Microwave Communications

Satellite Communications Chapter 10(3001 Questions in Communications
Engineering-EXCEL REVIEW CENTER

1. Which of the following is the first active satellite?
A. Echo I
B. Telstar I
C. Early Bird
D. Sputnik I
2. Which of the following is the first commercial satellite?
A. Early Bird
B. Telstar
C. Explorer
D. Courier
3. What is the first passive satellite transponder?
A. Sun
B. Early Bird
C. Score
D. Moon
4. The first satellite to receive and transmit simultaneously
A. Intelsat I
B. Agila I
C. Syncorn I
D. Telstar I
5. A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of
A. circular polarization
B. maneuverability
C. beamwidth
D. gain
6. Repeaters inside communications satellites are known as
A. Trancievers
B. Transponders
C. Transducers
D. TWT
7. Considered as the unsolved problem in satellite system
A. Coverage
B. Cost
C. Access
D. Privacy
8. ___________ is a satellite that rotates around the earth in a low-altitude elliptical or
circular pattern.
A. Geosynchronous satellite
B. Nonsynchronous satellite
C. Prograde satellite
D. Retrograde satellite
9. Is the geographical representation of a satellite antenna radiation pattern
A. Footprint
B. Spot
C. Earth
D. Region
10. The smallest beam of a satellite antenna radiation pattern
A. Zone beam
B. Hemispheric beam
C. Spot beam
D. Global beam
11. A satellite beam that covers almost 42.4% of the earths surface.
A. Zone beam
B. Hemispheric beam
C. Spot beam
D. Global beam
12. What is the frequency range of C-band?
A. 8.5 to 12.5 GHz
B. 3.4 to 6.425 GHz
C. 12.95 to 14.95 GHz
D. 27.5 to 31 GHz
13. A satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earths station.
A. Uplink
B. Downlink
C. Terrestrial
D. Earthbound
14. Collects very weak signals from a broadcast satellite
A. Helical antenna
B. Satellite dish
C. LNA
D. TWT
15. What is a device that detects both vertically and horizontally polarized signals
simultaneously?
A. Orthomode transducer
B. Crystal detector
C. Optoisolator
D. Isomode detector
16. _________ detects the satellite signal relayed from the feed and converts it to an electric
current, amplifies and lower its frequency.
A. Horn antenna
B. LNA
C. Satellite receiver
D. Satellite dish
17. Is a loss of power of a satellite downlink signal due to earths atmosphere.
A. Atmospheric loss
B. Path loss
C. Radiation loss
D. RFI
18. What height must a satellite be placed above the surface of the earth in order for its
rotation to be equal to earths rotation?
A. 26,426.4 miles
B. 27,426.4 miles
C. 23,426.4 miles
D. 22,426.4 miles
19. Point on the satellite obits closest to the earth.
A. Apogee
B. Perigee
C. Prograde
D. Zenith
20. The earth area covered by a satellite radio beam.
A. Beamwidth
B. Bandwidth
C. Footprint
D. Zone
21. What is the local oscillator (mixer) frequency of the satellite with an uplink frequency in
GHz band?
A. 3500 MHz
B. 4500 MHz
C. 2225 MHz
D. 2555 MHz
22. What kind of battery panels are used in some advance satellites
A. Germanium based panels
B. Silicon based panel
C. Galium Phosphate solar panel array
D. Galium Arsenide solar panel array
23. Satellite engine uses
A. jet propulsion
B. ion propulsion system
C. liquid fuel
D. solar jet
24. A satellite batter has more power but lighter.
A. Lithium
B. Leclanche
C. Hydrogen
D. Magnesium
25. What kind of battery used by older satellites?
A. Lithium
B. Leclanche
C. Hydrogen
D. Magnesium
26. VSAT was made available in
A. 1979
B. 1981
C. 1983
D. 1977
27. What band does VSAT first operate?
A. L-band
B. X-band
C. C-band
D. Ku-band
28. The first Philippine Mabuhay satellite has how many channels?
A. 30
B. 24
C. 48
D. 50
29. The first Philippine Agila I will have how many transpoders.
A. 36
B. 48
C. 24
D. 12
30. How may satellite orbital slots are requested by the Philippine Government from ITU?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
31. The location of AsiaSat I.
A. 105.5East
B. 151.5East
C. 115.5East
D. 170.5East
32. AsiaSat I covers how many countries in Asia?
A. 38
B. 10
C. 28
D. 15
33. The owner of AsiaSat 2 is
A. Asia Satellite Telecommunications Company (ASTC)
B. Japan Satellite System (JSAT)
C. China Great Wall Industry Corporation
D. Singapore Satellite Commision
34. What is the approximate path loss from satellite-to-earth station?
A. 100 dB
B. 150 dB
C. 175 dB
D. 200 dB
35. INTELSAT stands for
A. Intel Satellite
B. International Telephone Satellite
C. International Telecommunications Satellite
D. International Satellite
36. The frequency of Ku band for satellite communications.
A. 6/4 GHz
B. 14/11 GHz
C. 12/14 GHz
D. 4/8 GHz
37. A satellite cross-link means
A. Earth-to-satellite link
B. Satellite-to-earth link
C. Satellite-to-satellite link
D. None of these
38. Earth station uses what type of antenna
A. Despun antenna
B. Helical antenna
C. Toroidal antenna
D. Cassegrain antenna
39. What is the delay time for satellite transmission from earth transmitter to earth receiver?
A. 0.5 s
B. 1.0 s
C. 5 ms
D. 0.25 ms
40. The bandwidth of C-band satellite frequency band in U.S.
A. 500 GHz
B. 1000 GHz
C. 1000 MHz
D. 500 MHz
41. The most common device used as an LNA is
A. zener diode
B. tunnel diode
C. IMPATT
D. Shockley diode
42. The radiation patterns of earth coverage antennas have a beamwidth of approxiamately
A. 21
B. 5
C. 17
D. 35
43. A mobile satellite array has usually how many elements?
A. 6
B. 88
C. 12
D. 14
44. In a typical mobile satellite array antenna if three elements are activated, how many
elements are deactivated?
A. 3
B. 11
C. 5
D. 9
45. What circuit is responsible in activating and deactivating adjacent antenna elements in a
mobile satellite array?
A. Radial divider
B. Divider/combiner
C. Radial combiner
D. Radial multiplexer
46. Most mobile satellite array uses ___________ in transforming 50 to 150 impedance.
A. stub
B. balun
C. quarter-wavelength transformer
D. microstrip tapers.
47. The switching from one element to the other element in a typical mobile satellite array.
A. Series
B. Radial
C. Matrix
D. Shunt
48. A method of multiple accessing where a given RF channel bandwidth is divided inot
smaller frequency band.
A. CDMA
B. ANIK-D
C. TDMA
D. FDMA
49. What is the delay time for satellite transmissions from earth transmitter to earth
receiver?
A. 0.5 s
B. 1s
C. 5 ms
D. 0.25 s
50. As the height of a satellite orbit gets lower, the speed of the satellite _________.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same
D. None of the above
51. The main function of a communications satellite is a/ an
A. repeater
B. reflector
C. beacon
D. observation platform
52. The key electronic component in a communications satellite is the
A. telemetry equipment
B. on-board computer
C. command and control system
D. transponder
53. A circular orbit around the equator with a 24-h period is called a/an
A. elliptical orbit
B. geostationary orbit
C. polar orbit
D. transfer orbit
54. A satellite stay in orbit because the following two factors are balanced
A. Satellite weight and speed
B. Gravitational force and centrifugal force
C. Centripetal force and speed
D. Satellite weight and the pull of the moon and sun
55. What is the height of a satellite in a synchronous equatorial orbit?
A. 42000 mi
B. 6800 mi
C. 22,300 mi
D. 35,860 mi
56. Most satellites operate in which frequency band?
A. 30 to 300 MHz
B. 300 MHz to 3 GHz
C. 3 GHz to 30 GHz
D. Above 300 GHz
57. The main power sources for a satellite are
A. batteries
B. solar cells
C. fuel cells
D. thermoelectric generators
58. The maximum height of an elliptical orbit is called the
A. Perigee
B. Apex
C. Zenith
D. Apogee
59. Batteries are used to power all satellite subsystems
A. at all times
B. only during emergencies
C. during eclipse periods
D. to give the solar arrays a rest
60. The satellite subsystem that monitors and controls the satellite is the
A. propulsion subsystem
B. power subsystem
C. communications subsystem
D. telemetry, tracking, and command subsystem
61. What is the basic technique used to stabilize a satellite?
A. Gravity-forward motion balance
B. Spin
C. Thruster control
D. Solar panel orientation
62. The jet thrusters are usually fired to
A. maintain altitude
B. put the satellite into the transfer orbit
C. inject the satellite in the geosynchronous orbit
D. bring the satellite back to earth.
63. Most commercial satellite activity occurs in which band(s)?
A. L
B. C and Ku
C. X
D. S and P
64. How can multiple earth stations share a satellite on the same frequencies?
A. Frequency reuse
B. Multiplexing
C. Mixing
D. Frequency hopping
65. What is the typical bandwidth of a satellite band?
A. 36 MHz
B. 40 MHz
C. 70 MHz
D. 500 MHz
66. Which of the following is not usually a part of a transponder are defined by the
A. LNA
B. Mixer
C. Modulator
D. HPA
67. The satellite communications channels in a transponder are defined by the
A. LNA
B. bandpass filter
C. mixer
D. input signals
68. The HPAs in most satellite are
A. TWTs
B. Klystrons
C. Vacuum tubes
D. Magnetrons
69. The physical location of a satellite is determined by its
A. distance from the earth
B. latitude and longitude
C. reference to the stars
D. position relative to the sun
70. The receive GCE system in an earth station performs what function(s)?
A. Modulation and multiplexing
B. Up conversion
C. Demodulation and demultiplexing
D. Down conversion
71. Which of the following types of HPA is not used in earth stations?
A. TWT
B. Transistor
C. Klystron
D. Magnetron
72. What is the common up-converter and down-converter IF?
A. 36 MHz
B. 40 MHz
C. 70 MHz
D. 500 MHz
73. What type of modulation is used on voice and video signals?
A. AM
B. FM
C. SSB
D. QPSK
74. What modulation is normally used with digital data?
A. AM
B. FM
C. SSB
D. QPSK
75. Which of the following is not a typical output from a GPS receiver?
A. Latitude
B. Speed
C. Altitude
D. Longitude
76. The total space loss of transmission and reception for two ground stations with uplink
frequency 8GHz and a downlink of 6 GHz with angle of elevations of 3 and 7 A
respectively is
A. 403 dB
B. 100 dB
C. 20 dB
D. 215 dB
77. The maximum propagation delay of a geostationary satellite is
A. 278 ms
B. 239 ms
C. 300 ms
D. 250 ms
78. The total propagation delay time from transmission to reception of signals from a
ground transmitter to ground receiver with angle of elevation at 10 degrees respectively is
A. 273 ms
B. 239 ms
C. 275 ms
D. 260 ms
79. A satellite which simply reflects the signal without further amplification
A. Passive satellite
B. Active satellite
C. Geostationary satellite
D. Domestic satellite
80. Essentially a satellite ___________ is a radio repeater in the sky
A. transponder
B. comparator
C. duplexer
D. billboard
81. Satellite the orbits in a circular pattern with an angular velocity equal to that of the earth
A. Geostationary
B. Early Bird I
C. Syncorn I
D. Stationary satellite
82. Satellite that provide services within a single country
A. Domsat
B. Comsat
C. Regional
D. Global
83. The round-trip propagation delay between two earth stations through a geosynchronous
satellite is
A. 500 to 600 ms
B. 300 to 400 ms
C. 600 to 700 ms
D. 400 to 500 ms
84. The signal path from earth station satellite
A. Uplink signal
B. Reflected signal
C. Incident signal
D. Downlink signal
85. Designed to receive a signal from a transmitting station on the ground and retransmit it
to a receiving station located elsewhere
A. Communication satellite
B. Repeater
C. Relay station
D. Transponder
86. The signal path from satellite to earth-based receiver.
A. Downlink signal
B. Uplink signal
C. Incident signal
D. Reflected signal
87. A satellite position is measured by its __________ angle with respect to the horizon.
A. elevation
B. depression
C. azimuth
D. critical
88. The ________ angle measures the satellite position clockwise from the direction of true
north.
A. azimuth
B. elevation
C. depression
D. critical
89. incidentally propose the geostationary scheme or orbit of the satellite in 1940s
A. Arthur Clarke
B. Carl Friedrich Gauss
C. Samuel Morse
D. Stephen Gray
90. When the satellite are spaced 4 of the 360 complete circle, how many parking spaces
or orbit slots are available?
A. 90
B. 85
C. 95
D. 80
91. The control routine necessary to keep the satellite in position is referred to as
A. station keeping
B. station tracking
C. station monitoring
D. station maintaining
92. Refers to the satellite orientation with respect to the earth
A. Satellite altitude
B. Satellite position
C. Satellite location
D. Satellite orbit
93. The first intelsat satellite that was launched in 1965 was named
A. Early Bird I
B. Echo
C. Telstar I
D. Courier
94. The first satellite launched for a geosynchronous orbit but unfortunately lost during
orbit injection
A. Syncom I
B. Telstar I
C. Sputnik I
D. Early Bird I
95. When the elevation angle of a geostationary satellite is 23 and the transmitting
frequency is 3840 MHz, what is the free space loss in dB?
A. 196 dB
B. 200 dB
C. 150 dB
D. 100 dB
96. What is the propagation delay when a signal is transmitter by an earth station to a
geosynchronous satellite about 38,500 km above earths equator and then received by the
same earth station?
A. 256 msec
B. 128 msec
C. 300 msec
D. 400 msec
97. What is the free space attenuation of a satellite communications system operating at
36,000 km above the earth at 5.0 GHz?
A. 198 dB
B. 202 dB
C. 142 dB
D. 138 dB
98. Which of the following is the most common application of satellite?
A. Surveillance
B. Military application
C. Communications
D. Newscasting
99. Descending pass for a satellite means a pass from
A. North to South
B. South to North
C. East to West
D. West to East
100. Geostationary stationary satellites are located ___________ with respect to the
equator.
A. 0longitude
B. 0 latitude
C. 90latitude
D. 45 latitude
BROADCASTING
1. Which of the following is the first component of any MATV system to receive broadcast
signals?
a. Filter
b. LNA
c. RF amplifier
d. Antenna
2. Is the most common technique where apartment house, hotels, schools, condominiums,
and multi-unit buildings distribute TV and FM signals to a number of receivers, using a
single head-end.
a. CCTV
b. CATV
c. MATV
d. Antenna
3. TV channel 2, 4 and 5 belong to

a. Low band UHF
b. High band VHF
c. Mid band UHF
d. Low band VHF
4. A mechanism or device which enables the TV camera to move in lateral and tilting
motion
a. Panning device
b. Scanner
c. Tilting
d. Pan/tilt device
5. Which of the following is a solid state imaging device?

a. VIDICON
b. ICONOSCOPE
c. Charge couple device
d. CCTV
6. What class of TV camera lens used to cover short distances?

a. Normal
b. Wide angle
c. Telephoto
d. Zoom
7. What class of TV camera lens used to cover long distances?

a. Normal
b. Wide angle
c. Telephoto
d. Zoom
8. What is the local oscillator frequency in commercial AM broadcast if it is equal to 455

kHz?
a. 0 to 1500 kHz
b. 0 to 455 kHz
c. 540 to 1600 kHz
d. 955 to 2055 kHz
9. What is the allowable deviation ratio of commercial FM broadcast?

a. 20
b. 75
c. 5
d. 25
10. The maximum power suggested by KBP on 919-1312 AM broadcast station in Metro
Manila is
a. 5 kW
b. 10 kW
c. 15 kW
d. 20 kW
11. KBP radio code mandates that station must provide a minimum of ___ minutes
a. 30
b. 45
c. 50
d. 60
12. What is the chroma subcarrier signal frequency for color television?
a. 3.8 MHz
b. 6.8 MHz
c. 7.8 MHz
d. 8.8 MHz
13. What is the frequency tolerance of an FM Radio Broadcast station?
a. 20000 Hz
b. 20 Hz
c. 200 Hz
d. 2000 Hz
14. The minimum frequency separation between frequency of AM broadcasting station

a. 9 kHz
b. 18 kHz
c. 36 kHz
d. 72 kHz
15. The aspect ratio HDTV is

a. 4:3
b. 18:5
c. 14:8
d. 16:9
16. A newscast is a distinct unit of a program with a minimum news content of _____
minute(s) excluding intro, extro, headline and commercial load
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
17. In accordance with existing provision of law and the KBP rules and the regulations, all
stations shall actively promote the growth ands the development of Filipino music by
playing _____ OPM every clock hour.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
18. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed ____ minutes for a one-hour program
outside Metro Manila
a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30
19. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed _____ minutes for a one-hour program
outside Metro Manila.
a. 15
b. 16
c. 17
d. 20
20. Program interruption for airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exceed _____
breaks in every program hour
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
21. Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall not
exceed _____ breaks in every program hour
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
22. For Metro manila, the classification of prime time blocks for FM shall be
a. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
b. 6:00 AM to 12:00 NN
c. 6:00 AM to 6:00 PM
d. 12:00 NN to 12:00 MN
23. For provincial station, the classification of prime time blocks for FM radio shall be
a. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
b. 6:00 AM to 12:00 NN
c. 6:00 AM to 6:00 PM
d. 12:00 NN to 12:00 MN
24. All airtime classifications shall be submitted to and subject for approval by the
a. NTC
b. KBP-SA
c. DOTC
d. CCITT
25. _____ is the time circulation for one horizontal trace
a. 52 us
b. 62 us
c. 48 us
d. 50 us
26. Listing of the date and time of events, programs, equipment, tests, malfunctions and
corrections in communications system.
a. Reporting
b. Documentation
c. Log
d. File
27. Which of the following is not a low impedance microphone?

a. Dynamic
b. Velocity
c. Condenser
d. Crystal
28. Facsimile permits remote duplications of which of the following items?

a. Map
b. Pictures
c. Printed page
d. All of these
29. Television has a lot of features in common with

a. FM stereo
b. Telephone service
c. Motion picture
d. Magazine
30. The major component of the TV signal waveform is the

a. Video
b. Radar
c. Stereo
d. Antenna
31. For NTSC TV system, the image is scanned from

a. Top to bottom
b. Left to right
c. Right to left
d. Choices A and B above
32. One completes NTSC scanning cycle called field consists of how many lines
a. 500
b. 525
c. 625
d. 60
33. The field rate in the NTSC television system

a. 30 Hz
b. 120 Hz
c. 60 Hz
d. 15.75 Hz
34. What is the horizontal synchronous blanking pulse rate?

a. 30 Hz
b. 60 Hz
c. 15.75Hz
d. 120 Hz
35. What is the vertical blanking pulse rate?

a. 30 Hz
b. 60 Hz
c. 15.75 Hz
d. 120 Hz
36. The pulses riding on the vertical blanking pulse

a. Equalizing (sync) pulses
b. Serrated vertical sync pulses
c. Black level pulses
d. Choices A and B above
37. Television camera pickup tube is called

a. Vidicon
b. Image orthicon
c. Plumbicon
d. All of the above
38. The television picture tube magnetic fields can be used for
a. Beam focusing
b. Beam deflection
c. Beam production
d. Beam modulation
39. What is the purpose of an indirectly-heated cathode in a cathode ray tube?

a. Beam focusing
b. Beam deflection
c. Beam production
d. Beam modulation
40. Video modulation for television is

a. Amplitude modulation
b. Frequency modulation
c. Vestigial sideband
d. Both amplitude modulation and vestigial sideband
41. Audio modulation for television is

a. Amplitude modulation
b. Frequency modulation
c. Vestigial sideband
d. Both amplitude modulation and vestigial sideband
42. What is the maximum frequency deviation for audio modulation in TV transmission?
a. 25 kHz
b. 30 kHz
c. 50 kHz
d. 75 kHz
43. The video carrier and the audio carrier are separated by ____ MHz.
a. 4.5
b. 5.5
c. 6.5
d. 7.5
44. In a practical image scanned at the NTSC rate, the spectrum will include components
clustered at the fundamentals and harmonics of _____ kHz
a. 15.75
b. 30
c. 12.25
d. 45.5
45. Brightness of an image is known as

a. Radiance
b. Chrominance
c. Reflectance
d. Luminance
46. The colors at the vertices of the color triangle are referred to as
a. Primary
b. White
c. Desaturated
d. All of the above
47. A color signal which originate in the camera itself with color television pickup?
a. Red
b. Green
c. Blue
d. All of these
48. What are the three separate signals derived from a matrix in a color TV transmitter?
a. Y, I and Q
b. P, D and Q
c. M, N and O
d. R, S and T
49. Range of a VHF television transmitter

a. 54 98 MHz
b. 54 216 MHz
c. 54 128 MHz
d. 54 166 MHz
50. Range of a UHF television transmitter
a. 470 670 MHz
b. 470 770 MHz
c. 470 890 MHz

d. 470 - 980 MHz
51. What is the approximate bandwidth occupied by the chrominance video signal for color
TV?
a. 0.8 MHz
b. 1.8 MHz
c. 8.1 MHz
d. 1.6 MHz
52. The colors found around the perimeter of the color triangle are said to be
a. Saturated
b. Dark
c. Light
d. Monochrome
53. At what position on the color triangle will saturated yellow be located?
a. Between red and blue
b. Between red and green
c. Between blue and green
d. At the center
54. What is the phase difference between the I and Q color signal carriers?
a. 0
b. 45
c. 60
d. 90
55. _____ is the most effective filter for separating luminance and chrominance frequency
components.
a. Low pass
b. Band pass
c. Notch
d. Comb
56. The chrominance processing circuits can be deactivated when monochrome broadcasts
are received by the
a. Color killer
b. SAW filter
c. NOT gate
d. All of the above
57. What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for blanking?
a. 25 %
b. 0 %
c. 12.5 %
d. 75 %
58. What is the percent video level, in percent PEV, for black?
a. 0 %
b. 25 %
c. 12.5 %
d. 70 %
59. What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for white?
a. 0 %
b. 12.5 %
c. 25 %
d. 70 %
60. One should first perform _____ before a convergence setup is performed.
a. Gray tracking
b. Screen setting
c. Alignment
d. Degaussing
61. If there are too many harmonics, one should check the
a. Coupling
b. Tuning of circuits
c. Shielding
d. Any of these
62. In transmitter amplifier design, an even-order harmonics can be prevented or reduced by

a. Using a push-pull amplifier
b. Operating class C
c. Operating class AB
d. All of these
63. The vertical and horizontal pulses are separated at the

a. Sync separator
b. AFC
c. High voltage
d. AGC
64. The reason why buffer stage is included in a transmitter is to

a. Present a constant load to the oscillator stage
b. Present a low impedance to the oscillator stage
c. Stop the oscillator from generating parasitic oscillations
d. All of these
65. Where is the operating position of a radio station?

a. On the bridge
b. At the control point
c. At the location of the receiver
d. At the location of the transmitter
66. The alignment of the three color guns to a common point is known as
a. Blooming
b. Confetti
c. Demodulation
d. Convergence
67. A _____ is equivalent to 525 scanning lines

a. Field
b. Frame
c. Cycle
d. Interface set
68. A _____ represents one set of 262 scanning lines

a. Field
b. Frame
c. Cycle
d. Interface set
69. The number of scanning lines is _____ per second

a. 14750
b. 15570
c. 15750
d. 16550
70. Picture frames are repeated at the rate of _____ per second
a. 25
b. 30
c. 40
d. 50
71. Lack of raster is an indication of no

a. AGC
b. High voltage
c. Video signal
d. Television signal
72. The sound and video signals are separated at the _____ of the TV receiver
a. IF stage
b. Video amplifier
c. Video detector
d. Burst separator
73. The presence of color bars is an indication that there is a problem in the _____ circuit
a. Horizontal
b. Reactor
c. Burst separator
d. Chroma amplifier
74. Type of emission produced when a frequency modulated transmitter is modulated by a

TV signal
a. A3F
b. F3F
c. A3C
d. F3C
75. What is emission A3F?

a. RTTY
b. SSB
c. TV
d. Modulated CW
76. What is emission F3F?

a. Facsimile
b. Modulated CW
c. Television
d. RTTY
77. Cause of slow rising white hum bars is the television

a. Pad filter
b. Bad rectifier
c. Bad picture tube
d. High voltage transformer
78. Adjusting the _____ may eliminate color confetti

a. Color chroma amplifier
b. Color killer
c. Color detector
d. Color oscillator
79. Video signal amplitude determine the picture quality called

a. Chrominance
b. Brightness
c. Contrast
d. Luminance
80. Part of broadcast day from midnight to local sunrise

a. Daytime
b. Experimental
c. Nighttime
d. Dawntime
81. Part of broadcast day from local sunset to local sunrise

a. Dawntime
b. Nighttime
c. Daytime
d. Experimental
82. What causes snow in television?

a. High Q in the tuned circuit
b. Excessive gain
c. Random noise in the signal
d. Insufficient wave traps
83. Vestigial sideband is known as _____ type of emission

a. CF3
b. C3F
c. B8E
d. A3E
84. Vestigial sideband modulation is commonly used in

a. TV broadcasting
b. Monaural broadcasting
c. Stereo broadcasting
d. HF point-to-point communications
85. Which of the following filters block FM radio band for TV channels (2 to 13)?
a. High-pass filter
b. Low-pass filter
c. Band pass filter
d. Band-reject filter
86. The FM broadcast band is from

a. 535 to 1600 kHz
b. 30 to 300 kHz
c. 88 to 108 MHz
d. 300 to 2000 MHz
87. The type of emission used by standard AM radio broadcast

a. A5C
b. A0
c. A3
d. F3
88. The standard AM radio broadcast belongs to which frequency band?

a. MF
b. HF
c. VHF
d. LF
89. When were UHF channels (14 83) of television added?

a. 1902
b. 1945
c. 1947
d. 1952
90. When was colored TV standards established in the United States?
a. 1904
b. 1945
c. 1953
d. 1960
91. What synchronizes the horizontal line of the TV picture tube?

a. HFC
b. HSC
c. HAFC
d. All of these
92. A measure of how well the receiver can respond to every weak signals/
a. Selectivity
b. Sensitivity
c. Fidelity
d. Quality factor
93. What is the allowable frequency deviation of a commercial FM broadcast band?

a. 15 kHz
b. 75 kHz
c. 5 kHz
d. 100 kHz
94. The final amplifier of either FM or AM transmitter is operated as

a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
95. Standard AM broadcasting use _____ for greater and efficient coverage
a. Circular polarized wave antenna
b. Horizontal polarized wave antenna
c. Both vertical and horizontal polarized wave antenna
d. Vertical polarized wave antenna
96. Receiver sensitivity means

a. The frequency allocation of the system
b. Input impedance of the receiver
c. The ability of picking up weak signal
d. The power to deliver the information
97. The main functions of the RF amplifier in a superheterodyne receiver is to

a. Provide improved tracking
b. Permit better adjacent-channel rejection
c. Improve the rejection of the image frequency
d. All of these
98. Local oscillator of a broadcast receiver always tunes to a frequency higher than the
incoming frequency in order
a. To help the image frequency rejection
b. To allow easy tracking
c. To allow adequate frequency coverage without switching
d. All of these
99. Type of filter used in TV receivers that separates the chroma signal from the colorplexed
video signal but leaves intact the Y-component
a. Comb filter
b. Bandpass filter
c. Color filter
d. Low pass filter
100. What is the first letter-symbol for emission of unmodulated carrier?

a. A
b. N
c. H
d. F
101. The channel for cable TV frequency range of 5.75 to 11.75 MHz
a. T-1
b. T-8
c. 2
d. 3
102. The frequency range for cable TV channel T-13

a. 23.75 29.75 MHz
b. 60 66 MHz
c. 41.75 47.55 MHz
d. 5.75 11.75 MHz

103. Channel 8 frequency range allocation in cable TV
a. 54 60 MHz
b. 66 72 MHz
c. 180 186 MHz
d. 204 210 MHz
104. The _____ of a television system is a measure of its ability to delineate picture detail
a. Contrast
b. Resolution
c. Hue
d. Pixels
105. CCIR standards for the internal exchange of programmes on film for television used
a. Rec 265-6
b. Rec 407-4
c. Rec 408-5
d. Rec 450-1
106. CCIR transmission standards for FM sound broadcasting at VHF

a. Rec 601.2
b. Rec 501.2
c. Rec 500.4
d. Rec 450.1
107. ISO Rec 23 in 1976 is the standard for

a. Recorded characteristics for magnetic sound records on full cost 16 mm motion picture
film
b. Projector usage of 16 mm motion picture films for direct front projector
c. Camera usage of 35 mm motion picture film
d. Camera usage of 16 mm motion picture film
108. International broadcasting (short wave) uses frequency between _____ accordance
with international agreements
a. 7012 and 26100 kHz
b. 6409 and 26100 kHz
c. 5950 and 26100 kHz
d. 10950 and 26100 kHz
109. Which of the following station below is a regional channel?
a. Class I-A
b. Class II-D
c. Class III-B
d. Class IV
110. The permissible power in kW of station II-A during nighttime is

a. 0.25 50
b. 10 50
c. 1 5
d. None of these
111. The television frequency which are now allocated to the land mobile services
a. 806 and 192 MHz
b. 800 and 806 MHz
c. 668 and 674 MHz
d. 776 and 782 MHz
112. Numerical frequency band designation of channel 9
a. 488 494 MHz

b. 530 536 MHz
c. 632 638 MHz

d. 186 192 MHz
113. Cable TV systems originate from

a. Germany
b. Dallas, Texas
c. Pennsylvania
d. Japan
114. A term applied to third and higher order products, which can greatly degrade the
performance of a system
a. Composite triple beat
b. Single dual mode
c. Field strength
d. Noise
115. A station similar to a translator station in terms of equipment and service area but is
permitted to originate originate programming from virtually any source
a. DME
b. LPTV
c. HDTV
d. ITFS
116. Three stations are licensed to eligible educational entities for the distribution of
program material to students enrolled in instructional curricula
a. Translator
b. LPTV
c. HDTV
d. ITFS
117. ITFS means

a. International Television Frequency Standard
b. Instructional Telephone Frequency Service
c. Instructional Television Fixed Service
d. International telecommunications Frequency Standard
118. MDS means

a. Multipoint Distribution Service
b. Multipoint Digital Service
c. Maritime Data Standards
d. Multipoint Drop Standards
119. Direct broadcast satellite based allocation

a. 12.2 12.7 GHz downlink
b. 17.3 17.8 GHz for uplink

c. 3.7 4.2 GHz for downlink
d. 12.2 12.7 GHz for downlink and 17.3 17.8 GHz for uplink
120. What is the channel number of an FM station with 88.1 MHz carrier?
a. 201
b. 202
c. 203
d. 204
121. What is the carrier frequency of an FM station with channel number of 300?
a. 107.5 MHz
b. 101.1 MHz
c. 107.9 MHz
d. 99.5 MHz
122. If an FM station has an effective radiated power of 100 kW then it is under what class?
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
123. The video signal amplitude determines the quality of the picture otherwise known as
a. Hue
b. Luminance
c. Chrominance
d. Contrast
124. _____ is defined as to send out in all direction

a. Broadcast
b. Announce
c. Media
d. All of these
125. The ultimate Dolby surround system is the

a. Dolby NR
b. Dolby Prologic
c. dBx
d. hall matrix
Test Yourself Exam 01

1. ECE Board Exam March 1996
That dielectric material of an optical fiber surrounding the core

A. Cladding
B. Armor
C. Shield
D. Cover
An antenna that is circularly polarized is the ____________.

A. parabolic reflector
B. helical
C. Yagi-uda
D. small circular loop
A word in telegraphy consist of __________ characters plus a word space.

A. 11
B. 7 and
C. 8
D. 5
The number of voice band channels in master group per CCITT standard is __________.
A. 300
B. 480
C. 600
D. 120
The power of standard test tone is normally ____________.

A. 1 dB
B. 0 mW
C. 1 mW
D. 1 W
LORAN is a navigational system used primarily for _____________.

A. blind landing
B. obtaining your fixes location over large distances
C. automatic collision warning
D. approach control
The expander in a companding device provides ___________.

A. greater amplification for low signal levels
B. less amplification for low signal levels
C. greater amplification for high signal levels
D. lesser pressure for transmission cables
LORAN is a navigation system used primarily for

A. approach control
B. obtaining fixes over large distances
C. blind landing
D. automatic collision warning
At what power level does a 1 kHz tone cause zero interference (144 weighted) ?
A. -90 dB
B. -90 dBm
C. 90 dBm
D. 90 dB
One character or a sequence of characters forming a part, or the whole of a message with a
specific meaning
A. Signs
B. Call sign
C. Code
D. Identifier
The K-factor under normal atmospheric conditions in a microwave radio data profile
calculation is equal to ___________.
A. 2/3
B. 0
C. 4/3
D. Infinity
What is the IBMs asynchronous data link protocol designation?

A. 83 B
B. 8A1 / 8B1
C. 93 B
D. 9A1/ 9B1
EIRP stands for _______________.

A. effective isotropic refracted power
B. effective and ideal radiated power
C. effective isotropic reflected power
D. effective isotropic radiated power
The modulation system used for telegraphy is

A. frequency-shift keying
B. two-tone modulation
C. pulse-code modulation
D. single-tone modulation
The standard that specifies a balanced interface cable that will operate bit rates up to 10
Mbps with in a span distances up to 1200 m.
A. RS-423A
B. RS-422A
C. RS-550A
D. RS-449A
An antenna which is not resonant at a particular frequencies and so can be used over a wide
band of frequencies and so can be used over a wide band of frequencies is called
A. aperiodic
B. boresight
C. cassegrain
D. top-loaded
A receiver connected to an antenna whose resistance is 50 ohms has an equivalent noise

resistance of 30 ohms. What is the receivers noise temperature?
A. 754 K
B. 464 K
C. 174 K
D. 293 K
___________ occurs when the microwave beam is at point of grazing over an obstacle.
A. Diffraction
B. Refraction
C. Absorption
D. Reflection
Atmospheric condition is controlled by

A. humidity
B. pressure
C. temperature
D. all of these
The characteristics impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon its ________.
A. conductor spacing
B. conductor diameter
C. length
D. conductor radius
What is the purpose of a beat frequency oscillator (BFO)?

A. Aid in the reception of weak voice-modulated signals
B. Generates a signal, whose frequency is the same as that of the intermediate frequency
C. Generates a 1kHz note for Morse code reception
D. Generates an output, whose frequency differs from that of the intermediate frequency by
1 kHz
The point on the satellite orbit, closest to the earth is

A. prograde
B. perigee
C. zenith
D. apogee
The potential difference between any exposed structured to ground in any electrical
installation should not exceed _________ volts RMS.
A. 10
B. 45
C. 0
D. 30
The capture area of an antenna is directly proportional to the

A. frequency of the received signal
B. distance between transmitter and receiver
C. gain of the antenna
D. power density of the signal
Modems are required to connect computer to telephone lines because ___________.
A. telephone company rules required them
B. the telephone network bandwidth is too high
C. none of the above
D. the telephone network will pass direct current
The standard reference antenna for the directive gain is ___________.

A. elementary doublet
B. isotropic antenna
C. half-wave dipole
D. infinitesimal dipole
One hundred twenty bars of pressure variation is equal to

A. 120 dBSPL
B. 115.56 dBSPL
C. 41.58 dBSPL
D. 57.78 dBSPL
It is a spacecraft placed in orbit around the earth carrying onboard microwave receiver and
transmitting equipments.
A. Fiber optic equipment
B. Communications satellite
C. Wireless radio system
D. Coaxial cable syste
One type of pulse communications system uses pulse that appear as a group, and which
vary in number according to the loudness of the voice. This type of pulse modulation is
called
A. pulse duration modulation
B. pulse amplitude modulation
C. pulse code modulation
D. pulse position modulation
A device to be connected across the headset in telephone receivers to reduce the effects of
acoustic shock.
A. Ground
B. Two rectifiers in parallel with opposite polarities
C. Protector
D. Fuse
Judgment on the case against an ECE shall become final and executory after
A. 10 days
B. 60 days
C. 30 days
D. 15 days
The equivalent noise temperature of the amplifier is 25 K. What is the noise figure?
A. 1.86
B. 0.1086
C. 1.086
D. 10.86
The letter-number designation B8E is a form of modulation also known as ___________.

A. pilot carrier system
B. independent sideband emission
C. lincomplex
D. vestigial sideband transmission
When the transmitting and receiving antennas are in line-of-sight of each other, the mode of
propagation is ________ wave.
A. space or direct
B. ground
C. surface
D. sky
Crosstalk coupling is ___________.

A. dBm (disturbing pair) minus dBm (disturbed pair)
B. the difference between readings on a cable pair with a tone and a cable pair without tone
read at the far end of a cable
C. signals from one circuit that get into another circuit
D. All of these are true
According to the Nyquist theorem, the sampling rate that can be used in a PCM system is
________ the highest audio frequency.
A. once
B. eight times
C. twice
D. thrice
Passive crossover components cause some frequencies to be delayed with respect to the
other frequencies at the crossover point.
A. Phase shift
B. Phase correction
C. Phase-error correction
D. Time alignment
A car horn outdoors produces a sound intensity level of 90 dB at 10 ft away. At this
distance, what is the sound power in watt?
A. 12 W
B. 0.12 W
C. 0.012 W
D. 1.2 W
What is the one principal difference between synchronous and asynchronous transmission?
A. the pulse height are different
B. the clocking is derived from the data in synchronous transmission
C. the clocking is mixed with the data in asynchronous
D. the bandwidth required is different
The lowest layer in the ionosphere

A. D
B. F2
C. E
D. F1
What is the number of pins in the RS-232C interface?

A. 25
B. 15
C. 20
D. 20
SSB transmission requires only ______ of the bandwidth for a DSBFC transmission.
A.
B. 2/3
C.
D.
The method of generating FM used by broadcasting station is

A. direct
B. all of these
C. indirect
D. insertion
What is the transmission rate of a system for transmitting the output of a microcomputer to
a line printer operating at a speed of 30 lines/minute? Assume that the line printer has 8 bits
of data per character and prints out 80 characters/line.
A. 800 bps
B. 400 bps
C. 320 bps
D. 640 bps
Communications code is ____________.

A. eight bits per character
B. agreed upon in advance between sender and receiver
C. the same in all modern computers
D. either seven or eight bits per character
What is the reference tone level for dBm?

A. -82 dBm
B. -85 dBm
C. -67 dBm
D. -90 dBm
A type of an underground antenna is a/an __________ antenna.

A. Hertz
B. isotropic
C. parabolic
D. Marconi
Which of the following pulse modulation systems is analog?

A. Delta
B. Differential PCM
C. PWM
D. PCM
What is the purpose of the receivers squelch circuit?

A. To overcome fluctuations in the level the RF signal arriving at the receiver antenna
B. To prevent fluctuations in the AGC bias level
C. To reduce the receivers sensitivity to all incoming signals
D. To prevent amplified noise from reaching the loudspeaker during the absence of an
incoming signal
TACAN is a navigational aid providing ___________.

A. bearing and distance indication
B. speed and height indication
C. bearing and weather information
D. instrument-landing glide paths
In __________ transmission, a unique SYNC character is transmitted at the beginning of

each message.
A. asynchronous
B. synchronous
C. digital
D. analogue
If the terminating impedance is exactly equal to the characteristic impedance of the

transmission line the return loss is ___________.
A. zero
B. one
C. infinite
D. None of these
What is the main purpose of a communications system?

A. None of these
B. To have a frequency assignment
C. For modulation
D. To provide an acceptable replica of the information at the destination
What is meant by antenna gain?

A. The final amplifier gain minus the transmission line losses (including any phasing lines
present)
B. The ratio of the amount of power produced by the antenna compared to the output power
of the transmitter
C. The ratio of the signal in the backward direction
D. The numeric ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna to that of
another antenna
Binary communications systems are better because
A. they can interface directly with the analog telephone network
B. the components are simpler, less costly, and more reliable
C. people think better in binary
D. interstate calls are less costly
In the phase shift method, How many circuits must be balanced?

A. None of these
B. 1
C. 4
D. 2
The carrier swing necessary to provide 80% modulation in the FM broadcasting band is
__________.
A. 150 kHz
B. 120 kHz
C. 60 kHz
D. 75 kHz
The correctness and accuracy of the transmitted message content is

A. verified by the modem
B. communications system
C. determined by the sender and receiver
D. ensured by use of digital technique
The signal in a channel is measured to be 23 dB while noise in the same channel is

measured to be 9 dB. The signal to noise ratio therefore is __________.
A. 9/23
B. 23/9
C. 32 dB
D. 14 dB
Three audio waves with 100,200 and 300 volts amplitude respectively, simultaneously
modulate a 450 volts carrier. What is the total percent of modulation of the AM wave?
A. 69 %
B. 115.5 %
C. 50%
D. 83%
If the percentage modulation of an AM amplifier is 88% and the modulating signal is 1 volt,
the carrier has an amplitude of _______________.
A. 1.14 volts
B. 0.88 volt
C. 1.88 volts
D. 0.12 volt
It consists of a number of dipoles of equal size, equally spaced along a straight line with all
dipoles fed in the same phase from the same source.
A. Log-periodic antenna
B. Yagi antenna
C. End-fire array
D. Broadside array
Data switching systems.

A. improve the efficiency of data transfer
B. are limited to small data networks
C. required additional lines
D. are not used in data system
A type of array antenna which consists of one half-wave driven dipole, one reflector and
one director
A. Hertzian dipole
B. Yagi-uda
C. Broadside collinear
D. Log periodic dipole array
Power is a _____________ amount of energy used in specific period of time

A. large
B. definite
C. electrical
D. relative
The midrange frequency range of sound is from

A. 256 to 2048 Hz
B. 2048 to 4096 Hz
C. 512 to 2048 Hz
D. 16 to 64 Hz
To connect coaxial line to a parallel-wire _________ is the best to use.
A. directional coupler
B. quarter-wave transformer
C. balun
D. slotted line
In AM, the carrier carries ____________ intelligence.

A. no
B. difference
C. distorted
D. same
Characteristics impedance of a transmission line is the impedance measured at the

___________ when its length is infinite.
A. input
B. shorted end of the line
C. output
D. midsection
Cross modulation on a receiver is eliminated at the

A. RF stage
B. mixer stage
C. IF stage
D. detector stage
A speaker cabinet has an internal volume 84,950 cm3. It has a port area on the baffle of
3,230 cm2 and baffle thickness of 19 mm. What is the Helmholtz resonance hertz of this
speaker enclosure?
A. 260 Hz
B. 245 Hz
C. 265 Hz
D. 250 Hz
What quarterwave transformer will match a 100 line to an antenna whose value is 175?
A. 132.29
B. 150
C. 16.58
D. 137.5
The local loop of the telephone system is understood to be

A. a single piece of wire connecting the subscribers telephone set to another telephone set
in an adjacent room
B. a two-wire or four-wire communication circuit between the customers premise and
central office
C. a four-wire circuit connecting a facsimile machine to a computer
D. a group of wires connecting a telephone set to a modem
In what region of the world is sporadic-E most prevalent?

A. The equatorial regions
B. The northern hemisphere
C. The arctic regions
D. The polar regions
The process of assigning PCM codes to absolute magnitudes

A. Overloading
B. All of these
C. Quantizing
D. Multiplexing
It is a measure of the microwave power radiated from an antenna as a function of angular

direction from the antenna axis.
A. Antenna pattern
B. Polarization
C. Beamwidth
D. Sidelobes
It is the made from semiconductor material such as aluminum-galium-arsenide or gallium-

arsenide-phosphide.
A. APD
B. Injection laser diode
C. Light emitting diode
D. Positive-intrinsic-negative
Which one is not the basic electrical protection measures in the Philippine Electronics
Code?
A. Voltage/ current limiting and interrupting
B. Undergrounding
C. Grounding and bonding
D. Shielding
What does the noise weighting curve shows?

A. Noise signals measured with a 144 handset
B. Power levels of noise found in carrier systems
C. The interfering effect of other frequencies in a voice channel compared with a
reference frequency of one kilohertz
D. Interfering effects of signals compared with a 3-kHz tone
What is the difference between phase and frequency modulation?

A. Is purely theoretical because they are the same in practice
B. Lies in poorer audio response of phase modulation
C. Lies in the different definitions of the modulation index
D. Is too great to make two systems compatible
When a transmission line uses ground return, it is called a/an __________ line.
A. ungrounded
B. balanced
C. unbalanced
D. grounded
What is the gain of four identically polarized antennas stacked one above the other and fed
in phase?
A. 3 dB over the gain of one antenna
B. 10 dB over the gain of one antenna
C. 4 dB over the gain of one antenna
D. 6 dB over the gain of one antenna
The ratio of the level of the modulated output of a transmitter under conditions of standard
test modulation to the level of the demodulated output with no modulation applied both
measured with the same bandwidth.
A. Reference audio output
B. None of these
C. Audio frequency response
D. Residual noise level
The ___________ filter attenuates signals but passes frequencies below and above that
band.
A. low pass
B. band pass
C. band stop
D. high pass
In a telephone system, the customers telephone directory numbering is from 000 to 999,
what is the capacity of the system?
A. 1000 lines
B. 100,000 lines
C. 10,000 lines
D. 100 lines
An absorption loss caused by valence electrons in the silica material from which fibers are
manufactured.
A. Modal dispersion
B. Infrared absorption
C. Ion resonance absorption
D. Ultraviolet absorption
In an FM receiver, which circuit removes amplitude variations?

A. Exciter
B. Mixer
C. Discriminator
D. Limiter
A one-hop, full duplex, microwave system in a space diversity arrangement. Determine

how many receivers in all are used?
A. 8
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
The frequency spectrum of the stereophonic FM signal.

A. 67 kHz
B. 59.5 to 74.5 kHz
C. 19 to 38 kHz
D. 30 to 53 kHz
Termination means
A. result of disconnecting a line from a transmitter
B. result of cutting both ends of a conductor
C. looking back impedance of a line with no load
D. load connected to the output end of a transmission line
Asynchronous protocol is
A. message oriented
B. clock oriented
C. bit oriented
D. character oriented
Transmission lines are either balanced or unbalanced with respect to _________.
A. negative terminal
B. input
C. ground
D. positive terminal
What is the velocity factor for non-foam dielectric 50 or 75 ohm flexible coaxial cable such
as RG 8, 11, 58 and 59?
A. 2.70
B. 0.10
C. 0.66
D. 0.30
Gain of an isotropic antenna

A. -1 dB
B. 1 dB
C. 0 dB
D. 2 dB
In measuring noise in a voice channel at a 4 dB test point level, the meter reads -70 dBm
(F1A weighted), convert the reading to pWp.
A. 53
B. 93
C. 63
D. 83
Power is always __________.

A. a definite amount of energy
B. all of these
C. the rate at which energy is used
D. expressed in watts
Radio fading resulting from obstruction losses.

A. Log normal fading
B. None of these
C. Multi-path fading
D. Rayleigh fading
After the IF stages have been aligned, the next stage to align in FM receiver is.
A. local oscillator
B. limiter stage
C. RF amplifier
D. mixer stage
___________ is a device in data transmission to interface data terminal equipment to an

analogue transmission line.
A. RS 232
B. Connector
C. Modem
D. RJ-11 plug
What is the primary advantage of DSBSC in AM?

A. Reduce bandwidth over standard AM
B. All of these
C. It is simpler to transmit and receive than the standard AM
D. No transmitter power is wasted in the carrier
1. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Which frequency band is the standard AM radio broadcast?

A. HF
B. UHF
C. MF
D. VHF
A system that performs parallel-to-serial and serial-to-parallel conversion of data link.

A. DCE
B. DTE
C. Modem
D. PC
The line control unit (LCU) operates on the data digital form.
A. Data communications equipment (DCE)
B. UART
C. Modem
D. Data terminal equipment (DTE)
Quantization noise is caused by

A. binary coding techniques
B. serial transmission errors
C. the synchronization between encoder and decoder
D. the approximation of the quantized signal
Speaker is a device that __________.

A. convert current variations into sound waves
B. none of these
C. convert electrical energy to mechanical energy
D. convert sound waves into current and voltage
An object farther from a converging lens than its focal point always has an _______ image.
A. virtual
B. the same in size
C. inverted
D. smaller size
The loss in signal power as light travels down a fiber is

A. attenuation
B. propagation
C. absorption
D. scattering
Energy that has neither been radiated into space nor completely transmitted.
A. Captured waves
B. Incident waves
C. Standing waves
D. Modulated waves
One of the reasons why FDM is being replaced by TDM is

A. noise is amplified with voice when an FDM system is used
B. it is difficult to place channels side by side
C. there is more time than frequency
D. Most available frequencies has been used
Which determines the number of sideband components of FM?

A. Modulation frequency
B. Modulation index
C. Carrier frequency
D. All of these
How would one squeeze more channels of communication into TDM frames of standard
length?
A. Shorten the time delay for each channel
B. Raise the amplitude
C. Add modulators
D. Remove the synchronizing pulses
When one stations is designated as master and rest of the stations are considered slaves
message handling is ________.
A. polling
B. WAN
C. LAN
D. OSI
How many satellite orbital slots are requested by the Philippine government from ITU?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 5
D. 3
The output of a balanced modulator is ____________.

A. LSB and USB
B. LSB
C. USB
D. Carrier
RS-232, RS-449, RS-530, V, 24 and X.21 are examples of ____________.

A. standards for interfaces between modems and transmission facilities
B. standards for various types of transmission channels
C. standards for interfaces between terminals and modems
D. standards for end to end performance of data communications system
A special service circuit connecting two private branch exchanges (PBX).

A. Phantom line
B. Private line
C. Tie trunk
D. Tandem trunk
What is the baseband frequency of standard FDM basic supergroup?

A. 312 to 552 kHz
B. 300 to 600 kHz
C. 60 to 2540 kHz
D. 60 to 108 kHz
What is the data rate of the ISDN Basic access B channel?

A. 192 kbps
B. 32 kbps
C. 64 kbps
D. 144 kbps
Which tester is used to measure SWR?
A. Spectrum analyzer
B. Multimeter
C. Reflectometer
D. Oscilloscope
What is the transmission rate of a GSM cellular system?

A. 64 kbps
B. 240 kbps
C. 128 kbps
D. 270 kbps
A dipole antenna requires to be feed with 20 kW of power to produce a given signal

strength to a particular distant point. If the addition of a reflector makes the same field
strength available with an input power of 11 kW. What is the gain in dB obtain by the use of
the reflector ? ( Gain referred to this particular dipole)
A. 4.24
B. 1.81
C. 4.75
D. 2.6
Pulse carrier at the ratio of 8000 pulse/sec is amplitude modulated by an analog signal this
type of modulation is
A. PAM
B. ADM
C. DM
D. PCM
What is the applied power if a thermal RF wattmeter is connected to a transmitter through a

variable attenuator? The wattmeter reads 84 mW when 15 dB of attenuation is used.
A. 4.656 watts
B. 2.656 watts
C. 3.656 watts
D. 2.856 watts
Collects very weak signal from a broadcast satellite

A. Satellite dish
B. LNB
C. Yagi-Uda antenna
D. Satellite receiver
A seven-bit character can represent one of _________ possibilities.
A. 14
B. 64
C. 128
D. 7
The maximum power suggested by KBP on 919-1312 AM broadcast station in Metro
Manila is
A. 10 kW
B. 20 kW
C. 15 kW
D. 5 kW
A loudspeaker cabinet has an internal volume of 5,184 in3 (84,950 cm3). It has a port area
on the baffle of 50 in2 (322.58cm2) and a thickness of 0.70 in (18 mm). What is the
Helmholtz resonance, in hertz, of this loudspeaker enclosure?
A. 250 Hz
B. 245 Hz
C. 240 Hz
D. 255 Hz
When the clearance above the obstruction is equal to the radii of even Fresnel zone at the
point of reflection the RSL
A. remains the same
B. is above threshold
C. is decreased
D. is increased
Digital transmission provides a higher level of signal quality than analog transmission
because
A. repeaters regenerate digital pulses and remove distorstion
B. digital signals are easier to sample than analog signals
C. digital signals are smaller than analog signals and cannot easily be distorted
D. analog signals are continuous and not easily distorted.
A _________ interconnects LAN having identical protocols at the physical and data link
layers.
A. All of these
B. bridge
C. router
D. Gateway
Both frequency and phase modulation utilize ________ modulation

A. Phase
B. AM and FM
C. Digital
D. Angle
The different angles of entry of light into an optical fiber when the diameter of the core is
many times the wavelength of the light transmitter is known as ________.
A. refraction
B. sensor
C. mode
D. emitter
An invitation from the primary to a secondary to transmit a message.

A. Retransmission
B. Selection
C. Reuse
D. Polling
An agency of the United Nations that formulates standards and recommend practices for all
civil aviation
A. ICAO
B. CAA
C. IATA
D. ATO
The transformer signal coding method for T1 carrier is

A. Binary
B. NRZ
C. Manchester
D. Bipolar
When the value of k increases, the effective result is ______ of the equivalent curvatures.
A. downward curvatures
B. flattening
C. bulging
D. sharp curvature
An electromagnetic wave consists of

A. a magnetic field only
B. both electric and magnetic fields
C. an electric field only
D. non-magnetic field only
In a transmission line, if the maximum current to minimum current ratio is 2:1 what is the
ratio of the maximum voltage to minimum voltage?
A. 4:1
B. 1:2
C. 1:4
D. 2:1
Satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earths station.

A. Vertically polarized
B. Uplink
C. Downlink
D. RHCP
Multiplexing scheme use by baseband transmission.

A. FDM
B. Space multiplexing
C. TDM
D. Statistical multiplexing
Which stands for dB relative level?

A. dBrn
B. dBm
C. dBr
D. dBa
What is the maximum color TV bandwidth?

A. 1.6 MHz
B. 0.5 MHz
C. 1.0 MHz
D. 1.3 MHz
If Ns=250, determine the earth radius k-factor.

A. 1.98
B. 1.23
C. 1.33
D. 1.29
Digital modulation technique used in modems.

A. ASK
B. PSK
C. FSK
D. All of these
Which of the following is not a baseband signal modulation?

A. RF carrier
B. Video System
C. Audio signal
D. Binary coded pulses
The standing wave ratio is equal to ________ if the load is properly matched with the
transmission line.
A. 1
B. 50
C. 10
D. 2
Noise from random acoustic or electric noise that has equal per cycle over a specified total
frequency band.
A. Thermal noise
B. White noise
C. Gaussian noise
D. All of these
When was the UHF channel (14-83) of television were added?

A. 1852
B. 1904
C. 1947
D. 1952
Multiplexing in a time division multiplexer occurs based upon

A. the position of a frame within the group of frames
B. the positioning of data within a frame
C. the priority assigned to a connected device
D. the activity of a connected device
Ethernet is baseband system using CSMA/CD operating at

A. 20 Mbps
B. 10 Mbps
C. 30 Mbps
D. 40 Mbps
A microwave communications system space loss calculation formula is

A. 92.4 + 10 log f +20 log d
B. 94.2 + 10 log f +20 log d
C. 92.4 + 20 log f +20 log d
D. 94.2 + 20 log f +20 log d
Which is the non-resonant antenna?

A. Broadside Antenna
B. Folded Dipole
C. Rhombic antenna
D. End fire array
The first commercial satellite

A. Explorer
B. Sputnik
C. Telstar
D. Early bird
A quadrature signaling have ________ possible states.

A. 16
B. 8
C. 32
D. 4
Proposed the use of a clad glass fiber as a dielectric waveguide.

A. Kao and Keck
B. Karpon and Keck
C. Karpon and Bockham
D. Bockham and Kao
What band does VSAT first operate?

A. X-band
B. C-band
C. Ku-band
D. L-band
What is the method of diversity reception where the signal is transmitted on 2 different
frequencies over the same path?
A. Quadruple
B. Frequency
C. Polarization
D. Space
The wavelength of light has no role in

A. Diffraction
B. Interference
C. Resolving power
D. Polarization
Which of the following filters block FM radio band for TV channels (2 to 13)?
A. High-pass filter
B. Band reject filter
C. Low-pass filter
D. Band-pass filter
The standard ASCII

A. is version II of ASC
B. is used only in US and Canada
C. has 132 characters including 32 control characters
D. is subset of 8-bit EBCDIC code
Luminous efficiency is least for a

A. mercury vapor lamp
B. low-wattage light bulb
C. high-wattage light bulb
D. fluorescent tube
Transmission lines when connected to antenna have

A. capacitive load
B. resistive load whose resistance is less than characteristics impedance
C. resistive load at the resonant frequency
D. resistive load whose resistance is greater than the characteristic impedance of the line
What is the free space loss, in dB, between two microwave parabolic antennas 38.0
kilometer apart operating at 7.0 GHz?
A. 145.6 dB
B. 138.5 dB
C. 135.5 dB
D. 140.89 dB
What is the equivalent output of a circuit in dBm, if it is has an output of 10 watts?

A. 10 dBm
B. 30 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 40 dBm
Satellite engine use

A. liquid fuel
B. jet propulsion
C. ion propulsion system
D. solar jet
Low-power radar uses

A. RIMPATT
B. TRAPATT
C. Magnetron
D. IMPATT
Transmission line must be matched to the load to

A. transfer maximum voltage to the load
B. transfer maximum current to the load
C. reduce the load current
D. transfer maximum power to the load
Electromagnetic wave travel at __________ in free space.

A. 300,000 km/sec
B. 100,000 km/ sec
C. 400,000 km/sec
D. 200km/sec
When electromagnetic wave are propagated through a waveguide, they

A. are reflected from the walls but do not travel along them
B. travel along all four walls of the waveguide
C. travel along the broader walls of the guide
D. travel through the dielectric without touching the walls
Codes must be
A. agreed upon in advance between sender and receiver
B. eight bit per character
C. the same in all modern computer
D. either seven or eighth bits per character
Combination of modulator, channel and detector.

A. Transceiver
B. Discrete channel
C. T/R channel
D. Transponder
What is the stage of the sand becoming silicon?

A. Hot
B. Gas
C. Liquid
D. Molten
Noise reduction system used for film sound in movie

A. dBx
B. dolby
C. dBa
D. dBm
What is the principal difference between asynchronous and synchronous transmission?

A. The clocking is mixed with the data in synchronous transmission
B. The pulse height are difficult
C. The clocking is derived from the data in synchronous
D. The bandwidth required is difficult.
You are measuring a voice channel at a -4 dB test point level, the meter reads -73 dBm
(pure test tone) convert the reading in dBmCO.
A. 16
B. 18
C. 22
D. 12
What is the type of emission use by standard AM radio broadcast?

A. A0
B. F3
C. A3
D. A5C
____________ is the average rate of transmission of sound energy in a given direction
through a cross sectional area of 1 sq.m. at right angle to the direction.
A. Sound pressure
B. Sound intensity
C. Pressure variation
D. Loudness
Top loading is used in an antenna in order to increase its ___________.

A. input capacitance
B. beamwidth
C. bandwidth
D. effective height
What component in the telephone set has the primary function of interfacing the handset to
the local loop?
A. Varistor
B. Induction coil
C. Resistor
D. Capacitor
The first passive satellite transponder.

A. Early bird
B. Score
C. Moon
D. Sputnik
The primary purpose of the data modem is to

A. interface analog terminal equipment to analog communications channel
B. interface digital terminal equipment to analog communications channel
C. interface analog terminal equipment to digital communications channel
D. interface digital terminal equipment to digital communications channel
____________ is the out-of-band signaling between toll central offices (Bell System
Standard)
A. 2,000 Hz
B. 800 Hz
C. 3,835 Hz
D. 3700 Hz
Which symbol indicates that only one sideband is transmitted?

A. A3E
B. B8E
C. C3F
D. H3E
A voice-grade circuit using the PTN has an ideal passband of

A. 0 to 4 Hz
B. 0 to 4 kHz
C. 0 to 4 GHz
D. 0 to 4 MHz
1 micron is equal to ___________ meter(s).

A. 10-6m
B. 10-3 m
C. 106 m
D. 109 m
The lowest resistance grounding on earth

A. Sand
B. Clay
C. Surface loam soil
D. Limestone
Troposheric scatter uses the frequencies in the ________ band.

A. VLF
B. UHF
C. VHF
D. UF
The unit of pitch

A. Decibel
B. Phon
C. Mel
D. Sone
What kind of receiver is used in converntional telephone handset?

A. Capacitor
B. Carbon
C. Electromagnetic
D. Ceramic
Basic speed rate of digital system.

A. 144 kbps
B. 1,544 kbps
C. 64 kbps
D. 2,048 kbps
A horizontal antenna is
A. centrally polarized
B. vertically polarized
C. horizontally polarized
D. perpendicularly polarized
What is the diameter of a copper wire to be used in a 16 km loop with a dc loop resistance
of 100 ohms/km?
A. 0.108 cm
B. 1.082 cm
C. 0.017 cm
D. 0.0465 cm
If a fiber optic system has a rise time of 16 ns, the source rise time is 1.5 ns and the detector
rise time is 2 ns, what is the cable rise time?
A. 14 ns
B. 6 ns
C. 9 ns
D. 12.5 ns
What is the phase delay of an 800 Hz voice signal if the phase shift is 15 degrees?
A. 1.25 sec
B. 52 sec
C. 83.33 sec
D. 26 sec
What is the power loss of a telephone hybrid?
A. 6 dB
B. 2 dB
C. 3 dB
D. 1 dB
You are measuring noise in a voice channel at 7 dB test point level. The meter reads -56
dBm (FIA weighted). What is the reading in dBrnc?
A. 20
B. 32
C. 35
D. 25
Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on

A. two or more antennas operating on two different frequencies
B. two or more identical frequencies
C. two or more different frequencies
D. two or more antennas operating on the same frequencies
Rules governing the transmission of digital information.

A. Line protocol
B. Isochronous
C. Data communications
D. Digital communications
A digital identification associated with a cellular system

A. SAT
B. ESN
C. MIN
D. SIM
____________ is measuring the propagated field strength over the projected service area
A. Radio sounding
B. None of these
C. Radio monitoring
D. Radio survey

1. ECE Board Exam April 1997
What is the impedance of a balance 4-wire with a diameter of 0.25 cm and spaced 2.5 cm
apart using an insulator with a dielectric constant of 2.56?
A. 100
B. 65
C. 75
D. 50
What is the impedance in ohms of a transformer marked for 25V, 4W, when the secondary
is correctly loaded?
A. 150
B. 156
C. 160
D. 165
A single conductor running from the transmitter to the antenna.

A. RG-8/U
B. Single line wire
C. Twin-lead
D. MIcrostrip
If voltage change equal to twice its original value, what is its corresponding change in dB?
A. 9 dB
B. 6dB
C. 10 dB
D. 3dB
To couple a coaxial line to parallel line, it is better to use a ______.

A. Slotted line
B. Quarter-wave transformer
C. Directional Coupler
D. Balun
What is the characteristic impedance of a single wire with a diameter d= 0.25 mm placed at
the center between grounded parallel planes separated by 1 mm apart. The wire is held by a
material with a velocity factor of 0.75.
A. 85
B. 63
C. 50
D. 75
If you have available number of power amplifiers with a gain of 100 each, how many such
amplifiers do you need to cascade to give an overall gain of 60 dB?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 2
________ sets a limit on the maximum capacity of a channel with a give noise level.
A. Hartley theorem
B. Shannon-Hartley theorem
C. Nyquist theorem
D. Shannon theorem
Transmission sent in both directions simultaneously.

A. Full duplex
B. Duplex
C. Half duplex
D. Simplex
Industrial noise frequency is between _________.

A. 200 to 3000 Mhz
B. 15 to 160 Mhz
C. 0 to 10 Khz
D. 20 Ghz
Reference noise temperature.

A. 70 deg F
B. 30 deg C
C. 290 Kelvin
D. 25 deg C
What is the reference frequency of CCITT psophometric noise measurement?

A. 800 Hz
B. 1500 Hz
C. 3400 Hz
D. 1000 Hz
Which does not effect noise in a channel?

A. None of these
B. Bandwidth
C. Temperature
D. Quantizing level
The random and unpredictable electric signal from natural causes, both internal and external
to the system is know as ________.
A. Distortion
B. Noise
C. Attenuation
D. Interference
The most common unit of noise measurement in white noise testing.

A. dBw
B. dBk
C. dBm
D. NPR
Unit of noise power of psophometer

A. dBa
B. pWp
C. dBm
D. dBmO
100% modulation in AM means a corresponding increase in total power by:

A. 25%
B. 75%
C. 100%
D. 50%
If the modulation index of an AM wave is doubled, the antenna current is also doubled, the
AM system being used is
A. A5C
B. A3J
C. A3H
D. A3
What particular circuit that rids FM of noise?

A. HPF
B. Phase shifter
C. Limiter
D. LPF
What is the advantage of PTM over PAM?

A. All of these
B. Low sampling rate is required
C. Much better noise immunity
D. Simpler to generate
At 100% modulation, the sum fo the effective voltages in both sidebands is equal to ______
% of the unmodulated carrier voltage.
A. 50
B. 71
C. 100
D. 25
A carrier signal has ______.

A. Constant peak amplitude
B. The information
C. Frequency range 20-20000 Hz
D. A varying amplitude
Which transmit only one sideband?

A. A3E
B. 3AJ
C. 11BE
D. H3E
The final amplifier of either FM or AM transmitter operates as

A. Class B
B. Class C
C. Class A
D. Class D
Modulation means
A. Varying of information
B. Utilization of a single transmission channel to carry multiple signals
C. Varying of some parameters of a carrier such as its amplitude to transmit
information
D. Transmit pulses in DC form on a copper wire
What is the advantage of sidetone?

A. High transmission efficiency
B. Results to a strengthened signal
C. No energy dissipation
D. Assures that the telephone is working
The standard test tone

A. 0dB
B. 10 dBm
C. 0 dBm
D. 10 dB

One (1) Erlang is equal to ________.
A. 360 CCS
B. 100 CCS
C. 36 CCS
D. 3.6 CCS
Transmission of printed material over telephone lines.

A. Video text
B. Facsimile
C. Encoding
D. Xerox copy
1-CCS is equal to?

A. 60
B. 100
C. 600
D. 1
1 Erlang is ______.
A. 1000 TU
B. 10 TU
C. 100TU
D. 1 TU
When waves bend away from straight lines of travel, it is called _________.
A. Refraction
B. Reflection
C. Rarefaction
D. Diffraction
Highest frequency that can be used for skywave HF communications between two given
points on earth.
A. Gyro frequency
B. Maximum usable frequency
C. Critical frequency
D. Virtual frequency
Electromagnetic radiation theory was profounded by ______.

A. Sir Edward Appleton
B. Sir Isaac Newton
C. James Clerk Maxwell
D. Michael Faraday
Type of transmission path that permits communication in the frequency range from 30 to 60
MHz and over distances form about 1000 to 2000 km.
A. Ducting
B. Ionospheric scatter
C. Microwave
D. Troposcatter
What is the thickest layer of the ionosphere?

A. E
B. F1
C. F2
D. D
Distance traveled by a wave in the time of one cycle.

A. Hop
B. Frequency
C. Wavelength
D. Crest
Which region of the ionosphere is mainly responsible for long distance night time
communication?
A. A layer
B. D layer
C. E layer
D. F layer
What is the effective earths radius when N=300?

A. 8500 km
B. 6370 km
C. 7270 km
D. 7950 km
The polarization of a discone antenna is _____.

A. Horizontal
B. Vertical
C. Omni
D. Directional
_______ is the horizontal pointing angle of an antenna.

A. Right angle
B. Angle of elevation
C. Bandwidth
D. Azimuth
Which is properly terminated antenna?

A. Rhombic
B. Hertz
C. Marconi
D. Dipole
______ is a device that detects both vertically and horizontally polarized signals
simultaneously.
A. Crystal
B. Orthomode transducer
C. Light transducer
D. Optoisolator
How much does the radiated power of an antenna increases if its current increased by 3.3
times?
A. 6.6 times
B. 3.3 times
C. 10.89 times
D. 9.9 times
What do you call the energy that was not radiated into space or completely transmitted?
A. Incident waves
B. Captured waves
C. Standing waves
D. Modulated waves
What is the estimated medium wind loading in the Philippines for antenna tower design?
A. 200 kph
B. 250 kph
C. 300 kph
D. 100 kph
The minimum number of turns a helix antenna must have.

A. 4
B. 5
C. 3
D. 6
When testing transmitter to prevent interfering with other stations, which type of antenna
must be used?
A. Dummy antenna
B. Hertzian antenna
C. None of these
D. Void antenna
A device that radiates electromagnetic energy and or intercepts electromagnetic radation.

A. Antenna
B. Transmitter
C. Transmission line
D. Transceiver
The frequency of operation of a dipole antenna cut to length of 3.4 m.

A. 42.9 MHz
B. 61.3 MHz
C. 38.5 MHz
D. 53.5 MHz
Full duplex transmission means

A. One way transmission
B. 24-hour transmission
C. Broadcast transmission
D. Two-way simultaneous transmission
Transmission system for a multidrop network

A. Taken passing
B. Polling
C. Switching
D. CSMA/CD
Synchronous modems cost more than asynchronous modem because _______.

A. They have larger bandwidth
B. They are larger
C. The production volume is larger
D. They have clock recovery circuits
What equation defines the composition of an ISDN basic access line?

A. B+2D
B. B+D
C. 2B+2D
D. 2B+D
Modem is referred to as ______.

A. Universal asynchronous Rx/Tx
B. Data communication equipment
C. Universal synchronous Rx/Tx
D. Data terminal equipment
_______ character signifies the start of the test for Bisync.

A. STX
B. ETX
C. SOH
D. BCC
What is the reason why companding is employed in PCM systems?

A. To overcome impulse noise in PCM receivers
B. To allow amplitude limiting in the receivers
C. To solve quantizing noise problem
D. To protect small signals in PCM from quantizing distortion
What is framing?
A. Is concerned of synchronous system
B. Refers to parallel transmission
C. Is concerned with the boundaries between characters
D. Is concerned with individual bits
The method of determining the bandwidth of any processing system is ______.

A. Bandwidth analysis
B. Frequency spectrum
C. Spectral analysis
D. Frequency analysis
It is a protocol used to connect the other packet witching network.

A. X.25
B. X.50
C. X.10
D. X.75
Slowest communications hardware product.

A. Synchronous
B. Asynchronous
C. Ethernet
D. Internet
Highest theoretical frequency that can be processed at a sampling rate without aliasing.
A. Folding frequency
B. Resonant frequency
C. Natural frequency
D. Critical frequency
Data is directly on the transmission cable.

A. Asynchronous
B. Synchronous
C. Baseband
D. Broadband
A source code whose average word length approaches the fundamental limit set by the
entropy of a discrete memoryless source.
A. Prefix code
B. Huffman code
C. Entropy code
D. Source code
______ sets the limit on the maximum capacity of a channel with a given noise level.
A. Hartley theorem
B. Shannon-hartley theorem
C. Nyquist theorem
D. Shannon theorem
Gateway can interconnect LANs that have ____ protocols and formats.
A. The same
B. Different or the same
C. Totally different
D. None of these
Steps to follow to produce PCM signal.

A. Quantizing, sampling, and coding
B. Sampling, quantizing, and coding
C. Sampling, coding and quantizing
D. Coding, quantizing and coding
Transmission sent in both directions simultaneously.

A. Full duplex
B. Duplex
C. Half duplex
D. Simplex
_______ detects the satellite signal relayed from the feed and converts it to an electric
current, amplifies and lower its frequency.
A. Feedhorn
B. Satellite dish
D. LNB
What kind of battery panels are used in some advance satellites?

A. Gallium Arsenide solar panel
B. Germanium based panels
C. Silicon based panels
D. Gallium Phosphate solar panel
Footprint refers to coverage area in the globe

A. Satellite radiation polarization
B. Satellite navigation
C. Satellite radiation pattern
D. Satellite coverage
Asia Sat I covers how many countries in Asia?

A. 38
B. 40
C. 44
D. 42
Insertion loss of connector-type splices for a single-mode fiber cable.

A. 0.2 dB
B. 0.3 dB
C. 0.09 dB
D. 0.38 dB
A non-coherent light source for optical communications system.

A. PIN Diode
B. ILD
C. APD
D. LED
Type of fiber that has the highest modal dispersion

A. Step-index multimode
B. Step-index single mode
C. Graded index mode
D. Graded index multimode
Fiber optic cable operates near _______ frequencies.

A. 800 THz
B. 20 MHz
C. 200 MHz
D. 2 GHz
Lifetime of ILDs
A. 150,000 h
B. 100,000 h
C. 50,000 h
D. 200,000 h
The sound energy per unit area at right angles to the propagation direction per unit time.
A. Sound intensity
B. Loudness
C. Coherence
D. Sound stress
_______ is the transmission of sound from one room to an adjacent room thru common
walls, floors or ceilings.
A. Reverberation
B. Refraction
C. Flanking transmission
D. Reflection
The sound power level of a jet plane flying at a height of 1 km is 160 dB. What is the
maximum sound pressure level on the ground directly below the plane assuming that the
aircraft radiates sound equally in all directions?
A. 59.1 dB
B. 69.1 dB
C. 79.1 dB
D. 89.1 dB
Lowest frequency produced by a musical instrument.

A. Fundamental
B. Midrange
C. Period
D. Harmonic
Sound intensity level is ________.

A. 10 log I/I(ref)
B. 10 log I(ref)/I
C. 30 log I/I(ref)
D. 20 log I/I(ref)
Tendency of sound energy to spread.

A. Reflection
B. Diffraction
C. Rarefaction
D. Refraction
______ used to measure speech volume

A. Volume meter
B. Audio frequency meter
C. Volume unit meter
D. Speech meter
What is the local oscillator frequency range commercial AM broadcast if it is equal to 455
KHz.
A. 540 to 1600 KHz
B. 0 to 1600 KHz
C. 995 to 2055 KHz
D. 0 to 455 KHz
TV channels 2, 4 and 5 are known as ________.

A. Mid band UHF
B. Low band UHF
C. High band VHF
D. Low band VHF
______ is the first component of any MATV system to received broadcast signals.
A. Receiver
B. Antenna
C. Filter
D. Transmitter
Mechanism or device which enables the TV camera to move in internal and tilting motion.
A. Tilting
B. Scanner
C. Pan/tilt device
D. Panning device
The allowable deviation ratio of commercial FM broadcast.

A. 25
B. 15
C. 5
D. 75
______ is the time duration for one horizontal trace.

A. 48s
B. 52 s
C. 62 s
D. 50 s
Which is atmospheric attenuation?

A. Attenuation due to rain
B. Attenuation due to other gasses
C. Attenuation due to mist and fog
D. Due to water vapor and oxygen
A microwave system that requires the use of repeater.

A. Intervening terrain is favorable
B. Distances involved are greater
C. The required reliability is met
D. All of these
What frequency does oxygen causes excessive attenuation

A. 119 GHz
B. 183 GHz
C. 310 GHz
D. 60 GHz
RADAR means
A. Radio detection and rating
B. Radio detection and ranging
C. Radio distance and ranging
D. Radio delay and ranging
A microwave link between the earth station and the down-town terminal.
A. STL
B. Uplink
C. Downlink
D. Terrestrial link
The advantage of periscope antenna in microwave

A. Minimize interference to and from other neighboring stations
B. Shorten waveguide link
C. Reduce tower height
D. All of these
Professional Regulations Commission was created under ______.

A. PD 323
B. PD 223
C. PD 232
D. RA 223
The institutionalization of the continuing Professional Education (CPE) Program of the

various regulated profession under the supervision of the Professional Regulation
Commission.
A. E.O. No. 266
B. E.O. No. 626
C. E.O. No. 662
D. P.D. 381
The basic law providing for the regulation of radio station, communications in the
Philippines and other purposes.
A. Act. No.`3846
B. D.O. No. 11
C. D.O. No. 88
D. D.O. No. 5
Listing of the date and time events, programs , equipment, test, malfunctions and
corrections in communication system.
A. File
B. Documentation
C. Reporting
D. Log

Extra-terrestrial noise is observable at frequencies from

A. 0 to 20 KHz
B. Above 2 GHz
C. 8 to 1.43 GHz
D. 5 to 8 GHz
Band of light waves, that are too short to be seen by human eye.
A. Visible
B. Infrared
C. Ultraviolet
D. Amber
Two wires that are bent 90 degrees apart.

A. Hertz
B. Dipole
C. Log-periodic
D. Rhomic
The first symbol in the designation of radio emission under the ITU rules to
A. Nature of signals modulating the main carrier
B. Type of information to be transmitted
C. Bandwidth
D. Type of modulation of the main carrier
Operating method in which the transmission is made alternately in each direction of a

telecommunication channel
A. Semi-duplex operation
B. Duplex operation
C. Half-duplex operation
D. Simplex operation
Production of radiation by a radio transmitting station

A. Monitoring
B. Emission
C. Radiation
D. Transmission
The third symbol in the designation of radio emission under the ITU rules refers to
A. Type of the modulation of the main carrier
B. Bandwidth
C. Nature of the signals modulating the main carrier
D. Type of information to be transmitted
A form of telecommunication for the transmission of transient images of fixed or moving

objects.
A. E-mail
B. Television
C. Radio
D. Internet
Radiation pattern of a discone.

A. Unidirectional
B. Bidirectional
C. Omnidirectional
D. Figure of eight
Another SEG function that allows a person to be superimposed on another scene.

A. Visual effect
B. Wiper
C. Chroma keying
D. Special effect generation
What signal-to-noise ratio is required for satisfactory telephone services?

A. 50 dB
B. 30 dB
C. 40dB
D. 20 dB
The use of telecommunication for automatic indicating or recording measurement at the

distance from the measuring instrument.
A. Monitoring
B. Tracking
C. Telemetry
D. Telecommand
The standard deviation of the variation in the transmission loss of a circuit should not
exceed
A. 3 dB
B. 1 dB
C. 5 dB
D. 0.5dB
Noise caused by the thermal agitation of electrons in resistance.

A. All of these
B. Thermal noise
C. Johnsons noise
D. White noise
Unity gain antenna

A. Isotropic
B. Rhombic
C. Half-wave dipole
D. Dummy
The series of periodically recurrent pulses is modulated in amplitude by the corresponding

instantaneous samples.
A. PFM
B. PWM
C. PDM
D. PAM
This type of transmission permits communication in the frequency range from 30 to 60

MHz and over distances from about 1000 to 2000 km.
A. Troposcatter
B. Ionospheric scatter
C. Ducting
D. Microwave
A region in front of a paraboloid antenna.

A. Transmission zone
B. All of these
C. Fraunhofer
D. Fresnel
Designates the sensation of low or high in the sense of the base and treble.
A. Frequency
B. Intensity
C. Pitch
D. SPL
A good example of a pilot tone system used in commercial frequency modulation stations.
A. FDM
B. Time division
C. Stereo multiplexing
D. Frequency modulation
Emission on a frequency or frequencies immediately outside the necessary bandwidth

which result from the modulation process except spurious emission.
A. Radiation
B. Noise
C. Out of the band
D. Interference
A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of ______.

A. Broad bandwidth
B. Good front-to-back
C. Maneuverability
D. Circular polarization
Background noise is the same as the following except

A. Impulse noise
B. White noise
C. Thermal noise
D. Gaussian noise
Electronic equipment used to measure standing wave ration.

A. Reflectometer
B. Wavemeter
C. Altimeter
D. Multimeter
A single sideband emission in which the degree of carrier suppression enables the carrier to
be reconstituted and to be used for demodulation.
A. Reduce carrier single sideband emission
B. Half carrier single sideband emission
C. Full carrier single sideband emission
D. Standard single sideband emission
Station in the mobile service not intended to be used while in motion.

A. Coast station
B. Fixed station
C. Base station
D. Land station
The electric field lines in a plane perpendicular to the earths surface.

A. Elliptical polarization
B. Circular polarization
C. Horizontal polarization
D. Vertical polarization

Known to be the first satellite capable to receive and transmit simultaneously.
A. Score
B. Syncom I
C. Telstar 1
D. Echo1
A digital carrier facility used to transmit a DSI-formatted signal at 1.544. Mbps.

A. T2
B. T1
C. T4
D. T3
12 voice channels are sampled at 8000 sampling rate and encoded into 8 bit PCM word.
Determine the rate of the data stream.
a. 354 kbps
b. 750 kbps
c. 768 kbps
d. 640 kbps
The most common device used as a light detector in fiber optic communications system.
A. LED
B. Darlington phototransistor
C. APDs
D. PIN diode
Two resistors, 20k, and 50k are at ambient temperature. Calculate for a bandwidth equal
to 100kHz, the thermal noise voltage for the two resistors connected in parallel.
A. 0.4782V
B. 4278 V
C. 4.78 V
D. 47.8 V
Calculate the energy of the photon of infrared light energy at 1.55m

A. 1.28x10-19 J
B. 1.6 x10-19 J
C. 1.22 x10-16 J
D. 1.9 x10-14 J
If a fiber optic system has a rise time of 38.55 ns, the source rise time is 12 ns and the
detector rise time is 12 ns, what is the cable rise time?
A. 34.61 ns
B. 14.55 ns
C. 52.55 ns
D. 26.25 ns
Nominal voice channel

A. 20 to 20 KHz
B. 16 to 16 KHz
C. 3 to 3 KHz
D. 4 KHz
Two or more antennas separated by 9 wavelengths are used.

A. Hybrid diversity
B. Space diversity
C. Polarized diversity
D. Frequency diversity
Nif stands for

A. Narrow intermediate frequency
B. Noise interference figure
C. Noise improvement factor
D. Non-intrinsic fugure
Any small element of space in the path of a wave may be considered as a source of
secondary wavelet.
A. De Morgans Principle
B. Faradays Law
C. Huygens Principle
D. Fresnels Law of optics
Modulation in which the modulated wave is always present.

A. Carrier modulation
B. Front-end
C. Continuous modulation
D. Log-periodic modulation
Atmospheric noise is less at severe frequencies above

A. Audio level
B. 30 MHz
C. 10 GHz
D. 1 GHz
At height about 180 km above the earth exist only during daylight.
A. F2 layer
B. D layer
C. E layer
D. F1 layer
Radiation characteristics of a dipole

A. Figure of eight
B. Omnidirectional
C. Bidirectional
D. Unidirectional
Determine the gain of a 6 ft. parabolic dish operating at 1800 MHz.

A. 30 dB
B. 11.2 dB
C. 15.5 dB
D. 28.17 dB
An electromagnetic wave is ________ polarized when the electric field lies wholly in one
plane containing the direction of propagation.
A. Horizontally
B. Linearly
C. Circularly
D. Vertically
A device that reduces the intensity of light in fiber optics communication systems.
A. Reducer
B. Quality factor
C. Optical attenuator
D. Compressor
Propagation mode of microwave in a waveguide is known as _______.

A. TM
B. TE
C. SW
D. TEM
The width of the frequency band which is just sufficient to ensure the transmission of
information at the rate and with the quality required under a specified condition and class of
emission.
A. Occupied bandwidth
B. Reference frequency
C. Necessary bandwidth
D. Frequency tolerance bandwidth
A convenient method of determining antenna impedance.

A. Stub matching
B. Reactance circle
C. Smith chart
D. Trial and error
Which of the following fall under the high frequency band of the radio spectrum?
A. 8.2345 MHz
B. 150.50 MHz
C. 2.4555 MHz
D. 35.535 MHz
The electric field lies in a plane parallel to the earths surface.

A. Elliptical polarization
B. Horizontal polarization
C. Vertical polarization
D. Circular polarization
The use of telecommunication for the transmission of signals to initiate, modify or

terminate functions of equipment at a distance.
A. Tracking
B. Telemetry
C. Telecommand
D. Space telemetry
The product of the power supplied to the antenna and its gain relative to a half-wave dipole
in a given direction.
A. Peak envelope power
B. ERP
C. Rated power
D. Carrier power
The Ku-band in the satellite service

A. 14/11 GHz
B. 30/17 GHz
C. 8/7 GHz
D. 6/4 GHz
The sinusoidal carrier is pulsed so that one of the binary states is represented by a carrier
while the other is represented by its absence.
A. FSK
B. ASK
C. PSK
D. QAM
Width measured in degrees of a major lobes between end of the love at which the relative
power is one half (-3dB) its value from the peak of the lobe.
A. Bandwidth
B. Wavelength
C. Radiation
D. Beamwidth
The most common unit of noise measurement in white noise voltage testing.
A. NPR
B. dBm
C. dBW
D. dBrn
Any governmental office responsible in discharging the obligations undertaken in the

convention of the ITU and the regulation.
A. Administration
B. The union
C. Country
D. Telecommunications office
A large speaker having a large diameter (15 cm and above)

A. Coaxial speaker
B. Woofer
C. Tweeter
D. Trixial speaker
Coaxial lines are used on those systems operating _______.

A. Below 2 GHz
B. At 300 MHz
C. Above 10KHz
D. Above 10GHz
Determine the dynamic range for a 10 bit sign magnitude code.

A. 1023
B. 425
C. 511
D. 756
A coherent binary phase shift keyed BPSK transmitter operates at a bit rate of 20 Mbps with
a carrier to noise ratio C/N of 8.8dB. Find Eb/No.
A. 73 dB
B. 62.4 dB
C. 81.8 dB
D. 8.8 dB
Receives and collects satellite signals form a broadcast satellite.

A. LNB
B. Yagi-Uda array
D. Satellite disk
What is the effect in over modulated amplitude modulated radio broadcasting transmission?
A. Interference to adjacent channel
B. Higher fidelity
C. Increase noise
D. Higher audio signal
Average power of a radio transmitter supplied to the antenna transmission line by a

transmitter during one radio frequency cycle taken under the condition of no modulation.
A. Peak envelop power
B. Rated power
C. Carrier power
D. Mean power
A method of expressing the amplitude of complex non-periodic signals such as speech.

A. Frequency
B. Wavelength
C. Volume
D. Pitch
A government regulation in telecommunication which provide policy to improve the

provision of local exchange carrier service.
A. E.O. 109
B. Act 3846
C. E.O. 59
D. E.O. 546
Radio communication operation service between mobile and land stations or between
mobile stations.
A. Land mobile satellite service
B. Maritime mobile service
C. Mobile service
D. Land mobile
The smaller the f rating, the _____ light that lens can take in.
A. More
B. Intense
C. Less
D. Same
A radio communications service use in radio regulation between specified fixed points
provided primarily for the safety of air navigation and for the regular efficient and
economical air transport.
A. Space operation service
B. Space service
C. Aeronautical mobile service
D. Aeronautical fixed service
Harmonic suppressor connected to an antenna.

A. High pass filter
B. Low pass filter
C. Tank circuit
D. M-derived filter
The tendency of the sound energy to spread.

A. Rarefaction
B. Reflection
C. Refraction
D. Diffraction
An earth satellite whose period of revolution is equal to the period of rotation of the earth
about its axis.
A. Geosynchronous
B. Steerable
C. Passive
D. Active
A figure of merit used to measure the performance of a radiation detector.

A. Noise equivalent power
B. Ripple factor
C. Safe factor
D. Quality factor
Radio wave concentration in the direction of the signal emitted by a directional antenna.
A. Back lobe radiation
B. Side lobe radiation
C. Major lobe radiation
D. Transmitted signal
What is the channel bandwidth of a standard analogue telephone system?

A. 300-500 Hz
B. 1200 kHz
C. 100-300 Hz
D. 300-3400 Hz
A satellite receives an uplink frequency of _______ MHz from a ground station of 3700
MHz.
A. 8150 MHz
B. 1475 MHz
C. 2225 MHz
D. 5925 MHz
The outer conductor of a coaxial transmission line is always grounded at the

A. Input only
B. Input and output
C. Output only
D. Point of high SWR
Sound intensity is given as

A. df/dP
B. dE/dp
C. dA/dP
D. dP/dA
The lowest frequency produced by an instrument.

A. Harmonic
B. Fundamental
C. Midrange
D. 0 Hz
The reflector and director of an antenna array are considered as

A. Parasitic elements
B. Transcendental elements
C. Feed-points
D. Driven elements
The core of the optical fiber has ______.

A. A medium index of refraction
B. A lower index of refraction than the cladding
C. A lower index of refraction than air
D. A higher index of refraction than the cladding
What makes an antenna physically long but electrically short?

A. Top loading
B. Adding C in series
C. Adding L in series
D. All of these
An AM transmitter is rated 100W at 100% modulation. How much power required for the
carrier?
A. 33.33 W
B. 66.66 W
C. 83.33 W
D. 100 W
Used for time division multiplexing.

A. Frequency modulation
B. Pulsed modulation
C. SSB
D. Amplitude modulation
A means of beyond the line-of-sight propagation of microwave signal.

A. Space wave
B. Microwave link
C. Troposcatter
D. Point-to-point
Which of the following refers to the smallest beam of satellite antennas radiation pattern?
A. Hemispheric beam
B. Spot beam
C. Zone beam
D. Global beam
Theoretical gain of a hertzian dipole

A. 0 dB
B. 1.76 dB
C. 3 dB
D. 2.15 dB
Satellite system or part of a satellite system, consisting of only one satellite and the
operating earth station.
A. Satellite system
B. Satellite network
C. Space system
D. Multi-satellite link
The difference between the original and reconstructed signal gives rise to
A. S factor
B. Quantizing noise
C. S/N
D. Fade margin
An area in the memory used for temporary storage of information, on Last in First out
basis.
A. Core
B. Register
C. Flag
D. Stack
Refers to a land station in a maritime mobile service

A. Coast station
B. Ship earth station
C. Coast earth station
D. Maritime station
Modulation in which no signal is present between pulses

A. Pulse modulation
B. QAM
C. PSK
D. FSK
In the designation of bandwidth and emission, what letter in the first symbol represents a
double-sideband type of modulation?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. H
Loss due to the diffraction of light when it strikes on the irregularities formed during the
manufacturing process of the fiber optics.
A. Absorption loss
B. Attenuation
C. Bending loss
D. Rayleigh scattering loss
What is the unit of electric field strength?

A. Watt/meter
B. Ohms/meter
C. Ampere/meter
D. Watt/meter2
E. No answer

Refers to the first generation of local loop system in telecommunication technology.
A. GSM
B. DECT
C. Analogue cellular
D. TACS
An area on the surface of the earth within which the bore sight of the steerable satellite
beam intended to be pointed
A. Effective boresight area
B. Countour boresight are
C. Coordination boresight are
D. Equivalent boresight area
For a sample rate of 40 kHz, determine the maximum analog input frequency
A. 30 kHz
B. 40 kHz
C. 20 kHz
D. 10 kHz
An antenna that can only receive a television signal.

A. Isotropic antenna
B. TVRO
C. Reference antenna
D. Yagi antenna
Halo is also called

A. Flare
B. Dark current
C. Glitch
D. Ghost
Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on _______.

A. Two or more antennas operating on two different frequencies
B. Two or more identical frequencies
C. Two or more antennas operating on the same frequency
D. Two or more different frequency
An increase in the effective power radiated by an antenna in a certain desired direction at

the expense of power radiated in other directions.
A. Antenna gain
B. Antenna back lobe ration
C. Antenna total ration
D. Antenna efficiency
A radio land station in the land mobile service

A. Mobile station
B. Land station
C. Base station
D. Ship earth station
A major and basic advantage for the use of a klystron.

A. High power
B. Efficiency
C. Lesser noise
D. Cheaper
A band where most military satellite often operate

A. Ku
B. C
C. X
D. L
The final power amplifier in an FM transmitter usually operates class ______.

A. AB
B. C
C. B
D. A
In television broadcasting vivid strong colors are often referred as _______.

A. Saturation
B. Hue
C. Chrominance
D. Luminance
Where do the maximum current and minimum voltage values on a resonant Hertz dipole
exist?
A. Center of the antenna
B. Near the end of the antenna
C. Near the center of the antenna
D. Ends of the antenna
How can the antenna efficiency of an HF grounded vertical antenna be made comparable to
that of a half-wave antenna?
A. By lengthening the vertical
B. By installing a good ground radial system
C. By shortening the vertical
D. By isolating the coax shield from ground
At what distance is VHF propagation normally limited?

A. Around 500 miles
B. Around 1500 miles
C. Around 2000 miles
D. Around 1000 miles
What is meant by the term antenna efficiency?

A. Efficiency = effective radiated power/transmitter output x 100%
B. Efficiency = radiation resistance/ transmission resistance
C. Efficiency = total resistance/radiation resistance x 100%
D. Efficiency = radiation resistance/total resistance x 100%
This is referred to as a fixed radio station that broadcasts program material from studio to
transmitter by radio link.
A. Aural BC intercity relay
B. Aural broadcast STL
C. Shortwave station
D. Remote-pickup
What law does a light traveling in air optical fiber follow?

A. Millman
B. Snells
C. Maxwell
D. Huygen

Which of the following is designated as the international distress, safety and calling
frequency for radio telephony for stations of the maritime mobile service when using
frequencies in the authorized bands between 156 and 174 MHz?
A. 165.8 MHz
B. 156.8 MHz
C. 158.6 MHz
D. 168.5 MHz
A device that connects two dissimilar networks and performs the protocol conversion.
A. Gateway
B. Coupler
C. Transformer
D. Converter
The use of telecommunication for the transmission of signals to initiate, modify or

terminate functions of equipment at a distance.
A. Tracking
B. space command
C. Telecommand
D. Trunking
Best described a dip-meter.

A. A variable LC oscillator with metered feedback current
B. An SWR meter
C. A counter
D. A field strength meter
Refers to an emission designation for facsimile?

A. J3E and F4E
B. A3J and A4E
C. A3E and F3C
D. R3E and A3E
How does a SSB transmitter output power normally expressed?

A. Average power
B. In terms of peak envelop power
C. In terms of peak-to-peak power
D. Peak power
In satellite communication, the Geostationary satellites are conveniently located with

respect to the equator at _______.
A. 45 degrees latitude
B. 90 degrees latitude
C. 0 degrees latitude
D. 5 degrees latitude
Known as the technique for adding a series inductor at or near the center of an antenna
element in order to cancel the capacitive reactance of an antenna.
A. Dipole
B. Center loading
C. Reflector
D. loading coil
What is meant by the term antenna bandwidth

A. Antenna length divided by the number of elements.
B. The angle between the half-power radiation points
C. The frequency range over which and antenna can be expected to perform well
D. The angle formed between two imaginary line drawn through the ends of the elements
A multiple access technique used in GSM cellular system

A. TACS
B. FDMA
C. TDMA
D. CDMA
Refers to an effect of selective fading.

A. A fading effect caused by phase differences between radio wave components of the
same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station.
B. A fading effect caused by small changes in beam heading at the receiving station.
C. A fading effect caused by the time differences between the receiving and transmitting
stations.
D. A fading effect caused by large changes in the height of the ionosphere, as experienced at
the receiving station.
Where the voltage node of a half-wave antenna does exists?

A. At feed point
B. Near the center
C. At center
D. Near the feed point
This is a flexible vertical rod antenna commonly used on mobiles.

A. Marconi
B. Hertz
C. Whip
D. Ground plane
Referred to as an average power from the radio transmitter supplied to the antenna
transmission line taken during one radio frequency cycle under no modulation.
A. Carrier power
B. Rated power
C. Peak envelop power
D. Mean power
_______ is a major cause of the sporadic-E condition

A. Temperature inversions
B. Sunspots
C. Meteors
D. Wind shear
Which of the following refers to a double side band full carrier?

A. A3E
B. A3J
C. F3
D. R3A
What is the basic qualification of an applicant for public carrier network before a certificate
of public convenience or a provisional authority is issued?
A. Franchise
B. SEC document
C. Business permit
D. Radio station license
How wide is the spectrum bandwidth of a single GSM carrier?

A. 100 kHz
B. 200 kHz
C. 50 kHz
D. 16 kHz
With which emission type is the capture-effect most pronounced?

A. CW
B. FM
C. SSB
D. AM
What is a dummy antenna?

A. One which is used as a reference for gain measurements
B. And antenna used for hand-held radio
C. An non-directional transmitting antenna
D. A non-radiating load for a transmitter used for testing
Best description of a collinear and broadside antenna radiation pattern.

A. Bidirectional
B. Perfect circle
C. Unidirectional
D. Omnidirectional
A satellite beam that covers almost 42.4% of earths surface.

A. Spot beam
B. Global beam
C. Zone beam
D. Hemispheric beam
The modulation technique used by GSM cellular system

A. Phase shift keying
B. Frequency shift keying
C. Gaussian minimum shift keying
D. QAM
________ generates light beam at a specific visible frequency.

A. Glass fiber
B. Infrared
C. Light waves
D. Laser
The most common application of satellites

A. Surveillance
B. Reconnaissance
C. Defense systems
D. Communication
Referred to the dielectric constant of a transmission line material.

A. Inductance and capacitance
B. Velocity factor
C. Characteristic impedance
D. Propagation velocity
Referred to as a ferrite device that can be used in lieu of a duplexer to isolate a microwave
transmitter and receiver when both are connected to the same antenna.
A. Isolator
B. Circulator
C. Coupler
D. Diode.

_______ is more prevalent in analog signals that have steep slopes or whose amplitudes
vary rapidly.
A. Peak limiting
B. Quantization noise
C. Granular noise
D. Slope overload
Station located on an object which is beyond and is intended to go beyond the major portion
of the earths atmosphere.
A. Terrestrial station
B. Space station
C. Satellite station
D. Mobile satellite station
A radio frequency in the ultra high frequency band of the radio spectrum band.
A. 235.50 MHz
B. 450.50 MHz
C. 150.50 GHz
D. 0.31250 GHz
Technical study which deals with production, transport and delivery of a quality signal from
source to destination.
A. Transmission system engineering
B. Communication system engineering
C. Telephony engineering
D. Telegraphic engineering
It is used to connect computers in the same building or in same area

A. MAN
B. LAN
C. SWITCH
D. WAN
Referred by radio regulation as the station in the mobile service not intended to be used
while in motion.
A. Fixed station
B. Base station
C. Land station
D. Coast station
What is the mixing process?

A. Distortion caused by auroral propagation
B. The combination of two signals to produce sum and difference frequencies.
C. The elimination of noise in wideband receiver by phase differentiation
D. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase comparison
Which of the following systems is not used in radio detection and ranging?
A. Frequency shift
B. Frequency modulation
C. Pulse radar
D. Amplitude modulation
Considered as the main source of an internal noise.

A. Device imperfection
B. Thermal agitation
C. Temperature change
D. Flicker

In shipboard satellite dish antennas system, azimuth is referred as the _______.
A. 0 to 90 degrees
B. Vertical aiming of the antenna
C. North to East
D. Horizontal aiming of the antenna
What is the period of a wave?

A. The number of degrees in tone cycle
B. The number of zero crossing in one cycle
C. The amplitude of the wave
D. The time required to complete one cycle
Is the total useful information processed or communicated over a specific amount of time
A. Baud rate
B. Bit rate
C. Information theory
D. Throughput
What is the approximate percentage of earth coverage of a geostationary satellite at zero

degree elevation?
A. 33.3%
B. 45.2%
C. 42.5%
D. 30.5%
This refers to an area in the memory used for temporary storage of information on the basis
of Last in First out.
A. Core
B. Register
C. Flag
D. Stack
What is a driven element of an antenna?

A. Always the rearmost element
B. Always the forwardmost element
C. The element fed by the transmission line
D. The element connected to the rotator
Which of the following term best described the overload distortion?

A. Peak limiting
B. Quantization noise
C. Granular noise
D. Slope distortion
What do you mean by the outward flow of and energy from any source in the form of radio
waves?
A. Radiation
B. Emission
C. Encoding
D. Tracking
Refer to the deviation of the operating frequency of a crystal oscillator from its nominal
value due to temperature variations.
A. Drift
B. Flash over
C. Frequency deviation
D. Deviation ratio

Find the product of the following binary number 100 to 101.
A. 11000
B. 10100
C. 10010
D. 11100
Which of the following is and impedance matching ration of coax balun?

A. 2:8
B. 1:2
C. 4:1
D. 2:1
Quantity that do not change when a beam of light enters on e medium to another.
A. Frequency
B. Wavelength
C. Direction
D. Speed
Which of the following described the very early standard that defines binary digits as
space/mark line condition and voltage levels?
A. V.4
B. V.2
C. V.1
D. V.5
A form of single sideband emission where the degree of carrier suppression enable the
carrier to be reconstituted and be used for demodulation.
A. Half carrier single sideband emission
B. Full carrier single sideband emission
C. Reduced carrier single sideband emission
D. Double sideband emission
An instrument for recording waveforms of audio frequency.

A. Oscilloscope
B. Phonoscope
C. Radioscope
D. Audioscope
How much is the required minimum power output of an international AM BC stations?

A. 5 kW
B. 30 kW
C. 10 kW
D. 50 kW
What is the equivalent of decimal 51 in binary?

A. 111011
B. 110011
C. 111001
D. 100011
One of the first satellite system catering personal based communications services scheduled
for operation.
A. Iridium system
B. Plutonium system
C. Indium system
D. Gallium system
What do you call a circuit that controls the magnetron output?

A. Inverter
B. Impeller
C. Modulator
D. Converter
Known as the satellite transmitted signal form a satellite transponder to earths station.
A. Uplink
B. Down link
C. RHCP
D. Vertically polarized
Which of the following colors of light rays has the shortest wavelength?
A. Yellow
B. Violet
C. Red
D. Blue
Antenna which is not properly terminated

A. Isotropic
B. Non-resonant
C. Whip
D. Resonant
Term in communication which is referred, to send out in all direction.

A. Announce
B. Broadcast
C. Transmit
D. Media
At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what values of current and voltage exist compared to
the remainder of the antenna?
A. Minimum voltage and minimum current
B. Equal voltage and current
C. Minimum voltage and maximum current
D. Maximum voltage and minimum current.
One of the following stands for SONET acronym in telecommunication

A. System optical network
B. Simple operation network
C. Synchronous optical network
D. System operating network
How can intermodulation interference between two transmitters in close proximity reduced
or eliminated?
A. Through installing a band-pass filter in the antenna feed line
B. Through installing terminated circulator or ferrite isolator in the feed line of the
transmitter and duplexer
C. By using a class C final amplifier with high driving power
D. By installing a low-pass filter in the antenna feed line
What propagation condition is usually indicated when a VHF signal is received from a
station over 5000 miles away?
A. Moonbounce
B. D-layer absorption
C. Tropospheric ducting
D. Faraday rotation
In radio High frequency communications the higher the radio frequency the ______.
A. Higher it can reach
B. Shorter it can reach
C. Effect is null
D. Longer it can reach
The signal to noise ratio that is required for a satisfactory television reception.
A. 30 dB
B. 40 dB
C. 10 dB
D. 20 dB
What is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves as horizontally polarized?

A. The electric field is parallel to the earth
B. Both the electric and magnetic fields are vertical
C. Both the electric and magnetic fields are horizontal
D. The magnetic fields is parallel to the earth
What is emission F3F?

A. Facsimile
B. Modulated CW
C. RTTY
D. Television
How can receiver desensitizing be reduced?

A. Increase the receiver bandwidth
B. Ensure good RF shielding between the transmitter and receiver
C. Increase the transmitter audio gain
D. Decrease the receiver squelch, gain.
Circuit used to amplify the optical signal in fiber optics communications links.
A. Attenuator
B. Optical repeater
C. Optical amplifier
D. Generator
What do you call the single booster installed on the antenna dish of satellite receiver?
A. Low noise amplifier
B. Single amplifier
C. Noise amplifier
D. Rectifier
Term for the transmission of printed pictures by radio?

A. Facsimile
B. ACSSB
C. Xerography
D. Television
An interfering current in a telegraph or signaling channel due to telegraph or signaling

current by another channel.
A. Crosstalk
B. Noise current
C. Crossfire
D. Intermodulation
Where is the noise generated that primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a VHF
(150 MHz) marine-band receiver?
A. In the ionosphere
B. In the receiver rear end
C. In the receiver front end
D. In the atmosphere
Known as the data transfer scheme that used handmaking principle.

A. Synchronous data transfer scheme
B. DMA data transfer scheme
C. Asynchronous data transfer scheme
D. Uninterrupted data transfer scheme
Type of modulation used in TV broadcast visual transmitter.

A. Pulse modulation
B. DSBFC
C. Vestigial sideband
D. SSBFC
A transmitter supplies 8 kW to the antenna when it is unmodulated, determine the total

radiated power when modulated at 90%.
A. 5 kW
B. 20 kW
C. 15 kW
D. 8.36 kW
Best describe as an amplifier used in radio telephony.

A. Magnifier
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class A
The latest government regulation in the telecommunication which provides policy for the
provision of local exchange carrier service.
A. E.O. 546
B. E.O. 109
C. Act 3948
D. E.O. 59
Referred to as the stage in the radio receiver that contributes most of the noise.
A. IF amplifier
B. Supply stage
C. Speaker
D. Mixer
The frequency tolerance of an AM radio broadcast station

A. 200 Hz
B. 2000 Hz
C. 20 Hz
D. 2 Hz
What are electromagnetic waves?

A. A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other
B. A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field at right angles to each
other.
C. Alternating currents in the core of an electromagnet
D. A wave consisting of two electric fields at right angles to each other
What is the frequency range of C-band?

A. 10.95 to 14.5 GHz
B. 27.5 to 31 GHz
C. 3.4 to 6.424 GHz
D. 1.53 to 2.7 GHz
Determine from the following the basic mode of transmission system in the public data
network in which data are transferred from the source to the network and from the network
to the destination in the frame format.
A. Voice mode
B. Asynchronous mode
C. Synchronous mode
D. Packet mode
Refers to a type of beam antenna which uses two or more straight elements arranged in line
with each other.
A. Dipole antenna
B. Yagi antenna
C. Whip antenna
D. Rhombic antenna
What is a frequency discriminator?

A. A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
B. A circuit for detecting FM signals
C. An FM generator
D. An automatic bandswitching circuit.
These are used to connect non-ISDN equipment ot ISDN line.

A. Digipeaters
B. Terminal adapters
C. Local repeaters
D. Terminal repeaters
The executive branch of government in charge of policy making in the telecommunications.

A. National telecommunications commission
B. Telecommunications control bureau
C. Department of transportation and communications
D. Bureau of telecommunications
When adjusting an RF filter on a transmitter using a dummy load, how much watts
dissipation should it stand to test a 150 watts transmitter?
A. 75 watts
B. 300 watts
C. 50 watts
D. 150 watts
When does broadcast station conduct and equipment test?

A. During day time
B. During night time
C. At any time
D. During experimental period
Channel 7 of the regular television channel belongs to which band?

A. Low VHF band
B. High VHF band
C. Low UHF band
D. High UHF band
Which of the following is one of the possible causes for a slow drift of frequency in a self
exited transmitter oscillator circuits resulting to a poor frequency stability?
A. Poor soldered connections
B. Power supply voltage changes
C. Loose connections in the oscillator, amplifier, or antenna circuits
D. DC and RF heating of resistors, causing then to change values.

A third symbol radio emission which represent telephone transmission including sound
broadcasting.
A. W
B. F
C. C
D. E
Which of the following is not a common microwave application?

A. Radar
B. Data transmission
C. Space communications
D. Mobile radio
Which of the following is referred to as a radio emission without sidebands

A. Analog
B. Carrier
C. Data
D. Voice
Ho w many times bigger does the bandwidth of a fiber optic multimode have over a cable?
A. 50 times bigger
B. 100 times bigger
C. 10 times bigger
D. 5 times bigger
Type of antenna which is normally used for satellite tracking service.

A. Omni
B. Helical
C. Yagi
D. Dipole
One of the following is referred to as a major component of an optical time domain

reflectometer
A. Pulse generator and vertical plate
B. Laser and horizontal plate
C. Pulse generator laser
D. Vertical and horizontal plate
One of the commonly used domain in the internet service.

A. Yahoo
B. http
C. com
D. www
What is meant by the term radiation resistance for an antenna?

A. The resistance in the trap coils to received signal
B. An equivalent resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that
radiated from an antenna
C. The specific impedance of the antenna
D. Losses in the antenna elements and feed line
Referred to an oscillator signal leak through from a properly neutralized amplifier such as
a master oscillator power amplifier.
A. Carrier
B. Stray signal
C. Back wave
D. Loss wave

An advantage of optic fiber rejecting an induced noise signals from magnetic field or solar
storms flux.
A. Electric hazard
B. Cross talk
C. Immunity to noise
D. Shielding
What kind of effect is referred to a varying light producing a varying voltage output of a
detector?
A. Current effect
B. Voltage effect
C. Resistive effect
D. Photovoltaic effect
______ is known to be the first satellite capable of receiving and transmitting

simultaneously.
A. Syncom I
B. Telstar I
C. Score
D. Aguila
The extremely high frequency (EHF) band is in the radio spectrum range of _______.
A. 30 to 300 kHz
B. 30 to 300 GHz
C. 3 to 30 MHz
D. 3 to 30 GHz
One of the following is not among the advantages of series modulation

A. No transformer
B. Suppressed white noise
C. Simple
D. Modulates any frequency
What do you call the service area of a standard AM broadcast where fading is allowed but
not objectionable co-channel interference?
A. Experimental
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Primary
A third symbol emission which represent television.

A. C
B. D
C. F
D. A
In telecommunications when we call data communications it means the transmission

of________.
A. Voice and video
B. Voice
C. Video
D. Computer data
If frequency range of 401.000MHz to 401.050MHz has to be channelized at 12.5 kHz

between channel, what is the center of its first channel from the lower limit?
A. 401.125MHz
B. 401.00625MHz
C. 401.025MHz
D. 401.0125MHz
Determine the effective radiated power of 20 kW TV broadcast transmitter whose antenna

has a field gain of 2.
A. 40 kW
B. 80,000 watts
C. 40,000 watts
D. 8,000 watts
In indication signal for a handshake form the DCE to the DTE in response to an active
condition for the request to send a signal.
A. Data transmission
B. Clear to send
C. Receive data
D. Data set ready
In amplitude modulation technique the unmodulated carrier is referred to as having ______.

A. 100% modulation
B. 0% modulation
C. 50% modulated
D. Over modulated
One of the following is not among the major components required on board ship under the
global maritime distress and safety system.
A. On board radio facilities
B. Radio operator telegraphy onboard
C. Shore base facilities
D. Radio personnel on board
In what form does the information of data communications is transmitted between two
points?
A. Alphanumeric form
B. Alphabetic form
C. Numeric form
D. Binary form
Width of frequency band just enough to ensure the transmission of information at a required
rate and quality required, and under a specified condition and class of emission.
A. Occupied bandwidth
B. Transmission bandwidth
C. Necessary bandwidth
D. Frequency bandwidth
Refers to one of the front end circuit of a VHF TV superheterodyne receiver which is
usually a separate circuit coupled to the mixer.
A. Antenna feed
B. AGC
C. RF amplifier
D. Local oscillator
All bits in character are sent and received ______ in serial port.
A. In groups of 3 bits
B. One at a time
C. In groups of 2 bits
D. Simultaneously
One of the following is a possible cause of an abrupt frequency variation in a self exited
transmitter oscillator circuits resulting to a poor frequency stability to hold a constant
frequency oscillation.
A. Heating and expansion of oscillator coil
B. DC and RF ac heating of resistors which cause change in values
C. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator
D. Loose connections in the oscillator, amplifier, or antenna circuits.
Which of the following parts of the radio receiver represent the component that extracts the
desire RF signal from the electromagnetic wave?
A. AF amplifier
B. Antenna
C. Detector
D. Crystal
It is an average power of a radio transmitter supplied to the antenna transmission line taken
during a long sufficient interval of time and compared with the lowest frequency
encountered in the modulation, taken under the normal operating conditions.
A. Carrier power
B. Rated power
C. Mean power
D. Peak envelop power
Determine from the following radio frequency that falls under the very high frequency band
of the radio spectrum.
A. 345.00 MHz
B. 144.50 MHz
C. 235.50 MHz
D. 450.00 MHz
What is the typical number of bits in a static memory location?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 16
D. 8
What controls the contrast of a television cathode ray picture?

A. AFC
B. video stage gain
C. Audio gain control
D. CRT bias
Determine the dB gain of a receiving antenna which delivers a microvolt signal to a

transmission line over that of an antenna that delivers a 20 microvolt signal under identical
circumstances.
A. 10 dB
B. 6 dB
C. 3 dB
D. 8 dB
Refers to one of a commonly used internet service domain.

A. www
B. http
C. gov
D. infoseek
A law that specifically requires the service of a duly registered electronics and
communications engineer in the designing installation and construction, operation and
maintenance of radio stations.
A. Act 3846
B. LOl 1000
C. R.A. 5734
D. Dept. order 88
Which band does channel 14 of the television channel belong?

A. High VHF band
B. EHF band
C. UHF band
D. Low VHF band
How many ships area is designated in the implementation of the global maritime distress
and safety system.
A. Four
B. Six
C. Three
D. Two
What kind of receiver is used in conventional telephone handset?

A. Capacitor
B. Electromagnetic
C. Carbon
D. Ceramic
Determine the lower half-power frequency of a class-C amplifier having upper half-power
frequency of 10.025 MHz, a resonant frequency 5 MHz and a circuit Q of 10.
A. 1.0025 MHz
B. 10.525 MHz
C. 0.5 MHz
D. 10 MHz
This is referred to a product of simultaneous frequency and amplitude modulation or a

carrier frequency variation which produces unwanted distortion.
A. Absorption modulation
B. Simultaneous modulation
C. Dynamic instability
D. Series modulation
Main basic components of a data communication are composed of the following.

A. Computer, modern and router
B. Computer, bridge and gateway
C. Transmitter, channel and receiver
D. Transmitter, computer and modem
The international radio consultative committee is referred to in international radio

communication as ______.
A. IRCC
B. ITU
C. IRR
D. CCIR
Refers to a continuous tone generated in a local exchange terminal through a combination

of two frequencies 350 Hz, and 440 Hz.
A. Busy tone
B. Call waiting tone
C. Dial tone
D. Standard tone
One of the advantages of fiber optic which is referred to the volume of capacity of signals it
can carry.
A. Security
B. Weight
C. Bandwidth
D. Physical size

Assume a frequency range of 401.000 MHz to 401.050 MHz, if you apply 25 kHz
channeling plan, determine the center frequency of the first channel from the lower limit.
A. 401.010 MHz
B. 401.0125 MHz
C. 401.025 MHz
D. 401.00625 MHz
50. 50 ECE Board Exam April 1998
The stability of transmitted signal from a simple Hartley oscillator single transmitter which
is coupled to and antenna wire affected by ______.
A. Chirping of oscillator
B. Closer coupling between the oscillator and the antenna.
C. Location of antenna
D. Material of antenna
Refers to the first symbol in an emission designation with an amplitude modulated main
carrier represented by letter H.
A. Single sideband suppressed carrier
B. Double sideband full carrier
C. Independent sideband
D. Double sideband
Assume a frequency range of 405.0125 MHz to 405.0875 MHz and 25 kHz channeling
plan, determine the center frequency of the second channel from the lower limit.
A. 405.030 MHz
B. 405.025 MHz
C. 405.050 MHz
D. 405.075 MHz
An entity, relying on the transmission, switching and local distribution facilities of local
exchange and inter-exchange operators, and overseas carriers, offers enhanced services
beyond those ordinarily provided by such carriers.
A. International carrier
B. Value-added service provided
C. Inter-exchange carrier
D. Local exchange carrier
Which of the following refers to full duplex transmission?

A. One at a time transmission
B. Two transmission medium
C. Intermittent transmission
D. Two way simultaneous transmission
What is the first symbol of a radio signal transmission having an amplitude modulated
signal carrier, double side band?
A. C
B. B
C. H
D. A
Best choice of transmission line component to couple a coaxial line to a parallel-wire line
A. Shorting
B. Balun
C. Slotted line
D. Directional coupler
Which of the following refers to the video signal amplitude that determines the quality of
the picture?
A. Chrominance
B. Luminance
C. Brightness
D. Contrast
________ is the method of encoding audio signals used in US standard 1544 kbit/s 24
channel PCM systems.
A. Shannons law
B. A-law
C. Newtons law
D. Mu-law
In radio regulation, the first symbol in the designation of radio emission is ______.
A. Bandwidth
B. Nature of signal(s) modulation the main carrier
C. Type of modulation of the main carrier
D. Type of information to be transmitted
Who is the principal administrator of republic act 7925?

A. BOC
B. DOTC
C. Congress
D. NTC
What is the term for the ration of the radiation resistance of an antenna to the total
resistance of the system?
A. Effective radiated power
B. Beamwidth
C. Radiation conversion loss
D. Antenna efficiency
Where does the AM broadcast band located in the spectrum band?

A. HF band
B. VHF band
C. LF band
D. MF band
What determines the velocity factor in transmission line?

A. The center conductor resistivity
B. Dielectrics in the line
C. The termination impedance
D. The line length
Refers to an address that identifies a server on the network and a particular document on the
server
A. Hypertext
B. HTML
C. Wide area network
D. Uniform resource locator
Type of emission produced by one of the early radio transmitter in trains of damped RF ac
waves where its oscillator is coupled to a long wire antenna, normally used in radio
telegraph and having sidebands on its carrier.
A. Digital emission
B. Key emission
C. Cycle emission
D. Spark emission
Is a kind of satellite which has a period of revolution equivalent to the period of rotation of
the earth about its axis.
A. Passive satellite
B. Synchronous satellite
C. Active satellite
D. Geosynchronous satellite
Electromagnetic waves of frequencies arbitrarily lower than 3,000 GHz, propagated in

space without artificial guide.
A. Space waves
B. Terrestrial waves
C. Mobile
D. Hertzian waves
Frequencies above ______ kHz, are referred to as the radio frequencies.

A. 20
B. 2
C. 10
D. 200
Who is responsible in the correctness and accuracy of transmitted information content over
a data communication?
A. The channel
B. The transmitter and receiver
C. The modem
D. The bridge
What is meant by the term deviation ratio?

A. The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
B. The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating
frequency
C. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio
modulation frequency
D. The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
A quarter wavelength devices made of crystalline calcite that changes polarization in the
optic fiber communication.
A. Isolator
B. Retarder
C. Polarizer
D. Filters
Known as the maritime communications law which was enacted December 5, 1927
A. R.A. No. 109
B. R.A. No. 3396
C. R.A. No. 7925
D. R.A. No. 3846
How do you transmit through multiplexing, a thousand of voice channel information over a
single fiber optic using on e wavelength?
A. Polar division
B. Time division
C. Fiber division
D. Frequency division
In regulation of public telecommunications carrier such as in the evaluation of new entrant,

the following consideration shall be given emphasis to _______.
A. Legal, technical and citizenship
B. Technical, citizenship and kind of service
C. Citizenship, capacity and financial
D. Technical, legal and financial
One of the following is a high powered RF ac basic transmitter that has two or more stages,
the oscillator stage which determines the frequency opereation and RF amplifier stage or
stages that develop the high power output. The purpose of which is to develop a good
frequency stability.
A. Goldsmith
B. MOPA
C. Alexanderson
D. Hartley
What is the meaning of the term velocity factor of a transmission line?

A. The index of shielding for coaxial cable
B. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in
vacuum
C. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
D. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a
vacuum
Which of the following determines the characteristics of a transmission line?

A. Inductance
B. Capacitance
C. Physical dimension
D. Length
One of the following is among the types of fiber optics used in electronics communication.
A. Step-index multimode
B. Graded-index multimode
C. Semi-graded multimode
D. Single mode
Which of the following refers to the smallest beam of a satellite antennas radiation pattern
A. Global beam
B. Spot beam
C. Zone beam
D. Hemispheric beam
One of the FM signal generator control which varies the phase of the modulating voltage
applied to the oscillator of the sweep generator
A. Band control
B. Phase control
C. Marker amplitude control
D. Sweep output control
What consists the front-end circuit of a VHF TV superheterodyne receiver?

A. Mixer, RF amplifier and AFC?
B. RF amplifier, Band pass filter and mixer
C. Local oscillator, mixer and RF amplifier
D. Local oscillator, AGC and antenna
One of the following prevents a transmitter from emitting a signal that interferes with other
stations on frequency during the test.
A. Use of low height antenna
B. Use of grounded antenna
C. Use of dummy antenna
D. Use of shielded antenna radiator
A transmission line consisting of two conductors that have equal resistance per unit length.
A. Unbalanced line
B. Open-wire line
C. Balanced line
D. Coaxial line
How do you eliminate radio frequency variation of an oscillator transmitter caused by its
supply voltage?
A. Use new power supply
B. Lossen power supply shielding
C. Use of regulated power supply
D. Use of high capacitor in the supply circuit
Which of the following is not common transmission line impedance?

A. 50 ohms
B. 120 ohms
C. 75 ohms
D. 650 ohms
How do you reduce the loss that is produced when light strikes a flat polished end of a fiber
optic?
A. By painting the surface
B. By inclining the surface
C. By cooling
D. By application of antireflection coating
Best reason for pressurizing waveguides with dry air

A. To maintain propagation
B. To maintain temperature of the waveguide
C. To reduce the possibility of internal arcing
D. To increase the speed of propagation
What is the device used in fiber optic communication which consist of a receiver transmitter
use to clean up and amplify digital data moving in one direction and another in the opposite
direction?
A. Optic compressors
B. Optic retarders
C. Optic isolator
D. Optic regenerators
Which of the following refers to the first active satellite?

A. Telstar I
B. Echo I
C. Intelsat I
D. Sputnik I
In modulation technique, which of the following is referred to audible pitch?

A. Width
B. Frequency
C. Harmonic
D. Amplitude
What do you call the phenomenon in digital circuits that describe the duration of time a
digital signal passes a circuit?
A. Transmission time
B. Elapsed time
C. Propagation delay
D. Travel delay
What is the major cause of atmospheric or static noise?

A. Sunspots
B. Airplanes
C. Meteor showers
D. Thunderstorm
Which of the following is not referred to as data terminal equipment?

A. Telephone set
B. Printers
C. Modem
D. Computer
_______ is referred as the difference between available power and power budget?
A. Fade margin
B. Power margin
C. Nominal gain
D. Power dissipation
The conversion of digital signal into analog for purposes of transmitting into the telephone
line is done through ______.
A. ISDN
B. Radio
C. RS232C
D. Modem
Refers to the duration occupancy period of call during its use.

A. Occupancy period
B. Traffic time
C. Use time
D. Holding time
In data communication the transmission of binary signals will require _______.

A. Same bandwidth as analog
B. More bandwidth than analog
C. Less bandwidth than analog
D. Bigger cable diameter
Assuming a UHF frequency range of 405.0125 MHz to 405.0875 MHz at 25 kHz

channeling plan, how many channels can you produce?
A. 2.5 ch.
B. 2 ch.
C. 4 ch.
D. 3 ch.
One of the following is a possible cause for a slow drift of frequency in a self-exited
transmitter oscillator circuits resulting to a poor frequency stability.
A. Loose shielding
B. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator
C. Poor soldered connections
D. Faulty capacitor, resistor, tubes or resistors
A modulation which does not follow the sine wave pattern, it produces undesirable
harmonics such as spurious emission
A. 0% modulated
B. Over-modulated
C. Unmodulated
D. 100% modulated

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Satellite Communications Chapter 10(3001 Questions in Communications

Engineering-EXCEL REVIEW CENTER

3. TV channel 2, 4 and 5 belong to

5. Which of the following is a solid state imaging device?

6. What class of TV camera lens used to cover short distances?

7. What class of TV camera lens used to cover long distances?

8. What is the local oscillator frequency in commercial AM broadcast if it is equal to 455

9. What is the allowable deviation ratio of commercial FM broadcast?

14. The minimum frequency separation between frequency of AM broadcasting station

15. The aspect ratio HDTV is

27. Which of the following is not a low impedance microphone?

28. Facsimile permits remote duplications of which of the following items?

29. Television has a lot of features in common with

30. The major component of the TV signal waveform is the

31. For NTSC TV system, the image is scanned from

33. The field rate in the NTSC television system

34. What is the horizontal synchronous blanking pulse rate?

35. What is the vertical blanking pulse rate?

36. The pulses riding on the vertical blanking pulse

37. Television camera pickup tube is called

39. What is the purpose of an indirectly-heated cathode in a cathode ray tube?

40. Video modulation for television is

41. Audio modulation for television is

45. Brightness of an image is known as

49. Range of a VHF television transmitter

50. Range of a UHF television transmitter

a. 470 670 MHz

b. 470 770 MHz

c. 470 890 MHz

62. In transmitter amplifier design, an even-order harmonics can be prevented or reduced by

63. The vertical and horizontal pulses are separated at the

64. The reason why buffer stage is included in a transmitter is to

65. Where is the operating position of a radio station?

67. A _____ is equivalent to 525 scanning lines

68. A _____ represents one set of 262 scanning lines

69. The number of scanning lines is _____ per second

71. Lack of raster is an indication of no

74. Type of emission produced when a frequency modulated transmitter is modulated by a

75. What is emission A3F?

76. What is emission F3F?

77. Cause of slow rising white hum bars is the television

78. Adjusting the _____ may eliminate color confetti

79. Video signal amplitude determine the picture quality called

80. Part of broadcast day from midnight to local sunrise

81. Part of broadcast day from local sunset to local sunrise

82. What causes snow in television?

83. Vestigial sideband is known as _____ type of emission

84. Vestigial sideband modulation is commonly used in

86. The FM broadcast band is from

87. The type of emission used by standard AM radio broadcast

88. The standard AM radio broadcast belongs to which frequency band?

89. When were UHF channels (14 83) of television added?

91. What synchronizes the horizontal line of the TV picture tube?

93. What is the allowable frequency deviation of a commercial FM broadcast band?

94. The final amplifier of either FM or AM transmitter is operated as

96. Receiver sensitivity means

97. The main functions of the RF amplifier in a superheterodyne receiver is to

100. What is the first letter-symbol for emission of unmodulated carrier?

102. The frequency range for cable TV channel T-13

c. 41.75 47.55 MHz

d. 5.75 11.75 MHz

106. CCIR transmission standards for FM sound broadcasting at VHF

107. ISO Rec 23 in 1976 is the standard for