BITSAT Paper 02

Physics
01. A gold coin has a charge of + 10-4 C, The number of
electrons removed from it is

(a) 106
(b) 1.6 x 1010
(c) 1.6 x 1025
(d) 1.6 x 1018

02. A small sphere of mass m and electric charge q, is suspended

by a light thread. A second sphere carrying a charge q2 is placed
directly below the first sphere at a distance d away. Then
(a) tension in thread may reduce to zero if the spheres are positively
charged
(b) tension in thread may reduce to zero if the spheres are oppositely
charged
(c) tension in thread can never be zero
(d) tension in thread is independent of the nature of the charges

03. A new quantity is defined as the ratio of the work done to

the pressure at which the work is done. Its dimensions the same as
the dimensions of :
a) Area
b) Volume
c) Velocity
d) Length

04. The current I and voltage V graphs for a given metallic wire of
two different temperatures T1 and T2 are shown in the following
figure
 It is concluded that
(a) T1 > T2
(b) T1 < T2
(c) T1 = T2
(d) T1 = 2 x T2

05. A bus moves on a straight road with a constant acceleration

a. A man, at rest with respect to the bus drops a ball outside. The
acceleration of the ball with respect to the bus and the earth are
respectively
a) a; g
b) a+g; g-a
c) (a2 + g2)1/2; g
d) (a2 + g2)1/2 ; a

06. If a copper wire is stretched to make its radius decrease in its

resistance is approximately
(a) 0.1 %
(b) 0.2 %
(c) 0.4 %
(d) 0.8 %

07. When a charged particle is acted on only by a magnetic force,

its
(a) potential energy changes
(b) its kinetic energy changes
(c) total energy changes
(d) energy does not change

08. A positively charged particle projected towards east is

deflected towards north by a magnetic field. The field may be
(a) towards west
(b) towards south
(c) upwards
 (d) downwards

09. The permanent magnetic moment of the atoms of a material

is not zero. The material
(a) must be paramagnetic
(b) must be diamagnetic
(c) must be ferromagnetic
(d) may be paramagnetic

10. A paramagnetic material is kept in a magnetic field. The field

is increased till the magnetization becomes constant. If the
temperature is now decreased. The magnetization
(a) will decrease
(b) will increase
(c) remain constant
(d) may increase or decrease

11. A metallic wire bent in form of a semi-circle of radius 0.1 m is

moved in a direction parallel to its plane, but perpendicular to a
magnetic field B = 20m T with a velocity of 10m/sec. What is the
induced e.m.f. in wire?
(a) 4 x 10-3 V
(b) 4 x 10-2 V
(c) 4 x 10-1 V
(d) None of these

12. A glass rod of length moves with a velocity v in a uniform

magnetic field B. what will be the emf induced in the rod
(a) Zero
(b) 0.01 volts
(c) 0.1 volts
(d) None of these

13. A 10 F capacitor is connected across a 200 V 50 Hz A.C.

supply. The peak current through the circuit is
(a) 0.6 A
(b) (0.6+2)A
(c) (0.6 2) A
(d) 0.3 A

14. An alternating voltage E = 200 2sin (100t) is connected to a

1 F capacitor through an A.C. ammeter. The reading of the
ammeter shall be
(a) 10 mA
 (b) 20 mA
(c) 40 mA
(d) 80 mA

15. The first diffraction minima due to a single slit diffraction is at

= 30 for a light of wavelength 5000 . The width of the slit is
(a) 5 x 10-5 cm
(b) 10 x 10-5 cm
(c) 2.5 x 10-5 cm
(d) 1.25 x 10-5 cm

16. A beam of light of wavelength 600 nm from a distant source

falls on a single slit 1.00 mm wide and the resulting diffraction
pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance between
the first dark fringe on either side of the central maxima is
(a) 1. 2 cm
(b) 1.2 mm
(c) 2.4 cm
(d) 4.8 mm

17. A concave mirror of focal length F produces a real image n

times the size of the object. The distance of the object from the
mirror is
(a) (n 1) F
(b) (n + 1) F
(c) (n + 1)/n F
(d) (n - 1)/n F

18. An object is placed at a distance of 2f from a concave mirror.

Light reflected from the mirror falls on a plane mirror. The distance
of the plane mirror from the concave mirror equals f. The distance
of the final image from the concave mirror (due to reflection at both
concave and plane mirror) is
(a) f
(b) f/2
(c) 2f
(d) 0

19. The range of a projectile when launched at angle is same as

when launched at angle 2. What is the value of ?
(a) 15
(b) 30
(c) 45
(d) 60
20. The temperature at which the temperature in the Centigrade
scale reads the same as that in the Kelvin scale is
a) 0
b) 273
c) -40
d) None of these

21. The ratio of the thermal capacities of 2 spheres A and B, if

their radii are in the ratio 1:2, densities, 2:1, and specific heat in
the ratio 1:3, will be
a) 1:6
b) 1:12
c) 1:3
d) 1:4

22. Under the action of a force, a 2 kg body moves such that its
position x as a function of time is given by xwhere x is in metre and
t in second. The work done by the force in the first 2 s is
(a) 1,600 J
(b) 160 J
(c) 16 J
(d) 1.6 J

23. Three particles of mass M each are placed at corners of an

triangle of side d if the sides are increasedto 2d then which of the
following is true
(a) P.E. = -3GM2/2d
(b) Work done = 3GM2/2d
(c) Work done = GM2/2d
(d) P.E. =-3GM/2d

24. The de Broglie wavelength of a neutron when its kinetic

energy is K, is . What will be its wavelengthwhen its kinetic energy
is 4k?
(a)/4
(b)/2
(c) 2
(d) 4

25. According to Bohrs theory. the radius of the nth orbit of an

atom of atomic number Z is proportional to

(a)n2/ z2
(b)n2/ z
(c)n / z
(d) n2z2

26. When92U235 undergoes fission, 0.1 % of its original mass is

changed into energy, How much energy isreleased if 1 kg ofU
undergoes fission?
(a) 9 x 1010 J
(b) 9 x 1011 J
(c) 9 x 1012 J
(d) 9 x 1015 J

27. The alternating current gain of a junction transistor in

common base arrangement is 0.98. What is thechange in the base
current corresponding to a change of 4 mA in the emitter current
and change of 4.9mA in the collector current?
(a) 0.1 mA
(b) 0.2 mA
(c) 0.3 mA
(d) 0.4 mA

28. A thick walled hollow sphere has outer radius R. it rolls down
an inclined plane without slipping. And itsspeed at the bottom is v.
if the inclined plane is frictionless and the sphere slides down
without rolling.Its speed at the bottom will be 5v/4. What is the
radius of gyration of the sphere?
(a) R/2
(b) R/2
(c) 3R/4
(d)3 R/ 4

29. How much force is required to produce an increase of 0.2% in

the length of a brass wire of diameter 0.6mm? (Youngs modulus for
brass = 0.9 x 1011 N / m2)
(a) nearly 17 N
(b) nearly 34 N
(c) nearly 51 N
(d) nearly 68 N

30. A liquid drops at temperature T, isolated from its

surroundings, breaks into a number of droplets. Thetemperature of
the droplets will be
(a) equal to T
(b) greater than T
(c) less than T
(d) either (a), (b), or (c) depending on the surface tension of the
liquid
 31. In SHM the net force towards mean position is related to its
displacement (x) from mean position by therelation
(a) F x
(b) F 1/x
(c) F x2
(d) F 1/x2

32. The acceleration (a) of SHM at mean position is

(a) x
(b) non zero
(c) x2
(d) None of these

33. When the temperature of air rises by 3 K from 300 K, what is

the percentage rise in the velocity of sound?
(a) 0.5%
(b) 1 %
(c) 2 %
(d) None of these

34. A tuning fork vibrating with a sonometer having 20 cm wire

produces 5 beats per beat frequency doesnot change. If the length
of the wire is changed to 21 cm. the frequency of tuning fork is
(a) 200 Hz
(b) 210 Hz
(c) 205 Hz
(d) 25 Hz

35. Three rods made of the same material and having the same
cross-section have been joined as shown inthe fig. Each rod is of
the same length. The left and right ends are kept at 0C and 90C
respectively. Thetemperature of the junction of the three rods will
be
 (a) 45C
(b) 60C
(c) 30C
(d) 20C

36. If be the ratio of specific heats of a perfect gas, the number

of degrees of freedom of a molecule of thegas is:

(a) 25( 1 )/2

(b)2/(2 - 1)
(c)2/( 1)
(d)1/( - 1)

37. An ideal gas heat engine operates in Carnot cycle between

227C and 127C. It absorbs 6 x 104cal of heatat higher
temperature. Amount of heat converted to work is:
(a) 2.4 x 104cal
(b) 6 x 104cal
(c) 1.2 x 104cal
(d) 4.8 x 104cal

38. In a room where the temperature is 30C, a body cools from

61C to 59C in 4 min. The time (in min)taken by the body to cool
from 51C to 49C will be
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 8

39. When a p-n junction diode is switched from forward to reverse

bias:
a) The current remains a constant negative value for some time
Ts , depending upon the reverse bias and external resistance.
b) During the storage time Ts, the majority carrier density falls to
zero at the junction.
c) During the transition interval, the minority current carrier
density falls to zero.
d) The stored charge is mainly majority carriers.

40. A vessel contains a mixture of one mole of oxygen and two

moles of nitrogen at 300 JK. The ratio of the average rotation
kinetic energy per O2 molecule to per N2 molecule is
 (a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 2 : 1

(d) depends on the moment of inertia of the two molecules

Chemistry

41. The number of waves in an orbit are

A. N2
B. N
C. N-1
D. N-2

42. When glucose reacts with bromine water, the main product is
A. Gluconic acid
B. Glyceraldehyde
C. Sorbitol
D. Sacharric acid

43. Which of the following destroys antigens?

A. Insulin
B. Antibodies
C. Chromoprotein
D. Phosphoprotein

44. Given that A Hf(H) = 218 kJ/mol, express the H-H bond energy in
kcal/mol.

(a) 52.15

(b) 911

(c) 104

(d) 52153
45. Fluorine reacts with dilute NaOH and forms a gaseous product A.
The bond angle in the molecule of A is
(a) 10440'

(b) 103

(c) 107

(d) 10928'

46. One mole of alkene X on ozonolysis gave one mole of acetaldehyde

and one mole of acetone. The IUPAC name of X is
(a) 2-methyl-2-butene

(b) 2-methyl-l-butene

(c) 2-butene

(d) 1-butene

47. The wavelengths of electron waves in two orbits are in the ratio 3:
5. The ratio of kinetic energy of electrons will be
(a) 25:
9
(b) 5: 3
9:
(c)
25
(d) 3: 5

48. Which one of the following sets correctly represents the increase in
the paramagnetic property of the ions?

(a) Cu2+ > V2+ > Cr2+ > Mn2+

(b) Cu2+ < Cr2+ < V2+ < Mn2+

(c) Cu2+ < V2+ < Cr2+ < Mn2+

(d) V2+ < Cu2+ < Cr2+ < Mn2+

49. Electrons with a kinetic energy of 6.023 x 104 J/mol are evolved
from the surface of a metal, when it is exposed to radiation of
wavelength of 600 nm. The minimum amount of energy required to
remove an electron from the metal atom is
 (a) 2.3125 x 10419 J

(b) 3 x 10-19 J

(c) 6.02 x 10-19 J

(d) 6.62 x 10-34 J

50. SO2 does not act as a

A. bleaching agent
B. oxidising agent
C. reducing agent
D. dehydrating agent

51. Aldol Condensation will not take place in

A. HCHO
B. CH3CHO
C. CH3CH2CHO
D. CH3COCH3
52. The cubic unit cell of a metal (molar mass = 63.55 g mol-1) has an
edge length of 362 pm.
Its density is 8.92g cm"3 the type of unit cell is

(a) Primitive

(b) Face centred

(c) Body centred

(d) End centred

53. The equilibrium constant for the given reaction is 100.

N2(g) + 202(g) -> 2N02(g)

What is the equilibrium constant for the reaction given below?

N02(g) -> N2(g) + 02(g)

A. 1

B. 0.1

C. 10

D. 1
54. Which of the following salts is called Chile Salt Petre?

A. NaNO3

B. KNO3

C. KCl

D. NaCl

55.

What are K and Y in the following reaction sequence?

C2H5OH ClzXCl2 Y

(a) C2H5CI, CH3CHO

(b) CH3CHO, CH3CO2H

(c) CH3CHO, CCI3CHO

(d) C2H5CI, CCI3CHO

56. During the depression in freezing point experiment, an equilibrium
is established between the molecules of -

(a) Liquid solvent and solid solvent

(b) Liquid solute and solid solvent

(c) Liquid solute and solid solute

(d) Liquid solvent and solid solute

57. Consider the following reaction,

EtOH/HzO
C2H5CI + AgCN X (major)

Which one of the following statements is true for X?

(I) It gives propionic acid on hydrolysis

(II) It has an ester functional group

(III) It has a nitrogen linked to ethyl carbon

(IV) It has a cyanide group

(a) IV

(b) III

(c) II

(d) I

58. Pinacol is
 A. 3-methylbutan-2-ol

B. 2,3-dimethyl-2,3-butandiol

C. 2,3-dimethyl-2-propanone

D. None of these

59. Which of these is not found in the atmosphere?

A. Neon

B. Argon

C. Radon

D. Krypton

60. An element having high first ionization energy is

(a) inert gas

(b) transition element
(c) representative element
(d) inner transition element

61. Rutherfords atomic model suggestes the existence of

(a) atom
(b) nucleus
(c) - particles
(d) mesons

62. In which of following there exists a p d bonding?

(a) diamond
(b) graphite
(c) dimethylamine
(d) trisilylamine

63. Which of the following is used as a moderator in nuclear reactor?

(a) H2O
(b) D2O
(c) Alum
(d) any of these

64. At 80C, distilled water has [H3O+] concentration equal to 1 106

mole/litre. The value of kW at thistemperature will be
(a) 1 10-6
(b) 1 10-9
(c) 1 10-12
(d) 1 10-15

65. When 0.5 g of sulphur is burnt to SO2 4.6 kJ of heat is liberated.

The enthalpy of formation of sulphurdioxide is (Molecular weight of S
= 32 O = 16)
(a) + 147.2 kJ
 (b) 147.2 kJ
(c) + 294.4 kJ
(d) 294.4 kJ

66. The internal energy of a substance

(a) decreases with increase in temperature
(b) increases with increase in temperature
(c) calculated by the relation E = mc2
(d) remains same with change in temperature

67. At 700 K, the equilibrium constant Kp for the reaction 2SO3(g)=

2SO2(g) + 1.80 10-13 and Kpa is 14,(R = 8.314 JK-1mol-1). The
numerical value in moles per litre of K for this reaction at the same
temperature will be
(a) 3.09 10-7mol-litre
(b) 5.07 10-8mol-litre
(c) 8.18 10-9mol-litre
(d) 9.24 10-10mol-litre

68. In the reaction: H2S 2H+ + S-, when NH4OH is added, then

(a) S- is precipitated
(b) no action takes place
(c) concentration of S- decreases
(d) concentration of S- increases

69. Which of the following is not present in chlorophyll?

A. Carbon
B. Calcium
C. Magnesium
D. Hydrogen

70. Toluene reacts with chromyl chloride and forms

 (a) chlorotoluene
(b) benzaldehyde
(c) benzyl chloride
(d) benzoic acid

71. Propane is obtained from propene, by which of the following

methods ?
(a) Wurtz reaction
(b) Dehydrogenation
(c) Frakland reaction
(d) Catalytic hydrogenation

72. In Kjeldahls method, CuSO4 acts as

(a) oxidizing agent
(b) reducing agent
(c) hydrolyzing agent
(d) catalytic angent

73. When Bertholts salt is heated, which of the following is evolved?

A. CO2
B. SO2
C. O2
D. NO2

74. Nylon 6,6 is an example of

A. Polypropylene
B. Polystyrene
C. Polyamide
D. Polystyrene

75. On heating with oxalic acid at 383K, glycerine yields

A. Glyceryl trioxalate
B. formic acid
C. Glyceryl dioxalate
 D. none of these

76. The synthesis of crotonaldehyde from acetaldehyde is anexample

of_____ reaction

(a) nucleophilic addition

(b) elimination

(c) electrophilic addition

(d) nucleophilic addition-elimination

77. During the adsorption of Krypton on activated charcoal at low

temperature

A. H < 0 ; S < 0

B. H > 0 ; S < 0

C. H < 0 ; S > 0

D. H > 0 ; S > 0

78. A gaseous hypothentical chemical equation 2A 4B + C is crried

out in a closed vessel. The concentration of B is found to increase by 5
10-3 mol/ L in 10 second. The rate of appearance of B is

(a) 5 10-3 mol-1 sec-1

(b) 5 10-5 mol-1 sec-1
(c) 6 10-5 mol-1 sec-1
(d) 4 10-4 mol-1 sec-1

79. The alcohol, that is used as a beverage, is

(a) propanol
(b) butanol
(c) ethanol
(d) methanol

80. The number of and -particles emitted in nuclear

reaction 90 Th22883 Bi212 are respectively

(a) 4, 1
(b) 3, 7
(c) 8, 1
(d) 4, 7

Math

81. The roots of

(x - a) (x - a-1) + (x - a -1) (x - a - 2) + (x - a) (x - a - 2) = 0, a E
R are always
(a) Equal

(b) Imaginary

(c) real and distinct

(d) rational and equal

82. Let f(x) = x2 + ax + b, where a, b e R. If f(x) = 0 has all its roots

imaginary, then the roots of f(x) + f' (x) + f" (x) = 0 are
(a) Real and distinct

(b) Imaginary

(c) Equal

(d) Rational and equal

83. In a quadrilateral ABCD, the point P divides DC in the ratio

1:2 and Q is the mid point of AG. If AB + 2AD + BC - 2DC = k PQ,

then k is equal to

(a) - 6

(b) -4
 (c) 6

(d) 4

84. If mi, m2/ m3 and m4 are respectively the magnitudes of the vectors

ai = 2i - j + k, a.2 = 3i - 4j - 4k,

a3 = i + j - kand a4 = -i +3j + k,

then the correct order of mi, m2, m3 and m4 is

(a) m3 < mi < m4 < m2

(b) m3 < mi < m2 < m4

(c) m3 <m4 < mi < m2

(d) m3 <m4 < m2 < mi

85. The volume of the tetrahedron having the edges i + 2j - k, i + j + k,i -

j +A k as coterminous, is 2 cubic unit. Then x equals

87. 1

88. 2
 89. 3

90. 4

86. The equation of the circle which passes through the origin
and cuts orthogonally each of the circles x2 + y2 - 6x + 8 =
0and x2 + y2 - 2x - 2y = T is
(a) 3x2 + 3y2 - 8x - 13y = 0

(b) 3x2 + 3y2 - 8x + 29y = 0

(c) 3x2 + 3y2 + 8x + 29y = 0

(d) 3x2 + 3y2 - 8x - 29y = 0

87. In a triangle ABC, cosec A (sin B cos C + cos B sin C ) equals

(a) c/2
(b) a/c
(c) 1
(d) 0

88. If y =1/ (x-2) for what value, if any, of x is y2 = - 2y3?

(a) - 4
(b)
(c) 0
(d) no value

89. The principle value of sin-1(sin 2 /3) is

(a) 4 /3
(b) - /3
(c) /3
(d) -

90. If the angles of a triangles are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3:, then the
sides are in the ratio
(a) 1 :3: 2
(b) 3: 1 : 2
(c) 3:2: 1
(d) 1 :3: 2

91. The amplitude of (1 + i3)/(3+i) is

A. /3
 B. /4
C. 2 /3
D. /6

92. When 2631 is divided by 7, the remainder is

A. 3
B. 1
C. 4
D. None of these

93. The pairs of straight lines x2 - 3xy + 2y2 = 0 and x2 - 3xy +

2y2 +x - 2 = 0 form a

(a) Square but not rhombus

(b) Rhombus

(c) Parallelogram
(d) Rectangle but not a square

94. The value of 13 (3cos(log x)/x)dx is equal to

(a) sin (log 3)
(b) cos (log 3)
(c) /4
(d) 1

95. Differential coefficient of a function f(g(x)) with respect to the

function g(x)is
(a) f(g(x))
(b) f(g(x) g (x))
(c) f(g(x))/g (x))
(d) None of these

96. The degree of the differential equation (d2y/dx2) + (dy/dx)2-

-xy = 0 is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

97. If a line in the space makes angle a, p and y with the

coordinate axes, then
cos2a + cos 2p + cos 2y + sin2 a + sin2 p + sin2 y equals
 (a) -1
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 2

98. The image of the point (3, 2, 1) in the plane 2x-y+3z = 7 is

(a) (1,2,3)
(b) (2,3,1)
(c) (3,2,1)
(d) (2,1,3)

99. If the four points (3, -2, 1), (2, -3, -4), (-1, 1, 2) and (4, 5,

) are coplanar, then is equal to

(a) 0
(b) -17/146
(c) -146/17
(d) None of these

100. The locus of a point, whose abscissa and ordinate are always
equal is
(a) X + y = 0
(b) X y = 0
(c) X + y = 1
(d) X + y + 1 = 0

101. The co-ordinates of the point of intersection of the line x

6/-1 = y 1/0 = z + 3/4 and the plane x + y z = 3 are

(a) (2, 1, 0)

(b) (7, -1, -7)

(c) (1, 2, -6)
(d) (5, -1, -1)

102. The function f(x) = x3 + ax2 + bx + c, a2< 3b has

(a) one maximum value

 (b) one minimum value

(c) no extreme value

(d) one maximum and one minimum value

103. If f(x) = ex g(x), g(0) = 2, g( 0)= 1, then f(0) is

(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 0

104. In (0,/2) , the function f(x) = x/sin x is

(a) An increasing function
(b) A decreasing function
(c) A constant function
(d) None of these

105. The order and degree of the differential equation

d2y/dx2 = y + (dy/dx)4
are respectively
(a) 2, 4
(b) 4, 1
(c) 4, 2
(d) 2, 2

106. The area bounded by the curve x = at2, y = 2at and x- axis is
(1 t 3)

(a) 26 a2
(b) 8 a2
(c) 26 a2/3
(d) 104 a2/3

107. Three houses are available in a locality. Three persons apply

for the houses. Eachapplies for one house without consulting
others. The probability that all the three apply for the same
house is

A. 2/9
B. 1/9
 C. 8/9
D. 7/9

108. If A and B are two events such that P ( A ) > 0 and P ( B )

1, then P ( A / B ) isequal to
(a) 1 - P ( A / B )
(b) 1 - P ( / B )
(c) 1 - P ( A B)/
(d) P( )/P( )

109. If the cube roots of unity are 1, , 2, then the roots of the
equation
( x - 1 )3 + 8 = 0 are
( a ) - 1, - 1 + 2, - 1 - 22
( b ) - 1, - 1, - 1,
( c ) - 1, 1 - 2, 1 - 22
( d ) - 1, 1 + 2, 1 + 22

110. Let z1 and z2 be two roots of the equation z2 + az + b = 0, z

being complex.Further assume that the origin, z1 and z2 form an
equilateral triangle. Then
( a ) a2 = b
( b ) a2 = 2b
( c ) a2 = 3b
( d ) a2 = 4b

111. The parabola y2 = 4ax and the circle x2 + y2 2ax = 0 touch

each other at the point
(a) (0, 0)
(b) (a, 0)
(c) (0, a)
(d) None of these

112. Length of the common chord of the parabolas y2 = x and x2

= y is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4 2
(d) None of these

113. The points (0, 2, 0), ( 3, 1, 0)and (1/3, 1,22/3) are the
vertices of
(a) A scalene triangle
(b) An equitateral triangle
(c) As isosceles triangle
(d) None of these

114. The point of contract of 3x + 4y + 7 = 0 and x2 + y2 4x

6y 12 = 0 is
(a) (1, 1)
(b) (-1, 1)
 (c) (1, -1)
(d) (-1, -1)

115. Three points A. B and C are collinear if the area of triangle

ABC is
(a) Greater than zero
(b) Less than zero
(c) Zero
(d) None of these

116. The number of sphere of a given radius which touch the

coordinate planes is
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 1

117. Area of a triangle is 5 units, its two vertices are (2, 1) and (3,
-2). Third vertex is on the line y = x + 3.
The coordinates of that vertex are
(a) (7/2, 13/2)
(b) (8, 14)
(c) (8/3, 5/3)
(d) (7/3, 9/7)

118. The projections of a line segment on the coordinates are 1, 2,

4 and 3 respectively.The length of the line segment is
(a) 19
(b) 16
(c) 13
(d) 15

119. Area of ABC whose vertices are A(-1, 2,3), B (1, 1, 1) and C
(2, -1, 3) is
(a) 9
(b) 0
(c) 9/2
(d) None of these
120. For two events A and B, P ( A B ) is
( a ) less than P ( A ) + P ( B ) - 1
( b ) greater than P ( A ) + P ( B )
( c ) equal to P ( A ) + P ( B ) - P ( A B )
( d ) equal to P ( A ) + P ( B ) + P ( A B )

121. Two unlike parallel forces P and Q (P Q)act at distinct points

of a rigid body. The magnitude of theirresultant is
(a) P Q
(b) Q P
(c) |P Ql
(d) None of these
 122. Let A {1,2,3} and B {1,2,4} the F {(1,1);(1,2);(2,1);(3,4)}
is

A. One-one function from A to B

B. Bijection from A to B
C. Surjection from A to B
D. None of these

123. When the correlation between two variables is perfect, the

value of the coefficient of correlation r is

A. -1
B. 0
C. 1
D. 1 or -1
124. If the values 1, 1/2,1/3 , , 1/n occur at frequencies 1,2,3,,
n then the mean is
A. 1
B. 1/n
C. 2
D. 2/(n+1)

125. | | =
A. 1
B. 2
C. 0
D. 3

Logical Reasoning

Q 126.
TIME: Clock: : Pressure : ?
(a) Hydrometer
(b) Voltmeter
(c) Ammeter
(d) Barometer
Q127.A cuboid has six sides of different colours. The red side is opposite
to black. The blue side is adjacent to white. The brown side is adjacent to
blue. The red side is face down. Which one of the following would be the
opposite to brown?
a) Red
 b) Black
c) White
d) Blue

Q 128.
If in a certain code STUDENT is coded as TSDUNET, then how TEACHER
will be coded ?
(a) ATEACHER
(b) REHACTA
(c) ETCAEHR
(d) ETCHAER

Q 129.
Hoof : Horse : : ? : Man
(a) Foot
(b) Leg
(c) Arm
(d) hand

Q 130.
If 35246 is coded as 63458; than how 24321 will be coded ?
(a) 12234
(b) 14223
(c) 12423
(d) 12243

Directions (Q. 131 133): find the number which will come next in the
series.
Q 131.
2, 5, 11, 23,
(a) 34
(b) 42
(c) 36
(d) 47
Q 132.
3, 14, 47,___, 433, 1334
(a) 89
(b) 119
(c) 137
(d) 146
Q 133.
26, 23, 20, 17, 14, 11, ____.
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 7
Q 134.
If a + b + c = 0, then a3 + b3 + c3 =
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) a3b3c3
(d) 3abc
Q 135.
All the prime factors of 182 are
(a) 2 and 13
(b) 2 and 7
(c) 7 and 13
(d) 2, 7 and 13
ENGLISH LANGUAGE & COMPREHENSION
Directions (Q. 136 138): In the following questions, the first and the
last parts of the sentence are
numbered 1 and 6. The rest part of the sentence is split into four parts
and named P1Q, R and S. These
four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence and find
out which of the four
combinations is correct.
Q 136.
1. If Socrates
P :innocent St. joan was at
Q :the age of seventy
R :it may be imagined how
S :was innocent at
6. theagt! Of seventeen
The correct sequence should be
(a) QUSP
(b) RPSQ
(c) PRSQ
(d) SQRP
Q 137.
1. It was all
P :that seemed
Q :and glamorous here
R :very wonderful
S :in the old places
6. so ordinary
The correct sequence should be
(a) QSPR
(b) SPRQ
(c) RQSP
(d) PRSQ
Q 138.
1. If you feed a dog or tame a bear by hand,
P :or until they succeed in getting it
Q :and tear and pull at it.
R :they get their teeth into the meat
S :until they bite a piece off,
6. all out of your hand.
The correct sequence should be
(a) PSRQ
(b) SQRP
(c) RPSQ
(d) RQSP
Directions (Q. 139 141): In the following questions, fill in the blanks
with the correct word from the
given options.
Q 139.
the earth.round the Sun.
(a) move
(b) moves
(c) moved
(d) moving
Q 140.
I. him only one letter up to now.
(a) sent
(b) have sent
(c) have been sending
(d) shall send
Q 141.
I shall telephone you when heback.
(a) comes
(b) coming
(c) shall come
(d) came
Directions (Q. 142 144): In the following questions, choose the correct
synonym of the given word.
Q 142.
Amenties
(a) pageantries
(b) privileges
(c) facilities
(d) courtesies
Q 143.
Deflect
(a) cheat
(b) frustrate
(c) pervert
(d) depress
Q 144.
Exorbitant
(a) odd
(b) ridiculous
(c) excessive
(d) threatening
Directions (Q: 145 147): In the following sentences, choose the. Most
appropriate preposition.
Q 145.
He is not in the office..the moment.
(a) from
(b) with
(c) for
(d) at
Q 146.
She is very affectionate.her children.
(a) upon
(b) with
(c) towards
(d) over
Q 147.
People were alarmed..the tiger.
(a) at
(b) in
(c) on
(d) for
Directions (Q. 148 150): Read the following passage carefully and
answer the questions given below
the passage. Certain words/phrases in the passage are given in hold to
locate them while answering
some of the questions.
Our world has a heritage of culture and beauty, but unfortunately we
have been handing o0n this
heritage only to the less active and !.mportant members of each
generation. The government of the
world, by which I do not mean its ministerial posts but its key positions of
power, has been allowed to
fall into the hands of men ignorant of the past, without tenderness
towards what is traditional, without
understanding what they are destroying. There is no essential reason why
this should be the case. To
prevent it is an educational problem, and not a very difficult one.
Q 148.
Our world has heritage of culture means
a) a richness of tradition
b) an inherited cultural tradition
c) too many cultural
d) cultures which are now extinct
Q 149.
The less active and important people are the
a) lazy people
b) uncommitted people
c) common people
d) people who are in position of power
Q 150.
Men ignorant of the past means the persons who
a) do not learn from experience
b) ignore the lessons of history
c) are not aware of history.
d) have no respect for the past
 Answer Key 02

PHYSICS
1. B
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. A
6. C
7. C
8. C
9. A
10. B
11. D
12. D
13. B
14. B
15. D
16. C
17. C
18. D
19. B
20. D
21. A
22. C
23. B
24. B
25. D
26. A
27. B
28. C
29. C
30. A
31. A
32. A
33. A
34. C
35. B
36. C
37. C
38. B
39. A
40. A

CHEMISTRY
41. B
42. A
43. B
44. C
45. B
46. A
47. A
48. A
49. B
50. D
51. A
52. B
53. B
54. A
55. C
56. A
57. B
58. B
59. B
60. A
61. B
62. D
63. B
64. C
65. D
66. B
67. A
68. D
69. B
70. B
71. D
72. D
73. C
74. C
75. B
76. D
77. A
78. A
79. C
80. A
81. C
82. B
83. A
84. A
85. A
86. C
87. C
88. C
89. A
90. B
91. D
92. D
93. C
94. A
95. A
96. C
97. C
98. C
99. C
100. B
101. D
102. C
103. B
104. A
105. A
106. D
107. B
108. C
109. C
110. C
111. A
112. B
113. B
114. D
115. C
116. A
117. C
118. D
119. C
120. C
121. C
122. D
123. D
124. D
125. B

INTELLIGENCE, LOGIC & REASONING

126. D
127. C
128. C
129. A
130. D
131. D
132. D
133. C
134. D
135. D
ENGLISH LANGUAGE & LITERATURE
136. D
137. C
138. D
139. B
140. B
141. A
142. A
143. C
144. C
145. D
146. C
147. A
148. B
149. C
150. C