Test Code : 45

Listening Section
In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken
English. There are four parts to this section, with special directions for each part.

Part I
Questions 1 to 4

Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues spoken in English. The dialogue will be
spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to
understand what the speakers are saying.
After you hear a dialogue and the question about it, read the five possible answers and
decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Now listen to a
sample question.

You will hear:

Man : How is the meal?
Woman : Its really great. Ive never thought you can do it.
Man : During weekend I help my mother to cook.
Woman : I am ashamed not to do that.

You will also hear:

Narrator: What does the woman admire?
Sample answer
You will read in your test book:
A B C D E
A. The mans cooking
B. The mans mothers meal
C. The mans diligence to cook
D. The way how the man cooks
E. How the man spend his weekend

The best answer to the question What does the woman admire? is choice (A), The mans
cooking. Therefore, you should answer choice (A).

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1. A. He is a lucky man
B. He goes to the world
C. He studies in Harvard University
D. He graduates from Harvard University
E. He gets scholarship to study in Harvard University

2. A. Colllecting the homework

B. Doing the homework on time
C. Finishing the homework on time
D. Discussing the homework together
E. Asking help to finish the homework

3. A. The woman is a lab. coordinator

B. The woman has only one job at school
C. The principal doesnt give a job to the woman
D. The principal usually gives a lot of jobs to the woman
E. The principal gives the woman two jobs at school

4. A. He is a lecturer
B. He is a student
C. He is a typewriter
D. He is a jobless
E. He is nothing to do

Part II
Questions: 5 to 8
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear several questions or statements spoken in English
followed by four responses, also spoken in English. The questions and responses will be
spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test sheet, so you must listen carefully to
understand what the speakers are saying. You have to choose the best response to each
question or statement.

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Now listen to a sample question:

You will hear:
Woman : Im sorry I wasnt able to attend the meeting Sample answer
Man : Why?
Woman : My aunt passed away.
A B C D
You will also hear:
A. Im sorry to hear that.
B. You must come at the next meeting.
C. Im sorry I didnt go there.
D. I passed the exam.

The best response to the statement My aunt passed away is choice (A), Im sorry to hear
that. Therefore, you should choose answer (A)

5. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

6. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.
7. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

PART III
Question: 8 to 11.
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues and a monologue spoken in English.
The dialogues and monologues will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your text
book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. After you
listen to a dialogue or monologue, look at the five pictures provided in your test book, and
decide which one would be most suitable with the dialogue or monologue you have heard.
8.

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9.

10.

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11.

Part IV
Question 12 to 15.
Directions:
In this part of the test, you will hear several monologues. Each monologue will be spoken
twice. They will not be printed in your text book, so you must listen carefully to understand
what the speakers are saying.
After you hear the monologue and the question about it, read the five possible answers and
decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard.

12. A. The opening times of Eiffel Tower.

B. The holidays times of Eiffel Tower.
C. The activities held in Eiffel Tower.
D. The description of Eiffel Tower.
E. The location of Eiffel Tower.

13. A. From 11.30 a.m. to 11.00 p.m.

B. From 10.30 a.m. to 11.00 p.m.
C. From 9.30 a.m. to 11.00 p.m.
D. From 09.00 a.m. to midnight
E. From 09.00 a.m. to evening.

14. A. The winner of the competition

B. The Archery competition
C. The Princes fell in love
D. The princess Mandalika
E. The king in Lombok

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15. A. She is very beatiful

B. She is a kings daughter
C. She is a kind and smart girl
D. She is from a rich family
E. She likes those men

The text is for questions 16 to 18

Jakarta: Indonesia dancer-choreographer Sardono W. Kusumo has been awarded the

Distinguished Artist Award by the International Society for the Performing Arts (ISPA).
The Sardono Seni Dance studio in Surakarta, Central Java, where the artists is based,
said the award would be presented during a ceremony on June 20, as part of the societys
17th International Congress at Esplanade in Singapore. The congress is taking place
between June 18 and June 12.
The ISPA Distinguished Artist award, first awarded in 1975, is presented to performing
artists who have made an outstanding contribution of talent, artistry, dedication and service
to the world of performing arts.
Past recipients include pianist Arthur Rubenstein (1976), jazz clarinettist and bandleader
Benny Goodman (1982), opera, theatre, and film director Peter Sellers (1990), mime Marcel
Marceau (1992), Broadway composer Stephen Sondheim (1994), and Soprano Dame Joan
Sutherland (1994).

16. Which one from the following sentences is not TRUE according to the text?
A. Sardono W. Kusumo never got award from ISPA
B. The ISPA Distinguished Artis Award started in 1975
C. The ISPA Distinguished Artis Award was given to artists
D. Arthus Rubenstein was very good in playing piano
E. The award had been given in Singapore

17. the award would be presented during a ceremony (Paragraph 2)

The underlined word refers to
A. International Congress
B. The world of performing arts
C. The Sardono Seni dance studio
D. Indonesian dancer-choreographer
E. The Distinguished Artist Award

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18. An artist will be awarded ISPA if they have performed a very remarkable performance of
the following, except
A. Artistry
B. Talent
C. Humor
D. Service
E. Dedication

The text is for questions 19 and 21

On the River
I paddled for about five miles and then I was tired. I stopped on Jacksons island, hid
the canoe behind some trees and went to sleep.
I woke up when I heard a boom. It came from somewhere up the river. Then another
boom came louder.
I saw the white smoke. They were shooting a big gun from a steamboat into the water
because they wanted to find my dead body. They wanted it to come up to the top of the
water.
I hid in the tall grass when the steamboat came near the island. I could see Tom
Sawyer, Toms aunt Polly, the Widow Douglas, Judge Thatcher, even Pap was there.
Everybody was talking about me. They all thought I was dead. They shot the big gun again.
BOOM!. That one was really loud. It made my ears ring, but I didnt move from the tall grass.

19. Where did the writer hide the canoe?

A. The river
B. A steamboat
C. In the tall grass
D. On Jacksons island
E. Behind some trees

20. .....That one was really loud. (Paragraph 4)

What does one in the sentence refers to?
A. Everybody
B. The big one
C. Boom
D. My ear
E. The tall grass

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21. I said quietly while tapping his shoulder.

What is the closest meaning of the underlined word?
A. touching
B. hitting
C. kicking
D. pushing
E. knocking

The text is for questions 22 and 23.

Ms. Helen January 17, 2014

Jorua Ltd. 224 Duke Street
Cranley, Dorset, England

Dear Ms. Helen,

I wanted to take this opportunity to thank you for the excellent job you did in arranging
financing for our project. We appreciate the fact that you made yourself available for
discussion seven days a week. We were impressed by your through knowledge of
financing and investment banking.
We have been dealing with our new financial institution for about a week now. The
advantages of association with this institution are already apparent. I feel though we have
taken a quantum leap forward in progress.
I would not hesitate to retain your services again and to recommend your firm to any
company seeking the best representation.

Sincerely yours,

Celine
General Manager

22. What is the letter about?

A. An opportunity of a new job
B. A report of financial project
C. The advantages of association
D. A gratitude for an excellent job
E. A recommendation to other companies
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23. From the letter above we can conclude that Ms. Helen is
A. A careless employee
B. A beautiful employee
C. A lazy employee
D. A smart employee
E. An arrogant

The text is for questions 24 and 25.

CHARMING HOTEL

Addrdress : Pelabuhan II Street, KM 20 Sukabumi, West Java Post. 43211

Come and enjoy your time in Charming Hotel. It has many standard international
facilities:

106 Ocean Drive

Enjoy the privacy of a small family-style hotel
Only 15 minutes from the airport and right next to the beach
Only 40 rooms (TV; air-conditioning; bath)
Outdoor restaurant beside the pool. Room from Rp. 240,000 Rp. 550,000
Our restaurant also serves catering. For further information, please contact us in
0266-321632, or see at : www.charminghotel.com

24. According to the text, the restaurant also serves

A. Facilities
B. Catering
C. Rooms
D. The privacy
E. Outdoor restaurant

25. It has many standard international facilities.

The underlined word refers to
A. Your time
B. Charming Hotel
C. Jln. Pelabuhan II KM 20
D. A small family-style hotel
E. The airport
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This text is for questions 26 to 30.

When a ray of light passes from one transparent substance to another, such as from
air into glass, it is refraction, happens because light moves at different speeds in different
substances-and makes things appear in different places.
You may have noticed that a swimming pool looks as if it is not as deep as it really is
and fish in a lake or a river appear to be nearer the surface than they really are.. the reason
for the illusion is that light rays travelling from underwater object do not move in the same
direction when they emerge through the surface and into the air.
Similar effects occurs when light rays and the normal (a line a right angles to the
surface) is called the angle of incident. Below the water surface, the angle between the light
ray and the normal is called the angle of refraction. When light enters a denser medium, as
when it travels from air into water or into glass, the angle of refraction is less than the angle
of incident-the ray is refracted toward the normal. When light travels from one medium into a
less dense medium, as from glass into air, the angle of refraction is greater than the angle of
incident-the ray is refracted away from the normal.
Refraction can have some strange effects, for example, a drinking straw placed in a
glass of water. The straw appears to bend below the surface. That is because light rays
travelling from straw and leaving the surf are refracted away from the normal. Another
example is the setting Sun, when the air near the surface is denser than that above it. Light
rays from the sun are refracted as they pass through this denser air. Again, looking back
along the refracted rays, we see the Sun in a different position. As result, we appear to be
able to see the Sun even when it has dropped below the horizon.

26. Where is the angle refraction?

A. Above the water surface, between the light ray and the normal,
B. Above the water surface, between the incident ray and the normal
C. Below the water surface, between the light ray and the incident ray
D. Below the water surface, between the incident ray and the normal
E. Below the water surface, between the light ray and the normal

27. When is the angle of refraction greater than the angle of incidence?
A. When light enters a denser medium
B. When light travels from the same dense of medium
C. When light travels from one medium into a less dense medium
D. When light fails to enter a denser medium because there is an obstacle
E. When light travels from the same dense of medium because there is an obstacle.

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28. .they emerge through the surface and into the air.
The underlined word means.
A. shine
B. appear
C. travel
D. drop
E. occur

29. "Being on time can mean turning up several hours late ..." (Paragraph 2)
The underlined words mean....
A. arriving
B. exposing
C. emerging
D. displaying
E. appearing

30. In some cultures people may....for a business meeting.

A. come late
B. eat strictly
C. be surprised
D. behave differently
E. use their own table

This text is for questions 31 to 32

Each society has its own beliefs, attitudes, customs, behaviors, and social habits.
These give people a sense of who they are, how they should behave, and what they should
or should not do. These rules reflect the culture of a country.
People become conscious of such rules when they meet people from different
cultures. For example, in some cultures, being on time can mean turning up several hours
late for an appointment, even for a business meeting; in others, 3 p.m. means 3 p.m. Also,
the rules about when to eat vary from culture to culture. Many North Americans and
Europeans are used to having three mealtimes a day and organizing their timetable around
them. In some countries, on the other hand, people often do not have strict rules like this -
people eat when they want to and every family has its own time table.
When people visit or live in a country for the first time, they are often surprised at the
differences that exist between their own culture and that in the other country. The most
common way of comparing two cultures is in terms of their differences - not their similarities.
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31. What is the main idea of paragraph 2?

A. Being time for an appointment
B. The rule of having meal is various
C. Coming on time from culture to culture
D. Organizing timetable for people in different culture
E. Peoples awareness of rule due to seeing different culture

32. Which statement is TRUE according to the text?

A. There are no people, becoming conscious of a new culture.
B. There are no countries having strict rules of mealtimes.
C. There are no strict rules of mealtimes in some countries.
D. There are no problems for people who visit a country for the first time.
E. There are no similarities between a culture is one country and that in another.

This text is for questions 33 to 38.

Video games become a controversial issue for parents and educators. Those who are
in favor of video games believe that video games have some benefits. However, people who
are against video games consider these games have several negative effects.
In the proponents point of view, video game functions as a form of light entertainment.
As a part of a balanced entertainment, games can provide stress relief for kids, help with
aspects of coordination and concentration on visual details, and help kids relate to one
another in some forms of healthy competition.
On the contrary, the opponents of video games think that video games have some
disadvantages. Video game players are prone to aggressive thoughts, attitudes, and actions.
Violent video games cause children to be less sensitive to the pain and suffering of others.
Study also shows that these children are more fearful of the world around them. In addition,
video games make the players addicted. Furthermore, too much time on any video
entertainment takes away time spent on school work. As a result, the games cause children
to weaken their school achievement.
In conclusion, parents should limit their children on playing video games. Children can
play video games at their leisure but parents should think about how well balanced it is.
Violent video games also can be thought as treats.
(Taken from http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Video_game_controversies)

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33. Which of the following statements is the benefit of video games?

A. Video games cause stress to children.
B. Video games cant help kids to compete fairly.
C. Video games can coordinate the kids cooperation.
D. Video games do not function as a form of light amusement.
E. Video games can improve childrens coordination and concentration.

34. The main idea of paragraph three is . . . .

A. the benefits of video games
B. the advantages of video games
C. the amusement of video games
D. the disadvantages of video games
E. the advantages and disadvantages of video games

35. We imply that parents

A. should bound their kids time on video games.
B. shouldnt limit their childrens time to play video games.
C. cannot control their childrens leisure time on video games.
D. have to play games with their children because it is helpful.
E. mustnt control their children in spending their time on video games.

36. In addition, video games make the players addicted. (Paragraph 3)

The underlined word is closest in meaning to .
A. diligent
B. creative
C. dependent
D. intelligent
E. industrious

37. Those who are in favor of video games believe that video games have some benefits.
(paragraph 1)
What does the word Those refer to?
A. Parents
B. Educators
C. Video games
D. Controversial issue
E. Parents and educators

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38. The type of the text above is....

A. Explanation
B. Discussion
C. Exposition
D. Description
E. Report

Read the following text and answer questions 39 to 41.

Nelson Rohilahla Mandela was born in Transkei, South Africa on July 18, 1918. His
father was Hendry Mphakanyiswa of the Tembu Tribe. Mandela himself was educated at
University College of Fort Hare and the University of Witwatersrand where he studied law.
He joined the African National Congress in 1944 and was engaged in resistance against the
ruling National Partys apartheid policies after 1948. He went on trial for treason in 1956-
1961 and was acquitted in 1961.
After the banning of the ANC in 1960, Nelson Mandela argued for the setting up of a
military wing within the ANC. In June 1961, the ANC executive considered his proposal on
the use of violent tactics and agreed that those members who wished to involve themselves
in Mandelas campaign would not be stopped from doing so by the ANC. This led to the
formation of Umkhonto we Sizwe.
Mandela was arrested in 1962 and sentenced to five years imprisonment with hard
labor. In 1963, when many fellow leaders of the ANC and the Umkhonto we Sizwe were
arrested, Mandela was brought to stand trial with them for plotting to overthrow the
government by violence. His statement from the dock received considerable international
publicity. On June 12, 1964, eight of the accused, including Mandela, were sentenced to life
imprisonment. From 1964 to 1982, he was incarcerated at Robben Island Prison, off Cape
Town; thereafter, he was at Pollsmor Prison, nearby on the mainland.
During his years in prison, Nelson Mandelas reputation grew steadily. He was widely
accepted as the most significant black leader in South Africa and became a potent symbol of
resistance as the anti-apartheid movement gathered strength. He consistently refused to
compromise his political position to obtain his freedom.
Nelson Mandela was released on February 11, 1990. After his release, he plunged
himself wholeheartedly into his lifes work, striving to attain the goals he and others had set
out almost four decades earlier.

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39. How long was Mandela incarcerated at Robben Island Prison?

A. 16 years
B. 17 years
C. 18 years
D. 19 years
E. 20 years

40. What is the main idea of third paragraph?

A. Nelson Mandela was sent to prison.
B. Nelson Mandela was released from prison.
C. Nelson Mandela formed Umkhonto we Sizwe.
D. The African National Congress executive was Mandela.
E. Nelson Mandela joined National Partys apartheid policies.

41. Why was Mandela brought to stand trial with many fellow leaders of the ANC and
the Umkhonto we Sizwe?
A. Nelson Mandelas reputation grew steadily.
B. They were plotting to overthrow the government by violence.
C. His statement from the dock received considerable international publicity.
D. He was arrested and sentenced to five years imprisonment with hard labor.
E. He consistently refused to compromise his political position to obtain freedom.

This text is for questions 42 to 44

Although Gone With The Wind was a sort of second choice with the New York Film
Critics, its presentation was accorded more space in newspapers than any motion picture
has ever been given. After buying the rights to the novel, David Selznick had attracted
attention by his suggestions for the part of Scarlett OHara.
The picture was first presented publicly in Atlanta and some of the newspapers,
including The New York Times, sent staff writers to attend that opening. The accounts were
printed on the first pages of some editions of the afternoon newspapers in large cities all
over the country.
Gone with the Wind was launched in two theaters in New York the Astor and the
Capitol. In The New York Times, the review was spread over four columns with a two-column
cut and an added account of the celebrities present. The critic referred to it as a handsome,
scrupulous, unstinting version of the 1,037-page novel.

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42. What does the text tell about?

A. The review about Gone with the Wind film
B. The famous novel Gone with the Wind
C. The story of Gone with the Wind
D. The part of Scarlet OHara
E. An interesting movie

43. Where was the film Gone With The Wind fiirst presented publicly?
A. in Atlanta
B. In New York
C. in New York Times
D. in large cities of the country.
E. on the first page of newspaper.

44. The accounts were printed on the first pages of some editions of the afternoon
newspapers in large cities all over the country.
What is the apposite meaning of the underlined word?
A. Big
B. Little
C. Small
D. Narrow
E. Wide

Read the following text and answer questions 45 to 46.

Hi, Guys! Our neighborhood will hold a Fund Raising Activity next month. It is intended to

help victims of the landslide which happened yesterday. Everyone who is interested in this
activity, please join us. You are also invited to donate your used clothes. If you have any
questions, please feel free to contact Ms. Cathy as chief program coordinator at her house
from 07.00 a.m. 03.00 p.m. Monday to Friday.

Committee

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45. What is the announcement about?

A. Neighborhood's activity
B. Used clothes donation
C. Victims of a landslide
D. Fund raising activity
E. Ms. Cathy's program

46. Where can Ms.Cathy accept her neighbors' questions?

A. At her house
B. At her office
C. At the neighborhood
D. At the landslide area
E. At the committee office

For questions 47 to 49, complete the following text with the correct words provided!
The Ambarawa Train Museum houses 21 antique locomotives plus two more, which
are stored in the depot. These locomotives are no longer produced; even the factories that
(47) them no longer exist. The main building of this museum is the defunct Ambarawa
railway station which was built in 1873. the station covers 127,500 m2.
The oldest in this museum is a locomotive made by Hartman Chemnitz. This
locomotive, with a length of 8.58 m and a width of 2.45 m, began its ( 48 ) in 1891. Using
wood as fuel, the steam locomotive could run 50 km/h its maximum speed.
A special part of a visit to this museum is a trip by train from the Ambarawa Train
Museum to the defunct Bedono train station. This package tour is called Railway Mountain
Tour. Why is the trip so special? Because the participants will board an antique train and the
train will (49) on a 4.9 kilometer-cog railway, which is the only one in the world.

47. A. set
B. made
C. stored
D. brought
E. programmed

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48. A. action
B. creation
C. invention
D. operation
E. production

49. A. get
B. open
C. travel
D. move
E. connect

For question 50, rearrange the following sentences into the correct and meaningful
paragraph!

(1) When inserting the SIM Card to cellphone, make sure that the cellphone has been
switched off and follow the direction bellow:
(2) Don't forget to switch on the cellphone. Wait until it is ready to use.
(3) First of all, press the locking catch and slide the cover then lift it off the phone.
(4) Cellphone is a modern communication device which connects one to the others by
voice, written message and data. However this device can not work until the SIM card is
inserted.
(5) After that, push two catches in the opposite directions and remove the battery.
(6) Then, put the battery and align it until snaps into its place.
(7) Next, slide the SIM card carefully into the slot and make sure that the golden connect
arson are facing to the connector of the phone.
(8) Finally, insert the two catches of the back cover corresponding slot in the phone and
slide the cover forward button of the phone until locks into place.

50. A. 4 - 1 5 3 6 7 8 2
B. 4 1 3 5 7 6 2 8
C. 4 1 3 6 7 5 8 2
D. 4 1 5 3 7 6 2 8
E. 4 1 3 5 7 6 8 2

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