105
C 1 in 107 D 1 in 109
39 The most important application of Tunnel diode is
as switching device in digital
A as rectifier B
circuits
as voltage controllable
C D as oscillator
device
proportional to (where is the magnitude of reverse junction voltage)

40 In a Varactor diode using the alloy junction, the transition capacitance is
1

A B
1 1
,
C D
41 Zener breakdown results basically due to

strong electric field across the
A impact ionization B
junction
high thermal energy of the
C emission of electrons D
electrons
42 The dynamic resistance of the Zener diode
increases with increase of decreases with the increase of
A B
its current current
is almost independent of
C D none of these
current
43 At 250 C, a Zener diode is rated at 2 Watts, its power rating at 500 C will
be
A 2 Watts B 1 Watts
C greater than 2 Watts D much greater than 2 Watts
44 The ON resistance rd ON , of an FET is the ratio :
-./ -./
0. 0.
A at the origin B in the saturation region
-./
-2/
0.
in the saturation
0.
C D at the origin
region
45 The saturation Drain current 3 in an FET equals
53 53
33 41 7 33 41 7
6 6
A B
53 53
33 891 : 33 41 7
6 6
C D
46 The transconduction ; of an FET in the saturation region equals

33 53 33 53
2 41 7 2 41 7
6 6 6 6
A B
33 53 /

2 41 7 < . >/
6 6 6 33
C D
47 Input resistance of a JFET is of order of
A 1 k B 10 k
C 10 M D 100 M
48 Main drawback of a JFET is
A high input impedance B low input impedance
C higher noise D lower gain
49 In a PNP transistor operating in the active region, the concentration of
minority carrier holes in the n-region at collector junction JC is
? of emitter
thermal equilibrium value
A zero B
thermal equilibrium
C concentration of holes in D same as junction JE
collector region
50 As the magnitude of the collector junction reverse bias increases, the
effective base width
A increases B decreases
first increases then becomes
C remain same D
constant
(Where @A and @B are the conductivities of Base and Emitter regions

51 Transistor approaches unity when :
@A @A
respectively)
=1 1
@B @B
A B
@A @A
1 =5
@B @B
C D
52 In a BJT , as the conductivity of the base increases, the punch through
voltage
A remains same B increases
may increase or decrease
C decreases D depending on the bias at
junction JE
53 The dynamic emitter resistance of a BJT operating in the active region is
of the order of
A 0.01 B 1
C 100 D 10 k
54 In a BJT the, F may be expressed in terms of G as
G G
1+G 1G
A B
1+G 1G
G G
C D
55 In cut off region operation of BJT
(where JE and JC are the Emitter and Collector junctions respectively)
both JE and JC are both JE and JC are reversed
A B
forward biased biased
JE is forward bias and JC JC is forward bias and JE is
C D
is reversed biased reversed biased
56 In a BJT, with HI = 1 JK and G = 0.99 the value of HBI is
A 0.01 JK B 0.1 JK
C 1 JK D 100 JK
57
66 In a BJT,
The with G
common = 0.98
emitter short
the value F is gain of a transistor
circuitofcurrent
A 49 B 98
C 0.49 D 980
58 In a BJT, with F = 100 the value of G is
A 99 B 0.99
C 1.0 D 1.01
59 In a BJT, the spreading resistance is in the order of
A 10 B 100
C 1 D 1 k
60 In a transistor current HAI flows in
A base and emitter leads B collector and emitter leads
emitter, base and collector
C base and collector leads D
leads
61 In an ideal BJT, the impurity concentration in the emitter (E) , base (B) and
collector (C) are such that
A E>C>B B B>C>E
C C>E>B D E=C>B
62 The h parameter equivalent circuit of BJT is valid for
high frequency, large low frequency, large signal
A B
signal operation operation
high frequency, small low frequency, small signal
C D
signal operation operation
63 The Ebers-Moll equation for B in CB configuration is given by
A B = G H + HBI B B = G H + HI
B = G H + HBI NO P-QR /S
B = G H + HI NO P-QR /S 1T
1>
C D
64 Typical values of h-parameters, at about 1 mA collector current , for small
signal audio transistors in CE configuration are:
W W[
V = 100 V = 10 V = 5 Z V = 10
A XV = 50 V = 1 JY B XV = 200 V = 20 JY

V = 5 Z V = 0 V = 100 Z V = 10
C XV = 20 V = 3 JY D XV = 100 V = 10 JY
65 The modulation of effective base width by collector voltage is known as

Early voltage. Hence, reverse collector voltage
A increases both and B decreases both and
increases and
C D increases and decreases
decreases
is a monotonically is a monotonically decreasing
A increasing function of the B function of the collector
collector current IC current IC
increases with IC for low
C IC reaches maximum and D is not a function of IC
then decreases
67 The G - cut off frequency of a BJT
increases with the increases with the increase in
A B
increase in base width collector width
increases with the increases with the decrease in
C D
increase in temperature base width
68 A single IC contains more than 110 logic gates. This forms a case of
A SSI B MSI
C LSI D VLSI
In a JFET the amplification factor J, transconduction ; , and the dynamic
drain resistance \ are related by
69
; \
J= J=
\ ;
A B
C J = ; . \ D J = ; . \
70 The transconductance ; of a JFET is of the order of
A 1 mS B 1S
C 100 S D 1000 S
71 The dynamic resistance \ of the JFET is of the order of the
A 1 k B 10 k
C 500 k D 100 M
72 The dynamic resistance \ of the MOSFET is of the order of the
A 10 k B 500 k
C 10 M D 100 M
73 The magnitude of the threshold voltage for enhancement mode
MOSFET is of the order of
A 0.01 V B 1V
C 10 V D 100 V
74 Which is the fastest switching device among the below given
A JFET B BJT
C MOSFET D Triode
75 The JFET can operate in
A depletion mode only B enhancement mode only
both in depletion mode or
either in depletion mode
C D enhancement mode
or enhancement mode
simultaneously
76 The input gate current of FET is
A a few amperes B a few miliamperes
C afew microamperes D negligibly small

77 Which of the following transistor is most vulnerable against ESD
(Elecrostatic discharge)
A NPN transistor B PNP transistor
C JFET D MOSFET
78 A field effect transistor (FET)
A has three p-n junctions B uses a forward biased junction
depends on the variation depends on the variation the
C the magnetic field for its D reverse voltage for its
The drain-source output 3 3 characteristic of an n-channel

operation operation
79
3 = ?]^(_('O `a(`b`

depletion FET has
3 = 0 at 53 = 0
at 53 = 0
A B
3 = O;a_('O `a(`b`
D 3 is independent of 53
at 53 = 0
C
80 The V-I characteristics of an enhancement mode MOSFET has
A only an ohmic region B only a saturation region

an ohmic region at low an ohmic region at higher
C voltages and saturation D voltages and saturation region
region at higher voltages at lower voltages
81 The output V-I characteristics of a BJT has
A only an ohmic region B only a saturation region

an ohmic region at low an ohmic region at higher
C voltages and saturation D voltages and saturation region
region at higher voltages at lower voltages
82 A Schottky diode clamp is used along with the BJT for
reducing the power
A B reducing the switching time
dissipation
C increasing the value of F D reducing the base current
84 For an n-channel JFET having drain source voltage constant if the gate-
source voltage is increased (more negative) pinch-off would occur for
high values of drain saturation value of drain
A B
current current
gate current equal to drain
C zero drain current D
current
85 A MOSFET is called
A 2-terminal device B 3-terminal device
C 4-terminal device D 5-terminal device
86 For MOSFETs, the material used for gate structure is
A highly pure Silicon B high purity Silica
heavily doped heavily doped amorphous
C D
polycrystalline Silicon Silicon
The Threshold Voltage ( > of a n-MOSFET can be lowered by

87 Consider the following statements:
1. Using thinner gate oxide

2. Reducing the substrate concentration
3. Increasing the substrate concentration
Of these statements
A 3 alone is correct B 1 and 2 is correct
C 1 and 3 are correct D 2 alone is correct

88 The Threshold Voltage ( > of a n-MOSFET can be increased by
increasing the channel decreasing the channel

A B
dopant concentration dopant concentration
reducing the gate oxide
C D reducing the channel length
thickness
89 Which of the following methods of biasing provides the best operating
point stability
A two battery bias B collector-to-base bias
C fixed bias D self bias
90 Stability factor S in fixed bias CE amplifier is given by
A F B F+1
1
<F + 1>
F+1
C D
91 Stability factor S in self bias CE amplifier is given by
c <F + 1>
1 + dec
<F + 1> V
<F + 1> + cdec <F + 1> + cdec

A B
V
V
cd c
<F + 1> ec
1 + ec d
V V
<F + 1> + ecc d c

<F + 1> + ec d
C D
V V
The thermal resistance f of collector junction of a transistor is given by
(where g = temperature deviation and h = average power dissipation
92
h
g = fh g =
f
A B
f
g = g = fh
h
C D
93 In a CE amplifier, the thermal runaway is unconditionally avoided if
HH HH
HB = HB >
2 2
A B
HH HH
HB < HB =
2 2
C D
94 The parameter V of a typical transistor is of the order of
A 2.5 10Wk B 2.5 10Wl
C 2.5 10W[ D 2.5 10W
95 The parameter V of a typical transistor is of the order of
A 2.5 S B 25 S
C 250 S D 2.5 mS
96 With source resistance RS of 1000, the output impedance of a typical CE
amplifier stage is of the order of
A 500 B 5 k
C 50 k D 500 k
97 With load resistance of 4 k, the current gain of a typical CB amplifier
stage is of the order of
A 0.98 B 5
C 50 D 250
98 In a CE amplifier stage, on introducing a resistor Re in the emitter branch
the input resistance Ri
A remains same B increases nominally
C decreases D increases very much
99 Ignoring the biasing network, Darlington emitter follower has input
resistance of the order of
A 20 k B 200 k
C 2 M D 20 M
100 The current gain of the amplifier stage is lowest in
A CB configuration B CE configuration
C CC configuration D same in all configurations
101 Transistor amplifier stage has lowest input impedance
C CC configuration D same in all configurations
102 Current gain of small signal transistor amplifier equals
X X
1 + m+ 1 + m+
A B

1 + m+ 1 + m+
C D
(where c is input resistance and cI is output resistance)

103 Common collector amplifier has
A high c and high cI B low c and low cI

C high c and low cI D low c and high cI
104 The current stability of an emitter follower may improved by
decreasing emitter circuit
increasing emitter circuit and
A and base circuit B
base circuit resistances
resistances
decreasing emitter circuit increasing emitter circuit and
C and increasing base circuit D decreasing base circuit
resistances resistances
105 Output resistance of CC amplifier
is higher than in CE and CB depends strongly on the
A B
configuration source resistance
is lower than in CE and CB is independent of the source
C D
configuration resistance
106 In CC amplifier
output is taken from the input and output signals are in
A B
collector terminal phase
C input resistance is low D voltage gain is relatively high
;dnV equals
107 In the high frequency hybrid model of CE transistor, the conductance
XV ;
; XV
A B
; V
V ;
C D
spreading \ddn Oquals

108 In the high frequency hybrid model of CE transistor, the base
A V \dnV B V + \dnV
C V / XV D \dnV / XV
109 In the high frequency hybrid model of CE transistor, the typical value
of CC is
A 3 pF B 100 pF
C 1000 pF D 0.01 F
The frequency %o at which the short circuit current gain of a CE amplifier
falls to 12 of its low frequency value is equal to
110
;dVn ;dVn
2#<qH + qV > <qH + qV >
A B
; XV qH + qV
<qH + qV > ;dVn
C D
111 Parameter % of a transistor is approximately given by
; ;
qV 2#qV
A B
2#q XV
; %o
C D
;d$ accounts for

112 In the high frequency hybrid model of CE transistor, the conductance
bulk conduction of base leakage conductance in the

A B
region base region
feedback action due to
C D none of these
base width modulation
113 As collector current IC increases the values of %
A remains constant B decreases
increases, reaches decreases, reaches minimum
C D
maximum and then falls and then rise
114 In class-AB amplifier with sinusoidal input , the output current flows for
A half the cycle B full cycle

slightly Less than half
C D slightly more than half cycle
cycle
115 In RC coupled two stage CE amplifier, reduction in voltage gain at the
high frequency range results due to
shunt capacitance in the input
A coupling capacitor Cc B
circuit
shunt capacitance in the bypass capacitor in the self
C D
In RC coupled single stage CE amplifier, the lower 3-dB frequency %+ may
output circuit bias circuit
116
be reduced by
reducing the value of increasing the value of
A B
coupling capacitor Cc coupling capacitor Cc
reducing the total
effective shunt reducing the total effective
C capacitance in the output D shunt capacitance in the input
circuit of the hybrid- circuit of the hybrid- model
model
117 The upper 3-dB frequency of n-stage amplifier with non-interacting
%+
stages equals
%+ ,2 1
,2 1
A B
%+
%+

C D
118 The presence of emitter circuit bypass resistance adversely affects the
A low frequency response B mid-band response
response over all frequency
C high frequency response D
range
119 When multistage amplifier the coupling method which is capable of
providing highest gain is
A RC coupling B Direct coupling
C Transformer coupling D Impedance coupling

120 In the output of a Push-Pull amplifier most disturbing harmonic distortion
is the
fundamental frequency
A B first harmonic
distortion
C third harmonic D fourth harmonic
121 Which of the following amplifier produces least distortion
A Class-A B Class-B
C Class-C D Class-AB
122 Which of the following amplifier produces highest distortion
A Class-A B Class-B
C Class-C D Class-AB
123 Compared to single ended amplifier, a push-pull amplifier offers
less distortion and less less distortion and more
A B
output power output power
more distortion and less more distortion and more
C D
output power output power
124 In a class-C amplifier, full cycle conduction of the current can be achieved
by employing
A transformers B Push-pull circuit
C Tuned circuit D Complementary pair
125 In a feedback amplifier, de-sensitivity D equals
A KF B 1 KF
1
1 + KF
1 + KF
C D
126 In a negative feedback amplifier, current sampling
tends to decrease the tends to increase the output
A B
output resistance resistance
produces same effect on the
does not change the
C D output resistance as voltage
output resistance
sampling
127
134 FET source at
Frequency follower
which the
is a gain
negative
of the
feedback
Op-Ampamplifier
is zero dBusing
called
A Voltage series feedback B Current series feedback
C Voltage shunt feedback D Current shunt feedback
128 BJT RC phase shift oscillator has angular frequency of oscillation equals
1 3 1
cq cq 6 + 4
A B
1 1 1 1
cq 29 cq 6 + 4
C D
129
tu
In BJT Colpitts oscillator angular frequency of oscillation equals
tu
1 w. x
A B v v
yz{ y|{
tu tu
vw. vx
1 + y
yz{ y|{
1
C D
z{ y|{ vw. vx
130 For sustained oscillations in BJT RC phase shift oscillator with 3-sections
}
of RC network, the required transistor XV is given by (where = }~ )
29
XV > 29 XV > 44 + 23 + 7

A B
29 29
XV > 44 + 7 XV > 4 23 + 7

C D
131 Following compensation method in amplifier leads to reduction in
bandwidth
A Lead compensation B Pole-zero compensation
Miller effect
C D Dominant pole compensation
In circuit shown in figure below, the input voltage ' is 0.2 V. The output
compensation
voltage 'I is
132
A 6V B 8V
C -6 V D -8 V
133 Consider the circuit shown below, If ' = 2 V, then output 'I is
A 4V B 6V
C -3 V D -6 V
Unity gain crossover
A crossover frequency B
frequency
C Gain margin D Phase margin
135 For the Op-Amp circuit shown in the figure, 'I is
A -2 V B -1 v
C -0.5 V D 0.5 V
For the BJT circuit shown, assume that the F of the transistor is very large
and AB = 0.7 . The mode of operation of the BJT is
136
A cut-off B saturation
C normal active D reverse active
137 The circuit below forms
A active positive clipper B logarithmic amplifier
C active peak detector D active half wave rectifier

138 For the circuit in figure A = H and F = 50. The value of A is
A 0.9 V B 1.19 V
C 2.14 V D 2.84 V
139 The Ton time for the 555 based astable multivibrator is
A 0.69 <c + 2cA >. q B 0.69 <c + cA >. q
C 0.69 cA . q D 1.44cA q
140 Frequency of the waveform generated in 555 based astable multivirator
can be given by
A 1.44 / <c + 2cA >. q B 1.44 / <c + cA >. q
C cA . q D 1.44cA q
141 On time for the pulse when monostable multivibrator triggered can be
given by
A 1.34 c. q B 1.1 c. q
C c. q D 1.7 c. q
142 Relaxation oscillator is one which
produces non-sinusoidal
A B oscillates continuously
output
C has two stable states D none of the above
143 A transistor is said to be in quiescent state when
A it is unbiased B no signal is applied to it
no current is flowing emitter junction bias equal to
C D
through it collector junction bias
144 Effect of cascading several amplifier stages is to
reduce overall frequency
A reduce the overall gain B
response
increase overall gain and decrease overall gain and
C reduce the frequency D increase the frequency
response response
145 Comparator circuits are used in
A summing B integrating
converting sine to square
C differentiating D
wave
146 In a multistage amplifier, the intermediate stages are always in
C CC configuration D any configuration
147 A CB amplifier is characterized by
A low Ai , high AV B low Ai , low AV
C high Ai , high AV D high Ai , low AV
148 Capacitor filter is ideal for currents which are
A small B medium
C large D very large
149 Negative feedback in an amplifier results in
more gain, more
A B more gain, less bandwidth
bandwidth
C less gain, more bandwidth D less gain, less bandwidth
150 Schmitt trigger circuit is also called
A squaring circuit B blocking oscillator
C sweep circuit D astable multivibrator
1 Resistances can be measured with the help of
A wattmeters B voltmeters
C ammeters D ohmmeters and resistance bridges

2 An ammeter is a
A secondary instrument B absolute instrument
C recording instrument D integrating instrument

3 The multiplier and the meter coil in a voltmeter are in
A series B parallel
C series-parallel D none of the above

4 A potentiometer may be used for
measurement of
A B measurement of current
resistance
C calibration of ammeter D all of the above
5 An ohmmeter is a
A moving iron instrument B moving coil instrument
C dynamometer instrument D none of the above

6 For measuring a very high resistance we should use
A Kelvin's double bridge B Wheat stone bridge
C Meggar D None of the above

7 Which of the following devices should be used for accurate measurement of low D.C.
Voltage
Small range moving coil
A B D.C. potentiometer
voltmeter
Small range thermocouple
C D None of the above
voltmeter
8 A direct current can be measured by
a D.C. potentiometer a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with
A B
directly a standard resistance
a D.C. potentiometer in
C conjunction with a volt D none of the above
ratio box
9 Basically a potentiometer is a device for
A comparing two voltages B measuring a current
C comparing two currents D measuring a voltage

10 In an Anderson bridge, the unknown inductance is measured in terms of
known inductance and
A B known capacitance and resistance
resistance
C known resistance D known inductance
11 For measurements on high voltage capacitors, the suitable bridge is
A Wein bridge B Modified De Santy's bridge
C Schering bridge D Any of the above

12 For measurement of mutual inductance we can use
A Anderson bridge B Maxwell's bridge
C Heaviside bridge D Any of the above

13 If the current in a capacitor leads the voltage by 80, the loss angle of the capacitor is
A 10 B 80
C 120 D 170
14 In a Schering bridge the potential of the detector above earth potential is
A a few volts only B 1 kV
C 5 kV D 10 kV
15
If an inductance is connected in one arm of bridge and resistances in the remaining
three arms
the bridge can always be

A B the bridge cannot be balanced
balanced
the bridge can be balanced
C if the resistances have D Any of the above
some specific values
16 Systematic errors are
A instrumental errors B environmental errors
C observational errors D all of the above

17 Standard resistor is made from
A platinum B maganin
C silver D nichrome
18 Commonly used standard capacitor is
A spherical type B concentric cylindrical type
C electrostatic type D multilayer parallel plate type

19 For measurement of inductance having high value, we should use
A Maxwell's bridge B Maxwell Wein bridge
C Hay's bridge D Any of the above

20 Volt box is a component to
A extend voltage range B measure voltage
C compare voltage in a box D none of the above

21 Wattmeter cannot be designed on the principle of
A electrostatic instrument B thermocouple instrument
C moving iron instrument D electrodynamic instrument

22 Qualitative results refer to:
Results that can be
Results that are difficult to observe
A observed during an B
during an experiment.
experiment.
Results that require
C D none of these is correct.
numerical data.
23 The unit of sensitivity is
A Volt B Ohm
C Volt/Ohm D Ohm/Volt
24 The basic PMMC movement is often called DArsonval movement is used to measure
A DC only B AC only
C Both DC & AC D None of the above

25 The ratio of the change in output of the instrument to a change in input is known as
A Precision B Sensitivity
C Resolution D Accuracy
26 The deviation of the true value from the desired value is known as
A Expected value B Output value

C Error D Input value
27 Which of the following are integrating instruments
A Ammeters B Voltmeters
C Wattmeters D Ampere-hour and watt-hour meters

28 Which of the following essential features is possessed by an indicating instrument
A Deflecting device B Controlling device
C Damping device D All of the above

29 A moving-coil permanent-magnet instrument can be used as _____ by using a low
resistance shunt.
A ammeter B voltmeter
C flux-meter D flux-meter
30 A _____ device prevents the oscillation of the moving system and enables the latter
to
reach its final position quickly
A deflecting B controlling
C damping D any of the above

31 A moving-coil permanent-magnet instrument can be used as flux-meter
by using a low resistance
A B by using a high series resistance
shunt
by eliminating the control by making control springs of large
C D
springs moment of inertia
32 Which of the following devices may be used for extending the range of instruments
A Shunts B Multipliers
C Current transformers D All of the above

33 In majority of instruments damping is provided by
A fluid friction B spring
C eddy currents D all of the above

34 An ammeter is a
A secondary instrument B secondary instrument
C secondary instrument D integrating instrument

35 Self generating type transducers are ___________ transducers.
A Active B Passive
C Secondary D Inverse
36 Strain gauge, LVDT and thermocouple are examples of
A Active transducers B Passive transducers
C Analog transducers D Primary transducers

37 A strain gauge is a passive transducer and is employed for converting
Mechanical displacement
A B
into a change of resistance Pressure into a change of resistance
C Force into a displacement D
Force into a displacement
38 Piezo electric transducers work when we apply _____________ to it.
A Mechanical force B Vibrations

C Illuminations D Heat
39 In a LVDT, the two secondary voltage
Are independent of the Vary unequally depending on the core
A B
core position position
Vary equally depending on
C D Are always in phase quadrature
the core position
40 The application of LVDT is
A Joint motion B Finger movement
C Limb movement D Heart wall motion

41 The resistance of LDR ________________ when exposed to radiant energy.
A Remains unaltered B Increases
C Reaches maximum D Decreases

42 Which of the following is a digital transducer
A Strain gauge B Encoder
C Thermistor D LVDT
43 The principle of operation of LVDT is based on the variation of
A Self inductance
B Mutual inductance
C Reluctance D Permanence
44 S1: Transducer is a device which converts physical into electrical quantity.
S2: Transducer is also called as sensor.
A S1 is true & S2 is false B S2 is true & S1 is false
C Both S1 & S2 are true D Both S1 & S2 are false

45 The principle of operation of variable resistance transducer is
Deformation leads to Displacement of a contact slider on a

A B
change in resistance resistance
Coupling of two coils
Movement of magnetic field produces
C changes with D
variation in resistance of material
displacement
46 _____________ is the example of photo emissive cell
A LDR B Photo diode
C Photo transistor D Photo multiplier

47 B-H Curve is used to determination of:
A Hysteresis loss B Iron loss
C Eddy current loss D Both (a) and (b

48 In CRO the time base signal is applied to
A Y-plates B X-plates
C Either X-plate or Y-plate D Both X-plate and Y-plate

49 The main advantage of crystal oscillator is that its output is
A Constant frequency
A B DC
range
C 50 Hz to 60 Hz D Variable frequency
50 Hays Bridge is suitable for the measurement of:
A Inductances with Q>10 B Inductances with Q<10
Capacitors with high

C D Capacitors with low dissipation factor
dissipation factor
A 0 - 100 V volteter has 200 scale divisions which can be read to 1/2 division.
51 Determine the resolutin of the meter in volt.
A 0.60 V B 1V
C 0.92 V D 0.25 V
Illumination is measured using which one of the following?
52 A Millivoltmeter B Stroboscope
C Luxmeter D pH meter
Which of the following can be measured with the help of piezo electric crystal?
53 A Force B Velocity
C Sound D Pressure
Which of the following is a digital transducer?
54 A Strain gauge B Encoder
C Thermistor D LVDT
The difference between the measured value and the true value is
called
55 A gross error B relative error
C probable error D absolute error
The device used to indicate the presence of an electric current is
56 A Electrometer B Galvanometer
C Voltmeter D Coulometer
An average-reading digital multimeter reads 10V when fed with a triangular wave,
symmetric about the time-axis.For the same input an rms-reading meter will read
57
A 20/3 B 10/3
C 203 D 103
A voltmeter should have
58 A Low internal resistance B High internal resistance
C Electrostatic plates D A sensitive amplifier

The pressure coil of a dynamo meter type wattmeter is
59 A Highly inductive B Highly resistive
C Purely resistive D Purely inductive

The two inputs of a CRO are fed with two stationary periodic signals. In the X-Y mode,
the screen shows a figure which changes from ellipse to circle and back to ellipse with
its major axis changing orientation slowly and repeatedly. The following inference can
be made from this.
60 The amplitudes of the signals are very

A The signals are not sinusoidal B
close but not equal
The signals are sinusoidal with

There is a constant but small phase
their frequencies very close but
C D difference between the signals
not equal
In two watt meter method of power measurement, if one of the watt meter shows
zero reading, then it can be concluded that
61
A Power factor is unity B Power factor is zero
C Power factor is 0.5 lagging D Power factor is 0.5 leading
A thermocouple
A Gets warm when dc flows B

62 through it Is a thin, straight, special wire
C D Generates dc when exposed to

Generates ac when heated visible light
The shunt type ohm meter is not suitable for high resistance measurements because
Very low resistance of the meter

A would short the high unknown B Scale is highly cramped for high
63
resistance resistance
C Full scale value of the meter may D Battery cannot supply the necessary
be exceeded current for proper meter deflection
The change in value of an analog signal during the conversion process produces what
is called the
64
A quantization error B resolution error
C Nyquist error D sampling error
Which of the following performance specifications applies to a sample-and-hold
circuit?
65 A B Aperture droop
Aperture time
C Feedback D Acquisition jitter
66 Telemetry may be defined as,

A Drawing graph B Indicating direction
C Calculating length D Measuring at a distance
Converting the deflection of an insrument in to impulses of proportional frequency is

known as
67
A Frequency modulation B Pulse amplitude modulation system
C Impulse counting system D Impulse frequency system
Strain guage converts
Mechanical displacement in to a Resistance in to a change in

A B
68 change in resistance mechanical displacement
Current in to a change in
C D None of this
resistance
In CRT the amount of cathod current, which governs the intensity of the spot, can be
controlled with
69
A The spot screw B Holding switch
C The control grid D First anode
In oscilloscope tube electron gun the beam is accelerated to the final velocity by a
70
A Quadrupole lens B Increasing current
C Control grid D Deflection plates
The power factor is the cosine of the angle between
71 A Voltage and curent B Current and inductance
C Voltage and frequency D All of above
A 1 - mA meter movement with an internal resistance of 100 is to be converted in

to a 0 - 100 mA ammeter. The value of the shunt resistance required is
72
A 9.10 B 1.01
C 0 D 10
73 Relation of averae value and the rms value of time varying voltages and currents is
A Power factor B Form factor
C Phase value D None of this

Desirable value of temperature coefficient of resistance () in resistance temperature
detectors is
74 A Low B High
C Value does not affect sensitivity D None of this
Unit of deflection sensitivity of CRT is
75 A Meter/Volt B Volts
C Volts/Meter D Volts/Time
What is crest factor in true rms responding voltmeter
76 A Ratio of rms value to peak value B Ratio of value of current to rms value
Ratio of value of current to value

C D Ratio of peak value to rms value
of peak value
The output voltage of a typical thermocouple is
A Less than 100 mV B Greater than 1 V

77
Thermocouples vary resistance,
C D None of this
not voltage
What is the zero-voltage switch used for?
For extremely low-voltage To provide power to a circuit when

A B
applications power is lost
78
To reduce radiation of high
C To control low-voltage circuits D frequencies during turn-on of a high
current to a load
Temperature sensing can be achieved by the use of
79 A Thermocouples B RTDs
C thermistors D All of the above
The purpose of compensation for a thermocouple is

80 to decrease temperature
A B to increase voltage output
sensitivity
to cancel unwanted voltage
C D used for high-temperature circuits
output of a thermocouple
81
Self generating type transducers are ___________ transducers.
A Active B Secondary
C Passive D Inverse
82
Which of the following instrument can be used for both ac and dc
A PMMC type B Moving-iron type
C Induction type D None of the above
83
Electrostatic instruments are mainly employed to measure:
A Heavy currents B Low voltages
C Low currents D High voltages
84
Measurement range of a voltmeter can be extended by using:
A High current resistance B Low shunt resistance
C High series resistance D Low series resistance
85
_____________ is the example of photo emissive cell
A LDR B Photo transistor
C Photo diode D Photo multiplier
86
The instrument which is cheapest for dc measurement is:
A Moving iron B Hot-wire
C PMMC D Electro-dynamo
87
LVDT windings are wound on
A Steel sheets B Ferrite
C Aluminium D Copper
88
Which of the following can be measured with the help of piezo electric crystal?
A Force B Sound
C Velocity D Pressure
89
Swamping of resistance is used to compensate error due to:
A Stray magnetic field B Large supply variations
C Temperature variations D None of the above
90
Strain gauge, LVDT and thermocouple are examples of
A Active transducers B Analog transducers
C Passive transducers D Primary transducers
91
Certain type of materials generates an electrostatic charge or voltage when
mechanical force is applied across them. Such materials are called
A Piezo-electric B Thermo-electric
C Photo-electric D Photo-resistive
92
The principle of operation of LVDT is based on the variation of
A Self inductance B Reluctance
C Mutual inductance D Permanence
93
A transducer that converts measurand into the form of pulse is called
A Active transducer B Digital transducer
C Analog transducer D Pulse transducer
94
An inverse transducer is a device which converts
A An electrical quantity into a non B

electrical quantity Electrical energy into thermal energy
Electrical quantity into mechanical
C D
quantity Electrical energy into light energy
95
The internal resistance for milli ammeter must be very low for:
A B Maximum voltage drop across the

High sensitivity meter
Minimum voltage drop across the
C D
High accuracy meter
96
Potentiometer is an __ instrument:
A Indicating B Calibrating
C Comparison D Recording
97
Piezo electric crystal can produce an emf
A When external mechanical force is B When external magnetic field is

applied to i applied
When radiant energy stimulates When the junction of two such
C D
the crystal crystals are heated
98
Which of the following bridge is frequency sensitive:
A Wheatstone bridge B Anderson bridge
C Maxwell bridge D Wien bridge
99 In wire wound strain gauges, the change in resistance is due to
A B
change in diameter of the wire Change in both length and diameter
C Change in length of the wire D Change in resistivity
100
Voltmeter should be of very high resistance so that:
It may draw current minimum
A B
Its range is high possible
C Its accuracy is high D Its sensitivity is high
101
The resistance of LDR ________________ when exposed to radiant energy.
A Remains unaltered B Reaches maximum
C Increases D Decreases
102
Direct current is preferred over alternating current for testing of ac transmission lines
and cables because:
Heavy charging currents will be The transformers required for

A drawn and so a large sized B testing cannot be used for long
transformer is required if tested distances
with ac
C b) Transmission lines and cables D

should not be tested with dc All the above
103
The capacitance microphone is used for the detection of
A Heart rate B Heart sound
C Blood flow D Foot pressure
104
The application of LVDT is
A Joint motion B Limb movement
C Finger movement D Heart wall motion
105
A Ohmmeter is basically:
A ammeter B A multimeter
A voltmeter D None of the above

106
Pressure transducer for measuring blood pressure is
A Strain gauge transducer only B Resistive transducer
Strain gauge or capacitive
C D
transducer Fiber optic transducer
107
Test electrode is also known as
A a) Indicator electrode B c) Second electrode
C b) Reference electrode D d) Primary electrode
108 A moving iron ammeter coil has few turns of thick wire in order to have:
c) Low resistance and large current

A B
a) High sensitivity carrying capacity
C b) Effective damping D d) Large scale
109
A thermo-couple instrument can be used for the measurement of:
A B c) Both direct current and

a) Direct current only alternating current
C b) Alternating current only D d) dc/ac voltage only
110 Capacitive transducers are normally employed for___________ measurements
A a) Static B c) Transient
C b) Dynamic D d) Both static and dynamic
111
Which of the following is a digital transducer?
A a) Strain gauge B c) Thermistor
C b) Encoder D d) LVDT
Aluminum is a
1 A Diamagnetic material B Ferromagnetic material

C Paramagnetic material D Dielectric material
Relative permeability of Aluminum is
2
A 1.00000065 B 1.00000079
C 1.00004 D 1.0001
3 Boltzmann constant is
A 1.381 X 1023 J/K B 1.381 X 10-23 J/K
C 1.381 X 1023 V/K D 1.381 X 10-23 V/K
4 Conductivity of Silver used in wave guide is ____mho/meter
A 3.82 X 107 B 4.10 X 107
C 5.80 X 107 D 6.17 X 107

Conductivity of Gold used in wave guide is ____mho/meter
5
A 3.82 X 107 B 4.10 X 107
C 5.80 X 107 D 6.17 X 107
IEEE microwave frequency band Ku is in ______GHz range
6
A 8.000 12.000 B 12.000 18.000
C 18.000 27.000 D 27.000 40.000

7 IEEE microwave frequency band X is in ______GHz range
A 8.000 12.000 B 12.000 18.000
C 18.000 27.000 D 27.000 40.000
8 A conductor of _____ conductivity and ____ permeability has low intrinsic
impedance.
A Low, Low B Low, High
C High, Low D High, High
9 Principle advantage of microwaves over low frequency is

A Increased bandwidth B Increased privacy
C Ability to use high gain, D All of the above
high directivity antenna
10 Microwave links are preferred for TV transmission because
A Of small S/N ratio B They produce less phase
distortion
C They are relatively D They are free from impulse
cheaper noise
11 Rain drop attenuation in most microwave link is caused due to
A Scattering of microwaves B. Scattering of microwaves by a

by water drops of specific collection of droplets acting of
size a single body
C Absorption of microwave D Absorption of microwaves by
by water consequent water vapour in the
heating of the liquid atmosphere
12 Standard mismatching in microwave circuits have SWR from
A 0.5 : 1 to 2 : 1 B 1 : 0 to 2 : 1
C 1.2 : 1 to 2 : 1 D 1.33 : 1 to 2 : 1
13 In microwave we take the elements as
A Lumped circuit element B Distributed circuit element

C Both a and b D None of the above
14 Microwave link repeaters are typically 50km apart
A Because of earth B Because of atmospheric
curvature attenuation
C Because of output tube D To ensure that the applied dc
power limitations voltage is not excessive
15 When the free-space wavelength of a signal equals the cut off
wavelength of guide
A The group velocity of the B The phase velocity of the
signal becomes zero. signal becomes infinite
C The wavelength within the D All of the above
waveguide becomes
infinite
16 The front end of the amplifier chain in a manufacturer communication
system is kept immersed in liquid nitrogen, to
A Dissipate heat generated B Expand its frequency response
by amplifier
C Improve its noise figure D Reduce the distortion by the
amplifier
17 Short-term fading in microwave communication links can be overcome by
A Increasing the B Changing the antenna

transmitting power
C Changing the modulation D Diversity reception and
scheme transmission
18 The wavelength of microwave at 100GHz will be
A 3 cm B 0.3 cm
C 0.03 cm D 0.3 m
19 When microwave signals follows the curvature of the this is known as,
A Ducting B Farady effect
C Tropospheric scatter D Ionospheric reflection
20 Multicavity Klystron
A Is not microwave device B Is not good low level amplifier
because of noise
C Is not suited for pulse D Has a high repeller voltage to
operation ensure small transition time
21 A Reflex Klystron functions as
A Microwave oscillator B Microwave amplifier
C Both as microwave D A high gain cavity
amplifier and oscillator
22 A Reflex klystron is capable of generating such high frequencies as
A 1000 MHz B 10000 MHz

C 100000 MHz D 8 GHz
23 Cylindrical cavity resonators are not used with klystron because they have
A Too low Q B Harmonically related resonant
frequency
C A shape not permitting D Are difficult to fabricate
easy adjustment of
resonant frequency
24 The modes in a reflex klystron
A Give the same frequency B Result from excessive transit
but different transit times time across the resonator gap
C Are caused by spurious D Are just for theoretical
frequency modulation considerations
25 Which of the following microwave tube amplifier uses a coaxial magnetic
field and radial electric field?
A Coaxial magnetron B CFA
C Travelling wave D Reflex Klystron
magnetron
26 The secondary cavity in a two cavity klystron is called the
A Buncher cavity B Catcher cavity
C Velocity modulation cavity D None of these
27 Klystron operates on the principle of
A Amplitude modulation B Frequency modulation
C Pulse modulation D Velocity modulation

28 The magnetic field intensity (in A/m ) at the centre of a circular coil of
diameter 1 meter and carrying current of 2 A is
A 8 B 4
C 3 D 2
29 The polarization of a dielectric material is given by
A B
P =r E . P = (r -1 )E .
C D
P = E 0 (r 1) P = (r 1) 0
30 In a travelling electromagnetic wave, E and H vector fields are
A perpendicular in space . B parallel in space

C E is in the direction of D H is in the direction of wave
wave travel travel.
31 For a broad side linear array which of the following is not correct
A the maximum radiation B the progressive phase shift (
occurs perpendicular to ) between elements is zero.
the line of the array at
=90
C width of principal lobe is D the maximum radiation occurs
less than that of an end along the line of array at =
fire array. 90
32 A wave is incident normally on a good conductor. If the frequency of a

plane electromagnetic
wave increases four times, the skin depth, will
A Increase by a factor of 2. B decrease by a factor of 4.
C remain the same. D decrease by a factor of 2.
33 In a dielectric-conductor boundary (interface), the tangential component

of electric field is
A Et B 2Et
C Zero D Infinite
34 For a transmission line terminated in its characteristic impedance, which
of the following statement is incorrect:
A It is a smooth line. B The energy distribution
between magnetic and electric
field is not equal.
C Standing wave does not D Efficiency of transmission of
exist. power is maximum.
35 For a line of characteristic impedance, ZO terminated in a load, ZR such
that ZR > ZO , the Voltage Standing Wave Ratio (VSWR) is given by
A ZR/Z0 B Z0
C ZR D Z0/ZR
36 The lower cut-off frequency of a rectangular wave guide with inside
dimensions (3 4.5 cm) operating at 10 GHz is
A 10 GHz B 9 GHz
C 10/9 GHz D 10/3 GHz
37 The directive gain cannot be stated as
A the ratio of the radiation B the function of angles
intensity in that direction
to the average radiated
power.
C the directivity of an D independent of angles
antenna when directive
gain is maximum.
38 With respect to equi-potential surface pick the odd one out.
A Potential is same every B Work done in moving charge
where from one point to another is
zero
C Potential is different every D No current flows on this
where surface
39 The intrinsic impedance of free space is
A 75 ohm B 73 ohm
C 120 ohm D 377 ohm
40 The characteristic impedance is given by

Z0 =
A B

C . D Zsc. Zoc
41 Transverse electric wave travelling in z- direction satisfies
A Ez = 0; Hz = 0 B Ez = 0; Hz 0
C Ez 0; Hz = 0 D Ez 0; Hz 0.
42 Radiation resistance of a /2 dipole is
A 73 B 75 ohm
C 120 ohm D 377 ohm
43 In an electromagnetic wave, the phase difference between electric and
magnetic field vectors E and B is
A Zero B /2
C D /4
44 Consider a transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and the
line is terminated at one end by +j50 ohms, the VSWR produced in the
transmission line will be
A +1 B 0
C Infinite D -1
45 Which one of the following conditions will not guarantee a distortion less
transmission line
A R=0=G B RC = LG
C very low frequency range D very high frequency range
(R>>wL, G >> wC) (R<<wL, G << wC)
46
In a certain medium E = 10 Cos(
t 3y) ax V/m. What type of medium
is it?
A Free space B Lossy dielectric
C Lossless dielectric D Perfect conductor
47 Which of the following statements is not true of waves in general?
A It may be a function of B It may be sinusoidal or

time only cosinusoidal
C It may be a function of D For practical reasons, it must
time and space be finite in extent.
48 Plane y=0 carries a uniform current of 30 az mA/m. At (1, 10, 2), the
magnetic field intensity is
A 15 ax mA/m B 15 ax mA/m
C 477.5 a y A/m D 18.85 a y nA/m

49 A loop is rotating about y-axis in a magnetic field B =B0 sin _t ax Wb/m2 .
The voltage induced in the loop is due to
A Motional emf B Transformer emf
C A combination of motional D None of the above
& transformer emf
50 If D = E and J = E in a given material, the material is
said to be
A Linear B Homogeneous
C Isotropic D Linear & Homogeneous

51 Lorentz force law is
A F = QE B F = V*B
C F= Q(E + V*B) D F = Q (V*B)
52 For a transmission line terminated by a load, the reflection co-efficient
magnitude and the voltage standing wave ration S are related as:
A S = 1 / (1+| | ) B S = 1 / (1 || )
C S = (1 | | ) / (1+| | ) D S = (1+ | | ) / (1 | | )
53 For a rectangular wave guide, 2.5cm x 1.2cm, dominant cut off
wavelength is
A 5 cm B 2.5 cm
C 2.4 cm D 3.7 cm
54 If a line is terminated in an open circuit, the VSWR is
A 0 B 1
C Infinite D -1
55 A hollow rectangular waveguide acts as a

A High pass filter B Low pass filter
C Band pass filter D Low frequency radiator
56 Divergence theorem is applicable for

A static field only B time varying fields only
C both static and time D electric fields only
varying fields
57 A uniform plane wave in air is incident normally on an infinitely thick slab.
If the refractive index of the glass slab is 1.5, then the percentage of the
incident power that is reflected from
the air-glass interface is
A 0% B 4%
C 20 % D 10 %
58 Some unknown material has a conductivity of
mho/ m, and a
permeability of 4 *
. The skin depth for the material at 1 GHz
A 15.9 um B 20.9 um
C 25.9 um D 30.9 um
59 The radio wave is incident on layer of ionosphere at an angle of 30 with
the vertical. If the critical frequency is 1.2 MHz, the maximum usable
frequency (MUF) is
A 1.2 MHz B 2.4 MHz
C 0.6 MHz D 1.386 MHz
60 A transmission line with a characteristic impedance 1 Z is connected to a

transmission line with characteristic impedance 2 Z . If the system is being
driven by a generator connected to the first line, then the overall
transmission coefficient will be
A B
+ +
C D
+ +
61 A rectangular waveguide has dimension 1.0 cm0.5 cm, its cutoff
frequency for the dominant mode is
A 5 GHz B 10 GHz
C 15 GHz D 20 GHz
62 Poynting vector gives

A rate of energy flow. B direction of polarization
C intensity of electric field. D intensity of magnetic field.
63 In an-filled rectangular wave guide, the cutoff frequency of a TE10 mode is
5 GHz where as that of TE01 mode is 12 GHz. The dimensions of the guide
is
A 3 cm by 1.25 cm B 1.25 cm by 3 cm
C 6 cm by 2.5 cm D 2.5 cm by 6 cm
64 Consider a 150 m long air-filled hollow rectangular waveguide with cutoff

frequency 6.5 GHz. If a short pulse of 7.2 GHz is introduced into the input
end of the guide, the time taken by the pulse to return the input end is
A 920 ns B 460 ns
C 230 ns D 430 ns
65 A rectangular waveguide is filled with a polyethylene r=2.25 and
operates at 24 GHz. The cutoff frequency of a certain mode is 16 GHz. The
intrinsic impedance of this mode is
A 224.8 ohm B 337.2 ohm
C 421.4 ohm D 632.2 ohm
66 The cross section of a waveguide is shown in fig. It has dielectric
discontinuity as shown in fig. If the guide operate at 8 GHz in the
dominant mode, the standing wave ratio is
A -3.911 B 2.268
C 1.564 D 4.389
67 The air filled cavity resonator has dimension a = 3 cm, b = 2 cm, c=- 4 cm.
The resonant frequency for the TM110 mode is
A 5 GHz B 6.4 GHz
C 16.2 GHz D 9 GHz
68 Two identical rectangular waveguide are joined end to end where a = 2b.
One guide is air filled and other is filled with a lossless dielectric of r . it is
found that up to a certain frequency single mode operation can be
simultaneously ensured in both guide. For this frequency range, the
maximum allowable value of r is
A 4 B 2
C 1 D 6
69 A parallel-plate guide operates in the TEM mode only over the frequency
range0 < f< 3GHz. The dielectric between the plates is Teflon (r =21) .
The maximum allowable plate separation b is
A 3.4 cm B 6.8 cm
C 4.3 cm D 8.6 cm
70 A 81 lossless planer line was designed but did not meet a requirement.
To get the characteristic impedance of 75 the fraction of the width of
the strip should be
A added by 4% B removed by 4%
C added by 8% D removed by 8%
71 A lossless line has a voltage wave V(z, t) =10 sin(t - z). The line has
parameter L =0.2 uH /m, C= 0.5 nF /m. The corresponding current wave
is
A 20 sin(t - z) B 0.5 sin(t - z)
C 200 sin(t - z) D sin(t - z)

72 A lossless transmission line operating at 4.5 GHz has L =2.6 uH m and Z 0=
80. The phase constant and the phase velocity v is
A 148 rad/m, 274*
m s B 214 rad/m, 30.8*
m s
C 919 rad/m, 30.8*
m s D None of the above
73 A 60 coaxial cable feeds a 75 + j25 dipole antenna. The voltage
reflection coefficient and standing wave ratio s are respectively
A 0.212 48.55, 1.538 B 0.486 68.4, 2.628
C 0.486 41.45 , 2.628 D 0.212 68.4, 1.538
74 For a short-circuited coaxial transmission line: Characteristic impedance
Z0 = 35 + j49 , Propagation constant = 1.4 + j5 Length of line l
=0.4 m. The input impedance of short-circuited line is
A 82 + j39 B 41 + j78
C 68+ j46 D 34 + j23
75 The quarter-wave lossless 100 line is terminated by load ZL =210. If

the voltage at the receiving end is 60 V, the voltage at the sending end is
A 126 B 28.6
C 21.3 D 169
76 Consider a 300 quarter-wave long transmission line operating at 1 GHz.
It is connected to 10 V, 50 source at one end and is left open circuited
at the other end. The magnitude of the voltage at the open circuited end
of line is
A 10 B 5
C 0 D 7.707
77 A lossless transmission line with a characteristic impedance of 80 is
terminated by a load of 125 . The length of line is 1.25 . The input
impedance is
A 80 B 51.2
C 125 D 45
78 Three lossless lines are connected as shown in fig. The input impedance Zin at A is
A 46 j 69 B 39 j 57
C 67 + j 48 D 61 + j 52
79 Two /4 transformers in tandem are to connect a 50 line to a 75 load
as shown in fig. P8.6.34. If Z02 =30 and there is no reflected wave to the
left of A, then the characteristic impedance Zo1 is
A 28 B 56
C 49 D 24.5
80 Two identical antennas, each of input impedance 74 are fed with three
identical 50 quarter-wave lossless transmission lines as shown in fig. The
input impedance at the source end is
A 148 B 106
C 74 D 53
81 The 300 lossless line shown in fig. is matched to the left of the stub. The
value of ZL is
A 1-j 1.37 B 1+j 1.37

C 300+j413 D 300-j413
82 A short-circuited stub is connected to a 50 transmission line as shown

in fig. The admittance seen at the junction of the stub and the
transmission line is
A 0.01 j 0.02 B 0.02 + j0.01
C 0.04 + j0.02 D 0.04 j 0.02

83 Frequencies that encompass the 300- to 3000-MHz range are under
which of the following segments
A high frequency B very high frequency
C ultrahigh frequency D microwave
84 The time it takes a signal applied at one end of a transmission line to
appear at the other end of the line is called
A signal time B time constant
C transit time D transmission delay
85 Which of the following is not an important transmission line
specification?
A impedance B attenuation
C inside diameter D velocity factor
86 Energy that is reflected from the end of an improperly terminated line

back up the line towards the generator is called a
A harmonic B stranded wave
C standing wave D reflected signal
87 When the load impedance does not exactly match the line impedance
and the load has reactive components in addition to its resistance, the
line is said to be
A open B shorted
C reactive D resonant
88 In an ideal case where there are no standing waves, the standing wave
ratio is
A 0 B 1
C 100 D Infinite
89
Which of the following is not used to offset antenna reactance and to
produce an impedance match?
A LC network B T LC network
C RC network D L LC network
90 Special transmission lines constructed with copper patterns on a printed-
circuit board that can be used as tuned circuits, filters, or impedance-
matching circuits are called
A microchip B stripline
C PCB lines D special lines
91 Tinier microstrip and striplines made by using monolithic, thin-film, and
hybrid techniques when combined with diodes, transistors, and other
components form what are called
A microstrip integrated B microwave integrated circuits
circuits
C stripline integrated D high-frequency integrated
circuits circuits
92 A sophisticated graph that permits visual solutions to transmission line
calculations is the
A Karnaugh map B Smith chart
C Boolean table D frequency response curve
93 Which of the following is not found on the linear scales printed at the
bottom of Smith charts?
A SWR B impedance
C dB loss D reflection coefficient
94 A stacked collinear antenna consisting of half-wave dipoles spaced from
one another by one-half wavelengths is the
A broadside array B end-fire array
C wide-bandwidth array D parasitic array
95 When the characteristic impedance of the transmission line matches the

output impedance of the transmitter and the impedance of the antenna
itself,
A the SWR will be 10:1 B the SWR will be 1:10
C minimum power transfer D maximum power transfer will

will take place take place
96 A one-quarter wavelength of coaxial or balanced transmission line of a
specific impedance connected between a load and a source in order to
match impedances is
A a balun B an autotransformer
C a Q section D dummy load

97 Small wire loop inductors and capacitors are used to provide
A low-noise amplification B decoupling to prevent
feedback
C impedance matching and D signal coupling
tuning
98 Hollow metal conducting pipes designed to carry and constrain the
electromagnetic waves of a microwave signal are
A wavetraps B waveguides
C traveling wave tubes D microwave tubes
99 A microwave component which is used to interconnect two sections of

waveguide is the
A T section B curved section
C choke joint D tapered wedge
100 A waveguide like device that acts as a high-Q parallel resonant circuit is a
A microstrip B klystron
C horn D Cavity resonator
101 A three-port microwave device used for coupling energy in only one
direction around a closed loop is a
A circulator B Joint
C Terminator D cavity resonator
102 Which of the following diodes is not typically used in the microwave
region?
A point-contact B standard PN
C standard PN D hot carrier
103 Which of the following diodes does not oscillate due to negative-
resistance characteristics?
A tunnel B SCR
C Gunn D IMPATT
104 A thin piece of N-type gallium arsenide or indium phosphide
semiconductor which forms a special resistor when voltage is applied to it
is the
A tunnel diode B PIN diode
C Gunn diode D varactor diode
105 A microwave vacuum tube using cavity resonators to produce velocity
modulation of an electron beam which produces amplification is
A a klystron B magnetron
C a cathode-ray tube D traveling-wave tube
106 A ship to ship communication system is affected by fading. A useful
solution which can be used is
A A more directional B Use of space diversity
antenna
C Use of frequency diversity D A broadband antenna
107 For the experimental study of small microwave antennas, a free space
environment with minimum interference by external objects, the facilities
required are:
A RF screens B slotted waveguides
C UHF screens D power meter

108 In a typical satellite communication system, which of the following could
be the up-link and down-link frequencies respectively?
A 60 GHz and 40 GHz B 40 GHz and 60 GHz
C 4 GHz and 6 GHz D 6 GHz and 4 GHz
109 The main disadvantage of using coaxial cable for microwave signals is its
A High sensitivity B Low distortion
C High attenuation D Low selectivity
110 Which of the following introduces mode partition noise?
A Fiber transmission B Fiber transmission
C Wave guide D Both coaxial line and wave

guide
111 Which of the following does not cause losses in optical fibre cables?
A stepped index operation B attenuation in glass
C micro-bending D impurities
112 Consider the transmission line of length 37.5cm which is terminated into
zero resistance. This line is being excited by a source of 1Ghz which has a
internal impedance of 50ohm. What is the input impedance of the line as
seen by the source?
A infinite B 52ohm
C 0 ohm D 100 ohm

113 Which device can detect the presence of both forward and backward
waves in a wave guide?
A directional coupler B detector
C filter D magic T
114 Consider the following statements: The klystron and travelling wave tube
differ from each other
1. in TWT the microwave circuit is non resonant .
2. in klystron the microwave circuit is resonant .
3. TWT uses attenuator .
4. the wave in TWT is a non proper gating wave .
which of the above statements are correct?
A 2 and 3 B 1
C 1 and 2 D 3 and 4
115 Which of the following is a microwave source with a cross field structure?
A Gyrotron B Travelling wave tube
C Magnetron D Relfex klystron
116 Which of the devices has the negative resistance characteristic?

A PNP transistor B Magnetron
C Reflex klystron D Gunn diode
117 Which of the following devices is a not electron diode?
A Thermal electron diode B Thomson deletion diode

C Thermionic tube diode D Schottky barrier diode
118 Which of the following uses transferred electron effect for the production
of microwave power amplifier?
A Metal semi conductor B Germanium
C Silicon D Gallium arsenide
119 Which of the following is a microwave power amplifier?
A Magnetron B Travelling wave tube
C Gunn diode D Reflex klystron
120 The frequency determining portion of a magnetron is______
A short line B cathode

C open line D Reasonant cavity
121 MASER finds application in
A telephones B fiber optics
C opto electronics D all the above

122 Consider the following statements: In the case of space wave propagation
the signal strength at the receiver is
1.directly proportional to transmitter and receiver heights
2.inversely proportional to distance between transmitter and receiver
3.directly proportional to frequency
Which of the above statements are correct?
A 3 B 2
C 1 and 3 D 1
123 Which of the following frequency bands fall under microwave frequency?
A SHF and EHF B UHF
C UHF and SHF D SHF and EHF
124 The gain of a TWT is proportional to_____

A type of input and output B length of tube
C no both A and B D none of the these
125 Large microwave power may be measured with the help of
A Calorimeter B thermister
C Bolometer D barreter
126 Microwave circuit impedance or admittance can be determined from

readings of
A Maximum and minimum B VSWR
values of crystal current
C Both (A) and (B) above D None of the above
127 Most of the power measuring microwave devices measure

A Average power B Peak power
C Instantaneous power D None of the above
128 The most fundamental method of frequency measurement is
A With an absorption wave B With a slotted line
meter
C With a slotted line D By comparison
129 In laboratory experiments the output from the Reflex Klystron are
modulated by square wave because
A It is easy to generate a B Crystal diode operates in the
square wave square law region of the V-I
characteristic
C It prevents frequency D Detector circuit is less
modulation complicated.
130 In order to couple two generators to a waveguide system without
coupling them to each other, one could not use
A Rat-race B E-plane T
C Hybrid ring D Magic T
131 A ferrite is
A A non-conductor with B An inter metallic compound
magnetic properties with particularly good
conductivity
C An insulator which heavily D A microwave semiconductor
attenuates magnetic fields invented by Faraday
132 A PIN diode is
A A metal semiconductor B A microwave mixer diode
point-contact diode
C Often used as a D Suitable for use as a
microwave detector microwave switch.
134 A duplexer is used to
A Couple two different B Allow the one antenna to be

antennas to a transmitter used for reception or
without mutual transmission without mutual
interference interference
C To prevent interference D To increase the speed of the
between two antennas pulses in pulsed radar
when they are connected
to a receiver
135 For low attenuation, the best transmission medium is
A Flexible waveguide B Ridge waveguide

C Rectangular waveguide D Coaxial line
136 A microwave tube amplifier uses an axial magnetic field and a radial
electric field. This is the
A Reflex klystron B Coaxial magnetron
C Travelling wave tube D CFA

137 One of the reason why vacuum tubes eventually fail at microwave
frequencies is that their
A Noise figure increases B Transit time becomes too
short
C Shunt capacitive D Series inductive reactance
reactance become too become too small
large
138 Te cavity magnetron uses strapping to
A Prevent mode jumping B Prevent cathode back heating
C Ensure bunching D Improve the phase focusing
effect
139 A magnetic field is used in the cavity magnetron to
A Prevent anode current in B Ensure that the oscillation are
the absence of oscillations pulsed
C Help in focusing the D Ensure that the electrons will
electron beam, thus orbit around the cathode.
preventing spreading
140 The primary purpose of the helix in a travelling wave tube is to
A Prevent the electron B Reduce the axial velocity of
beam from spreading in the RF field
the long tube
C Ensure broad band D Reduce the noise figure.
operation
141 A backward wave oscillator is based on the
A Rising sun magnetron B Cross Field Amplifier
C Coaxial magnetron D Travelling wave tube

142 A Parametric amplifier must be cooled
A Because parametric B To increase bandwidth
amplification generates
lots of heat
C Because it cannot operate D To improve the noise
at room temperature performance
143 A ruby maser amplifier must be cooled
A Because maser B To increase bandwidth
amplification generates
lots of heat
C Because it cannot operate D To improve the noise
at room temperature performance
144 A Disadvantage of micro strip compared with strip line is that micro strip
A Does not readily land itself B Is more likely to radiate
to printed circuit
techniques
C Is bulkier D Is more expansive and
complex to manufacture
145 The Transmission system using two ground plane is
A Micro strip B Electrical wave guide
C Parallel wire Line D Strip Line
146 Surface acoustic waves propagates in
A Gallium Arsenide B Indium Phosphide
C Strip Line D Quartz Crystal

147 Saw Devices may be used as
A Transmission media like B Filters
Strip Line
C UHF Amplifiers D Oscillator as millimetre
Frequencies
148 The biggest advantage of the TRAPATT Diode over the IMPATT Diode is its
A Lower Noise B Higher Efficiency
C Ability to operate at D Lesser Sensitivity to
higher Frequencies Harmonics
149 Indicate which of the following Diodes will Produce highest Pulse Power
Output
A Varactor B Gunn
C SCHOTTKY Barrier D RIMPATT
150 Indicate which of the following Diodes does not use negative resistance in
its operation
A Backward B Gunn
C IMPATT D Tunnel
151 One of the following microwave diode is suitable for Very low power
oscillators Only
A Tunnel B Avalanche
C Gunn D IMPATT
152 A Parametric Amplifier has an Input and Output Frequency of
2.25GHZ,and its pump at 4.5GHz.It is a
A Travelling wave amplifier B Generative Amplifier
C Lower Sideband Up- D Upper Sideband Up-Converter
Converter
153 A non degenerate a Parametric Amplifier has an input Frequency fi and a
Pump Frequency fp. The idler frequency is
A fi B 2fi
C fi fp D fp fi
154 A Tunnel diode is loosely couple to its cavity in order to
A Increase the Frequency B Increase the Available

Stability negative resistance
C Facilitate Tuning D Allow Operation at highest
frequency
155 The Negative resistance in a Tunnel Diode
A Is maximum at the peak B Is available between the peak
point of the characteristics and valid points
C Is maximum at valid point D Maybe improved by reverse
bias
156 Negative Resistance is obtained with a Gunn Diode because of
A Electron Transfer to a less B Avalanche breakdown with

mobile energy level the high voltage gradient
C Tunnelling across the D Electron domains forming at
junction the junctions
157 For Gunn Diodes, Gallium Arsenide is Preferred to Silicon because the
former
A Has a suitable empty B Has a higher ion mobility
energy band, which silicon
does not have
C Has a lower noise at a D Is capable of handling higher
highest Frequencies power densities.
158 The Ruby laser differs from the Ruby maser in that the former
A Does not require pumping B Need no resonator
C Is an Oscillator D Produces much more powers
159 The output from a laser is monochromatic : This means that it is
A Infrared B Polarised
C Narrow beam D Single Frequency
160 If the peak transmitted power in the radar system increases why a factor
of 16,maximum range will be increased by a factor of
A 2 B 4
C 8 D 16
161 If the antenna diameter in a radar system is increase by factor of 4,the
maximum range will be increased by a factor of
A 2 B 2
C 4 D 8
162 The Radar cross section of a target (indicate the false statement)
A Depends on the frequency B Maybe reduced by the special
used coating of the target
C Depends on the aspect of D Is equal to the actual cross
a target, if this is non sectional area for small targets
spherical
163 The If bandwidth of a radar receiver is inversely proportional to the
A Pulse width B Pulse repetition frequency
C Pulse interval D Square root of the peak

transmitted power
164 The biggest disadvantage of CW Doppler radar is that
A Is does not give the target B Is does not give the target
velocity range
C A transponder is required D Is does not give the target
at target position
165 A solution to the Blind Speed Problem is to
A Change the Doppler B Vary the PRF
frequency
C Use mono pulse D Use MTI
166 The standard reference antenna for the directive gain is the
A Infinitesimal dipole B Isotropic antenna
C Elementary doublet D Half wave dipole
167 Top loading is some time used with an antenna in order to increase its
A Effective height B Bandwidth

C Beam width D Input Capacitance
168 A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of its
A Circular Polarisation B Maneuverability
C Broad bandwidth D Good front to back ratio
169 When the free space wavelength of a signal equal the cut off wavelength
of the guide (Indicate the false statement)
A Group velocity of the B Phase velocity of the signals
signal become zero becomes infinite
C Characteristics impedance D The wavelength within the
of the guide becomes waveguide become infinite
infinite
170 A Signal Propagated in a waveguide has a full wave of electric intensity
change between the two further walls, and no components of the electric
filed in the direction of the propagation. The mode is
A TE1,1 B TE1,0
C TM2,2 D TE2,0
171 The square of the periodic time orbit is proportional to the cube of the
mean distance between the two bodies is the statement of
A Keplers first law B Keplers second law
C Keplers third law D None of the above
172 Dielectric lens act as

A Directive antennas B Non-directive antennas
C Diploes D Monopoles
173 If the mouth diameter of a parabolic antenna is 2.5m and if it is operating
at frequency of 10 GHz, the power gain in dB is
A 46.19 B 25
C 250 D 100
174 The maximum gain of 100 element uniform linear array is
A 10 B 100
C 1000 D 1
175 A magnetic dipole is
A A small circular loop B A piece of wire

C A piece of conducting rod D The same as electric dipole
176 The normalised radiated power of a dipole is
A 1 B 1.5
C sin2 D 1.64
177 The resonant frequency of a rectangular cavity of dimensions a= 3 cm,
b=2cm, d=4cm and operating in TE101 Mode is
A 6 GHz B 6.25GHz
C 6.5GHz D 6.75GHz
178 A directional coupler is a _________ Port Device.
A 1 B 2
C 3 D 4
179 The match load absorbs _______ incident Power upon it and reflects
_______.
A NO,NO B NO,YES
C YES,NO D YES,YES
180 The term radar is an acronym for
A Raster direction and B Radio detection and range

ranging
C Radio direction and range D Range detection of radio wave
181 Coherent pulse Doppler radars measures_____ of radar echoes
A Both the amplitude & B Amplitude

phase
C phase D None of these
182 IMPATT device has ____layers in order

A p.n.i,p B n+,p,i,p+
C n+,p,i,n+ D P+.n.i,p+
183 Step recovery diode (select the correct statement)
A Made of Si or GaAs B Also known as Snap-off
varactor diode
C Stores the charge under D All of these
forward bias condition
184 Applications of Varactor diodes are
A Widely used in parametric B Harmonic generator
amplifier
C Active filter D All of these
185 Which of the following microwave component has got the combined
characteristic of dielectric, ohmic and radiation losses?
A Wave guide B Micro strip line
C Coaxial line D Two wire parallel line

Which of the following is the binary representation of F03516 hexadecimal
Q: 1 number?
A 1111000000110111 B 1111000001110101
C 1111000000110101 D 1111100000110101
Q: 2 Which of the following is the hexadecimal representation of 4510 (decimal
number)?
A 2D B 2C
C 2B D 2A
Q: 3 Which of the following is the decimal representation of 6B216 hexadecimal
number?
A 1512 B 1714
C 1514 D 1614
Q: 4 Perform hex subtraction of 59F 2B8 and the answer is _____.

A 2E7 B 2E9
C 2C7 D 2B7
Q: 5 Find 2s complement of 1001010 and the answer is _____.
A 0110110 B 0110111
C 0111110 D 0110101
Q: 6 M = 1010100 and N = 1000100, M N = _______.

A 10000 B 110000
C 100000 D 10001
Q: 7 M = 1000100 and N = 1010100, M N = _______.
A 1101111 B -10000
C -1101111 D 10000
Q:8 The binary conversion of (0.6875)10 is _______.

A 0.0001 B 0.0101
C 0.1011 D 0.1110
Q:9 (41.6875)10 = __________________
A (101001.1010)2 B (101001.1011)2
C (101000.1011)2 D (101000.1011)2
Q: 10 (153.513)10 = __________________
A (231.416517)8 B (230.406517)8
C (221.406517)8 D (231.406517)8
Q: 11 (10110001101011.111100000110)2 = ________________
A (26153.7416)8 B (26163.7406)8
C (26143.7406)8 D (26153.7406)8
Q: 12 (10110001101011.11110010)2 = __________________
A (2C6B.F2)16 B (2C6B.F1)16
C (2D6B.F2)16 D (2C6A.F2)16
Q: 13 (306.D)16 = _________________
A (001100000110.1100)2 B (001100000111.1101)2
C (001100000110.1101)2 D (011100000110.1100)2
Q: 14 (673.124)8 = ________________
A (110111011.001010100)2 B (110111001.001010101)2
C (110111011.001010101)2 D (110111111.001010100)2
Q:15 (11010011)2 + (1101111)2 = ____________
A (001000010)2 B (101000010)2
C (101010010)2 D (101000011)2
Q:16 24 kilobytes = _________ bytes
A 24576 B 24000
C 24600 D 24500
Q: 17 ROM memory address map of AT89C51 with 4 KB of ROM is ________
A 0000 to 1FFFH B 0000 to 0FFFH
C 0000 to 2FFFH D 0000 to FFFFH
Q: 18 ROM memory address map of DS89C420 with 16 KB of ROM is
________
A 0000 to 1FFFH B 0000 to 3FFFH
C 0000 to 2FFFH D 0000 to 4FFFH
Q: 19 ROM memory address map of DS5000-32 with 32 KB of ROM is
________
A 0000 to FFFFH B 0000 to 7FFFH
C 0000 to 6FFFH D 0000 to 8FFFH

Q: 20 What is the status of the CY, AC, and P flags after the execution following
instructions in the program for 8051 Microcontroller?
MOV A, #9CH
ADD A, #64H
A CY =1, AC = 1, P = 0 B CY =0, AC = 1, P = 0
C CY =1, AC = 1, P = 1 D CY =1, AC = 0, P = 0
Q: 21 What is the content of PSW register after the execution following
instructions in the program for 8051 Microcontroller?
MOV A, #0BFH
ADD A, #1BH
A 40H B 00H
C 41H D 01H
Q: 22 Which of the following instruction can be used to select register bank3 in

8051 microcontroller?
A CLR PSW.4 B SETB PSW.4
SETB PSW.3 SETB PSW.3
C CLR PSW.3 D SETB PSW.3
CLR PSW.4 CLR PSW.4
Q: 23 Which bits of the PSW of 8051microcontroller are user-definable?
A PSW.4 and PSW.5 B PSW.4 and PSW.3
C PSW.1 and PSW.3 D PSW.1 and PSW.5
Q: 24 In 8051 microcontroller, the program counter is _____ bits wide.

A 12 B 8
C 20 D 16
Q: 25 ________ is the number of I/O pins in 8051 microcontroller.
A 30 B 32
C 40 D 24
Q: 26 ________ number of timers are available in 8051 microcontroller.
A 1 B 3
C 2 D 4
Q: 27 ________ on-chip ROM is available in 8031 microcontroller.
A 4K B 8K
C 16 K D 0K
Q: 28 The size of stack pointer register in 8051 microcontroller is _______.

A 4 bits B 8 bits
C 12 bits D 16 bits
Q: 29 In 8051 microcontroller, with the execution of each PUSH instruction,
stack pointer register is ___________.
A Incremented by 1 B Decremented by 1
C Incremented by 2 D Decremented by 2
Q: 30 In 8051 microcontroller, with the execution of each POP instruction, stack
pointer register is ___________.
A Incremented by 1 B Decremented by 1
C Incremented by 2 D Decremented by 2
Q: 31 In 8051, on power-up, SP = _____ and the first RAM location used as a
stack ______.
A 7, 8 B 7, 6
C 8, 7 D 6, 7
Q: 32 In 8051, initially, the program counter is ______ when powered-up.

A 0001H B 1000H
C 0000H D FFFFH
Q: 33 In 8051, the target address in SJMP instruction is within _____ to _____
bytes of memory location from the current address of program counter.
A -127 to 128 B -128 to 127
C 0 to 256 D 0 to 127
Q: 34 In 8051, LJMP (long jump) is ____ byte/s instruction.
A 1 B 4
C 3 D 2
Q: 35 On execution of LCALL instruction in 8051, SP is _______.
A Incremented by 2 B Incremented by 1
C Decremented by 2 D Decremented by 1
Q: 36 On execution of RET instruction in 8051, SP is _______.
A Incremented by 2 B Incremented by 1
C Decremented by 2 D Decremented by 1
Q: 37 In 8051, ACALL is _______ instruction.
A 2 bytes B 3 bytes
C 1 byte D 4 bytes
Q: 38 For an 8051 system of 11.0592 MHz, how long it takes to execute one
machine cycle instruction? (Take 1 machine cycle = 12 clock periods)
A 10.85 s B 0.1085 s
C 1.085 s D 108.5 s
Q: 39 _____ and _____ ports provide address when 64 K bytes of external
memory is interfaced with 8031.
A P0 and P2 B P0 and P1
C P1 and P3 D P1 and P2
Q: 40 Which 8051 port/s need pull-up resistors to function as I/O port?

A P0 and P1 B P0
C P1 and P2 D P1
Q: 41 In 8051, _____ and _____ pins port 3 can be used as RxD and TxD,
respectively.
A P3.0, P3.1 B P3.2 and P3.3
C P3.1, P3.0 D P3.3 and P3.2
Q: 42 In 8051, the instruction JNB P2.5, HERE, assumes that bit P2.5 is an
______.
A Output B Input
C Neither input nor output D Input or output

Q: 43 The function of following instruction in 8051 is _______.
MOV C, P2.4
A Incorrect instruction B To copy status of P2.4 to CY
C To copy C to P2.4 D To copy CY to P2.4
Q: 44 In 8051, which of the following instruction can be said to represent

immediate addressing mode?
A MOV A, R0 B MOV A, @R0
C MOV A, #25H D MOV A, 4
Q: 45 In 8051, which of the following instruction can be said to represent register

addressing mode?
Q: 46 In 8051, which of the following instruction can be said to represent direct
addressing mode?
Q: 47 In 8051, which of the following instruction can be said to represent register

indirect addressing mode?
Q: 48 In 8051, the meaning of MOV A, 7 is ________.
A To copy R7 into A B Incorrect instruction
C To load A with value 7 D None of the above
Q: 49 In 8051, the meaning of MOV @R1, B is ________.
A Copy contents of B into B Incorrect instruction
RAM location whose
address is held by R1
C Copy contents of R1 into D Copy B into R1
RAM location whose
address is held by B
Q: 50 In 8051, which of the following instruction can be said to represent
indexed addressing mode?
C MOV A, #25H D MOVC A, @A+DPTR
Q: 51 In 8051, the instruction MOV A, 40H uses __________ addressing mode.
A Immediate B Register
C Register indirect D Direct
Q: 52 In 8051, the instruction MOV A, #40H uses __________ addressing mode.
Q: 53 In 8051, the instruction MOV A, R0 uses __________ addressing mode.
Q: 54 In 8051, the instruction MOV A, @R0 uses __________ addressing mode.
Q: 55 In 8051, out of 128 byte internal RAM, how many byte locations are bit-
addressable?
A 128 B 16
C 64 D 32
Q: 56 In 8051, which of the following instruction sets bit P0.6?
A SETB 81H B SETB 80H
C SETB 82H D SETB 86H

A B
C D
Q: 57 In which language, program are written in mnemonics?
A Assembly language B Machine language
C High-level language D None of the above

Q: 58 In 8085, instruction OUT 01H does ___________ on execution.
A Displays program counter B Displays accumulator content
content at port 01H at port 01H
C Displays register B content D Displays register C content at
at port 01H port 01H
Q: 59 In 8085, instruction ADD M does ___________ on execution.
A Add the content of A with B Add the content of A with that
that of memory location of memory location pointed
pointed by HL register by BC register pair
pair
C Add the content of B with D Add the content of A with that
that of memory location of memory location pointed
pointed by HL register by DE register pair
pair
Q: 60 In 8085, instruction XRI 6AH does ___________on execution.
A Exclusive-OR 6AH with B Exclusive-OR 6AH with the
the contents of B contents of A
C Exclusive-OR 6AH with D Exclusive-OR 6AH with the
the contents of C contents of D
Q: 61 In 8085, instruction JC 2025H does ___________on execution.
A Change the program B Incorrect instruction
sequence to 2025H if the
carry flag is reset
C Change the program D Change the stack pointer data
sequence to 2025H if the to 2025H if the carry flag is set
carry flag is set
Q: 62 In 8085, instruction ANA M does ___________ on execution.
A Logically AND the B Logically AND the contents of
contents of accumulator accumulator with that of
with that of memory memory location pointed by
location pointed by HL BC register pair
register pair
C Logically AND the D Incorrect instruction
contents of register B with
that of memory location
pointed by HL register
pair
Q: 63 In 8085, instruction CPI 4FH does ___________on execution.
A Compare 4FH with the B Compare 4FH with the
contents of B contents of A
C Compare 4FH with the D Incorrect instruction
contents of C
Q: 64 In 8085, instruction SUI 7FH does ___________ on execution.
A Subtract 7FH from the B Subtract 7FH from the
contents of A contents of B
C Subtract A from the D Subtract B from the contents
contents of 7FH of 7FH
Q: 65 In 8085, instruction MOV B, M does ___________ on execution.
A Copy the content of B Incorrect instruction
memory location pointed
by DE register into B
C Copy the content of D Copy the content register B
memory location pointed into the memory location
by HL register into B pointed by HL register
Q: 66 In 8085, instruction DCX B does _____________ on execution.
A Decrement the content of B Decrement the content of
register pair B memory location pointed by
register pair B
C Decrement the content of D Incorrect instruction
register B
Q: 67 In 8085, instruction SUB M does _____________ on execution.
A Subtract the content of B Subtract the content of
memory location pointed memory location pointed by
by BC register pair from HL register pair from
accumulator accumulator
C Subtract the content of D Incorrect instruction
by DE register pair from
accumulator
Q: 68 8085 is _____ microprocessor.
A 8-bit B 16-bit
C 20-bit D 10-bit
Q: 69 Which one of the following is valid register pair in 8085 microprocessor?

A HD B BC
C HE D BH
Q: 70 In 8085, ____________ address lines are multiplexed with data lines.
A Higher-order eight address B Higher-order four address lines
lines
C Lower-order four address D Lower-order eight address
lines lines
Q: 71 In 8085, ______________ control signal is used to de-multiplex address
lines from data lines.
A ALE B S0
C INTR D S1
Q: 72 In 8085, what should be status of S1 and S0 for opcode fetch operation?
A S1 = 1 and S0 = 1 B S1 = 0 and S0 = 0
C S1 = 1 and S0 = 0 D S1 = 0 and S0 = 1
Q: 73 In 8085, what should be status of S1 and S0 for memory read operation?
A S1 = 1 and S0 = 1 B S1 = 0 and S0 = 0
C S1 = 1 and S0 = 0 D S1 = 0 and S0 = 1
Q: 74 In 8085, what should be status of S1 and S0 for memory write operation?
A S1 = 1 and S0 = 1 B S1 = 0 and S0 = 0
C S1 = 1 and S0 = 0 D S1 = 0 and S0 = 1
Q: 75 In 8085, what should be status of S1 and S0 for I/O read operation?

A S1 = 1, S0 = 1, IO / M = 1 B S1 = 0, S0 = 0, IO / M = 1
C S1 = 1, S0 = 0, IO / M = 1 D S1 = 0, S0 = 1, IO / M = 1
Q: 76 In 8085, what should be status of S1 and S0 for I/O write operation?
A S1 = 1, S0 = 1, IO / M = 1 B S1 = 0, S0 = 0, IO / M = 1
C S1 = 1, S0 = 0, IO / M = 1 D S1 = 0, S0 = 1, IO / M = 1
Q: 77 Which of the following interrupt has highest priority in 8085?
A TRAP B RST 7.5
C RST 5.5 D RST 6.5

Q: 78 Which of the following is vectored interrupt in 8085?
A HLDA B HOLD
C RST 7.5 D INTR

Q: 79 Which of the following signal/pin is used to interface slow-responding
peripheral with 8085 microprocessor?
A HOLD B READY
C RST 7.5 D INTR
Q: 80 In 8085, MOV C, A instruction is executed in _________ T-states
_________ machine cycles.
A 7 T-states and 2 machine B 10 T-states and 3 machine
cycles cycles
C 4 T-states and 1 machine D 13 T-states and 4 machine
cycle cycle
Q: 81 AC flag in 8085 is set in arithmetic operation when ___________.
A Carry is generated from D3 B Carry is generated from D7 and
and passed on to D4 passed on to D0
C Carry is generated from D4 D Carry is generated from D6 and
and passed on to D5 passed on to D7
Q: 82 In 8085, MVI A, 32H instruction is executed in _________ T-states
cycles cycles
cycle cycle
Q: 83 S flag in 8085 is set in arithmetic/logical operation when ___________.
A D6 comes out be 1 B D7 comes out be 0
C D6 comes out be 0 D D7 comes out be 1
Q: 84 Z flag in 8085 is set when ALU operation results in ___________.
A 00H B AAH
C 11H D FFH
Q: 85 P flag in 8085 is set when arithmetic/logical operation results in
___________.
A Even number of 1s B Odd number of 1s
C D7 comes out be 1 D D7 comes out be 0
Q: 86 In 8085, the instruction IN 84H requires __________ T-states and
cycles cycles
cycle cycle
Q: 87 Absolute address decoding technique results into _______ address/es for
each peripheral interfaced microprocessor/microcontroller.
A Unique B Multiple
C Infinite D Three
Q: 88 Partial address decoding technique results into _______ address/es for
each peripheral interfaced microprocessor/microcontroller.
A Unique B Multiple
C Infinite D None of the above
Q: 89 In peripheral I/O interfacing technique in 8085, ________ address pins can
be used at most to generate address for peripheral.
A 8 B 16
C 12 D 10
Q: 90 In memory-mapped I/O interfacing technique in 8085, ________ address
pins can be used at most to generate address for peripheral/memory.
A 8 B 16
C 12 D 10
Q: 91 In peripheral I/O interfacing technique in 8085, which of the following

instruction can be used?
A IN B LDA
C MOV M, B D STA
Q: 92 In memory-mapped I/O interfacing technique in 8085, which of the

following instruction can be used?
A IN B OUT
C STA D None of the above
Q: 93 In 8085, which interfacing technique permits arithmetic and logical
operations directly to be performed on data?
A Peripheral I/O B Memory-mapped I/O
C Peripheral and memory- D None of the above
mapped I/O
Q: 94 In peripheral I/O interfacing technique in 8085, _____ input and _____
output devices can be connected at most.
A 255, 256 B 256, 255
C 256, 256 D 255, 255

Q: 95 In memory-mapped I/O interfacing technique in 8085, __________.
A Memory map is shared B I/O map is independent of
between I/Os and memory memory
C Memory map is 0 to 64K D I/O map is 0 to 256
Q: 96 HLT instruction in 8085 is ________ byte instruction.
A One B Two
C Four D Three
Q: 97 NOP instruction in 8085 is ________ byte instruction.
A One B Two
C Four D Three
Q: 98 Which of the following statement can be said to be of the kind of indirect
addressing mode?
A Pass the butter B Pass the bowl
C Give me item no. 17 of D I will have what Manish has
menu
Q: 99 In 8085, if accumulator has FFH, carry flag (CY) equal to 0 and now,
INR A instruction is executed, which of the following is true?
A S = 0, Z = 1, CY =1 B S = 1, Z = 1, CY =1
C S = 0, Z = 1, CY =0 D S = 1, Z = 1, CY =0
Q:100 In 8085, if accumulator has FFH, carry flag (CY) equal to 0 and now,
ADI 01H instruction is executed, which of the following is true?
A S = 0, Z = 1, CY =1 B S = 1, Z = 1, CY =1
C S = 0, Z = 1, CY =0 D S = 1, Z = 1, CY =0
Q:101 In 8085, what is the position of carry flag in flag register?
A D7 B D6
C D4 D D0
Q:102 In 8085, what is the position of sign flag in flag register?
A D7 B D6
C D4 D D0
Q:103 In 8085, what is the position of zero flag in flag register?
A D7 B D6
C D4 D D0
Q:104 In 8085, what is the position of auxiliary carry flag in flag register?
A D7 B D6
C D4 D D0
Q:105 In 8085, what is the position of parity flag in flag register?
A D2 B D6
C D4 D D0
Q:106 Which of the following statement can be said to be of the kind of direct
addressing mode?
A Pass the butter B Pass the bowl
C Give me item no. 17 of D I will have what Manish has
menu
Q:107 Which of the following program can display FFH data on a port with
address 01H for 8085?
A MVI C, FFH B MVI B, FFH
OUT 01H OUT 01H
HLT HLT
C MVI D, FFH D MVI A, FFH
OUT 01H OUT 01H
HLT HLT
Q:108 The result of XRA A instruction for 8085 is _________.
A 00H B FFH
C 55H D Incorrect instruction
Q:109 Which logical operation is generally used to mask certain bits of
accumulator?
A And operation B Or operation
C NOT operation D XOR operation
Q:110 Which logical operation is generally used to set certain bits of
accumulator?
A And operation B Or operation
C NOT operation D XOR operation

Q:111 LXI H, 2050H instruction of 8085 does on execution _________.
A H = 50H, L = 20H B Incorrect instruction
C H = 20H, L = 50H D Data from 2050 H memory
location with copied to A
Q:112 LDAX B instruction of 8085 does on execution _________.
A Incorrect instruction B Data from memory location
pointed by DE pair copied to
A
C Data from memory D Data from register pair BC
location pointed by BC copied to A
register pair copied to A
Q:113 LDAX D instruction of 8085 does on execution _________.
A
C Data from memory D Data from register pair DE
location pointed by DE copied to A
register pair copied to A
Q:114 STAX B instruction of 8085 does on execution _________.
A
C Data from A copied into D Data from A copied into
memory location pointed register pair BC
by BC register pair
Q:115 STAX D instruction of 8085 does on execution _________.
A
C Data from A copied into D Data from A copied into
memory location pointed register pair DE
by DE register pair
Q:116 For 8085, if A = 55H and CY = 1, which of the following is true on
execution of RLC instruction?
A D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 0 B D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 0
C D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 1 D D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 1
execution of RAL instruction?
A D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 0 B D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 0
C D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 1 D D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 1
execution of RRC instruction?
A D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 0 B D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 0
C D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 1 D D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 1
execution of RAR instruction?
A D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 0 B D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 0
C D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 1 D D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 1
Q:120 In 8085, if data of accumulator and register B are same, on execution of
CMP B instruction results into __________.
A Z flag set, CY flag reset B Z flag set, CY flag set
C Z flag reset, CY flag set D Z flag reset, CY flag reset
Q:121 In 8085, if data of accumulator greater than that of register B, on execution
of CMP B instruction results into __________.

Q:122 In 8085, if data of accumulator greater than that of register B, on execution
of CMP B instruction results into __________.
Q:123 In 8085, instruction ANI 01H masks ________ bits.

A D7 to D0 B D7 to D1
C D0 D D1
Q:124 In 8085, instruction ANI 00H masks ________ bits.
A D7 to D0 B D7 to D1
C D0 D None of the bits
Q:125 In 8085, on execution of PUSH B instruction, SP is _________.

A Decremented by 2 B Decremented by 1
C Incremented by 2 D Incremented by 1
Q:126 In 8085, on execution of POP B instruction, SP is _________.
Q:127 In 8085, on execution of POP PSW instruction, SP is _________.

C Incremented by 2 D Incorrect instruction
Q:128 In 8085, if H = 20H and L = 50H, and execution of PUSH H is followed
with POP PSW. Which of the following is true in this case?
A A = 50H, Flag register = B A = 20H, Flag register
20H maintain previous state and not
affected
C A = 20H, Flag register = D Accumulator and Flag
50H registers maintain previous
state and not affected
Q:129 In 8085, on execution of CALL instruction, SP is _______.
Q:130 In 8085, on execution of RET instruction, SP is _______.
Q:131 In 8085, the meaning CNC is __________.
A Incorrect instruction B Call subroutine if CY = 1

C Call subroutine if CY = 0 D Call subroutine
unconditionally
Q:132 In 8085, the meaning CM is __________.
A Incorrect instruction B Call subroutine if S = 1
C Call subroutine if S = 0 D Call subroutine
unconditionally
Q:133 In 8085, the meaning CP is __________.
A Incorrect instruction B Call subroutine if S = 1
C Call subroutine if S = 0 D Call subroutine

unconditionally
Q:134 In 8085, DAA instruction uses _____ and _____ flags to perform decimal
adjustment of accumulator.
A CY, AC B CY
C AC D CY, S
Q:135 In 8085, LHLD 2050H instruction does _______ on execution.
A Loads data from memory B Copies L with 50H and H with
location 2050H to L and 20H
2051H to H
C Loads data from memory D Copies H with 50H and L with
location 2050H to H and 20H
2051H to L
Q:136 In 8085, SHLD 2050H instruction does _______ on execution.
A Stores data of H into B Copies L with 50H and H with
memory location 2050H 20H
and L into 2051H
C Stores data of L into D Copies H with 50H and L with
memory location 2050H 20H
and H into 2051H
Q:137 In 8085, XCHG instruction does _______ on execution.
A Content of HL and DE B Content of H and D registers
register pairs exchanged exchanged
C Content of HL and BC D Content of L and E registers
register pairs exchanged exchanged
Q:138 In 8085, ADC B instruction does _______ on execution.
A A = A + B + CY flag B B = A + B + CY flag
C A=A+B D B=A+B
Q:139 In 8085, if HL register pair is cleared, DAD SP instruction does _______
on execution.
A Clears SP B Places the content of SP in DE
C Places the content of SP in D Places the content of SP in BC
HL
Q:140 In 8085, instruction XTHL does _________ execution.
A Contents of L exchanged B Contents of L exchanged with

with memory location memory location pointed by
pointed by SP and H with SP
by SP + 1.
C Contents of H exchanged D Contents of H exchanged with
with memory location memory location pointed by
pointed by SP and L with SP
by SP + 1.
Q:141 Which instruction in 8085 is used to complement carry flag?
A CMA B STC
C CMC D None of the above
Q:142 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to set carry flag?

A CMA B STC
C CMC D None of the above
Q:143 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to copy H and L registers in the

program counter?
A SPHL B PCHL
C XCHG D None of the above
Q:144 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to copy H and L registers in the
program counter?
A SPHL B PCHL
C XCHG D None of the above
Q:145 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to enable interrupt?
A EI B DI
C RIM D None of the above
Q:146 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to disable interrupt?
A EI B DI
Q:147 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to read pending interrupt requests?
A EI B DI
Q:148 What is the use of SIM instruction in 8085?
A To enable/disable RST B To read pending interrupt

7.5, 6.5, 5.5 requests
C To enable TRAP D To enable INTR interrupt
Q:149 What is the use of 8259A?
A Programmable B Programmable I/O ports and

keyboard/display interface timer
C Programmable interrupt D Direct memory access
controller controller
Q:150 What is the use of 8279?
Q:153 What is the use of 8255A?
A Programmable B Programmable peripheral
keyboard/display interface interface
A Programmable B Programmable interval timer
keyboard/display interface
Q:155 Which port in 8255A can be used as individual pins or grouped in two 4-
bit ports?
A Port A B Port B
C Port A and Port B D Port C
Q:156 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to output data serially through SOD
line?
A SIM B RIM
C DI D EI
Q:157 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to input data serially through SOD
line?
A SIM B RIM
C DI D EI
Q:158 8086 is _______ bits microprocessor.
A 8 B 16
C 10 D 20
Q:159 The memory addressing capacity of 8086 is ________.

A 220 bytes B 216 bytes
C 212 bytes D 210 bytes
Q:160 8086 can address a physical memory with address ranging from _______
to ________.
A 0000H, FFFFH B 00000H, FFFFFH
C 000H, FFFH D 000000H, FFFFFFH
Q:161 What is the maximum size of data segment in 8086?
A 16K B 64K
C 32K D 1M
Q:162 In 8086, base address is shifted ______ by _______ bits in the process of
generating physical address.
A Right, 4 B Left, 4
C Right, 8 D Left, 8
Q:163 In 8086, BIU performs the address calculation to fetch instruction from
memory using ______ and _______ registers.
A DS, DI B SS, SP
C ES, SI D CS, IP
Q:164 In 8086, stack physical address is calculated using ______ and _______
registers.
A DS, DI B SS, SP
C ES, SI D CS, IP
Q:165 In 8086, which of the following register/s is/are used as offset register/s
with DS to generate physical address?
A IP B BX
C DI D BX, DI, SI
Q:166 In 8086, which of the following register/s is/are used as offset register/s
with ES to generate physical address?
A IP B BX
C DI D BX, DI, SI
Q:167 In 8086, if DS = 345BH and data segment length to be 12K bytes, what is
the physical address range for data segment?
A 345B0H to 365B0H B 345B0H to 385B0H
C 345B0H to 375B0H D 345B0H to 355B0H
Q:168 In 8086, if CS = 1111H and IP = 1232H, calculate the physical address for
the addressed byte in code segment.
A 12342H B 11110H
C 23430H D 01232H
Q:169 In 8086, if SS = 2526H, IP = 1232H, and SP = 1100H, calculate the
physical address for the addressed byte in stack segment.
A 26580H B 36260H
C 26360H D 37580H
Q:170 In 8086, if SS = 2526H, DS = 3333H, IP = 1232H, DI = 0020H, and SP =
1100H, calculate the physical address for the addressed byte in data
segment.
A 33350H B 26350H
C 26580H D 37580H
Q:171 We can have _______ logical address/es for the given physical address in
8086
A Only one B Only two
C Only three D One or more than one
Q:172 In 8086, instruction MOV AX, [2345H] represents _______ addressing
mode.
A Register B Immediate
C Direct D Register indirect
Q:173 In 8086, instruction MOV AL, [BX] represents _______ addressing mode.
Q:174 In 8086, instruction MOV BX, 34E3H represents _______ addressing
mode.
Q:175 In 8086, instruction MOV DS, 2300H represents _______ addressing
mode.
C Direct D Incorrect instruction

Q:176 In 8086, for the instruction MOV AL, 5[SI][BP], the effective address is
_______.
A 5 + BP + SI B SI
C BP + SI D BP
Q:177 In 8086, the instruction MOV AL, 5[SI][BP] represents ___________
addressing mode.
A Register relative B Based indexed
C Relative based indexed D None of the above

Q:178 Which one of the following statements is true for the instruction MOV
DS: [BP + 7], BL for 8086?
A DS to be used instead of B SS to be used instead of DS
SS
C DS to be used instead of D DS to be used instead of ES
CS
Q:179 Which one of the following statements is true for the instruction MOV
AX, CS:[BX] for 8086?
A CS to be used instead of B DS to be used instead of CS
SS
C CS to be used instead of D SS to be used instead of CS
DS
Q:180 In 8086, the flag is ______ bits register.
A 8 B 16
C 12 D 10
Q:181 In 8086, how many bits of flag register are used as control flags?
A 6 B 3
C 7 D 9
Q:182 In 8086, how many bits of flag register are unused?
A 6 B 3
C 7 D 9
Q:183 In 8086, how many bits of flag register are used as conditional flags?
A 6 B 3
C 7 D 9
Q:184 In 8086, after the execution of following instruction, find the status of CF
(carry flag) and S (sign flag).
MOV AL, 35H
ADD AL, 0CEH
A CF = 0, S = 0 B CF = 1, S = 1
C CF = 0, S = 1 D CF = 1, S = 0
Q:185 In 8086, for near jump instruction, which of the following is true?
A New IP = Current IP + 16- B New IP = Current IP + 8-bit
bit offset offset
C New IP = 16-bit offset D New IP = 8-bit offset
Q:186 In 8086, for short jump instruction, which of the following is true?
A New IP = Current IP + 16- B New IP = Current IP + 8-bit
bit offset offset
C New IP = 16-bit offset D New IP = 8-bit offset
Q:187 In 8086, instruction JMP BX does ______ on execution.
A CS = BX B IP = BX
C IP = IP + BX D Incorrect instruction
Q:188 In 8086, instruction JMP SI does ______ on execution.
A DS = SI B IP = SI
C IP = IP + SI D Incorrect instruction
Q:189 In 8086, the instruction LOOP label does _______ on execution.
A CX is decremented and B BX is decremented and loop is

loop is exited if CX = 0 exited if BX = 0
C CX is incremented and D BX is incremented and loop is
loop is exited if CX = 0 exited if BX = 0
Q:190 In 8086, the instruction INC [BX] does _________ on execution.
A BX = BX + 1 B BL = BL + 1
C Add 1 to the content of D Incorrect instruction
by BX
Q:191 In 8086, the instruction ADC AX, [BX][SI] does ________ on execution.
A AX + CF + (the data with B AX + CF + (the data with EA
EA = BX + SI) = BX)
C AX + (the data with EA = D AX + CF + (the data with EA
BX + SI) = SI)
Q:192 In 8086, the instruction SUB CL, BYTE PTR [SI] does ________ on
execution.
A CX (Byte pointed by SI) B CL (Byte pointed by SI)
C CL (Byte pointed by SI) D Incorrect instruction
CF
Q:193 In 8086, the instruction SBB CH, 7 does ________ on execution.
A CH 7 B CL 7
C CH 7 CF D Incorrect instruction
Q:194 In 8086, the instruction DEC WORD [SI] does __________ on execution.
A Incorrect instruction B (Word pointed by SI) 1
C (Byte pointed by SI) 1 D (Word pointed by SI) 2

Q:195 For the instruction MUL BL in 8086, the content of BL is multiplied with
___________ and the result is stored in ___________.
A AL, AX B AX, AX
C AH, AX D None of the above
Q:196 For the instruction MUL CX in 8086, the content of CX is multiplied with
___________ and the result is stored in ___________.
A AX, DX B AX, DX and AX
C AX, AX D None of the above
Q:197 For the instruction DIV BYTE PTR [BX], the result on execution is
__________.
A Data in AX is divided by B Data in AL is divided by the
the word pointed by BX byte pointed by BX
C Data in AH is divided by D Data in AX is divided by the
the byte pointed by BX byte pointed by BX
Q:198 For the instruction DIV WORD PTR [SI], the result on execution is
__________.
A Double word data in AX- B Double word data in DX-AX
DX is divided by the is divided by the word pointed
word pointed by SI by SI
C Incorrect instruction D Data in AX is divided by the
word pointed by SI
Q:199 TEST dest, src instruction in 8086 does __________ on execution.
A Performs a logical AND of B Performs a logical XOR of the
the two operands updating two operands updating the flag
the flag register without register without saving the
saving the result result
C Performs a logical OR of D Performs a logical AND of the
the two operands updating two operands updating the flag
the flag register without register and saving the result
saving the result
Q:200 In 8086, if AH = 00H, BL = 5EH, then the result of TEST AH, BL is
__________.
A Zero flag is set B Zero flag is reset
C Incorrect instruction D Zero flag not affected
Q:201 In 8086, if AL = 8CH, CH = 67H, then the result of XOR AL, CH is
__________.
A EBH B EAH
C FBH D FAH
Q:202 In 8086, the instruction SHL BX, 1 does on execution ___________.
A Content of BX is shifted B Content of BX is shifted left
left logical by two position arithmetic by two position
C Content of BX is shifted D Content of BX is shifted left
left logical by one position arithmetic by one position
Q:203 In 8086, the instruction SAL AL, CL does on execution ___________.
A Content of AL is shifted B Content of AL is shifted right

left arithmetic by the count arithmetic by the count
specified in CL specified in CL
C Content of AL is shifted D Content of AL is shifted right
left logical by the count logical by the count specified
specified in CL in CL
Q:204 In 8086, which instruction does rotate through carry left?
A SHR B RCL
C ROL D RCR
Q:205 In 8086, which instruction does rotate through carry right?

A SHR B RCL
C ROL D RCR
Q:206 In 8086, which instruction does rotate right not through carry?
A ROR B RCL
C ROL D RCR
Q:207 In 8086, which instruction does rotate left not through carry?
A ROR B RCL
C ROL D RCR
Q:208 In 8086, which control flag is set or reset to decrement or increment
pointer registers in string operations?
A DF B TF
C CF D IF
Q:209 In 8086, which register is loaded with the count value in string operations?
A BX B CX
C DX D AX
Q:210 In 8086, MOVSB instruction does ____________ on execution.
A Data in the location B Data in the location pointed by

pointed by SI to be moved DI to be moved to the location
to the location pointed by pointed by SI, CX = CX 1,
DI, CX = CX 1, SI = SI SI = SI + 1, DI = DI + 1
+ 1, DI = DI + 1
C Data in the location D Data in the location pointed by
pointed by SI to be moved SI to be moved to the location
to the location pointed by pointed by DI, CX = CX 1
DI
Q:211 In 8086, REPE CMPSB instruction does __________ on execution.
A Compares string pointed B Compares string pointed by SI
by SP and BP byte by byte and BP byte by byte and
and update ZF update ZF
C Compares string pointed D Compares string pointed by SI
by SI and DI byte by byte and DI byte by byte and
update ZF
Q:212 In 8086, for SCASB instruction, the string to be scanned has to be in
__________ and is to be pointed by ___________.
A Extra, DI B Data, SI
C Extra, SI D Data, DI
Q:213 In 8086, for STOSW instruction, the memory where the data/string to be
stored has to be in __________ and is to be pointed by ___________.
A Extra, DI B Data, SI
C Extra, SI D Data, DI
Q:214 In 8086, for LODSW instruction, the destination register is _________.
A AL B AH
C SI D AX
Q:215 In 8086, after the execution of following instructions, what will be the
result in AL?
MOV AL, 5
ADD AL, 4
AAA
A AL = 69H B AL = 09H
C AL = 0AH D AL = 39H
Q:216 In 8086, after the execution of following instructions, what will be the
result in AL?
MOV AL, 7
ADD AL, 6
AAA
A AL = 13 B AH = 01 AL = 03
C AL = 6DH D AH = 03 AL = 01
Q:217 In 8086, which instruction is used for ASCII adjust AX after

multiplication?
A AAM B AAA
C AAD D AAS
Q:218 In 8086, which instruction is used for ASCII adjust AL after addition?
A AAM B AAA
C AAD D AAS
Q:219 In 8086, which instruction is used for ASCII adjust AL after

subtraction?
A AAM B AAA
C AAD D AAS
Q:220 In 8086, which instruction is used for ASCII adjust AX before division?
A AAM B AAA
C AAD D AAS
Q:221 In 8086, I/O addresses are limited to _________ bits for IN and OUT
instructions.
A 8 B 16
C 12 D 20
Q:222 In 8086, the instruction IN AX, 67H does ____________ on execution.
A Gets 16-bit data into AX B Gets 8-bit data into AL from
from port with address port with address 67H
67H
C Gets 8-bit data into AH D None of the above
from port with address
67H
Q:223 In 8086, the instruction CBW does ___________ on execution.
A Copies D7 bit of AL to all B Copies D7 bit of AH to all the
the bits of AH bits of AL
C Copies D7 bit of BL to all D Copies D7 bit of BH to all the
the bits of BH bits of BL
Q:224 In 8086, the instruction CWD does ___________ on execution.
A Copies D15 bit of AX to all B Copies D15 bit of DX to all the
the bits of DX bits of AX
C Copies D15 bit of BX to all D Copies D15 bit of CX to all the
the bits of CX bits of BX
Q:225 In 8086, instruction IN AX, 12H does ________ on execution.
A Copies 12H into AX B Copies 16-bit data from port
with address 12H into AX
C Copies 12H into AL D Copies 8-bit data from port
Q:226 In 8086, instruction IN AL, 45H does ________ on execution.
A Copies 45H into AL B Copies 16-bit data from port
C Copies 45H into AH D Copies 8-bit data from port
with address 45H into AL
Q:227 8086 has _____ address lines multiplexed with data lines.
A 8 B 16
C 12 D 20
Q:228 Status lines S3 = _______ and S4 = _________ in 8086 if the current

segment in use is data segment.
A 1, 1 B 0, 0
C 1, 0 D 0, 1
segment in use is code segment.
A 1, 1 B 0, 0
C 1, 0 D 0, 1
segment in use is stack segment.
A 1, 1 B 0, 0
C 1, 0 D 0, 1

segment in use is extra segment.
A 1, 1 B 0, 0
C 1, 0 D 0, 1
Q:232 In 8086, _________ and __________ signals are connected with direct
memory access.
A HOLD, INTR B HOLD, HLDA
C HLDA, INTR D INTR, READY
Q:233 DT / R is ______ in transmit and ________ in receive for 8086.
A 1, 0 B 0, 1
C 0, 0 D 1, 1
Q:234 M / IO is ______ for I/O access and ________ for memory access in
8086.
A 1, 0 B 0, 1
C 0, 0 D 1, 1
Q:235 RD is ______ for read operation and WR ________ for write operation
in 8086.
A 1, 0 B 0, 1
C 0, 0 D 1, 1
Q:236 In 8086, TEST pin tested by the _________ instruction and tested
instruction becomes _______ instruction when TEST pin is logic _____.
A WAIT, NOP, 1 B NOP, WAIT, 1
C WAIT, NOP, 0 D NOP, WAIT, 0
Q:237 In 8086, _______ is used for interrupt request and ________ is used for
interrupt acknowledge.
A INTR , INTA B INTR , HLDA
C INTR, INTA D INTA , INTR
Q:238 ________ signal/pin is used to enable high memory bank of the data bus in
8086.
A BHE / S 7 B BHE / S 7
C BHE / S 7 D BHE/S7
Q:239 ________ states are inserted when _________ pin is __________ in 8086.
A WAIT, READY, 0 B READY, WAIT, 0
C WAIT, READY, 1 D READY, WAIT, 1
Q:240 If the operating frequency of 8086 is 10 MHz and for the given
instruction, if machine cycle consists of 4-T states, what is time taken by
machine cycle to complete execution of that instruction?
A 4 s B 0.4 s
C 40 s D 1 s
Q:241 If the operating frequency of 8086 is 10 MHz and for the given
instruction, if machine cycle consists of 4-T states, what is time taken by
machine cycle to complete execution of that instruction when three wait
states are inserted?
A 0.7 s B 0.4 s
C 70 s D 7 s
Q:242 Which pin in 8086 microprocessor is used for maximum mode?

A MN / MX B MN / MX
C MN / MX D MN/MX
Q:243 Which pin in 8086 is used to prevent other bus masters from accessing the
bus?
A LOCK B TEST
C DEN D None of the above
Q:244 How many minimum address pins are required to be connected/decoded to
interface 2K X 8 memory chip with microprocessor? Assume chip select is
permanently connected to the desired voltage level.
A 13 pins B 10 pins
C 12 pins D 11 pins
Q:245 8086 microprocessor has _________ interrupts.

A Hardware, software B Hardware
C Software D Hardware, software, and error
generated
Q:246 After execution of following statements in c program, what will be the
value of c?
int a =7, b = 3, c;
c = a %b;
A 1 B 2
C 2.33 D None of the above

value of c?
int a =7, b = 3, c;
c = a/b;
A 1 B 2
value of y?
int k; float x, y; x =8; k = 3;
y = x * (k/4);
A 0 B 6.0

value of y?
int k; float x, y; x =8; k = 3;
y = (x * k)/4;
A 0 B 6.0
value of x and y?
int x = 6, y = 8;
y = x++;
A 7, 6 B 7, 7
C 6, 7 D 7, 8
value of x and y?
int x = 6, y = 8;
y = ++x;
A 7, 6 B 7, 7
C 6, 7 D 7, 8
Q:252 What is the meaning of statement p = z++ in c-language?

A p = z + 1, z = z + 1 B p = z + 1, z = z
C p = z, z = z + 1 D p = z, z = z
Q:253 What is the meaning of statement p = ++z in c-language?

A p = z + 1, z = z + 1 B p = z + 1, z = z
C p = z, z = z + 1 D p = z, z = z
Q:254 What is the meaning of statement p += z in c-language?
A p = z; B p = p + z;
C p = p * z; D Incorrect statement

value of variable sum?
int n=123, sum=0, digit;
while (n!=0)
{
digit = n %10; sum += digit; n = n/10;
}
A 2 B 6
C 1 D 123
Q:256 In c-language, which looping statement does execute at least once?
A Do While B While
C For D None of the above
Q:257 In c-language, the statement int a[20][20] results into variable a with
_________ number of total elements?
A 40 B 20
C 400 D None of the above
Q:258 In c-language, the statement int a[20][20] results into variable a with 1st
index ranging from ____ to ____ and 2nd index ranging from _____ to
_____?
A 0, 19, 0, 19 B 1, 20, 1, 20
C 1, 19, 1, 19 D 0, 20, 0, 20
Q:259 Which of the following statement is correct when variable a is declared to
be of integer type in c-language?
A scanf(%d, a) B scanf(%d, &a)
C scanf(%ld, &a) D scanf(%f, &a)

be of float type in c-language?
be of long integer type in c-language?
be of double type in c-language?
C scanf(%lf, &a) D scanf(%f, &a)
Q:263 Which statement in c-language is used to proceed with the next value of
iterative variable in for statement?
A Break B Continue
C Exit D None of the above

Q:264 Which statement in c-language is normally used to prevent from
continuing from one case to another case in switch statement?
A Break B Continue
C Exit D None of the above
Q:265 How can we declare an integer pointer variable (e.g. y) in c-language?
A int *y; B int y;
C int &y; D None of the above
Q:266 In c-language, how can we point an integer pointer variable (e.g. y) to
point to integer variable (e.g. x)?
A y = x; B y = &x;
C y = *x; D None of the above

Q:267 In c-language, how can we access the value from a pointer variable (e.g. y)
and can assign it to another variable z?
A z = *y; B z = &y;
C z = y; D None of the above
Q:268 In c-language, array variable name points to _____ element of the array?
A Last B 1st
C Middle D None of the above
Q:269 In c-language, if a and b are integer variable, what will be the result on
execution of following statement?
a = *(&b);
A Incorrect statement B Values of a and b are same
C a is assigned with address D Values of a and b are not same
of b
Q:270 In c-language, what will be the result on execution of following
statements?
x = 5; y = 10;
max = (x > y) ? x : (x+y);
A max = 10 B max = 5
C max = 15 D Incorrect statement
Q:271 In c-language, file can be opened in _______ mode/s?
A Read, B Write
C Append D All of the above

Q:272 In c-language, how can we declare file pointer?
A FILE *fp; B FILE fp;
C FILE &fp; D None of the above
Q:273 In c-language, what is the effect on execution of following statements?
FILE *fp;
fp = fopen(sample.dat,r );
A Declares file pointer B Declares file pointer variable
variable fp fp and opens file sample.dat
in read mode
C Declares file pointer D None of the above
variable fp and opens file
sample.dat in write
mode
FILE *fp;
fp = fopen(sample.dat,r );
in read mode
C Declares file pointer D None of the above
variable fp and opens file
sample.dat in write
mode
FILE *fp;
fp = fopen(sample.dat,a );
in read mode
C Declares file pointer D Declares file pointer variable
variable fp and opens file fp and opens file sample.dat
sample.dat in write in append mode
mode
Q:276 In c-langauge, which statement is used to read from a file?
A scanf B fscanf
C fopen D None of the above
Q:277 In c-langauge, which statement is used to write into a file?
A printf B fprintf
C fopen D None of the above
Q:278 In c-language, how can we verify the successful opening of a file?
A Comparing file pointer B Comparing file pointer with
with EOF EXIT
C Comparing file pointer D None of the above
with NULL
Q:279 In c-langauge, which file function is used to position the file pointer to the
start of the file?
A rewind B fclose
C fgets D None of the above
Q:280 In c-language, how many bytes are required to store value of integer
variable?
A 1 B 2
C 3 D 4
Q:281 In c-language, how many bytes are required to store value of double
variable?
A 1 B 2
C 8 D 4
Q:282 In c-language, how many bytes are required to store value of float
variable?
A 1 B 2
C 8 D 4
Q:283 In c-language, how many bytes are required to store value of char
variable?
A 1 B 2
C 8 D 4
Q:284 In c-language, what is the range of values permitted for integer variable?
A 0 to 255 B 0 to 65535
C -32768 to 32767 D None of the above
Q:285 In c-language, what is the range of values permitted for unsigned integer
variable?
A 0 to 255 B 0 to 65535

Q:286 In c-language, what is the range of values permitted for unsigned char
variable?
A 0 to 255 B 0 to 65535

Q:287 In c-language, what is the range of values permitted for char variable?
A 0 to 255 B 0 to 65535
Q:288 In c-language, compiler automatically assigns _____ to first value in
enumerated data type.
A 0 B 1
Q:289 Which of the following is/are storage classes available in c-language?

A Register, auto B Static
C Extern D Register, auto, static, extern
Q:290 Which of the following is the valid statement to define constant in c-

language?
A define MAX 100 B #define MAX 100
C # define MAX 100 D #define MAX 100;
Q:291 Which one of the following is bitwise shift left operator in c-language?
A & B <<
C ^ D >>
Q:292 Which one of the following is bitwise exclusive OR operator in c-

language?
A & B <<
C ^ D >>
Q:293 In c-language, find the value of x on execution of following statements.
float a, b, c, x;
a = 9; b = 12; c =3;
x = a b/3 + c*2 1;
A 10.0 B 7.0
float a, b, c, x;
a = 9; b = 12; c =3;
x = a b/(3 + c)*(2 1);
A 10.0 B 7.0

float a, b, c, x;
a = 9; b = 12; c =3;
x = a (b/(3 + c)*2) 1;
A 10.0 B 7.0

statements?
int a;
a = (int)21.3/(int)4.5;
A 5 B 4.73

statements?
int x;
float y = 27.6;
x = (int)(y + 0.5);
A 28.1 B 28
Q:298 In c-language, what will be the result on execution of the following
statements?
for(x=9; x<9 ; x = x 1)
printf(%d, x);
A printf will never be B printf will be executed infinite
executed times
C printf will be executed one D printf will be executed 10
time times
statements?
for(x=9; x>=0 ; x = x 1)
printf(%d, x);
executed times
time times
statements?
for(j=1000; j > 0; j = j 1);

printf(%d, j);
executed times
time times
1
Determine the values of A, B, C that make the sum term A'+ B' +C equal to 0.
A A=0, B=1,C=0 B A=1, B=0,C=0
C A=1, B=1,C=0 D A=1, B=1,C=1

2 X+X.Y =.
A X B 1+Y
C Y D None of these
3 The circuit shown in Figure represents _________ gate.
A AND. B NAND.
C OR. D NOR.
4 CMOS logic has the property of
A increased capacitance and delay. B decreased area.
C high noise margin. D low static power dissipation.

5 For a 12-bit flash ADC, the number of comparators required are
A 4097 B 2047
C 4095 D None of these

6 A 32 to 1 multiplexer has the following features.
A 32 outputs, one input and 5 control signals B 32 inputs, one output and 5 control signals
C 5 inputs, one control signal and 32 outputs D 5 inputs,32 control signal and one outputs
7 Given a MOD-12 ripple counter using a J-K flip-flop. If the clock frequency to the counter is 40 KHZ ,
then the output frequency of the counter is.
A 40 khz B 12 khz
C 3.33 khz D None of these

8 The exact number of flip flops requierd to construct a MOD 10 counter is
SUJJECT CODE: 1/13 PGCET

A 5 B 10
C 2 D 4
9 The number of address bits needed to operate a 2K 8-bit RAM are:
A 9 B 11
C 15 D 25
10 A one-to-sixteen demultiplexer requires
A 2 select input line B 4 select input line
C 5 select input line D 8 select input line

11 EPROM contents can be erased by exposing it to
A Infrared rays. B Ultraviolet rays.
C Burst of microwaves D None of these

12 The Gray code for decimal number 6 is equivalent to
A 1100 B 1001
C 0101 D 0110
13 The output of a logic gate is 1 when all its inputs are at logic 0. the gate is either
A a NAND or an EX-OR B an OR or an EX-NOR
C an AND or an EX-OR D a NOR or an EX-NOR

14 The speed of conversion is maximum in
A Successive-approximation A/D converter. B Parallel-comparative A/D converter.
C Counter ramp A/D converter. D Dual-slope A/D converter.

15 When simplified with Boolean Algebra (x + y)(x + z) simplifies to
A x B x + x(y + z)
C x(1 + yz) D x + yz
16 The gates required to build a half adder are
A EX-OR gate and NOR gate B EX-OR gate and OR gate
C EX-OR gate and AND gate D Four NAND gates.

17 The code where all successive numbers differ from their preceding number by single bit is
A Binary code. B BCD.
C Excess 3 D Gray.
18 If the input to T-flipflop is 100 Hz signal, the final output of the three T-flipflops in cascade is

A 1000 Hz B 500 Hz
C 333 Hz D 12.5 Hz.

19
For which of the following ip-ops, the output is clearly dened for all combinaMons oftwo inputs.
A D type flip-flop. B R-S flip-flop.
C J-K flip-flop. D none of these

20 The digital logic family which has the lowest propagation delay time is
A ECL B TTL
C CMOS D PMOS
21 In digital ICs, Schottky transistors are preferred over normal transistors because of their
A Lower Propagation delay. B Higher Propagation delay.
C Lower Power dissipation. D Higher Power dissipation.

22 Which TTL logic gate is used for wired ANDing
A Open collector output B Totem Pole
C Tri state output D ECL gates

23 Advanced Low Power Schottky is a part of
A ECL family B TTL family
C CMOS family D None of these

24 Shifting a register content to left by one bit position is equivalent to
A division by two. B addition by two.
C multiplication by two. D subtraction by two.

25 How many two-input AND and OR gates are required respectively to realize Y=CD+EF+G
A 2,2. B 2,3.
C 3,3. D none of these.

26 Which of following can not be accessed randomly
A DRAM. B SRAM.
C ROM. D Magnetic tape.

27 Karnaugh map is used for the purpose of
A Reducing the electronic circuits used. B To map the given Boolean logic function.

To minimize the terms in a Boolean To maximize the terms of a given Boolean
C D
expression. expression.
28 A full adder logic circuit will have
A Two inputs and one output. B Three inputs and three outputs.
C Two inputs and two outputs. D Three inputs and two outputs.
29 The information in ROM is stored
A By the user any number of times. B By the manufacturer during fabrication of the
device.
C By the user using ultraviolet light. D By the user once and only once.
30 A weighted resistor digital to analog converter using N bits requires a total of
A N precision resistors. B 2N precision resistors.
C N + 1 precision resistors. D N 1 precision resistors.

31 Which of the following memories stores the most number of bits
A 8 K 64 memory B 8 M1 memory.
C 8 M 32 memory. D 64K 6 memory.

32 What is the end address of 8k X 8 memory ,if the starting address is AAOOH?
A B9FFH B C9FFH
C AAFFH D B900
33 The Boolean function f(w,x,y,z ) = m (5,7,9 ,11 ,13, 15) is independent of variables.
A w B x
C y D z and x
34
The contents of BC register pair after the execution of the following program in an 8085 microprocessor
is ..... LXI H,7585 H
LXI B, 4774 H
PUSH B
XTHL
POP B
HLT
A 7585 B 4774
C 8575 D 7447

35 Which of these statements are true?
(1) A flip-flop can store 1-bit information
(2) Race condition occurs in a J-K flip flop when both inputs are 1
(3) Master Slave configuration is used in flip flops to stroe 2- bits of data.
(4) A transparent latch consists of a D-type flip-flop.
A 1 & 2 only B 1,3 and 4
C 1,2 and 4 D 2 and 3

36 Pick up the correct statement(s) from the following:
(P) Open collector outputconfiguration enables to generate OAI logic.
(Q) Power consumption is minimum in CMOS family.
(R ) Minimum two transistors are required to construct dynamic RAM cell.
(S) Single comparator is used in successive approximation type of ADC.
A P,R & S B Q&R
C Q&S D R&S
37 A 6 bit DAC use binary weighted resistors. If MSB resistor is 10 k ohm, the value of LSB resistor Is
A 40 k ohm B 80 k ohm
C 640 k ohm D 320 k ohm

38 As the number of flip flops are increased, the total propagation delay of
ripple counter increases, but that of

A B Both ripple counter and synchronous counter decreases.
synchronous counter remains the same
Both ripple counter and synchronous
C D None of these
counter increases.
39 To convert J K flip flop to D filp flop.
A short both J and K and connect D to it. B Connect D to J Directly and D to K through
inverter.
C Connect D to K and leave J open. D Connect D to J and leave K open.
40 The advantage of using dual slope ADC in digital voltmeter is that
A its conversion time is very small. B its accuracy is very high.
C it does not require a comparator D None of these

41 The noise margin of a TTL gate is about
A 1.2 V B 0.2 V
C 0.4 V D 0.8 V
42
A memory system of size 32 k bytes is reqiured to design using memory chips which have 12 address
lines and 4 data lines each. The number of such chips reqiured to design the memory system is
A 4 B 8

C 16 D 32
43 An 8 bit ripple counter uses flip flops with propagation delay of 25 ns each. The maximum clock
frequency which can be used is
A 10 MHz B 5 MHz
C 20 MHz D 50 MHz
44 The application of shift registors are :
(1) serial to parallel data conversion
(2) parallel to serial data conversion
(3) Provide delay to the input
A 1,2 B 2,3
C 1,2,3 D none of these.

45 find the correct statement.
ROM is a Volatile memory while RAM is a

A B Both ROM and RAM are Volatile
Non Volatile memory.
RAM is a Volatile memory while ROM is a Non
C Both ROM and RAM are Non Volatile D
Volatile memory.
46 For a logic famliy correct relationship is
A VOH > VIH > VOL > VIL B VIH > VOH > VIL > VOL
C VOH > VIH > VIL > VOL D None of these

47 A 10 bit ADC is used to convert analog voltage of 0 to 10 V into digital. The resolution is
A 4.88 m V B 9.775 m V
C 20 m V D None of these
48 To design a sequential circuit having 11 states, minimum number of memory elements required is
A 5 B 3
C 4 D 11
49 A 4 input NAND gate is to be used as an inverter. Which is preferrable ?
A the three unused inputs are left open B the three unused inputs are connected to 0
C the three unused inputs are connected to 1 D none of these

50 which are charcterstics of sequential circuits ?
(1) Feed back
(2) output depends on previous inputs
(3) gates are arranged in sequence.
A 1,3 B 1,2
C 2,3 D none of these

51 The number of address bits needed to operate a EPROM 8192 X 8 is
A 4 B 8
C 12 D 13
52 Which one of the following is D/A conversion technique
A dual slope B weighted resistor
C Successive-approximation. D none of these

53 The figure of merit for a logic family is
A fan out X fan in B propagation delay time X power dissipation
C gain bandwith product D none of these

54 To count 2500 bottles in cold drink plant, the minimum number of flip flops requered is
A 8 B 10
C 12 D 16
55 One XOR gate can work as
A one bit magnitude comparator B an inverter

both one bit magnitude comparatoe and an
C D none of these
inverter
56 which is non-saturating logic family
A CMOS B TTL
C ECL D none of these

57 The power dissipation per gate
A increases with frequency B decreases with frequency
C remain constant with frequency D none of these

58 Quantzation error occurs in
A D/A converter B A/D converter
C both D/A and A/D converter D none of these

59 A binary ladder network D/A converter requires
A resistor of one value only B resistor of many different values
C resistor of two different values D none of these

60 If number of bits is N, the % resolution in analog to digital conversion is
A 100/2N+1 B 100/2N-1

C 100/N D 100/2N
61 Internal structure of PLA :
A only AND array programmable B only OR array programmable
C both OR & AND array programmable D none of these

62 The accuracy of A/D conversion is generally
A LSB B 1/2LSB
C 1/4LSB D none of these

63 Which memory requires periodic recharging
A All RAMS B Dynamic RAM
C EPROMS D static RAM

64 If number of information bits is 11, the number of parity bits in Hamming code is
A 2 B 3
C 4 D 5
65 A buffer is
A Always inverting B Always non-inverting
C inverting or non-inverting D none of these

66 In--------- function each term is known as min term.
A POS B Hybrid
C SOP D none of these

67 In--------- function each term is known as max term
A Hybrid B SOP and Hybrid
C POS D SOP
68 Which stack is used in 8085?
A FIFO B LIFO
C FILO D None of these

69 Why 8085 is called an 8 bit processor?
A because 8085 has 8 bit address bus. B because 8085 has 8 bit data bus and 8 bit ALU.
C because 8085 has 8 bit stack pointer D None of these

70 Which is not a flag of 8085?
A Overflow Flag B sign Flag

C carry Flag D zero flag
71 In 8085 microprocessor how many I/O devices can be interfaced in I/O mapped
I/O technique?
A Either 256 input devices or 256 output devices B 256 input output devices
C 256 input devices and 256 output devices D none of these

72 In an 8085 microprocessor, the instruction CMP B has been executed while the contents of
accumulator is less than that of register B. As a result carry flag and zero flag will be respectively
A Reset,Reset B Set, Reset
C set,set D reset,set
73 To put the 8085 microprocessor in the wait state
A Lower the HOLD input B Lower the READY input
C rise the HOLD input D rise the READY input

74 The TRAP is one of the interrupts available its INTEL 8085. Which one of the following statements is
true of TRAP?
A It is level triggered B It is edge triggered
C It is level triggered and positive edge D None of these

triggered
75 A dynamic RAM consists of
A 6 transistors. B 2 capacitors only.
C 2 transistors and 2 capacitors. D 1 transistor and 1 capacitor.

76 A PLA can be used
A as a microprocessor. B as a dynamic memory.
C to realize a combinational logic. D to realize sequential logic.

77 The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer
as per the following code.
A. Schottky transistors are preffered over normal transistors in digital circuits.
R. Schottky transistor when used as a switch, switches between cuttoff and active region.
Both A and R are correct and R is correct Both A and R are correct but R is not correct
A B
explanation of A explanation of A
C A is true, R is false D A is false, R is true

78
The circuit in Fig is used to realize the logic function of
A Inverter. B NOR gate.
C NAND gate. D XOR gate.

A.Boolean expressions can be easily simplified using K-map.
R. K-map can be drawn for minterms as well as maxterms.
A B
80 What J-K input condition will always set Q upon the occurrence of the active clock transition?
A J = 0, K = 0 B J = 1, K = 1
C J = 1, K = 0 D J = 0, K = 1
81 The Boolean Expression A'B + AB'+AB is equivalent to.
A AB B A+B
C AB' D (A+B)'
82 A ring counter consisting of five Flip-Flops will have
A 5 states B 32 states
C 16 states D None of these

83 A device which converts BCD to Seven Segment is called
A Multiplexer B Demultiplexer
C Encoder D Decoder
84 The A/D converter whose conversion time is independent of the number of bits is
A Dual slope B Successive approximation.
C Parallel conversion D Counter type

85
A 4-bit synchronous counter uses flip-flops with propagation delay times of 15 ns each. The
maximum possible time required for change of state will be
A 15 ns B 30 ns
C 45 ns D 60 ns
86 Boolean Algebra obeys
A Associative law B Commutative law
C Distributive law D All of these

87 In a four variable Karnaugh map two adjacent cells give a
A Three variable term B Single variable term
C Two variable term D Four variable term

88 Large screen integration refers to
A More than 10 gates on the same chip B More than 25 gates on the same chip
C More than 75 gates on the same chip D More than 100 gates on the same chip
89 The minimum number of 2 input NAND gates required to implement boolean function X Y ' Z , if X,Y,Z
are available
A 2 B 3
C 4 D 5
90
If the functions W,X,Y,Z are as follows: W = R+P'Q+ R'S ; X =PQR'S'+ P'Q'R'S'+PQ'R'S' ; Y = RS + (PR +
PQ'+P'Q')' ; Z= R+S+(PQ + P'Q'R'+PQ'S')'
A W=Z, X=Z' B W=Z, X=Y
C W=Z,X=Y' D W=Y=Z'
91
The Boolean Expression Y=A'B'C'D+A'BCD'+AB'C'D+ABC'D' can be minimized to
A Y=A'B'C'D + A'BC'+AC'D B Y = A'B'C'D+ BCD'+AB'C'D
C Y=A'BCD' +'B'C'D+AB'C'D D Y=A'BCD' + B'C'D + ABC'D'

92 A 2bit binary multiplier can be implemented using
A XOR gates and multiplexer B 2 input ANDs only
C 4 input NOR and multiplexer D None of these.

93
The output Y of a 2-bit comparator is logic 1 whenever the 2 bit input A is greater than the 2 bit input
B. The number of combinations for which the output is logic 1 is
A 4 B 6
C 8 D 10
94 For a binary half subtractor having two inputs A and B , the correct set of logical expressions for the
outputs D = A-B and X (=borrow) are
A D=AB+A'B, X= A'B B D= A'B+AB', X = AB'
C D= A'B+AB', X = A'B D None of these.

95 The following program starts at
Location 0100H
LXI SP, 00FF
LXI H,0107
MVI A,20H
SUB M
The contents of accumulator when the program counter reaches 0209H is
A 20H B 02H
C 00H D FFH
96 In an 8085 microprocessor system, the RST instruction will cause an interrupt
Only if an interrupt service routine is not

A B Only if a bit in the inturrept mask is made 0.
being executed.
Only if inturrepts have been enabled by an
C D none of these.
EI instruction
97 If CS = A'15 A14A13 is used as the chip select logic of 4K RAM in an 8085 system, then its memory range
will be
A 3000H - 3FFFH B 7000H - 7FFFH
C 5000H - 5FFFH and 6000H - 6FFFH D 6000H - 6FFFH and 7000H - 7FFFH
98
The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer
A. A PROM can be used as a synchronous counter.
R. Each memory location in a PROM can be read synchronously.
A B

99
A. Gray code is used in shaft position encoding.
R. In gray code only a single bit change occurs when going from one code to another.
A B
A.ECL gate has very high speed of operation
R. Trsistors in ECL do not go into saturation region.
A B

1 The early effect in a bipolar junction transistor is caused by
A fast turn-on B fast turn-off
C large collector-base reverse bias D large emitter-base forward bias

2 The breakdown mechanism in a lightly doped p-n junction under reverse biased condition is called
A avalanche breakdown. B zener breakdown.
C breakdown by tunnelling. D high voltage breakdown.

3 For a large values of |VDS|, a FET behaves as
A Voltage controlled resistor. B Current controlled current source.
C Voltage controlled current source. D Current controlled resistor.

4 Space charge region around a p-n junction
A does not contain mobile carriers B contains both free electrons and holes
C contains electrons only as free carriers D contains holes only as free carriers
5 The reverse saturation current of a silicon diode
A doubles for every 10C increase in temperature B does not change with temperature
C doubles for every 10C decrease in temperature D None of these

6 Transistor is a
A Current controlled current device. B Current controlled voltage device.
C Voltage controlled current device. D Voltage controlled voltage device.

7 In the voltage regulator shown below, if the current through the load decreases,
A The current through R1 will increase. B The current through R1 will decrease.
C zener diode current will increase. D zener diode current will decrease.
8 For a JFET, when VDS is increased beyond the pinch off voltage, the drain current
A Increases B decreases
C remains constant. D Initially increases and then decreases

9 N-channel FETs are superior to P-channel FETs, because

A They have large size B They consume less power
C Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes D They are easy to fabricate
10 n-type silicon is obtained by
A Doping with tetravalent element B Doping with pentavalent element
C Doping with trivalent element D Doping with a mixture of trivalent and tetravalent element
11
The forward characteristic of a diode has a slope of approximately 100mA/V at a desired
point. The approximate incremental resistance of the diode is
A 50 B 20
C 100 D 10
12 When the temperature of a doped semiconductor is increased, its conductivity
A increases B decreases
C remains constant. D increases or decreases depending on semiconductor type

13 A zener diode
A Has a high forward voltage rating. B Has a sharp breakdown at low reverse voltage.
C Is useful as an amplifier. D Has a negative resistance.

14 Field effect transistor has
A large input impedance. B large output impedance.
C large power gain D large votage gain.

15 MOSFET can be used as a
A current controlled capacitor B voltage controlled capacitor
C current controlled inductor D voltage controlled inductors

16 Thermal runaway is not possible in FET because as the temperature of FET increases
A the mobility decreases B the transconductance increases
C the drain current increases D None of these

17 Which of the following is not associated with a p-n junction
A junction capacitance B charge storage capacitance
C depletion capacitance D channel length modulation

18 Which of the transistor component is bigger in size?
A Emmiter B Collector

C Base D All are of equal size
19 In which material do conduction and valence bands overlap ?
A Conductor B Semiconductor
C Dieelectric D None of these

20 Hall Effect can be used
A To find type of semi conductor (whether p OR n) B to find carrier concentration
C to measure conductivity D All of the above

21 Which statement is false as regards Transistors.
A Base is lightly doped. B Emmiter is moderately doped
C Collector is moderately doped. D All statements are correct.

22 Thermionic emmision current is given by
A Fermi Dirac distribution B Maxwell's distribution
C Richardsons Dushman equation D None of these.

23 In energy band diagram of p-type semiconductor the acceptor energy level is
A Slightly above valence band B in valence band
C Slightly below valence band D None of these.

24 Fermi level is the amount of energy which
A a hole can have at room temperature B an electron can have at room temperature
must be given to an electron to move to
C D None of these.
conduction band
25 Which of the following has highest conductivity ?
A Platinum B Aluminium
C Tunguston D Silver
26 When a reverse bias is applied to PN junction, the width of the depletion layer
A Decreases B increases
C remains constant. D Initially decreases then remains constant

27 Surface leakage current is a part of
A reverse current B Forward current
C Forward breakdown D Reverse breakdown
28 The cut in voltage of a diode is nearly equal to

A applied forward voltage B applied reverse voltage
C Barrier potential D None of these.

29 A varactor diode is
A reverse bised B forward bised
C biased to breakdown D unbiased

30 Which of these has highly doped p and n region?
A PIN Diode B Schottky diode
C Tunnel diode D None of these

31 Which of these has semiconductor metal junction?
A PIN Diode B Schottky diode
C Tunnel diode D None of these

32 Compared to Bipolar Junction Transistor ,a JFET has
A Lower input impedance B high input impedance and high voltage gain
C higher voltage gain D high input impedance and low voltage gain
33 Compared to Bipolar Junction Transistor ,a FET has
A Less noisy B Has better thermal stability
C Has higher input impedance D All of these

based on the following statements .
(A) When a photoconductor device is exposed to light,its bulk resistance increases.
(R) When exposed to light, electron hole pair are generated in the photoconducive device.
A B
(A) A PN junction diode is used as a rectifier
(R) A PN junction diode has low resistance in forward direction and high resistance in reverse direction.
A B

36
(A) Intrinsic semiconductor is an insulator at 0 degree Kelvin.
(R) Fermi level in intrinsic semiconductor is in the centre of forbidden energy band.
A B
(A) When a high reverse voltage is applied to a p-n junction the diode breaks down.
(R) High reverse voltage causes avalanche effect.
A B
(A) In n-p-n transistor conduction is mainly due to electrons.
(R) In n type materials electrons are majority carriers.
A B
39
(A) The amount of photo electric emission depends on the intensity of incident light.
(R) Photo Electric emission can occur only if frequency of incident light is less than threshold frequency.
A B
40
(A) In intrinsic semiconductor the charge concentration increases with temperature.
(R) At higher temperatures, the forbidden energy gap in semiconductors is lower.
A B

41
(A) In p-n-p transistor ,collector current is termed negative.
(B) in a p-n-p transistor holes are majority carriers.
A B
(A) A Hall effect is used to find the type of semiconductor.
(R) When a semiconductor carrying current I lies in a magnetic field , the force on electrons and holes is
in opposite directions.
A B
43
(A) In a BJT, the base region is very thick.
(R) In p-n-p transistor most of holes given off by emmiter diffuse through the base.
A B
44 The voltage between the emitter and collector of a silicon transistor when the transistor is
biased to be at the edge of saturation is:
A 5 volts. B 10 volts.
C 0.1 volts. D 0.3 volts.

45 In a transistor switch, the voltage change from base-to-emitter which is adequate to accomplish the
switching [for silicon transistor] is only about
A 0.2 V. B 5V
C 0.1 V D 0.5 V.
46 The cut-in voltage of the aluminium n-type Schottky diode is about
A 0.5 V. B 0.5 V .
C 0.35 V. D 0.35 mV.

47 Which of the following has highest conductivity ?

A copper B Aluminium
C cast iron D Mild steel

48 For a NPN BJT transistor to be in saturation mode:
A VE< VB, VC< VB B VE< VB, VC > VB
C VE> VB, VC< VB D VE> VB, VC > VB

49 Which of the following statements best describes a forward biased silicon diode?
The current through diode is exponentially

A B The voltage acrosss diode is 0 V
related to the diode voltage.
The current through diode is of the form m
C The current through diode is 0 A. D
Vd, where m is contant and Vd diode voltage
50 Which of the following statement is correct?
(1 ) A P-channel MOSFET uses a n-type substrate or well
(2) Conduction in a MOSFET channel is primarily due to Majority carriers
A only 1 B only 2
C both 1 and 2 D None of these

51 When a BJT is operates under cut-off condition
A Both junctions are forward biased B Both junctions are reverse biased
C CB in forward biased and EB is reverse biased D None of these

52
Which is true about LASER diode?
LASER means Light Amplification by stimulated

A B It is monochromatic coherent light source
emission of radiation
C very small dimension D All of these
53 The types of carriers in a semiconductor are
A 1 B 2
C 3 D 4
54 The number of protons in a silicon atom is
A 32 B 28
C 14 D 4
55 The most commonly used semi conductor material is
A Silicon B Germanium
C Mixture of silicon and Germanium D None of these

56 Holes act like

A Poitive charges B neutral atoms
C Negative charges D crystals

57 Eddy current loss is
A Proportional to frequency B independent of frequency
C Proportional to ( frequency)2 D None of these

58 In an n type semiconductor
A Number of free electrons and holes are equal B Number of free electrons is greater than number of holes
Number of free electrons is less than number
C D none of these
of holes
59 If for a transistor is 0.98, is equal to
A 52 B 49
C 48 D 46
60 Consider two well designed npn bipolar junction transistors , QA and QB. They are otherwise identical
except base of QA is doped twice as heavily as the base of QB. The base emitter diode saturation current
in Ebers Moll model, IES in transistor QA will be
A Same as QB B Less than QB
C Greater than QB D None of these

61 Which of the following statements are correct:
(1) Input impedance of a MOSFET is higher than that of a JFET.
(2) In MOS transistor, triode region is the saturation region.
(3) GaAsP LED produces light in visible region
A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3
C 2 and 3 D 1, 2 and 3
62 The number of valence electrons in a donor atom is
A 2 B 3
C 4 D 5
63 BJT acts like a switch by operating between these two regions:
A cut-off and saturation B cut-off and active
C saturation and active D None of these

64 The power dissipation in transistors is the product of
A Emitter current and VBE voltage B Emitter current and VCE voltage
C Collector current and VCE voltage D None of these

65 For a N type MOSFET , substrate is----------- type
A P type B N type
C P type or N type depends on fabrication D none of these

66 Most Negative characteristics of CMOS logic family is
A High power dissipation B Latch Up
C low speed D None of these

67 polysilicon can be doped by
A Diffusion B Implantation
C Addition of dopant gases during deposition D All these three methods

68 Resistivity of implanted polysilicon primarily depends on
A Implant dose B anneling temperature
C anneling time D All these three

69 The merging of a hole and an electron is called
A Recombination B thermal bonding
C covalent bonding D None of these

70 When a voltage is applied to a semiconductor crystal,the free electron will flow
A towards positive terminal B towards negative terminal
either towards positive terminal ortowards

C D none of these
negative terminal
71 Which diode is used at microwave frequncies?
A Varactor diode B zener diode
C schottky diode D PIN Diode

72 Which is the charactristic of FET
A It is an unipolar device B Govern by majority and minority carrier
C Low input resiatance D None of these

73
At sufficiently high temperatures some electrons acquire enough kinetic energy to escape from metal surface. This is called
A Thermionic emission B secondary emission
C Field emission D Photoelectric emission.

74 In BJT which current is the smallest?
A Collector current B Base current

C Emitter current D Collector current and emitter current.
75 Which device converts solar radiation into electrical energy?
A LED B Photo voltaic device
C LDR D None of these

1 What is total AM transmitter power if carrier power 100W modulated with modulation index
m=0.7
A 149W B 170W
C 124.5W D 135W
2 What is percentage power saving if AM transmitter with modulation index m=0.5 is replaced
by SSBSC transmitter with same modulation index
A 83.30% B 94.40%
C 96% D 88.88%
3 In television 4:3 represents
A Interlace ratio B Form factor
C Aspect Ratio D None of above

4
To permit selection of 1 out of 32 equiprobable events, number of bits required is
A 32 B 8
C 5 D 4
5 Value of Intermediate frequency (IF) for FM receiver is
A 455 KHz B 10.7 MHz
C 70 MHz D 118.7 MHz

6 Amplitude limiter is used in FM receiver because
A It limits audio signal B It prevents overloading
C It removes distortions D It removes amplitude variations

7 Which circuit is used in FM receiver but not in AM Receiver
A RF ampliier B Mixer
C Amplitude limiter D AGC

8 Demerits of balance slope detector for FM receiver
A Poor linearity B No amplitude limiting
C Tuning is difficult D All of above

9 AM receiver is tuned to 600 KHz with quality factor Q=100, IF value 455 KHz. Image rejection in
dB
A -20dB B -30dB
C -35.5dB D -46.5dB
10 Crystal oscillator can be used in
A Varactor diode modulator B Transistor reactance modulator
C Armstrong modulator D FET reactance modulator

11 Bit rate is ___________ Baud rate in QPSK system
SUBJECT CODE: 4.09 1/25 PGCET

A equal to B three times
C two times D less than

12 What is the separation of phasors in 8-PSK system?
A 900 B 45
0
C 22.50 D 150
13 Number of possible symbols in QAM system are
A 2 B 4
C 8 D 16
14 Muting (squelch) circuit is basically
C Level activated switch D Frequency converter circuit

15 Double conversion receiver has
A Two RF amplifier stage B Two IF
C Two detectors D Two audio amplifier stage

16 Sampling rate required to sample CD quality audio signal is .
A 8000 samples/sec B 16000 samples/sec
C 20000 samples/sec D 44100 samples/sec

17 Oversampling results into .
A Large transmission bandwidth B More transmission power
C Low SNR D Distorted speech

18 Synchronization is necessary in
A PAM system B PWM System
C PPM System D None of above

19 Nyquist bandwidth required to transmit information signal with bandwidth 10 KHz coded with
total 128 quantization levels is
A 1280 Kbps B 140 Kbps
C 70 Kbps D 64 kbps
20 Companding is used to
A Save transmission bandwidth B Remove noise
C Achieve uniform SNR for all amplitudes D Achieve amplitude limiting
21 Uplink frequency range for GSM-900 band is
A 890-915 MHz B 935-960 MHz
C 890-960 MHz D 890-910 MHz

22 Duplex distance for GSM-1800 band is

A 45 MHz B 95 MHz
C 25 MHz D 50 MHz
23 Following is not component of GSM architecture.
A Main switching center B Base station controller
C Master station controller D Base trans receiver

24 If PN chip rate is 30x105 and message bit rate is 1000, Processing gain of DSSS system is ..
A 3000 B 6000
C 30000 D 60000
25 Frequency range of Ku Band is
A 2 GHz - 4 GHz B 4 GHz - 8 GHz
C 8 GHz - 12 GHz D 12 GHz - 18 GHz

26 What is the cut-off frequency of ractangular waveguide having dimension 1.5cm x 1 cm in
dominant mode TE10.
A 1 GHz B 5 GHz
C 10 GHz D 15 GHz
27 Data rate at the output of GSM speech codec is
C 13 kbps D 2.2 kbps

28 CELP Speech coder is based on .
A Waveform coding B Parametric coding
C Channel coding D Hybrid coding

29
Improvement in SNR of uniform PCM system if 9 bit is used instead of 8 bit in quantization
A 1 dB B 3 dB
C 6 dB D 12 dB
30 In adaptive delta modulation
A Step size is variable B Slope over load error eliminated
C Granular noise is less D All of above

31 The spectral density of real valued random process has
A an even symmetry B a conjugate symmetry
C an odd symmetry D no symmetry

32 The stationary process has
All Statistical properties dependent on

A Ensemble average equal to time average B
time

All statistical properties independent of
C D Zero variance
time
33 A random process obeys Poisson's distribution. It is given that the mean of the process is 5.
Then the variance of process is ..
A 0 B 0.5
C 1 D 5
34 Thermal noise is independent of
A Temperature B Center frequency
C Bandwidth D Boltzmann's constant

35 A system has receiver noise resistance of 50 . It is connected to an antenna with input
resistance of 50 . Noise figure of the system is ..
A 1 B 2
C 0 D None of above
36 Calculate output SNR in dB for three identical links. SNR of one link 60 dB
A 57 dB B 180 dB
C 51.23 dB D 55.23 dB
37 Positive RF peak of AM signal rise to 12V and drop to minimum value of 4V. Modulation index
is
A 0.25 B 0.33
C 0.5 D 0.66
38
Resonant frequency of RF amplifier is 1 MHz, bandwidth is 10 KHz. Q factor will be .
A 0.1 B 10
C 50 D 100
39 Balance modulator is used to generate
A AM Signal B DSBSC Signal
C PM Signal D PWM Signal

40 Maximum modulating frequency in AM system increases from 10 KHz to 20 KHz, Modulation
index ..
A doubled B halved
C remains constant D increase by 10

41 Primary function of multiplexing in communication system
To select one radio channel from a wide To allow a number of signals to make
A B
range of transmitted channels use of a single communications
channel
To match the frequency range of a
C To reduce the bandwidth of a signal. D
signal to a particular channel.
42 Optical fiber uses ______ portion of Electromagnetic waves
A UHF B Ultraviolet
C Between Infrarred and Ultraviolet D Infrarred
43 Glass fiber has core refractive index n1=1.5 and cladding refractive index n2=1. Multipath
dispersion would be . (c=3x10 8 m/s)
A 2.5 ns/m B 2.5 S/m
C 5 ns/m D 5 S/m
44 In CDMA systems
Entire bandwidth is used on time

A Entire bandwidth can be used at a time B
sharing basis
Entire bandwidth is divided into narrow
C D None of above
bands
45 Following is not usual classification of optical fiber
A Single mode step index B Multi-mode step index
C Multi-mode graded index D Single mode graded index

46
The energy gap Eg of PIN Photo detector should be _____photon energy of light (h f)
A Equal to B Smaller than
C Greater than D Independent of

47
Numerical aperture (NA) and acceptance angle of fiber optic cable related by equation
A NA=sin B NA=tan
-1
C NA=sin D NA=(1-sin2)1/2
48 What is total SSB transmitter power if carrier power 10W modulated with modulation index
m=0.5
A 0.625 W B 1.25 W
C 2.5 W D 5W
49 What is total SSB transmitter power if carrier power 10W modulated with modulation index
m=0.5
A 0.625 W B 1.25 W
C 2.5 W D 5W
50 Cluster of cells is the collection of adjacent cells with
A Same operating spectrum B Different operating spectrum
C both A & B D None of above
A Case 1 has more SIR B Case 2 has more SIR

C Case 1 and Case 2 has equal SIR D No effect of N on SIR
A Case 1 has more channel capacity B Case 2 has more channel capacity

Case 1 and Case 2 has equal Channel
C D No effect of N on channel capacity
capacity
53 In AM systems if modulation index increases from 0.5 to 0.75
A Bandwidth increases by 1.5 B Bandwidth decreases by 1.5
C Bandwidth remains constant D None of above
54 In FM system, if modulation index increases from 5 to 10 .
A Transmission power doubles B Transmission power halved
C Transmission power 1.41 times D Remains same
55
In GSM system 5 MHz bandwidth is allocated to network operator, Assuming frequency reuse
factor 1/5, maximum number of simultaneous channels that can exists in one cell is
A 15 B 25
C 40 D 200
56 The main objective of cell in cellular mobile system is
A hand-off possibilities B frequency resue
C simple modulation requires D higher bandwidth

57
Which of following mobile systems is second generation mobile communication system?
A AMPS B GSM
C IMT-2000 D NAMTS
58 Basic purpose of cell splitting in GSM mobile systems is ..
A Reduce handoffs B Reduce channel capacity
C Increase channel capacity D Reduce bandwidth requirement
59 Frequency reuse ratio in mobile communication is given by
A Q=R/D B Q=RxD
2
C Q=D/R D Q=D/R
60
A cellular system has 12 macrocells with 10 channels per cell. Each macro cell is splitted into 3
microcells. Find out total available channels after splitting
A 40 B 120
C 360 D 30
61 Major development under the way in the field of telecommunications..
A Data & Voice convergence B Fixed and mobile convergence
C Internet D Satellite communication
62 One of following is not part of 2.5G technologies in mobile communication
A GPRS B EDGE
C CDMA2000 1xRTT D IS95
63 Which one of following enhances data capability of 2G mobile network?
A TACS B GSM
C GPRS D ISDN
64 Population inversion phenomenon found in
A LED B Photodiode

C LASER D FET
65 Optical fiber having core refractive index n1=1.4 and cladding refractive index n2=1.05. Its
numerical aperture will be
A 0.926 B 0.8
C 0.35 D 0.15
66 Normalized frequency of step index fiber is 28 at 1300 nm wavelength. What are total app.
number of guided mode supported by fiber?
A 50 B 100
C 200 D 400
67 The SAFER+ algorithm is used to provide security in which wireless
technology?
A Bluetooth B ZigBee
C UWB D WiMAX
68 Which numbers appear in the International Mobile Equipment Identity
(IMEI)?
A Mobile Country Code B Mobile Network Code
C Equipment Serial Number D None of above

69 The term STN (Super Twisted Nematic) refers to _________.
A The layered structure of the display B The nature of the liquid crystal itself
C The control signal applied to the display D The application of display backlighting
70 Disadvantage of STN (Super Twisted Nematic) is .

A Consumes more power B Operates slowely
C Higher cost D Less life time
71
For random variable x, probability density function p(x) is given by:
p(x)=1/2 for -1 x 1 and p(x)=0 otherwise. Mean and variance respectively .
A 1/2 and 2/3 B 1 and 2/3
C 1 and 4/3 D 2 and 4/3

72
Probability density function of the envelope of narrowband Gaussian noise is
A Rayleigh B Poisson
C Gaussian D Rician
73 Spectral density expresses .
A Average voltage B Average current
Average power as a function of
C Average frequency D
frequency
74 Aperture effect in flat top pulses is reduced by using
A Integrator B Differentiator
C Predictor D Equalizer

75 In PCM system, quantization noise depends on
A Sampling interval B Number of quantization levels

C Frequency of information signal D None of above
76 In PCM system, sampling rate is determined by
A Parsevals Theorem B Nyquist Theorem
C Fourier Transform D Hysenberg Theorem

77 Frequency range of telephonic quality speech is
A 20 Hz to 20 KHz B 500 Hz to 10 KHz
C 300 Hz to 3.4 KHz D 300 Hz to 5 KHz

78 Range of Very High Frequency (VHF) is
A 3-30 MHz B 30-300 MHz
C 300-3000 MHz D 3-30 GHz

79
Process of transmitting two or more information signals on same channel is called
A Modulation B Multiplexing
C Detection D Telemetry
80 Which one of the following requires synchronizing signal?
A PPM B PWM
C PAM D All of above

81 Quantization noise occurs in
A PWM B PPM
C PCM D AM
82 Which one of following system is digital?
A PAM B PWM
C PCM D AM
83 Which one of following pulse modulation system is analog?
A PWM B PCM
C DM D ADM
84 In delta modulation, granular noise occurs when modulating signal
A remains constant B increases rapidly
C decreases rapidly D None of above

85 For uniform quantization, 32 levels can be represented by
A 4 bit B 5 bit
C 8 bit D 32 bit

86 In QAM system following both identity are varied
A Amplitude and frequency B Frequency and phase
C Amplitude and Phase D Baud rate and phase

87 In PCM systems, if transmission path is long.
A High power transmitter are used B Sensitive receivers are used
C Repeaters are used D Pulse amplitude increases

88 An amplifier having noise figure of 20 dB and available power gain of 15 dB followed by mixer
circuit having noise figure of 9 dB. The overall noise figureas referred to input in dB is
A 21.53 B 11.07
C 10.44 D 0.63
89 A parallel tuned circuit is resonated with 200 MHz with Q of 10 and capacitance of 10 pF.
Temperature of circuit is 17 0 C. What is noise voltage observed across circuit by wideband
voltmeter?
A 1 V B 2 V
C 8 V D 16 V
90
What is the relation between Noise Bandwidth and 3-dB bandwidth in ideal systems?
C BN =0.5* B3dB D BN = 0.5**B3dB

91
What is the relation between Noise Bandwidth and 3-dB bandwidth in Low pass filter?
C BN =0.5* B3dB D BN = 0.5**B3dB

92 What is internal noise power (Pn) of microwave amplifier operating with a bandwidth of 500
MHz and noise figure of 2.5 dB?
A 0.5 pW B 0.557 pW
C 1 pW D 1.557 pW
93 Noise voltage source has resistance of 10 . Its power density spectrum is 0.24x10 -5.
Corresponding available power density is ..
A 2.6x10-5 B 0.025
C 26x10-5 D 6x10-8
94 If resistance value doubled and temperature maintained at constant level, available thermal
noise power per unit bandwidth will
A remains constant B Increase two times
C Increase four times D Decrease to half

95 What will be thermal noise voltage developed across resistor of 10 . The Bandwidth of
measuring instrument is 1 MHz. Ambient temperature 27 0 C
A 0.40 V B 1.28 V

C 0.16 V D 1.19 V
96 Which one of following is suitable detector to detect information signal from modulated signal
(5+10cosmt)coswct
A Envelope detector B Synchronous detector
C Ratio detector D None of above

97 Plot of modulation index versus carrier amplitude in FM yields .
A Horizontal line B Vertical line
C Parabola D Hyperbola
98 Image rejection in superheterodyne receiver occurs at ..
A RF Stage B Mixer Stage
C IF stage D Detector stage

99 Modulation index of AM wave changes from 0 to 1, transmitter power
A Increase by 100% B Increase by 50%
C Increase by 25% D Does not change

100 Which one of following modulation scheme requires minimum bandwidth and minimum
power?
A VSB B SSBSC
C DSBSC D AM
101 For FDM systems used in telephone, which of the following system used
A AM B FM
C SSB D DSBSC
102
1 MHz sinusoidal carrier is amplitude modulated by symmetrical square wave of period 100 S
. Which of the following frequencies will not present in the modulated signal?
C 1020 KHz D 1030 KHz

103
1 MHz sinusoidal carrier is amplitude modulated by sine wave of period 100 S for one cycle .
Which of the following frequencies will not present in the modulated signal?
C 1010 KHz D 1020 KHz

104 In amplitude modulation system, total power is 600 W and power of carrier is 400 W.
Modulation index is
A 0.25 B 0.5
C 0.75 D 1
105 Carrier is amplitude modulated by three message signal with modulation index 0.2, 0.4 and 0.5
What is total modulation index?

A 1.1 B 0.67
C 0.55 D 0.25
106 Total rms antenna current of AM radio transmitter is 6 A. It reduces to 5 A when modulating
signal is removed. What is modulation index?
A 0.94 B 0.83
C 0.69 D 0.33
107 AM signal has carrier power 1 KW. In each sideband, there is 200 Watt. What is modulation
index?
A 0.201 B 0.404
C 0.8 D 0.894
108
In low level amplitude modulation, amplifier following modulated stage must be ..
A Non-linear amplifier B Linear amplifier
C Class C amplifier D Harmonic amplifier

109 FM signal with modulation index 10 is passed through frequency tripler, output signal have
modulation index
A 3.33 B 10
C 30 D 10
110 Bandwidth of FM signal does not depends on
A Modulating frequency B Carrier frequency
C Maximum amplitude of modulating signal D Peak frequency deviation
111 Following problem will occur if we keep value of IF too high in receiver
A Poor adjacent channel rejection B Poor sensitivity
C Tuning is difficult D Poor fidelity

112 Following diode is used in AM detector circuit
A Silicon diode B Point contact diode
C Tunnel diode D PIN diode

113 Standard bandwidth of IF amplifier in FM receiver is ..
A 10.7 MHz B 50 KHz
C 100 KHz D 200 KHz

114 Basic reason behind linearity of phase discriminator is
Primary to secondary phase relation

A Tuned circuit is used B
ship is linear
C RFC is used D Parallel combination of RC
115 Following FM detector uses large capacitor to achieve amplitude limiting
A Diode detector B Phase discriminator

C Ratio detector D PLL Detector
116
UHF 900MHz frequency band is used in cellular mobile communication because.
Good Sky wave Propogation at 900

A Below 900 MHz, band is not avialable B
MHz.
Line of sight and reflected signal ensure the

C D None of above
reception at mobile handset
117 GSM cellular mobile communication system uses
A CDMA and FDMA B FDMA and TDMA
C Only FDMA D Only TDMA

118 WLAN services uses
Long distance communication at high data Short distance communication at high

A B
rate data rate
Long distance communication at low data Short distance communication at low
C D
rate data rate
119 As per IEEE 802.11g standard WLAN devices which are 50 meter apart can send and receive
data up to .
A 64 kbps B 2 MBPS
C 11 MBPS D 54 MBPS
120 GPRS is.
Circuit switched and packet switched Packet switching for mobile users for
A B
service data transfer
C Voice telephony services D useful for sending SMS
121 UMTS offers data speed
384 kbps on move and 2.048 Mbps on 64 Kbps on move and 1 Mbps on
A B
stationary stationary
2.1 MBPS on move and 8 MBPS on
C D None of above
stationary
122 IEEE 802.16 WiMAX standard offers maximum data rate .
A 2 MBPS B 8 MBPS
C 54 MBPS D 75 MBPS
123 Bluetooth module communicates using .
A transmitter B receiver
C radio module D transponder

124
IEEE 802.15.1 Bluetooth system has typical frequency hop rate of ______ hops per second
A 512 B 800
C 1600 D 3200

125 IEEE 802.11 WLAN physical layer with 2 MBPS with base band modulation DSSS uses carrier
modulation scheme _____________.
A BPSK B QPSK
C DQPSK D QAM
126 The size of file transferred in 10 seconds using WLAN system operating at 2Mbps considering
ideal transfer data rate.
A 2 MB B 2.5 MB
C 10 MB D 20 MB
127
Which technology is used by IEEE 802.15.1 WPAN standard to separate piconets
A DSSS B OFDM
C FHSS-CDMA D FHSS-TDMA
128 In close loop power control, base station sends power control messages to mobile handset at
every .
A 1 ms B 10 ms
C 100 ms D 500 ms
129 WCDMA uplink uses spreading factor up to .
A 16 B 32
C 64 D 512
130 Data modulation used in WCDMA for reverse channel is
A BPSK B QPSK
C DQPSK D QAM
131 WCDMA uses chip rate of .
A 2 Mcps B 8 Mcps
C 3.84 Mcps D 16 Mcps

132 Voice encoding technique used in WCDMA
A LPC B RELP
C Adaptive CELP D DPCM

133 Maximum EIRP for class-III mobile phone in WCDMA is
A +23 dBm B +13 dBm
C +9 dBm D +3 dBm
134 After spread spectrum modulation, bandwidth of spreaded signal
A remains constant B increases
C increases significantly D decreases

135 Minimum Eb/No value required for proper system operation depends on ..
A Performance of coding method B Bit error rate

C Tolerance of digitised voice D All of these
136 CDMA IS-95 technology uses one of following multiple access technique
A FDMA B FHSS
C DSSS D THSS
137 In DSSS system, code rate is 48 Mcps and information signal rate 4.8 Kbps, Processing gain in
dB is
A 4.8 dB B 48 dB
C 40 dB D 60 dB
138 In FHSS system total bandwith is 500 MHz, individual channel bandwidth is 5 KHz. What is
processing gain in dB?
A 5 dB B 50 dB
C 4 dB D 40 dB
139 Each carrier of CDMA IS-95 carrier occupies bandwidth of
A 200 KHz B 600 KHz
C 1.25 MHz D 10 MHz

140
Once link with nearest base station is established in CDMA, open loop power setting is
adjested in 1 dB increments after every ______ by command from base station.
A 1 second B 1.25 second
C 10 ms D 1.25 ms
141 MAHO is implemented in mobile communication in order to
A reduce co-channel interference B reduce transmission power
C reduce intercell interference D reduce near-far problem

142
Which one out of following offers high spectrum efficiency with constant amplitude ?
A FSK B QPSK
C GMSK D QAM
143 The frequency hoping system used in GSM allows to change transmission frequency once in
every ______ .
A 1.25 ms B 120 ms
C 4.615 ms D 125 s
144 Modulation data rate in GSM is .
C 64 kbps D 2 Mbps
145 Spectrum efficiency in GSM is .
A 1 bps/Hz B 1.35 bps/Hz

C 2 bps/Hz D 4 bps/Hz
146 Grey list in mobile communication means
Mobile numbers are not allowed

A Mobile numbers are VIP B
permanantly
Mobile numbers are not allowed
C D Mobile purchased without bills
momentarily
147 Broadcast Control Channel (BCCH) is by BTS to broadcast .
A Frequency of operation in cell B Channel availability
C Congestion information D All of above

148 The number of time slots available per RF channel in GSM system is ..
A 3 B 4
C 8 D 16
149 The standard interface that connects BTS to BSC is called
A Um Interface B A-bis
C A D D
150 The difference in free space propagation loss between two location 2 km and 8 km from
transmitter is
A 3 dB B 6 dB
C 12 dB D 15 dB
151 Wireless medium compared to wired medium
Quite reliable for voice and data Not reliable for voice and data
A B
communication communication
C Offers more bandwidth D Requires less power
152 In mobile radio propagation path loss exponent is
A 2 B 3
C 4 D 5
153 Cellular network is reconfigured with frequency reuse pattern of 7 instead of 4. Increase in
overall system capacity is approximately
A 28 times B 7 times
C 4 times D 1.7 times

154 Cells using same set of frequencies are called
A neighbouring cells B adjacent channel cells
C cochannel cells D Clusters

155
The distance between the centers of two hexagonal cells, if radius of cell is 2 km
A 3 B 23

C 43 D 4
156 Mobile communication system is designed with cell size of 2 km 2. Cluster size N=7. What is will
be area of one cluster?
A 3.5 km2 B 7 km2
2 2
C 14 km D 143 km
157 Service area is covered with 10 clusters each having 7 cells in it. 16 channels are assigned to
each cell. The number of channels per cluster are ..
A 1120 B 112
C 70 D None of above
158
Mobile communication system has an allocated number of 1000 voice channels. If service area
is divided into 20 cells with a frequency reuse factor of 4. System capacity is .
A 1000 B 5000
C 10000 D 20000
159 In regular hexagonal geometry pattern, the number of cells in cluster formed by i=2 and j=2
are .
A 4 B 8
C 12 D 16
160
Propagation considerations recommends cell shape _____________ and for system design cell
shape used is ______________.
A circular, circular B circular, hexagonal
C hexagonal,hexagonal D hexagonal, circular

161 If cell site antenna height is doubled, there will be
A Reduction in path loss by 6 dB B Reduction in path loss by 3 dB
C Reduction in path loss by 12 dB D No change in path loss

162 In wireless communication, transmitter power is 10W. Transmitter antenna gain is 3 dB. EIRP
is.
A 10 W B 20 W
C 30 W D 3.33 W
163 PLL can be used to demodulate
A AM B FM
C PM D PCM
164
Two sinusoids of same amplitude and frequencies of 10 KHZ and 11 KHz are added together
and applied to ideal frequency detector. Output of the detector is .
A 21 KHz sinusoid B 1 KHz sinusoid
C 210 KHz sinusoid D 1.1 KHz sinusoid

165 In commercial FM broadcasting, modulating frequency is limited to ..
A 3.4 KHz B 5 KHz
C 15 KHz D 20 KHz
166 Modulating frequency in FM is increased from 10 KHz to 20 KH, bandwidth
A Gets doubled B Does not change
C Increase by 20 KHz D Increase by 10 KHz

167 In single tone FM discriminator, So/No is
A proportional to deviation B proportional to cube of deviation
C inversely proportional to deviation D Proportional to square of deviation
168 If modulating frequency is 20 KHz and peak frequency deviation is 50 KHz. Bandwidth of FM
signal as per Carson's rule is .
A 40 KHz B 90 KHz
C 140 KHz D 200 KHz
169 Following is not advantage of FM over AM system
A Noise immunity B Fidelity
C Capture effect D Sputtering effect

170 A sinusoidal signal with peak to peak amplitude 1.536 is quantized in 128 levels using mid-rise
uniform quantizer. Quantization noise power is
A 0.12 V2 B 0.012 V2
C 0.0012 V2 D 0.000012 V2
171 Standard data rate of PCM for 30 channels is ..
A 64 KBPS B 2.048 MBPS
C 4 MBPS D 8 MBPS
172 The SQR for PCM if sinusoidal signal is quantized using 10 bit
A 48 dB B 56.8 dB
C 64 dB D 67.78 dB
173 Pulse stuffing is used in
A Synchronous TDM B Asynchronous TDM
C Any TDM D None of above

174 With compare to PCM system, delta modulation requires
A lower sampling rate B low bandwidth
C simple hardware D better SNR

175 Following is not ideal requirement from line codes
A Transmission bandwidth B large DC component

C Favourable PSD D Timing recovery
176
Which one of following line code has no DC component and clock recovery property?
A Manchestor B NRZ
C RZ D None of above
177 Which of the following gives maximum probability of error?
A ASK B BFSK
C BPSK D DPSK
178
Output SNR of matched filter, fed at its input by a ractangular pulse of amplitude A and
duration T is given by _________ considering N as noise PSD
2
A 2AT/N B 2A T/N
C AT D A/N
179 Main circuit used in DPSK modulator is
A AND gate B OR gate
C Ex-NOR gate D NAND gate

180
In digital communication system employing FSK, 0 is represented by sine wave of 10 KHz and 1
is represented by 25 KHz. These waveforms are orthogonal for bit interval of .
A 45 s B 50 s
C 200 s D 250 s
181 For a bit rate of 8 kbps, best possible values of transmitted frequencies in a coherent binary
FSK systems are
A 32 KHz and 40 KHz B 8 KHz and 12 KHz
C 20 KHz and 40 KHz D 16 KHz and 20 KHz

182 ASK, FSK and PSK are examples of
A Analog transmission of data B Digital to analog converter
C Analog to Digital convertor D Analog modulators

183 Correlation receiver consists of
A Adder and integrator B Multilier and integrator
C Mutiplier and differentiator D Addre and differentiator

184 Baud rate of QPSK system is 100 then bit rate is
A 800 B 400
C 200 D 100
185 In digital communication system, the delay spreading along with fading causes _________and
hence limits maximum symbol rate.

A Multipath fading B Doppler effect
C higher bit rate D Intersymbol interference

186
Two main reasons for rapid fluctuations of the signal amplitude in mobile communication are ..
A Reflection and refraction B diffraction and scattering
C Multipath fading and doppler effect D Blocking and shadowing
187 The average delay spread due to fading in urban area is ______
A <0.1 s B 0.5 s
C 3 s D 5 s
188 A base station transmitter is operating at 900 MHz carrier frequency. Mobile moving at speed
of 72 km/hr in a direction perpendicular to direction of arrival of signal. The receiver carrier
frequency is
A 899.99 MHz B 900.00006 MHz
C 900 MHz D 900.03 MHz

189 Following channel passes all spectral components with approximately equal gain and linear
phase without distortion.
A Rayleigh fading channel B Rician fading channel
C Frequency selective channel D Flat channel

190
Due to presence of object between transmitter and receiver, following will happen.
A Scattering B Reflection
C Shadow fading D Doppler effect

191 Rayleigh fading channel model characteristics is not applicable to
Multiple indirect path between transmitter

A B No distict line of sight path
and receiver
C Direct line of sight path D None of above
192 In wireless communication system, transmitter and receiver stations are located at distance of
10 km. transmission delay of signal typically
A 3.33 s B 33.3 s
C 333.3 s D 3 ms
193 Optimal ration between the number of fixed and dynamic channels in hybrid channel
assignment mainly depends on
A Availability of channels B Blocking probability
C Traffic characteristics D System overheads

194 Cell site transmitter power incerases by 3 dB that means
A Transmitter power doubles B Transmitter power four times
C Transmitter power 1000 times D None of above

195 Radius of split cell is one half of oringinal cell. Coverage area of split cell is __________ the
coverage area of original cell.
A Half B Double
C one fourth D Four times

196 In a flat operating terrain, doubling cell site antenna height results into ..
A 3 dB increase in gain B 6 dB increase in gain
C 9 dB increase in gain D 8 dB increase in gain

197
Modem uses 4 different amplitudes and 16 different phases. Bits used to transmit each symbol
are
A 4 B 5
C 6 D 8
198 Overall handoff delay in Mobile assisted hand off is about
A 5 to 10 second B 2 to 5 second
C 1 to 2 second D less than 1 second

199
Minimum required C/I is about _________ for narrowband digital cellular systems.
A 3 dB B 6 dB
C 9 dB D 12 dB
200 If calling rate average is 20 calls per minute and average holding time is 3 minutes then offered
traffic load in Erlang is .
A 6.66 B 30
C 60 D 360
201 One of following is not related to cyclic code.
A Error detection is simple B Look up table is required

C Code is powerful and efficient D All of above
202 Binary symmetric channel transmitting 1's and 0's with equal probabilties has an error rate of
0.01. Channel transmission rate will be ...
A 0.9 B 0.909
C 0.99 D 0.92
203 For telephonic quality speech channel, calculate information capacity of the telephone channel
for SNR of 30 dB
A 64 KBPS B 32 KBPS
C 33.89 KBPS D 16 KBPS

204 If receiver knows the message being transmitted by the transmitter, amount of information
communicated is .
A 8 bit B 4 bit
C 1 bit D 0

205 What is amount of information in binary PCM with equal likelihood ?
A 8 bit B 4 bit
C 1 bit D 0
206
A source produces four symbols x1,x2,x3 and x4 with probabilities 0.5, 0.25,0.125 and 0.125
respectively. Amount of information carried by symol x1 and x2 is
A 1 bit for both x1 and x2 B 2 bit for both x1 and x2
C 1 bit for x1 and 2 bit for x2 D 2 bit for x1 and 1 bit for x2
207
What is amount of information conveyed by symbol Z in bit ,if its probability is 0.25
A 0.25 B 5
C 1 D 2
208 Entropy of message source generating 4 messages with probabilities 0.5, 0.25, 0.125 and 0.125
is
A 1 bit/message B 1.75 bit/message
C 2 bit/message D 4 bit/message
209
Capacity of communication channel with a bandwidth of 4 KHz and 15 dB SNR is
C 20.11 kbps D 32.40 kbps

210 In T1 systems, the frame synchronization code repeats at every
A 1 s B 64 s
C 125 s D 625 s
211 Matched filter output over (0,T) to pulse waveform is
A e-T B e-Tsin(ht)
C e-Tsin(t) D e-T/2sin(2ht)
212 Intersymbol Interference can be reduced by following
Transmit sinc pulses instead of ractangular By using suitable pulse shaping

A B
pulses techniques.
C By reducing data transmission rate D All of above

213 Transversal equalizer uses tapped delay line to
A Reduce ISI B Reduce data rate
C Reduce bandwidth D None of above

214
Eb/No at the receiver input should be larger than ________ in order to recover error free data
at receiver output. Eb=Received Signal and No/2 is power spectral density.
A 0 dB B 3 dB

C -1.59 dB D 1.33 dB
215
RC load for diode detector consists of a 1000 pF capacitor in parallel with 10 k, maximum
modulation depth that can be handled for sinewave of 10 KHz to avoid diagonal peak clipping.
A 0.25 B 0.5
C 0.85 D 0.9
216 HDTV has aspect ratio
A 4:3 B 16:9
C 9:16 D 3:4
217 As per new HDTV standard formats number of scan lines are
A Interlace scan mode 1080 B Progressive scan mode 780
C Both A and B D None of above

218 In 1080i HDTV system, nummber of pixels in each line are ..
A 786 B 1280
C 1920 D 2400
219 What is the approximate frequency limit of copper wire
A 1 MHz B 40 GHz
C 100KHz D 10 GHz
220 Following circuit is used to generate PPM from PWM signal
A Astable multivibrator B D-Flip flop
C Monostable multivibrator D Schmit trigger

221
What will be minimum storage requirement according to Nyquist theorem to store audio
signal of 20Hz-15KHz with 8 bit quantization for the duration of 1 minute?
A 1.2 MB B 1.8 MB
C 30 KB D 64 KB
222 Data rate of one speech channel in LPC-10 vocoder is ..
A 2.4 kbps B 4 kbps
C 8 kbps D 16 kbps
223 Total 12 telephone quality speech channels are time division multiplexed using DPCM
technique. Total transmission rate will be..
C 256 kbps D 384 kbps

224 Following hardware is used for pulse shaping
C Transversal filter D All of above

225 HDMI Cable used in modern LCD/LED TV provides
A Digital Connection B Carries video signal
C Carries audio signal D All of above
226 Equalizer is used to ..
A Reshape incoming pulses B Boost high freq components
C To boost low freq components D Amplify incoming pulses

227 Gaussian filter is used in GMSK technique to
To achieve smooth phase transitions of To reduce bandwidth requirement for

A B
carrier transmission.
To achieve zero ISI at decision making
C D All of above
instant of neighboring pulse
228 Following parameter is not coded in the LPC-10 vocoder
A Pitch B Gain
C Sample value D Voice/Unvoiced determination

229 How many samples are there in 40 ms frame of telephone quality speech ?
A 160 B 200
C 320 D 400
230
Following circuit is not used in detecting information from the PPM signal
A Low pass filter B Bistable multivibrator
C Amplifier D Monostable multivibrator

231 If we increase number of quantization levels in PCM system..
Large bandwidth required for

A We get good SNR B
transmission
C More bits required to represent information D All of above
232 If we increase sampling rate in the PCM system ..
A Transmission bit rate will increase B Storage requirement will increase
C No possibility of aliasing error D All of above

233 Following is not handshaking signal for RS232 serial communication
A RTS B Strobe
C CTS D DTR
234 Mean quantization noise in PCM system if sine wave of peak to peak amplitude of 16 volt is
quantized with 4 bits.
A 0.0833 B 0.05
C 0.5 D 4

235 Adaptive delta modulation is used to
Remove slope overload and threshold

A Reduce transmission rate B
error
C Dynamic sampling rate D All of above
236 Sigma-Delta modulation is used to
Increase correlation between adjacent

A Pre-emphasize low frequency content B
samples
C Simplify receiver design D All of above
237 Following is not criteria for spread spectrum system..
Bandwidth of transmitted signal must be SNR should increase as bandwidth

A B
large enough increase
Bandwidth expansion factor should be

C D None of above
independent of message signal
238
Relation between channel capacity C and bandwidth B can be given by equation
A SNR = 7.78 + 20logC B C=2Blog10(1+SNR)
C C=2Blog2(SNR) D C=Blog2(1+SNR)
239
Noise generator is electronic model of speech generation system represents
A Vowels B Voiced sound

C Unvoiced sound D Pitch
240 10 Speech channels are multiplexed using TDM then separation between two frame of speech
will be .
A 12.5 S B 125 S
C 1250 S D None of above

241
Number of scanning lines and trace time per line in CCIR-B Television system used in India is
A 625 lines, 52 S B 525 lines, 53 S
C 625 lines, 64 S D 525 lines,12 S

242
One time slot of a TDMA frame in GSM standard contains ____ bits encrypted data
A 156.25 B 114
C 57 D 26
243 One slot of TDMA frame in GSM standard contains total ___ bits
A 156.25 B 114
C 57 D 26
244
Following database at MSC keeps information about identity of mobile phone equipment

A HLR B VLR
C EIR D AuC
245 Effects of fading is distributed to improve signal quality by technique ..
A Speech coding B Channel coding
C Bit interleaving D Equalisation

246
Following type of technique suitable for bursty type traffic in form of packets
A PRMA B TDMA
C FDMA D CDMA
247 Antenna gain in desired direction at cell site can be maximized by ______
A Omnidirectional antenna B Parabolic antenna
C Switched beam antenna D Dish antenna

248 To mitigate problem of ISI in TDMA system ________ technique is used
A Source encoding B Channel coding
C Interleaving D Channel Equalisation

249
In M-ary coding system, signaling rate Rs=1/Ts and data rate Rb=1/Tb are related as:
A Ts=Tblog2M B Ts=TbxM
C Ts=2Tblog10M D Rs=Rblog2M
250 Scrambling is done to achieve
A To help synchronization B To make data pattern random
C To remove long string of 1s and 0s D All of above

1 A microwave terrestrial link of 30 km long is operating at 4GHz with radiated power of 100 W
through a parabolic disk having maximum gain of 50 dB. The receiver uses similar antenna. The
free space loss is
A 50 dB B 100 dB
C 134.1 dB D 143.1 dB
2 A microwave terrestrial link of 30 km long is operating at 4GHz with radiated power of 100 W
through a parabolic disk having maximum gain of 50 dB. The receiver uses similar antenna. The
received power is
A 15.9 dBm B 25 dBm
C 134.1 dBm D 32.5 dBm
3 The resonant frequency of rectangular cavity of dimension s a= 5cm, b=4 cm ,d= 2.5 cm for
TE110 mode is
A 4.80 GHz B 6.71GHz
C 7.08 GHz D 8.08 GHz
4 The resonant frequency of rectangular cavity of dimension s a= 5cm, b=4 cm ,d= 2.5 cm for
TM101 mode is
A 4.80 GHz B 6.71GHz
C 7.08 GHz D 8.08 GHz
5 A rectangular wave guide of cross section 5 cm X 2 cm is used to propagate TM11 mode at 10
GHz. Its characteristic impedance is
A 377 ohm B 75 ohm
C 222 ohm D 300 ohm
6 A rectangular wave guide of cross section 5 cm X 2 cm is used to propagate TM11 mode at 10
GHz. Its cut off wavelength is
A 2.5 cm B 10 cm
C 3.7 cm D 4 cm
7 The diagonal elements of Scattering matrix are zero for
A Reciprocal network B Perfect match network
C Loss less junction D Phase shifter
8 The scattering matrix having Sij =Sji (ij) is
9 For any loss less network the sum of the products of each term of any row or of any column of
the S-matrix multiplies by its complex conjugate is unity. It is the property for
10 Quarter wave coaxial cavity is equivalent to the
A Series resonant circuit B Parallel resonant circuit
C Inductor circuit D Capacitor circuit
11 Half wave coaxial cavity is equivalent to the
A Series resonant circuit B Parallel resonant circuit
C Inductor circuit D Capacitor circuit
1 Q. = ?
A 1A B 2A
C 3A D 4A
2 Consider the circuit graph shown in figure below. Every branch of circuit
graph has a non-zero resistive element. The voltage drops of some
voltage is
branches are shown as per the branch resistance. Find out the value of
A - 30 V B 25 V
C - 20 V D 15 V
3 = ?
A 11.86 B 10
C 25 D 11.18
4 A capacitor is charged by a constant current of 2 mA and results in a
voltage increase of 12 V in a 10 sec interval. The value of capacitance is
A 0.75 mF B 1.33 mF
C 0.6 mF D 1.67 mF

If the Laplace transform of a signal y(t) is
=

5 then its final
value is
A -1 B 0
C 1 D unbounded
Page 1 of 24
6 The RC circuit shown in the figure is a
A low pass filter B high pass filter

C band pass filter D band reject filter
7 For the circuit shown in the figure, the Thevenin voltage and resistance
looking into X Y are
A 4/3 V, 2 B 4 V, 2/3
C 4/3 V, 2/3 D 4 V, 2
8 If the unit step response of a network is 1 , then its unit impulse

response is
A B
C 1 D 1
9 In the circuit shown below, the value of RL such that the maximum power
transferred to RL is
A 5 B 10
C 15 D 20
10 Consider a delta connection of resistors and its equivalent star connection
as shown below. If all elements of the delta connection are scaled by a
factor k, k> 0, the elements of the corresponding star equivalent will be
scaled by a factor of
A B
1

C D
Page 2 of 24
11 For a periodic signal v (t) = 30sin100t + 10cos300t + 6 sin(500t + p / 4) ,
the fundamental frequency in rad/s is
A 100 B 300
C 500 D 1500

12 The transfer function for the circuit shown below is
0.5 + 1 3 +2
+1 +2
A B
+2 +1
+1 +2
C D
13 A source $% & = $ '(3)& has an internal impedance of 6 + +7 - . If a

purely resistive load connected to this source has to extract the maximum
power out of the source, its value in should be
A 6.00 B 9.22
C 7.32 D 13.0
14 For parallel RLC circuit, which one of the following statements is NOT
correct?
A The bandwidth of the B The bandwidth of the circuit
circuit deceases if R is remains same if L is increased
increased
C At resonance, input D At resonance, the magnitude
impedance is a real of input impedance attains its
quantity minimum value
15 A series RLC circuit has a resonance frequency of 1 kHz and a quality
factor Q = 100. If each of R, L and C is doubled from its original value, the
new Q of the circuit is
A 25 B 50
C 100 D 20
16 The minimum number of equations required to analyze the circuit shown
in Figure below is
A 3 B 4
C 6 D 7
Page 3 of 24
17 The differential equation for the current i(t) in the circuit given below is
. ' .' . ' .'

2 + 2 + '& = sin & 2 + 2 + 2'& = 23 &
A B
.& .& .& .&
. ' .' . ' .'
2 + 2 + '& = 23 & 2 + 2 + 2'& = sin &
C D
.& .& .& .&
18 The Laplace transform of sin4& + 5 is
sin 5 + 4 cos 5 sin 5 4 cos 5
+ 4 + 4
A B
cos 5 + 4 sin 5 sin 5 4 cos 5

+ 4 4
C D
The inverse Laplace transform of the function 8 = is

9:
19
A sin 4& B 4 sin 4&
1 1
sin 4& 23 4&
4 4
C D
20 The Laplace transform of & ; is

1 1
+< <
A B

1 1
+ < <
C D

The inverse Laplace transform of the function 8 =

9
9
21 is
1 1
1 + 1
2 2
A B
1 1
1 + 1 +
2 2
C D
The Laplace transform of '& is given by = =

, as & the
9
22
value of the '& tends to
A 0 B 1
C 2 D
23 The magnitude of the transfer function
8 =
@9A
9@9A
A increases with increase in B decreases with decrease in
frequency frequency
C has some relation with the D is independent of the
frequency frequency
Page 4 of 24
B% = C% + +D% delivers a maximum average power to a load impedance
24 An independent voltage source in series with an impedance
BE when
A BE = C% + +D% B BE = C% +D%
C BE = C% D BE = +D%
25 'F = ?
A 0.6 A B 0.5 A
C 0.3 A D 0.4A
26 A network has 8 nodes and 5 independent loops. The number of branches
in the network is
A 11 B 12
C 8 D 6
27 A branch has 6 nodes and 9 branches. The independent loops are
A 3 B 4
C 5 D 6
28 GHI = ? <(. CHI =?
A 2 V, 4 B 4 V, 4
C 4V,5 D 2 V, 5
29 JKL = ?
A 3.5 F B 1.2 F
C 2.4 F D 2.6 F
Page 5 of 24
Page 6 of 24
30 In the circuit of figure dependent source
A supplies 16 W B absorbs 16 W
C supplies 32 W D absorbs 32 W
31 Consider the following circuits :
The planner circuits are

A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3
C 3 and 4 D 4 and 1
32 A tree of the graph shown in figure is
A adeh B acfh
C afgh D aefg
33 The directed graph will be
A B
C D
Page 7 of 24
If the number of branch in a network is M, the number of nodes is ( and
the number of dependent loop is N, then the number of independent
34
(+N1 M1
node equations will be
A B
C M(+1 D (1
35 Branch current and loop current relation are expressed in matrix form as
where 'O represent branch current and 'P loop current. The rank of
incidence matrix is
A 4 B 5
C 6 D 8
36 G =?
A 0.4G B 1.5G
C 0.67G D 2.5G
37 G; =?
A -11 V B 11 V
C 3V D -3 V
Page 8 of 24
38 GF =?
A 1V B 1.5 V
C 4V D 6V
39 GHI = ? <(. CHI =?
A -2 V, 6/5 B 2 V, 5/6
C 1 V, 5/6 D -1 V, 6/5
40 In the circuit of figure given, the value of R, for which it absorbs maximum
power, is
A 4 B 3
C 2 D none of the above

41 The natural response of an RLC circuit is described by the differential
equation
R S RS RST
R
+ 2 R
+1=0 G0 = 10 <(. R
=0
Then G& is
A 101 + & $ B 101 & $
C 10 $ D 10& $
42 '& =?
A 20 23 300& + 68.2 W B 20 23 300& 68.2 W
C 2.48 23 300& + 68.2 W D 2.48 23 300& 68.2 W
Page 9 of 24
43 GX & =?
A 0.89cos 10Z t 63.43 V B 0.8923 10Z & + 63.43 $
C 0.4523 10Z & + 26.57 $ D 0.4523 10Z & 26.57 $
In the bridge shown in figure, B = 300 -, B = 300 +600 -,

B = 200 + +100 - then B] at balance is
44
A 400 + +300 - B 400 +300 -

C +100 - D +900 -
current are G& = 60 + 66 '( 10Z & $,

45 In a two element series circuit, the applied voltage and the resulting
'& = 2.3 '( 103 & + 68.3 W.

The nature of the elements would be
A R-C B L-C
C R-L D R-R
46 B =?
A + 1.5 + 1
B
+3 +1
+ 1 + 1
C 2 +3 +2 D 2 +3 +2
+ 1 2 + 1
Page 10 of 24
47 B =?
A + +1
B 2
+ +1
+ 1 + 1
+ 1 + 1
2 +2 +1 +2 +1
C D
48 B =?
A
+ +1 B + 1
+ 1 +2 +1
2 + 1
+ 1
+2 +1
C D
+2 +1
49 A resistance of 10 is connected in one branch of a network. The current
in the branch is 2A. If this 10 resistor is replaced by a 20 resistance the
current in this branch
A may be more or less than B will be less than 2A
2A
C will be more than 2A D none of these
50 When a negative converter with conversion ratio k is terminated through

an impedance ZL the equivalent element at the input terminal is
A k ZL B k 2 ZL
C -k ZL D -k2/ ZL
51 Reciprocity theorem is applicable to a network
1. Which contains R,L and C as elements
2. Initially relaxed system
3. Which has both independent and dependent sources
the correct combination is
A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3
C 2 and 3 D 1,2 and 3
52 Give the correct relation
A B = _ a B B = _ c

C B = _ c D B = _ c
Page 11 of 24
53 The B <(. B parameters of the given network are
A 8 , 7.55 B 13 , 9
C 12 , 8.5 D None of the above
Page 12 of 24
54 For network given below and are
A 5 , -2/3 B 3.4 , -2/5
C 3.4 , -3/5 D None of the above

55 A parallel resonant circuit has a resistance of 2k and half power
frequencies of 86 kHz and 90 kHz. The value of capacitor is
A 6 F B 20 nF
C 2 nF D 60 F
frequencies of 86 kHz and 90 kHz. The value of inductor is
A 4.3 mH B 43 mH
C 0.16 mH D 1.6 mH
frequencies of 86 kHz and 90 kHz. The value of quality factor is
A 22 B 100
C 48 D 200
58 A parallel resonant circuit has a mid-band admittance of 25 e 10Z f,

quality factor of 80 and a resonant frequency of 200 krad/s. The value R is
A 40 B 56.57
C 80 D 28.28
59 A parallel resonant circuit has a mid-band admittance of 25 e 10Z f,
quality factor of 80 and a resonant frequency of 200 krad/s. The value C is
A 2 F B 28.1 F
C 10 F D 14.14 F
60 A parallel RLC circuit has R = 1 k and C = 1 F. The quality factor at
resonance is 200. The value of inductor is
A 35.4 H B 25 H
C 17.7 H D 50 H
61 A parallel circuit has R = 1 k, C = 1 F and L = 10mH. The quality factor at
resonance is
A 100 B 90.86
C 70.7 D none of the above
Page 13 of 24
62 A series resonant circuit has an inductor L = 10 mH. The resonant frequency
0 = 106 rad/s and bandwidth is BW = 103 rad/s. The value of R and C will be
A 100 F, 10 B 100 pF, 10
C 100 pF, 10 M D 100 F, 10 M
63 A series resonant circuit has L = 1 mH and C = 10 F. The required R for the
BW 15. 9 Hz is
A 0.1 B 0.2
C 15.9 m D 500
64 For the RLC parallel resonant circuit when R = 8 k, L = 40 mH and C

= 0.25 F, the quality factor Q is
A 40 B 20
C 30 D 10
65 Bode diagram of the network function Vo/Vs for the circuit of figure is
A B
C D
66 h21 = ?
A -3/2 B 1/2
C -1/2 D 3/2
Page 14 of 24
67 Leq = ?
A 4H B 6H
C 7H D 0H
68 Leq = ?
A 2H B 4H
C 6H D 8H
69 Leq = ?
A 8H B 6H
C 4H D 2H
70 Leq = ?
A 0.4 H B 2H
C 1.2 H D 6H
71 Leq = ?
A 1H B 2H
C 3H D 4H
Page 15 of 24
72 Leq = ?
A 0.2 H B 1H
C 0.4 H D 2H
73 Leq = ?
A 1H B 2H
C 3H D 4H
74 In the circuit of figure below = 2 rad/s. The resonance occurs when C is
A 1F B 1/2 F
C 1/3 F D 1/6 F
75 In the circuit of figure the maximum power delivered to RL is
A 250 W B 200 W
C 150 W D 100 W
76 The condition for reciprocity of a two port network having different

parameters are
1. h12 = - h21
2. g12 = - g21
3. A = D
Choose the correct combination
A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3
C 2 and 3 D 1,2 and 3
Page 16 of 24
77 Millmans theorem is applicable when the sources are connected in
A parallel B series
C series and parallel D any configuration
78 Maximum power transfer theorem finds application in
A power circuits B distribution circuits

C communication circuits D power and communication
circuits
79 To find the current in a resistance connected in one branch of a network,
Thevenins theorem is used. VTH = 20V and RTH=5 . The current in the
resistance is
A 4A B 4 A or less
C less than 4 A D more or less than 4 A
80 A step voltage E is applied to an R-L circuit. The rate of change of current
is maximum at
A t=0 B R/L
C L/R D infinity
81 A step voltage E is applied to an R-L circuit. At t=0 the current in the
circuit is
A E/R B zero
C infinity D E/L
82 In an RC circuit excited by a step voltage E, the current t=0 is
A E/R B E/C
C zero D infinity
83 In an R-L-C series circuit the value of resistance which corresponds to
g/J
critical damping is
A B ig/J
C 1 D 2
ig/J ig/J
84 A series R-L-C circuit is critically damped. If the value of R is increased
A the response will become B the response will become
underdamped underdamped or overdamped
C the response will become D the response will remain the
A series R-L circuit is excited by a voltage G& = $ such that

overdamped same
= C/g. Then the current in the circuit is

85
C $
& &
g g
A B
$ &
& &
C g
C D
Page 17 of 24
86 A unit impulse voltage j& M is applied to an inductance L. The current
1
through the inductor is given by
1 k& M
g
A B
j& M
g
ij& M &
& M
g
C D
87 A unit impulse voltage j& M is applied to a capacitance C. The voltage
1
across the capacitor is given by
1 k& M
J
A B
j& M
J
C Jj& M D Jk& M
through an inductance is '0 . In the s domain the circuit element L will

88 An R-L-C series circuit is connected to a step voltage E. The initial current
be replaced by
a current source '0 .

A an impedance sL B an impedance sL in series with
a voltage source g '0 .

C an impedance sL in series D an impedance sL in series with

with a source '0 .
E

89 In a series R-L-C circuit the Q factor is given by
1 g g
l Cl
A B
C J J
J 1 J
Cl l
C D
g C g
90 The impedance parameter z21 is
A transfer impedance at B transfer impedance at port 1
port 1 with port 2 open with port 2 short circuited
circuited
C transfer impedance at D transfer impedance at port 2
port 2 with port 1 open with port 1 short circuited
circuited
91 For a symmetrical network
A h11 = h22 B h12 = h21
C h11 h22 - h12 h21 = 0 D h11 h22 - h12 h21 = 1
92 For a network of the given figure, the impedance parameter matrix is
BF Bn BF + B; BF
B; + BF p q
m BF + Bn o BF BF + Bn
A B
BF B;
B + B; BF Bn + B; BF
p F q p q
BF B; + Bn BF BF + Bn
C D
Page 18 of 24
93 Which of the following is correct
s s
r = r =
|s| |s|
A B
r r
s = s =

|r| |r|
C D
94 For symmetrical network

A z11 = z22 B z12 = z21
C z11 = z22 and z12 = z21 D z11 z22 - z12 z21 = 0
95 The convolution of a function u& with the unit impulse function j& is
A j& B u& j&

C u& D uv j&
96 The impulse response of a system where transfer function is given as

9 9
is
1 1

2 2
A B
C D (3( 3u & <M3G

97 The final value of the function
8 = w 9@x 9T 9 is
Z9
A 1 B 2
C 0 D infinity
98 Transfer function of an electrical low-pass RC network is

CJ 1
1 + CJ 1 + CJ
A B
CJ
1 + CJ 1 + CJ
C D
99 A coil with certain number of turns has a specified time constant. If the
number of turns of the coil is doubled, its time constant would
A remain unaffected B become doubled
C become four-fold D get halved
100 Consider the following statements.
The coefficient of coupling between two coils depends upon
1. Orientation of the coils
2. Core material
3. Number of turns on the two coils
4. Self inductances of the two coils
Of these statements
A 1,2 and 3 are correct B 1 and 2 are correct
C 3 and 4 are correct D 1,2 and 4 are correct
Page 19 of 24
Page 20 of 24
A unit impulse j& is mathematically defined as
101 Consider the following statements.
1. j& = 0 & 0
{
2. zT9 j& .& = 1
{
3. z{ j& .& = 1
Of these statements
A 1,2 and 3 are correct B 1 and 2 are correct
C 2 and 3 are correct D 1 and 3 are correct
Given 8 = 9 the initial and final values of u& will be

102 9
respectively
A 1,2 B 2,1
C 1,1 D 2,2
103 The pole-zero configuration of an impedance function is given in the
figure
The network is
A R-L realizable B R-C realizable
C L-C realizable D R-L-C realizable
104 Under conditions of maximum power transfer from an a.c. source to a
variable load
A the load impedance must B the sum of source and load
also be inductive, if the impedance is zero
generator impedance is
inductive
C the sum of source and D the load impedance has the
load reactance is zero same phase angle as the
source impedance
105 Consider the voltage waveform shown in the figure
The equation for G& is

A k& 1 + k& 2 + k& 3 B k& 1 + 2k& 2 + 3k& 3
k& + k& 1 + k& 2 k& 1 + k& 2 + k& 3
+ k& 4 3k& 4
C D
Page 21 of 24
106 When a number of 2-port networks are cascaded , the individual
A B|n matrices are added B _n matrices are added
C chain matrices are D h-matrices are multiplied
multiplied
107 The realization of the reactance function
]} 9~ 9
B =
9]
Requires a minimum of
A 4 inductors and 4 B 3 inductors and 1 capacitors
capacitors
C 1 inductors and D 2 inductors and 2 capacitors
1 capacitors and 1 resistor
108 In a two port network, the condition for reciprocity in terms of h-
parameters is
A h12 = h21 B h11 = h22
C h11 = -h22 D h12 = -h21
A transient current in a network is '& = 2 , & 0

The pole-zero configuration of = is
109
A poles at 1,5 B poles at -1,-5

zeros at 9 zeros at -9
C poles at 2,-1 D poles at 2,-1
zeros at -1,-5 zeros at 1,5
110 A step voltage is applied to an underdamped series RLC circuit with
variable R. which of the following statements correctly describe the
behavior of the circuit?
1. If R is increased, the transient oscillations wil die down faster
2. If R is increased, the frequency of transient oscillations across C
will be reduced
3. If R is reduced, the steady state voltage across C will be reduced
4. If R is reduced to be zero, the peak amplitude of the voltage
across C will be double the input step voltage.
Select the correct answer
A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3
C 2 and 4 D 1,3 and 4
111 In the case of RC driving point functions

A ZRC cannot have a pole at B ZRC cannot have a pole at
infinity origin
C YRC cannot have a pole at D ZRC and YRC are constant or
infinity zero at infinity
112 An initially relaxed 100 mH inductor is switched ON at t=1 sec with an
0.2 j& $
ideal 2A D.C. current source. The voltage across the inductor would be
A zero B
C 0.2 j& 1 $ D 0.2 & k& 1 $
Page 22 of 24
113 An impulse response of an R-L circuit is
A rising exponential function B decaying exponential function
C step function D parabolic function
. r .r
114 A second order system is given by
+ 12 + 100r = 0
.& .&
The damped natural frequency in rad/sec is
A 100 B 10
C 40 D 8
115 A series circuit R,L and C is excited by a step voltage input. The voltage
across the capacitance exhibits oscillations. The damping coefficient
C C
(ratio) of this circuit is given by
= =
A B
2gJ gJ
C C
= =
C D
J g
2 2
J
g
116 For an RC driving point impedance function, the poles and zeros
A should alternate on real B should alternate only on the
axis negative real axis
C should alternate on the D can lie anywhere on the left
imaginary axis half plane
117 The ideal transformer cannot be described by
A h parameters B ABCD parameters
C g parameters D z parameters
118 A step function voltage is applied to an RLC series circuit having R = 2,
L = 1 H and C = 1F. The transient current response of the circuit would be
A overdamped B critically damped
C underdamped D can be any of the three

; , the function is

119 The Laplace transform of a function
A sin 4& B ;
C k& < D cos <&
120 The poles with greater displacement from the real axis correspondence
A higher frequencies of B stable response
oscillations
C lower frequencies of D unbounded output
oscillations
Page 23 of 24
121 If a system has some poles lying on the imaginary axis, it is
A unconditionally stable B conditionally stable
C unstable D marginally stable
122 In a network, if the ratio of response transform to excitation transform is
invariant to an interchange of their positions, then the network is said to
be
A linear B bilinear
C bilateral D reciprocal
123 A series RLC circuit is overdamped when
C 1 C 1
> =
A B
4g gJ 4g gJ
C 1 C=
<
C D
4g gJ
For the Laplace transformed function gu& = 9]9 , R & = 0 =?
124 Z9 R
A 10 A B 5A
C zero D 2/3
125 If the roots of the characteristic equation moves towards the origin along
the radial line connecting it with the origin. Then
A damping ratio increases B damping ratio decreases
C damping ratio and D damping ratio remains

damping frequency of unaltered and damping
oscillations decreases frequency of oscillations
decreases
Page 24 of 24

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Gujarat PGCET Question Bank EC

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1 What is total AM transmitter power if carrier power 100W modulated with

modulation index m=0.7

A Interlace ratio B Form factor

C Aspect Ratio D None of above

A 455 KHz B 10.7 MHz

C 70 MHz D 118.7 MHz

A It limits audio signal B It prevents overloading

C It removes distortions D It removes amplitude variations

C Amplitude limiter D AGC

A Poor linearity B No amplitude limiting

C Tuning is difficult D All of above

A Varactor diode modulator B Transistor reactance modulator

C Armstrong modulator D FET reactance modulator

A equal to B three times

C two times D less than

A Low pass filter circuit B High pass filter circuit

C Level activated switch D Frequency converter circuit

A Two RF amplifier stage B Two IF

C Two detectors D Two audio amplifier stage

A 8000 samples/sec B 16000 samples/sec

C 20000 samples/sec D 44100 samples/sec

A Large transmission bandwidth B More transmission power

C Low SNR D Distorted speech

A PAM system B PWM System

A Save transmission bandwidth B Remove noise

A 890-915 MHz B 935-960 MHz

C 890-960 MHz D 890-910 MHz

A Main switching center B Base station controller

C Master station controller D Base trans receiver

A 2 GHz - 4 GHz B 4 GHz - 8 GHz

C 8 GHz - 12 GHz D 12 GHz - 18 GHz

C 13 kbps D 2.2 kbps

A Waveform coding B Parametric coding

C Channel coding D Hybrid coding

A an even symmetry B a conjugate symmetry

C an odd symmetry D no symmetry

A Temperature B Center frequency

C Bandwidth D Boltzmann's constant

A AM Signal B DSBSC Signal

C PM Signal D PWM Signal

C remains constant D increase by 10

A Single mode step index B Multi-mode step index

C Multi-mode graded index D Single mode graded index

C Greater than D Independent of

A hand-off possibilities B frequency resue

C simple modulation requires D higher bandwidth

C Equipment Serial Number D None of above

A 1/2 and 2/3 B 1 and 2/3

C 1 and 4/3 D 2 and 4/3

C Fourier Transform D Hysenberg Theorem

A 20 Hz to 20 KHz B 500 Hz to 10 KHz

C 300 Hz to 3.4 KHz D 300 Hz to 5 KHz

A 3-30 MHz B 30-300 MHz

C 300-3000 MHz D 3-30 GHz

C PAM D All of above

A remains constant B increases rapidly

C decreases rapidly D None of above

A Amplitude and frequency B Frequency and phase

C Amplitude and Phase D Baud rate and phase

C BN =0.5* B3dB D BN = 0.5**B3dB

C BN =0.5* B3dB D BN = 0.5**B3dB

C Increase four times D Decrease to half

A Envelope detector B Synchronous detector

C Ratio detector D None of above