1.

Which of the following reagent is useful for separating aniline from mixture of aniline
and nitrobenzene?
1) NaOH(aq) 2) H2O(aq) 3) NaHCO3(aq) 4) HCl(aq)

2. When a solution of aliphatic amine is treated with NaNO2 in HCl, effervescence is

observed due to
1) CO2 2) NO2 3) N2 4) H2
3. The C-NH2 bond in acetamide is 0.1Ao shorter than C-NH2 bond in ethyl amine. Why
1) N:N repulsion in ethyl amine
2) Hyperconjugation in ethylamine
3) Dipole interactions in acetamide
4) P- interactions in acetamide
4. A C5H13N compound gives a base soluble derivative in the hinsbergs test. Which of the
following best satisfy this condition?
1) N, N diethyl propyl amine 2) Isopropyl dimethyl amine
3) 2,2 dimethyl propyl amine 44) N-methyl-2-methyl propyl amine
5. Which of the following reagent cannot be used for differentiating propanamine from N-
methyl butanamine?
1) CHCl3/KOH 2) p-CH3-C6H4-SO2Cl 3) CS2/HgCl2 4) CH3COOH
6. Ethyl isocyanide on hydrolysis in acidic medium generates
1) Ethylamine salt and methanoic acid
2) Propanoic acid and ammonium salt
3) Ethanoic acid and ammonium salt
4) Methylamine and ethanoic acid
7. Gabriel phthalimide
8. Hofmann bromamide
9. basicity
10. basicity
11. Racemic mixture is obtained due to haogentaion of
1) n-pentane 2)isopentane 3) neopentane 4) both a and b
12. The reaction of SOCl2 on alkanols to form alkyl chorides gives good yields because
1) Alkyl chlorides are immiscible with SOCl2
2) The other products of the reaction are gaseous and escape out
3) Alcohol and SOCl2 are soluble in water
4) The reaction does not occur via intermediate formation of an alkyl chlorosulphite
13. What is the major product of the reaction?

Mg , dryether HCHO
H 3O

3-bromopentane
1) 2-ethyl-1-pentanol
2) 2-ethyl-1-butanol
3) 3-pentanol
4) 3-methyl-1-pentanol
14. Which of the following alkyl halides cannot be converted into grignards reagent
1) CH3I 2) C6H5Br 3) HOCH2CH2CH2Cl 4) CH3OCH2CH2CH2Cl
15. Which one is liquid at room temperature?
1) CH3Cl 2)C2H5Cl 3)CH3Br 4) C2H5Br
16. Which statement is true about SN2 mechanism?
1) The rate of the reaction increases on increasing strength of the nucleophile
 2) The reaction is faster in polar aprotic solvents
3) The rate of the reaction increases as the leaving group ability increases
4) All the above
17. Which of the following would react most rapidly with sodium ethoxide to produce an
ether?
1)Chlorobenzene 2) 2-nitrotoluene 3) p-nitrochlorobenzaldehyde 4)
m-(chloromethyl)-toluene
18. Which of the following statements is/are true for SN1 reactions
I. The rate of SN1 reaction depends on concentration of alkyl halide
II. The rate of SN1 reaction depends on concentration of nucleophile
III. SN1 reactions of alkyl halides are favoured by non-polar solvents
1) Only I 2) only II 3) Only III 4) both I and III
19. Which of the following alkyl halides can produce only a single alkene product when
treated with sodium methoxide?
1) 2-chloro-2-methyl pentane 2) 3-chloro-3-ethyl pentane 3) 3-chloro-2-
methyl pentane 4) 2-chloro-4-methyl pentane
20. In an aprotic solvent , which relative ordering best describes the nucleophilicity of the
halide ions?
1) Iodide > bromide > chloride > fluoride
2) Iodide > bromide > chloride > fluoride
3) Iodide < bromide < chloride < fluoride
4) Iodide < bromide < chloride < fluoride
21. In SN1 reaction, racemisation occurs if the reaction occurs at a stereogenic centre,
however 50:50 mixture of enantiomers are rarely obtained, why?
1) Usually one enantiomer is more stable than other
2) Retention of configuration is always favoured
3) Hydroxylic solvent favour retention of configuration
4) There is steric hinderance to the approach of nucleophile from the front side as
some of the leaving group are not departed completely whoch favour inversion of
configuration
22. Iodoform can be prepared from all except
1) Ethyl methyl ketone 2) isopropyl alcohol 3) 3-methyl -2-butanone
4) isobutyl alcohol
23. Which of the following pair of compounds can be used as starting material in the
synthesis of 2-phenyl-2-pentanol
1) CH3-(CH2)2-CH2Br and C6H5COOH
2) (CH3)2CHCH2Br and PhCOCH3
3) PhBr and CH3CH2CH2COCH3
4) PhBr and (CH3)2CHCH2COCCH3

24. Which of the following doesnot give effervescence when added to ethanol?
1) CH3MgBr 2) NaH 3) NaNH2 4) NaHCO3
25. Which compound given below has the highest solubility in water
1) CH3OH 2) CH3CH2OH 3) HO-CH2-CH2-OH 4) HO-
CH2CH(OH) CH2OH
26. Which of the following can be used for the distinction between ethanol and phenol
1) NaHCO3 2) Na 3) CH3MgBr 4) NaOH
27. Which is the most appropriate reagent for the following oxidation reaction?

CH3-CH=CH-CH2OH CH3-CH=CH-COOH
1) KMnO4/H2SO4 2) KMnO4/NaOH 3) CrO3/HCl/Pyridine 4)
CrO3/Acetone /H2O
28. Which of the following is true statement regarding reaction of cis and trans 2-hexene
with CH3OH/H+?
1) Both reacts at same rate
2) Cis isomer reacts faster than trans isomer
3) Both cis and trans isomers give mixture of positional isomers as the major product
4) Both a and c
29. Which reagent can best distinguishes 3-pentanol and 3-methyl -3-pentanol
1) I2/NaOH 2) KMnO4/NaOH 3) HIO4 4) CrO3/H2SO4
30. The correct statement regarding 3-ethyl-3-hexanol
1) It changes color of CrO3/H2SO4
2) It is oxidised on heating with copper metal, producing ketone
3) It gives yellow precipitate with NaOH/I2
4) It changes colour of ceric nitrate from yellow to red
31. Which is the best reaction for preparation of t-butyl ethyl ether
32. The major product formed in the following reaction
33. The best set of reagents for the following transformation is
34. Which of the following be the best reagent to convert compound A to B
35. An unknown alcohol is treated with Lucas reagent to determine whether the alcohol is
primary , secondary, tertiary. Which alcohol reacts fastest and what mechanism?
1) Secondary alcohol by SN1 2) Tertiary alcohol by SN1 3) secondary alcohol
by SN2 4) tertiary alcohol by SN2
36. From amongst the following alcohols the one that would react fastest with conc.HCl
and anhydrous ZnCl2 is
1) 2-butanol 2) 2-methyl propan-2-ol 3) 2-methyl propanol 4)
1-butanol
37. In the following sequence of reactions , the compound D is
38. An optically active organic compound has molecular formula C5H12O(X). X on
oxidation with CrO3/H2SO4 gives an achiral C5H10O. Hence X could be
39. Which reagent below cannot reduce an acid chloride to an aldehyde
1) Pd/BaSO4 2) Li[{(CH3)3CO}3AlH] at -80oC 3) Na/C2H5OH4)
[HAl{CH2CH(CH3)2}2] at -80oC
40. Which of the following will give racemic mixture on reduction with NaBH4 followed
by acid work up?
1)

41. Which of the following on reaction with excess NaHSO3 in aqueous solution will give
mixture of salts which can be separated into two fractions by fractional crystallisation
42. Which is the most suitable reagent for the following transformation?
43. Which carbonyl compound below gives the reddish orange precipitate with 2.4 DNP
44. In hexane-2,4 dione , how many different mono-enols are possible
45. In which of the following compounds , enol form exist?
46. Consider the following aldol condensation reaction ,
47. The incorrect statement regarding aldol condensation is
 1) It accomplishes the formation of a new C-C bond
2) The enolate is favoured at equilibrium
3) The key step in the mechanism of base catalysed reaction is attack of alpha carbon
of an enoalte ion on the carbonyl carbon
4) Dehydration of aldol gives alpha, beta unsaturated carbonyl compound
48. Which of the following could result as a product in the aldol condensation
1) 4-methyl -3-penten-2-one 2) 4-methyl -4-penten-2-one 3) 4-methyl
5hexen-2-one 4) 3-methyl -4-hexen-2-one
49. What is the major product in the following reaction
50. For a cannizaros reaction

R-CHO + NaOH
K [ RCHO ]2 [ HO ]2
Rate law is derived as: Rate =
From the above rate law , it can be concluded that
1) Reaction is pseudo 2nd order
2) Reaction involves hydride ion transfer
3) Reaction doesnot show kinetic isotopic effect
4) Hydride ion is dianion
51. Which of the following reagent differentiate between benzaldehyde and acetophenone
[ Ag ( NH 3 ) 2 ] NaOH / I 2 [Cu ( NH 3 ) 4 ]2 both 1 and 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
52. Reagent that can differentiate 2-propanol from acetone is
NaOH / I 2 [ Ag ( NH 3 ) 2 ] [Cu ( NH 3 ) 4 ]2
1) 2) 3) Ce(NO3)4 4)

53. Which of the following is the best description of the mechanism of the reaction between
a ketone and an amine to form an imine ?
1) Concerted bimolecular substitution
2) Nucleophilic addition followed by elimination
3) Elimination followed by nucleophilic addition
4) Electrophilic addition followed by rearrangement
54. An organic compound X produces Y in the first step of oxidation which on further
oxidation gave an acid . Y on treatment with ammonical silver nitrate gave a black ppt.
X is likely to be
1) Primary alcohol 2) tertiary alcohol 3) ethanal 4) 2-propanone
55. Cyclohexanone on ozonolysis followed by reaction with Zinc dust and water gives
compound E. Compound E on further treatment with aqueous KOH yields compound F.
Compound F is
56. Which of the following is highly unstable than other at cooking temperature?
1) Alitame 2) sucralose 3) Aspartame 4)
Cyclamates
57. The forces involved in holding the drugs to the active site of enzymes
1) Hydrogen bonding 2) dipole dipole interactions 3) vanderwaals forces
4) All of the above
58. Which of the following is not a broad spectrum antibiotic?
1) Tetracycline 2) oflaxacin 3) chloramphenicol 4)Pencillin
59. Veronal and luminal are derivatives of barbituric acid which are
 1) Tranquilizers 2) non narcotic analgesics 3) antiallergic drugs 4)
neurologically active drugs
60. Which of the following statements are correct
A) Cationic detergents have germicidal properties
B) Bacteria can degrade the detergents containing highly branched chains
C) Some synthetic detergents can give foam even in ice cold water
D) Synthetic detergents are not soaps
1) A, C 2) A, B, C 3) A, C, D 4) A, D
61. The two -aminoacids which form a dipeptide which is 100 times sweet than cane sugar
are?
1)Aspartic acid and alanine 2) Aspartic acid and phenyl alanine
3) glutaric acid and alanine 4) glutaric acid and phenyl alanine
62. Terylene contains ---------------linkage
1) Glycosidic linkage 2) Ester linkage 3) amide linkage 4)
phosphodiester linkage
63. Which of the following monomers form biodegradable polymers?
A) 3-hydroxy butanoic acid + 3-hydroxy pentanoic acid
B) Glycine + aminocaproic acid
C) Ethylene glycol + phthalic acid
D) Caprolactum
1) A, B 2) C, D 3) A, C 4) B, D
64. The monomer of Neoprene is
1) Isoprene 2) 2-chlorobutene 3) chloroprene 4) 2-
chlorobutane
65. The increasing order of intermolecular forces of attration
A) Elastomers B) Plastics C) Fibre
1) A, B, C 2) B, A, C 3) C, A, B 4) B, C, A
66. Which of the following is not a fibrous protein
1) Keratin 2)Myosin 3) collagen 4) Insulin
67. Which of the following vitamin doesnot occur in plants
1) Vitamin B12 2) vitamin C 3) vitaminE 4) vitamin A
68. In starch, glycogen, cellulose , the glycosidic linkage present is
1) , , 2) , , 3) , , 4) , ,
69. During Denaturation which strutucre of protein gets retained
1) Primary 2) secondary 3) tertiary 4) quartenary
70. At pH =2, zwitter ion exists as
1) Cationic 2) anionic 3) non ionic 4) neutral
71. Aminoacids present in Insulin are
1) 21 2) 51 3) 30 4) 102
72. Starch is converted to ethanol by fermentation , the sequence of enzymes are
1) Amylase, maltase, zymase 2) diastase, maltase, zymase 3) amylase,
invertase, zymase 4) amylase, zymase, maltase
73. Secondary structure of protein is mainly governed by
1) Hydrogen bonds 2) covalent bonds 3) ionic bonds 4) disulphide
bonds
74. In alkaline medium, Glycine predominantly exists as
1) Cation 2) anion 3) zwitterion 4) covalent
75. The pyrimidine bases present in DNA are
 1) Cytosine and adenine 2) cytosine and guanine 3) cytosine and
thymine 4) cytosine and uracil
76. Silica garden is developed by setting of coloured ions in the voids of silicates. It is a
case of
1) Adsorption 2) absorption 3) both 1 and 2 4) none of these
77. Which are not purely surface phenomena?
1) Viscosity, surface tension 2) adsorption, absorption 3) absorption, viscosity4)
adsorption, viscosity
78. 50ml of 1M oxalic acid(M.Mass=126g/mol) is shaken with 0.5g of wood charcoal. The
final concentration of the solution after adsorption is 0.5M. Amount of oxalic acid in
grams adsorbed per gram of the charcoal is
1) 3.15 2) 1.575 3) 6.30 4) 12.60
79. Decomposition of KClO3 is catalysed by MnO2. If the reaction mixture is plunged into
water at the intermediate stage, sometime solution appears green. This indicates the
formation of the intermediate
1) KCl 2) KMnO4 3) K2MnO4 4) Mn2O3
80. Which of the following interface cannot be obtained
1) Liquid-Liquid 2) solid-solid 3) Liquid-gas 4) gas-Gas
81. The process which involves conversion of a freshly formed precipitate into a sol by
adding small amount of a suitable electrolyte
1) Precipitation 2) coagulation 3) peptisation 4) hydrolysis
82. Electroosmosis is observed when
1) Dispersion medium begins to move in an electric field
2) Dispersed phase begins to move in electric field
3) Both 1 and 2
4) None of the above
83. Tyndal effect is not observed in
1) Suspension 2) starch sol 3) gold sol 4) sodium chloride
solution
84. The stabilisation of a dispersed phase in a lyophobic colloidal sol is due to
1) The adsorption of charged substances on dispersed phase
2) The large electro kinetic potential developed in the colloid
3) The formation of an electrical layer between two phases
4) The viscosity of the medium
85. Which one of the following doesnot involve coagulation
1) Clotting of blood by the use of ferric chloride
2) Formation of delta
3) Treatment of drinking water by potash alum
4) Peptisation
86. Which type of bonding allows grease and the tails of soaps or detergent to mix
1) Vanderwaals forces 2) London forces 3) H-bonding 4) Dipole-
Dipole interations
87. Select correct statement about CMC
1) CMC increases with the total surfactant concentration
2) When a sol has concentration higher than CMC, lamellar micelles having extended
parallel sheets are formed
3) Both a and b
4) None of these
88. Tyndal effect is shown by
1) Aqueous solution of sugar
2) Aqueous solution of sodium chloride
3) Aqueous solution of soap above CMC
4) Aqueous solution of soap below CMC
89. Fe(OH)3 sol is formed by hydrolysis of FeCl3. Which has maximum coagulating power
to coagulate Fe(OH)3 sol?
1) KI 2) K2SO4 3) K3PO4 4) K4[Fe(CN)6]
90. 0.030g of starch is required to prevent coagulation of 10ml of gold sol when 1ml of
10% NaCl solution is present. Thus , gold number of starch sol is
1) 0.030 2) 0.30 3) 30 4) 300
91. The selectivity of a catalyst is its ability to direct a reaction to yield particular
product.2-butyne can be converted to different products based on choice of catalyst

A and B are
1) Li/NH3, Lindlar 2) Lindlar, Li/NH3 3) Cu, Pd/PdO 4) Pd/PdO, Cu

92. The process of removing dissolved impurities from a colloidal sol by means of diffusion
through suitable membrane under the influence of an electric field is called
1) Electro-osmosis 2) electrophoresis 3) electrodialysis 4) peptisation
93. A positively charged colloidal sol is formed in which of the following
1) 100mL of 0.1M AgNO3 + 100mL of 0.1M KI
2) 100mL of 0.1M AgNO3 + 50mL of 0.1M KI
3) 50mL of 0.1M AgNO3 + 100mL of 0.1M KI
4) 200mL of 0.1M AgNO3 + 100mL of 0.2M KI
94. Surface area per gram of the adsorbent is called
1) Molar surface area 2) normal surface area 3) specific surface area
4) equivalent surface area
95. Zeolite can be used to soften water when
1) Ca+2 or Mg+2 ions in zeolite are replaced by Na+ ions in hard water
2) Ca+2 ions in zeolite are replaced by Mg+2 ions in hard water
3) Na+ ions ions in zeolite are replaced by Ca+2 or Mg+2 in hard water
4) None of these
96. Lyophilic sols are
1) Irreversible sols 2) prepared from inorganic compounds 3) coagulated by
adding electrolytes 4) self-stablising
97. Which of the molecular species has unpaired electrons
1) N2 2) N2+ 3) NO+ 4) CN-
98. The ratio of bond pairs and lone pairs in P4 molecule
1) 1:1 2) 2:3 3) 3:2 4) 4:1
99. The hybridisation of N in solid state for N2O5 is
1) sp and sp2 2) only sp2 3) sp2 and sp2 4) only sp3
100. Which is incorrect among the following options?
1) Reducing property of H3PO4 > H3PO3 >H3PO2
2) Oxidation state of nitrogen N2O < NO < N2O3 < N2O5
3) Basicity NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
4) Boiling point of SbH3 > AsH3 > NH3 > PH3
101. In P4O6, the number of P-O bonds and lone pairs are
 1) 12 and 4 2) 8 and 8 3) 12 and 6 4) 12 and 12
102. Solid PCl5 and Solid PBr5 exist respectively as
[ PCl5 ] [ PCl6 ] [ PCl4 ] Cl [ PBr4 ] [ PBr6 ]
A) B) C) D)
[ PBr4 ] Br

1) A and C 2) A and D 3) B and C 4) B and D

103. Which has lowest bond energy?
1) O-H 2) O-O 3) S-H 4) S-S
+
104. When O2 changes to O2
1) Paramagnetic become diamagnetic 2) bond length increases 3) diamagnetic
become paramagnetic 4) bond order increases
105. Which of the following property donot increase down the group from oxygen to
polonium?
A) Atomic size B) Density C) Electron affinity D)
ionisation energy
106. The correct statements among the following are
A) Rhombic sulphur is stable at room temperature
B) S8 moleucle is planar ring
C) In S8 molecule sulphur valence electrons 2 and oxidation state is 0
D) Hf for rhombic sulphur is taken as 0
107. Which of the following statements regarding ozone are correct?
A) Conversion of ozone to oxygen is endothermic
B) O-O bonds in ozone have considerable double bond character
C) Pure ozone is pale blue gas and dark blue liquid
D) Nitric oxide and freons are responsible for the depletion of ozone layer
108. Which of the following statement is correct about the hydride of group 16
1) Order of acidic strength is H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te
2) Order of thermal stability is H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
3) Order of melting and boiling point is H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2Te
4) All of the above
109. Charring of cane sugar by sulphuric acid shows ----------property of the acid
1) Oxidation 2) complex formation 3) dehydrating 4) acidic
110. In SO3 molecule, 3 oxygen atoms are attached to sulphur atom through double bonds.

Hence the molecules consist 3 bond . The types of pi bonds present in SO3 molecule
are

1) Two p -p and one p -p bonds

2) One p -d and two p -p bonds

3) One p -p and one p -d bonds

4) All p -p bonds
111. Which of the following is known as Caros acid?
1) H2S2O7 2) H2S2O8 3) H2S2O6 4) H2SO5
112. Which pair is isostructural ?
1) SO2 and SO32- 2) CO2 and OCS 3) SO2 and CS2 4) SO42- and
PO43-
113. Which of the following does not exist?
1) I3- 2) Br3- 3) ICl2- 4) F3-
114. One gas bleaches the colour of flowers by reduction and another gas by oxidation.
The gases respectively are
1) SO2 and Cl2 2) CO2 and Cl2 3) NO and Cl2 4) H2S and Br2
115. When gold and platinum dissolves in aqua regia, the complexes formed are
[ AuCl2 ] and [ PtCl4 ]2
1) [AuCl4]- and [PtCl6]2- 2) 3)
[ AuCl4 ]2 and [ PtCl6 ]2 [ AuCl3 ] and [ PtCl6 ]2
4)
116. In perchloric acid the number of sigma and pi bonds
1) 5 sigma and 4pi bonds 2) 6 sigma and 3pi bonds 3) 5 sigma and 3 pi bonds
4) 5 sigma and 2pi bonds
117. Identify the interhalogen compound with zero dipole moment
1) ICl3 2) BrF5 3) IF7 4) IF5
118. Match the following molecules or ions to their shapes . Which pairing is correct?
[ I 3 ] : bent BrF5 : trigonal planar ClF3 : trigonal planar
1) 2) 3) 4)
[ BrF4 ] : square planar

119. The structure of XeF5+ ion is

1) Trigonal bipyramidal 2) square pyramidal 3) octahedral 4)
pentagonal

120. The number of p -d bonds present in XeO3 and XeO4 respectively are
1) 3 and 4 2) 2 and 3 3) 4 and 2 4) 3 and 2
121. Which of the following reactions occur?
XeF2 PF5 XeF [ PF6 ] XeF4 SbF
5 [ XeF3 ] [ SbF6 ]
1) 2) 3)
XeF6 H 2O 4 2 HF
XeOF
4) all of the above
122. The wrong statement among the following is
1) Helium is used to fill observatory balloons because it is lighter than air and non
combustible
2) A mixture of 80% helium and 20% oxygen is used for respiration by deep sea divers
3) The noble gas used in atomic reactors is argon
4) Neon is used in discharge tubes and fluorescent bulbs for advertisement display
purposes
123. The products formed when slaked lime reacts with chlorine on heating
CaCl2 and Ca(ClO3 ) 2 CaCl2 and CaOCl2 CaCl2 and Ca (OCl ) 2
1) 2) 3)
CaCl2 and O2
4)
124. PCl3 and PCl5 both exist ; but NCl5 doesnot exist. It is due to
1) Lower electronegativity of P and N
2) Lower tendency of N to form covalent bond
 3) Availability of vacant d-orbital in p but not in N
4) Statement is itself incorrect
125. Which one of the following properties is not shown by NO?
1) It is diamagnetic in gaseous state
2) It is neutral oxide
3) It combines with oxygen to form nitrogen dioxide
4) Its bond order is 2.5
126. A crystalline solid is characterised by following but not by
1) Isotropic nature
2) Definite characteristic heat of fusion
3) A regular periodically repeated pattern of arrangement of constituent particles in
the entire crystal
4) A true solid
127. As it cools , olive oil solidifies and forms a solid over a wide range of temperature.
Which term best describes the solid?
1) Ionic 2) covalent network 3) Metallic 4) Molecular crystal
128. The mass of a unit cell of NaCl corresponds to
1) 1 Na+, 6 Cl- 2) 1 Cl-, 6 Na+ 3) 1 Na+, 1 Cl- 4) 4 Cl-, 4Na+
129. The total number of tetrahedral voids in the face centered unit cell is
1) 6 2) 8 3) 10 4) 12
130. Coordination numbers in a square close packed structure and hexagonal close packed
structure respectively, are
1) 2, 6 2) 3, 6 3) 4, 6 4) 6 , 4
131. Experimentally , it was found that a metal oxide has formula M0.98O.Metal M is
present asM2+ and M3+ in its oxide. Fracction of the etal which exists as M3+ would
be
1) 7.01% 2) 4.08% 3) 6.05% 4) 5.08%
132. If NaCl is doped with 10-3 mol% of SrCl2 then, number of cationic Vacancies is
1) 10-5 mol-1 2) 6.02 X 1020 mol-1 3) 6.02 X 1018 mol-1 4) 6.02 X 10-8 mol-1
133. Silicon doped with electro rich impurity forms
1) P-type semiconductor 2) n-type semi conductor 3) intrinsic semiconductor
4) insulator
134. The density of CaF2 is 3.180 g/cm3 and a= 0.5451nm. Thus number of Ca+2 and F-
ions in the unit cell respecticely, are
1) 4 and 4 2) 8 and 8 3) 4 and 8 4) 12 and 8
135. A compound contains two types of atoms X and Y. Its cyrtal structure is cubic lattice
with X atoms at the corners of the unit cells and Y atoms at the body centre. The
simplest formula is
1) XY 2) X2Y 3) XY2 4) XY3
136. Which of the following exists as covalent cyrstals
1) Iodine 2) silicon 3) Sulphur 4) Phosphorus
137. An ionic compound has a unit cell consisting of A ions at the corners of a cube and B
ions on the centres of the faces of the cube. The empirical formula for this compound
would be
1) A3B 2) AB3 3) A2B 4) AB
138.