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Problem Set
Q1. Wooldridge 11.1
Because of covariance stationarity:
0 = Var(xt) does not depend on t, so Var(xt+h) = 0 for any h 0.
By definition, Corr(xt, xt+h) = Cov(xt, xt+h)/[Var(xt)Var(xt+h)]1/2 = h/ 0.
Q2. Wooldridge 11.4
Assuming y0 = 0 is a special case of assuming y0 nonrandom, and so we can obtain the variances
from (11.21): Var(yt) = 2 t and Var(yt+h) = 2(t + h), h > 0.
Because E(yt) = 0 for all t (since E(y0) = 0), Cov(yt, yt+h) = E(yt yt+h) and, for h > 0,
E(yt yt+h) = E[(et + et1 + e1)(et+h + et+h1 + + e1)]
= E(et2) + E(et12) + + E(e12) = 2t,
where we have used the fact that {et} is a pairwise uncorrelated sequence. Therefore,
Corr(yt, yt+h) = Cov(yt, yt+h)/ [Var(yt)Var(yt+h)]1/2 = [t/(t+h)] 1/2.
(ii): no past values of return, or any functions of them, should help us predict returnt. The R
squared is about .0052 and F=1.80 with pvalue .166. Here, we do not reject H0 at even the
15% level.
(iv) Predicting returnt based on past returns does not appear promising. Even though the F
statistic from part (ii) is almost significant at the 10% level, we have many observations. We
cannot even explain 1% of the variation in returnt.
In addition create a time series plot of return, the weekly percentage return on the New York
Stock Exchange composite index. What are the key features of the data? How does that help in
deciding whether the series is nonstationary? Does it seem to be covariance stationary?
10
5
100*(p - p(-1))/p(-1))
-5 -10
-15 0
Key features:
1. Considerable variability around what seems to be a mean of zero;
2. A couple of spikes of high volatility, especially the large negative return (associated with
the stock market crash of October 1987.)
3. Other than the spikes variability seems relatively constant over the period.
Think of comparing two different periods do they look very much the same? Yes. #1 and #3
are consistent with covariance stationarity. What we cant deduce from the graph is
dependence.
Might think of #2 as transitory random shocks to an otherwise stationary process.