1. CHEMICAL ENGINEERING OBJECTIVE TYPE 47.

(c) molecularity of the reaction

QUESTIONS: A COMPILATION 48. (d) none of these
2. DR. LEONARDO C. MEDINA, JR. 49. 10.Molecularity of a reaction
3. DEAN, COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING 50. (a) is always equal to the overall order of reaction
4. LYCEUM OF THE PHILIPPINES UNIVERSITY 51. (b) may not be equal to the order of reaction
5. c (c) cant have a fractional value
6. 52. (d) both (b) and (c)
7. CHEMICAL REACTION ENGINEERING AND REACTOR 53. 11.Inversion of cane sugar is an example of
DESIGN 54. (a) unimolecular reaction with first order
8. 55. (b) bimolecular reaction with second order
9. 1. Rate of chemical reaction is independent of the concentration 56. (c) bimolecular reaction with first order
of reactants for 57. (d) unimolecular reaction with second order
(a) zero order reaction 58. 12.Concentration of the limiting reactant (with initial
(b) third order reaction concentration of a moles/liter) after time t is (a-x).Then t for
(c) consecutive reaction a first order reaction is given by
(d) none of these (a) kt = ln a
10. 2. Which of the following is not a unit of reaction rate? 59. a-x
(a) moles formed/(surface of catalyst) (time) 60. (b) kt = x
(b) moles formed/(volume of reactor) (time) 61. a(a-x)
(c) mole formed/(volume of catalyst) (time) 62. (c) kt = ln a-x
(d) none of these 63. a
11. 3. If n is the order of reaction then unit of rate constant is 64. (d) k.t = a (a-x)
(a) 1 65. x
12. (time) (concentration)n-1 66. 13.Half life period of a chemical reaction is
13. (b) (time) (concentration)n-1
-1
67. (a) the time required to reduce the concentration
14. (c) (time)n-1 (concentration) of the reacting substance to half its initial value
15. (d) none of these 68. (b) half of the space time of a reaction
16. 4. Which of the following is a controlling factor in very fast 69. (c) half of the residence time of a reaction
heterogeneous reaction? 70. (d) none of these
17. (a) heat and mass transfer effects 71.
18. (b) pressure 72.
19. (c) temperature 73.
20. (d) composition of reactant 74.
21. 5. Variables affecting the rate of homogeneous reactions are 75.
22. (a) pressure and temperature only 76. 14.Fill up the blanks:
23. (b) temperature and composition only 77. Half-life period for a first order reaction
24. (c) pressure and composition only is....................... the initial concentration of the reactant
25. (d) pressure, temperature and composition 78. (a) directly proportional to
26. 6. Rate determining step in a reaction consisting of a number of 79. (b) inversely proportional to
step in 80. (c) independent of
27. series is the 81. (d) none of these
28. (a) fastest step 82. 15. Fill up the blanks from among the alternatives given below:
29. (b) slowed step In a first order reaction the time required to reduce the
30. (c) intermediate step concentration of reactant from 1 mole/liter to 0.5 mole/liter will
31. (d) data insufficient; can't be predict be ............. that required to reduce it from 10 moles/liter to 5
32. moles/liter in the same volume
33. 83. (a) more than
34. 7. Chemical kinetics can predict the 84. (b) less than
35. (a) rate of reaction 85. (c) same as
36. (b) feasibility of reaction 86. (d) data insufficient; can't be predicted
37. (c) both (a) and (b) 87. 16. Specific rate constant for a second order reaction
38. (d) none of these 88. (a) is independent of temperature
39. 8. Velocity of a chemical reaction 89. (b) varies with temperature
40. (a) decreases with increase in temperature 90. (c) depends on the nature of the reactants
41. (b) increases with increase of pressure of reactant for all 91. (d) both (b) and (c)
reactions 92. 17. The reaction in which rate equation corresponds to a
42. (c) decreases with increase of reactant concentration stoichiometric equation is called
43. (d) none of these 93. (a) elementary reaction
44. 9. Sum of the powers of the concentration terms in the rate 94. (b) non-elementary reaction
equation is called the 95. (c) parallel reaction
45. (a) order of the reaction
46. (b) overall order of the reaction 96. (d) autokinetic reaction
97. 18. Equilibrium of a chemical reaction as viewed by kinetics is a 150. (c) remains unaffected
98. (a) dynamic steady state 151. (d) increases linearly with temperature
99. (b) static steady state 152.28. The equilibrium constant of a chemical reaction
c (c) dynamic unsteady state 153. (a) increases in the presence of catalyst
100. (d) none of these 154. (b) decreases in the presence of catalyst
101.19. For a zero order reaction, concentration of product 155. (c) remains unaffected in the presence of a
increases with catalyst
102. (a) increase of reaction time 156. (d) can either increase or decrease; depends on
103. (b) increase in initial concentration the type of catalyst
104. (c) total pressure 157.
105. (d) decrease in total pressure 158.
106.20. Fill up the blanks 29 Conversion increases with increase in temperature of
107. Arrhenius equation shows the variation of __________with a Autocatalytic reaction
temperature b Irreversible reaction
108. (a) Reaction rate c Reversible endothermic reaction
109. (b) Rate constant d Reversible exothermic reaction
110. (c) Energy of activation 30 The heat of reaction
111. (d) Frequency factor 159. (a) depends on the pressure only
112. 160. (b) depends on the mechanism of reaction only
113. 161. (c) depends on both pressure and mechanism
114. of reaction
115. 162. (d) is independent of the mechanism of
116. reaction
117. 21. The energy of activation of a chemical reaction 31 Integral method for analyzing the kinetic data is used
118. (a) is same as heat of reaction at constant 163. (a) when the data are scattered
pressure 164. (b) for testing specific mechanisms with
119. (b) is the minimum energy which the molecules simple rate expression
must have before the reaction can take place 165. (c) both (a) and (b)
120. (c) varies as fifth power of the temperature 166. (d) none of these
121. (d) both (b) and (c) 167.32. Differential method for analyzing the kinetic data is used
122.22. Rate constant 'k' and the absolute temperature T are related 168. (a) for testing complicated mechanisms
by collision theory (for bimolecular) as 169. (b) when the data are scattered
123. (a) k T 1.5 170. (c) when rate expressions are very simple
124. (b) k e E/RT 171. (d) none of these
125. (c) k T 172.33.Exposure of a photographic plate to produce a latent image
is an example of
126. (d) k T
173. (a) Very slow reaction
127.23. Transition state theory relates the above quantities as
174. (b) Very fast reaction
128. (a) k e E/RT 175. (c) Photochemical reaction
129. (b) k Te E/RT 176. (d) Both (b) and (c)
130. (c) k T 177.34. A trickle bed reactor is one which
131. (d) k T 1.5 a has altogether three streams either entering or leaving
132.24.Reactions with high activation energy are b processes three reactants at different flow rates
133. (a) very temperature sensitive c processes three reactant with same flow rate
134. (b) temperature insensitive d employs all the three phases (i.e. solid liquid and gas)
135. (c) always irreversible 178.35.According to Arrhenius equation of temperature dependency
136. (d) always reversible of rate constant for an elementary reaction
137.25. In autocalytic reactions 179. (a) k T
138. (a) one of the reactants acts as a catalyst 180. (b) k e-E/RT
139. (b) one of the products acts as a catalyst 181. (c) k Te-E/RT
140. (c) catalyst has very high selectivity 182. (d) none of these
141. (d) no catalyst is used 183.36. With increases in temperature, the rate constant obeying
142.26. With increase in temperature, the equilibrium conversion of Arrhenius equation
a reversible exothermic reaction 184. (a) increases
143. (a) decreases 185. (b) decreases
144. (d) increases 186. (c) decreases exponentially with temperature
145. (c) remain unaffected 187. (d) can either increase or decrease, depends on the
146. (d) decreases linearly with temperature frequency factor
147.27. With decrease in temperature, the equilibrium conversion of 188.
a reversible endothermic reaction 189.
148. (a) decreases 190.
149. (b) increases 191.
192. d conversion is cent per cent after three hour
193.37. A batch reactor is characterized by 209.47. Space time equals the mean residence time
a constant residence time a when the density of the reaction mixture is constant
b the variation in extent of reaction and properties of the b for large diameter tubular reactor
reaction mixture with time c for narrow diameter tubular reactor
c variation in reactor volume d for CSTR
d very low conversion 210.48. Fluidized bed reactor is characterized by
194.38. A plug-flow reactor is characterized by a uniformity of temperature
a high capacity b comparatively smaller equipment
b presence of axial mixing c very small pressure drop
c presence of lateral mixing d absence of continuous catalyst regeneration facility
d constant composition and temperature of reaction 211. 49. A batch reactor is
mixture a suitable for gas-phase reaction on commercial scale
195.39. In a semi-batch reactor b suitable for liquid phase reaction involving small
a (a) velocity of reaction can be controlled production rate
196. (b) maximum conversion can be controlled c least expensive to operate for a given rate
b (c) both the as reactants flow counter-currently d most suitable for very large production rate
197. (d) residence time is constant 212.50. Which of the following is the most suitable for very high-
198.40. A back mix reactor pressure gas-phase reaction?
a is same as plug-flow reactor a batch reactor
b is same as ideal stirred tank reactor b tubular flow reactor
c employs mixing in axial direction only c stirred tank reactor
d is most suitable for gas phase reaction d fluidized bed reactor
199.41. In a continuous flow stirred tank reactor the composition of 213.51. For nearly isothermal operation involving large reaction time
the exit stream in a liquid phase reaction, the most suitable reactor is
a is same as that in the reactor a stirred tank reactor
b is different than that in the reactor b tubular flow reactor
c depends upon the flow rate of inlet stream c batch reactor
d none of these d fixed bed reactor
200.42. In an ideal tubular-flow reactor 214.52. A stirred tank reactor compared to tubular-flow reactor
a there is no mixing in longitudinal direction provides
b mixing takes place in radial direction a more uniform operation condition
c there is a uniform velocity across the radius b permits operation at the optimum temperature for a
d all (a), (b) and (c) long reaction time
201.43. Space velocity c higher overall selectivity for a first order consecutive
a describes the extensive operating characteristics of a reaction
tubular flow reactor d all (a), (b) and (c)
b is the maximum feed rate per unit volume of reactor for 215.
is given conversion 216.
c is a measure of the case of the reaction job 217.
d all (a), (b) and (c) 218.53. For the same residence time, which will give the maximum
202.44. A high space velocity means that a given conversion?
a reaction can be accomplished with small reactor a single stirred tank (v=5liters)
b conversion can be obtained with a high feed rate b two stirred tank (each of 2.5liters) in series
c both (a) and (b) c stirred tank followed by tubular flow reactor (each
d none of these 2.5liters)
203. d single tubular flow reactor (v=5liters)
204. 219.54. Oil hydrogenated using nickel catalyst in a
205. a batch reactor
206. b slurry reactor
207.45. Space time in flow reactor is c fluidized bed reactor
a usually equal to the residence time d fixed bed reactor
b the reciprocal of the space velocity 220. 55. A second order reaction of the form A+B C is called a
c a measure of its capacity pseudo-first order reaction when
d both (a) and (c) (a) CAO = CBO
208.46. A space-time of 3 hours for a flow reactor means that 221. (b) CAO > CBO
a the time required to process one reactor volume of 222. (c) CAO CBO
feed (measured at specified conditions) is 3 hour 223. (d) CBO > CAO
b three reactor volumes of feed can be processed every 224.56. A first order irreversible reaction A B is carried separately
hour in a constant volume as well as a in a variable volume reactor
c it takes three hours to dump the entire volume of the for a particular period. It signifies that
reaction with feed
 (a) both conversion as well as concentration are same in (c) Either of the arrangement (a) or (b) will give the
the two reactors same yield
(b) conversion in both will be the same but concentrations (d) Data insufficient; cant be predicted
will be different in the two reactors 245.66. A first order reaction requires two equal sized CSTR. The
(c) both the conversion as well as concentrations will be conversion is
different in the two reactors (a) Less when they are connected in series
(d) none of these (b) More when they are connected in series
225.57.A space velocity of 5 hour means that (c) More when they are connected in parallel
(a) five reactor volumes of feed (at specified conditions) (d) Same whether they are connected in series or
are being fed into the reactor per hour parallel
226. (b) after five hours, reactor is being filled with the feed 246.67. The concentration of A in a first order reaction A B
227. (c) cent percent conversion can be achieved in at decreases
least 5 hours (a) Linearly with time
c (d) a fixed conversion of a given batch of feed takes 5 (b) Exponentially with time
hours (c) Very abruptly toward the end of the reaction
228.58. Which of the following fixes the volume of a batch reactor for (d) Logarithmically with time
a particular conversion and production rate? 247.68. Which of the following is most suitable for isothermal
c (a) operating conditions (e.g. pressure and temperature) reaction ?
d (b) rate constant (a) Batch reactor
e (c) density of mixture (b) Back-mix reactor
f (d) none of these (c) Plug-flow reactor
229.59. In a CSTR (d) Fixed bad reactor
(a) reaction rate varies with time 248.
(b) concentration varies with time 249.
(c) both (a) and (b) occur 250.69. Which of the following is the optimum operating condition for
(d) neither (a) nor (b) occurs an exothermic reversible reaction-taking place in a plug-flow
230.60. The use of space-time is preferred over the mean residence reactor
time in the design of 251. (a)Temperature should be high in the
231. (a) batch reactor beginning and decreased
232. (b) ideal tubular-flow reactor 252. towards the end of the reaction
233. (c) slurry reactor 253. (b) Very low temperature should be used
234. (d) CSTR throughout the reaction
235.61. For all positive reaction orders for a particular duty 254. (c) Very high temperature should be used
236. (a) mixed reactor is always larger than the plug-flow throughout the reaction
reactor 255. (d) None of these
237. (b) the ratio of the volume of the mixed reactor to that 256.70. With increase in the space-time of an irreversible isothermal
of the plug-flow reaction being carried out in a P.F. reactor, the conversion will
238. reactor decreases with order 257. (a) Increase
239. (c) reactor size is independent of the type of flow 258. (b) Decrease
240. (d) density variation during reaction affects design 259. (c) Remain same
241.62. With the same reaction time, initial concentration and feed 260. (d) Data sufficient; cant be predicted
rate, the reaction 2A B is carried out separately in CSTR and 261.71. The optimum performance for reactors operating in parallel
P.F. reactor of equal volumes. The conversion will be is obtained when the feed stream is distributed in such a way
(a) higher in P.F. reactor that the
(b) higher in CSTR 262. (a) Space time for each parallel line is same
(c) same in both the reactors 263. (b) Space time for parallel lines is different
(d) data insufficient; cant be predicted 264. (c) Larger reactors have more space time
242.63. For an autocatalytic reactor, the suitable reactor set up is compared to smaller ones
(a) P.F. reactors in series 265. (d) None of these
(b) CSTR in series 266.72. Back mixing is most predominant in
(c) CSTR followed by P.F. reactor g (a) A well stirred reactor
(d) P.F. reactor followed by CSTR h (b) Plug-flow reactor
243.64. For multiple reactions, the reaction within the vessel affects i (c) A single CSTR
the j (d) CSTR connected in series
(a) Size requirement 267.73. The ratio of moles of a reactant converted into the desired
(b) Distribution of reaction product product to that converted into unwanted product is called
(c) Both (a) and (b) c (a) Operational yield
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) d (b) Relative yield
244.65. A first order reaction requires two unequal sized CSTR. e (c) Selectivity
Which of the following gives a higher yield? f (d) None of these
(a) Large reactor followed by smaller one 268.74. The performance of a cascade of CSTRs can be improved
(b) Smaller reactor followed by larger one by adding
 (a) a P.F. reactor in series (a) Increases the speed of chemical reaction
(b) a P.F. reactor in parallel (b) Decreases the speed of chemical reaction
(c) More CSTRs in series (c) Can either increase or decrease the speed of
(d) More CSTRs in parallel chemical reaction
269.75. An auto thermal reactor is (d) Alters the value of equilibrium constant in a
(a) Most suitable for a second order reaction reversible reaction
(b) Most suitable for a reversible reaction 280.84. Catalyst carriers
(c) Completely self supporting in its thermal energy (a) Have very high selectivity
requirements (b) Increase the activity of a catalyst
(d) Isothermal in nature (c) Provide large surface area with small amount of
270.76. For series reaction,the active material
(a) Relative yield is always greater for plug-flow (d) Inhibit catalyst poisoning
reactor tha) for the single CSTR of the same 281.
volume 282.85. A catalyst promoter
(b) Statement in a is wrong (a) Improves the activity of a catalyst
(c) Relative yield decreases with increasing (b) Acts as a catalyst support
conversion (c) Itself has very high activity
(d) Both (a) and (c) hold good (d) All (a) (b) and (c)
271.77. When a high liquid hold up is required in a reactor for a gas- 283.86. A catalyst inhibitor
liquid reaction, (a) Lessens its selectivity
272. use (b) May be useful for suppressing undesirable side
(a) Packed column reaction
(b) Spray column (c) Is added in small quantity during the catalyst
(c) Tray column manufacture itself
(d) Bubble column (d) All (a) (b) and (c)
273. 78. For reactions in parallel viz. AP (desired product) and 284.87. Carbon catalyst accumulated on the catalyst used in the gas
AQ (unwanted product), if the order of the desired reaction is oil cracking lies in the category of :
higher than that of the undesired reaction, a (a) Deposited poison
(a) Batch rector is preferred over a single CSTR for (b) Chemisorbed poison
high yield (c) Selectivity poison
(b) Tubular rector is preferred over a single CSTR for (d) Stability poison
high yield 285.88. Slurry reactors are characterised by
(c) Both (a) and (b) (a) Lack of intra-particle diffusion resistance
(d) A single CSTR is the most suitable (b) Presence of two mobile phase
274.79. In question 78, high yield would be favored ( for gas phase (c) Both (a) and (b)
reactions) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
(a) At high pressure 286.89. A reaction . A 3 B is conducted in a constant pressure
(b) At low pressure vessel. Starting with pure A, the volume of the reaction mixture
(c) By the presence of the inner gases in the reactabt increase 3 times in 6 minutes. The final conversion is
stream (a) 0.33
(d) Both (b) and (c) (b) 0.50
275.80. When all the limiting reactant is consumed in the reaction, (c) 1
the operation yield (d) Data insufficient, cant be predicted
276. (a) Is greater than relative yield 287.90. The most suitable reactor for carrying out an auto-thermal
(b) Is smaller than relative yield reaction is
(c) Equals the relative yield (a) Batch reactor
(d) Can be greater or smaller than relative yield, (b) CSTR
depends on the type of reaction (c) Semi-batch reactor
277.81. Design of heterogeneous catalytic reactor involves (d) Plug-flow reactor
consideration of 288.91 Which of the following factors control the design of a fluid
(a) Only chemical steps solid reactor?
(b) Only physical steps (a) The reaction kinetics for single particle
(c) Both (a) and (b) (b) The size distribution of solids being treated
(d) Neither (a) and (b) (c) Flow patterns of solids and fluids in the reactor
278.82. Pick out the wrong statement (d) All (a) (b) and (c)
(a) A catalyst does not alter the final position of 289.92. Kinetics of solid catalyst reaction can be studied in a
equilibrium in a reversible reaction. (a) Batch reactor
(b) A catalyst initiate a reaction (b) Plug-flow reactor
(c) A catalyst is specific in action (c) Mixed reactor
(d) A catalyst remain unchanged in chemical (d) None of these
composition at the end of the reaction 290.
279.83. Catalyst is a substance which 291.
292. 311. respectively
293. 312. (a) V2O5 and Cr2O3
294.93. For high conversion in highly exothermic solid catalyzed 313. (b) Oxides of nitrogen and Cr2O3
reaction, use a 314. (c) V2O5 on a porous carrier and oxides of nitrogen
(a) Fixed bed reactor 315. (d) oxides of nitrogen and V2O5 on a porous carrier
(b) Fluidized bed reactor followed by a fixed bed 316.2. In contact process, SO3 is absorbed in 97% H2SO4 and not in
reactor water because
(c) Fixed bed reactor followed by a fluidized bed 317. (a) SO3 gas is sparingly soluble in water
reactor 318. (b) water forms an acid mist which is difficult to absorb
(d) Fluidized bed reactor 319. (c) the purity of acid is affected
295.94. In case of staged packed bed reactors carrying out 320. (d) scale formation in absorber is to be avoided
exothermic reaction, use 321.
(a) High recycle for pure glass 322.
(b) Plug flow for dilute liquid require no large 323.
preheating of feed 324.
(c) Cold shot operations for a dilute solution 325.3. Contact process
requiring large preheating to bring the steam up 326. (a) yields acid of higher concentration than chamber
to the reaction temperature process
(d) All (a) (b) and (c) 327. (b) yields acids of lower concentration than chamber process
296.95. Which of the following will give the maximum gas conversion 328. (c) is obsolete
? 329. (d) eliminates absorber
(a) Fixed bed reactor 330.
(b) fluidized reactor 331.4. 20% Oleum means that in 100 lb., there are 20 lb. of
(c) Semi-fluidized reactor 332. (a) SO3 and 80 lb of H2SO4
(d) Plug flow catalytic reactor 333. (b) H2SO4 and 80 lb SO3
297.96. Which of the following factors control the deactivation of a 334. (c) SO3 for each 100 lb of H2SO4
porous catalyst pellet? (d) H2SO4 and 80 lb SO3
(a) Decay reactions 335.5. Producer gas consists mainly of
(b) Pore diffusion 336. (a) CO, CO2, N2, H2
(c) Form of surface attack of poison 337. (b) CO, H2
(d) All (a) (b) and (c) (c) H2, CH4
298.97. BET apparatus is used to determine the (d) C2H2, CO2, H2
(a) Specific surface of porous catalyst 338.6. Oxygen is produced by fraction of air using
(b) Pore size distribution (a) Linde's process
(c) Pore diameter (b) Claude's process
(d) Porosity of the catalyst bed (c) both Linde's and Claude's process
299.98. If pore diffusion is the controlling step in a solid catalyzed (d) Bayer's process
reaction the catalyst 339.7. Raw materials for 'Solvay Process' for manufacture of the
(a) Porosity is very important soda ash are
(b) Porosity is less importance (a) salt, limestone ,ammonia and coke oven gas
(c) Internal surface is utilized efficiently (b) ammonia, salt and limestone
(d) None of these (c) ammonia, limestone and coke
300.99. BET apparatus (d) ammonia and coke oven gas
(a) Measure the catalyst surface area directly 340.8. Economics of 'Solvay Process" depends upon the efficiency
(b) Operates at very high pressure of
(c) Is made entirely by stainless steel (a) carbonating tower
(d) None of these (b) ammonia recovery
301.100. Helium-mercury method can be used to determine the (c) ammonia recovery and size of plant
(a) Pore volume (d) ammoniation of salt solution
(b) Solid density 341.9. Mercury cells for caustic soda manufacture compared to
(c) Porosity of catalyst particle diaphragm cells
(d) All (a) (b) and (c) (a) require lower initial investment
302. (b) require more power
303. (c) produce lower concentration of NaOH
304. (d) none of these
305. 342.10. Cement mainly contains
306. 343. (a)CaO, SiO2, Al2O3
307. b (b) MgO, SiO2, K2O
308. CHEMICAL PROCESS INDUSTRIES 344. (c) Al2O3, MgO, Fe2O3
309. 345.(d) CaO, MgO, K2O
310.1. Catalysts used in the manufacture of sulfuric acid by 346.
chamber and contact processes are 347.
 348. (a) has low free fatty acid-content
349.11. Gypsum is (b) is odorless
(a) calcium chloride (c) has more of unsaturated oil
(b) potassium sulfate (d) none of these
(c) sodium sulfate 372.23. Hydrogenation of oil does not
(d) calcium sulfate (a) remove double bonds
350.12. Glauber's salt is (b) rise in melting point
(a) calcium sulfate (c) improve its resistance oxidation
(b) potassium sulfate (d) none of these
(c) potassium chlorate 373.24. Catalyst used in hydrogenation of oil is
(d) sodium sulfate decahydrate (a) nickel
351.13. Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of (b) platinum
calcium and magnesium (c) iron
(a) bi-carbonates (d) alumina
(b) sulfates and chlorides 374.25. Soaps remove dirt by
(c) carbonate (a) increasing the surface tension
(d) chlorides (b) decreasing wettability
352.14. Widely used method for conditioning of boiler feed water is (c) supplying hydrophilic group
(a) cold lime process (d) none of these
(b) coagulation 375.26. Metallic soap is
(c) hot-lime soda process 376. (a) sodium salt of fatty acids
(d) sequestration 377. (b) potassium salt of fatty acids
353.15. Hydrazine is largely used 378. (c) both sodium and potassium salt of fatty acids
(a) as a starting material for 'hypo' 379. (d) aluminum or calcium salt of fatty acids
(b) in photographic industry 380.
(c) as rocket fuel 381.
(d) in printing industry 382.
354.16. Trinitro-toluene is 383.
(a) used in glycerin manufacture 384.27. Fat splitting catalyst is
(b) an explosive (a) CaCO3
(c) used in dye manufacture (b) ZnO
(d) used in paint manufacture (c) alumina
355.17. Oil is (d) iron
(a) a mixture of glycerides 385.28. Free alkali in toilet soap is
(b) a mixture of glycerides of fatty acids (a) less than that in a laundry soap
(c) solid at normal temperature (b) more than that in a laundry soap
(d) ester of alcohols other than glycerin (c) same as that in a laundry soap
356.18. Wax is (d) not present in laundry soap
357. (a) a mixture of glycerides 386.29. Soap cannot be used with hard water because
358. (b) a mixture of esters of polyhydric alcohols except 387. (a) hard water contains sulfate
glycerin 388. (b) they form insoluble calcium soaps which precipitate
359. (c) liquid at room temperature 389. (c) they attract back the removed dirt
360. (d) a mixture of glycerides of fatty acids 390. (d) they increase the surface tension
361. 391.30. Builders are added in soap to
362. 392. (a) boost cleaning power
363. b (b) act as anti-redeposition agent
364.19. Unsaturated oils compared to saturated oils have 393. (c) act as corrosion inhibitor
365. (a) lower melting point and higher reactivity to oxygen 394. (d) acts as fabric brightener
366. (b) higher melting point and higher reactivity to oxygen 395.31. Bio-degradable detergents
367. (c) lower melting point and lower reactivity to oxygen (a) can be readily oxidized
368. (d) higher melting point and lower reactivity to oxygen (b) pose problem in sewerage plant
369.20. Rancidity of oil can be reduced by (c) have an isoparaffinic structure
(a) decoloration (d) should not be used as it spoils the cloth
(b) hydrogenation 396.32. Which of the following is a detergent?
(c) oxidation (a) fatty alcohol
(d) purification (b) alkyl benzene sulfonate
370.21. Solvent used for extraction of oil is (c) fatty acids
(a) hexane (d) methyl chloride
(b) methyl ethyl ketone 397.33. Yellow glycerin is made into white, using
(c) furfural (a) activated carbon
(d) benzene (b) diatomaceous earth
371.22. Solvent extracted oil (c) bauxite
 (d) bentonite 422. (a) both temperature and pressure in former is less than
398.34. Essential oils are usually obtained using that in the latter
(a) steam distillation 423. (b) both temperature and pressure in former is more
(b) extractive distillation than that in the latter
(c) solvent extraction 424. (c) temperature is more in former whereas pressure is
(d) leaching more in the latter
399. 425. (d) pressure is more in the former whereas temperature is
400. less in the latter
401. 426.45. Cooking liquor in case of sulfite process is
402. 427. (a) sodium sulfite and sodium bisulfite
403.35. Plasticizers are added to paints to 428. (b) magnesium sulfite and free SO2 in acid medium
404. (a) make it corrosion resistant 429. (c) magnesium sulfate and magnesium bicarbonate
405. (b) make glossy surface 430. (d) sodium bisulfite
406. (c) give elasticity and prevent cracking of the film 431.46. Which is a high-grade pulp?
407. (d) increase atmospheric oxidation (a) rag pulp
408.36. Which oil is preferred for paint manufacture? (b) mechanical pulp
(a) drying oil (c) sulfate pulp
(b) non-drying oil (d) sulfite pulp
(c) semi-drying oil 432.47. Which of the following paper does not require a filler during
(d) saturated oil manufacture?
409.37. Function of thinner in a paint is to (a) bond paper
(a) accelerate the oxidation of oil (b) writing paper
(b) prevent gelling of the paint (c) blotting paper
410. (c) suspend pigments and dissolve film-forming (d) colored paper
materials 433.48. Bleaching of paper pulp is done with
411. (d) form a protective film (a) activated clay
412.38. Varnish does not contain (b) bromine
(a) pigment (c) chlorine or chlorine dioxide
(b) thinner (d) magnesium sulfite
(c) dryer 434.49. Sizing material is incorporated in paper to
(d) anti-skinning agent 435. (a) impart resistance to penetration by liquids
413.39. Enamels 436. (b) increase its thickness
(a) give good glossy finish 437. (c) increase its flexibility and opacity
(b) are same as varnish 438. (d) increase its brightness
(c) are prepared from non-drying oil 439.50. Viscose rayon is
(d) do not contain pigment (a) cellulose nitrate
414.40. SO2 is bubbled through hot sugar-cane juice to (b) regenerated cellulose nitrate
(a) act as an acidifying agent (c) regenerated cellulose acetate
(b) increase its concentration (d) regenerated cellulose fiber
(c) increase the amount of molasses 440.
(d) increase the crystal size 441.
415.41. Molasses is the starting material for 442.51. Which of the following coal has the highest calorific value?
(a) alcohol (a) Lignite
(b) essential oil (b) Sub-bituminous
(c) fatty acids (c) Anthracite
(d) ether (d) Peat
416.42. The ideal pulp for the manufacture of paper should have 443.52. The main product of high temperature carbonization is
high (a) Coke
(a) cellulose content (b) Ammonia
(b) lignin content (c) Tar
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) Phenol
(d) neither (a) nor (b) 444.53. High temperature carbonization produces
417. 445. (a) inferior coke compared to low temperature
418. carbonization
419. 446. (b) less of gases compared to liquid products
420.43. In Kraft process of paper manufacture, white cooking liquor 447. (c) larger quantity of tar compared to low temperature
consists of caustic soda carbonization
(a) sodium sulfide, sodium carbonate 448. (d) relatively low tar and yields of gaseous
(b) sodium sulfite, sodium carbonate products are larger than the yield of liquid
(c) sodium sulfite, sodium sulfide 449. products
(d) and sodium carbonate 450.54. High temperature carbonization takes place at
421.44. Comparing sulfate process with sulfite process, we find that (a) 4000 - 5000F
 (b) 950F 475. (a) can give ammonia synthesis gas
(c) > 1650F 476. (b) is a moving bed reactor
(d) < 1000F 477. (c) cannot use cooking coal
451.55. Low temperature carbonization takes place at 478. (d) operate at very high pressure
(a) 500F 479.
(b) 1300F 480.
(c) 750 - 1100F 481.67. Acrylonitrile is mainly used in
(d) 2500 F (a) polymer industry
452.56. Proximate analysis of coal determines (b) printing industry
453. (a) moisture, ash, sulfur, volatile matter (c) dyeing industry
454. (b) moisture, volatile matter (d) photographic industry
455. (c) moisture, sulfur, nitrogen, fixed carbon 482.68. The major use of butadiene is
456. (d) carbon, hydrogen, ash 483. (a) as a plasticizer for unsaturated polyester
457.57. Ultimate analysis of coal determines 484. (b) in the manufacture of synthetic rubber
(a) moisture, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulfur 485. (c) as an anti-skinning agent in paint
(b) carbon, ash, sulfur,nitrogen 486. (d) as corrosion inhibitor
(c) carbon, sulfur, volatile matter, ash 487.69. Phenol is mainly used
(d) carbon,volatile matter, ash, moisture (a) to produce benzene
458.58. Washing of coal is done to (b) to produce phenol formaldehyde
(a) remove the inherent impurities (c) to produce polyester resin
(b) remove the adhering impurities (d) as a plasticizer for unsaturated polyester
(c) reduce the ash content 488.70. Phthalic anhydride is made by
(d) both b and c (a) Oxidation of naphthalene
459. (b) Oxidation of benzene
460. (c) Dehydrogenation of ethyl benzene
461.59. A good quality coal should have (d) Oxidation of toluene
462. (a) low fusion point of ash 489.71. Trinitrotoluene (TNT), an explosive, is made by nitration of
463. (b) high ash content 490. (a) nitrobenzene
c (c) high sulfur content 491. (b) toluene
d (d) none of these 492. (c) nitrotoluene
464.60. Coke oven gas consists mainly of 493. (d) benzene
(a) H2, CH4 494.72. Which is the most suitable dye for synthetic fibers?
(b) CO, CO2 (a) acid dye
(c) H2, CO (b) azoic dye
(d) CH4, CO (c) pigment dye
465.61. Lurgi coal gasifier is a pressurized (d) mordant dye
(a) moving bed reactor 495.73. Fumigant insecticides
(b) fixed bed reactor 496. (a) kill insects when they eat it
(c) fluidized bed reactor 497. (b) emit poisonous vapor
(d) entrained bed reactor (c) are absorbed throughout the plant
466.62. In Lurgi gasifier (d) are stomach poisons
467. (a) cooking coals cannot be used 498.74. Systemics insecticides
468. (b) low carbon conversion efficiency is achieved (a) are absorbed throughout the plant
469. (c) entrainment of solids is higher (b) kill insects following external bodily contact
470. (d) large quantity of coal can be processed (c) are stomach poisons
471.63. The catalyst used in shift converter is (d) emit poisonous vapor
(a) nickel 499.
(b) vanadium 500.
(c) silica gel 501.
(d) alumina 502.
472.64. The gasification reaction C + H2O CO + H2 is 503.75. DDT stands
(a) diethyl-diphenyl-trichloromethane
(a) exothermic (b) dichloro-diphenyl-trichloromethane
(b) endothermic (c) diphenyl-dichloro-trichloromethane
(c) catalytic (d) dichloro-diphenyl-trichloroethane
(d) autocatalytic 504.76. BHC (Benzene hexa-chloride) is made by chlorination of
473.65. The combustion reaction C + O2 CO2 is benzene
(a) exothermic (a) which is an addition reaction
(b) endothermic (b) which is a substitution reaction
(c) autocatalytic (c) in absolute dark
(d) catalytic (d) in presence of sunlight
474.66. Kopper-Totzek coal gasifier 505.77. Analgesic drugs are
 (a) pain relievers (d) another name for silicon rubber
(b) antibiotics 525.89. Nylon-6 is manufactured from
(c) used in the treatment of TB 526. (a) caprolactam
(d) used in the treatment of typhoid 527. (b) hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid
506.78. Antibiotic 528. (c) hexamethylene diamine and maleic anhydride
507. (a) prohibits/destroys the growth of micro-organism 529. (d) hexamethylene diamine and sebacic acid
508. (b) is used as pain reliever 530.90. Nylon 6-6 is manufactured from
e (c) is an anti-malaria 531. (a) hexamethylene diamine adipic acid
509. (d) is an anaesthetic 532. (b) hexamethylene diamine and maleic anhydride
510.79. Penicillin is made employing 533. (c) caprolactam
(a) continuous fermentation process 534. (d) dimethyl terephthalate and ethylene glycol
(b) aerobic batch fermentation 535.
(c) anaerobic batch fermentation 536.
(d) aerobic or anaerobic batch fermentation 537.
511. 80. Which of the following is not an antibiotic? 538.
(a) penicillin 539.91. Dacron is
(b) streptomycin (a) a polyester
(c) tetracyclin (b) an unsaturated polyester
(d) quinine (c) a polyamide
512.81. Molecular weights of polymers are in the range of (d) an inorganic polymer
(a) 10 - 1000 540.92. Celluloid is
(b) 105 - 109 (a) cellulose acetate
(c) 103 - 107 (b) regenerated cellulose
(d) 105 - 107 (c) cellulose nitrate
513.82. Zeigler process (d) cellulose acetate butyrate
514. (a) produces high density polyethylene 541.93. Thermoplastic materials
(b) produces low density polyethylene (a) do not soften on application of heat
(c) uses no catalyst (b) are heavily branched molecules
(d) employs very high pressure (c) are solvent insoluble
515. (d) are capable of softening or fusing when heated and of
516. hardening again when cooled
517. 542.94. Thermosetting materials
518. (a) are capable of becoming permanently rigid when
519.83. Poly-Vinyl Chloride (PVC) is heated or cured
(a) thermosetting (b) soften on application of heat
(b) thermoplastic (c) are solvent insoluble
(c) a fibrous material (d) are heavily branched molecules
(d) chemically active 543.95. Type of glass used in optical work is
520.84. Phenol formaldehyde (a) soda-lime glass
(a) employs addition polymerization (b) fiber glass
(b) employs condensation polymerization (c) lead glass
(c) is a monomer (d) borosilicate glass
(d) is an abrasive material 544.96. Silicon carbide is
521.85. Epoxy resin (a) an adhesive
(a) is a good adhesive (b) an abrasive
(b) is an elastomer (c) a type of glass
(c) cannot be used on surface coatings (d) brittle
(d) is a polyester 545.97. The temperature in the calcium carbide furnace is
522.86. Vulcanization of rubber (a) 200 - 300C
(a) decreases its tensile strength (b) 700 - 850C
(b) increases its ozone and oxygen reactivity (c) 2000 -2200C
(c) increases its oil and solvent resistant (d) 4000 - 4500C
(d) converts its plasticity into elasticity 546.98. Cumene (Isopropyl benzene) is made by
523.87. Most commonly used rubber vulcanizing agent is 547. (a) oxidation of naphthalene
(a) sulfur 548. (b) propylene alkylation of benzene
(b) bromine 549. (c) polymerization of a mixture of benzene and propylene
(c) platinum 550. (d) polymerization of propylene
(d) alumina 551.
524.88. Styrene butadiene rubber (SBR) is 552.
(a) a natural rubber 553.99. Glycerin can be obtained from
(b) a synthetic polymer (a) fat
(c) a synthetic monomer (b) naphthalene
 (c) cumene (c) bacteria
(d) sucrose 577. (d) all a, b and c
554.100. Cumene is the starting material for the production of 578.111. Use of hydrated lime in water treatment
(a) benzoic acid 579. (a) before filtration, reduces the bacterial load on filters
(b) phenol and acetone (e) after filtration, combats the corrosiveness of
(c) isoprene water due to presence of O2 and CO2
(d) styrene 580.(c) is to adjust the pH value
555.101. Which of the following is not responsible for causing 581. (d) all a, b and c
permanent hardness of water? 582.112. The purpose of adding Na2CO3 to water of low alkalinity is
(a) Ca(HCO3)2 to
(b) CaCl2 583. (a) permit the use of alum as a coagulant
(c) MgCl2 584. (b) increase the softening capacity of zeolite
(d) NaCl 585. (c) facilitate the easy regeneration of zeolite
556.102. Zeolite used in water softening process (cation exchange) 586. (d) all a, b and c
is regenerated by washing 587.113. Pick out the true statement pertaining to water treatment
557. with (a) Slow sand filters can remove color completely
(a) brine (b) Activated carbon can be used for taste and odor control
(b) chloramines without subsequent filtration
(c) sodium bisulfite 588. (c) Application of activated carbon reduces the temporary
558. (d) liquid chlorines hardness of water
559.103. Presence of H2S in raw water (to be chlorinated) results in 589. (d) Normally, the turbidity is removed by adding a
560. (a) reduced softening capacity of zeolite coagulant prior to sedimentation
561. (b) increase dosage of chlorine to provide a 590.
disinfecting residual in the water 591.
562. (c) easy removal of its hardness 592.
563. (d) residual turbidity 593.
564.104. Lime and soda ash are added to water to remove 594.
(a) bicarbonates and sulfates of calcium and magnesium 595.
(b) undesirable taste and odor 596.114. Pick out the false statement pertaining to water treatment
(c) bacteria 597. (a) Aeration of water is effective in CO2 removal
(d) its corrosiveness f (b) The zeolite water softening process reduces the
565.105. Chloramines are used in water treatment for hardness of water by not more
566. (a) disinfection and control of taste and odor 598. than 50%
599. (c) Sodium sulfate or sodium carbonates do not cause
567. (b) corrosion control hardness in water
568. (c) removing turbidity 600. (d) Water with pH value less than 7, is acidic
569. (d) control of bacteria 601.115. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to solvent
570.106. Deaeration of water in its treatment is necessary as it extraction of oil
(a) minimizes its turbidity 602. Rate of extraction.
(b) helps in controlling its taste and odor 603. (a) decreases with decrease of thickness of the flakes
(c) minimizes its corrosiveness 604. (b) increases with the increasing flake size keeping the
(d) controls bacteria flake thickness constant
571.107. Sodium Bisulfate is used for 605. (c) increases considerably with the rise of temperature
(a) deaeration of water g (d) decreases as the moisture content of flakes increases
(b) dechlorination of water 606.116. Fats as compared to oils have
572. (c) both a and b 607. (a) more unsaturated glycerides of fatty acids
573. (d) neither a nor b 608. (b) less unsaturated glycerides of fatty acids
574.108. Dechlorination of treated water is necessary to 609. (c) much higher reactivity to oxygen
(a) remove residual turbidity h (d) lower melting point
(b) reduce the bacterial load on filter 610.117. Salt is added in the kettle during soap manufacture to
(c) control taste and odor separate
(d) remove chlorinous taste (a) soap from lye
575.109. The main used of the activated carbon in water treatment (b) glycerin from lye
is to control (c) the metallic soap
(a) bacterial growth (d) the unsaponified fat from soap
(b) taste and odor 611. 118. Hydrazine (N2H4) is used mainly as
(c) turbidity 612. (a) explosive
(d) corrosion 613. (b) rocket fuel
576.110. Alum [Al2(SO4)3] is used as a coagulant in water treatment i (c) an additive in detergent
to remove j (d) catalyst
(a) color 614.119. Oils are partially hydrogenated (not fully) to manufacture
(b) turbidity vanaspati, because fully saturated
615. solidified oils 647.FLOW OF FLUIDS
616. (a) cause cholesterol build up and blood clotting 648.
617. (b) are prone to rancid oxidation 649.
618. (c) always contain some amount of nickel (as their 650.
complete removal is very difficult) 1. A fluid is one which
619. (d) have affinity to retain harmful sulfur compounds (a) cannot remain at rest under the action of shear force
620.120. Hydrogenation of oil takes place in (b) continuously expands till it fills any container
(a) an autothermal reactor (c) is incompressible
(b) a trickle bed reactor (d) permanently resists distortion
(c) a plug flow reactor 651.
(d) backmix reactor 2. In an incompressible fluid density
621. (a) is greatly affected by moderate changes in pressure
622. (b) is greatly affected only by moderate changes in
623.121. Temperature during hydrogenation of oil should not be temperature
more than 200C, otherwise it will (c) remains unaffected with moderate change in
624. result in temperature and pressure
(a) pyrolysis of oil (d) is sensible to changes in both temperature and pressure
(b) sintering of porous catalyst 652.
(c) hydrogen embrittlement 3. Potential flow is the flow of
(d) all a, b and c (a) compressible fluids with shear
625.122. Shaving soaps are (b) compressible fluids with no shear
(a) soft potassium soaps (potassium salt of fatty acid) (c) incompressible fluids with shear
with free stearic acid to give (d) incompressible fluids with no shear
626. lather a lasting property 653.
627. (b) metallic soaps compounded with frothing agents 4. Potential flow is characterized by
628. (c) high free alkali soaps having excess of cane sugar and (a) irrotational and frictionless flow
alcohol (b) irrotational and frictional flow
629. (d) usually soap soaps (c) one in which dissipation of mechanical energy into heat
630.123. Transparent soaps (e.g. Pears) are occurs
(a) usually soft soaps (made from coconut oil) in which (d) the formation of eddies within the stream
cane sugar and alcohol are 654.
631. added and finally washed with methylate 5. Newtons law of viscosity relates
spirit to achieve transparency (a) shear stress and velocity
632. (b) metallic soaps with frothing agent and free stearic acid (b) velocity gradient and pressure intensity
to achieve transparency (c) shear stress and rate of angular deformation in a fluid
633. (c) metallic soaps with frothing agent from which glycerin (d) pressure gradient and rate of angular deformation
has not been recovered 655.
634. (d) high free alkali soaps having excess of cane sugar and 6. Dimension of viscosity is
alcohol 656.(a) ML-1T-1 657.(b) MLT-1
-1
635. 124. Glycerin is recovered from lye by 658.(c) MLT T 659.(d) MLT
636. (a) evaporation followed by vacuum distillation 660.
637. (b) liquid extraction technique 7. Poise is converted into stoke by
638. (c) extractive distillation technique (a) multiplying with density (gm/c.c.)
639. (d) steam distllation (b) dividing with density (gm/c.c.)
640.125. Glycerin is not used in the (c) multiplying with specific gravity
641. (a) manufacture of explosive (d) dividing with specific gravity
642. (b) conditioning and humidification of tobacco 661.
643. (c) manufacture of pharmaceuticals 662.
644. (d) manufacture of caustic soda 663.
645. 8. Dimension of kinematic viscosity is
646. 664.(a) ML-2 665.(b) L2T-1
2
666.(c) L T 667.(d) L2T2
668.
9. With increase in the temperature viscosity of a liquid
669.(a) increase 670.(b) decreases
671.(c) remains constant 672.(d) first decreases and then
673.
10. For water, when the pressure increases the viscosity
674.(a) also increases 675.(b) decreases
676.(c) remains constant 677.(d) first decreases and th
678. 696.
679. 17. Mass velocity is the independent of temperature and pressure
11. The pressure intensity is the same in all direction at a point in a when the flow is
fluid (a) unsteady through uncharged cross-section
(a) only when the fluid is frictionless (b) steady through changing cross-section
(b) only when the fluid is at rest having zero velocity (c) steady and the cross-section is unchanged
(c) when there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an (d) unsteady ant the cross-section is changed
adjacent layer 697.
(d) regardless of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an 18. In turbulent flow
adjacent layer (a) the fluid particles move in an orderly manner
680. (b) momentum transfer is on molecular scale only
12. Choose the set of pressure intensities that are equivalent (c) shear stress is caused more effectively by cohesion than
(a) 4.33 psi, 10 ft. of water, 8.83 inches of Hg. momentum transfer
(b) 4.33 psi, 10 ft. of water, 20.7 inches of Hg. (d) shear stresses are generally larger than in a similar
(c) 10 psi, 19.7 ft. of water, 23.3 inches of Hg. laminar flow
(d) 10 psi, 19.7 ft of water, 5.3 inches of Hg. 698.
681. 19. Turbulant flow generally occurs for cases involving
13. For a fluid rotating at constant angular velocity about vertical 699.
axis as a rigid body, the pressure intensity varies as the 700.(a) highly viscous fluid 701.(b) very narrow passages
(a) square of the radial distance 702.(c) very slow motion 703.(d) none of these
(b) radial distance linearly 704.
(c) averse of the radial distance 20. An ideal fluid is
(d) elevation along vertical direction (a) frictionless and incompressible
682. (b) one which obeys Newtons law of viscosity
14. The center of pressure is 705.(c) highly viscous 706.(d) none of these
(a) always below the centroid of the area 707.
(b) always above the centroid of the area 708.21.Steady flow occurs when
(c) a point on the line of action of the resultant force (a) conditions change steadily with time
(d) at the centroid of the submerge area (b) conditions are the same at the adjacent points at any
683. instant
15. A rectangular surface 3x4, has the lower 3 edge horizontal and (c) conditions do not change with time at any point
6 below a free oil surface (sp. gr. 0.8). The surface inclination is (d) rate of change of velocity is constant
300 with the horizontal. The force in one side of the surface is : 709.
(y = specific weight of water) 22. Which of the following must be followed by the flow of fluid (real
684. or ideal)?
685.(a) 39.6y 686.(b) 48y (i) Newtons law of viscosity
687.(c) 49.2y 688.(d) 58y (ii) Newtons second law of motion
689. (iii) the continuity equation
690. (iv) velocity of boundary must be zero relative to boundary
16. Fill up the blanks (v) fluid cannot penetrate a boundary
691.A stream tube is that which has cross-section 710.(a) I, II, III 711. (b) II, III, V
entirely bounded by stream lines. 712.(c) I, II, V 713.(d) II, III, V
692.(a) a circular 693.(b) any convenient 714.
694.(c) a small 695.(d) a large 715.23. Discharge (ft3/sec) from a 24 inch pipe of water at 10 ft/sec
will be
716.(a) 7.65 717.(b) 32.36
718.(c) 48.22 719.(d) 125.6
720.
721.24. The unit velocity head is
722.(a) ft-lb/sec 723.(b) ft-lb/ft3
724.(c) ft-lbf/lb.m 725.(d) ft-lb.f/sec
726.
727.25. Bernoullis equation describes
(a) mechanical energy balance in potential flow
(b) kinetic energy balance in laminar flow
(c) mechanical energy balance in turbulent flow
(d) mechanical energy balance in boundary layer
728.
729.26. The kinetic energy correction factor for velocity distribution
of laminar flow is
730.(a) 0.5 731.(b) 1.66
732.(c) 1 733.(d) 2
734. 766.
735.27. The momentum correction factor for the velocity distribution 767.
of laminar flow is 768.32. Shear stress in a fluid flowing in a round pipe
736.(a) 1.3 737.(b) 1.66 (a) varies parabolically across the cross-section
738.(c) 2.5 739.(d) none of these (b) remains constant over the cross-section
740. (c) is zero at the center and varies linearly with the radius
741.28. The loss due to sudden expansion is (d) is zero at the wall and increase linearly to the center
(a) V12 V22 (b) (V1 V2)3 769.
742. 2gc 743. 2gC 770.33. Discharge in laminar flow through a pipe varies
(c) V1 V2 745.(d) none of these (a) as the square of the radius
744. 2gc (b) inversely as the pressure drop
746. (c) inversely as the velocity
747.29. The loss due to sudden contraction is proportional to (d) as the square of the diameter
748.(a) velocity 749.(b) velocity head 771.
750.(c) turbulence 751.(d) none of these 772.34. Boundary layer separation is caused by
752. (a) reduction of pressure below vapor pressure
753.30. The value of critical Reynolds number for pipe flow is (b) reduction of pressure gradient to zero
754.(a) 1300 755.(b) 10,000 (c) an adverse pressure gradient
756.(c) 100,000 757.(d) none of these (d) reduction of boundary layer thickness to zero
758. 773.
759. 774.35. The friction factor for turbulent flow in a hydraulically smooth
760.31. Reynolds number flow of water at room temperature through pipe
2 cm diameter pipe at (a) depends only on Reynolds number
761. average velocity of 5 cm/sec is around (b) does not depend on Reynolds number
762.(a) 2000 763.(b) 10 (c) depends on the roughness
764.(c) 100 765.(d) 1000 (d) none of these
775.
776.36. For a given Reynolds number, in hydraulically smooth pipe,
further smoothing
(a) brings about no further reduction of friction factor
(b) increases the friction factor
(c) decreases the friction factor
(d) none of these
777.
778.37. Hydraulic radius is the ratio of
(a) wetted perimeter to flow area
(b) flow area to wetted perimeter
(c) flow area to square of wetted perimeter
(d) square root of flow area to wetted perimeter
779.
780.38. Hydraulic radius of 6 x 12 c/s is
781.(a) 2 782.(b) 0.5
783.(c) 1.5 784.(d) none of these
785.
786.39. Reynolds number is the ratio of
(a) viscous forces to gravity forces
(b) inertial forces to viscous forces
(c) viscous forces to inertial forces
(d) inertial forces to gravity forces
787.
788.40. Mach. number is the ratio of the speed of the
789.(a) fluid of that of the light 790.(b) light to that of the fluid
791.(c) fluid to that of thesound 792.(d) sound to that of the flu
793. 839.
794. 840.51. Drag co-efficient CD is given by (in Stokes law range)
795. (a) CD = 16 (b) CD = 24
796. 841. Re.p 842. Re.p
797.41. Power loss in an orifice meter is (c) CD = 18.4 (d) CD = 0.079
(a) less than that in a venturi meter 843. Re.p 844. Re.p
(b) same as that in a venturi meter 845.
(c) more than that in a venturi meter 846.52. At low Reynolds number
(d) data insufficient, cannot be predicted (a) viscous forces are unimportant
798. (b) viscous forces control
799. (c) viscous forces control and inertial forces are
800.42. The velocity profile for turbulent flow through a closed unimportant
conduit is (d) gravity forces control
801.(a) logarithmic 802.(b) parabolic 847.53. At high Reynolds number
803.(c) hyperbolic 804.(d) linear (a) inertial forces control and viscous forces are
805. unimportant
806.43. For laminar flow through a closed conduit (b) viscous forces predominate
807.(a) Vmax = 2 Vav 808.(b) Vmax = Vav (c) inertial forces are unimportant and viscous forces control
809.(c) Vmax = 1.5 Vav 810.(d) Vav = 2 Vmax (d) none of these
811. 848.
812.44. f = 16/NRe is valid for 849.54. For flow of fluid through packed bed, the superficial velocity
(a) turbulent flow is
(b) laminar flow through an open channel (a) less than the average velocity through channels
813.(c) steady flow 814.(d) none of these (b) more than the average velocity through channels
815. (c) dependent on the pressure drop across the bed
816.45. Isotropic turbulence occurs (d) same as the average velocity through channels
(a) where there is no velocity gradient 850.
(b) at higher temperatures 851.55. Pressure drop in a packed bed for laminar flow is given by
(c) only in newtonion fluid 852.(a) Kozeny-Carman equation 853.(b) Blake-Plummer equa
(d) none of these 854.(c) Levas equation 855.(d) none of these
817. 856.
818.46. Consider two pipes of same length and diameter through 857.56. Pressure drop in a packed bed for turbulent flow is given by
which water is passed at the same velocity. The friction factor 858.(a) Kozeny-Carman equation 859.(b) Blake-Plummer equa
for rough pipe is f1 and that for smooth pipe is f2. Pick out the 860.(c) Levas equation 861.(d) none of these
correct statement.
819.(a) f1 = f2 820.(b) f1 < f2
821.(c) f1 > f2 822.(d) data not sufficient to relate
823.
824.47. Bernoullis equation for steady frictionless, continuous flow
states that
(a) total pressure at all sections is same
(b) total energy at all section is same
(c) velocity head at all section is same
(d) none of these
825.
826.48. Drag is defined as the force exerted by the
(a) fluid on the solid in a direction opposite to flow
(b) the fluid on the solid in the direction of flow
827.(c) the solid on the fluid 828.(d) none of these
829.
830.
831.
832.49. Drag co-efficient for flow past immersed body is the ratio of
(a) shear stress to the product of velocity head density
(b) shear force to the product of velocity head and density
(c) average drag per unit projected area to the product of
velocity head and density
(d) none of these
833.
834.50. Stokes law is valid when the particle Reynolds number is
835.(a) < 1 836.(b) > 1
837.(c) < 5 838.(d) none of these
862. 883.
863. 884.
864. 885.62. In continuous fluidization
865. (a) solids are completely entrained
866. (b) the pressure drop less than that for batch fluidisation
867. (c) there is no entrainment of solids
868.57. Force acting on a particle settling in fluid are (d) velocity of the fluid is very small
(a) gravitational and bouyant forces 886.
(b) centrifugal and drag forces 887.63. Pressure drop in fluidized bed reactor is
(c) gravitational or centrifugal, bouyant and drag forces (a) less than that in a similar packed bed reactor
(d) external, drag and viscous forces (b) more than that in a similar packed bed reactor
869. (c) same as that in a similar packed bed reactor
870.58. Terminal velocity is (d) none of these
(a) a constant velocity with no acceleration 888.
(b) a fluctuating velocity 889.
(c) attained after moving one-haft of total distance 890.
(d) none of these 891.
871. 892.
872.59. In hindered settling, particles are 893.64. Slugging in a fluidized bed can be avoided by
(a) placed farther from wall (a) using tall narrow vessel
(b) not affected by other particles and the wall (b) using deep bed solids
873.(c) near each other 874.(d) none of these (c) the proper choice of particle size and by using shallow
875. beds of solids
876.60. Drag co-efficient in hindered settling is (d) using very large particles
(a) lesser than in free settling 894.
(b) equal to that in free settling 895.65. Minimum porosity for fluidization is
(c) not necessarily greater than in free settling (a) that corresponding to static bed
(d) greater than free settling (b) that corresponding to completely fluidized bed
877. (c) the porosity of the bed when true fluidization begins
878.61. For the free settling of a spherical particle through a fluid, (d) less than that of the static bed
the slope of CD log NRe, plot is 896.
879.(a) 1 880.(b) 1 897.66. In a fluidized bed reactor
881.(c) 0.5 882.(d) 0.5 (a) temperature gradients are very high
(b) temperature is more or less uniform
(c) hot spot formed
(d) segregation of the solids occurs
898.
899.67. Lower BWG means
(a) lower thickness tube
(b) lower cross-section of tube
(c) outer diameter of tube
(d) inner diameter of tube
900.
901.68. Cavitation occurs in a centrifugal pump when
(a) the suction pressure < vapour pressure of the liquid at
that temperature
(b) the suction pressure > vapour pressure of the liquid at that
temperature
(c) the suction pressure = vapour pressure
(d) the suction pressure = developed head
902.
903.69. Cavitation can be prevented by
(a) suitably designing the pump
(b) maintaining the suction head sufficiently greater than
the vapour pressure
(c) maintaining suction head = developed head
(d) maintaining suction head lower than the vapour pressure
904.
905.70. Priming needed in a
906.(a) reciprocating pump 907.(b) gear pump
908.(c) centrifugal pump 909.(d) diaphragm pump
910. 965.
911. 71. The maximum depth from which a centrifugal pump can 966.81. Propellers are
draw water 967.(a) axial flow mixers 968.(b) low speed impeller
(a) dependent on the speed N of the pump (c) used for mixing liquids of high viscosity
(b) dependent on the power of the pump (d) radial flow mixers
912.(c) 34 feet 913.(d) 150 feet 969.
914. 970.
915. 971.
916.72. Boiler feed pump is usually a 972.82. Turbine impeller
917.(a) reciprocating pump 918.(b) gear pump (a) produces only radial current
919.(c) multisatge centrifugal pump 920.(d) diaphragm pump (b) produces only tangential current
921. (c) is effective over wide range of viscosities
922.73. Plunger pumps are used for (d) does not produce tangential current
923.(a) higher pressure 924.(b) slurries 973.
925.(c) viscous mass 926.(d) none of these 974.83. With increase in pump speed, its NPSH requirement
927. 975.(a) decreases 976.(b) increases
928.74. Molten soap mass is transported by a (c) remains unaltered
929.(a) diaphragm pump 930.(b) reciprocating pump (d) can either increase or decrease, depends on other factors
931.(c) gear pump 932.(d) centrifugal pump 977.
933. 978.84. One dimensional flow implies
934.75. To handle smaller quantity of fluid at high discharge 979.(a) Flow in the straight line 980.(b) steady uniform flow
pressure use 981.(c) unsteady uniform flow
935.(a) reciprocating pump 936.(b) centrifugal pump 982.(d) a flow which does not account changes in
937.(c) volute pump 938.(d) rotary vacuum pump transverse direction
939. 983.
940.76. The head developed by a centrifugal pump is largely 984.85. In case of centrifugal fan or blower, the gas capacity varies
determined by the as
(a) power of the pump 985.(a) spect speed 986.(b) (speed)
(b) nature of the liquid being pumped 987.(c) (speed)3 988.(d) none of these
(c) angle of the vanes and the speed of the tip of the
impeller
(d) vapour pressure of the liquid
941.
942.77. The maximum head that can be developed with a single
impeller is
943.(a) 25 ft. 944.(b) 1000 ft.
945.(c) 250 300 ft. 946.(d) 1000 ft.
947.
948.78. A fluid jet discharging from a 2 diameter orifice has a
diameter of 1.75 at its vena-contracta. The co-efficient of
contraction is
949.(a) 1.3 950.(b) 0.766
951.(c) 0.87 952.(d) none of these
953.
954.79. The discharge through a V-notch weir varies as
955.(a) H3/2 956.(b) H1/2
5/2
957.(c) H 958.(d) none of these
959.
960.80. The discharge through a rectangular weir varies as
961.(a) H1/2 962.(b) H3/2
963.(c) H2/5 964.(d) none of these
989. 997.(a) atmospheric pressure 998.(b) sub-atmospheric press
990.86. The continuity equation (c) pressure difference between two points
(a) relates mass flow rate along a stream tube (d) none of these
(b) relates work and energy 999.
(c) stipulates that Newtons second law of motion must be 1000.
satisfied at every point in the fluid 1001. 90. Velocity distribution for flow between the fixed parallel
(d) none of these plates
991. (a) varies parabolically across the section
992.87. For a specific centrifugal air blower operating at constant (b) is constant over the entire cross section
speed and capacity the power requirement and pressure vary (c) is zero at the plates and increases linearly to the midplane
(a) directly as squares of gas density (d) none of these
(b) directly as gas density 1002.
(c) directly as square root of density 1003. 91. While starting a centrifugal pump, its delivery valve
(d) inversely as gas density should be kept
993. 1004. (a) opened 1005. (b) closed
994.88. Foot valves are provided in the suction line of a centrifugal (c) either opened or closed; it does not make any difference
pump to (d) either opened or closed; depending on the fluid viscosity
(a) avoid priming every time we start the pump 1006.
(b) remove the contaminant present in the liquid 1007. 92. Path followed by water jet issuing from the bottom of a
(c) minimize the fluctuation in dischrarge water tank will be a
(d) control the liquid discharge (a) parabola (vertex being at the opening)
995. (b) hyperbolic
996.89. Differential manometer measures (c) horizontal straight line
(d) zig-zag path (which is geometrically undefined)
1008.
1009. 93. A centrifugal pump loses prime after starting. The
reason of this trouble may be
1010. (a) incomplete priming 1011. (b) too high a suction
1012. (c) low available NPSH and air leaks in the suction
pipe
(d) all a, b, and c
1013.
1014. 94. Capacity of a rotary gear pump can be varied by
(a) changing the speed of rotation
(b) bleeding air into suction
(c) bypassing liquid from the suction or discharge line
(d) all a, b, and c
1015.
1016. 95. For liquid flow through a packed bed, the superficial
velocity as compared to average velocity through the channel in
the bed is
1017. (a) more 1018. (b) less
1019. (c) equal 1020. (d) independent of
porosity
1021.
1022. 96. Reciprocating pumps compared to centrifugal pumps
(a) deliver liquid at uniform pressure
(b) can handle slurries more efficiently
(c) are not subject to air binding
(d) can be operated with delivery valve closed
1023.
1024. 97. A tube is specified by its
1025. (a) thickness only 1026. (b) oute
diameter
1027. (c) thickness and outer diameter 1028. (d) inne
both diameter
1029. 1083.
1030. 1084.
1031. 1085.
1032. 98. For pipes that must be broken at intervals for 1086.
maintenance, the connector used should be a 1087.
1033. (a) union 1034. (b) tee 1088. 107. A centrifugal pump has the following specifications:
1035. (c) reduces 1036. (d) elbow 1089. Power 4 H.P.; Speed 800 rpm
1037. 1090. Head 8 meters; Flow 1000 liters/minutes
1038. 99. If more than two branches of pipes are to be connected 1091. If its speed is halved , then the new head will be
at the same point, then use 1092. (a) 2 m 1093. (b) 4 m
1039. (a) elbow 1040. (b) union 1094. (c) 8 m 1095. (d) 5.5 m
1041. (c) tee 1042. (d) none of these 1096.
1043. 1097. 108. In question No. 107, the power consumed now will be
1044. 100. The most economical valve for use with large 1098. (a) 0.5 H.P. 1099. (b) 2 H.P.
diameter pipes is 1100. (c) 4 H.P. 1101. (d) 1 H.P.
1045. (a) butterfly valve 1046. (b) globe valve 1102.
1047. (c) needle valve 1048. (d) none of these 1103. 109. In question No. 107, the new discharge will be
1049. 1104. (a) 500 liters/min. 1105. (b) 200 liter/min
1050. 101. Which of the following factors does not contribute to the 1106. (c) 1000 liter/min 1107. (d) 750 liter/min
pressure drop in a pipeline? 1108.
1051. (a) velocity of liquid 1052. (b) size of 1109. 110. Interstage coolers are provided in a multistage
pipe compressor to
1053. (c) length of pipe and number of 1054. (d) none of (a) save power in compressing a given volume to a
bends these given pressure
1055. (b) cool the delivered air
1056. 102. Which of the following can be used to create a flow of (c) achieve the exact delivery
gas where no significant compression is required? (d) none of these
1057. (a) reciprocating 1058. (b) blower 1110.
compressor 1111. 111. Surge tanks are provided in high pressure water
1059. (c) axial flow compressor 1060. (d) centrifugal pipelines to
compressor (a) store a definite quantity of water all the time
1061. (b) reduce water hammer
1062. 103. Erosion and pits formation on the impeller of a (c) facilities easy dismantling of pipeline for cleaning and
centrifugal pump may be due to maintenance
1063. (a) cavitation 1064. (b) low speed of impeller (d) none of these
(c) its operation with delivery valve closed for considerable 1112.
time after starting the pump 1113. 112. Pipes having diameter 14 inches or more are
(d) off centering of pump with motor designated by their
1065. 1114. (a) outside diameter 1115. (b) inside diameter
1066. 104. Which of the following valves will incur maximum 1116. (c) schedule number 1117. (d) none of these
pressure drop for the same discharge of water? 1118.
1067. (a) globe valve 1068. (b) gate valve 1119. 113. Disc compensators are provided in large diameter
1069. (c) needle valve 1070. (d) butterfly valve gas carrying pipelines to
1071. (a) keep the pipe in proper orientation
1072. 105. While starting on axial flow pump, its delivery valve (b) make the pipe joint leak-proof
should be kept (c) account for contraction/ expansion of pipe due to
1073. (a) open 1074. (b) closed temperature changes of the surroundings
1075. (c) either open or closed 1076. (d) none of these (d) account for pressure variation inside the pipelines
1077. 1120.
1078. 106. Identification of pipelines carrying different liquids and 1121. 114. Nominal Pipe Size (NPS) of a pipe less than 12 inches
gases is done by in diameter indicates its
1079. (a) diameter of the pipe 1080. (b) color of the1122.
pipe (a) inner diameter 1123. (b) outer diameter
1081. (c) the altitude of at which pipe is located 1082. (d) none of these 1124. (c) thickness 1125. (d) neither inner o
outer
1126. (c) thick molten soap at 80C
1127. (d) none of the above
1128. 1148.
1129. 1149. 120. Volute type of casing is provided in a centrifugal pump
1130. to
1131. 115. The most important factor which determines the (a) convert velocity head to pressure head
maximum height to which water can be lifted by a pump at (b) convert pressure head to velocity head
standard temperature (62F) is (c) reduce the discharge fluctuation
1132. (a) barometric pressure 1133. (b) speed of the impeller (d) increase the discharge
1134. (c) diameter of the 1135. (d) both b and c 1150.
impeller 1151. 121. A pump operating under specific conditions delivers
1136. insufficient quantity of liquid. This may be set right by
1137. 116. Bear pump (a) decreasing the size of the inlet pipe
(a) is a positive displacement pump (b) increasing the size of the inlet pipe
(b) is a centrifugal pump (c) lowering the pump position
(c) is a non-positive displacement pump (d) both b and c
(d) can be started with delivery valve closed 1152.
1138. 1153. 122. Delivery of insufficient quantity of liquid by a pump
1139. 117. When the water is warm, the height to which it can be may be caused by
lifted by a pump 1154. (a) air leak in the inlet 1155. (b) low rpm
(a) decreases due to reduced velocity 1156. (c) too high a lift 1157. (d) all a, b and c
(b) decreases due to reduced vapor pressure 1158.
(c) increases due to increased vapor pressure 1159.
(d) decreases due to increased frictional resistance 1160.
1140. 1161. 123. Actual lift of pump always less than the theoretical
1141. 118. Multistage centrifugal pumps are generally used for lift and is limited by
1142. (a) high head 1143. (b) low head but high discharged (a) specific gravity and temperature of the liquid
1144. (c) highly viscous liquid 1145. (d) slurries of high solid concentration
(b) leakage and pressure decreasing at higher elevations
1146. (c) frictional resistance through pipes, fittings and passages
1147. 119. Centrifugal pump cant be used to pump (d) all a, b and c
(a) molten sodium (used as a coolant in Fast Breeder 1162.
Reactor) 1163. 124. Fill up the blank
(b) moderately vegetable oil used in soap industry 1164. Nominal size of the discharge pipe of a pump is
usually the nominal size of the inlet pipe
1165. (a) smaller than 1166. (b) larger than
1167. (c) same as 1168. (d) twice
1169.
1170. 125. Horsepower requirement for given pump capacity
depends upon the
1171. (a) specific gravity of the liquid 1172. (b) suction lift
1173. (c) discharge head 1174. (d) all a, b a
1175.