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SECTION A: COMMUNICATION ABILITY hand, and building of adaptive capacities to cope
with the adverse impacts of climate change on the
PASSAGE I other. From a developing country perspective,
The National Rural Health Mission, launched in adaption is of utmost importance as they are the
2005, aims to improve accessibility to quality health ones who are most vulnerable to the adverse
care for the rural population, bridge gaps in health impacts of climate change.
care, facilitate decentralized planning in the health The incremental impact of a ton to GHG on climate
sector and bring about inter-sectoral convergence. change is independent of where in the World it is
The NRHM provided an overarching umbrella to the emitted. These emissions impose a cost on both the
existing health and family welfare programmes present and future generations, which are not fully
including Reproductive and Child Health (RCH-II) recouped from the emitters of these emissions. This
and various programmes for control of diseases, formed the starting point for a globally coordinated
including tuberculosis, leprosy, vector-borne policy action, and the need for an international
diseases and blindness. The effort is to integrate all climate change negotiating regime. UNFCCC, set up
vertical programmes. All the programmes have now in 1992, although global in scope, differentiates the
been brought under the District Health Society at commitments/responsibilities of parties on the basis
district level and State Health Society at State Level. of historic responsibilities, economic structures, and
Some of the weaknesses identified in the health on the basis of the principle of equity and CBDR
delivery system in the public sector are poor unkeep which is at the core of the climate change debate.
and maintenance and high absenteeism of The largest share of historical and current
manpower in rural areas. The NRHM seeks to global emissions of GHGs has originated in the
strengthen the public health delivery system at all developed countries. Scientists attribute the global
levels. problem of climate change not to the current GHG
1. Which of the following in not the aim of NRHM? emissions but to stock of historical emissions. Most
a) to improve accessibility to quality health of the countries, particularly the industrialized
care countries, having large current emissions are also
b) to bridge gaps in health care the largest historic emitters and the principal
c) decentralize planning in the health sector contributors to climate change. The convention
d) to promote employment in health care therefore lays down legally binding commitments
industry for the developed countries, taking into account
their historical responsibilities and also squarely
2. Which of the following is a weakness in the puts the responsibilities on developed countries for
Health Delivery system in public sector? providing financial resources, including for the
(1) High absenteeism of manpower transfer of technology, needed by the developing
(2) Poor maintenance countries.
a) Only 1 b) Only 2
c) Neither 1 nor 2 d) Both 1 & 2 6. The incremental impact of a ton to GHG on
climate change is
3. Choose the synonym of the word integrate. a) dependent on where it is emitted
a) consolidate b) scatter b) independent of where it is emitted
c) boast d) None of these c) not reliable as no significant data is
available
4. All the programmes have been brought under d) is decreasing in 2016
State Health society at
a) Rural level b) District level 7. Scientists attribute the global problem of
c) State Level d) National level climate change to
a) current emissions by developing countries
5. NRHM was launched in b) historical emissions by developing
a) 2000 b) 2005 c) 2008 d) 2010 countries
c) current emissions by developed countries
PASSAGE 2 d) historical emissions by developed countries
Since the industrial revolution, manmade activities
have added significant quantities of greenhouse 8. Manmade activities and carbon emission
gases into the atmosphere. Climate change is a increased after
global negative externality primarily caused by the a) World War I
building up of GHG emissions in the atmosphere. b) Industrial Revolution
The efforts needed to address the climate change c) World War II
include mitigation of GHG emissions on the other d) Some countries got developed

PASSAGE 4
9. The convention puts the responsibility on The strength of the electronics industry in Japan is
developed countries for the Japanese ability to organize production and
1) transfer of technology marketing rather than their achievement in original
2) financial resources research. The British are generally recognized as a
a) Only 1 b) Only 2 far more inventive collection of individuals but
c) Both 1&2 d) Neither of the two never seem able to exploit what they invent. There
are many examples from TSR2, the Hovercraft the
10. Choose the word opposite to mitigation. high speed train and Sinclair scooter to the Triumph
a) reduction b) moderation BSA and Norton motorbikes which all prove this sad
c) relief d) alleviate rule. The Japanese were able to exploit their
strengths in marketing and development many years
PASSAGE 3 ago, and their success was the first either not
The Rajputs occupy and honoured place in the understood in the west or was dismissed as
history of India. They were a war-like people, proud something which could only have been achieved by
and patriotic. They were jealous of their honour, and unscrupulous tactics. For many years, Japanese
would lay down their lives to uphold it. They loved goods had a reputation for shoddiness not always
their homes and fought bravely to defend the undeserved and it was felt they could only have been
honour of their women-folk. Nothing would tame produced at their low price, so far from where they
their spirits. Perils only called forth their courage were sold because they were cheap copies of other
and poverty only increased their power of peoples ideas churned out by a workhouse which
resistance. None could fight like them. Their motto was dedicated to hard grind above all else.
was Better death than dishonour. 16. The said rule mentioned in this passage refers
to:
11. Which of the following represents the theme of a) the inability of the Japanese to be inventive
the passage? like the British
a) The pride of the Rajputs b) the inability of the British to be industrious
b) Rajputs and their sacrifices like the Japanese
c) The rise and fall of the Rajputs c) the lack of variety in Japanese inventions
d) Rajputs the spirited heroes of Indian d) the poorer marketing ability of the British
History
17. According to the passage, prosperity in industry
12. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to depends upon:
the word pride? a) productivity
a) Humble b) Kind c) Courteous d) Cowardly b) inventiveness
c) marketing ability
13. The expression tame their spirits means d) official patronage
a) suppress their ambitions
b) arouse their enthusiasm 18. The strength of a countrys industry depends
c) develop their courage upon:
d) curb their enthusiasm a) original research
b) international cooperation
14. Which of the following is not true? c) adjudicate work force
a) The Rajputs achieved eminence in history d) electronic development
due to their great bravery.
b) They were homely people and would fight 19. The TSR2, the Hovercraft the high speed train,
for upholding womens honour. the Sinclair scooter etc. are the symbols of:
c) In moments of danger, they would exhibit a) Japanese success
great courage. b) British Failure
d) They would not, however, face the challenge c) British Success
of poverty. d) Japanese Failure

15. According to the writer, the Rajputs occupy an 20. The main theme of the passage is:
honoured place in history, because: a) electronic industry in Japan
a) they were fond of wars b) industrial comparison between Japan &
b) they were proud of their wars Britain
c) they were jealous of peoples honour c) the role of marketing efficiency in industrial
d) they lived and died upholding their self- prosperity
respect. d) importance of original research

PASSAGE 5 him through endless hours. It is said that on one


Religion is the greatest instrument for so raising us. occasion he even locked himself and his men in, until
It is amazing that a person not intellectually bright, a difficult piece of work was done sixty hours on
perhaps not even educated, is capable of grasping end. Generally the men were employed on piece-
and living by something so advanced as the work and the longer and the more skillfully they
principles of Christianity. Yet, there is a common worked the more they earned.
phenomenon. It is not, however, in my province to
talk about religion. But rather to stress the power 26. According to the passage, Edisons workshop
which great literature and the great personalities a) was marked by din and squalor
whom we meet in it and in history have, to open and b) remained often closed owing to lack of
enlarge our minds, and to show us what is first rate orders
in human personality and human character by c) was affected by labour unrest
showing us goodness and greatness. d) was a scene of intense activity

21. In the passage, the authors ultimate intention is 27. Following Edison would mean
to talk about: a) working with fits and starts
a) religion b) history b) working wihout thoughts of safety
c) education d) character c) working without interruption
d) working willfully
22. The phrase, so raising us means: 28. The men earned more when they worked
a) giving us a sense of spiritual superiority. longer, since
b) Making us feel that we are more important a) they were regular employees
than we really are. b) they were paid on the basis of their output
c) Improving our mental abilities c) they were highly skilled
d) Making us realize that we all are children of d) they were not bound by any rules
God.
29. Edison never asked his workers
23. What surprises the author is that: a) to carry out things he would rather do
a) even uneducated people are attracted himself
towards Christianity b) to do things he would not do himself
b) Christianity is practised by a large number c) to give up a piece of work when it was easy
of people d) to work at a stretch if necessary
c) Despite being difficult and complex,
principles of Christianity are practiced by so 30. Edison once locked himself and others in,
many people because
d) Even very intelligent people cannot a) he thought it unsafe to go outside
understand the principles of Christianity b) he had lost the key to workshop entrance
c) he wished to explain some difficult
24. The author hesitates to talk about religion operations to the workers
because: d) he wanted a certain job completed
a) he does not feel himself competent to talk
about it DIRECTIONS (31-35): Choose the word opposite in
b) nobody around him likes to talk about it meaning.
c) he does not believe in any religion. 31. FORBID
d) He does not fully understand its importance a) forgive b) allow
c) refuse d) deprive
25. According to the author, we come across
examples of greatness and nobility in: 32. FUSION
a) great works of literature a) melting b) fixture
b) literary and historical works c) amendment d) separation
c) historical records
d) books on Christianity 33. AMBIGUOUS
a) definite b) constant
PASSAGE 6 c) shapeless d) determined
This workshop of Edisons was an astonishingly
busy centre of industry as far as activity and hours of 34. ESCALATE
labour were concerned. Edison never asked his men a) bring down b) isolate
to do anything that he would not do himself; his one c) slope down d) reject
order was follow me and that meant working with

35. COUNTERFEIT
a) destructive b) genuine 49. A fortress on a commanding height for defense
c) affirm d) harmonize of a city is called
a) citadel b) metropolis
DIRECTIONS (36-40): Choose the word similar in c( megapolis d) headquarters
meaning.
50. Nostalgia is
36. DEPLORE a) anxiety about future
a) lose heart b) entreat b) feeling of insecurity
c) regret d) malign c) longing for a period in the past
d) an allergy to certain foods
37. RESIDUE
a) remainder b) nothing DIRECTIONS (51-55):Below each sentence has three
c) recede d) little possible substitutions for the underlined part. Mark
the most appropriate answer.
38. DEFIANCE 51. We need honest workers, not people of
a) insult b) denial redoubtable integrity.
c) degradation d) resistance a) doubting b) doubtful
c) doubtless d) No Improvement
39. PERPETUAL 52. I expect every player here to be conversant at
a) perfect b) confused the rules of game.
c) never-ending d) seasonal a) on b) about
c) with d) No Improvement
40. EMANCIPATE
a) liberate b) release 53. There is no alternate, so we must leave now.
c) acquit d) unchain a) altering b) alternative
c) alternation d) No Improvement
DIRECTIONS (41-45): Choose the part that has an
error. In case, there is no error then mark your 54. If I were you, I would do it at once.
answer as (d). a) was b) am
41. The reason for (a)/ his failure is because (b)/ he c) would be d) No Improvement
did not work hard (c)/ No error (d)
42. India is larger than (a)/ any democracies (b)/ in 55. They set a strong guard, lest any one could
the world (c)/ No error (d) escape.
43. I have lived (a)/ in Delhi (b)/ from 1965 (c)/ No a) would b) might
error (d) c) should d) No Improvement
44. Such books (a)/ which you read (b)/ are not
worth reading (c)/ No error (d) DIRECTIONS (56-60): Choose the correct order of
45. The Judge heard the arguments (a)/ of the the sentences to make meaningful sentences.
lawyers and found (b)/ that the boy was 56. When the car passed by
innocent (c)/ No error (d) P: he threw a stone,
Q: raising dust in the road
DIRECTIONS (46-50): Choose the response which R: with all his might
most nearly expresses the meaning of the S: and hit the man who was driving it
underlined part of the given sentences. a) PQRS b) QPRS
46. Moralists are usually persons who abstain from c) RPQS d) RPSQ
alcoholic drinks.
a) teetotalers b) ascetics 57. A moment comes
c) pedants d) celibates P: when we step out from the old to the new
Q: which comes but rarely in history
47. The chairman is quick to find fault and is hard to R: and when the soul of a nation
please. S: long suppressed, finds utterance
a) frivolous b) facetious a) QPRS b) PRSQ
c) fastidious d) ferocious c) QRSP d) RSQP

48. Scriptural injunctions should not be opposed or 58. She had a blind belief that inside the bag
treated with contempt. P: two or three other children
a) flouted b) flounced Q: there were perhaps
c) floundered d) flaunted R:which the big man carried

S: like herself
a) QRPS b) QPSR 66. If E=5 and HOTEL = 12, then LAMB will be coded
c) RQSP d) RQPS as
A) 7 B) 10 C) 26 D) 28
59. He approached the teacher
P: at school 67. In a certain code, EAT is written as 318 and
Q: to know CHAIR is written as 24156. What will TEACHER
R: in his studies be written as?
S: how his son was getting on A) 8312346 B) 8321436
a) PQRS b) PQSR C) 8312436 D) 8313426
c) QSRP d) QSPR
(Q.73-74): Find the odd one out
60. In spite of
P: the poor and hungry people 68. 3, 5, 7, 12, 17, 19, 23
Q: made by medical sciences A) 23 B) 19
R: the extraordinary progress C) 17 D) 12
S: often die
a) RPSQ b) RQPS 69. 4, 5, 7, 10, 14, 18, 25, 32
c) PQSR d) RSPQ A) 7 B) 14
C) 18 D) 32
SECTION B: ANALYTICAL ABILITY
70. A clock is so placed that at 12 noon its minute
DIRECTIONS (Q.66-67): Read the following hand points towards North-East. In which
information to answer these questions. direction does its hour hand point at 1:30pm?
Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a A) North B) South C) East D) West
circle facing the centre. B is sitting between G and D.
H is third to the left of B and second to the right of A. 71. Sachin ranks seventh from top and twenty sixth
C is sitting between A and G and B and E are not from the bottom in a class. How many students
sitting opposite to each other. are there in the class?
A) 31 B) 32 C) 33 D) 34
61. Who is third to the left of D?
A) F B) E 72. Five children are sitting in a row. S is sitting next
C) A D) None of these to P but not T. K is sitting next to R who is sitting
62. Which of the following statements is not on the extreme left and T is not sitting next to K.
correct? Who is/are sitting adjacent to S?
A) D and A are sitting opposite to each other. A) K and P B) R and P
B) C is third to the right of D. C) Only P D) P and T
C) E is sitting between F and D.
D) A is sitting between C and F. DIRECTIONS (Q.78-80): Each of these questions has
an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R).
63. Asha walks 3km Southward and then turns right
and walks 2km. She again turns right and walks Give answer
3km and turns towards her left and starts A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
walking straight. In which direction is she explanation of A.
walking now? B) Both A and R are true but R is not the
A) East B) North C) South D) West correct explanation of A.
C) If A is true but R is false.
64. Madhuri travels 14km westwards and then D) If A is false but R is true.
turns left and travels 6km and further turns left
and travels 26km. How far is Madhuri now from 73. Assertion(A): Carbon Monoxide when inhaled
the starting point? causes death.
A) 180 km B)80km Reason(R): Carbon Monoxide combines with
c) 100km D) None of these hemoglobin
74. Assertion(A): There is no vaccine for AIDS.
65. Pointing towards a boy Veena said, He is the Reason(R): The AIDS virus changes its genetic
son of only son of my grandfather. How is that code.
boy related to Veena? 75. Assertion(A): Clothes are not washed properly
A) Uncle B) Brother C) Cousin in hard water.
D) Data Inadequate

Reason(R): Hard water contains many written as sa ho ga. How is may written in
minerals. that code?
A) Ho B) ja C) ta D) ja or ta
DIRECTIONS (Q.81-85): Each of these questions has
a statement followed by two conclusions I and II. 82. In a certain code, QUESTION is written as
Consider the statement and the conclusions that SWGUVKQP, identify the option which gives the
follow. Decide which of the conclusions follows from correct code for the word RECEPTIONIST.
the statement.Give Answer A) TGEGRKVQPKUV
A) If only Conclusion I follows B) TGEGRVQKPKUV
B) If only Conclusion II follows C) TGEGRVKQPKUV
C) If either Conclusion I and II follows D) TGEGRVKQKPUV
D) If neither Conclusion I nor II follows
83. A family comprises seven members namely M,
76. STATEMENT: MORNING WALKS ARE GOOD N, O, P, Q, R and S. Among them four are adults
FOR HEALTH. and three are children. Of the three children,
CONCLUSIONS only R and S are girls. M and P are brothers and
I: All healthy people go for morning walks. M is a pilot. Q is an airhostess married to one of
II: Evening walks are harmful. the brothers and has two children. N is married
to P and S is their child. Who is O?
77. STATEMENT: THE BEST WAY TO ESPACE A) Ms son B) Rs father C) Qs
FROM A PROBLEM IS TO SOLVE IT. daughter D) Ps son
CONCLUSIONS
I: Your life will be dull if you dont face a 84. At an enquiry office, a passenger was told that a
problem. train for Delhi left 15mins ago but after every
II: To escape from problems, you should 45mins, a train leaves for Delhi. The next train
always have some solution with you. will leave at 8:30pm. At what time was this
information given to the passenger?
78. STATEMENT:A NEUROTIC IS A NON-STUPID A) 7:45pm B) 8:00pm
PERSON WHO BEHAVES STUPIDLY. C) 8:15pm D) 8:05pm
CONCLUSIONS
I: Neuroticism and stupidity go hand in R E 5 D A P $ 3 T I Q 7 9 B # 2 K % U 1 M W 4 * J 8
hand. N
II: Normal persons behave intelligently. 85. Which of the following is exactly in the middle
between 3 and 1 in the above arrangement?
79. STATEMENT: VEGETABLE PRICES ARE a) B b) K c) 9 d) #
SOARING IN THE MARKET.
CONCLUSIONS 86. How many such numbers are there in the above
I: Vegetables are becoming a rare arrangement, each of which is immediately
commodity. preceded by a consonant and not immediately
II: People cannot eat vegetables. followed by a consonant?
a) None b) one
80. STATEMENT: INDIAS ECONOMY IS c) Two d) Three
DEPENDING MAINLY ON FORESTS.
CONCLUSIONS 87. Manik if fourteenth from the right end in a row
I: Trees should be preserved to improve Indian of 40 boys. What is his position from the left
Economy. end?
II: India only wants maintenance of forests to a) 24th b) 25th c) 26th d) 27th
improve economic conditions.
88. In a certain code, ROAD is coded as WTFI. Which
81. If white is called blue, blue is called red, red is word will be coded as GJFY?
called yellow, yellow is called green, green is a) REAP b) TAKE c) BEAT d) LATE
called black, black is called violet and violet is
called orange. What would be the color of 89. In a certain code, POPULAR is coded as
human blood? QPQVMBS. Which word would be coded as
a) Red b) Green c) Yellow d) Violet GBNPVT?
a) FARMER b) FAMOUS
b) In a certain language, you may now leave is c) FRAMES d) FARMES
written as ho na ta ja, leave and go is
written as na pa da and now come back is 90. 24 : 576 :: 32 : ___

a. 1024 b. 992 c. 1228 d. 865 103. Analyze the following statements:


Statement 1: The S.I unit of weight is Kilogram.
SECTION C: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE Statement 2: Weight is a vector quantity.
a. Only 1 is true b. Only 2 is true c.
91. Which of the following is responsible for Both are True d. Both are false.
transmission of the Zika virus to humans?
a) Mosquitoes b) Birds 104. Cream Separator works on the principle of
c) Pigs d) Rats a. Centripetal Force b. Centrifugal Force c.
Buoyant Force d. Gravitational
92. Which is the highest peacetime gallantry award Force
of India?
a) Shaurya Chakra b) Param Vir Chakra 105. Gravity is ____________________ at poles.
c) Ashok Chakra d) Kirti Chakra a. Minimum b. Maximum c.
Same as on equator d. 1/6th of equator
93. The theater festival Nandi Natakotsavam is
celebrated in which state? 106. If ice floating in a vessel melts, the level of
a) Himachal Pradesh b) Andhra Pradesh water
c) Karnataka d) Tamil Nadu a. increases b. remains same
c. decreases d. increases then decreases
94. Who is the author of the book titled Creating
Leadership? 107. The surface tension of clean water is
a) Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw b) Kiran Bedi ________________________ that of a soap solution.
c) Mary Kom d) Medha Patkar a. higher than b. lower than
c. same as d. half of
95. In which of the following cities the worlds first
slum museum will be set up? 108. X-rays were discovered by
a) Indore b) Mumbai a. William Crooke b. Goldstein
c) Lucknow d) Ahmedabad c. Roentgen d. None of these

96. The fountain of oneness is located in which of 109. Hydrogen Bomb works on the principle of
the following cities? a. Nuclear Fission b. Nuclear Fusion
a) Ajmer b) Delhi c. Laser Technology d. Cathode Rays
b) Agra d) Khajuraho
110. Isotopes have
97. abof.com is an online portal owned by: a. same atomic number & same mass number
a) Aditya Birla Group b) Arvind Group b. different atomic number & same mass
c) ITC d) Landmark number
c. same atomic number & different mass number
98. Which of the following is not an ideal fabric for a d. same number of neutrons, protons &
saree drape? electrons
a) Crepe b) Denim c) Silk d) Chiffon
111. What is the chemical formula of Baking
99. Emerald is ____________ in colour. Soda?
a) Violet b) Yellow a. Calcium Carbonate b. Calcium
c) Deep Green d) Blue Bicarbonate c. Sodium Carbonate d.
Sodium Bicarbonate
100. nothing like anything is the tag line of which of
the following Mobile Phone Manufacturing 112. Delayed Blood Clotting is due to the
Companies? deficiency of Vitamin ___ ?
a) Samsung b) MI c) Micromax d) Lenovo a. A b. D c.
E d. K
101. AIFW Autumn Winter 2016 venue has been
changed to 113. BCG vaccine prevents
a) Pragati Maidan b) FICCI Auditorium a. Rabies b. Cholera c.
c) Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium d) Mumbai Tuberculosis d. Typhoid

102. Clothes Made by Interlooping of yarn is called 114. Anthology : Flowers :: Nephrology : ?
a) Woven Fabrics b) Knits Fabric a. heart b. muscles
c) Non woven fabrics d) Blends c. Kidneys d. Soils

a. Lord Wellesley b. Lord Cornwallis c.


115. First man to reach North Pole was Lord Curzon d. None of these
a. Robert Peary b. Roald
Amundsen c. Ranulph Fiennes d. Alexei 128. Indian National Congress was formed by
Leonov a. Mt. Gandhi b. A.O Hume
c. B.C Chatterjee d. Sarojini Naidu
116. Kamakhya Temple is located in
a. Assam b. Madhya Pradesh c. 129. Partition of Bengal was announced by
Tamil Nadu d. Odisha a. Lord Wellesley b. Lord Cornwallis c.
Lord Curzon d. None of these
117. The term JAB is associated with which of
the following games 130. Who coined the term Pakistan?
a. Basketball b. Shooting c. a. Mhd. Ali Jinnah b. Iqbal c.
Boxing d. Golf Chd. Rehmat Khan d. Mt. Gandhi

118. Which Indian state has the longest 131. Who gave the slogan GO BACK TO THE
coastline? VEDAS?
a. Tamil Nadu b. Gujarat a. Dayanand Saraswati b. Mt. Gandhi c.
c. Maharashtra d. West Bengal Vivekananda d. Jawaharlal Nehru

119. Which of the following Vedas contains 132. The book titled INDIA UNDIVIDED was
hyms and ritual sacrifices? written by
a. Rigveda b. Samaveda c. a. Jawahar Lal Nehru b. Subhas Chandra Bose
Yajurveda d. Atharvaveda c. Mt. Gandhi d. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

120. Ramayan was written by 133. What is the fullform of PNG?
a. VedVyas b. Valmiki c. ___________________________________
Tulsidas d. Kalidas
134. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place in
121. Jain texts were written in which of the a. 1917 b. 1919
following languages? c. 1921 d. 1923
a. Pali b. Prakrit
c. Hindi d. Sanskrit 135. Chilka Lake is located in
a. Odisha b. Rajasthan c.
122. Buddhist texts were written in which of the J & K d. Manipur
following languages?
a. Pali b. Prakrit 136. NH 5 connects
c. Hindi d. Sanskrit a. Delhi-Amritsar b. Kolkata-Chennai c.
Delhi-Lucknow d. Agra-Mumbai
123. Mudrarakshasa was written by
a. Kalidas b. Jaideva c. 137. Dudhwa National Park is located in
Chanakya d. Vishakadatta a. Gujarat b. Haryana c.
U.P d. M.P
124. Fa-hein, a chinese traveller visited India
during the reign of 138. The words, SOCIALIST, SECULAR and
a. Ashoka b. Chandragupta I c. INTEGRITY were added to the Preamble of the
Chandragupta II d. None of these Constitution by Amendment:
a. 26 b. 40
125. First Battle of Tarain was fought in c. 42 d. 95
a. 1191 b. 1757
c.1192 d. 1764 139. Write the fullform of GST:

126. Who was the founder of Asiatic Society of _______________________________________________
Bengal?
a. William Hawkins b. Annie Beasant c. William 140. Write the fullform of NTPC:
Jones d. Warren Hastings
_____________________________________________
127. Who was known as Father of Civil Services
in India?

141. First Purely Indian bank is:


a. Bank Of Hindustan b. Oudh Commercial Bank SECTION D: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
c. State Bank of India d. Punjab National 151. Which of the following numbers is divisible by
Bank 24?
a) 35718 b) 63810 c) 537804 d) 3125736
142. Neuritis is caused by
a. Virus b. Fungi c. 152. If the number 91876*2 is divisible by 8 then,
Bacteria d. Mosquitoes the smallest whole number in place of * will be:
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
143. Excess of nitrate in drinking water can
cause disease such as methemoglobinemia, 153. (51+ 52 + + 100) =
which is also called a) 2525 b) 2975 c) 3225 d) 3775
a. Blue Baby Syndrome b. Red
Baby Syndrome c. White Baby 154. Three containers contain 496 ltrs, 403 ltrs, and
Syndrome d. None of these 713 ltrs of mixtures of milk and water
respectively. What biggest measure can measure
144. Which among the following is considered as all the different quantities exactly?
the best rock cut temple in the world? a) 1 ltr b) 7 ltrs c) 31 ltrs d) 41 ltrs
a. Brihadeeswara Temple, Tanjavur
b. Lingaraja Temple, Bhubaneswar 155. If As salary is 25% more than Bs, then how
c. Kailasha Temple, Ellora much percent is Bs salary less than As ?
d. Kandariya Temple, Khajuraho a) 16.06% b) 20%
c)12.33% d) 15%
145. Which one of the following country does not
border Caspian Sea? 156. Present age of Rani and Kavi are in the ratio
(A) Iran (B) Iraq 5:6. After 7yrs, the ratio will be 6:7. What is
(C) Georgia (D) Turkmenistan Ranis present age?
a) 30 b) 28 c) 35 d) 40
146. Which of the following countries has the
worlds largest pension fund? 157. A train running at 8/11 of its original speed
[A]China [B]United States [C]Japan [D]United reached a place in 5.5hrs. How much time could
Kingdom be saved if the train would have run at its
original speed?
147. Which of the following countries will host A) 1.5hrs B) 2hrs C) 2.5hrs D) Cant
the next Commonwealth summit CHOGM in be determined
2018?
[A]Mauritius [B]India [C]United Kingdom [D]Sri 158. A sum of Rs. 4558 is divided among A,B and C
Lanka such that A receives 20% more than C and C
receives 25% less than B. What is As share?
148. On which date, the Armed Forces Flag Day is A) Rs.1548 B) Rs.1720
observed? C) Rs.1290 D) Rs.1345
[A]December 2 [B]December 5 [C]December 7
[D]December 10 159. When a number is divided by 121, the
remainder is 25. If the same number is divided
149. Which of the following states is the first to by 11, then the remainder is
join the UDAY scheme of union government? a) 2 B)3 C)4 D)5
[A]Jharkhand [B]Rajasthan [C]Tamil Nadu
[D]Andhra Pradesh 160. Sujata spent 15% of her monthly income on
food and 25% on his children. She spent 40% of
150. Which of the following organisations is the the remaining on recreation and sports and 20%
first from India to join the World Banks Zero on clothes. She is left with Rs. 5760. What is her
Routine Flaring by 2030 Initiative? income?
[A]ONGC [B]IOCL [C]NTPC [D]Essar Oil Ltd A) Rs.24000 B) Rs.25500
C) Rs.27800 D) Rs.28000

161. A sum of Rs.8000 was lent partly at 7% and
partly at 9% SI. If the total interest was Rs.620.
The ratio in which the money was lent at given
rates is

a) 5:3 B) 1:4 C) 2:3 D) 3:4 173. The average weight of 11 players of a team is
50kg. If the average of first six is 49kg and that
162. The difference between the CI and SI on a of the last six is 52kg. What is the weight of the
certain sum at 5% for 2yrs is Rs.1.50. The sum person in the sixth position?
is A) 56Kg B) 52kg C) 51kg D) None Of these
a) Rs.600 B) Rs. 500 C) Rs.400 D) Rs.300
174. The average weight of 5 officers is 42Kg. If a
163. A sum of Rs. 500 amounts to Rs.650 in 3yrs at senior officer is replaced by a new officer, then
SI. If the rate of interest is increased by 3%, then the average increased by 500gm. The weight of
it would amount to? the new officer is:
a) Rs.995 B) Rs.595 C) Rs.695 D) Rs.895 A) 44.5KG B) 45KG
C) 42.5KG D) NONE OF THESE
164. 20 men can complete one-third of the work in
20days. How many more men are required to 175. The least number by which we multiply 11760
finish the remaining work in 25 more days? to get a perfect square:
a) 15 B) 18 C) 12 D) 25 A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) NONE OF THESE

165. A wire is in the form of a circle of radius 42cm.
If it is bent into a square then the area of square ------END OF QUESTION PAPER------
will be
A) 4200cm2 B) 4356cm2
C) 4720cm2 D) 4400cm2 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

166. A man rows a boat 18km in 4hr downstream ANSWER KEY
and returns upstream in 12hrs. The speed of the
stream ( in km/hr) is 1. D
A) 1 B) 1.5 C) 2 D) 1.75 2. D
3. A
167. A is thrice good as worker and takes 8 days 4. C
less to do a piece of work. In how many days B 5. B
do the work? 6. B
A) 16 B) 12 C) 8 D) 10 7. D
8. B
168. A train of length 150m takes 10s to pass 9. C
another train 100m long coming from the 10. D
opposite direction. If the speed of the first train 11. D
is 36km/hr, the speed of the other train is 12. A
A) 36km/hr B) 48km/hr 13. D
C) 54km/hr D) 56km/hr 14. D
15. D
169. A sum of money becomes 3 times in 12 years. In 16. D
how many years will it become 5 times at the 17. C
same rate of simple interest? 18. C
A) 20 B) 16 C) 24 D) 30 19. B
20. B
170. Kriplani goes to school at 20km/hr and reaches 21. D
4 mins late. If she goes at 25km/hr, she reaches 22. B
2 mins earlier than the schedules time. Find the 23. C
distance from her house to the school. 24. B
A) 5KM B) 10KM C) 15KM D) 20KM 25. B
26. D
171. Arun bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many 27. C
for a rupee he should sell to gain 20%? 28. B
A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) CANT BE DETERMINED 29. B
30. D
172. By selling at article for Rs. 240, a trader looses 31. B
4%. In order to gain 10%, he must sell it at: 32. D
A) 275 B) 340 C) 320 D) 264 33. A
34. A

35. B 94. B
36. C 95. B
37. A 96. B
38. D 97. A
39. C 98. B
40. A 99. C
41. B 100. C
42. B 101. C
43. C 102. B
44. D 103. B
45. D 104. B
46. A 105. B
47. C 106. B
48. A 107. A
49. A 108. C
50. C 109. B
51. B 110. C
52. C 111. D
53. B 112. D
54. D 113. C
55. C 114. C
56. B 115. A
57. A 116. A
58. D 117. C
59. C 118. B
60. B 119. C
61. A 120. B
62. C 121. B
63. D 122. A
64. A 123. D
65. B 124. C
66. A 125. A
67. C 126. C
68. A 127. A
69. C 128. B
70. C 129. C
71. B 130. C
72. A 131. A
73. A 132. D
74. A 133.
75. B 134. B
76. D 135. A
77. D 136. B
78. A 137. C
79. D 138. C
80. A 139.
81. C 140.
82. C 141. A
83. A 142. B
84. B 143. A
85. A 144. C
86. C 145. B
87. D 146. A
88. C 147. C
89. B 148. C
90. A 149. D
91. A 150. A
92. C 151. D
93. B 152. C

153. D
154. C
155. B
156. C
157. A
158. A
159. B
160. B
161. A
162. A
163. C
164. C
165. B
166. B
167. B
168. C
169. C
170. B
171. C
172. A
173. A
174. A
175. D

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