HR MCQsssss

HR MCQS
Chapter 1: The Strategic Role of Human Resource Management

1. _____ is the right to make decisions, to direct the work of others, and to give orders.
a. Leadership
b. Authority
c. Delegation
d. Management
e. Responsibility
2. Human resource managers generally exert _____ within the human resources department and
_____ outside the human resources department.
a. line authority; implied authority
b. staff authority; line authority
c. line authority; staff authority
d. functional control; authoritarian control
e. staff authority; specific authority
3. Most people who are classified as nontraditional workers are _____.

a. contingent workers
b. independent contractors
c. job sharing
d. working multiple jobs
e. caring for an elderly parent
4. Which of the following is a type of nontraditional worker?

a. contingent workers
b. part-time workers
c. people working in alternative work arrangements
d. people with multiple jobs
e. all of the above
5. The proportion of women in the workforce is projected to _____.

a. increase significantly over the coming decade
b. decrease as more women decide to stay home with children
c. stop growing
d. increase at a decreasing rate
e. decrease at an increasing rate
6. What tactic will employers likely have to take to fill openings left by retiring employees?
a. instituting flexible work hours
b. providing elder care
c. hiring more women
d. rehiring retirees
e. lowering the retirement age
7. The performance of human resource departments is evaluated based on _____.

a. measurable evidence of efficiency
b. measurable evidence of effectiveness
c. anecdotal evidence
d. qualitative measures of success
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e. both a and b
8. Quantitative performance measures used by human resource managers to assess operations are
called _____.
a. ratios
b. benchmarks
c. metrics
d. grades
e. goals
9. The _____ metric can be used as a measurement to show improvements to savings in recruitment
and retention costs.
a. absence rate
b. cost per hire
c. HR expense factor
d. human capital ROI
e. time to fill
10. Which metric indicates the cost of health care per employee by providing the per capita cost of
employee benefits?
a. HR expense factor
b. human capital ROI
c. health care costs per employee
d. human capital value added
e. revenue factor
11. The _____ metric views human resource expenses in relation to the total operating expenses of
the organization.
a. HR expense factor
b. human capital ROI
c. health care costs per employee
d. human capital value added
e. revenue factor
12. _____ are a useful tool for determining why employees are leaving an organization.
a. BNA Turnover Reports
b. Exit interviews
c. Benchmarks
d. HR portals
e. Turnover rates
13. Which of the following human resource practices can be useful in reducing workers
compensation cost per employee?
a. safety training
b. disability management
c. safety incentives
d. all of the above
14. Which metric views employees as capital rather than as an expense?

a. time to fill
b. training investment
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c. HR expense factor
d. revenue factor
e. none of the above
15. The term _____ means contributing in a measurable way to achieving the companys strategic
goals.
a. competitive advantage
b. achievement success
c. value creation
d. success metric
16. Managers use a (n) _____ to measure the HR functions effectiveness and efficiency in
producing employee behaviors the company needs to achieve its strategic goals.
a. metric
b. HR Scorecard
c. benchmark
d. high performance work system
e. MBO format
17. Metrics can be compared against _____ to evaluate an organizations performance.

a. last years metric
b. competitors metric
c. survey data
d. national standard
e. all of the above
18. The Revenue Factor is equal to _____.

a. revenue divided by the total number of full-time equivalents (FTE)
b. total days elapsed to fill requisitions divided by the number hired
c. revenue minus operating expense minus compensation and benefit cost divided by the total
number of full-time equivalents (FTE)
d. HR expense divided by the total operating expense
19. The HR expense factor is equal to _____.

c. revenue minus operating expense minus compensation and benefit cost divided by the total
number of full-time equivalents (FTE)
d. HR expense divided by the total operating expense
e. advertising plus agency fees plus employee referrals plus travel costs of applicant plus
relocation costs plus recruiter pay and benefits divided by number of hires
20. The cost per hire is equal to _____.

c. HR expense divided by the total operating expense
d. advertising plus agency fees plus employee referrals plus travel costs of applicant plus
relocation costs plus recruiter pay and benefits divided by number of hires
21. In which area must HR managers be proficient in order to perform well in todays environment?
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a. HR proficiencies
b. business proficiencies
c. leadership proficiencies
d. learning proficiencies
e. all of the above
22. Companies may use a (n) _____ to provide employees with a single access point or gateway on a
companys intranet to all human resource information.
a. database
b. HR portal
c. data warehouse
d. ASP
e. URL
Chapter 2: Equal Opportunity and the Law

23. _____ means that an employer engages in an employment practice or policy that has a greater
adverse effect on the members of a protected group under Title VII than on other employees,
regardless of intent.
a. Disparate impact
b. Unintentional discrimination
c. Affirmative action
d. Adverse discrimination
e. Biased effect
24. _____ exists when an employer treats an individual differently because that individual is a
member of a particular race, religion, gender, or ethnic group.
a. Disparate treatment
b. Disparate impact
c. Unintentional discrimination
d. Adverse impact
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e. Prima facie
25. _____ refers to the total employment process those results in a significantly higher percentage of
a protected group in the candidate population being rejected for employment, placement, or
promotion.
a. Disparate treatment
b. Disparate impact
c. Unintentional discrimination
d. Adverse impact
e. Prima facie
26. A _____ approach to showing adverse impact means demonstrating that the employers policy
intentionally or unintentionally excluded members of a protected group.
a. disparate rejection rates
b. restricted policy
c. population comparisons
d. McDonnell-Douglas test
e. prima facie
27. The _____ approach compares the percentage of the minority/protected group and white workers
in the organization with the percentage of the corresponding groups in the labor market.
a. disparate rejection rates
b. restricted policy
c. population comparisons
d. McDonnell-Douglas test
e. all of the above
Chapter 3: Strategic Human Resource Management

28. What is the first step in the strategic management process?
a. perform external and internal audits
b. define the business and its mission
c. translate the mission into strategic goals
d. formulate a strategy
e. implement the strategy
29. Performing external and internal audits is the _____ step in the strategic management process.
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
e. fifth
30. The third step in the strategic management process is _____.

a. perform external and internal audits
b. define the business and its mission
c. translate the mission into strategic goals
d. formulate a strategy
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e. implement the strategy
31. A companys _____ strategy identifies the portfolio of businesses that comprise the company
and ways in which these businesses relate to each other.
a. functional
b. business-level
c. corporate-level
d. vertical integration
e. competitive
32. A companys _____ strategy identifies the how to build and strengthen the businesss long-term
competitive position in the marketplace.
a. functional
b. business-level
c. corporate-level
e. competitive
33. A companys _____ strategy identifies the basic courses of action that each department will
pursue in order to help the business attain its competitive goals.
a. functional
b. business-level
c. corporate-level
e. competitive
34. A _____ strategy implies that the firm will expand by adding new product lines.
a. consolidation
b. diversification
c. geographic expansion
d. integration
e. competitive
35. A _____ means the firm is expanding by producing its own materials or acquiring a retail outlet
to sell its own products.
a. consolidation
b. diversification
c. geographic expansion
e. competitive
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Chapter 4: Job Analysis

36. _____ is the procedures through which one determines the duties associated with positions and
the characteristics of people to hire for those positions.
a. Job description
b. Job specification
c. Job analysis
d. Job context
e. None of the above
37. Information regarding matters such as physical working conditions and work schedule is
included in the information about _____ an HR specialist may collect during a job analysis.
a. work activities
b. human behaviors
c. machines, tools, equipment, and work aids
d. performance standards
e. job context
38. There are _____ steps in doing a job analysis.

a. three
b. four
c. five
d. six
e. ten
39. The first step in conducting a job analysis is _____.

a. deciding how to use the information
b. reviewing relevant background information
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c. selecting representative positions
d. collecting data on job activities
e. developing a job description and job specification
40. The second step in conducting a job analysis is _____.

41. The third step in conducting a job analysis is _____.

42. The fourth step in conducting a job analysis is _____.

43. The fifth step in conducting a job analysis is _____.

c. verifying the job analysis information
44. The final step in conducting a job analysis is _____.

45. A (n) _____ shows the flow of inputs to and outputs from the job being analyzed.
a. organization chart
b. process chart
c. value chain
d. job preview
e. job description
46. _____ summarizes the personal qualities, traits, skills, and background required for getting the
job done.
a. job specification
b. job analysis
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c. job report
d. job description
e. job context
47. A _____ is the time it takes to complete a job.

a. job specification
b. work cycle
c. work week
d. shift
48. Which two data collection methods are frequently used together?
a. direct observation and interviewing
b. questionnaires and direct observation
c. interviewing and questionnaires
d. diaries and interviewing
e. most are used individually
49. Which of the following is considered a qualitative approach to job analysis?

a. position analysis questionnaire
b. interviews
c. Department of Labor approach
d. functional job analysis
e. all are qualitative approaches
50. What form of data collection involves recording work activities in a log?
a. interviews
b. diaries
c. direct observation
d. questionnaires
51. The _____ assigns a quantitative score to each job based on its decision-making, skilled activity,
physical activity, equipment operation, and information-processing characteristics. This
technique can be conducted online?
a. Department of Labor Procedure
b. position analysis questionnaire
c. functional job analysis
d. log approach
e. all of the above
52. What type of information is contained in the job identification section of a job description?
a. job title
b. job summary
c. relationships statement
d. major functions or activities
e. all of the above
53. FLSA status is located in the _____ section of a job description.

a. job summary
b. job identification
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c. relationships
d. responsibilities and duties
54. When filling jobs with untrained people, the job specifications may include _____.
a. quality of training
b. length of previous service
c. previous job performance
d. physical traits
e. all of the above
55. Which of the following work behaviors is considered generic or important to all jobs?
a. industriousness
b. intelligence
c. experience
d. morality
e. motivation
56. _____ means assigning workers additional same-level activities, thus increasing the number of
activities they perform.
a. Job rotation
b. Job enrichment
c. Job assignment
d. Job enlargement
e. Job adjustment
57. _____ means systematically moving workers from one job to another.
a. Job rotation
b. Job enrichment
c. Job assignment
d. Job enlargement
e. Job adjustment
58. ______ means redesigning jobs in a way that increases the opportunities for the worker to
experience feelings of responsibility, achievement, growth, and recognition.
a. Job rotation
b. Job enrichment
c. Job assignment
d. Job enlargement
e. Job adjustment
59. _____ refers to broadening the responsibilities of the companys jobs, and encouraging
employees not to limit themselves to whats on their job descriptions.
a. Job rotation
b. Job enrichment
c. Job assignment
d. Job enlargement
e. Dejobbing
60. The fundamental rethinking and radical redesign of business processes to achieve dramatic
improvements in performance is called _____.
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a. job redesign
b. reengineering
c. process engineering
d. job enlargement
e. outsourcing
61. Describing the job in terms of the measurable, observable, and behavioral competencies
necessary for good job performance is called a _____.
a. competency-based job analysis
b. Department of Labor Procedure
c. functional job analysis
d. SOC classification system
62. When interviewers write a job description with a list of job duties, required knowledge, skills,
abilities and other worker qualifications, they are _____.
a. analyzing the job
b. rating the jobs duties
c. creating interview questions
d. creating benchmark answers
e. appointing the interview panel
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Chapter 5: Personnel Planning and Recruiting

63. _____ is the process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill.
a. Recruitment
b. Selection
c. Personnel planning
d. Interviewing
e. None of the above
64. When a company decides on how to fill top executive positions, the process is called _____.
a. employment planning
b. succession planning
c. selection
d. interviewing
e. testing
65. When planning for employment requirements, what must be forecasted?

a. personnel needs
b. supply of inside candidates
c. supply of outside candidates
d. all of the above
66. Which term below means studying variations in a firms employment levels over time?
a. ratio analysis
b. trend analysis
c. graphical analysis
d. computer analysis
e. all of the above
67. Trend analysis is limited in its usefulness, because _____.

a. it considers time but not other changes such as productivity
b. it considers too many possible influences
c. it only provides an initial estimate
d. it assumes constant increases in productivity
e. all of the above
68. The process of making forecasts based on the ration between some causal factor like sales
volume and the number of employees required is called _____.
a. ratio analysis
b. trend analysis
c. graphical analysis
d. computer analysis
e. all of the above
69. A _____ shows graphically how two variables are related.

a. trend analysis
b. ratio analysis
c. scatter plot
d. productivity chart
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e. correlation analysis
70. _____ contain data on employees performance records, educational background, and promotion
recommendations.
a. Computerized information systems
b. Replacement charts
c. Qualifications inventories
d. Trend records
e. Personnel files
71. Qualifications inventories can be tracked and maintained by using _____.

a. personnel inventories
b. replacement charts
c. position replacement cards
d. computerized information systems
e. all of the above
72. Which tool below can be used in databases to protect the information?
a. passwords
b. encryption
c. access matrices
d. work experience codes
e. intranets
73. Recruiting is necessary to _____.

a. forecast the supply of outside candidates
b. develop an applicant pool
c. determine whether to use inside or outside candidates
d. develop qualifications inventories
e. all of the above
74. Which of the following is not a reason to recruit through a central office?
a. reduction of duplication of efforts
b. shared expenses
c. development and availability of recruitment experts
d. autonomous divisions
e. synergistic recruiting opportunities
75. Why are large applicant pools considered desirable?

a. allow the firm the chance to be more selective
b. increase costs involved in screening applicants
c. extend time required to fill vacant positions
d. costs of processing applicants outweighs benefits of selectivity
e. provide an opportunity to use prescreening computer software
76. When evaluating the effectiveness of recruitment sources, what should be measured?
a. the cost of using each source
b. the number of applicants produced
c. the quality of applicants produced
d. the time involved in using each source
e. both b and c
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77. Which method listed below has the highest level of validity for predicting job performance?
a. work sample tests
b. biographical data
c. grade point average
d. SAT scores
e. ratings of training and experience
78. A _____ can be used to calculate the number of applicants necessary to result in hiring the
required number of new employees.
a. trend analysis
b. ratio analysis
c. recruiting yield pyramid
d. computer information system
e. log function
79. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using internal sources of candidates to fill vacant
positions?
a. knowledge of candidates strengths and weaknesses
b. potential to upset or lose employees who arent promoted
c. accurate view of skill sets
d. high commitment to the company
e. reduced training and orientation required
80. Job posting refers to all of the following except

a. publicizing the open job to employees
b. listing the jobs attributes
c. listing the jobs pay rate
d. listing the jobs required qualifications
e. listing the number of desired applicants
81. The first step in succession planning is to _____.

a. create an applicant pool
b. assess candidates
c. identify and analyze key jobs
d. select who will fill key positions
e. analyze the strengths of current employees
82. The second step in succession planning is to _____.

83. The third step in succession planning is to _____.

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84. The effectiveness of advertising for recruiting qualified applicants depends upon _____.
a. complementary recruiting methods
b. graphical appeal
c. ad construction
d. corporate image
e. unemployment rate
85. When constructing the ad, it is important to consider how to best _____.
a. attract attention to the ad
b. develop interest in the job
c. create desire for the job
d. prompt action
e. all of the above
86. Which of the following is not an advantage of using a private employment agency?
a. it may be faster than in-house recruiting
b. it does not require internal recruitment specialists
c. screening may not be as thorough
d. it may be better for attracting minority candidates
e. it is more comfortable when approaching candidates from competitors
87. Which of the following is not another term for contingent workers?
a. part-time
b. just-in-time
c. collateral
d. temporary
e. all are terms for contingent workers
88. Contingent workers are used in _____ occupations.

a. clerical
b. engineering
c. medical
d. all of the above
89. _____ are special employment agencies retained by employers to seek out top management
talent for their clients.
a. State-run employment agencies
b. Private employment agencies
c. Temporary agencies
d. Executive recruiters/Headhunters
e. Job banks
90. What is the typical compensation structure for on demand recruiting services?
a. hourly rate
b. 30% of each hires salary
c. percentage fee
d. commission
e. menu of fees based on specific services
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91. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using an executive recruiter?
a. many contacts in field
b. adept at contacting candidates who are not on the job market
c. unfamiliar with company perceptions of ideal candidate
d. ability to keep identity of firm confidential
e. screening of many applicants
92. Which of the following is an advantage of college recruiting?

a. access to a source of management trainees
b. schedules for recruitment visits set far ahead of time
c. access to candidates who are not looking for jobs
d. ability to keep identity of company confidential
e. all of the above
93. College recruiters typically seek to _____.

a. determine whether a candidate is worthy of further consideration
b. fill the position
c. cut costs for the firm by reducing the need to for on-site interviews
d. develop a pool of applicants for future screening
e. all of the above
94. Besides determining whether a candidate is worth further consideration, college recruiters also
seek to _____.
a. fill the position
b. cut costs for the firm by reducing the need to for on-site interviews
c. develop a pool of applicants for future screening
d. attract good candidates
e. all of the above
95. Which tool or approach listed below is recommended for selling the employer to the
interviewee?
a. informal attitude
b. attractive recruiters
c. emphasis on the job location
d. well written job descriptions
e. all of the above
96. One Consulting Firm plans to do some college recruiting to fill entry-level management
positions this year. In choosing the colleges to visit, it should consider _____.
a. school location
b. school reputation
c. cost to attend school
d. size of school
e. all of the above
97. One of the biggest challenges facing single parents in the job market is _____.
a. getting access to the Internet to search job sites
b. balancing work and family life
c. getting a sufficient salary
d. finding permanent job positions
e. all of the above
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98. Which of these refers to the temporary, part time and self-employed workers?
a. Internal labor force
b. Contingent work force
c. High-performance work systems
d. Downsized employees
99. All of the following are characteristics of older employees except

a. lower absenteeism
b. higher reliability
c. higher absenteeism
d. better work habits
e. desire for flexibility
Chapter 6: Employee Testing and Selection

100. Hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards is considered _____.
a. improper hiring
b. negligent hiring
c. appropriate depending upon the job
d. negligent intent
e. unwise, but not illegal
101. Which of the following is an example of a reliable test?

a. one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test
b. one that yields one score on a test and a different, but better score on the same test taken on a
different occasion
c. one that yields the same score from two different people taking the test on the same occasion
d. one that yields different scores from two different people taking the test on different
occasions
e. one that includes questions that are not repetitive in any way
102. _____ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers a test with x number of item
designed to assess a topic; then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items
vary together.
a. Equivalent form estimate
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b. Retest estimate
c. Internal consistency
d. Internal comparison estimate
e. Criterion validity
103. The first step in the validation process is to _____.

a. choose the tests to measure attributes of job
b. analyze the job
c. administer tests
d. relate test scores and job criteria
e. cross-validate
104. The second step in the validation process is to _____.

b. analyze the job
c. administer tests
e. cross-validate
105. The final step in the validation process is to _____.

b. analyze the job
c. administer tests
e. cross-validate
106. To use _____, one administers a test to employees presently on the job and then compares their
test scores with current performance.
a. concurrent validation
b. predictive validation
c. correlation analysis
d. expectancy assessment
e. test batteries
107. To use _____, one administers the test to applicants before they are hired. The applicants are
then hired using existing selection techniques but not the new tests in development. Later, job
performance measures are compared to the test scores under development.
a. concurrent validation
d. expectancy assessment
e. test batteries
108. Which method of test validation is considered more dependable?

a. content validation
b. criterion validation
c. predictive validation
d. concurrent validation
e. face validation
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109. Which statistical tool is used to determine if a significant relationship exists between the
predictor scores and the performance criterion?
a. regression analysis
b. discriminate analysis
d. canonical correlation analysis
e. confirmatory factor analysis
110. Which form of validation emphasizes the use of judgment as a validation tool?
a. criterion validation
c. content validation
d. concurrent validation
e. all of the above
111. _____ means there is a significant discrepancy between rates of members of the protected groups
and others.
a. Discrimination
b. Disparate impact
c. Criterion validity
d. Negligent hiring
e. Discrimination discrepancy
112. Traditionally female professions are referred to as _____ jobs.

a. purple collar
b. white collar
c. pink collar
d. blue collar
113. Because nonperformance is usually the result of _____, it is important to measure motivation and
interpersonal skills as well as cognitive and physical abilities during the selection process.
a. attitude
b. motivation
c. temperament
d. all of the above
114. Which of the following is not a type of projective technique for measuring aspects of an
applicants personality?
a. Make a Picture Story
b. House-Tree-Person
c. Thematic Apperception Test
d. Structured Sentence Completion Test
e. All of the above are projective
115. The Big Five personality dimensions include all of the following except
a. neuroticism
b. optimism
c. extraversion
d. conscientiousness
e. agreeableness
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116. _____ represents a tendency to exhibit poor emotional adjustment and experience negative
effects such as anxiety, insecurity, and hostility.
a. Neuroticism
b. Extraversion
c. Conscientiousness
d. Agreeableness
e. Openness to experience
117. _____ represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, active, and to experience positive effects
such as energy and zeal.
a. Neuroticism
b. Extraversion
c. Conscientiousness
d. Agreeableness
e. Openness to experience
118. Which personality characteristic refers to the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, and
unconventional?
a. neuroticism
b. extraversion
c. conscientiousness
d. agreeableness
e. openness to experience
119. Which personality characteristic refers to the tendency for one to be trusting, compliant, caring,
and gentle?
a. neuroticism
b. extraversion
d. agreeableness
120. Which personality characteristic captures a combination of achievement and dependability?

a. neuroticism
b. extraversion
d. agreeableness
121. A _____ is a two or three-day simulation in which 10 to 12 candidates perform realistic

management tasks under the observation of experts who appraise each candidates potential.
a. work sampling event
b. video-based situational testing
c. management assessment center
d. personality test
e. retreat
122. Which of the following is an indirect method for predicting job performance during the selection
process?
a. intelligence tests
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b. miniature job training and evaluation
c. management assessment center
d. work sampling technique
e. video-based simulation technique
123. Which of the following is a direct method for predicting job performance during the selection
process?
a. intelligence tests
b. motor abilities tests
c. personality tests
d. work sampling technique
e. interests inventories
124. What type of screening device is designed to measure attitudes regarding tolerance of others who
steal and acceptance of rationalizations for theft?
a. personality tests
b. interest inventories
c. paper-and-pencil honesty tests
d. graphology
e. handwriting analysis
125. Employers can and should use all the tools listed below to attempt to detect dishonest job
applicants except _____.
a. polygraph tests
b. credit checks
c. background checks
d. paper-and-pencil honesty tests
e. drug tests
126. Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality traits, is also called _____.
a. numerology
b. astrology
c. handwriting analysis
d. reasoning analysis
e. polygraph output assessment
127. What type of screening is used to reduce absenteeism and establish a baseline for future
insurance claims?
a. physical examinations
b. personality tests
c. polygraph tests
d. substance abuse screening
e. all of the above
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Chapter 7: Interviewing Candidates

128. The _____ is considered by many to be the most important screening tool.
a. telephone reference
b. reference letter
c. selection interview
d. management assessment center
e. work sampling technique
129. _____ Interviews can provide insight into sources of dissatisfaction for employees.
a. Selection
b. Appraisal
c. Exit Interview
d. Preview
e. Structured
130. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using structured interviews?

a. consistency across candidates
b. reduced subjectivity
c. lower potential for bias
d. enhanced ability to withstand legal challenge
e. lack of ability to pursue follow-up questions as they develop
131. Which type of interview could also be described as somewhat like a general conversation?
a. nondirective
b. directive
c. standardized
d. situational
e. all of the above
(A; easy; p. 236)
132. How do situational interviews differ from behavioral interviews?

a. situational interviews are based on responses to past situations
b. situational interviews are based on how an applicant might behave in a hypothetical
situation
c. situational interviews utilize predetermined situational questions and answers
d. behavioral interviews ask applicants to describe their emotions in different hypothetical
situations
e. situational and behavioral interviews do not differ
133. A job-related interview is, by definition, as type of _____ interview.

a. structured
b. behavioral
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c. situational
d. unstructured
e. stress
134. In a board interview, a team of interviewers interviews the candidate in a _____ fashion.
a. serial
b. sequential
c. simultaneous
d. systematic
e. symmetrical
135. A mass interview differs from traditional panel interviews in that the team of interviewers
interviews _____.
a. several candidates simultaneously
b. several candidates serially
c. several candidates sequentially
d. each candidate by using sub-groups of the team
e. candidates in front of other employees
136. Which interview format listed below should result in the highest validity?
a. structured, situational
b. unstructured, situational
c. structured, behavioral
d. unstructured, behavioral
e. structured, job-related
137. _____ means that the order in which an interviewer sees applicants affects how the candidates
are rated.
a. Context error
b. Contrast error
c. Order effect
d. Recency error
e. Primacy effect
138. What interviewer behaviors can interfere with the interview process?
a. talking too much
b. telegraphing
c. playing psychologist
d. letting the applicant dominate the interview
e. all of the above
139. What is the first step in developing a guide for structured situational interviews?
a. rate the jobs main duties
b. create interview questions
c. write a job description
d. create benchmark answers
e. appoint the interview panel and conduct interviews
140. The second step in the procedure for developing a guide for structured situational interviews is to
_____.
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141. The third step in the procedure for developing a guide for structured situational interviews is to
_____.
142. The fourth step in the procedure for developing a guide for structured situational interviews is to
_____.
143. Which of the following types of questions is not typically part of a structured situational
interview?
a. situational questions
b. job knowledge questions
c. ability questions
d. willingness questions
e. all question types used in structured situational interviews
144. How many interviewers are usually on an interview panel for structured situational interviews?
a. 3 or less
b. 3-6
c. 6-9
d. 10 or more
e. it varies
145. All of the following are ways that interviewers can control the interview except _____.
a. limit interviewers follow-up questions
b. ensure that all interviewees get the same questions
c. use a large number of questions
d. prohibit questions from candidates until the end of the interview
e. use multiple interviewers or panel interviews
Chapter 8: Training and Developing Employees

HR MCQS
146. Orientation typically includes information on _____.
a. employee benefits
b. personnel policies
c. daily routine
d. safety measures
e. all of the above
147. The first step in a training program is to _____.

a. assess the programs successes or failures
b. present the program to a small test audience
c. design the program content
d. conduct a needs analysis
e. train the targeted group of employees
148. What is the second step in the training process?

149. The third step in the training process is to _____.

150. The fourth step in the training process is to _____.

151. What is the final step in the training process?

152. Which of the following is recommended for training sessions to maximize learning?
a. a full day
b. a half-day
c. one hour
d. three hours
e. two hours
HR MCQS
153. _____ is a detailed study of the job to determine what specific skills the job requires. Which
produces analysis form (without employee name) to be attached with job description.
a. Needs analysis
b. Task analysis
c. Performance analysis
d. Training strategy
e. Development planning
154. The process of verifying that there is a performance deficiency and determining if such
deficiency should be corrected through training or through some other means is called _____.
a. needs analysis
b. task analysis
c. performance analysis
d. training strategy
e. development planning
155. When low expectations on the trainers part translate into poor trainee performance, this is called
the _____.
a. golem effect
b. expectations fallacy
c. what you ask for is what you get effect
d. expectancy risk
e. trainer bias
156. A structured process by which people become skilled workers through a combination of
classroom instruction and on-the-job training is called _____.
a. job instruction training
b. understudy training
c. programmed learning
d. apprenticeship training
e. coaching
157. When jobs consist of a logical sequence of steps and are best taught step-by-step, the appropriate
training method to use is _____.
a. job instruction training
b. informal learning
c. job rotation
d. programmed learning
e. apprenticeship training
158. Functional illiteracy is defined as _____.

a. reading below 9th grade level
b. the inability to handle basic reading, writing, and arithmetic
c. the inability to understand standard industry terminology
d. proficiency in math and reading skills at the 8th grade level and above
e. all of the above
159. Because illiterate employees will usually try to hide their problem, supervisors can try to identify
illiteracy problems by looking for employees who _____.
a. do not follow written instructions
b. take forms home to complete
HR MCQS
c. are multilingual
d. both a and b
e. all of the above
160. With _____, a trainer in a central location teaches groups of employees at remote locations via
television hookups.
a. lecturing
b. audiovisual-based instruction
c. teletraining
d. teleteaching
e. distance learning
161. Any attempt to improve managerial performance by imparting knowledge, changing attitudes, or
increasing skills is called _____.
a. diversity training
b. on-the-job training
c. performance improvement programs
d. management development
e. coaching
162. Which on-the-job training method is used for managerial positions?

a. job rotation
b. coaching
c. action learning
d. outside seminars
e. all of the above
163. In a (n ) _____, carefully selected teams tackle real world business programs that extend
beyond their usual areas of expertise and receive coaching and feedback on their work.
a. management development program
b. action learning program
c. role playing program
d. job instruction program
e. understudy program
164. The transparent, but often impermeable barrier that women face when trying to move to top
management is called the _____.
a. glass ceiling
b. glass wall
c. invisible corner office
d. iron wall
165. The basic aim of _____ is to increase the participants insight into his or her own behavior and
the behavior of others by encouraging an open expression of feelings in a trainer-guided group.
a. sensitivity training
b. action research
c. group therapy
d. diversity training
e. coaching
HR MCQS
166. In a _____, measures are taken before and after the training program so they can be compared to
assess the effectiveness of the program.
a. Solomon four-factor design
b. time series design
c. controlled experiment
d. post-test only design
e. factorial design
167. When _____ are measured to assess the effectiveness of a training program, variables such as
liking of the program, satisfaction with the program, and attitude toward the program are
assessed.
a. learning outcomes
b. behavioral outcomes
c. results
d. reactions
e. productivity levels
Chapter 9: Performance Management and Appraisal

168. The process of evaluating an employees current and/or past performance relative to his or her
performance standards is called _____.
a. recruitment
b. employee selection
c. performance appraisal
d. organizational development
e. training
169. When goal setting, performance appraisal, and development are consolidated into a single,
common system designed to ensure that employee performance supports a companys strategy, it
is called _____.
HR MCQS
a. strategic organizational development
b. performance management
c. performance appraisal
d. human resource management
e. strategic management
170. The component of an effective performance management process that communicates the
organizations higher level goals throughout the organization and then translates these goals into
departmental goals is called _____.
a. role clarification
b. goal alignment
c. developmental goal setting
d. direction sharing
e. coaching and support
171. The component of an effective performance management process that explains each employees
role in terms of his or her day-to-day work is called _____.
a. role clarification
b. goal alignment
c. developmental goal setting
d. direction sharing
e. coaching and support
172. Which performance appraisal technique lists traits and a range of performance?
a. alternation ranking
b. graphic rating scale
c. Liker
d. MBO
e. constant sum rating scale
173. The _____ method of performance appraisal involves listing all the subordinates to be rated,
crossing out the names of any not known well enough to rank, indicating the employee who is
the highest on each characteristic being measured and who is the lowest, and then alternating
between the next highest and lowest until all employees have been ranked.
c. Liker
d. MBO
e. constant sum rating scale
174. Suppose you have five employees to rate. You make a chart of all possible pairs of employees
for each trait being evaluated. Then, you indicate the better employee of the pair for each pair.
Finally, you add up the number of positives for each employee. In this case, you have used the
_____ method of performance appraisal.
a. graphic ranking scale
b. constant sum ranking scale
c. alternation ranking
d. paired comparison
e. forced distribution
HR MCQS
175. When a supervisor evaluates performance by assigning predetermined percentages of rates into
performance categories, he or she has used the _____ method of performance appraisal.
a. graphic ranking scale
b. constant sum ranking scale
c. alternation ranking
d. paired comparison
e. forced distribution
176. With the _____ method, the supervisor keeps a log of positive and negative examples of a
subordinates work-related behavior.
b. constant sums rating
c. forced distribution
d. narrative forms
e. critical incident
177. Which appraisal method combines the benefits of narratives, critical incidents, and quantified
scales by assigning scale points with specific examples of good or poor performance?
a. behaviorally anchored rating scale
c. constant sums rating scale
d. alternation ranking
178. Graphic rating scales are subject to all of the following problems except _____.
a. unclear standards
b. halo effects
c. complexity
d. central tendency
e. leniency
179. _____ is defined as the influence of a raters general impression on ratings of specific rate
qualities.
a. Impression management
b. Halo effect
c. Central tendency
d. Stereotyping
e. Bias
180. Some supervisors, when filling in rating scales, tend to avoid the highs and lows on the scale and
rate most people in the middle. This _____ means that all employees may be rated average.
a. halo effect
b. stereotyping
c. central tendency
d. strictness
e. leniency
181. The _____ problem occurs when supervisors tend to rate all their subordinates consistently high.
a. central tendency
b. leniency
c. strictness
HR MCQS
d. bias
e. halo effect
182. The _____ problem occurs when supervisors tend to rate all their subordinates consistently low.
a. central tendency
b. leniency
c. strictness
d. bias
e. halo effect
183. When an employees personal characteristics such as age, race, and gender influence a
supervisors evaluation of his or her performance, the problem of _____ has occurred.
a. bias
b. stereotyping
c. central tendency
d. halo affect
e. strictness
184. The best way of reducing the problem of central tendency in performance appraisals is to _____.
a. rank employees
b. be aware of the problem
c. train supervisors to avoid it
d. impose a distribution for performance
e. consider the purpose of the appraisal
185. The best way of reducing the problems of leniency or strictness in performance appraisals is to
_____.
a. rank employees
b. be aware of the problem
c. train supervisors to avoid it
d. impose a distribution for performance
186. Which big five personality trait is associated with performance appraisal ratings that are too
strict?
a. agreeableness
b. extraversion
d. openness
e. neuroticism
187. Which big five personality trait is associated with performance appraisal ratings that are too
lenient?
a. agreeableness
b. extraversion
d. openness
e. neuroticism
188. Which of the following could result in a legally questionable appraisal process?
a. conduct a job analysis to establish criteria and standards for successful performance
b. base appraisals on subjective supervisory observations
HR MCQS
c. administer and score appraisals in a standardized fashion
d. use clearly defined job performance dimensions
e. avoid abstract trait names when using graphic rating scales
189. While peer appraisals have many benefits, one problem is _____, when several peers collaborate
to rate each other highly.
a. social loafing
b. group think
c. logrolling
d. alliance forging
190. Firms that use _____ let subordinates anonymously rate their supervisors performance and
______ allows top management to diagnose the management styles of supervisors, identify
potential people problems, and take corrective action with individual supervisors as necessary?
a. downward feedback
b. upward feedback
c. MBO
d. narratives
e. critical incident
Chapter 10: Managing Your Career

191. _____ is a process for enabling employees to better understand and develop their career skills
and interests and to use these skills and interests most effectively within the company and
afterwards.
a. Organizational development
b. Career management
c. Career development
d. Career planning
e. Training
192. _______refers to lifelong series of activities that contributes to a persons career exploration,
establishment, success, and fulfillment.
a. organizational development
b. career management
c. career development
d. career planning
e. training
193. ______refers to process through which someone becomes aware of personal skills, interests,
knowledge, motivations; acquires information about opportunities; identifies career goals; and
establishes action plans to attain those goals.
a. organizational development
b. career management
c. career development
d. career planning
e. training
HR MCQS
194. How does human resource management with a career development focus differ from human
resource management with a traditional focus?
a. it includes job analysis
b. it includes skill analysis
c. it projects needs
d. it uses statistical data
e. it includes information about individual interests and preferences
195. How do training and development with a career development focus differ from training and
development with a traditional focus?
a. it provides opportunities for learning skills
b. it provides opportunities for identifying job-related attitudes
c. it provides career path information
d. it provides information about ones job
e. there is no difference
196. How does performance appraisal with a career development focus differ from performance
appraisal with a traditional focus?
a. it focuses on ratings
b. it focuses on rewards
c. it includes an appraisal of job performance
d. it includes individual development plans
197. How do recruiting and placement with a career development focus differ from recruiting and
placement with a traditional focus?
a. it matches an organizations needs with qualified individuals
b. it attempts to gather a sufficient pool of applicants
c. it includes testing to determine the best fit
d. it matches individuals with jobs based on an employees career interests
198. Who is responsible for the planning, guiding, and developing an employees career?
a. the immediate supervisor
b. the employee
c. the organization
d. human resources
e. the development officer
199. Alternative work arrangements include all of the following except

a. part-time work
b. flexible hours
c. on-site child care
d. telecommuting
e. job sharing
200. A stretch assignment refers to a job function that _____.

a. includes a physical exertion component
b. provides time for working out at the company gym
c. will let one work on something challenging
d. eliminates some job functions
HR MCQS
e. allows working in teams
201. Assessing interests, seeking out career information, and utilizing development opportunities are
all part of the _____s role in career development.
a. individual
b. manager
c. supervisor
d. company
e. human resource specialist
202. Providing timely performance feedback, development assignments, and support are all part of the
_____s role in career development.
a. individual
b. manager
c. employee
d. company
203. Providing training and development opportunities, and career information and programs are all
part of the _____s role in career development.
a. individual
b. manager
c. supervisor
d. company
204. Which of the following is part of the organizations role in an employees career development?
a. communicating the mission, policies, and procedures
b. providing timely performance feedback
c. participating in career development discussions
d. establishing goals and career plans
e. seeking out career information
205. Which of the following is part of a managers role in an employees career development?
b. utilizing career development opportunities
e. seeking out career information
206. Which of the following is part of an employees role in his or her own career development?
b. providing timely performance feedback
e. offering a variety of career options
207. _____ occurs when a new employees high expectations and enthusiasm confront the reality of a
boring job.
a. Culture shock
b. Reality shock
HR MCQS
c. Sticker shock
d. Regret
e. Cognitive dissonance
208. How can companies provide career counseling, development advice, and therapy for employees
seeking to grow in their careers?
a. encourage role reversal
b. organize career success teams
c. establish a corporate campus
d. provide career coaches
e. offer online career centers
209. Career coaches help employees to create plans showing where their careers should lead. The
planning time period is usually _____.
a. less than one year
b. 1-5 years
c. 5-10 years
d. 10-15 years
e. equivalent to the number of years the person plans to work
210. A female employee accused a superior of sexual harassment. Later that employee was turned
down for a promotion because the superior she had accused persuaded her current supervisor not
to promote her. This is an example of _____.
a. demotion
b. retaliation
c. dissonance
d. defensive behavior
e. aggressiveness
211. _____ is aimed at helping employees ease the transition from working to retirement.
a. Preretirement counseling
b. Performance management
c. Retirement planning
d. Flextime
e. Downtime
212. What type of preretirement education program is offered most often?

a. explanation of social security benefits
b. leisure time counseling
c. health counseling
d. counseling for second careers outside the company
e. psychological counseling
213. The goal of preretirement educational programs is to _____.

a. improve job satisfaction
b. increase employee commitment
c. ease the transition from working life to retirement
d. minimize company expenses
HR MCQS
e. minimize medical claims from retirees
Chapter 11: Establishing Strategic Pay Plans

214. Which of the following is categorized as an indirect payment portion of employee
compensation?
a. wages
b. salaries
c. employer-paid insurance
d. commissions
e. bonuses
215. When longer-term employees salaries are lower than those of workers entering the firm today,
_____ has occurred.
a. wage curve
b. salary compression (caused by inflation )
c. age discrimination
d. market expansion
e. reward strategy
216. When an employee transferred to an international location and his or her base salary reflects his
or her home countrys salary with allowances added for cost-of-living differences, the employer
has used a _____ salary plan.
a. transfer
b. home-based
c. host-based
d. cost-of-living
e. allowances included
217. When an employee transferred to another country is assigned a salary based on the base salary
for that position in the country where he or she will work, the employer has used a _____ salary
plan.
a. transfer
b. home-based
c. host-based
d. cost-of-living
e. allowances included
218. Who usually pays the extra tax burden resulting from taxes a manager on international
assignment is liable for over and above those he or she would have to pay in the home country?
a. the employee
b. the employer
c. the home country
d. the host country
e. there are no additional tax burdens
219. _____ is a formal and systematic comparison of jobs to determine the worth of one job relative
to another.
a. Job analysis
HR MCQS
b. Job evaluation
c. Benchmark analysis
d. Compensable evaluation
e. Job ranking
220. Another term for job classification is _____.
a. job ranking
b. job grading
c. job categorization
d. job evaluation
221. When using the job classification method of job evaluation, raters categorize jobs into groups of
similar jobs called _____.
a. classes
b. grades
c. sections
d. schedules
e. cohorts
222. When using the job classification method of job evaluation, raters categorize jobs into groups
of jobs that are similar in difficulty but not in context called _____.
a. classes
b. grades
c. sections
d. schedules
e. cohorts
223. The point method of job evaluation entails _____.

a. identifying several compensable factors, each having several degrees, and the degree to
which each of these factors is present in the job
b. ranking each job relative to all other jobs based on some overall factor
c. using raters to categorize jobs into groups
d. deciding which jobs have more of the chosen compensable factors
224. The ranking method of job evaluation entails _____.

225. The job grading method of job evaluation entails _____.

HR MCQS
226. Which job evaluation method entails deciding which jobs have more of the chosen compensable
factors?
a. ranking method
b. point method
c. factor comparison
d. job grading method
e. job classification method
227. The _____ shows the pay rates currently paid for jobs in each pay grade, relative to the points or
rankings assigned to each job or grade by the job evaluation.
a. pay group
b. benchmark
c. pay grade
d. class
e. wage curve
228. A company using competency-based pay pays for all of the following except an employees
_____.
a. range of skills
b. job title
c. depth of knowledge
d. type of skills
e. all of the above are part of competency-based pay plans
229. _____ means collapsing salary grades and ranges into just a few wide levels or bands, each of
which contains a relatively wide range of jobs and salary levels.
a. Comparable worth
b. Strategic compensation
c. Job evaluation
d. Broad banding
e. Job grading
230. _____ refers to the requirement to pay men and women equal wages for jobs of roughly
equivalent value to the employer.
a. Comparable worth
b. Strategic compensation
c. Job evaluation
d. Broad banding
e. Job grading
Chapter 12: Pay for Performance and Financial Incentives

231. Frederick Taylor referred to the tendency of employees to work at the slowest pace possible and
to produce at the minimum acceptable level as _____.
a. social loafing
b. systematic soldiering
c. human nature
d. group shift
HR MCQS
e. group norms
232. Herzbergs Hygiene-Motivator theory of motivation suggests that extrinsic factors like _____
cause dissatisfaction.
a. advancement
b. responsibility
c. respect
d. working conditions
e. recognition
233. Herzbergs Hygiene-Motivator theory of motivation suggests that intrinsic factors like _____
cause satisfaction.
a. working conditions
b. pay
c. achievement
d. incentive pay
e. friendships at work
234. Vrooms expectancy theory states that a persons motivation to exert some level of effort is a
function of all of the following except _____.
a. the probability that the effort will lead to performance
b. the perceived relationship between performance and obtaining the reward
c. the perceive value of the reward
d. the amount of intrinsic motivation associated with the behavior
e. all of the above affect a persons effort
235. In Vrooms theory of motivation, motivation is equal to E * I * V, which represents _____.

a. existence
b. extrinsic motivation
c. expectancy, instrumentality, valence
d. esteem
e. energy
236. Expectancy could also be referred to as the _____.

a. probability that effort will lead to success
b. perceived relationship between successful performance and obtaining a desired reward
c. perceived value a person attaches to a reward
d. luck associated with each person
e. degree of optimism a person has
237. Instrumentality in Vrooms theory of motivation refers to the _____.

a. probability that effort will lead to success
b. perceived relationship between successful performance and obtaining a desired reward
c. perceived value a person attaches to a reward
d. luck associated with each person
e. degree of optimism a person has
238. Valence in Vrooms theory of motivation refers to____

a. perceived value a person attaches to a reward
b. luck associated with each person
c. degree of optimism a person has
HR MCQS
d. People wont pursue rewards they find unattractive.
239. The Lincoln incentive system is an incentive plan that _____.

a. uses a trust to hold stock in individual employee accounts and distributes it to employees
upon retirement
b. engages many or all employees in a common effort to achieve a companys productivity
objectives with any resulting cost-savings gains shared among employees and the company
c. involves the firm distributing total annual profits each year among employees based on
their merit rating
240. The Scanlon plan is an incentive plans that _____.

a. engages many or all employees in a common effort to achieve a companys productivity
objectives with any resulting cost-savings gains shared among employees and the company
b. focuses on the sharing of benefits between employer and employees
c. contributes company shares of its own stock or cash to be used to purchase company stock to
a trust established to purchase shares of the firms stock for employees
d. provides tax advantages for employees by deferring income taxes, often until the employee
retires
Chapter 13: Benefits and Services

241. A strategy designed to minimize health care costs for employers by identifying and managing
employees with chronic conditions like asthma or diabetes is called _____.
a. cost containment
b. disease management
c. absence management
d. wellness care
242. A strategy designed to minimize health care costs for employers by including the cost of
absenteeism in the overall cost of health care is called _____.
a. cost containment
b. disease management
c. absence management
d. wellness management
e. on-site primary care
243. _____ provide services like personal legal and financial counseling, child care referrals, elder
care referrals adoption assistance, mental health counseling, and life event planning.
HR MCQS
a. Social Security programs
b. Pension plans
c. Employee assistance programs
d. Family-friendly benefits
244. Which of the following occupations is commonly subjected to compressed workweeks?

a. administrative assistant
b. attorney
c. teacher
d. pilot
e. manager
245. Which flexible work arrangement helps to prevent company layoffs by allowing a group of
employees to take a temporary reduction in work hours?
a. flextime
b. compressed workweek
c. job sharing
d. work sharing
e. telecommuting
246. Which flexible work arrangement allows employees to work from home using technology like
computers and the Internet?
a. flextime
b. compressed workweek
c. job sharing
d. work sharing
e. telecommuting
Chapter 14: Ethics, Justice, and Fair Treatment in HR
Management
247. When someone concludes that something is good or bad, right or wrong, a ( n) _____ has been
made.
a. normative judgment
b. non-normative statement
c. moral assessment
d. distributive assessment
248. Which component of organizational justice refers to the fairness and justice of a decisions
result?
a. distributive justice
b. procedural justice
c. interactional justice
d. normative justice
e. interpersonal justice
249. Which component of organizational justice refers to the fairness of a process?

HR MCQS
e. interpersonal justice
250. Which component of organizational justice refers to the manner in which managers conduct their
interpersonal dealings with employees?
e. morality
251. Under which of the following scenarios, would a formal procedure such a selection interview be
considered unfair?
a. it focuses on job-related criteria
b. it provides an opportunity to demonstrate competence
c. it has a built-in appeal process
d. it is used consistently
e. it focuses on personality issues
252. When an employer involves individuals in decisions that affect them and allows them to refute
the merits of others ideas, the employer is enhancing the perceived fairness of the situation via
_____.
a. expectation clarity
b. engagement
c. friendliness
d. explanation
e. reason
253. The theory that women who commit offenses that violate stereotypes regarding the proper
behavior of women will be punished for both the offense and for their inappropriate sex role
behavior is called the _____.
a. glass ceiling
b. evil woman thesis
c. gender role error
d. fundamental attribution error
e. self-serving bias
254. All of the following are reasonable bases for dismissal except _____.
a. unsatisfactory performance
b. whistle blowing
c. misconduct
d. lack of qualifications for job
e. changed requirements of job
255. When an employees dismissal does not comply with the law or with the contractual agreement
stated or implied by the firm via its employment application forms, employee manuals, or other
promises, _____ has occurred.
a. mutiny
b. insubordination
c. wrongful discharge
HR MCQS
d. gross misconduct
e. emotional hardship
256. _____ is a systematic process by which someone who is terminated is trained and counseled in
the techniques of conducting a self-appraisal and securing a job appropriate to his or her needs
and talents.
a. An exit interview
b. Outplacement counseling
c. A job counseling fair
d. Downsizing
257. Which alternative to layoffs involves an agreement by all employees to accept a pay cut in order
to keep everyone at work?
a. voluntary reduction in pay plan
b. take vacation plan
c. voluntary time off plan
d. rings of defense approach
e. downsizing approach
Chapter 15: Labor Relations and Collective Bargaining

258. The American Federation of Labor in 1886 was formed to raise daily wages and improve
working conditions of employees in America by?
a. Samuel Gompers
b. Benjamin Franklin
c. Frederick Taylor
d. George Meany
e. Alexander Hamilton
259. The _____ form of union security means that the company can hire only union members.
a. closed shop
b. union shop
c. agency shop
d. open shop
e. maintenance of agreement
260. The _____ form of union security means that the company can hire nonunion people but those
people must join the union within a prescribed period of time.
a. closed shop
b. union shop
c. agency shop
d. open shop
261. The _____ form of union security means that the employees who do not belong to the union still
must pay union dues because the unions efforts benefit them all.
a. closed shop
b. union shop
c. agency shop
HR MCQS
d. open shop
262. The _____ form of union security means that it is up to the workers whether or not they join the
union and only those who join must pay dues.
a. closed shop
b. union shop
c. agency shop
d. open shop
263. The term _____ describes statutory or constitutional provisions banning the requirement of union
membership as a condition of employment.
a. termination at will
b. right to work
c. open shop
d. free labor
e. yellow dog
264. A contract that allows management to require nonunion membership as a condition for
employment is called a _____ contract.
a. yellow dog
b. scared cat
c. yellow chicken
d. black dog
e. mouse
265. The term _____ refers to an unfair labor practice in which a union requires an employer to pay
an employee for services not performed.
a. yellow dog
b. plumping
c. featherbedding
d. inflating
e. ballooning
266. _____ is an organizing tactic by which full time undercover union organizers are hired
unknowingly by employers in order to sway union elections.
a. Union salting
b. Featherbedding
c. Espionage
d. Infiltration
e. Picketing
267. _____ is the process of legally terminating a unions right to represent employees.
a. Union salting
b. Featherbedding
c. Certification
d. Decertification
e. Firing
f.
268. All of the following are examples of mandatory bargaining items except _____.
HR MCQS
a. wages
b. hours
c. severance pay
d. pension benefits of retired employees
e. insurance benefits
269. All of the following are examples of permissible bargaining items except _____.
a. indemnity bonds
b. use of union label
c. overtime pay
d. cafeteria prices
e. pension benefits for retired employees
270. Which intervention method listed below is the most definitive of all third-party interventions?
a. fact finding
b. mediation
c. binding arbitration
d. interest arbitration
e. non-binding arbitration
271. Which third-party intervention is commonly used in national emergency disputes?

a. fact finding
b. mediation
c. binding arbitration
d. interest arbitration
e. non-binding arbitration
272. Which type of strike is unauthorized and occurs during the term of a contract?
a. unfair labor practice
b. wildcat
c. sympathy
d. yellow dog
e. economic
273. Union tactics designed to impede or disrupt production by encouraging employees to slow the
pace of work, refuse to work overtime, and participate in sick-outs are called _____.
a. espionage
b. inside games
c. lockouts
d. injunctions
e. strikes
HR MCQS
Chapter 16: Employee Safety and Health

274. What term is used to describe any abnormal condition or disorder caused by exposure to
environmental factors associated with employment?
a. occupational injury
b. workers compensation
c. chronic illness
d. occupational illness
e. work-related disease
275. Which of the following personality characteristics are associated with people who are likely to
exhibit violent behavior on the job?
a. neurotic
b. emotionally stable
c. optimistic
d. extraverted
e. type a
276. Unsafe acts can be reduced through all of the following methods except
a. job rotation
b. screening
c. training
d. incentive programs
e. responding to employee suggestions
277. When managers identify a trait associated with work-place accidents and then use this trait as
part of the selection process for new hires, they are using _____ to reduce unsafe acts.
a. job rotation
b. screening
c. training
d. incentive programs
e. responding to employee suggestions
278. Safety programs that focus on identifying worker behaviors that contribute to accidents and then
training workers to avoid these behaviors are called ____.
a. behavior-based safety
b. positive reinforcement safety
c. strategic safety
d. employee participation-based
e. safety training
279. Which of the following is an external factor that can lead to job stress?
a. Type A personality
b. pessimism
c. locus of control
HR MCQS
d. job security
e. tolerance for ambiguity
280. Burnout occurs in employees with high-stress at work _____.

a. spontaneously
b. immediately
c. gradually over time
d. immediately for those employees who are burnout-prone
e. never for those employees who are not burnout-prone
281. Burnout can be reduced by _____.

a. taking a vacation
b. hiring more employees
c. removing the stressors that caused it initially
d. managing stress on an ongoing basis
e. both c and d
282. Which of the following groups can employers legally discriminate against?
a. women
b. men over 50
c. smokers
d. people with AIDS
e. people with a substance abuse addiction
283. The second biggest cause of fatal workplace injuries is _____.

a. homicide
b. alcoholism
c. drug use
d. smoking
e. unsafe equipment
Chapter 17: Managing Global Human Resources

HR MCQS
284. _____ are formal, employee-elected groups of worker representatives that meet monthly with
managers to discuss topics affecting the employees.
a. Unions
b. Work councils
c. Mediation groups
d. Employee boards
e. Advisory boards
285. In Germany, employees have the legal right to a voice in setting company policies. This is called
_____.
a. co-determination
b. employment at will
c. employee participation
d. work council leadership
e. internal coordination
286. How do performance appraisals in China differ from those in the United States?
a. performance appraisals in China focus on the process
b. employees in China are less likely to receive incentives
c. appraisals in China focus on developing the employee
d. appraisals in China focus on quantifiable, objective results
e. appraisals in China are softer than those in the US
287. _____ are citizens of the countries where they are working.
a. Expatriates
b. Third-country nationals
c. Home-country nationals
d. Locals
e. Multi-nationals
288. _____ are noncitizens of the countries in which they are working.
a. Expatriates
d. Locals
e. Multi-nationals
289. _____ are citizens of a country other than the parent or the host country.
a. Expatriates
d. Locals
e. Multi-nationals
290. _____ are citizens of the country in which the multinational company has its headquarters.
a. Expatriates
d. Locals
e. Multi-nationals
HR MCQS
291. Having local employees abroad to jobs that the firms domestic employees previously did in-
house is called _____.
a. outsourcing
b. off shoring
c. deportment
d. downsizing
e. international staffing
292. What value classification refers to a prevailing attitude that the home country attitudes,
management style, knowledge, evaluation criteria, and managers are superior to anything the
host country has to offer?
a. polycentric
b. ethnocentric
c. geocentric
d. monocentric
e. francocentric
293. What value classification refers to a conscious belief that only host country managers can ever
really understand the culture and behavior of the host country market?
a. polycentric
b. ethnocentric
c. geocentric
d. monocentric
e. francocentric
294. What value classification refers to a belief that the best manager for a specific position could be
in any of the countries in which the firm operates?
a. polycentric
b. ethnocentric
c. geocentric
d. monocentric
e. francocentric
295. Which of the following personality characteristics are associated with ending international work
assignments early?
a. extraversion
b. agreeableness
c. emotionally stable
d. neuroticism
e. all of the above
296. _____ is the early return of an expatriate manager to the home country because of an inability to
perform in the overseas assignment.
a. culture shock
b. expatriate return
c. expatriate failure
d. managerial incompetence
e. repatriation
HR MCQS
297. The basis of the _____ approach to formulating expatriate pay is to estimate the employees
expenses in the home country and what that standard of living will cost in the host country.
a. income sheet
b. balance sheet
c. equitable wage rate
d. performance
298. _____ are financial payments over and above regular base pay designed to encourage expatriates
to accept and stay on international assignment.
a. Foreign service premiums
b. Hardship allowances
c. Balance sheet payments
d. Cultural adjustments
e. Mobility premium
299. What is the term for a supplement used to induce individuals to accept an international
assignment?
a. hardship premium
b. foreign-service premium
c. cost-of-living allowance
d. cultural adjustment premium
e. mobility premium
300. A formal repatriation program should seek to _____.

a. reassure the employee and his or her family of the companys concern for their welfare
b. match the employee and his or her family with a specialist in repatriation issues
c. make the employee comfortable with his or her career development in the company
following the international assignment
d. all of the above
MOST REPEATED & GENERAL HR MCQS
1. According to the Hawthorne studies, the productivity of employees is

A. Increased by increasing light
B. Decreased by decreasing light
C. Increased by observing them
D. No change in their productivity
2. One of the most popular methods of increasing employee responsibility and control is_______.
a. Outsourcing
b. "Military model" of management
c. HRIS
HR MCQS
d. Work teams
3. David conducts new employee orientation for a large organization. His work is within which basic HRM
function?
a. Management
b. Motivation
c. Career planning
d. Training and development
4. Employee relations specialists are involved in which of these activities?
a) Handling employee complaints

b) Working with position control specialists in compensation
c) Negotiating benefits packages
d) Coordinating interview schedules
5. __________ is the process of assessing progress toward strategic goals and taking corrective action as
needed.
a) Strategic management
b) Strategic planning
c) Strategic control
d) Diversification
6. Which of the following is considered a qualitative approach to job analysis?

a) Position analysis questionnaire
b) Interviews
c) Department of Labor approach
d) Functional job analysis
7. Which of these decreases in the labor supply is the easiest to predict?
a) Transfers-in
b) Retirements
c) Voluntary quits
d) Prolonged illnesses
8. Which of the following personality characteristics are associated with people who are likely to exhibit
violent behavior on the job?
a) Neurotic
b) Optimistic
c) Extraverted
d) Type A
9. Which of these suggestions is an effective way to deal with stress?

a) Meditation
b) Exercise
c) Talking with others
d) All of the given options
10. In most large facilities, who is responsible for reducing unsafe working conditions and reducing unsafe
acts by employees?
a) Chief executive officer

b) Chief safety officer
HR MCQS
c) Occupational safety and health officer
d) Chief operations officer
11. Who distinguished between intrinsic motivation and extrinsic motivation?
a) Frederick Taylor
b) Frederick Herzberg
c) David McClelland
d) Edward Deci
12. Which of the following is categorized as an indirect payment portion of employee compensation?
a) Wages
b) Salaries
c) Employer-paid insurance
d) Commissions
13. Stress can affect not only your health, but also other aspects of your life. What else can be affected by
stress?
a) Family relationships
b) Work performance
c) Your attention to safety
14. Unsafe acts can be reduced through all of the following methods except:
a) Job rotation
b) Screening
c) Training
d) Incentive programs
15. Which of these is the most common type of retirement plan?
a. Defined benefit
b. ERISA
c. Defined contribution
d. Money purchase plan
16. Which pattern of communication is the quickest way to send a message?
a. The circle
b. The chain
c. The Y
d. The wheel
17. Chronic stress is the stress that wears at people day after day. Which of these is an example of chronic
stress?
a. An unhappy marriage
b. Ongoing money problems
c. Dissatisfaction with a job
d. All of the given options
18. The relative position of an organization's pay incentives compared to other companies in the same
industry is known as:
HR MCQS
a. Pay structure
b. Pay appraisal
c. Pay level
d. Pay feedback
19. Poor quality lateral communication will result in which of the following?
a) Lack of direction
b) Lack of coordination
c) Lack of delegation
d) Lack of control
20. Which of the following is a health hazard in the work place?
a. Uncollected waste paper

b. Heavy object
c. Frayed crypt
21. The cognitive component consists of a persons:
a) Emotions
b) Knowledge
c) Attitude
d) Feelings
22. Reactive approach to overcome the influence of discriminatory practices occurred in the past is referred
as:
a) Equal employment opportunity

b) Affirmative action
c) HR planning
d) Litigation process
23. Which of the following component consists of a persons beliefs, opinions, knowledge, and information?
a) Affective component
b) Cognitive component
c) Behavioral component
d) Objective component
24. A strategy intended to achieve fair employment by urging employers to hire certain groups of people who
were discriminated against in the past is known as?
a) Fair employment
b) Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO)
c) Affirmative action
d) Employment discrimination
25. Following are the reasons for conducting job analysis except:
a) Staffing workers
b) Observing workers
c) Training and Development
d) Legal Considerations
HR MCQS
26. The method that uses the organizations current level of employment as the starting point for determining
future staffing needs is?
a) Zero Based Forecasting

b) Bottom-Up Approach
c) Forecasting Human Resource Availability
d) None of the given options
27. Job analysis can be performed in all of the following ways except?
a) Interviews conducted with departing employees

b) Analyzing log books
c) Observing hourly workers
d) Giving workers checklist to indicate which taskson the list are performed during job.
28. What tactic will employers likely have to take to fill openings left by retiring employees?
a) Instituting flexible work hours

b) Providing elder care
c) Hiring more women
d) Rehiring retirees
29. ___________ can provide an opportunity for the employee to share in decision making, to learn by
watching others, and to investigate specific organizational problems?
a. Lectures & Seminars

b. Assistant to Position
c. Committee Assignments
d. Simulations:
30. ______ is a career-path method recognizing that technical specialists can and should be allowed to
continue to contribute their expertise to a company without having become managers.
a. Demotion
b. Lateral skill path
c. Dual-career path
d. None of the given options
31. Training instruction for a small group, which employs such techniques as role-playing or simulation etc.
and encounters give and take sessions and problem-solving techniques is called:?
a. Career counseling
b. Workshop
c. Development Plan
d. On the job training
32. Barriers to career advancement include:
a. Lack of time
b. Rigid job specifications
c. Short-term focus
33. Using the __________ approach, managers evaluate organizational effectiveness?

HR MCQS
a. External resource
b. Internal systems
c. Technical
d. Systems
34. A career stage in which one begins to search for work and finds a first job is:
a. Exploration period
b. Establishment period
c. Middle stage
d. None of the given options
35. ______ is the process whereby union members vote out their union as their representative?
a. Authorization card
b. Representation certification
c. Representation decertification
d. Trade union election
36. Protection from discrimination, safe working conditions and union formulation are _____ rights, provided
to employees?
a. Contractual
b. Individual
c. Statutory
d. Organizational
37. A situation in labors management negotiation whereby management prevents union members from
returning to work is called _____?
a. Grievance
b. Strike
c. Arbitration
d. Lockout
38. Following the ____, discipline should be immediate, provide ample warning, be consistent, and be
impersonal?
a. Disciplinary rules
b. Corrective action
c. Punitive action
d. Hot-stove rule
39. How has technology changed HRM practices?
a. Recruiting using the web generates smaller, more focused applicant pools.
b. Employee training is offered through scheduled classes rather than on demand.
c. Electronic resumes take less time to evaluate than paper resumes.
d. None of the given options.
40. How do companies facilitate workforce diversity?
a. Rely on external support systems for minority workers.

b. Encourage employees to challenge the beliefs and values of other employees.
c. Build in accountability through surveys and audits.
HR MCQS
d. Reinforce traditional values.
41. Which of these items would be in the highest security category of a typical HRIS?
a. Employee name
b. Former employers
c. Salary
d. Work location
42. A psychological condition in which a person is put into a deep sleep-like state, while still remaining
awake. It can be used to relieve pain & stress is called:
a) Hypnosis
b) Biofeedback
c) Transcendental mediation
d) Burnout
43. Employees quit the organizations at their own choice through:
a) Outplacement, restructuring
b) Discharging, layoff
c) Transfer, demotion
d) Resigning, retirement
44. According to which of the following it is better to convince the employees to abide by the companys
Rules, rather than promptly responding with written or oral warnings to employees?
a) Hot stove rule

b) Positive discipline
c) Progressive discipline
d) Implied discipline
45. Ahmed has provided the personal contact numbers of his subordinates to one of his friend who is working
as an insurance agent in a private insurance firm, to help him in achieving his monthly sales target. This
practice is:
a) Clear violation of labor laws

b) Implementation of discrimination law
c) Prohibited by the privacy rights
d) Violation of employment at will
46. Organizations are bound to pay its employees at least the defined minimum wage as per government
decision. This obligation resulted because:
a) It is necessary to build goodwill

b) It is the statutory right of an employee
c) It enhances the market share of a companys product
d) It provides benefits to all of its stakeholders
47. The BEST indicator of an effective safety and health program of an organization is:
a) Employees do not feel hesitant while sharing their problems

b) Employees feel motivated to perform well and show loyalty
c) Employees feel honor that organization is concerned about their problems
d) Employees do not face injuries and illnesses on regular basis
HR MCQS
48. The physical or psychological condition induced in workers by overwork or overexposure to stress in the
workplace, is known as:
a) Exhaustion
b) Burnout
c) Collapse
d) Fatigue
49. For which of the following reason, union membership in organizations losses its importance during recent
years?
a) Legislation protects workers in a better way

b) Unions give advantage to union leaders
c) Union membership is quite expensive
d) Companies do not hire union members
50. All of the following are reasons of conflicts in an organization, EXCEPT:
a) Everyone competing for scarce resources

b) Interactionist view about employees
c) Poor coordination among employees
d) Stereotypical views about employees
51. The basis for promotion will typically be competence rather than seniority when:
a) Team cohesiveness is important

b) Company is promoting competition
c) Union agreements are involved
d) Organization is Legally bound by government
52. Which of the following is the utmost preference of an organization while selecting a training and
development program?
a) Ensure the cost effectiveness of the training session

b) Expert & professional trainers should be hired
c) Training should be provided to all the employees
d) Maximum training mediums should be used
53. The re-arrangement of organizational structure & change in organizational culture is accomplished
during:
a) Task analysis
b) Organizational analysis
c) Person analysis
d) Management analysis
54. Which of the following is a test validation method that determines whether a test measures certain traits
that are important in performing a job or not?
a) Concept validity
b) Criterion validity
c) Construct validity
d) Content validity
55. Previous company records & customer satisfaction surveys may serve as a source for:
a) Cultivating learning culture within the organization
HR MCQS
b) Determining deficiencies that require training
c) Developing career development plans for employees
d) Identifying training outcomes through evaluation
56. Which of the given employment testing approach requires individuals to perform activities similar to
Those they might encounter in an actual job?
a) In-basket technique
b) Role playing
c) Interview simulations
d) Case study
57. As an HR manager, what should be your main focus while recruitment?
a) The potential candidate must possess inter personal and analytical skills
b) The potential candidate should be very confident and sharp
c) The potential candidate must be attractive enough to fit in the position
d) The potential candidate should match the requirements of the job
58. What could be the main consideration of an HR manager during recruitment?
a) Outsource the employee selection to recruiting agencies

b) Screen the pool of appropriate applicants
c) Attract a large number of applicants
d) Only hire the experienced candidates
59. The best way of reducing the problems of leniency or strictness in performance appraisals is to:
a) Rank employees
b) Train supervisors to avoid it
c) Impose a distribution for performance
d) Consider the purpose of the appraisal
60. Rating a person high or low on all items because of one characteristic during performance appraisal, is
Known as:
a) Halo effect
b) Central tendency
c) Stereotyping
d) Biasness
61. Which of the following performance appraisal method is usually adopted for evaluating performance at
managerial positions?
a) Management by objective
b) Critical incident
c) Paired comparison
d) Essay method
62. Grouping of different jobs having similar job responsibilities & duties is called:
a) Classes
b) Grades
c) Scales
d) Roles
HR MCQS
63. Which of the following step is MOST important increasing job-fit?
a) An effective selection process

b) Promotion and transfer of existing employees
c) Training of employees
d) Competitive compensation packages
64. Which of the following can be an alternative decision to employee termination?
a) Demotion
b) Retirement
c) Resignation
d) Lay-off
65. If the time between violation & the respective penalty implementation lengthens, the impact of the
Disciplinary action will:
a) Be exceeded
b) Remain the same
c) Become invisible
d) Be reduced
66. Which of the following facilitates the employer to hire, fire, demote or promote anyone, in the
Absence of any legal obligation?
a) Discrimination law
b) Employment at will
c) Affirmative action
d) Equal employment opportunity
67. Under a strong union influence, the union members demanded the salary increment as per the rate of
increase in inflation. As an HR manager what will be your initial step?
a) Rejecting the request as it is unnecessary

b) Approving the demand immediately
c) Asking union to make a contract
d) Arranging negotiation to discuss the issue
68. According to which of the following view, "conflict is bad and should be avoided"?
a) Behavioral view
b) Traditional View
c) Human Relations View
d) Interactionist View
69. Legitimate power includes which of the following?
a) Acceptance of authority by organizational members

b) Limited ability to reward employees
c) Ability to only punish employees
d) Limited control of companys physical resources
70. A power base that depends on fear comes under which of the following category of power?
a) Reward power
b) Coercive power
c) Referent power
HR MCQS
d) Legitimate power
71. Which of the following is NOT included in time-off benefits?
a) On-the-job breaks
b) Annual holidays
c) Flex time
d) Paid leaves
72. Ali was working as MTO in ABL & getting the package of Rs.20.000; few weeks ago he resigned from
ABL & joined HBL which is offering him Rs.30, 000 at the same post of MTO. In this situation HBL is
adopting the ________ pay strategy.
a) Above market rate

b) Below market rate
c) At market rate
73. To make the 'Ranking Method' of job evaluation more effective:
a) Perform performance appraisals on regular basis

b) Train employees prior to appraisals
c) Develop high compensation packages
d) Clearly define job description initially
74. Which of the following is part of a managers role in the career development of an employee?
a) Communicating the mission, policies and procedures

b) Utilizing career development opportunities
c) Participating in career development discussions
d) Establishing goals and career plans
75. The lifelong series of activities that contribute to a persons career exploration, establishment, success,
and fulfillment is called:
a) Organizational development
b) Career management
c) Career development
d) Career planning
76. How do compensation and benefits with a career development focus differ from compensation and
benefits with a traditional focus?
a) Employees productivity is rewarded

b) Employees efficiency is rewarded
c) Enhancement in abilities is rewarded
77. Which of the given objective is mainly focused during pre-retirement educational programs?
a) Improve job satisfaction among senior staff

b) Enhance employee performances through such concerns
c) Prepare employees for their upcoming retired life
d) Minimize medical claims from retirees
HR MCQS
78. During which stage of socialization, employees successfully internalize the organizational norms
&beliefs?
a) Pre-arrival stage
b) Encounter stage
c) Metamorphosis stage
d) Post-retirement stage
79. Which of the following is a process of attracting individuals on timely basis, in sufficient numbers and
with appropriate qualifications, to apply for jobs with an organization?
a) Selection
b) Recruitment
c) Staffing
d) Enrollment
80. Which of the following practice involves the selling off portions of the company and making severe staff
reductions?
a) Redesigning
b) Restructuring
c) Organizational designing
d) Reengineering
81. Which of the following is a force by which personality traits (expertise) affects others behavior?
a) Power
b) Influence
c) Authority
d) Command
82. The Most common reason that an expatriate fails at an international assignment is _____.
a) Incompetency
b) Technical demands of the job
c) Expense
d) Family pressures
83. The best hiring occurs when the goals of which of the following should consistent to each other?
a) HR managers, Finance managers

b) Head office, Branch
c) Organization, Individual
d) Lower managers, Top managers
84. Due to which of the following reason, subordinates may feel dissatisfied with their appraisal interviews?
a) They feel threatened during the interview

b) They can influence the course of the interview
c) Constructive interviewer is conducting the interview
d) Their poor performance is being highlighted
85. Which of the given solution served as the best one for reducing the problem of central tendency in
performance appraisals?
a) Rank employees
HR MCQS
b) Train supervisors to avoid it
c) Impose a distribution for performance
d) Consider the purpose of the appraisal
86. Employees' routine working is now being monitored through computers electronically; this trend has
affected the Performance Appraisal (PA) system in which of the following manner?
a) Development of PA on more frequent basis

b) Enhanced importance of PA for employees
c) PA have became more accurate & efficient one
d) Human involvement is completely removed
87. By what means, organizations show concerns for their employees and earn their commitment?
a) Solely ensuring job security of employees

b) Provide career development opportunities
c) Promise after retirement incentives only
d) Offer stock options limited to senior employees
88. The frequency of conducting the performance appraisal depends on:
a) Environmental challenges
b) Training sessions
c) Job analysis
d) Organizational policies
89. Evaluation method generally adopted by most of the educational institutes to evaluate the students
academic performance is:
a) Project based method

b) Focal point method
c) Anniversary method
d) Base timings method
90. Which of the following approach emphasizes the effect of psychological & social factors on employees
performance?
a) Scientific approach
b) Rational approach
c) Human relations approach
d) Systematic approach
91. In Hawthorne studies which decisive factor was used in the variation of the workers performance?
a) Safety measures
b) Health condition
c) Light variation
d) Salary bonuses
92. Which of the following employee benefits are legally imposed on organizations?
a) Social security
b) Stock options
c) Care centers
d) Flexible hours
HR MCQS
93. Leadership will mostly be considered failed if:
a) Leaders are appointed by top management

b) Leader established high goals to be achieved
c) Leader also plays the role of a manager in an organization
d) Followers stop sharing their issues with a leader
94. Usually it is observed that after becoming the teams captain the players own performance declines.
What could be the reason behind it?
a) Unable to handle extra pressure

b) Absence of task related knowledge
c) Lack of high energy level
d) Imposed on a team by management
95. Unilevercomes under which of the following categories while conducting its business globally?
a) Domestic
b) International
c) Multinational
d) Transnational
96. According to which of the following view, "conflict should be encouraged and managed"?
a) Traditional View
b) Human Relations View
c) Interactionist View
d) Behavioral view
97. Asif has punished his subordinate for the reason that he had refused to drop Asif's children at school.
What type of power Asif practiced over his subordinate?
a) Referent power
b) Social power
c) Personal power
d) Charismatic power
98. Which of the following depicts today's major barrier to career advancement of the working ladies?
a) Top management is usually male oriented

b) Lack of educational opportunities for women
c) Common perception that woman can never be a better boss
d) Difficulty in balancing the work and family life
99. Which of the following is a part of organizations role in the career development of an employee?
a) Communicating the mission, policies and procedures

b) Providing timely performance feedback
c) Participating in career development discussions
d) Seeking out career information
100. Which of the following is the greatest contributor towards the success of an organization?
a) Prevailed grapevine network of employees

HR MCQS
b) Conduct frequent trainings to employees
c) Set goals to define the direction to pursue
d) Implementation of the newest technology
101. Which of the following term is used as the indicator of missing information by the applicant
while making selection decision?
a) Red flag
b) Red alert
c) High alert
d) Alarming situation
102. Which of the following method is used to inform employees about the company's job openings?
a) Job publishing
b) Job declaration
c) Job posting
d) Job listing
103. Which of the following aspect should be considered during task analysis, before conducting the
training in an organization?
a) Individuals who require training

b) Shortcomings in existing technology
c) Ineffective feedback system of organization
d) Areas where training is required
104. If a performance appraisal focuses on an employees quality and quantity of wok, then the
performance appraisal is focused on measuring
a) Generic dimensions of performance

b) Performance of actual duties
c) Employee competency
d) Achievement of objectives
105. As a result of which of the following activity, HRIS is gaining popularity day by day?
a) Generating organizational reports

b) Managing resources effectively
c) Retrieving timely information
d) Handling bundles of data
106. Organizational guarantee about the job security is a functional form of:
a) Statutory law
b) Contractual law
c) Public policy
d) Management rights
107. Occupational health & safety refers to which of the following dimensions of a workforce that
result from the work environment provided by the organization?
a) Physical & physiological

b) Physiological & Mycological
c) Chronological & psychological
d) Physiological & psychological
HR MCQS
108. While conducting job analysis the 'Observation Method' is useful when:
a) Job requires more intellectual skills to complete

b) Job is repetitive in nature
c) Job is market oriented and requires more data
d) Job consists of physical activity like machine operations
109. Employees quit the organizations at their own choice through
a) Outplacement, restructuring
b) Discharging, layoff
c) Transfer, demotion
d) Resigning, retirement
110. By retrieving required information timely, organizations are in the position to:
a) Take critical decisions

b) Support organizational activities
c) Facilitate organizational people
d) Implement strategies more efficiently
111. Mr. Ahmed was working as a computer operator, but he was unable to work in Ms Excel with the
required speed. Due to this reason management has forcefully retired him & appointed a new person to
replace him, the company is said to be indulged in:
a) Rightsizing
b) Affirmative action
c) Downsizing
d) Discrimination
112. Placing a dollar value on the worth of a job is known as:
a) Job Pricing
b) Pay Grades
c) Pay Ranges
d) Single-Rate System
113. A horizontal extension of the object to increase task variety is called:
a) Job evaluation
b) Job enrichment
c) Job enlargement
d) Job rotation
114. Employee evaluations are directly affected by a supervisors perceptions of who is believed to
be in control of the employees performance the employer or the manager.This theory is known as
a) Attribution Theory
b) Stereotype
c) Halo Effect
d) None of above options
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115. Which of the following statement best reflects the Job analysis?
a) Conceptual process
b) Written statement
c) Recruitment method
d) Legal clause
116. Employee commitment had suffered a lot in recent years due to which of the following reasons?
a) Structural downsizing
b) Skill inadequacy
c) Rational appraisals
d) Organizational expansion
117. People within a group who initiate the work, give new ideas and also collect information about
the task, are actually performing::
a) Information collector roles

b) Task oriented roles
c) Relationship oriented roles
d) Individual roles
118. Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to monetary rewards in accordance
with Herzbergs Two-Factor theory?
i. Pay increases are a powerful long-term motivator

ii. Inadequate monetary rewards are a powerful dissatisfier
iii. Monetary rewards are more important than non-monetary rewards
iv. Pay can never be used as a motivator
119. Managers can motivate people to avoid performing dysfunctional behaviors by using:
I. Extinction II. Punishment III. Negative reinforcement
i. I, II, III
ii. I and III
iii. II and III
iv. I and II
120. Expectancy theory focuses on the relationships between which three factors?
i. Needs, effort and persistence

ii. Needs, performance and inputs
iii. Inputs, performance and outcomes
iv. Needs, performance and outcomes
121. Communication between two members of a project team from different function, but the same
level of authority is________ communication.
i. UP ward
ii. Downward
iii. Lateral
iv. Diagonal
122. Willingness, capacity & opportunity to perform are said to be;
a) Performance outcomes
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b) Determinants of performance
c) Performance appraisals
d) Types of performance standards
123. Job evaluation is based on the;
a) Physical skills required by the job

b) Relative job worth for an organization
c) Complexity of the job to perform
d) Conceptual skill required by the job
124. Currently Organizations are providing benefits to their employees;
a) To attract new blood in the organization

b) To create stronger customer relationship
c) To enhance the market share
d) All of the above
125. Following are all examples of direct compensation EXCEPT;

a) Pension
b) Salary
c) Bonus
d) Income
126. One of the main flaws of Classification method to evaluate the jobs is;
a) It is an expensive method
b) Only beneficial for small organizations
c) Maximum probability of biasness
d) Not useful when jobs are different
127. Appraisal of a workers performance can be described as:

a. Planning Activity
b. Organizing Activity
c. Controlling Activity
d. Leading Activity
128. The concept of how a person behaves in a group can be attributed to:
a) Thermodynamics
b) Group Dynamics
c) MBO (Management by objectives)
d) Group Behavior
129. Under which of the following no screening of applicant pool is conducted before making final
selection?
a) . Walk-in applicants
b) . Employee referrals
c) . Employment agency
d) . School placement
130. Employee commitment has suffered in recent years because of:

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a) . Downsizing
b) . Training issues
c) . Appraisals
d) . Performance standards
131. Which of the following is MOST important to manage workforce diversity?
a) Lower cohesiveness
b) Support group
c) Top-level commitment
d) Resistance to change
132. Organizational efficiency is expressed as:
a) Planning for long-run goals

b) Making the best use of scarce resources
c) Goal attainment
d) Meeting deadlines
133. People with which type of personality trait commonly make poor decisions because they make
them too fast?
a) Type As
b) Type Bs
c) Self-monitors
d) Extroverts
134. Factors other than satisfaction that impact ones decision to leave a current job include all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) Labor market conditions

b) Length of tenure with the organization
c) Expectations about alternative job opportunities
d) Organizational citizenship behavior
135. ______________ refers to manager's mental ability to analyze and diagnose complex situations
a) Human Skill
b) Managerial Skill
c) Conceptual Skill
d) Technical Skill
136. Blind box Ads are used for
a) Good reputation
b) Low profile jobs
c) Promotion
d) Publicity
137. Which of the following statement is true regarding employee involvement concept in todays
organizations?
a) Managers should set targets and spelled out to each employees

b) Employees feel more secure when they know the boss is in charge
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c) Employee involvement enhances productivity but decreases innovative ideas
d) Participative management gives employees more control over day to day job
e) Activities
138. Which of the following is considered as a negative attribute of globalization for employees in the
developed country?
a) Reduction in job security

b) Promotion of free trade
c) Increase in competition
d) Increase in information flow
139. All of the following are disadvantages of hiring host country nationals. EXCEPT
a) There might be delay in control and coordination of headquarters

b) It limits opportunities for parent country nationals to gain overseas experience
c) Not required to fulfill requirements such as visa and work permit
d) None of the given option
140. As an HR manager you are going to conduct job analysis, which one of the following factor you
should consider for its effectiveness?
a) Ensure top management support

b) Use a single source of information
c) Conduct analysis for multiple jobs at once
d) Review existing job documents
141. Which of the following test can best evaluate the routine production activities of job that require
coordination & physical strength?
a) Cognitive aptitude test

b) Job knowledge test
c) Vocational interest test
d) Psychomotor abilities test
142. Which of the following test indicates the persons inclination towards a particular occupation that
provides satisfaction to that individual?
a) Vocational interest test

b) Cognitive aptitude test
c) Personality test
d) Psychomotor abilities test
143. Individual's behavior comprises of:
a) Heritage
b) Perception
c) Emotions
144. Organizational basic components are:
a) Machinery, people, office building

b) People, purpose, structure
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c) People, structure, finances
d) People, strategies, resources
145. Which of the following recruitment method provides a platform to multiple employers to attract
large number of applicants?
a) Job offer
b) Job fair
146. The number of people hired for a particular job compared to the number of individuals in the
applicant pool is often expressed as:
a) Application ratio
b) Recruitment ratio
c) Selection ratio
d) Employment ratio
147. Which is said to be the simplest method for job evaluation?
a) Ranking method
b) Classification method
c) Factor comparison method
d) Point factor method
148. Which of the following is a forecasting method in which requirement is estimated at department
level and the information is gradually transmitted to upper level to make future hiring of employees?
a) Top-down approach
b) Bottom-up approach
c) Zero-based approach
d) Employee-based approach
149. Which of the following test is used by McClelland to prove his theory?
a) Thematic Apperception Test

b) Vibrant Test
c) Simulation Test
d) Personality Test
150. Which of the following involves channeling the behavior of all personnel to accomplish the
organizations mission and objectives while simultaneously helping them accomplish their own
career objectives?
a) Planning
b) Organizing
c) Leading
d) Controlling
151. According to which of the following an individual can be asked for the written explanation for the
first offense of severe nature?
a) Hot stove rule

b) Positive discipline
c) Progressive discipline
d) Implied discipline
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152. The recruitment process is influenced by Labor market conditions. When the economy is
growing rapidly and unemployment levels are very low then;
a) Recruiting is extremely difficult

b) Recruiting is quite easy
c) Recruiting process becomes fast
d) Recruiting has no effect
153. Which of the following selection technique would require the applicant for the position of
cashier at South Leasing Corporation to make computation on calculator?
a) Work sampling
b) In basket simulation
c) Business game
d) Aptitude test
154. ______ is the process whereby union members vote out their union if they are dissatisfied or want
another union representation.
a) Authorization card
b) Representation certification
c) Representation decertification
d) Trade union election
155. Authority is classified among _____ levels of categories
a) Two
b) Four
c) Six
d) Three a. Line Authority b. Staff Authority c. Functional Authority page # 50
156._______ is a card signed by prospective union members indicating that they are interested in having a
union election held at their work site.
a. authorization card
b. Representation certification
c. Representation decertification
d. Trade union election
157. The recruitment process is influenced by Labor market conditions. When the economy is growing
rapidly and unemployment levels are very low then;
a) Recruiting is extremely difficult

b) Recruiting is quite easy
c) Recruiting process becomes fast
d) Recruiting has no effect
158. A person is known by the company he/she keeps; is well described by which of the following term?
a) Prejudice
b) Stereotype
c) Introversion
d) Extroversion
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159. Which of the following selection technique would require the applicant for the position of cashier at
South Leasing Corporation to make computation on calculator?
a) Work sampling
b) In basket simulation
c) Business game
d) Aptitude test
160. Which of the following is said to be the main focus of Organization Behavior?
a) How to become more effective in society

b) How to best utilize human resource
c) How to become environmental friendly
d) How to become a market leader
161.______ refers to the collection of information including what, when, how, and from whom
that will be used to determine the effectiveness of the training program.
a) Training effectiveness
b) Training outcomes
c) Evaluation design
d) Training evaluation
162. This typically involves videoconferencing and/or computers for the delivery of instructions from
a trainer to trainees who are different locations.
a) Web-based training
b) Distance learning
c) E-learning support
d) Blended learning simulations
163. Line managers respect the knowledge human resource managers have in areas such as testing
and affirmative action. Consequently, human resource managers can influence line managers
through _____.
a) line authority
b) functional control
c) implied authority
d) explicit authority
164. Which of the following represents a situation in which employment decisions are NOT affected by
illegal discrimination?
a) Fair Employment
b) Legal Compliance
c) Litigation process
d) Affirmative action
165. Which of the following is the main focus of Organizational behavior?
a) Society
b) Stockholders
c) People at work
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d) Union
166. Which of the following tasks related to recruiting and hiring is not typically handled by HR
staff?
a) specify necessary job qualifications

b) develop pool of qualified applicants
c) conduct initial screening interviews
d) administer tests
167. The expertise of human resource departments became indispensable with the _____.
a) introduction of employment laws

b) passing of equal employment laws
c) increase of women in the workforce
d) both a and b
168. A typical initial employee reaction to work process engineering is_______
a) Anger
b) Clarity
c) Commitment
d) Sabotage
e) Enthusiasm
169. The Contingent workforce consists of all of the following types of employees except______
a) Temporary employees
b) Contract employees
c) Just-in-time workers
d) Core employees
e) consultants
170. How do labor unions influence wages in nonunion shops?
a) They donot influence

b) Work Team
c) Spillover effect
d) Globalization
e) Labor Union negotiations
171. The HRM maintenance function includes which of the following activities?
a) Retraining productive employees when their skills become obsolete

b) Working productive employees when their skills become obsolete
c) Screening potential employees before they are interviewed
d) Keeping employees well informed.
172. What is the most important contribution of the Hawthorne studies?
a) the discovery of the informal relationship and social groups among employees
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b) the significance of lighting and ventilation for performance
c) the difference in the performance of male and female employees
d) the relationship between the behavior and performance
173. Which of the following was the earliest name for the people management specialist?
a) HR manager
b) Industrial welfare officer
c) Employment law specialist
d) Personnel manager
174. Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of the HRM approach to the management of
people?
a) The importance of adopting a strategic approach is emphasized.

b) A pluralist approach is used
c) A unitarist approach is used.
d) Line managers play an important role.
175. According to Herzberg's Two Factor Theory, what is the role of hygiene factors?
a) their presence leads to feelings of neutrality

b) their absence leads to feelings of satisfaction
c) their presence leads to feelings of satisfaction
d) their absence leads to feelings of neutrality
176. The belief that management's high levels of trust, confidence and commitment to workers leads to high
levels of motivation and productivity on the part of workers is a part of which motivation theory?
a) Theory Y
b) Theory Z
c) Theory X
d) Contingency Theory
177. According to Edwin Flippo, the first and immediate product of job analysis is____
a) the job description

b) the job design
c) the job production
d) the job specification
178. One of the important organizational factors affecting 'Job Design' is __
a) Workflow
b) Autonomy
c) Feedback
d) Diversity
179. E-recruiting methods include
a) internet job boards

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b) career websites
c) employer websites
d) all of the above
180. The Job Characteristics Model is one of the most influential attempts to_____
a) design jobs with increased motivational properties

b) assign jobs with proper motivational properties
c) analyse jobs with increase and proper motivation
d) describe jobs with increase motivation for proper jobs
181. High job satisfaction is the outcome of which of the following core dimensions described by the
Job Characteristics Model?
a) Task identity
b) Task significance
c) Feedback
d) Autonomy
182. Systematic and orderly process of determining the worth of a job in relation to other jobs is __
a) worth job specification

b) job description
c) job evaluation
d) job identification
183. Job identification is one of the components of __
a) job specification
b) job design
c) job description
d) job evaluation
184. Which of the following would likely be the least effective method of recruiting internal?
Job candidates?
a. Posting information on Organizational bulletin boards

b) Examining HR records of current employees
c) Advertising in national newspapers and journals
d) Internal Sources
185. Firing the non-performing employees, HR manager is said to perform the
a) Interpersonal role
b) Informational role
c) Supportive role
d) Decisional role
186. Executive recruiters are also called_______
a) head hunters
b) staffers
c) alternative staffing companies
d) contract technical recruiters
HR MCQS
187. HRM typically provides which of these types of training to temporary employees?
a) Retirement planning'
b) Benefits options
c) Orientation
d) Career planning and management
188. Internal recruitment has the potentiality to increase the employees.
a) Conflicts
b) Misunderstanding
c) Income
d) Morale
189. Advertisements through newspapers, TV, radio, professional journals and magazines
Are' methods of recruitment
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Third-party
d) E-recruitment
190. The. Most popular method of recruiting applicants to jobs is_____
a) Radio and TV advertisement

b) Corporate website
c) Employee referral schemes
d) Commercial job boards
191. Campus Recruiting does not have the advantage of_________
a) High Intellectual Capacity

b) Higher understanding of organization
c) High level of curiosity
d) High potential
192. Which of the following is not an advantage of using a private employment agency?
a. It may be faster than in-house recruiting

b. It does not require internal recruitment specialists
c. Screening may not be as thorough
d. It may be better for attracting minority candidates
193. Job Enrichment involves_____
a. Increases the amount of money employees are paid for completing an unit of work
b. Is a programme through which management seeks greater productivity from workers
c. Means that staff i$ moved periodically from task to task in order to increase variety and interest
d. Involves giving employees work with a greater degree of responsibility and autonomy
194. Which of the following is not an element of traditional job design?
a. Formal Organization charts

b. Clear and precise job descriptions
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c. Well-defined mobility (promotion and transfer) paths
d. Employee number chart
195. The process of grouping of similar types of works together is known as________
a. Job classification
b. Job design
c. Job evaluation
d. Job description
196. The system of ranking jobs in a firm on the basis of the relevant characteristics,
Duties, and responsibilities is known as
a. Job evaluation
b. Job design
c. Job specification
d. Job description
197. The psychological contract refers to the obligations that an employer and an employee perceive
to exist between each other as part of the employment relationship. As such it will include:
a. The loyalty and trust of employees

b. Pay and working conditions
c. Managers pay only 'lip service' to consultation
d. Managers reneges on commitments to employees
198. Too great reliance on internal recruitment can result in:
a. Reduced job performance

b. High labor turnover
c. Internal conflict
d. Poor group dynamics
1. What is Buck passing?

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HR MCQS

Chapter 1: The Strategic Role of Human Resource Management

3. Most people who are classified as nontraditional workers are _____.

4. Which of the following is a type of nontraditional worker?

5. The proportion of women in the workforce is projected to _____.

7. The performance of human resource departments is evaluated based on _____.

14. Which metric views employees as capital rather than as an expense?

17. Metrics can be compared against _____ to evaluate an organizations performance.

18. The Revenue Factor is equal to _____.

19. The HR expense factor is equal to _____.

20. The cost per hire is equal to _____.

Chapter 2: Equal Opportunity and the Law

Chapter 3: Strategic Human Resource Management

30. The third step in the strategic management process is _____.

Chapter 4: Job Analysis

38. There are _____ steps in doing a job analysis.

39. The first step in conducting a job analysis is _____.

40. The second step in conducting a job analysis is _____.

41. The third step in conducting a job analysis is _____.

42. The fourth step in conducting a job analysis is _____.

43. The fifth step in conducting a job analysis is _____.

44. The final step in conducting a job analysis is _____.

47. A _____ is the time it takes to complete a job.

49. Which of the following is considered a qualitative approach to job analysis?

53. FLSA status is located in the _____ section of a job description.

Chapter 5: Personnel Planning and Recruiting

65. When planning for employment requirements, what must be forecasted?

67. Trend analysis is limited in its usefulness, because _____.

69. A _____ shows graphically how two variables are related.

71. Qualifications inventories can be tracked and maintained by using _____.

73. Recruiting is necessary to _____.

75. Why are large applicant pools considered desirable?

80. Job posting refers to all of the following except

81. The first step in succession planning is to _____.

82. The second step in succession planning is to _____.

83. The third step in succession planning is to _____.

88. Contingent workers are used in _____ occupations.

92. Which of the following is an advantage of college recruiting?

93. College recruiters typically seek to _____.

99. All of the following are characteristics of older employees except

Chapter 6: Employee Testing and Selection

101. Which of the following is an example of a reliable test?

103. The first step in the validation process is to _____.

104. The second step in the validation process is to _____.

105. The final step in the validation process is to _____.

108. Which method of test validation is considered more dependable?

112. Traditionally female professions are referred to as _____ jobs.

120. Which personality characteristic captures a combination of achievement and dependability?

121. A _____ is a two or three-day simulation in which 10 to 12 candidates perform realistic

Chapter 7: Interviewing Candidates

130. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using structured interviews?

132. How do situational interviews differ from behavioral interviews?

133. A job-related interview is, by definition, as type of _____ interview.

Chapter 8: Training and Developing Employees

147. The first step in a training program is to _____.

148. What is the second step in the training process?

149. The third step in the training process is to _____.

150. The fourth step in the training process is to _____.

151. What is the final step in the training process?

158. Functional illiteracy is defined as _____.

162. Which on-the-job training method is used for managerial positions?

Chapter 9: Performance Management and Appraisal

Chapter 10: Managing Your Career