WINGS 2016 - SBLC Masulipatnam

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(STUDY MATERIAL FOR PROMOTION EXAMINATIONS)
PREPARED BY
TEAM SBLC, MASULIPATNAM
STATE BANK LEARNING CENTRE

MASULIPATNAM-521002
ANDHRA PRADESH
,

MASULIPATNAM 521 002
KRISHNA DIST. ANDHRA PRADESH
Phone: 08672-250078 (AGM) 08672- 251548 (Office) FAX: 08672-251546
IP: 903191 Emai: stc.mptm@sbi.co.in
Date : 21st January, 2016
Dear colleagues,
THE WINGS-2016
A STUDY MATERIAL FOR ALL PROMOTION EXAMINATIONS
We are very happy to bring forth THE WINGS-2016, a compilation of study material
which could be of use for promotion examinations in the coming months.
2. Over the last couple of years, THE WINGS & SADHANA SERIES have become very
popular among all the career oriented employees/officials of our Bank. The Wings-2015
& Sadhana Series -2015 evoked tremendous response from the various users. The
happiest and relishing thing is that the appreciations have poured in not only from
various parts of the country but also from some of the colleagues working abroad. With
lots and lots of new users being added, there is a great demand for the release of THE
WINGS-2016.
3. A word of caution to the users of the book. While we have taken every care and
precaution in compiling the material error-free, a few mistakes might have crept in
inadvertently. Neither the Bank nor the SBLC owns up any responsibility for
controversies, if any, arising out of this compilation.
4. All the faculty members presently working at the SBLC have contributed to this effort.
The Team SBLC, Masulipatnam wishes all the users the best of luck in their endeavours
to gain more knowledge and elevation in service.
Asst General Manager

MASULIPATNAM - 521002
KRISHNA DISTRICT - ANDHRA RPADESH
TEAM SBLC MASULIPATNAM
S.NO. NAME CELL NO. EMAIL ID @sbi.co.in
Shri. D. Syam Prasad

1. Assistant General Manager 9866502240 ds.prasad
Smt. B. Savithri
2. Manager (Trg.) 9959111096 savithri.ausekar
Shri. P. Padma Babu Goud

3. Manager (Trg.) 9989389685 pallem.goud
Shri. R. Prabhakara Rao

4. Manager (Trg.) 8008801272 reka.rao
Smt. S. Arun Jyothi

5. Manager (Trg.) 8008801273 jyothi.s
Shri. A.S.R.K.K. Sarma

6. Manager (Trg.) 9989211097 akella.sarma
Shri K.Giridhar Reddy

7. Manager (Trg) 9000169123 Giridhar.kasireddy
Shri. K. Bala Subramanyam

8. Administrative Officer 9704944424 k.balasubramanyam
MS Maria Begum maria.begum

9. Assistant 9966550016
Shri K.Rajesh Kumar karri.kumar

10. Assistant 8142717999
Office Phone Nos.
AGM : 08672-250078
Office : 08672-251548
Fax : 08672-251564
IP : 903191
EMAIL : stc.mptm@sbi.co.in
SBLC MASULIPATNAM THE WINGS 2016
Page 4 of 184
SBI HOUSING LOAN SCHEME
Prepared by Shri R Prabhakara Rao, Manager (Training)
1. The maximum age limit of the applicant for sanctioning housing loan under SBI
Yuva Home loan scheme is
a) 45 years b) 30 years
c) 40 years d) 25 years
2. In the case of residential complexes what is the permissible moratorium period
for the 14th floor of an apartment.
a) 6 months b) 12 months
c) 18 months d) 24 months
3. Which of the following is true with regard to CRE Home Loans
a) Maximum loan tenor will be 25 b) Exposure for the third house
years. onwards will be classified as a
CRE Home Loan
c) Same as applicable to Term d) a, b & c are correct
Loan
4. Minimum net monthly income under Yuva Home Loan is
a) Rs 50000 b) Rs 40000
c) Rs 25000 d) Rs 30000
5. Maximum loan that can be sanctioned under SBI realty
a) 1 Cr b) 2 Cr
c) 5 Cr d) 10 Cr
6. Maximum repayment period allowed under SBI Realty
7. Under reverse mortgage loan how much % of the value of the property is
sanctioned?
a) 60% b) 75%
c) 90% d) 100%
8. The target group of loans under Sahayog Niwas
a) Tribals b) High net-worth business people
c) SHGs d) Cooperative societies
9. Under Sahayog Niwas how much loan per head is sanction for repairs
a) Rs 25,000/- b) Rs 50,000/-
c) Rs 1,00,000/- d) Rs 2,00,000/-
10. For how many years an employee should be staying abroad for sanction of
NRI Housing loans?
a 1 year b 2 years
c 3 years d 5 years
11. What is the minimum amount of loan under SBI Reverse Mortgage Loan
a 1 lac b 3 lacs
c 5 lacs d No minimum
12. Mamimum loan for repairs and renovation under Home Loan is
a Rs 10 lacs b Rs 15 lacs
c Rs 20 lacs d Rs 5 lacs
Page 5 of 184
13. What is the rate of interest to CRE Maxgain loan

a 0.50% p.a over and above b Same rate applicable to TL
applicable to similar loans under
TL
c Same rate applicable to Magain d 0.45% p.a over and above
TL applicable to similar loans under
TL
14. Purchase of house /flats which are more than ____ years old:
Administrative Clearance should be obtained from the next higher authority
a 15 b 20
c 25 d 10
15. What is the maximum moratorium period allowed for a building of 25 floors
a 18 months b 24 months
c 30 months d 36 months
16. Maximum loan that can be sanctioned for repairs/renovation under NRI
Housing loan is
a 10 lacs b 20 lacs
c 1 cr d 10 cr
17. Maximum loan that can be sanctioned under SBI Reverse Mortgage loan?
a 25 lacs b 50 lacs
c 100 lacs d No limit
18. NRI Home Loan should be liquidated by the age of
a 55 yrs b 60 yrs
c 65 yrs d 70 yrs
19. What is the minimum amount of sanction under NRI Housing loans?
a 3 lacs b 5 lacs
c 20 lacs d 25 lacs
20. Pre-closure penalty is levied if the housing loan account is pre-closed within
how many years?
a 2 years b 3 years
c 5 years d No penalty for pre-closure
21. Prior Administrative Clearance is required for SBI Realty loans above
Rs._____
a 55 lacs b 50 lacs
c 70 lacs d 75 lacs
22. What is the maximum moratorium period allowed for a building of 20 floors
23. What is the Risk weight on Housing loan of Rs.75 lacs where LTV ratio is 75%
a 50% b 75%
c 100% d 150%
24. What is the minimum age to get a housing loan sanctioned in SBI?
a 18 b 21
c 25 d 26
25. What is the maximum age limit to sanction a Housing loan under Platinum Age
Limit.
a 70 years b 75 years
c 60 years d 80 years
Page 6 of 184
26. Housing loans up to _____amount is reckoned under priority sector advances

in Metro centres
a 15 lacs b 23 lacs
c 25 lacs d 28 lacs
27. The project cost of the Housing may consist cost of furnishing and interior to
an extent of
a 10% subject to max of Rs 25lacs b 10 % subject to max of Rs 15lacs
c 15% subject of Max 25 lacs d 15% subject to max of 15 lacs
28. What is the permissible EMI/NMI ratio for an annual income of more than Rs
10 lacs
a 60% b 65%
c 55% d 70%
29. Which of the following Housing loan variants is not withdrawn
a SBI Tribal plus b SBI Flexi home loan
c SBI Freedom d SBI Optima
30. In the case of tie up with builders, joint publicity expenditure towards the cost of
advertisement material etc., shall be shared with the builder subject to a
maximum of ____% of the expenditure incurred
a 30% b 40%
c 25% d 50%
31. Maximum moratorium period allowed in housing loans
32. Which of the following gets included in the project cost in Housing loans?
a Cost of site b Cost of Stamping
c Cost of Registration d All of these
33. Maximum loan tenuer in Home loans to NRIs
34. What is the LTV Ratio in the case of house for ready possession where the
Home Loan is for above RS.30 lacs?
a 75% b 80%
c 85% d 90%
35. If the proposal is strictly within the scheme, no administrative clearance is
required for loan proposals up to Rs ____
a 1 cr b 2 cr
c 7.5 cr d 10 cr
36. Processing fee to be recovered for housing loan sanctioned under Sahayog
Niwas
a 0.50% of the loan amount b 1000/- per loan
c 0.25% of the loan amount d None of these
37. What is the minimum limit amount under SBI Home loan PAL (Pre approved
loan)
a 10 lacs b 20 lacs
c 25 lacs d 30 lacs
Page 7 of 184
38. Who are eligible housing loans under CRGFTLIH (Credit Risk Guarantee Fund
Trust for Low Income Housing) Scheme in urban area.
a Home Loans upto Rs. 5.00 lacs b Applicant is either EWS or LIG
c The carpet area of the d All the above
House/Flat upto 430 sqft.
39. What is the maximum amount that can be sanctioned under SBI Realty
a 1 crore b 5 crore
c 10 crore d No limit
40. What is the maximum number of co-borrowers allowed in Housing loans
a 2 b 3
c 4 d 6
41. A higher margin of ______will be insisted upon Reimbursement of investment
in housing, made during the preceding 12 months
a 15% b 20%
c 25% d 30%
42. At the request of the borrower recovery of interest during the moratorium
period may be deferred only if moratorium period does not exceed ____
months
a 18 b 24
c 30 d 36
43. The LTV ratio for a loan upto Rs.30 lacs in the case of construction/purchase
is :
a 75% b 80%
c 90% d None of these
44. No penal rate is chargeable for a Housing loan up to Rs _______
a 25000/- b 50,000/-
c 1,00,000/- d None of these
45. What is the Risk weight on a housing loan of Rs 30 lacs where LTV ratio is
75%
a 50% b 75%
c 100% d 150%
46. The permissible age for eligibility under SBI YUVA home loan
a From 18 years to 40 years b From 21 years to 40 years
c From 21 years to 35 years d From 21 years to 45 years
47. What should be the minimum residual life of property in case of single borrower
for sanction of loan under Reverse Mortgage ?
48. Maximum EMI/NMI Ratio for a loan of Rs 20 lacs under SBI Realty
a 30% b 40%
c 50% d 60%
49. In YUVA family( home loan) minimum ____% income should be contributed by
YUVA or YUVA couple
a 50% b 60%
c 75% d 85%
50. How much amount can be sanctioned for purchase of land under Gram Niwas
a 1 lac b 2 lac
c 5 lac d No amount is sanctioned
Page 8 of 184
51. Minimum loan amount under Maxgain Home loan

a 10 lacs b 15 lacs
c 20 lacs d 5 lacs
52. What is the minimum age of the spouse when loan is sanctioned in jointly with
the spouse in the case of SBI Reverse Mortgage loan
a 55 years b Above 58 years
c 60 years d No age restriction
53. What is the maximum amount that can be sanctioned for construction of house
under Sayahog Niwas
a 25000/- b 50,000/-
c 75,000/- d 1,00,000/-
54. SBI Home Top-up can be availed for how many times during the currency of
the Housing loan?
a 5 times b 4 times
c 3 times d 2 times
55. Stamp duty, Registration Charges and other documentation charges will now
be permitted to be added to the cost of the house/dwelling unit for the purpose
of calculating LTV ratio in cases where the total project cost of the dwelling unit
does not exceed Rs. ---- lacs.
a 20% b 15
c 18 d 10
56. Under CRE home loans Provision on standard assets to be made at
a 0.40% b 1%
c 0.75% d 0.65%
57. Under SBI Realty what is the LTV ratio for a loan upto Rs 1 Cr
a 80% b 70%
c 75% d 90%
58. The minimum periodicity stipulated for Inspection of NPA housing loan
accounts
a monthly b quarterly
c Half yearly d Every week
59. Maximum amount that can be sanctioned under Tribal plus
a 5 lacs b 10 lacs
c 20 lacs d No limit stipulated
60. Which of the following is not true in respect of SBI Realty loans for above
Rs.50 lacs
a Independent valuation of the b To obtain two title search reports
property by two empanelled from different lawyers one
valuers and lower of the two before loan sanction, and one
valuations will be considered for before disbursement
loan assessment.
c One CIBIL Credit Information d Neither a) nor b) true
Report on the borrower is
sufficient which is obtained as
part of loan sanction process
61. The revised Home Loan Counsellor remuneration for limits upto Rs.25 lacs
a 0.25% of the loan amount. b Rs.25000/- per proposal
c Rs.10000/- per proposal d 0.15% of the loan amount , max
Rs.10000/- per proposal
Page 9 of 184
62. SBI Home loan PAL(Pre approved limit) facility is available

a At all branches of SBI b At metro branches only
c At RACPC only d At selected Brs. as approved by
Controllers only
63. Credit Information Report from the following two CICs for all Home Loan limits
above Rs 10 lacs should be obtained.
a Credit Information Bureau Equifax Credit Information
Limited (CIBIL) Services Pvt Ltd ( ECISPL)
c a&b Not required.
64. Pre Approved loan arrangement letter (PLAL) under SBI Home Loan PAL
facility is valid for----- months
a 4 b 3
c 2 d 1
65. Reverse Mortgage Loan scheme is sanctioned as .
a Term Loan b Overdraft without repayment
schedule
c Non renewable Overdraft d Overdraft with repayment
schedule
66. Panel of Valuers for valuation of Immovable Assets for fixation of Reserve
Price for enforcement of the Banks rights under the SARFAESI Act, 2002, is
approved by
a Authorized Officer b Regional Manager
c LHO d ECCB
67. Opinion on Power of Attorney in TIR is to be vetted by law officer. This has
been recently relaxed and opinion can be obtained from ___________ if the
loan amount is up to Rs._______
a Two Bank's empanelled b By Law Officer ; Rs.20.00 lacs
advocates ; Rs.20.00 lacs
c Two Bank's empanelled d By Law Officer ; Rs.30.00 lacs
advocates Rs.30.00 lacs
68. Updating Security Interest over the property created is done in Central
Electronic Registry under ____________ Act.
a) RBI Act b) SARFAESI Act
c) PMLA Act d) SBI Act
69. Adding back of depreciation to compute Net Annual Income of the borrower
under Home Loan scheme will be ascertained on the basis of last three years
Audited Balance Sheet of business/ activity and the latest audited balance
sheet should not be older that_________
70. Name the product that has been launched for existing Home Loan borrowers to
meet their personal needs like expenditure on education, marriage, health
care, renovation/furnishing etc. is ________
a) SBI Top-up b) Reverse Mortgage Loan
c) SBI Cash Plus d) Home Plus Scheme
71. Minimum and Maximum loan amount under SBI Home Top-up are _____
a) Rs 100000/- & Rs 50.00lacs b) Rs 1.00 lacs & Rs 200.00 lacs
c) Rs 3.00 lacs & Rs 300.00 lacs d) Rs 2.00 lacs/- & Rs 500.00 lacs
Page 10 of 184
72. Application having net annual income of less than_________ will not be
eligible for loan under SBI Home Top-up.
a) Rs 1.00 lac b) Rs 2.00 lac
c) Rs 3.00 lac d) Rs 4.00 lac
73. At any point of time not more than two loans will be allowed to exist under the
Home Top-up. Second loan under this scheme may be considered only after a
gap of ________ from the date of disbursement of first loan.
a) One year b) Two years
c) Three years d) Four years
74. Extension of mortgage for loan under SBI Home Top-up will not be mandatory
up to the loan of _________
a) Rs 2.00 lacs b) Rs 3.00 lacs
c) Rs 4.00 lacs d) Rs 5.00 lacs
75. Permissible loan amount under SBI Top-up upto Rs.75 lacs is ________ of
present market value of the house property less present outstanding in the
Home Loan account.
a) 50% b) 90%
c) 75% d) 80%
76. All home loan borrowers having regular and standard accounts in higher
interest buckets may switch over to current card interest rates on upfront
payments of one time switch-over fee of __________ of their outstanding
a) 1.00% b) 2.00%
c) 0.56% d) 0.25%
77. SBI YUVA Home Loan scheme will be available to the salaried employees of
Central/State Government, Government undertakings/ PSUs/ MNCs and
reputed private sector companies in the age bucket of________________.
a) 18 years and above and upto b) 21 years and above and upto 30
30 years years
c) 21 years and above and upto 35 d) 21 years and above and upto 45
years years
78. Under the SBI YUVA Home Loan scheme, _______higher home loan amount
than the eligibility calculated through EMI/NMI method has been permitted to
young salaried customers.
a) 25% b) 30%
c) 20% d) 35%
79. The minimum income for home loan under Earnest Money Deposit Scheme is
a) No minimum b) Rs50000/-
c) Rs25000/- d) Rs 100000/-
80. A concession of _________ over the corresponding interest rate applicable to

regular Home Loan will be available under the SBI YUVA Home Loan Scheme.
a) 0.25% b) 0.10%
c) 0.50% d) 1.00%
81. Loan under Home Top-up Scheme may be considered after the
Takeover of Home Loan provided that the satisfactory repayment
track record of the applicant for, at least, the previous ____________
a) Six months b) One Year
c) Two Years d) Three Years
Page 11 of 184
82. Maximum loan under Earnest Money Deposit Scheme is

a) Rs. 15 Lacs b) Rs.20 Lacs
c) Rs. 10 Lacs d) Rs. 30 Lacs
83. Obtention of Revival Letters and Balance Confirmation Letters may
be dispensed with in case of.which are being serviced regularly
and are classified as Standard Assets.
a) Term Loan A/c in the P Segment b) Maxgain Home Loans
c) Both (A) & (B) d) None of these
84. Maximum Home Loan for Repairs of a dwelling unit per family at Metro
centers with population above 10 Lacs that comes under priority sector is
a) Rs.10.00 Lacs b) Rs.2.00 Lacs
c) Rs.5.00 Lacs d) Rs.8.00 Lacs
85. Maximum Home Loan for Purchase/construction of a dwelling unit per family at
other centers (other than metro) that comes under priority sector is
a) Rs.15.00 Lacs b) Rs.20.00 Lacs
c) Rs.25.00 Lacs d) Rs.50.00 Lacs
86. Maximum Home Loan for Repairs to damaged dwelling units per family
at Rural & Semi-urban areas that comes under priority sector
is..
a) Rs.1.00 lac b) Rs.2 lacs
c) Rs.5 lacs d) Rs. 10 lacs
87. Maximum Home Loan for Repairs to damaged dwelling units per family
at Urban areas that comes under priority sector is
a) Rs.1.00 lac b) Rs.2 lacs
c) Rs.5 lacs d) Rs. 10 lacs
88. If an individual owns two or more houses, singly or jointly, then the exposure
for the third house onwards or purchase of flat/residential plot will be treated
under.
a) CRE Home Loans b) SME Home Loan
c) C&I Home Loan d) Business Home Loan
89. The total number of houses/flats/residential plots under Personal Segment
Home Loans Scheme should not be more than
a) 3 b) 4
c) 5 d) 6
90. The type of home loan under Earnest Money Deposit Scheme is
a) Overdraft b) Demand Loan
c) Term Loan d) Short Term Loan
91. While processing high value Home Loan proposals i.e. Home Loans
of , two Valuation Reports from different empanelled Valuers of
the Bank should be obtained.
a) Rs.100.00 Lacs & above b) Rs.50.00 Lacs & above
c) Rs.150.00 Lacs & above d) Rs.200.00 Lacs & above
92. As per Revised Home Loan Eligibility Norms, Regular income from all
sources including Variable pay, performance/Production Linked
Incentives, Bonus, Overtime etc. can be considered, in whole or in part,
on the basis of the average of the last , to arrive at
the eligible loan amount.
a) One year b) Two years
c) Three years d) None of these
Page 12 of 184
93. For new Home Loan above Rs.1.00 Crore under Maxgain Scheme, a premium
of over and above the applicable interest rate will be Recovered
a) 0.25% p.a. b) 0.50% p.a
c) 0.75% p.a. d) 1.00% p.a.
94. Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme is launched specifically for the benefit of
a) Doctors b) Senior Citizens
c) Agriculturist d) None
95. Under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme the loan amount can be disbursed as
lump sum amount to ___ % of the limit
a) 25 b) 35
c) 40 d) 50
96. In the case of the death of the borrower under Reverse Mortgage Loan
Scheme the outstanding will be liquidated by
a) Selling of the House b) Legal heirs can settle the loan
c) (a) or (b) d) Declared as Banks property
97. The minimum age of the borrower under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme is
a) 60 Years b) Above 60 Years
c) 58 Years d) 55 Years
98. The residual life of the property to be obtained as security under Reverse
Mortgage Loan Scheme in the case of single borrower is ______ Years
a) 60 Years b) 58 Years
99. The residual life of the property to be obtained as security under Reverse
Mortgage Loan Scheme in the case of spouse being below 60 Years of age
______ Years
100. The tenor of the loan under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme when the age of
the younger of the borrowers is between 58 and upto 68 years of age is _____
Years or till be death of the borrower (s), whichever is earlier.
101. The tenor of the loan under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme when the age of
the younger of the borrowers is above 68 years of age is _____ Years or till be
death of the borrower (s), whichever is earlier.
102. Quantum of loan under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme would be ____ % of
the value of the property
a) 65 b) 75
c) 85 d) 90
103. Quantum of loan under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme is inclusive of
a) Interest for one year b) Processing charges
c) Interest till maturity of the loan d) None of these
104. Maximum quantum of loan under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme
a) Rs.10.00 lacs b) Rs.25.00 lacs
c) Rs.100.00 lacs d) No ceiling
Page 13 of 184
105. Pre-payment penalty of the loan during the tenure of the loan under Reverse
Mortgage Loan Scheme is
a) 0.75 % b) 1.00 %
c) 1.50 % of pre paid amount d) No prepayment penalty
106. Processing fee under SBI Green Home Loan Scheme is
a) 1.00 % of loan amount b) No processing charges
c) 0.50% of loan amount d) None of these
107. Expected rental income should not be considered in case of HLs under
following variants
a) SBI Realty b) SBI Yuva
c) A&B d) None
108. Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme can be sanctioned by the following branches
a) Only Metro branches b) All branches
c) PBBs d) PBBs and branches with P
Divisions
109. Maintenance of the properties charged for availing Reverse Mortgage Loan
Scheme lies with
a) Bank b) Borrower
c) Sharing by Bank & Customer 50- d) Sharing by Bank & Customer 25-
50 75
110. Ownership of the property mortgaged for availing Reverse Mortgage Loan
Scheme is with
a) Borrower b) Bank
c) (a) and (b) d) None of these
111. In case of the death of the borrower under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme
the legal heirs will be allowed to repay the loan within a period of
a) 3 Months b) 9 Months
c) 6 Months d) None
112. Reverse Mortgage Loan is sanctioned only if the surviving spouses are ___.
a) 2 b) 1
c) Not related d) None of these
113. Under Reverse Mortgage Loan Scheme the title holder has to make a will
superseding earlier will if any in favour of _______
a) Bank b) Spouse
c) No need of any will d) None of these
114. Under Reverse Mortgage Loan, reasonable amount of time
may be provided to the legal heirs for selling the house and settlement
of the outstanding from the date the outstanding amount falls due for
repayment before initiating recovery measures.
a) up to the 3 months b) up to the 6 months
c) up to the 9 months d) up to the 12 months
115. If the outstanding of Reverse Mortgage Loan is not liquidated, then it will be
classified as a Sub-standard Asset on the....... day after the due date.
a) 90th day b) 120 days
c) th
180 day d) 365 days
Page 14 of 184
116. Revised average annual house hold income, permissible under Interest
Subsidy Scheme for Housing to the Urban Poor for Economically Weaker
Sections is
a) Upto Rs. 0.50 Lacs per annum b) Upto Rs. 1.00 Lacs per annum
c) Upto Rs. 1.50 Lacs per annum d) Upto Rs. 2.00 Lacs per annum
117. The concession in margin under SBI Green Home Loan is
a) 5% b) 3%
c) 0.50% d) 1%
118. Tne concession in interest rate under SBI Green Home Loan is
a) 0.50% b) 0.25%
c) 0.10% d) 0.30%
119. In case of non-obtention of PAN, The default value suggested for CERSAI is
a) BBBBB9999A b) AAAAA9999A
c) AAAAA9999B d) BBBBB9999B
120. The interest concession for Women borrowers under Her Ghar scheme is
a) 5 bps b) 10 bps
c) 50 bps d) 15 bps
121. SBI home equity scheme remaned as
a) SBI Home Top up b) SBI Equity
c) SBI Home Plus d) SBI Saral
122. The best grade under Credit Scoring Model for home loan is
a) Grade 1 b) Grade10
c) Grade A d) Grade A+
123. The mechanism to ensure maximum home loan business comes to Bank from
housing projects financed by us
a) UTTAM SAHYOG b) HER GHAR
c) SAH NIRMAN d) SAHYOG YOJNA
124. Concession in processing fee for home loan applicants referred by builder
under projects financed by us
a) 10% b) 15%
c) 50% d) 25%
125. Under Home Loan Scoring Model, maximum score under Employer Type is
assigned to
a) Central Govt employee b) Listed Pvt Company emplyee
c) Self Employed person d) MNC employee
Page 15 of 184
ANSWERS
1 a 2 d 3 d 4 d 5 d 6 c 7 c 8 c 9 a 10 b
11 b 12 a 13 d 14 a 15 d 16 a 17 c 18 b 19 a 20 d
21 b 22 a 23 b 24 a 25 b 26 d 27 a 28 d 29 a 30 a
31 d 32 d 33 a 34 b 35 c 36 d 37 a 38 d 39 c 40 b
41 c 42 a 43 c 44 a 45 a 46 d 47 b 48 c 49 c 50 a
51 c 52 b 53 b 54 d 55 d 56 b 57 c 58 c 59 b 60 c
61 a 62 c 63 c 64 a 65 c 66 d 67 c 68 b 69 b 70 a
71 d 72 c 73 a 74 d 75 d 76 c 77 d 78 c 79 a 80 b
81 b 82 c 83 c 84 c 85 b 86 b 87 c 88 c 89 c 90 b
91 b 92 b 93 a 94 b 95 d 96 c 97 b 98 c 99 d 100 a
101 b 102 d 103 c 104 c 105 d 106 b 107 c 108 b 109 b 110 a
111 c 112 b 113 b 114 b 115 a 116 b 117 a 118 b 119 c 120 a
121 a 122 a 123 c 124 c 125 d
Page 16 of 184
CAR LOAN
Compiled by Shri R Prabhakara Rao, Manager (Training)
1. A car loan can be sanctioned under which of the facilities?

a) Term Loan b) Demand Loan
c) Overdraft d) Either TL or OD
2. Who of the following are eligible to apply for a car loan?
a) Salaried employees b) Professionals, self- employed
persons, businessmen
c) Agriculturists d) All the above
3. Which of the following category of car loan applicant need not submit Income
Tax Return/Form 16?
a) Salaried employees b) Professionals, self- employed
persons, businessmen
c) Agriculturists d) All the above
4. The age of a car loan applicant should be between _______
a) 18-60 years b) 21-60 years
c) 21-65 years d) 21-70 years
5. A car loan must be fully repaid before the borrower attains the age of :
a) 60 years b) 65 year
6. The minimum Net Annual Income of( salaried) applicant and/or co-applicant if
any, together for car loan should be________
a) 100000 b) 120000
c) 200000 d) 300000
7. In respect of car loan applicants- Professionals, self-employed, Proprietary
/partnership firms, businessmen, the minimum Net Profit/ Gross Taxable
Income per annum as per I T Return after adding back depreciation and
deducting repayments of existing loans should be _____
a) 100000 b) 120000
c) 200000 d) 400000
8. The minimum Net Annual Income of (Agriculturists) applicant and/or co-
applicant if any, together for car loan should be________
a) 100000 b) 120000
c) 200000 d) 400000
9. Income from other sources like ______can be added for arriving at minimum
Net Annual Income of a car loan applicant.
a) Bank interest, rents b) Dividends of listed Companies
c) Agriculture income d) All the above
10. The Net Annual Income of an agriculturist car loan applicant will be arrived at
based on -------------------
a) Nature of activity b) Land holding & cropping pattern
c) Yield d) All the above
11. The maximum car loan amount that can be granted to a salaried person is
restricted to ---------------- times of Net Monthly Income
a) 24 b) 30
c) 36 d) 48
Page 17 of 184
12. The maximum car loan amount that can be granted to Self Employed,
Professionals and businessmens etc, is restricted to ---------------- times of Net
Annual Income/Net Profit/Gross Taxable Income
a) 2 b) 2.50
c) 3 d) 4
13. For a car loan applicant having a Net Annual Income up to Rs.5 lacs, the
EMI/NMI ratio should not exceed_______
a) 50% b) 60%
c) 70% d) 75%
14. For a car loan applicant having a Net Annual Income above Rs.5 lacs and up
to Rs.10 lacs, the EMI/NMI ratio should not exceed_______
a) 55% b) 50%
c) 70% d) 75%
15. For a car loan applicant having a Net Annual Income above Rs.10 lacs, the
EMI/NMI ratio should not exceed_______
a) 50% b) 75%
c) 70% d) 60%
16. The margin for a car loan on On road Price of the vehicle would be _____
a) 5% b) 10%
c) 15% d) 25%
17. Penal interest for car loan upto Rs.25000 is charged at
a) Nil b) 1%
c) 0.50% d) 2%
18. What is maximum repayment period allowed for a car loan?
19. If a car loan is sanctioned as Overdraft account, the differential rate of
interest would be ______
a) 0.50% above the applicable b) 0.50% below the applicable rate
rate for TL for TL
c) 1% above the applicable rate d) Same as the rate applicable to
for TL TL
20. In respect of a car loan, if the irregularity exceeds EMI, for a period of----------
--, then the penal interest would be charged @2% p.a. (over and above the
applicable interest rate) on the------------------- for the period of default.
a) One month/ overdue amount b) 3 months/ overdue amount
c) 3 months/ outstanding amount d) One month/ outstanding amount
21. The processing fee for a car loan is 0.50%+ST of the loan amount subject to
a minimum and maximum of ________
a) Rs.500+ST & Rs.5000+ST b) Rs.950+ST & Rs.9100+ST
c) Rs.1000+ST & Rs.5000+ST d) Rs.5000+ST & Rs.10000+ST
22. If a car application is rejected after pre-sanction survey ------- % of the
Processing Fee will be retained.
a) 25% b) 50%
c) 60% d) 75%
23. For car loan applicants other than agriculturists, I T Return/ Form 16 for the
last _______ years should be obtained.
a) One year b) 2 years
Page 18 of 184
24. Takeover of car loans will be considered selectively subject to which of the
following conditions?
a) The vehicle is not more than 2 b) The account of the borrower with
years old, It is a single the other bank is a Standard
ownership vehicle & no Asset
insurance claim has been
availed
c) The loan should be repaid d) All the above
within 7 years from the date of
the original purchase of the
vehicle
25. We may also reimburse finance for the cars purchased out of own funds,
which are not more than ------------- old.
26. LTV for a borrower with Net Annual Income of Rs.10 lacs is
a) 85% of On Road Price b) 75% of On Road Price
c) 85% of Ex Showroom Price d) 75% of Ex Showroom Price
27. What is the pre-payment penalty for a car loan?
a) 1% of outstanding b) 2% of outstanding
c) 5% of outstanding d) No penalty
28. For car dealer and sales executives, the incentive would be paid at _____
rate for the loan applications sourced by them. (overall outer limit)
a) 2.30% of the loan amount b) 2.50% of the loan amount
c) 2.25% of the loan amount d) 2.00% of the loan amount
29. Who of the following can be appointed as Auto Loan Counselors?
a) Retired SBI Officers b) SBI Customers and others with
certain qualifications
c) Car Dealers d) A & b above
30. Auto Loan Counselors will be paid an incentive of _______ of the car loan
amount for the proposal sourced and sanctioned.
a) 0.1% b) 0.2%
c) 1% d) 2%
31. What is the maximum loan amount for new car loans?
a) 15 lakhs b) 25 lakhs
c) 50 lakhs d) No ceiling
32. What is the maximum loan amount for used car loans?
c) 15 lakhs d) 20 lakhs
33. What is the minimum NAI for pensioners to apply for a car loan?
a) 75000/- b) 300000/-
c) 150000/- d) 175000/-
34. What is the repayment cycle in car loans?
a) 10th for loans disbursed upto b) 20th for loans disbursed after 16th
15th of month of the month
c) (a) and (b) are correct d) Coincide with the date on which
borrowers major income flow
happens.
Page 19 of 184
35. Which mode of disbursement is correct in case of car loans?

a) Direct credit into dealers b) Through RTGS/NEFT if dealer
account, if dealer maintains maintain their account with other
their account with us banks.
c) Through DD/BC d) (a) and (b) are correct
36. What types of facilities are available under SBI Combo Loan Scheme?
a) Only OD b) Composite Term Loan
c) Only TL d) Both TL & OD
37. What is the repayment period of used cars?
c) 7 Years from the date of original d) 5 years from the date of original
purchase purchase.
38. The maximum car loan amount that can be granted to agriculturist pesons is
restricted to _____________ times of Net Annual Income
a) 2 times NAI b) 4 times of NAI
c) 2.5 times NAI d) 3 times of NAI
39. The concessionary margin of 10% (loan of 90% of On-Road price) will
available in case of customers under salary package/ tie-up upto NAI of ---
a) Rs.10.00 lasc b) Rs.15.00 lacs
c) Rs.12.00 lacs d) Irrespective of income amount
40. Where a check-off from the reputed employer is available the sanctioning
authority has discretion to reduce the margin by ---%
a) 1% b) 2%
c) 3% d) 5%
41. Pre Payment Penalty for Car Loan Scheme for Used Car
a) No Penalty b) 1%
c) 2% d) 0.50%
42. What is the Penalty for Non-Registration /Non-Hypothecation of Vehicle - If
the borrower fails to get the vehicle registered, with hypothecation charge in
favour of the Bank, within 120 days ?
a) Rs.4000+ST b) Rs.5500+ST
c) Rs.6000+ST d) Rs.5000+ST
43. Periodical inspection frequency for Standard car loans
a) Quarterly b) Monthly
c) Waived d) Yearly
44. What is the minimum EMI/NMI percent in case of car loan applicant having
NAI upto Rs.5 lacs?
a) 40% b) 50%
c) 55% d) 60%
45. What is the EMI/NMI percent for car loans in case of tie-ups with reputed
PSU/Corporate institutions for applicants with Net Annual Income upto Rs.5
lacs?
a) 40% b) 50%
c) Since withdrwan d) 70%
46. Which of the repayment method is correct in case of car loan sanctioned to
agriculturists.
a) Half year installments b) EMI method
c) Yearly installments d) As per Agriculture Harvesting
year
Page 20 of 184
47. Under SBI Combo Loan scheme, the following loans can be sanctioned at a
time.
a) Car and Tractor b) 2 Cars
c) Car and 3 wheeler d) Car and Two wheeler
48. Insurance of the car is done in the name of borrower?
a) Comprehensive insurance for b) At least 10% above loan amount
market value
c) Higher of a or b d) None of these
49. The income of the following can be clubbed with that of the applicant for a car
loan?
a) Spouse b) Father, Mother
c) Brother, sister d) Any of these
50. How many applicants can be there in a car loan?
a) Only1 b) Up to 2
c) Up to 3 d) Up to 4
51. What is the maximum cost of accessories to be financed?
a) 5% of the cost of vehicle b) Rs.50000/-
c) Lower of a or b d) Only a
52. What is the minimum processing charges for car loan? (----+ST)
a) 500/- b) 950/-
c) 2000/- d) 2500/-
53. What is the maximum processing charges for car loan? (----+ST)
a) 5000/- b) 9100/-
c) 15000/- d) 20000/-
54. What is the rate of processing charges for a car loan?
a) 1% b) 0.75%
c) 0.51% d) 0.25%
55. In the case of short-term promotional drives, the G. M. Of Network can

reduce the processing fee of car loans up to?
a) 25% b) 50%
c) 75% d) 100%
56. What is the name of the website developed by the Ministry of Road Transport
& Highways (MoRTH)?
a) Vahan.nic.in b) Vehicle.nic.in
c) Morth.nic.in d) None of the above
57. As per recent instructions, the loan tenor of a car loan can be extended upto
_______ years if interest rates on the existing loans go up and the EMIs are
left unchanged.
58. Who will be borrower in case of NRI Car loan scheme?

a) Resident Indian b) NRI
c) Resident Indian & NRI d) Only NRI
59. Who will be guarantor in case of NRI Car loan scheme?
a) Resident Indian b) NRI
c) Resident Indian & NRI d) NRI & employer
Page 21 of 184
60. What is the percent of margin under NRI CAR loan scheme for loans?
a) 5% b) 10%
c) 15% d) 20%
61. The sanctioning authority of NRI car loan will have discretion to reduce
margin by _____% where check off from a reputed employer is available
a) 5% b) 10%
c) 20% d) 30%
62. What is the minimum NMI/NAI of the guarantor under NRI car loan scheme?
a) $ 500 NMI or $ 10000 NAI b) $ 1000 NMI or $ 12000 NAI
c) $ 1200 NMI or $15000 NAI d) $1500 NMI or 18000 NAI
63. What is the basis of loan amount of NRI car loan?
a) 6 times NMI or 0.5 times NAI b) 12 times NMI OR 1 time NAI
c) 18 times NMI or 1.5 times NAI d) 24 times NMI or 2 times NAI
64. What is the minimum loan amount under car loan overdraft facility
a) 3.00 lacs b) 5.00 lacs
c) 10.00 lacs d) 7.00 lacs
65. EMI of the Car Loan may be reduced once during its tenure, if the account is
a Standard Asset and the loan outstanding is at
least....and the interest rate reduction is of 1% or more.
a) Rs. 2.00 Lacs b) Rs. 3.00 Lacs
c) Rs. 4.00 Lacs d) Rs. 5.00 Lacs
66. What is NAI under High value Super Bike Loan scheme for salaried /
agriculturist / Self-employed, Professionals, Proprietary/Partnership firms and
Businessmen
a) 4 lacs b) 3 lacs
c) 6 lacs d) 5 lacs
67. The cut-off score for clear sanction under revised car loan scoring model has
been reduced from 76 marks to...
a) 76 b) 70
c) 64 d) 60
68. Eligibility criteria to avail car loan by Ex-servicemen Clerical Staff are
minimum 5 years service including that in Armed forces, but subject to
completion of .confirmed service in the Bank.
a) 6 months b) 1 year
69. As per revised Car Loan Scoring Model, a loan application may be declined if
its score is ..& below
a) 60 b) 55
c) 45 d) 35
70. What is the minimum loan amount under High Value Super Bike Loan
scheme ?
a) 2 lac b) 3 lacs
c) 4 lacs d) 5 lacs
71. New car loan scheme for existing home loan borrowers
a) Loyalty Car Loan b) Freedom Car Loan
c) Her Car d) Home Car
Page 22 of 184
72. Loan amount under Loyalty car Loan

a) 100% of ex showroom price b) 100% of on road price
c) 85% of ex showroom price d) 85% of on road price
73. Extension of EM not required for loans upto Rs._____ under Loyalty Car
Loan Scheme
a) 10 lacs b) 3 lacs
c) 5 lacs d) 7 lacs
74. Processing fee under Loyalty Car Loan Scheme

a) 0.50% b) 0.20%
c) 0.55% d) 0.25%
75. Loyalty car loan is applicable to home loan borrowers who have regularly
repaid the loan for ___ year after moratorium
a) 1 b) 5
c) 2 d) 3
ANSWERS
1 d 2 d 3 c 4 c 5 c 6 d 7 d 8 d 9 d 10 d
11 d 12 d 13 a 14 b 15 d 16 c 17 a 18 c 19 d 20 a
21 b 22 a 23 b 24 d 25 a 26 a 27 d 28 a 29 d 30 b
31 d 32 c 33 b 34 d 35 d 36 c 37 c 38 d 39 d 40 d
41 a 42 d 43 c 44 b 45 c 46 b 47 d 48 c 49 d 50 b
51 c 52 b 53 b 54 c 55 b 56 a 57 a 58 b 59 a 60 c
61 a 62 b 63 c 64 a 65 d 66 c 67 d 68 c 69 c 70 b
71 a 72 b 73 a 74 d 75 a
Page 23 of 184
P SEGMENT LOANS (OTHER THAN HOUSING AND CAR LOANS)
Prepared by Shri R Prabhakara Rao, Manager (Training)
EDUCATIONAL LOANS:
1 For securing Education loan which of the following documents is mandatory for
both the student and parent/guardian
a) Ration card b) PAN card
c) Passport d) Voter ID
2 Our Educational loan scheme does not cover
a) Within India b) Foreign Study
c) Distance Education d) None of the above
3 Expenses for like study tours, project work, thesis, etc. can be considered for
loan subject to the condition that these should be capped at ____ of the total
tuition fees payable for completion of the course.
a) 40% b) 35%
c) 20% d) None of the above
4 Cost of a two-wheeler upto Rs. ___________ can be included in the expenses
considered eligible for finance where the loan amount is secured by a suitable
third party guarantee and/or tangible collateral security.
a) 1,00,000/- b) 45,000/-
c) 50,000/- d) None of the above
5 Educational loan Quantum of finance____?
a) Rs.10 lacs for studies in India & b) Rs.15 lacs for studies in India &
Rs.30 lacs for studies abroad Rs.30 lacs for studies abroad
c) Rs.20 lacs for studies in India & d) None of the above
Rs.10 lacs for studies abroad
6 Borrower Margin for Education loans of above Rs.7.5 lacs ?
a) Studies in India: 10% b) Studies in India: 5%
Studies abroad: 15% Studies abroad: 15%
c) Studies in India: 10% d) None of the above
Studies abroad: 15%
7 Security for Education loan upto Rs.7.5 lac ?
a) NIL b) Coobligation of parent(s) & No
Security
c) Third party guarantee d) None of the above
8 Which branch is identified as Nodal branch in respect of education loan for
economically weaker sections for submission of claims under the scheme
a) New Delhi Main branch b Kolkata Main branch
c) Mumbai main branch d Chennai Main branch
9 What is the repayment period under SBI student loan? After commencement of
repayment
10 What is the margin in Scholar loan?
a) 5% b) 10%
c) 15% d) Nil
What is the security for loan above Rs. 7.5 lakhs under SBI student loan?
11 a) Co-obligation of parents b) Tangible collateral security.
c) TPG d) Both a) & b
Page 24 of 184
12 What is the rate of interest concession if full interest is repaid during moratorium
period?
a) 1% b) 1.5%
c) 1.75% d) 2.00%
13 What is the processing fee for loans up to Rs.7.5 lakhs?
a) 0.5% b) 0.75%
c) 1.00% d) Nil
14 What is the maximum loan under SBI Scholar scheme ?
15 For availing loan under SBI Education plus the applicant must be permanent
employee with____years of service?
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 5
16 The age of the applicant under SBI Education plus should be below
c) 60 years d) 65 yeasrs
17 What is the minimum loan under SBI Education plus ?
a) 10000/- b) 15000/-
c) 20000/- d) 25000/-
18 What is the maximum loan under SBI Education plus?
a) 25000/- b) 50000/-
c) 75000/- d) 100000/-
19 What is the limit of Education loan that can be classified as priority sector
advance for studies in India?
20 What is the limit of education loan that can be classified as priority sector
advance for studies abroad?
21 What is the limit up to which education loans are eligible for interest subsidy
during moratorium for students from economically weaker sections with annual
gross parental/family income up to Rs.4.5 lakhs
22 SBI Student loan scheme is sanctioned as
a) Overdraft b) Term Loan
c) Both d) None of the above
23 What is the repayment period of education loans sanctioned to wards of staff?
c) 108 months d) 120 months after moratorium
24 Which of the following statements about SBI student loan is correct?
a) No qualifying marks stipulated in b) Admission through management
the last qualifying examination quota may be considered.
c) Evening courses of approved d) All of these
institutes
25 Which courses are not eligible under SBI student loan scheme?
Page 25 of 184
a) Vocational training & skill b) Medical courses in

development study courses USSR,China,Nepal &other
countries not recognized by Medical
council of India.
c) Courses conducted by d) All of these
universities through distance
mode of learning.
26 What is the maximum no. of loans in a family under the scheme?
a) 1 b) 2 only
c) 3 only d) No ceiling
27 2% penal interest to be charged for loans of Rs. ---- for the overdue amount and
overdue period?
a) 2 lacs b) Above 2 lakhs
c) 4 lakhs d) Above 4 lakhs
28 Which of the following expenses can be considered for arriving at loan amount?
a) Fee payable to college/hostel b) Expenses like study tours, project
including examination fee. work, theses etc.
c) Purchase of computers d) All of these
29 What is the repayment holiday/moratorium under SBI student loan?
a) Course period + 1 year b) Course period + 6 months after
getting job
c) Course period only d) Course period+ 1 year or 6 months
after getting job whichever is earlier
30 Loan applications under SBI student loan have to be disposed off within a
period of ---- days?
a) 7 days b) 7 weeks
c) 9 days d) 15 days
31 The processing of education loan applications should be monitored by the
controllers and RACPCs on ------ basis?
a) Daily b) Weekly
c) Fortnightly d) Monthly
32 What is the maximum age limit prescribed for the students availing the loan?
c) 30 years d) No age limit
33 Application for educational loan should not be rejected without the concurrence
of
a) BM b) AGM
c) GM d) Next higher authority.
34 No Dues Certificate need not be insisted upon as a pre-condition for
considering education loan.
a) True b) False
c) Cant Say d) None of these
35 Loan applications received and disposed off register should be properly
maintained
a) True b) False
36 Our branches can issue the capability certificate for the students going abroad
for higher studies
a) True b) False
Page 26 of 184
37 Government of India has formulated a scheme of providing Interest Subsidy for

Education Loans of students of Economically Weaker Sections whose
parental/family gross Annual Income is up to Rs.__________
a) Rs.1.00 lac b) Rs.2.50 lacs
c) Rs.3.00 lacs d) Rs.4.50 lacs
38 Concession in interest for girl students availing SBI student loan and SBI
Scholar loan w.e.f. 02.03.09 is
a) 1 % b) 0.75 %
c) No concession d) 0.50 %
39 Maximum Loan Amount for Studies Abroad is ?
a) Rs 20 lacs b) Rs 25 lacs
c) Rs 30 lacs d) Rs 50 lacs
40 For the purpose of reporting Priority Sector Lending, loans upto Rs. ____ Lacs
for studies abroad will only be taken into consideration.
a) 20 lacs b) 25 lacs
c) 30 lacs d) 50 lacs
41 Under SBI Loan Scheme for Vocational Education and Training quantum of
finance for course duration upto 6 months is subject to the ceiling of
a) Rs 25,000/- b) Rs 50,000/-
c) Rs 1,00,000/- d) Rs 2,00,000/-
42 Under SBI Loan Scheme for Vocational Education and Training quantum of
finance for course duration above 6 months is subject to the ceiling of
a) Rs 50,000/- b) Rs 1,00,000/-
c) Rs 2,00,000/- d) Rs 2,50,000/-
43 The margin % stipulated under SBI Loan Scheme for Vocational Education and
Training
a) 5% b) 10%
c) 15% d) NIL
44 Moratorium Period under SBI Loan Scheme for Vocational Education and
Courses Training, of duration up to 1 year ?
a) 3 months from the completion b) 6 months from the completion of
of the course the course
c) 9 months from the completion of d) 12 months from the completion of
the course the course
45 Moratorium Period under SBI Loan Scheme for Vocational Education and
Courses Training, of duration above 1 year ?
a) 3 months from the completion of b) 6 months from the completion of
c) 9 months from the completion of d) 12 months from the completion of
46 Repayment Period under SBI Loan Scheme for Vocational Education and
Courses Training, of duration up to 1 year ?
47 Repayment Period under SBI Loan Scheme for Vocational Education and
Courses Training, of duration above 1 year ?
Page 27 of 184
48 Under SBI Scholar Loan scheme, enhanced maximum loan limit without any
tangible collateral, for List AA, A, B and C category institutes are ________
Respectively.
a) Rs15lacs, Rs10lacs, Rs7.50 lacs b) Rs 30 lacs, Rs20lacs, Rs 20 lacs
and Rs.5 lacs and Rs.7.5 lacs
c) Rs25lacs, Rs20lacs, Rs 12.5lacs d) Rs30lacs, Rs20lacs, Rs15 lacs and
and Rs.10 lacs Rs.12 lacs
49 Under SBI Scholar Loan scheme, enhanced maximum loan limit with tangible
collateral of full value for List A and C category institutes are ____ respectively.
a) Rs15lacs and Rs7.50lacs b) Rs20lacs and Rs 10 lacs
c) Rs25lacs and Rs12.5lacs d) Rs30lacs and Rs 30 lacs
50 Maximum repayment period under SBI Scholar Loan?
a) Upto 10 years b) Upto 15 years
c) Upto 12 years d) None of the above
LOANS AGAINST BANK DEPOSITS/ SHARES/ GOLD LOANS/ NSCS
51 How many Demand Loans can be sanctioned against same TDR/STDR within
the overall permissible amount?
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four
52 In special cases, the AGM/RM can permit ____ loan against the same TDR/
STDR within the overall permissible amount
a) Second b) Third
c) Fourth d) Fifth
53 The maximum amount that can be sanctioned against security of shares is
a) 5 lacs b) 20 lacs in demat form and 10
lacs for physical shares
c) 50 lacs d) No limit
54 What is the margin prescribed for advances against shares granted for the
purpose of acquiring new shares?
a) 50% b) 40%
c) 33 1/3% d) 75%
55 The maximum Gold Loan amount that can be sanctioned under Per segment
a) 1 lac b) 5 lacs
c) 20 lacs d) No limit
56 Minimum age limit for sanction of Personal Gold Loan ?
a) 18 years & above b) 21 years & above
c) 25 years & above d) None of these
57 Maximum repayment period under Personal Gold Loan ?
c) 30 months d) None of these
58 Margin under Personal Gold Loan Scheme ?
a) 30% b) 65%
c) 25% d) None of these
59 The loan against debentures to be liquidated within?
c) 24 months d) None of these
60 If outstandings of loan against shares exceed Rs ______the shares should be
transferred in Banks favour
Page 28 of 184
a) 20 lacs in Demat form 10 lacs b) 15 lacs

Physical
61 Charge created on Shares/ debentures?
a) Hypothecation b) Pledge
c) Assignment d) None of these
62 The surrender value of an LIC policy is Rs 10,000/-. How much loan can be
sanctioned?
a) 9,000/- b 9,500/-
c) 10,000/- d) 5,000/-
63 How much % of face value and accrued interests of an NSC can be sanctioned
as loan
a) 50% b 60%
c) 75% d) 85%
64 Maximum repayment period of loan sanctioned against shares
a) 24 months b 30 months
65 ____% of Face value and accrued interest can be sanctioned to staff members
while sanctioning loan against NSCs
a) 65% b) 85%
c) 75% d) 100%
PENSION LOANS:
66 For availing Pension loan maximum age should not exceed ?
a) 70 years of age b) 76 years of age
c) 72 years of age d) None of these
67 Minimum loan amount under Pension loan for Pensioners & Family pensioners?
a) Rs.50,000/- b) Rs.25,000/-
c) Rs.1,00,000/- d) 10%
68 Maximum loan amount under Pension loan scheme for pensioners ?
a) 18 months Pension b) Maximum Rs.14 lacs
c) Both of the above d) None of the above
69 Maximum loan amount under Pension loan scheme for Family pensioners ?
a) 18 months Pension b) Maximum Rs.5 lacs
70 Maximum age limit at the time of full repayment for Pensioners & Family
pensioners ?
c) 84 years d) None of the above
71 ____ % margin should be met by pensioner while availing a pension loan?
a) 15% b) 10%
c) 5% d No margin
FESTIVAL LOAN:
72 Minimum monthly income for Festival Loan?
a) Rs.5,000/- b) Rs.3,000/-
c) Rs.50,000/- d None of these
73 Minimum & Maximum amount under Festival Loan?
a) Minimum Rs.5,000/- b) 4 times of NMI
Page 29 of 184
c) Maximum Rs.50,000/- d All of these

74 Maximum repayment period under Festival Loan?
a) 10 EMI b) 12 EMI
c) 36 EMI d No margin
XPRESS CREDIT:
75 Under Xpress Credit Loan Scheme, the maximum loan amount for School
Teachers shall be a maximum of.
a) 6 months Gross Salary b) 12 months Gross Salary
c) 18 months Gross Salary d) 24 months Gross Salary
76 Apart from PAN Verification, the Xpress Credit proposals should be processed
through LOS without any exception to ensure
a) CIBIL Defaulters b) Validation under Risk Scoring
c) De-dupe Check d) All of these
77 Respective RM, RBO to the DGM(B&O) will certify _______ that all Control
Returns in respect of Xpress Credit Loans sanctioned by the Branches
under their control up to the end of previous month have been scrutinized and
found in order.
a) Monthly b) Bi-monthly
c) Quarterly d) Half yearly
78 Minimum NMI for sanction of Xpress Credit Loan?
a) Rs.10,000/- b) Rs.7,500/-
c) Rs.25,000/- d) Half yearly
79 Minimum & Maximum loan under Xpress Credit Term Loan?
a) Rs.24,000/- & Rs.15 lacs b) Rs.50,000/- & Rs.15 lacs
c) Rs.25,000/- & Rs.10 lacs d) None of these
80 Minimum & Maximum loan under Xpress Credit Overdraft?
a) Rs.5 lacs & Rs.15 lacs b) Rs.10 lacs & Rs.15 lacs
c) Rs.1 lac & Rs.15 lacs d) None of these
81 Maximum loan amount for Employees of private School and Colleges under
Xpress Credit Scheme ?
a) Maximum 6 months Gross Salary b) Maximum 12 months Net Salary
c) Maximum 12 Months Gross d) None of these
Salary
82 Minimum & Maximum repayment period under Xpress Credit Scheme ?
a) 6 months & 60 months b) 12 months & 60 months
c) 24 months & 60 months d) None of the above
83 Conditions for 2nd loan under Xpress Credit ?
a) 1 year after disbursement b) 1st loan is being satisfactorily
conducted
c) More than 2 loans cannot be d) All of these
outstanding at a time
84 Prepayment penalty for Xpress Credit ?

a) Rs.10,000/- b) 2% out of the outstandings
c) Nil d) Half yearly
85 Minimum amount of loan under SBI Saral Personal Loan?
a) Rs.24,000/- in Metro & Urban b) Rs.10,000/- in Semi Urban & Rural
Page 30 of 184
c) Both of the above d) None of these

86 Maximum loan under SBI Saral Personal Loan ?
a) 12 times of NMI for Salaries & b) Rs.10 lacs in all centres
Pensioners
87 Maximum repayment for SBI Saral Personal Loan ?

a) 60 EMI b) 48 EMI
c) 120 EMI d) None of these
LOANS AGAINST PROPERTY:

88 Minimum & Maximum amount under Loan against property?
a) Rs.20,000 & Rs.50 lacs b) Rs.1 lacs & Rs.1 Crore
c) Rs.25,000/- & Rs. 1 Crore d) None of these
LOAN POLICY GUIDELINES:

89 SBIs Loan Policy is applicable to ?
a) All lending b) All domestic lending
c) All foreign lending d) None of these
90 What is CRA ?
a) Credit Risk Assessment b) Credit Realisation Assessment
c) Customer Risk Assessment d) None of these
91 Maturity of a Term Loan should not normally exceed ?
c) 9 years d) None of these
92 Repayment of PER Segment loans is generally on the basis of ?
a) Post Dated Cheques b) Standing Instructions
c) Equated Monthly Installment d) None of these
93 Take over in repsect of PER Segment loans is restricted to ?
a) Housing Loans b) Car Loans
94 During Pre-Sanction a visit has to be made to ?
a) Residence of the Borrower/ b) Work place of the Borrower/
Guarantor Guarantor
c) Actual site/ Builder in case of HL d) All of these
95 Base Rate system is introduced w.e.f ?
a) 01.04.2010 b) 01.07.2010
c) 01.01.2010 d) None of these
96 Penal Interest should not be charged for loans upto ?

a) Rs.50,000/- b) Rs.25,000/-
c) Rs.1,00,000/- d) None of these
97 Certain documents like Will, Mortages (other EMs) are to be witnessed by ?
a) 3 persons b) 2 persons
c) 1 person d) None of these
98 Credit Information Report is used for assessment of borrowers ?
a) Past payment behaviour b) Current capability to service the
loan
Page 31 of 184
99 Account status BLANK in CIBIL report indicates ?

a) The oustandings in the account b) Suit Filed
has not been written off
c) Written off d) None of these
100 Credit Information Companies in India otherthan CIBIL ?
a) Equifax Credit Information b) Experian Credit Information
Services Pvt. Ltd Company of India Ltd.
c) Highmark Credit Information d) All of these
Services Pvt. Ltd
OTHER P-SEGMENT LOANS - ANSWERS
1 b 2 c 3 c 4 c 5 a 6 b 7 a 8 c 9 b 10 d
11 b 12 a 13 d 14 d 15 b 16 a 17 d 18 d 19 b 20 a
21 d 22 b 23 d 24 d 25 d 26 d 27 d 28 d 29 a 30 d
31 b 32 d 33 d 34 a 35 a 36 a 37 d 38 d 39 c 40 a
41 b 42 b 43 d 44 b 45 d 46 a 47 b 48 b 49 d 50 b
51 d 52 d 53 b 54 a 55 c 56 b 57 c 58 c 59 b 60 a
61 b 62 b 63 b 64 b 65 b 66 b 67 b 68 c 69 c 70 a
71 d 72 b 73 d 74 b 75 b 76 d 77 a 78 b 79 a 80 b
81 c 82 b 83 d 84 c 85 c 86 c 87 b 88 c 89 b 90 a
91 b 92 c 93 c 94 d 95 b 96 b 97 b 98 c 99 a 100 d
Page 32 of 184
COMMERCIAL & INSTITUTIONAL FINANCE (C&I)
Compiled by Ms. Arun Jyothi, Manager (Training)
1 1. What are two types of Ratings we have in New CRA?

a) Regular & Simplified Ratings b) Borrower & Facility Ratings
c) WC & TL Ratings d) None of these
2 CRA 2007 is applicable for all advance accounts with aggregate exposure(Fund
based+Non fund based) of _______
a) Rs 5 lacs and above b) Rs 1 crore and above
c) Rs 25 lacs and above d) Rs 5 crores and above
3 How many risk rating grades are there in CRA-2007?
a) 16 b) 10
c) 8 d) 15
4 CRA 2007 is applicable for all advance accounts with aggregate exposure(Fund
based+Non fund based) of _______
a) Rs.5 lacs and above b) Rs 25 lacs and above
c) Rs 1 crore and above d) Rs 5 crores and above
5 What is the hurdle rate under New CRA-2007?
a) SB- 5 b) SB- 4
c) SB- 8 d) SB- 10
6 Opinion reports on Borrowers / Guarantors are to be updated at ---
a) Quarterly intervals b) Half yearly intervals
c) at yearly intervals irrespective of d) at the time of renewal / enhancement
review / renewal of of limits
7 Financial Follow up Reports (FFRs) to be submitted by borrowal accounts with
FBWC limits of
a) Rs 5 Crore and above b) Rs 2 Crores and above
c) Rs 1 Crore and above d) Rs 3 Crores and above
8 FFR I should be submitted at
a) Quarterly intervals within 6 weeks b) Quarterly intervals within 6 weeks
from the completion of the quarter from the completion of the quarter
c) Half yearly intervals within 6 d) Half yearly intervals within 8 weeks
weeks from the completion of the from the completion of the Half year
Half year
9 What do you mean by specified securities?
a) stocks, funds and securities b) receipts, certificates or any other form
(other than immovable property) of instrument issued by the State
in which a trustee may invest trust Bank in evidence of or representing
money under any law for the time amounts deposited with it
being in force in India;
c) any other security that may be d) All of the above
specified by the Central Board
10 FFR II should be submitted at
a) Quarterly intervals within 6 weeks b) Half yearly intervals within 8 weeks
from the completion of the quarter from the completion of the Half year
c) Quarterly intervals within 6 weeks d) Half yearly intervals within 6 weeks

from the completion of the quarter from the completion of the Half year
11 Prudential exposure limits for single and group borrowers other than infrastructure
Page 33 of 184
projects is:-
a) 15% of the capital (Tier I and Tier b) 25% for individual borrowers and
II Capital) of the Bank for single 50% for group of borrowers
and 40% for the group of
borrowers
c) 20% of the capital of the Bank for d) None of the above
individual and 50% for the group
of borrowers
12 What constitutes exposure?
a) Includes both FB and NFB limits b) Loans and advances sanctioned to
sanctioned to the borrowers the borrowers
c) Includes FB and NFB facilities, d) all of the above
investments, underwriting and
any other commitment
13 What are the substantial exposure norms for single borrower specified by our
Bank?
a) 15% of the Tire I and Tire II b) 7.5% of the Tire I and Tire II capital of
capital of the Bank the Bank.
c) Rs. 20 crores d) None of the above.
14 What are the prudential exposure norms for non-corporate and non-individual
borrowers?
a) Rs.80 crores b) 100 crores
c) Rs. 50 crores d) 25 crores
15 What is the loan policy guideline of the Bank in respect of maturity of loans
(inclusive of gestation period)?
16 What is the indicative bench mark of the Bank in respect of Current Ratio for
Manufacturing units?
a) 1.25 b) 1.50
c) 1 d) 1.33
17 To assess the financial soundness of the unit, what is the reasonable TOL/TNW
prescribed by the Bank for Trade and Service Units?
a) 2:1 b) 5:1
c) 4:1 d) 3:1
18 What is the indicative Net Debt Service Coverage Ratio prescribed by the Bank?
a) 3:1 b) 1.75:1
c) 2:1 d) 1.50:1
19 What is the indicative Gross Debt Service Coverage Ratio prescribed by the
Bank?
a) 3:1 b) 1.75:1
c) 2:1 d) 1.50:1
20 What is the indicative Debt Equity Gearing prescribed by the Bank for Trade &
Service Units?
a) 1.50 : 1 b) 2.25: 1
c) 1.75:1 d) 2: 1
21 Selective Credit Control directives issued by RBI will not cover the following
aspects of advances
a) monetary ceiling per borrower b) Interest rate on advances
Page 34 of 184
c) overall ceiling for the Bank as a d) Margin on advances

whole in respect of a particular
commodity
22 What is the main objective of Selective Credit Control
a) To control the loaning activities of b) To regularize rate of interest on
the Banks particular types of commodities
c) To control the level of advances d) To prevent speculative holding of
to a particular trade / industry essential commodities with the help
of Bank Credit
23 What is the validity period of administrative clearance (AC) accorded by the
CCC/CCCC?
c) 8 weeks d) 12months
24 What are the three major components of post-sanction credit process?
a) Creation of security, b) Inspection, follow-up and recovery
documentation and disbursement
c) Follow-up, supervision and d) None of the above
Control
25 Follow-up function include one of these jobs
a) creation of security and b) Pre-sanction Inspection
documentation
c) Sanction of the loan d) Application, appraisal and
recommendations
26 Supervision function include one of these jobs
a) Periodical classification of assets b) Documentation and creation of
as per IRAC norms charge
c) Obtention of Stock Statements d) Verification of books, registers and
statements periodically
27 Cash Budget method used commonly for the following types of borrowers
a) for SSI units of Rs.25 lacs and b) For C&I units of Rs.1 crore and above
above
c) for traders d) for seasonal industries like sugar, tea
and for construction activity
28 PBS method of assessment will be applicable to the following types of accounts
a) Borrowers engaged in b) Borrowers requiring FB Limits of
manufacturing, services and Rs25 lacs and above
trading and agricultural activities
c) For borrowers with FB Limit d) none of the above
requirement of above Rs.5 crores
29 Turn Over method is applicable for the following credit limits
a) For all units whose working b) For manufacturing units whose wc
capital requirement is upto Rs.1 requirements is upto Rs.2 crores
crore
c) For manufacturing, trade and d) None of the above
services units whose working
capital requirement is upto Rs. 5
crores
30 What do you mean by ABF method? (Assessed Bank Finance)
a) It is the amount of Limit b) It is one of the WC assessment
sanctioned to the unit method
Page 35 of 184
c) it is a part and parcel of PBF d) none of the above

method of WC assessment
31 Demand Bills purchased and received at the realization branch are called:-
a) Demand Bills Received for b) Local Short Credits
Realization
c) Bank Bills Receivable d) none the above
32 What do you mean by Documentary Bill?
a) Bills drawn on stamped paper, by b) Bills supported by documents
Document Writers
c) Where the bills are supported by d) Where the bills are not supported by
RRs, LRs or BoL which are documents of title to goods
otherwise known as documents of
title to goods
33 What do you mean by Supply Bills?
a) Bills arising on account of supply b) Bills submitted by the Suppliers for
of goods to Government collection
c) Bills sent by various traders for d) None of the above
the supply of stationery / furniture
etc. to the Bank
34 In case of BGs issued on behalf of partnership firm the counter guarantee must be
signed by
a) at least two partners of the firm b) all the partners of the firm
c) Managing Partner of the firm d) Managing Partner and another
partner
35 What are the main statements used for analysis of Financial Statements
a) Balance Sheet b) Balance Sheet and Profit & Loss
Account
c) Balance Sheet , Profit & Loss d) Balance Sheet, Profit & Loss
Account and Funds Flow Account, Funds Flow Statement and
Statement Cash Flow statement
36 Which one of the following is not a Current Liability?
a) Income tax dues payable b) Term Loan installments payable
within a year
c) salaries / rents / wages payable d) Long Term Deposits obtained to
supply goods on credit
37 What do you mean by PBDIT?
a) Profit before depreciation, interest b) Profit before discount, interest and
and taxes taxes
c) Net Profit d) Operational profit
38 What do you mean by Net Working Capital?
a) Total working capital required by b) Liquid surplus (i.e. CA CL)
the unit
c) Working capital limits sanctioned d) Margin of working capital brought in
by the Bank by the borrowing unit
39 What do you mean by TNW?
a) Fixed Assets Long Term b) Total Capital of the unit
Liabilities
c) Capital + free reserves d) None of the above
intangible assets
Page 36 of 184
40 Which one of these ratios is not a Liquidity ratio?

a) Acid Test Ratio (CA- b) TOL / TNW (Total Outside
Stocks/Inventory/(CL-Bank Liabilities/Tangible Net Worth)
Borrowings)
c) Current Ratio (Current Assets d) Quick Ratio (Current Assets-Stocks
/Current Liabilities) or Inventory/Current Liabilities)
41 Which one of these ratios is not a Operating Ratio?
a) Inventory Turnover Ratio(Net b) Gross Profit Margin Ratio(Gross
Sales / Inventory) Profit/Total Sales x 100)
c) Average collection period d) Assets Turnover Ratio(Net Sales /
days/months(Sundry Total Assets)
Debtors/Credit Sales X 365)
42 Which one of these ratios is not a Profitability Ratio?
a) Gross Profit Margin Ratio b) Return on Capital Employed
(PBDIT/Total Assets)
c) Net Profit Margin Ratio(Net Profit d) TOL/TNW
/ Total Assets x 100)
43 Which one of these ratios is not a Coverage Ratio?
a) Debt Service Coverage Ratio b) Gross DSCR (PAT+Dep.+ Interest /
(PAT+Depreciation /instalments) Instalments + Interest)
c) Interest Coverage ratio d) TOL/TNW
(PBDIT/Interest)
44 Which one of these ratios is not a leverage ratio?
a) Debit / Equity Ratio (Term b) Assets Turnover ratio (Sales / Total
Liabilities/ TNW) Assets)
c) TOL/TNW d) None of the above
45 What is a healthy practice in funds flows?
a) long term deficit must be met from b) long term deficit must be met from
short term sources long term sources
c) short term deficit must be met d) short term deficit must be met from
from long term sources short term sources
46 Break-even analysis is useful to find out
a) Break-even Fixed Assets b) Break-even sales
c) Break-even staff strength d) None of these
47 Sensitivity analysis does not study the impact of profits on account of changes in
the following:-
a) Volume of sales b) Price of Product
c) Costs of production d) Volume of production
48 What do you mean by contribution?
a) Fixed Cost Variable Cost b) Variable Cost Fixed Cost
c) Sales Price Variable Cost d) Sales Price Fixed Cost
49 Under New CRA, both borrower rating and facility rating is required under
a) Simplified Regular b) Regular Model
c) Simplified Model d) None of these
50 We have to prepare both Borrower wise and Facility wise rating for Customers
whose FB+NFB Requirements are above
a) Rs.50 lacs b) Rs.2 crores
c) Rs.25 lacs d) Rs.5 crores
51 As per the Basel II norms, the Credit Conversion Factor for Documentary LCs is
a) 20% b) 25%
Page 37 of 184
c) 50% d) 100%
52 Benchmark levels for Current Ratio for other than Manufacturing units with FBWC
limits < Rs. 5 crores is (as per loan policy)
a) 1.30 b) 1.00
c) 1.20 d) 1.33
53 Cost of Sales is
a) Cost of Production + Selling, b) Cost of Production - Non Operating
General & Administration Exp Expenses
c) Cost of Production + Op Stock of d) Cost of Production + Op. St. of FG -
SIP - Cl Stock of SIP Cl. St. of FG
54 While analyzing Balance Sheet , Deferred Tax Assets are classified as
a) Current Assets b) Non Current Assets
c) Fixed Assets d) Intangible Assets
55 Benchmark levels for Project Debt Equity as per loan policy is
a) 3:1 b) 4:1
c) 1:1 d) 2:1
56 Substantial Exposure is reckoned as ------ % of Bank's Capital Funds for a Group
of borrowers
a) 5.00 b) 10.00
c) 2.5 d) 15.00
57 Cash Flow Statement classifies cash flows from these activities
a) Operating, Accounting & b) Financing & Investing
Financing
c) Operating & Investing d) Operating, Investing & Financing
58 To ensure 'End Use of Funds', the best tool is
a) Cash Flow Statement b) Operating Statement
c) Cash Budget d) Funds Flow Statement
59 While analyzing Balance Sheet, Software related CAPEX is classified as
a) Current Assets b) Intangible Assets
c) Fixed Assets d) Non Current Assets
60 While analyzing Balance Sheet , Advances paid to suppliers of raw materials' is
classified as
a) Non Current Assets b) Intangible Assets
c) Fixed Assets d) Current Assets
61 While analyzing Balance Sheet , 'Advances to suppliers of Capital Goods' is
classified as
a) Current Assets b) Intangible Assets
c) Fixed Assets d) Non Current Assets
62 Receivables to Gross Sales falls in category of
a) Liquidity ratios b) Solvency ratios
c) Turnover ratios d) Coverage ratios
63 Current Ratio benchmarks for 'trade' are
a) 1 for limit upto Rs.1 crore and b) 1.20 for limit upto Rs 5 crore and 1.33
1.20 thereafter thereafter
c) 1 for limit upto Rs.5 crore and d) 1 for limit upto Rs.2 crore and 1.20
1.20 thereafter thereafter
64 FFR II pertains to
a) Projections for next quarter b) P&L Funds flow of the next half year
c) P&L Funds flow of the previous d) Projections of next half year
half year
Page 38 of 184
65 While analyzing Balance Sheet , 'Term Loan installments falling due in _______'
are classified as Current Liabilities
a) within next 6 months b) within next 9 months
c) within next 3months d) within next 12 months
66 According to Basel-II, a corporate is a unit having annual turnover of---

a) 50Cr & above for average 3 yrs b) 50Crore & above for average 5 yrs
c) 100Cr & above for average 3 yrs d) 100Cr & above for average 5 yrs
67 For a limit of Rs.100 lac, sanctioned for an Agricultural Unit, you use which form of
CRA?
a) Trading Model (Simple) b) Trading Model (Regular)
c) Manufacturing (Simple) d) Manufacturing (Regular)
68 As per the guidelines of the bank, audited financials need not be obtained for limits
up to Rs-----.
a) 25 Lac b) 25 Lac
c) 10 Lac d) 10 Lac
69 What is DTL?
a) Debt to Liability b) Debt Taken as Loan
c) Differed Tax Liability d) Differed Total Liability
70 If DTL is there in the Financial Statements, where it has to be shown on Balance
Sheet?
a) As an Asset b) As a term liability
c) As a current liability d) As a Net Worth item
71 Tier I capital consists of mainly
a) Share capital and disclosed b) Certain reserves and subordinated
reserves debt
c) All the above d) None of these
72 Tier II capital consists of mainly
a) Share capital and disclosed b) Certain reserves and subordinated
reserves debt
c) Core Capital d) All the above
73 The loan policy is an embodiment of banks approach to
a) Sanctioning, Managing and b) Sanctioning, Managing and
Monitoring Credit Risk Monitoring Market Risk
c) Sanctioning, Managing and d) All the above
Monitoring Operational Risk
74 The Banks loan policy applies to
a) Standard Assets only b) Overseas advances and Domestic
Advances
c) Overseas Advances only d) All Domestic Lendings only
Additional credit exposure to group borrower beyond normal limit of 40%. in case
75 of
infrastructure projects is
a) 5% b) 10%
c) 15% d) 20%
Additional credit exposure up to 5% beyond normal limit of 15%. Permitted to a
76
single borrower if the limit is for ______projects.
a) Agriculture investment b) Export oriented
c) Infrastructure d) None of these
Page 39 of 184
Prudential Exposure limit for single and group borrowers including infrastructure
77
projects is -- & --% capital of the bank
a) 20% & 40% b) 15% & 40%
c) 20% & 50% d) 10% & 20%
At whole bank level, the non-fund exposure will not exceed ------ the level of fund
78 based
exposure.
a) 2 times b) 3 times
c) 4 times d) 5 times
Which of the following does not fall under Infrastructure Lendings extended by
79
lenders to the borrowers
a) Transport b) Energy, Water & Sanitation
c) Communication d) None of these
Banks exposure to leasing, Hire purchase and Factoring Services should not
80
exceed _% of total advances
a) 10% b) 5%
c) 15% d) 20%
81 Which committee recommended factoring in India
a) Kalyana Sundaram Committee b) Narasimham Committee
c) Nayak Committee d) None of these
How many types of deviations are being monitored by OTMS, web-based solution
82 based on the requirements of OMS (Off-site monitoring Systems) at I & MA,
Hyderabad
a) 11 b) 12
c) 10 D 15
As per RBI guidelines, What is the time period for opening current accounts of
83 borrowers enjoying credit facilities (FB + NFB) , by Non-Lending banks if NOC
from Lending banks is not received?
a) If NOC is not obtained within a b) If NOC is not obtained within a month
fortnight
c) If NOC is not obtained within a d) If NOC is not obtained within 3
week months
ESR (Early Sanction Review) mechanism was introduced in audit system since
84
September 2014 to review sanctions of
a) Above 5 crores b) Above 10 crores
c) Only units enjoying NFB Limits d) Sanctions of more than 1 cr upto 5
crs
85 Which of these is not the objective of ESR mechanism
a) To capture the critical risks in the b) Improve the quality of pre-sanction/
proposals sanctioned, as an early sanction processes
stage and apprise the controllers
of such risks for mitigation thereof
at the earliest.
c) Improve the quality of loan d) For financing units above 1 crores to
proposals 5 crores
Page 40 of 184
ANSWERS
1 b 2 c 3 a 4 b 5 d 6 c 7 a 8 a 9 d 10 b
11 a 12 d 13 b 14 b 15 a 16 d 17 b 18 c 19 b 20 d
21 b 22 d 23 c 24 c 25 a 26 d 27 d 28 c 29 c 30 c
31 a 32 c 33 a 34 b 35 d 36 d 37 a 38 b 39 c 40 b
41 b 42 d 43 d 44 b 45 c 46 b 47 d 48 c 49 b 50 d
51 a 52 c 53 d 54 d 55 d 56 d 57 d 58 d 59 b 60 d
61 d 62 c 63 c 64 c 65 d 66 a 67 c 68 b 69 c 70 d
71 a 72 b 73 a 74 d 75 b 76 c 77 c 78 a 79 d 80 a
81 a 82 a 83 a 84 d 85 d
Page 41 of 184
SME ADVANCES

Please choose correct answer from the given alternatives
1. Which one of the following is not classified as Industrial Enterprises under
MSMED Act 2006
a) Micro Enterprises b) Small Enterprises
c) Small Business Finance d) Medium Enterprises
2. A manufacturing unit with original investment in P & M for a unit to be classified
as micro enterprise
a) Rs.25 Lakhs excluding L & B b) Rs. 25.00 Lakhs including L & B
c) Rs.10 Lakhs excluding L & B d) Rs. 10.00 Lakhs including L & B
3. A service enterprise with original investment in equipment for a unit to be
classified as micro enterprise
a) Upto Rs.10 Lakhs b) From Rs.10 Lakhs & upto Rs. 2
crores
c) Above Rs.2 crores & upto Rs. 5 d) Above Rs.2 crores & upto Rs.10
crores crores
4. A manufacturing unit with original investment in P & M more than Rs.5.00 cr but
doesnt exceed Rs.10.00 Cr is classified under MSMED act as
a) Micro Enterprise b) Small Enterprise
c) Medium Enterprise d) Not applicable
5. As per RBI guidelines, how much of the advances to Micro & Small enterprises
should go to Micro enterprises (manufacturing) having investment in P & M upto
Rs.5.00 lakhs and micro enterprises (services) having investment in equipment
up to Rs.2.00 lakhs?
a) 40% b) 20%
c) 50% d) 35%
6. As per RBI guidelines, what is the share of Micro enterprise advances as part of
total advances to MSE
a) 50% b) 80%
c) 60% d) 55%
7. As per RBI guidelines, how much of the advances to Micro & Small Enterprises
should go to Micro Enterprises (manufacturing) having investment in P & M
above Rs.5.00 lakhs and upto Rs.25.00 lakhs and Micro enterprises (Services)
having investment in equipment above Rs.2.00 lakhs and upto Rs.10.00 lakhs
a) 40% b) 20%
c) 50% d) 35%
8. As per Prime Ministers task force on MSMEs (Micro, small and medium
enterprises), the credit growth rate recommended for this sector is
a) 25% b) 10%
c) 15% d) 20%
9. As per Prime Ministers task force on MSMEs (Micro, Small and medium
enterprises), the no of accounts growth rate recommended for this sector is
a) 10% b) 15%
c) 17% d) 12%
All manufacturing units defined in MSMED Act, 2006 when engaged in exports
10
are classified as priority sector advances
Page 42 of 184
a) No, Only micro and small b) No, only micro manufacturing units
manufacturing units fall under the fall under the category of priority
category of priority sector sector
c) No, only small manufacturing units d) Yes, all units fall under the category
fall under the category of priority of priority sector
sector
Advances to manufacturing units which are classified as medium enterprises
11
under MSMED Act, 2006 fall under the category of
a) Priority sector advances b) Non-priority sector C&I advances
c) Priority sector C& I advances d) Indirect priority sector advances
12 As per recent RBI guidelines
a) No collateral should be accepted b) No collateral should be accepted for
for all MSE sector manufacturing all MSE sector service enterprise
loans up to Rs.10.00 lakhs loans up to Rs.5.00 lakhs
c) No collateral should be accepted d) No collateral should be accepted for
for all MSE sector manufacturing & all MSE sector manufacturing and
services sector loans up to Rs.5.00 service sector loans up to Rs.10.00
lakhs lakhs
13 As per SME documentation SME-4 represents
a) Supplemental Agreement of loan b) Agreement of loan cum
cum Hypothecation Hypothecation
c) Letter of furnishing the particulars d) None of these
of assets
14 Which of the following with SME -2 is incorrect
a) It is a both principle and charging b) Covers both fund based and non
document fund based facilities
c) Contains two schedules A & B d) Creates Pledge on movable assets
15 With regard to SME 3 which of the following is incorrect
a) Stamped as an agreement + Power b) Covers all types of guarantees like
of attorney personal guarantee, Third party
Guarantee and Corporate
guarantee
c) Fresh SME 3 to be obtained for d) It has supplemental guarantee
enhanced aggregate limit agreement for enhanced limit
16 With regard to SME 5 which of the following is correct
a) Provides for creation of EM by all b) To be stamped
types of mortgagers i.e.,
Borrower(s), Guarantor(s) or Third
party Mortgagor(s)
c) Mortgage debt may be less than or d) All of the above
equal to the aggregate limit
17 With regarding to SME 6, which of the following is incorrect
a) It is an independent evidence for b) To be signed by all the
creation of mortgage by Deposit of Mortgagor(s)
Title Deeds and intention to create
EM in favour of the bank
c) To be signed by 2 officials of the d) To be obtained from all types of
bank Mortgagor(s)
18 Title Investigation Report contains the following parts
a) Letter to advocate for search and b) Annexure B is to be completed by
Page 43 of 184
verification of title the panel advocate

deeds/documents
c) Annexure C- checklist for the d) All of these
guidance of the advocates verifying
the title to the property(ies) offered
as security
19 With regard to SME 12, following are correct
a) To facilitate migration from earlier b) To be executed by all the
segmental documents (SSI & C&I) Borrower(s) and Guarantor(s)
to SME documents
c) In case of corporate Borrowers, the d) All of the above
link letter may have to be filed with
the ROC along with the SME
documents to evidence the
continuity or modification of the
existing charges
20 e-DFS facility is for
a) Financing dealers of companies b) Financing share brokers
c) Financing realtors d) Financing dealers of stock
exchanges
Whenever S format is used for assessment, control/review of the proposal will be
21
done in
a) AC format b) SA format
c) AS format d) S-1 format
22 S Format is used for
a) Assessment and appraisal of small b) Assessment and appraisal of loans
loans up to Rs.25.00 lakhs
c) Assessment and appraisal of loans d) Assessment and appraisal of loans
above Rs.25.00 lakhs above Rs.5.00 crores
23 CGTMSE stands for
a) Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for b) Credit Guarantee Trust for Medium
Micro and Small Industries Scale Industries
c) Credit General Trust for Medium d) Collateral Guarantee Trust for
and Small Enterprises Medium Scale Enterprises
For advance to a retail trader to be classified under SBF, the limit should not
24
exceed
a) Rs.20.00 lakhs b) Rs.10.00 lakhs
c) Rs.12.00 lakhs d) Rs.50.00 lakhs
25 Primary security in the context of CGTMSE mean
a) Assets created out of the credit b) L & B of factory/office/godown etc.
facility which pertains to the unit and
associated with the project and is
unencumbered
c) Personal guarantee of the d) All the above
proprietor
ANSWERS
1. c 2. a 3. c 4. c 5. a 6. c 7. b 8. d 9. a 10. a
11. b 12. c 13. a 14. d 15. d 16. d 17. c 18. d 19. d 20. a
21. c 22. c 23. a 24. a 25. d
Page 44 of 184
SME ASSET PRODUCTS
Please choose the correct answer from the given alternatives :
1. The maximum amount of loan that can be sanctioned to a Manufacturing unit

under SME Smart Score?
a) Rs.10 Lacs b) Rs.5 Lacs
c) Rs.50 Lacs d) Rs.25 Lacs
2. The minimum amount of Loan that can be sanctioned to a Manufacturing unit
under SME Smart Score?
3. The margin stipulated for a term loan under SME Smart Score is______.
a) 25% b) 20%
c) 33% d) 30%
4. The minimum percentage of score that an applicant should get in order to avail a
loan under SME Smart Score?
a) 60% (with a minimum score of 50% b) 75% (with a minimum score of 60%
under each sub head) under each sub head)
c) 50% (with a minimum score of 45% d) 70% (with a minimum score of 60%
under each sub head) under each sub head)
5. The maximum amount of loan that can be sanctioned under SME Smart Score for
a Trader / Service provider?
6. What percent of annual turn over can be financed as working capital under SME
Smart Score for a manufacturing unit?
a) 20% b) 15%
c) 25% d) 30%
7. What percent of annual turn over can be financed as working capital under SME
Smart Score for an unit dealing in Trade & Services?
a) 25% b) 15%
c) 20% d) 30%
8. The maximum repayment period that can be allowed for a term loan under SME
Smart Score?
a) 5 years excluding moratorium of 6 b) 5 years including moratorium of 6
months months
c) 7 years including moratorium of 6 d) 7 years excluding moratorium of 6
months months
9. The age criteria stipulated for the promoter/ applicant to avail a loan under SME
Smart Score is___________.
a) Min 21 Yrs- Max 65 Yrs. b) Min 21 Yrs- Max 70 Yrs.
c) Min 18 Yrs- Max 65 Yrs. d) Min 18 Yrs- Max 60 Yrs.
Page 45 of 184
10. Which of the following is true?

a) Loans not approved under SME b) SME Smart Score is renewed once
Smart Score can be financed under in 2 years and reviewed every year
the normal credit dispensation
based on considerations.
c) The margins stipulated under SME d) All the above
Smart score are 25% for W.C. and
33% for T.L.
11. The maximum quantum of finance that can be extended under Asset Backed
Loan?
a) Rs.2 Crores b) Rs.10 Crores
c) Rs.20 Crores d) Rs.50 Crores
12. The minimum quantum of finance that can be extended under Asset Backed
Loan?
a) Rs.0.10 Crore b) Rs.0.50 Crores
c) Rs.1.00 Crore d) No minimum amount stipulated
13. Under Asset backed Loan, Maximum permissible amount against the property for
loans upto Rs.10 crore is
a) 50% b) 75%
c) 70% d) 60%
14. Under Asset backed Loan, Maximum permissible amount against the property for
loans above Rs.10 crore is
a) 60% b) 65%
c) 55% d) 50%
15. Which of the following target group is eligible to avail a loan under Asset backed
Loan?
a) Oil Mills, Cotton ginning Mills b) Professional & Self employed
c) Commission Agents engaged d) All manufacturing and service
foodgrains sector units covered under MSMED
Act 2006
16. Which of the following is a feature of Asset Backed Loan?
a) It is a Drop-Line over draft facility b) The property mortgaged needs to
be within a radius of 25 km
c) No renewal of limit, review has to d) All the above
be carried our annually
17. The quantum of finance that can be extended under Asset backed Loan is____.
a) For working capital it is based on b) For Term Loan it is based on the
the projected sales as per Nayak actual proposed expenditure
committee or ABF
c) 60% of the realizable value of the d) All are correct
property for loans upto 10 crores
and thereafter 50% of the
realizable value of the property
18. Which of the following is not true with respect to Asset backed Loan?
a) Asset backed Loan can be b) Stocks statements need to be
sanctioned as DL/TL/CC. furnished at the half yearly
c) The property lies within a radius of d) Free cash pick up facility for limits
25Km from the branch above Rs.1.00 crore
19. The maximum quantum of loan that can be extended under SME Credit Card is:
Page 46 of 184
c) Rs.10 Lacs fro Traders & Rs.20 d) Rs.25 Lacs

Lacs for Manufacturing Units
20. The SME Credit Card is sanctioned for a period of ________.
a) 2 years, subject to annual review b) 3 years, subject to annual review
c) One year d) 3 years
21. The minimum score, an applicant should get to be eligible for availing finance
under SME Credit Card is:
a) 60% b) 65%
c) 70% d) 50%
22. The maximum age criteria stipulated under SME Credit Card is___________.
a) 65 years b) 70 Years
c) 66 Years d) No maximum age stipulated
23. Which of the following is true with respect to SME Credit Card?
a) No collateral is insisted upon for b) For SBF units, collateral/third party
SSI units guarantee is obtained if the loan is
more than Rs.25,000/-
c) Maximum repayment for the term d) All the above
loan component is 5 years.
24. Which of the following is true with respect to SME Credit Card?
a) The limit can be reviewed if the b) A repayment schedule has to be
credit summations are 50% of the fixed if the credit summations are
projected turn over. less than 50% of Projected Annual
turn over.
c) Both CC and TL can be sanctioned d) All the above.
25. Under SME Credit Card scheme, which of the following is Not true?
a) Cheque book to be marked as b) Stock statement is obtained once in
SME Credit Card a year, preferably in last quarter
c) Borrower can be issued a Photo d) Detailed Opinion reports are to
Identity Card compiled and should be on record.
26. Who among the following is not eligible for finance under SME Credit Card?
a) Self employed with a credit b) Professionals with credit
requirement of Rs.10 Lacs requirement of Rs.8 Lacs
c) Village Industries with a credit d) SSI units with credit requirement of
requirement of Rs.7.5 Lacs Rs.15 Lacs
27. Which product do you suggest to a small manufacturer whose credit limit
requirement is Rs.25 Lacs and who wishes that the facility can be sanctioned for
a period of 2 years?
a) SME Credit Card b) Traders Easy Loan
c) SME Smart Score d) SME Credit Plus
28. The maximum amount of Loan that can be extended under Doctor Plus Scheme
is
a) Rs.1 Crore b) Rs.2 Crores
29. Who among the following is eligible to avail finance under Doctor Plus scheme?
a) Partnerships, Individuals b) Corporates
c) Trusts with powers to borrow d) All the above
30. The minimum DSCR stipulated for loans under Doctor Plus is ________.
a) 1:1.5 b) 1:1.75
c) 1:1.15 d) 1:1.33
Page 47 of 184
31. Which of the following is Correct with respect to Doctor Plus Scheme?
a) The loan can be sanctioned as b) The loan can be sanctioned as an
Medium Term Loan/Cash Credit Overdraft.
c) The loan can also be sanctioned as d) The loan can be sanctioned as a
Demand Loan. Medium Term Loan/Cash
Credit/Demand Loan/O.D.
32. Maximum Moratorium that can be allowed for loans sanctioned under Doctor
Plus is:
c) 18 months d) Till the doctor's practice is stabilized
subject to a maximum of 18
months.
33. The maximum amount that can be sanctioned to an individual under Doctor Plus
scheme at Metro / Urban centres is:
c) Rs.2 Crores d) Rs.1Crores
34. Which of the following is True under Doctor Plus Scheme?
a) The collateral security for loans b) The collateral security for loans for
above Rs.25 lacs and upto Rs.1 loans sanctioned to Micro & Small
Crore should be at least 25% of the Enterprises above Rs.1Crore
loan amount. Alternatively,eligible should be at least 25% of the loan
accounts may be covered under amount and also Personal
CGTMSE scheme. guarantee of the promoters.
c) The primary security will be d) all the above
hypothecation of Assets financed
35. Which of the following can be considered for finance under Doctor Plus scheme?
a) Setting up clinic and Purchase of b) Expansion/renovation etc.
Ambulance
c) Setting up Nursing home and d) All the above
Purchase of Computers etc.
36. The margin stipulated for loans upto Rs.10 Lacs under Doctor Plus scheme?
a) 15% b) 25%
c) 20% d) 10%
37. The margin stipulated for loans above Rs.10 lacs and upto Rs.5 crs is:
a) 25% b) 20%
c) 30% d) 15%
38. Which of the following is NOT a salient feature of the product Doctor Plus?
a) Multiple disbursements over a b) 50% concession over the Card
period of 24 months form date of rates in Upfront Fee/Processing
sanction based on requirements Charges is extended.
can be made.
c) The inspection of the unit should d) All eligible advances can be
be carried out at Monthly/quarterly covered under CGTMSE.
intervals.
39. Maximum marks under Scoring Model for Doctor Plus scheme_____.
a) 50 b) 100
c) 75 d) 90
40. Which of the following is NOT true with respect to Doctor Plus scheme?
a) The rate of Interest for limits up to b) Minimum score of 40 on credit
Rs.25 lacs will be based on Credit scoring model is required to be
Page 48 of 184
Scoring Model. eligible for the loan.

c) For limits above Rs.25 lacs and up d) Units with CRA Rating below SB 8
to Rs.10 crores, the Pricing will be can be considered subject to
based on CRA rating. premium pricing of 100 basis
points.
41. The hurdle score for Personal Details and Business scoring under Scoring Model
of Doctor Plus scheme (for loans upto Rs.25 Lacs) are ___ & _______
respectively (out of 32 & 43 respy).
a) 15, 20 b) 20,25
c) 17,22 d) 16,23
42. For Non Allopathic doctors (Unani, Ayurvedic,Homeopathic), the maximum
quantum of loan that can be extended under Doctor Plus is ____.
a) Rs.50Lacs b) Rs.20 Lacs
43. The maximum quantum of finance that can be extended under School Plus is___.
c) Rs.20 Crores d) No Maximum cap
44. Which of the following is NOT true with respect to School Plus scheme?
a) It can be extended to Primary and b) Coaching institutes can also be
higher secondary schools. financed under the scheme and no
CRA is required.
c) Graduation & Post Graduation d) Government Aided schools/colleges
colleges can also be financed. are also eligible under the Scheme.
45. The margin stipulated under School Plus is_______.
a) 15% b) 25%
c) 20% d) 33%
46. Can a Computer training institution be extended finance under School Plus?
a) Yes b) No.
c) No. They can be considered under d) Yes subject to collateral coverage
regular CRA model or mortgage of 75%.
loan only.
47. Which of the following is True with respect to School Plus?

a) Purchase of Laboratory & Sports b) Maximum repayment allowed is 84
equipments, purchase of play EMIs only.
ground and buses etc. can be
financed under the scheme.
c) More than one loan can be d) All the above.
sanctioned subject to repayment
capacity of the unit.
48. The maximum amount of loan that can be sanctioned under Rent Plus is:_____.
c) Rs.2 Crores d) Rs.1 Crore
49. Margin stipulated under Rent Plus scheme is___________.
a) 30% b) 25%
c) 40% d) 33%
50. The maximum repayment allowed for term loans sanctioned under Rent Plus
scheme is_______.
a) 7 years or the residual lease period b) 5 years or the residual lease period
whichever is less. whichever is less
Page 49 of 184
c) 7 years or the residual lease period d) 7 years or the residual lease period
whichever is less, subject to a whichever is higher.
moratorium of 6 months.
51. The minimum amount that can be sanctioned under Rent Plus is______.
a) Rs.1,00,000 b) Rs.5,00,000
c) Rs.50,000 d) Rs.25,000
52. The quantum of finance under Rent Plus scheme will be arrived as_______.
a) 60% of the gross rental income for b) 85% of the gross rental income for
the residual period (net of advance the residual period (net of advance
rent received & statutory dues) or rent received & statutory dues) or
85% of the market value of the 60% of the market value of the
property whichever is less. property whichever is less.
c) 60% of the gross rental income for d) 75% of the gross rental income for
the residual period (net of advance the residual period (net of advance
rent received & statutory dues) or rent received & statutory dues) or
75% of the market value of the 85% of the market value of the
property whichever is less. property whichever is less.
53. In case of non corporate borrower, the Minimum and maximum age of the
applicant, stipulated for loans under SMECFL are:
a) 21,65 b) 18,65
c) 21,66 d) 21,70
54. The maximum amount of loan that can be sanctioned under SMECFL is:
a) Rs.2 Crores b) Rs. 1 Crore
55. Which of the following is true with respect to SBI SME CFL?
a) For Loans below Rs.25 Lacs, b) For Loans above Rs.25 Lacs and
preliminary screening will be as per upto Rs.1 Crore, Simplified CRA
SME Smart Score scoring model. will be applicable.
c) WC is to be renewed every two d) All the above
years and review will be annually.
56. Which of the following is True with respect to assessment of limits under SBI SME
CFL?
a) The Working capital eligibility for b) The working capital eligibility for
manufacturing units, would be 20% service enterprises would be 15%
of projected turn over & the of projected revenue and for term
eligibility for Term Loans is 75% of loans it is 75% of the project cost.
the project cost.
c) Maximum amount of finance is d) All the above.
Rs.1 Crore and loans upto Rs.5
Lacs have to be covered under
"SBI Micro Loans".
57. The one time guarantee fee payable to CGTMSE would be in the range of ___.
a) 0.75 to 1.00 b) 0.50 to 2.00
c) 0.75 to 2.00 d) 0.50 to 1.50
58. The upfront guarantee fee payable to CGTMSE for loans upto Rs.5 lacs is____.
a) 0.75 b) 1.00
c) 1.50 d) No fee
59. The upfront guarantee fee payable to CGTMSE for loans above Rs.5 lacs and
upto Rs.100 Lacs is____.
a) 0.50 b) 1.00
Page 50 of 184
c) 0.75 d) 1.50
60. The upfront guarantee fee payable to CGTMSE for loans upto Rs.5 lacs in North
East region is ______.
a) 1.00 b) 1.50
c) 0.75 d) 0.50
upto Rs.50 Lacs in North East region is ______.
a) 0.85 b) 2.00
c) 1.00 d) Fee waived for NE region
upto Rs.100 Lacs in North East region is ______.
a) 0.85 b) 1.00
c) 2.00 d) Fee waived for NE region
63. The annual fee payable to CGTMSE on loans above Rs.50 Lacs and upto Rs.1
Crore is_______.
a) 1.00 b) 0.75
c) 1.50 d) 0.50
64. The annual fee payable to CGTMSE on loans above Rs.5 Lacs and upto Rs.50
Lacs is_______.
a) 0.75 b) 1.00
c) 0.50 d) Waived
65. The CGTMSE trust shall pay 75% of the guaranteed amount on preferring of
eligible claim by the lending institution, within ___ days. Subject to the claim being
otherwise found in order and complete in all respects.
a) 30 b) 60
c) 90 d) 45
66. The annual fee for the credit facilities sanctioned as on March31st should be paid
to CGTMSE on or before ________.
a) 30th April b) 30th September
c) 31st May d) 30th June
67. Which of the following is NOT true with respect to CGTMSE?
a) The credit facilities sanctioned to b) The guarantee cover will be for a
Self Help Groups cannot be period of 5 years where only
covered under the scheme. working capital facilities are
sanctioned, subject to payment of
annual service fee.
c) Small road and water transport d) Existing borrowers who have
loans are also eligible for already availed finance cannot be
guarantee cover. covered under the scheme.
68. The maximum amount of loan that can be sanctioned under SBI Micro Loan is__.
69. The demand loan sanctioned under SBI Micro Loan is repayable within _____.
a) 1 year b) 5 years
c) 3 years d) No demand loan is sanctioned
70. SME-1, is obtained for
a) Letter of Arrangement b) Agreement of Loan Cum
Hypothecation
c) Guarantee Agreement d) Link Letter
Page 51 of 184
71. SME-2, is obtained for,

a) Agreement of Loan Cum b) Letter of Arrangement
Hypothecation.
c) Link Letter d) Guarantee Agreeement.
a) Letter of Arrangement b) Agreement of Loan Cum
Hypothecation
c) Guarantee Agreement d) Link Letter
a) Letter of Arrangement b) Link Letter
c) Guarantee Agreement d) Revival Letter
a) Link Letter b) Agreement for Hypothecation
c) Revival Letter d) Guarantee Agreement
75. Under SME Credit Plus, ____% of aggregate working capital limit subject to a
maximum of Rs.25 Lacs can be sanctioned.
a) 10% b) 20%
c) 25% d) 15%
76. The maximum time period allowed for repayment of SME Credit Plus is _____.
a) 3 months b) 1 month
c) 6 months d) 2 months.
77. SME Credit Plus can be sanctioned for which of the following purposes?
a) tax payments b) repairs to machinery
c) any other contingency d) all the above
78. Which of the following is TRUE with respect to SME Credit Plus?
a) It is sanctioned to meet sudden b) It is sanctioned as a additional
and unforeseen expenditure/bulk working capital limit by way of
orders. clean cash credit.
c) It can be sanctioned to new d) All the above.
borrowers also as a marketing tool.
79. The maximum quantum of finance that can be extended under Stand by Line of
Credit is: ___________.
80. Under Stand by Line of Credit , ____% of working capital limit subject to a
maximum of Rs.5 Crores can be sanctioned.
a) 10 b) 20
c) 15 d) 25
81. The maximum time allowed for repayment of Stand by Line of Credit is____.
a) 1 month b) 2 months
82. The maximum amount of loan that can be sanctioned under General Purpose
Term loan for SSI sector is___.
c) Rs.50 Lacs d) Rs.5 Crores
83. Which of the following is true with respect to General Purpose Term Loan for SSI
sector?
a) Normal repayment allowed is 3 b) The unit should have earned
years and can be extended upto 5 profits in preceding 3 years.
years in deserving cases.
Page 52 of 184
c) The margin stipulated is 25% d) All the above

84. The maximum amount of finance that can be extended under Open Term Loan
(Manufacturing sector) is:
85. Under Open Term Loan, the sanction is valid upto:
c) 12 months d) 1 month
86. Which of the following is a feature of Open Term Loan?
a) It's a pre sanctioned term loan limit b) Non customers can also be
with the option of multiple considered subject to fulfillment of
disbursements. take over norms and after obtaining
opinion reports from existing
Bankers.
c) DSCR should be atleast 1.75 d) All of these
87. The maximum amount of finance that can be extended under Open Term Loan
(For Services sector) is:
88. The maximum quantum of loan that can be sanctioned to a Commission Agent
under Arthias Plus is:_____
c) Rs.1 Crore d) Rs.10 Lacs
89. Which of the following is true in respect of Arthias Plus?
a) It is a Cash Credit facility against b) To be liquidated within 6 months
hypothecation of book debts, not and to be renewed annually.
older than 6 months.
c) The margin stipulated is 40%. d) All the above
90. The maximum quantum of loan that can be sanctioned under SBI Shoppe is__.
91. The product in which two term loans are sanctioned, one for Housing and
another for setting up an office/shop is _____.
a) SBI Super Shoppe b) SBI Home Shoppe
c) SBI Shoppe Plus d) SBI Shoppe
92. The quantum of finance that can be extended under SBI Shoppe plus is____.
a) 1st Term Loan as per Housing b) 75% of Cost of total Project
loan Scheme and 75% of cost of
setting up office/shop as 2nd T.L
c) Both the term loans will be d) Both the term loans will be
considered as Commercial Loans considered as Housing Loans.
93. Which of the following is TRUE with respect to Car Loans to SME units?
a) Finance can be extended for b) Maximum loan amount would be
purchase of car/ sports utility 2.5 times to Net annual Income
vehicle/ multi utility vehicle by and there is no ceiling in loan
Promoter/ his family members. amount.
c) Margins prescribed are 15% and no d) All the above
additional security will be insisted
upon. Maximum amount of loan for a
used vehicle is Rs.15 lacs
Page 53 of 184
94. The quantum of finance that can be extended to a Corporate under SBI Fleet
Finance Scheme is:
a) Rs.10 Crores b) Rs.7.5 Crores
c) Rs.5 Crores d) Rs.2.5 Crores
95. The minimum Average DSCR (gross) as prescribed in the scheme "SBI Fleet
Finance Scheme" is:
a) 1.75 b) 1.50
c) 1.33 d) 2.50
96. Which of the following SME Asset Products are withdrawn by the bank.
a) Auto Clean b) Swarojgar Credit Card
c) Cyber Plus d) All the above
97. Maximum amount of loan that can be sanctioned under SME Construction
Equipment Loan ( in Metros) is____.
a) Rs.50.00 Cr b) Rs.25.00 Cr
c) Rs.15.00 Cr d) Rs.60.00 Cr
98. Maximum amount of loan that can be extended under SBI-Dental Equipment
Plus scheme and the minimum DSCR required are _____ & _______
respectively.
a) Rs.20 Lacs & 1.5 b) Rs.20 Lacs & 1.75
c) Rs.10 Lacs & 1.5 d) Rs.10 Lacs & 1.75
99. The minimum & maximum amount of loan under CRE Asset Backed loan is
is_____.
a) Minimum Rs.10 Lacs, Maximum b) Rs.2 Lacs
Rs. 50 crores for Tier I branch,
Rs.20 crores for Tier II, Tier III
branches and Rs.5 crores for Tier
IV, V, VI Branch
c) Rs.5 Lacs d) No minimum is stipulated.
100. ECR is mandatory for CRE Asset backed loan for limits above
a) Rs.5 crores b) Rs.20 crores
c) Rs.10 crores d) None of these
ANSWERS
1. c 2. a 3. c 4. a 5. d 6. a 7. b 8. a 9. c 10. D
11. c 12 a 13. d 14. d 15. d 16. d 17. d 18. a 19. a 20. B
21. a 22 d 23. d 24. d 25. d 26. d 27. c 28. d 29. d 30. A
31. a 32 b 33. b 34. d 35. d 36. a 37. b 38. c 39. c 40. D
41. a 42 d 43. d 44. b 45. a 46. c 47. d 48. a 49. c 50. A
51. c 52 a 53. a 54. b 55. d 56. d 57. a 58. a 59. b 60. C
61. a 62 a 63. a 64. b 65. a 66. c 67. d 68. c 69. c 70. A
71. a 72 c 73. b 74. c 75. b 76. d 77. d 78. d 79. a 80. C
81. b 82. c 83. d 84. a 85. c 86. d 87. c 88. a 89. d 90. A
91. c 92. a 93. d 94. a 95. b 96. d 97 a 98. c 99. a 100. C
Page 54 of 184
AGRICULTURE
Compiled By Shri P.Padma Babu Goud, Manager (Training)
1 D.C.B register is to be prepared as on what date every year?

A 31st May B 30th April
C 30th June D 31st July
2 Which of the following is one of SBIS initiatives under Bonding with Farmers
A Apka Gaon B Hamara Gaon
C SBI Ka Apna Gaon D Apna Gaon
3 Maximum limit under KCC is ----- Lakhs
A 15 B 20
C 75 D No Limit
4 According to The Ministry of Water Resources, What is the bench mark
percentage for exploitation of ground water in respect of white area for irrigation
purpose
A Less than 90% B Less than 70%
C Less than 80% D Less than 65%
5 SHG financing is based on which committee ?
A Kalia Committee B Narasimham Committee
C Ghosh Committee D Rangarajan Committee
6 What is the Land Holding criteria for Small Farmer ?
A 2.5 acres of Wet land and 4 B 2.5 acres of wet land and 5 acres of
acres of dry land dry land
C 4 acres of wet land and 2.5 D None of the above
acres of dry land
7 Where is ICRISAT located
A Chandigarh B Chennai
C Bangalore D Hyderabad
8 The Document AB 3 refers to what in agriculture advances ?
A Hypothecation Agreement B Gurantee Agreement
C Simp Hypothecation D Mortgage Deed
Agreement
9 Which Document is to be obtained from the Agriculture Borrower at the time of
conversion of Crop Loan to Term Loan
A AB 1 B AB 7
C AB 5 D AB 6
10 What is the validity of KCC Card as per the revised KCC Scheme guidelines
A 4 Years B 6 years
C 2 Years D 5 Years
11 As per the revised KCC scheme the limit will be stepped up by ----% for every
successive year(2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th year)
A 10% B 20%
C 15% D 25%
12 Under the KCC Scheme, Maintenance expenses can be included in the over all
limit to a maximum extent of ----% of the original limit
A 10% B 20%
C 15% D 25%
Page 55 of 184
13 Processing Charges are waived upto what limit in Kisan Credit Card Scheme ?
A 2 lac B 1lac
C 3 lac D 5 lac
14 Personal Accident Insurance Scheme to KCC Borrowers can be covered upto
Maximum Age ?
A 70 Year B 72 Years
C 75 Years D 65 Years
15 Under PAIS to KCC Borrowers what is the ratio of fee borne by Bank and
Borrower
A 1:2 B 3:1
C 1:3 D 2:1
16 What is the maximum coverage to a KCC Borrower under PAIS, who died due to
accident ?
A 50000/- B 25000/-
C 75000/- D 100000/-
17 What is the maximum premium to be paid by a KCC Borrower under PAIS ?
A Rs.5/- B Rs.15/-
C Rs.10/- D None of these
18 In which scheme Self Employed persons such as fishermen, rickshaw owner,
handloom weavers and SHGs can be sanctioned Working Capital and Term Loan
in same lines of KCC ?
A Kisan Gold Card B General Credit Card
C Swarojgar Credit Card D Kisan Sarpat Yojana
19 What is the Maximum Quantum of finance can be extended under Kisan Gold
Card Scheme ?
A Rs.10 lacs B Rs.15 lacs
C Rs. 5 lacs D Max. 5 times the annual farm
income/50% value of the land
mortgaged less term loan
outstandings/Rs. 10 lacs whichever
is less
20 What is the validity of General Credit Card ?
A 3 years B 5 years
C 4 years D 1 year
21 What is the minimum and maximum quantum of loan that can be sanctioned as a
mortgage loan to seed processing units ?
A Rs.5.00 lacs and Rs.50 lacs B Rs.50.00 lacs and Rs.100 lacs
C Rs.5.00 lacs and Rs.100 lacs D Rs.1.00 lac and Rs.50 lacs
22 What is the Margin fixed for mortgage loan to seed processing units ?
A 35% B 25%
C 20% D 50%
23 What is the maximum amount of advance that can be sanctioned under Produce
Marketing Loan Scheme ?
A Rs.10 lacs B Rs. 50 lacs
C Rs.30 lacs D Rs.15 lacs
24 What is the margin applicable for loans under PML Scheme ?
A 40% B 5%
C 10% D 15%
Page 56 of 184
25 What is the maximum repayment period in respect of Term Loans for Power Tillers
A 7 years B 9 years
C 5 years D 6-7 years
26 What is the Maximum Project Cost for financing of Agri Clinic and Agri Business
Centres for single agri graduate and group of agricultural graduates respectively ?
A 20 lacs, 50 lacs B 25 lacs, 50 lacs
C 25 lacs, 100 lacs D 20 lacs, 100 lacs
27 As per the Supreme Court ruling, no advance should be granted to ------- type of
agricultural activity
A Sericulture B Advances for cold storages
C Pisci culture D Brackish Water Aquaculture
28 Maximum amount can be sanctioned to a farmer under SBI Krishak Uthaan
Yojana ?
A 1 lac B 2 lac
C 0.50 lac D 1.5 lac
29 What is the maximum amount can be financed under scheme for financing Private
Cold Storage / Private Warehouses for on-lending to farmers ?
A 100 lacs B 200 lacs
C 300 lacs D 400 lacs
30 What should be the minimum capacity of cold storage to be considered for finance
under scheme for cold storage/private ware houses for on lending to farmers ?
A 2000 mt B 2500 mt
C 1000 mt D 5000 mt
31 What is the minimum land criteria for financing a self propelled Combine Harvestor
?
A 8 Acres Irrigated land B 6 Acres Irrigated land
C 4 Acres Irrigated land D 2 Acres Irrigated land
32 What should be the minimum usage per annum for Combine Harvestor to become
a viable project, for finance ?
A 500 hrs B 1500 hrs
C 2000 hrs D 1000 hrs
33 Which type of Alternate Channel product is being provided to KCC Borrower ?
A State Bank Gift Card B Green Remit Card
C State Bank Kisan Card D State Bank Credit Card
34 What is the minimum land holding should a borrower possess to become eligible
for finance under Modified New Tractor Loan Scheme ?
A 4 Acre B 2 Acre
C 1.5 Acre D 1 Acre
35 What is the maximum repayment period under Modified New Tractor Loan
Scheme ?"
A 5 years B 9 years
C 7 years D 6 years
36 What is the maximum limit/limits for waiver of collateral security as per the revised
KCC Scheme ?
A 3 lacs B 1 lac
C 2 lacs D 1 lacs and 3 lacs with tie-up
arrangement
Page 57 of 184
37 What Flexible Limit can be sanctioned to KCC borrowers, to meet post harvest
expenses, consumption needs, storage cost and small means of investment etc as
per the revised KCC Scheme
A Rs. 10000/- B Rs.50000/-
C Rs.10000/- to Rs.50000/- D None of the above
38 RBI has directed the banks that the shortfall in Agricultural credit of 18% and
shortfall in priority sector lending target of 40% should be invested in
A RBI B RIDF
C PM's Relief Fund D Agriculture Development Fund
39 What is the Bank's reward and recognition scheme to reward the officers who
have excelled in Agri Business
A The Achiever Award B Green Channel Program for
Excellence
C The Gold Crown D The Silver Crown
40 What is the maximum loan amount can be financed to a Dairy unit under Dairy
Plus Scheme ?
A 5 lacs B 2 lacs
C 3 lacs D 10 lacs
41 What is the maximum repayment period for a term loan in Dairy Plus ?
A 7 years B 5 years
C 3 years D 4 years
42 What should be maximum age for a borrower to get a finance under Dairy Plus ?
A Below 65 years B Below 70 years
C Below 60 years D No age limit
43 For a big dairy unit of 10 animals and above applicant should own ----- acres of
land
A 1.5 acre B 2 acre
C 1 acre for every 5 animals D None of the above
44 No. of persons in a SHG shall not be more than ------- members ?
A 20 B 10
C 25 D No limit
45 Maximum Credit Limit permissible to an SHG under SHG Credit Card Scheme?
A 4 times savings corpus B 8 times savings corpurs
C 6 time savings corpurs D Rs. 500000/-
46 What is the validity of SHG Credit Card ?
A 1 year B 5 years
C 2 years D 3 years
47 What is the minimum limit amount as per the SHG Gold Card ?
A 1 lac B 2 lac
C 3 lac D 0.50 lac
48 What is the maximum sub limit amount can be financed for purchasing a Bulk
Chilling Unit for a dairy society under Dairy Plus Society scheme
A 2 lac B 3 lac
C 4 lac D 1 lac
49 What is the minimum DSCR to sanction a loan under dairy plus scheme ?
A 2:1 B 1.75:1
C 2.5:1 D None of the above
Page 58 of 184
50 What is the maximum loan amount under SHG finance ?

A 10 times the corpus or savings B 8 times the corpus or savings
C 6 times the corpus/savings D 4 times the corpus or saviangs
51 What should be the collateral value in respect of an agricultural gold loan ?
A 110% of advance value B 125% of advance value
C 100% advance value D 150% of advance value
52 With a view to mitigate the inconvenience to the borrowers RBI has dispensed with
obtaining No dues Certificate from applicant requiring loan limit upto -----
A Rs.50000/- B Rs.10000/-
C Rs.25000/- D Rs.100000/-
53 Crop insurance is required to be done compulsorily for -----
A Compulsory for all crops B Not compulsory
C Compulsory for all notified crops D Only Small and M.F crops
54 SBI Krishak Uthaan Youjana aims to provide short term production and
consumption credit to-----
A Small and Marginal Farmers B Agriculture Labour
who own agri land
C Tenant farmers, oral lessees D None of the above
and share croppers
55 What is the margin required for Stree shakti tractor loan with and without collateral.
A Only tractor 25%, For tractor B Only tractor 50%, For tractor and
and implements: 25% implements: 50%
C Only tractor 25%, For tractor D Only tractor 25%, For tractor and
and implements: 25% / 50% implements: 50%
56 What is the minimum hours of work per annum required to get finance under
Tractor Loan Scheme ?
A 600 hours B 800 hours
C 1000 hours D 500 hours
57 Instead of obtaining No dues Certificate a self declaration from the borrower in
respect of KCC/ACC loans upto ------------ and production loans upto ----------
respectively ?
A Rs. 50000/- and Rs.50000/- B Rs.100000/- and Rs.50000/-
C Rs.25000/- and Rs.50000/- D Rs.50000/- and Rs.100000/-
58 What is the name of the Scheme that facilitates, financing the cost of repairs for
Tractors ?
A Repairs to Tractors B Sanjivani
C Tractor Plus D None of the above
59 What is the periodicity for inspection of a Irregular Tractor Loan account
A Quarterly B Half Yearly
C Monthly D Annually
60 Combined marks scored under Hiring potential + percentage of income from allied
activities in Tractor scoring model will determine the repayment schedule as:
A Below 5 marks Montly B 6-10 marks Montly Rs.1000/- per
Rs.1000/- per lakh of loan lakh of loan outstanding to service
outstanding to service interest interest plus principal in quarterly
plus principal at Half yearly intervals
intervals
C 11-14 marks Montly EMI D All the above.
covering principal + Interest
Page 59 of 184
61 What is the name of Bank's Scheme for financing Commission Agents who
support the farmers to meet their needs at the time of harvest ?
A Artisan Credit Card B Arthias Plus
C General Credit Card D None of the above
62 What is the maximum loan limit that can be sanctioned under Arthias Plus Scheme
A Rs. 50 lacs B Rs. 25 lacs
C Rs. 20 lacs D Rs. 10 lacs
63 What is the margin for Arthias Plus ?
A 25% B 40%
C 50% D 15%
64 SHG Linkage is of how many types ?
A Three B Two
C Four D One
65 What is the document executed by Authorised representatives of SHG while
financing an SHG ?
A Hypothecation Agreement B Guarantee Agreement
C Inter Se Agreement D Articles of Agreement
66 What is the document executed by all the group members of SHG while
financing SHG ?
A Hypothecation Agreement B Guarantee Agreement
C Inter Se Agreement D Articles of Agreement
67 Inspection Charges on SHG Laons above Rest. 2 lacs is Rs. --------- per lacs
A 75 B 100
C 125 D 150
68 Under SHGs Financing Scheme of Schedule Tribes the max amount of Rs.-------
per member subject to a max. limit of Rs. 5.00 lac per group
A 35000 B 50000
C 25000 D 75000
69 Under SHGs Financing Scheme of Scheduled Tribes (Refinance by NSTFDC)
Bank will charge 6% p.a interest (Fixed) on reducing balance on SHG Loan
accounts and the NSTDFC will charge ------p.a on funds released to the Bank as
100%
A 5 B 4
C 3 D 2
70 As per the revised guidelines Interest subvention entry has to be passed on last
working day of each -------------- without fail.
A Quarterly B Half Yearly
C Yearly D Monthly
71 In the revised scoring model maximum no. of marks are given to which parameter
A Hiring Potential B Social Status
C Cropping Pattern D Perennial Source of Irrgiation
72 Financing of both Working Capital and Term Loan simultaneously is called as?
A Loan Syndication B Composite Loan
C Combined Loan D Loan Syndication
73 While financing for crop production in Agriculture the amount of finance per acre is
called as ?
A Working Capital Finance B Crop Finance
C Scale of Finance D None of the above
Page 60 of 184
74 Scale of Finance i.e., amount we sanction per acre under KCC is decided by ?
A NABARAD B RBI
C AGM of the Region D District Level Technical Committee
75 The limit in KCC depends on the following

A Farmer, Area, Crop B Farmer, Security, Cropping
C Operational Land Holding, D None of the above
Cropping Pattern, Scale of
Finance
76 In KCC consumption credit is calculated on the following
A Crop Production Limits B Total Limit Sanctioned
C On allied production needs D On total production needs
77 In KCC upto ------------ limit no collateral security is obtained ?
A 0.50 lac B 1.00 lac
C 2.00 lac D 3.00 lac
78 The Primary Security in case of KCC is
A Hypothecation of Standing B D P Note
Crops
C Charge on Land D Mortgage of Land
79 Crop Insurance is covered by which of the following Insurance Companies ?
A The United India Insurance Co B The Oriental Insurance Co. Ltd
C SBI General Insurance Co. Ltd D National Crop Insurance
Programme
80 Crop insurance is applicable to which crops ?
A All crops B Cereals only
C Pulses D Crops as decided by GOI for each
district and for each season
81 Crop Insurance should be covered by ------
A Month wise B Monthwise , Crop wise
C Monthwise, Crop wise, and D Month wise Crop Wise Mandal Wise
Mandal wise and SF/Big Farmer wise
82 Zonal Office Scales are almost ----- times to normal scales of finances
A 2 B 3
C 4 D 5
83 KCC is sanctioned for the following purposes
A Crop production needs B Allied Production needs
C Miscellaneous needs D All the above
84 In contract Farming with the Tie Up Arrangement obtention of collateral

security is waived upto Rs.-------
A 2 lacs B 1 lac
C 3 lacs D 5 lacs
85 In Agricultural Term Loans, collateral is waived upto a limit of Rs.
A 5 lac B 3 lac
C 2 lac D 1lac
86 In Agriculture Term Loans where movable assets are not created out of bank
finance what is the limit above which collateral security is obtained ?
A 1 lac B 0.20 lac
C 0.50 lac D 2.00 lac
Page 61 of 184
87 In Kisan Gold Card (KGC) how many number of loans can be sanctioned to a
single borrower ?
A 3 B 4
C 5 D 6
88 In personal accident insurance what is the time limit within which the nominee
of the injured has to report to the concerned bank ?
A With in 1 week B Within 10 days
C Within 15 days D Within 30days
89 The corpus fund in SHG does not include the following ?
A Cash in Hand B Bank Loan
C Cash in their Savings Account D Internal Loan outstanding with
the borrowers
90 Government of India is providing Interest Subvention to Short term agriculture
advances to
A Only commercial banks B Commercial banks, RRBs
C Commercial Banks, RRBs, and D None of the above.
Cooperative Banks
91 In Agriculture Cash Credit interest @7% is charged upto a limit of Rs.
A 1 lakh B 3 lakh
C 5akh D 2 lakh
92 RIDF stands for
A Rural India Development Fund B Rural Integrated Deposit Fund
C Rural Industrial Development D Rural Infrastructure
Fund Development Fund
93 NABARD prepares --------plan taking into consideration the potentials
available in the district before preparing the annual credit plan ?
A Potential Credit Plan B Annual Credit Plan
C Service Area Credit Plan D Potential Linked Credit Plan
94 Inspection charges for advances to weaker sections ?
A No charges B 25% of actual charges
C 75% actual charges D 50% of actual charges
95 In agriculture advances, detailed opinion is compiled on borrowers whose
aggregate credit limits are more than Rs.
A 2 lac B 3 lac
C 0.50 lac D 0.25 lac
96 AB1 Simple Documentation is obtained for borrowers whose limits are -------
A Upto 0.50 lac B Upto 2 lac
C Upto 1 lac D Upto 3 lac
97 The minimum amount in KCC for take over -------
A 1 lac B 2 lac
C 3 lac D 5 lac
98 Demand Collection Balance Register is maintained for
A CC & ACC accounts B KCC Accounts
C ATL Accounts D ACC/KCC/ATL accounts
99 What is meant by mixed farming ?
A Growing more than 1 crop B Growing crops on community
basis
C Growing crops and allied D None of the above
activities
Page 62 of 184
100 In Agricultuer, Document AB 6 refers to

A Revival Letter - borrower B Revival Letter Gurantor
C Guarantee Deed D Letter sent to Borrower by
Bank if the loan is not repaid
on due date
101 Stamp duty for AB 1 in case of agriculture cash credit where the loan is
secured by mortgage crop is --------% of loan amount or maximum
A 0.5% B 0.6%
C 2% D 2.%
102 Annewari indicates
A Cropping pattern B Rainfall
C Land Cess D The extent to which crops are
damaged due to natural
calamity
103 What does AB 4 refer to ?
A Notice to Borrower B Notice to Guarnator
C Revival Letter - Borrower D Revival Letter - Guarantor
104 Which segmental advances will be covered under Differential Interest Rate
Scheme 1971
A SSI B SBF
C Agri D All of these
105 What is the annual family income criteria for Urban and Semi Urban areas to
become eligible for finance under DIR Scheme ?
A Rs.40,000/- B Rs.24,000
C Rs.30,000/- D None of these
106 What is the annual family income criteria for Rural area, to become eligible
for finance under DIR Scheme ?
A Rs.20,000/- B Rs.22,000/-
C Rs.18,000/- D Rs.25,000/-
107 What is the revised or enhanced loan ceiling under DIR Scheme ?
A Rs.15,000/- B Rs.25,000/-
C Rs 20,000/- D Rs. 6,500/-
108 What is the revised loan ceiling for housing under DIR Scheme ?
A Rs.24,000/- B Rs.20,000/-
C Rs.25,000/- D Rs.26,000/-
109 What is the ROI and Margin respectively under DIR Scheme ?
A 3% , 10% B 4%, 15%
C 4%, 5% D 4%, nil
110 The Banks are required to lend under DIR at least ----% of the total credit as
at the end of the previous year.
A 18% B 40%
C 24% D 1%
111 What is the loan maximum loan repayment tenor under DIR ?
A 3 years B 4 years
C 5 years D 2 years
112 What is the criterion for land holding irrigated and non irrigated respectively to
become eligible for finance under DIR scheme ?
A Not to exceed 1 acre of irrigated B Not to exceed 2 acre of
and 2.5 Acres of Non irrigated irrigated and 5 Acres of Non
land irrigated land
Page 63 of 184
C No such ceiling D None of these
113 What is the criterion for land holding irrigated and non irrigated respectively
for SC/ST community farmers to become eligible for finance under DIR
scheme ?
A Not to exceed 1 acre of irrigated B Not to exceed 0.5 acre of
and 2.5 Acres of Non irrigated irrigated and 1.25 Acres of Non
land irrigated land
C No such ceiling D None of these
114 What is the full form of PMEGP ?
A Prime Ministers Education B Prime Ministers Environment
Guarantee Proramme Guarantee Plan
C Prime Ministers Employment D None of these
Guarantee Programme
115 What is the single national level nodal implementation agency for PMEGP ?
A NREGS B PMRY
C KVIC D NHB
116 As per the Scheme of Capital Investment Subsidy Scheme for commercial
production units of organic inputs, out of three components what was the
component that was withdrawn from the scheme w.e.f 11/8/2010 ?
A Fruit and vegetable waste B Vermi Hatcheries
compost production unit
C Biofertilizers and Biopesticides D None of these
production units
117 What is the subsidy provided for Fruit and vegetable waste compost
production unit by the NABARD under the above Scheme ?
A 33% of capital cost max. 60 lakh B 33% of capital cost max. 40 lakh
C 25% of capital cost max. 60 D 25% of capital cost max. 60
lakh lakh
118 What is the subsidy provided for Bio Fertilizers/Bio Pesticides unit by the
NABARD under the above Scheme ?
A 33% of capital cost max. 60 B 25 % of capital cost max. 40
lakh lakh
C 25% of capital cost max. 60 D 25% of capital cost max. 60
lakh lakh
119 What is the implementing agency under the above scheme ?
A National Centre of Organic B NABARD
Farming
C National Horticulture Board D Central Government of India
120 As per the finance under Capital Investment Subsidy for Cosntruction / Renovation
of Rural Godown what is the project cost for godowns upto 1000mt
A Project cost as appraised by B Project cost as appraised by
financing Bank or actual cost of financing Bank or actual cost
Rs.3500/- per MT of storage of Rs.2500/- per MT of storage
capacity, whichever is lower capacity, whichever is lower
C Project cost as appraised by D Project cost as appraised by
financing Bank or actual cost of financing Bank or actual cost
Rs.5000/- per MT of storage of Rs.3000/- per MT of storage
capacity, whichever is lower capacity, whichever is lower
Page 64 of 184
121 What is the ceiling on maximum subsidy in any category for the finance under
the scheme Capital Investment Subsidy for Cosntruction/Renovation of Rural
Godowns ?
A Rs. 2 Crore B Rs.2.25 Crore
C Rs.1.35 Crore D Rs. 3 crore
122 What is the eligible DSCR to get finance under New Tractor Loan Scheme ?
A 1.75 : 1 B 1.5 : 1
C 2:1 D 2.25 : 1
123 What is the IT platform used for issuing State Bank Kisan Card for usage
through ATM and POS ?
A Ru Pay B Verisign
C Maestro D Visa
124 What is the Margin on market value of gold to be retained in case of
Agriculture Gold Loans ?
A 20% B 25%
C 30% D 35%
125 Branch should obtain a certificate from a local jeweler for the loans above the
limit ---------?
A Rs.50000/- B Rs.100000/-
C Rs.75000/- D Irrespective of the limit
126 The existing schemes under tractor finance are as follows.
A Modified New tractor loans B New tractor loans scheme and
scheme and Stree shakti(SSTL) Stree shakti(SSTL)
C Modified New tractor loans D None of the above
scheme,Stree shakti(SSTL) and
Scoring model scheme.
127 What is Green Power?
A Scheme to donate solar street B Villages having recovery of
lights to villages with excellent 50% or more should be
track record of recovery of Agri selected.
NPAs.
C Each RBO to select 3 to 5 best D All of these.
villages in their area.
128 Limits sanctioned to dealers/sellers of fertilizers, pesticides, seeds, cattle
feed, poultry feed , agricultural implements and other inputs is.
A Rs.5.00 crores. B Rs.1.00 crore.
C Rs.50 lacs. D None of these.
129 Kharif season is from______ to ______.
A April to September. B January to June.
C October to March. D July to December.
130 Rabi season is from______to________.
A April to September. B January to June.
C October to March. D July to December.
131 Apiculture is________cultivation.
A Bee keeping B Mushroom
C Mulbery D None of these
132 Silviculture relates to___________.
A Bee keeping B Sericulture
C Floriculture. D Forest tree cultivation
Page 65 of 184
133 Pisci culture relates to___________

A Rearing of silk worm B Food grain production
C Fish farming D Mushroom cultivation
134 Aqua culture relates to___________
A Prawn / Shrimp production B Floriculture
C Bee keeping D Mushroom
135 Vermiculture relates to__________
A Fish farming B Rearing of earthworms
C Prawn / Shrimp production D Forest tree cultivation
136 Seri culture relates to____________
A Bee keeping B Rubber producion
C Rearing of Silk worms D Mushroom cultivation
137 Minimum and maximum limit under KCC is Rs._____ and Rs._______.
A 3000, No upper ceiling B 1000, No upper ceiling
C 1000, Rs.3.00 lacs D None of these.
138 KCC is valid for ________ years.
A 1 B 3
C 5 D 2
139 CC SHG is valid for a maximum period of______years
A 3 B 5
C 1 D 10
140 Inter cropping means.
A Cultivation of crops once in B Cultivation of crops dairy
along with two years. farming.
C Cultivation of shrot duration D None of the above.
crops between the rows of
main crop.
141 Service Area is applicable for_________.
A All agricultural loans B Only for crop loans
C Only for Government D Only for Agricultural Term-
sponsored schemes loans
142 Green revolution relates to ___________.
A Paddy B Grass production
C Food-grains production. D Dairy farming
143 Trail Netting techniques is employed in________.
A Pisciculture B Tissue culture
C Moriculture D Dairy finance
144 Brown revolution relates to____________.
A Cocoa production B Rubber production
C Wheat producton D Paddy production
145 Black revolution relates to_____________.
A Black water B Rubber production
C Oil seed production D Forest tree production
146 Blue revolution relates to______________.
A Fish farming B Sea water
C Rain water harvesting D None of these
147 Under Minor irrigation, the spacing norms between two bore wells is?
A 250 meters B 180 meters
C 215 meters D None of these.
Page 66 of 184
148 No fresh minor irrigation loan can be sanctioned in

A Green area B Dark area
C Grey area D White area
149 White revolution relates to___________
A Milk production B Rain water harvesting
C Fish farming D Prawn cultivation
150 Yellow revolution relates to__________
A Milk production B Flower production
C Oil seed production D Rubber production.
151 An area is grey block where the underground wate exploitation is more
than______% but up to __________%
A 50, 50 B 60, 70
C 70, 90 D 50, 75
152 Underground water exploitation not more than____% is called white block.
A 50 B 25
C 10 D 70
153 Broiler farming means__________
A Rearing of layers B Rearing of ducks
C Poultry farming for meat D Meat
154 Performance test report for tractors, combine harvesters and power tillers
should be obtained by the manufacturers from
A Dealer B Manufacturer
C Central Farm Machinery D RBI
Training & Testing Institute,
Budni(M.P) / Hissar (Haryana)
155 Small farmer means a person who is having
A Up to 5 acres of dry land or 2.5 B 10 acres of dry land
acres of wet land.
C 2.5 acres of dry land D 5 acres of wet land
156 A Person having agricultural income has to producre form No____ for
depositing cash into a deposit account, as per IT rules.
A 60 B 61
C 50 D 54
157 Marginal farmer is a person having
A 5 acres of wet land B Up to 1.25 acres of wet land &
up to 2.5 acres of dry land
C Up to 2.25 acres of wet land & D None of these
up to 5 acres of dry land.
158 Agriculture labourer means
A Person having up to 0.5 acres B Has home stead
C More than 50% of the income D All of these.
is from agricultural wages
159 Debeaking relates to________
A Sheep rearing B Poultry
C Fisheries D Duck rearing
160 Of the Bank's Net Bank Credit _______ % should go to agricultural sector.
A 40% B 18%
C 10% D 20%
161 BC CSPs should be visited by the Branch Manager or the designated official
such as RMRO/FO of the linked branch as per the following periodicity
Page 67 of 184
A Monthly every CSP irrespective B On a weekly basis on a

of geography(M/ U / SU /R) prefixed day in FI Villages with
with population below 2000 population above 2000
population, to be visited once a
week
C Only A D Both A & B
162 BC CSPs should be visited by the Branch Manager or the designated official
such as RMRO/FO of the linked branch and recorded through online portal
A http://10.2.210.248/CSPVisits B http://10.4.248.245/CSPVisits/
Login.aspx
C http://10.4.248.245/CSPVisits D none of the above
163 BCs should submit the following with the MOU to mitigate the operational
risks through BC channel.
A BCP B DRP
C Both D Locking up arrangement
164 The Account opening forms of small accounts opened at branches with
product code 1011-1601 need not be sent to
A RCPC B LCPC as in the case of BC
accounts
C Both A & B D None of the above
165 Boom Heen Kissan scheme is related to
A Financing to Joint Laiablility B Financing KCC borrowers
groups
C Financing self employed D Rural poor
166 Under Boom Heen Kissan scheme the JLG members should be between
A 5-10 B 10-20
C 4-10 D 2-10
167 Under Boom Heen Kissan scheme the maximum finance per member of
the JLG is
A Rs.25,000/- B Rs.50,000/-
C Rs. 1,00,000/- D Rs.75,000/-
168 The objective of Boom Heen Kissan scheme is
A Credit to landless farmers B Credit to poor with atleast 1
cultivating land as: tenant acre of agricultural land.
farmers, oral lessees or share
croppers and small/marginal
farmers as well as other poor
individuals taking up farm
activities,off-farm activities and
non-farm activities
C Only B D None of the above.
169 The full form of MDBTL is
A Modified Direct Benefit B Modified Direct Benefit
Transaction limited Transfer limited
C Modified Direct Benefit D None of the above.
Transfer for LPG scheme
170 Under the MDBTL scheme the payment of LPG subsidy can be made by
A Aadhar linked Bank account of B Bank accounts linked to LPG
the LPG consumer ID of the LPG consumer.
C Either of them D Only A
Page 68 of 184
171 In CBS from 15.12.2014 the LPG ID can be linked

A Yes B No
C Only B D None of these.
172 Issue of Rupay debit cards with 1 lac accidential insuracne cover to Financial
Inclusion customers including
A Agriculturists B Minors
C Except Minors D None of the above
173 Agri Gold loans and KCCs where interest subvention is given, the Bank has
to finance as per
A Scale of finance B Area of extent
C Both A & B D Only B
174 Sanyukta Swarna Dhara Gold loan Campaign includes the following
A Agri Gold loans with B Multi purpose Agri Gold loans
subvention without interest subvention
C PER Gold loans D Combination of all the above
175 Full form of RML the SMS based agri advisor for farmer and trader is
A Reuters Market light B Reporter Market Loader
C Rural Market level D None of the above.
176 Under Credit Scoring Model in Agri loans after the roll out of Agri LOS.
A 71 and above are considered B 26 and above but upto 70 may
good loans be considered after credit
enhancement or referred to
next higher authority
C Applications with credit scoring D All of the above
of 25 and below should not be
sanctioned.
177 The four models of Credit Scoring Model in Agri loans are
A Crop Loans Model Crop Loans, B Dairy and Poultry Loans Model
Irrigation, Land Development / / Horticulture and Plantation
Tractor Loans and other Farm Crop Loan Model
Mechanisation Model
C Both A & B D Only A
178 7% interest subvention loans to Women SHGs under

A National Rural Livelihoods B Govt scheme
Mission scheme(NRLM)
C IRDA scheme D PMEGP scheme
179 Full form of PMJDY is

A Pradhan Mantri Joint B Pradhan Mulk Jan Dhan
Development Yojana Yojana
C Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan D None of these
yogana
180 Sanction/ Renewal of KCC/ ACC Accounts and Agri Gold loans for raising
crops
A Option to adopt SLBC/ DLTC B Only Common repayment due
recommended repayment due dates: 31st Jan for Kharif and
dates or common repayment 31st July for Rabi. 31st July for
due dates multiple crops
Page 69 of 184

181 NAIS was replaced w.e.f 01.11.2013 with
A NCIP B WBIS
C AIC D None of the above
182 The full form of NCIP is
A National corporation for B National Crop Insurance
insurance Payment Programme
C National Crop Insurance D None of the above
Payment scheme
183 NCIP covers
A MNAIS B WBCIS
C CPIS D All of the above
184 Krishi Plus II campaing is related to
A Financing Agri loans to farmers B Financing Agri loans to farmers
having 3 years good track having 3 years good track
recored and upto Rs.l lac. recored and upto Rs.3 lac.
185 Nomination for Gold loans
A Not available to loans even B Available
Gold loans
C Only B D None of the above
186 For Tatkal Tractor loan
A Mortgage of Agri land upto 2 B Mortgage of Agri land of 4
acres acres
C Mortgage of Agri land upto 6 D It is a Mortgage free loan.
acres
187 The definition of High networth farmers in Tatkal tractor loan
A Farmers who score 61 & above B Farmers who score 71 &
score under Tractor scoring above score under Tractor
model. scoring model.
C Farmers who score 56 & above D Farmers who score 76 &
score under Tractor scoring above score under Tractor
model. scoring model.
188 Eligibility of land holding under Tatkal tractor loan scheme
A All farmers-Individual / joint B All farmers-Individual /joint
borrowers who are owner borrowers who are owner
cultivators having minimum 4 cultivators having minimum 8
acres of land. acres of land.
C All farmers-Individual / joint D All farmers-Individual / joint
borrowers who are owner borrowers who are owner
cultivators having minimum 2 cultivators having minimum
acres of land. 6acres of land.
189 Maximum loan amount under Tatkal Tractor loan scheme
A 75% (Tractor B 100% (Tractor
cost+Insurance+Registration cost+Insurance+Registration
charges) charges)
C 90% (Tractor D 90% (Tractor
cost+Insurance+Registration cost+Insurance+Registration
charges) charges)
Page 70 of 184
190 In Tatkal tractor loan rate of interest is based on

A Margin B Acerage
C Score D None of the above
191 DSCR in Tatkal Tractor loan is
A 1.75 : 1.00 B 1.50 : 1.00
C 2.00 : 1.00 D 1.00 : 1.00
192 Minimum and Maximum Repayment period in Tatkal Tractor loan is

A 48 months and 60 months B 60 months and 84 months
C 36 months and 48 months D 36 months and 60 months
193 Security to be obtained in case of Tatkal Tractor loan scheme is

A Primary : Hypothecation of B Primary : Hypothecation of
tractor, Collateral : Lien on tractor is sufficient, no need of
TDR accepted as a Margin TDR as margin money.
Money.
C Primary : Hypothecation of D None of the above
tractor, Collateral : 2 acres of
Agricultural land.
194 Campaign for Deposit mobilization through BC channel
A Lakshya 2000 B Lakshya 5000
C Lakshya 7000 D Lakshya 3000
195 The per day transaction limit incase of customers in BC channel has been
increase from Rs.10,000/- to
A Rs.15,000 B Rs.12,000
C Rs.20,000 D Rs.25,000
Page 71 of 184
AGRICULTURE MCQs - ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
c c d b a b d d b d
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
a b c a d a a c d a
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
c a b a b d d a a d
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
a d c b a d c b b a
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
b a c a a d b c b d
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
b c c c c a d b c d
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
b a b a d c c a c d
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
b b c d c d b a d d
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
d a d c d a c d b c
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
b d d a b c a d c d
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
b d c d b c a b d d
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
c a c c c b a b a a
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
d b a b a a d a a c
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
a d c a b c a c b c
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
c c a a b a a b a c
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
a d c c a b b d b b
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
d b a b a c b a c c
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
a b c d a d c a c a
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
a b d a a D A C B A
191 192 193 194 195
B A A C C
Page 72 of 184
PER SEGMENT DEPOSIT PRODUCTS
Compiled by Sri K Giridhar Reddy, Manager (Training)
1 Which of the following cannot open Saving Bank account?

(a) Illiterate Person (b) Municipal Corporations or
Committees
(c) Pardanashin women (d) Minor
2 What is the minimum amount of deposit into SB account?
(a) 5 (b) 10
(c) 50 (d) No such stipulation
3 Savings Account should be treated as inoperative, if there are no debit as well
as credit transactions over a period of
(a) 1 year (b) 2 years
(c) 3 years (d) None of these
4 Minors who can adhere to uniform signature and are not less than ten years
old can open sb accounts in their single name and maintain therein a
maximum balance of
(a) Rs. 100,000/- (b) Rs. 500,000/-
(c) Rs. 200,000/- (d) Rs. 300,000/-
5 What is the minimum amount of withdrawal in SB account?
(a) Rs.10 (b) Rs.20
(c) Rs.50 (d) No such Stipulation
6 What is the agelimit for Yuva Savings account?
(a) 18-40 years (b) 18-45 years
(c) 18-30 years (d) 18-50 years
7 What is the min. and max. Period for which MOD can be accepted ?
(a) 1 and 5 years (b) 6 Months and 120 Months

(c) 7 days and 10 years (d) None of the above
8 The type of deposit that can be opened in MODS
(a) TDR (b) STDR
(c) Either a or b (d) None of the above
9 Corporate Liquid Term Deposit can be accepted for amounts of
(a) Min Rs.50000 and in multiples (b) Subsequent deposits Min.25000
of Rs.5000 and in multiples of Rs.5000
(c) Both a and b are true (d) None of the above
10 Savings Plus is the combination of
(a) SB and MODS (b) SB and CLTD
(c) Current account and MODS (d) None of these
11 Which of the following are not true in respect of Savings Plus ?

(a) Min. balance Rs.5000 (b) Deposits matured will be rolled
over unless indicated otherwise
(c) TDS is applicable for MODS (d) None of these
created
12 Withdrawals are permitted from Savings Plus Account through
(a) Cheque (b) ATM
Page 73 of 184
(c) INB (d) All of the these
13 Which of the following are true in respect of Savings Plus account

(a) No overdraft will be allowed (b) Deposits cannot be accepted as
against SBI MOD Deposits margin for any NF business
(c) Both are true (d) None of the above are true
14 Which of the following are true in case of Senior Citizen Deposit Scheme
(a) Objective is to provide (b) Min. 1year and Max. 10 years
differential interest rate to
Senior Citizens
(c) Min. Rs.10000 and in multiples (d) All of these
of Rs.1000
15 Which of the following are not true in respect of Capgain Plus Scheme
(a) Parking of capital gains for a (b) Min Rs.1000 in SB a/c and Min
max period of 3 years Rs.5000 in TD Account
(c) Deposit can neither be (d) None of these
accepted as margin nor as
collateral
16 Amount withdrawn from deposits under Capgain Plus to be utilized within
(a) 30 days (b) 60 days
(c) 90 days (d) None of the above
17 Upper limit (ceiling) for issue of MCC for Per segment Savings Account holders
(Others) and for HNI/NRIs is
(a) Rs.2 lacs and Rs.10.00 lacs (b) Rs.5 lacs and Rs.20.00 lacs
(c) Rs.10 lacs and Rs.50.00 lacs (d) None of these
18 What are the variants available under Corporate Salary Package
(a) Silver (b) Gold
(c) Diamond & Platinum (d) All of the above
19 What is the eligibility criteria for opening salary accounts under Corporate
Salary Package
(a) Min. 25 employees (b) Min. payout of Rs.1.25 lacs
(c) Both a & b (d) None of the above
20 The deposit scheme available in the bank that offers both higher interest and
tax benefits u/s 80 C
(a) Cap Gain Plus (b) MODS
(c) SBI Tax Savings Scheme 2006 (d) None of the above
21 The income criteria under Corporate salary package under Gold category is
(a) Rs.5,000 to Rs.20,000 (b) Rs.20,000 to Rs.50,000/-
(c) Rs.50,000 to Rs.1,00,000 (d) Above Rs.1,00,000/-
22 The maximum number of debit entries permitted in savings account per half
year is ---------- except transactions routed through alternate channels.
(a) Depends on QAB (b) Depends on Half yearly balance
(c) Depends on Monthly avg bal (d) No such stipulation
23 The income criteria under Corporate salary package under Silver category is
(a) Rs.5,000 to Rs.20,000 (b) Rs.20,000 to Rs.50,000/-
24 The income criteria under Corporate salary package under Diamond category
(a) Rs.5,000 to Rs.20,000 (b) Rs.20,000 to Rs.50,000/-
Page 74 of 184
25 Small Deposit account means

(a) Balance at any point of time (b) Aggregate of all credits in a
does not exceed Rs.50000 financial year does not exceed
Rs.100000
(c) Aggregate of all withdrawals (d) All the above
and transfers in a month does
not exceed Rs.10000
26 Salient feature of Yuva SB account include
(a) Free collection of one cheque, (b) Min. balance Rs.5000
with a ceiling of Rs.20,000/- pm
(c) Free INB (d) All of these
27 Penalty applicable on premature payment of TDRs

(a) Retail Term Deposits up to Rs (b) For term deposit above Rs 5.00
5.00 lacs will be NIL provided lacs but less than Rs 1 crore,
the deposits have remained with 1% for all tenors
the bank for at least 7 days.
(c) No premature penalty will be (d) All of the above
levied on staff and SBI
pensioners Deposits
28 Norms for loan/overdraft against TDRs are
(a) 0.50% above contracted rate (b) 90% of principal and accrued
interest can be sanctioned as
loan
29 Recurring Deposit with flexibility in amount of installment
(a) SBI Flexi (b) MODS
(c) SBI Tax Savings Scheme 2006 (d) None of the above
30 Features of SBI Flexi Deposit include
(a) Min. Rs.5000 per year and (b) Max. Rs.50000 in a financial
Rs.500 at any one instance year
(c) Penalty for default in payment (d) All the above
of minimum deposit will be
Rs.50/- per Financial Year
31 Which of the following are not true in respect of SBI Surabhi
(a) SB or CA will be linked to (b) Min bal for CA is Rs.10000
CLTD
(c) Min bal for SB is Rs.1000 (d) None of the above
32 In Surabhi, CLTD will be created for the periods
(a) Min 12 months and Max 36 (b) Min 7 days and max 10 years
months
(c) Min 6 months and Max 10 (d) None of the above
years
33 Which of the following are not true in case of SBI Surabhi ?
(a) No loan or OD is permissible (b) Partial withdrawal based on
against the deposit LIFO
(c) Periodicity for Sweep is weekly (d) None of the above
34 The following are not true in case of SBI Tax Saving Scheme 2006
(a) PAN is mandatory (b) Min Period of deposit is 5 years
(c) Min deposit is Rs.1000 (d) None of the above
Page 75 of 184
35 Under Premier Savings account, which are the facilities available

(a) Through auto sweep, Term (b) Unlimited no of debits
deposit under MOD
(c) Free RTGS/NEFT (d) All of them
36 Tenure for MOD Component under Premier Savings account
(a) 1 year to 3 years (b) 3 year to 5 years
(c) 1 year to 5 years (d) 2 year to 3 years
37 Under Tax Savings scheme, which sections of IT act is applicable for deposits
(a) 80 B (b) 80 C
(c) 80 D (d) 80 H
38 Maturity proceeds if exceeds Rs.20,000/- or more to be invariably be credited
to account or paid through Account payee cheque is stipulation under:
(a) Section 269 of IT Act (b) Section 269 of SBI Act
(c) Section 268 of IT Act (d) Section 268 of SBI Act
39 Period of deposit under SBI Flexi Deposit scheme is
(a) 3-5 years (b) 5-7 years
(c) 4-7 years (d) 5-10 years
40 What is the period of deposit under Tax Savings Scheme
(a) 5-7 years (b) 5 years
(c) 5-8 years (d) 5-10 years
41 Name the deposit scheme which allows lump sum deposit and payment of
principal and interest at equated monthly installments
(a) SBI Annuity Deposit (b) SBI Flexi
(c) SBI Power Jyothi (d) None of these
42 Which of the following are not features of SBI Annuity Deposit
(a) Min Deposit Amount Rs.25000 (b) Min Monthly Annuity Rs.1000
(c) Period of Deposit 36/60/84/120 (d) None of the above
months
43 The loan facility under PPF scheme is available during the period
(a) 4-5 years (b) 3-5 years
(c) 2-5 years (d) 5th year onwards
44 Which of the following is true under Sukanya Samriddhi Account
(a) any girl child who had attained (b) Minimum Deposit in a year is
the age of ten years Rs.1000/- and Maximum is
Rs.150,000/-.
(c) Minimum deposit mandatory till (d) All the above
14 years from the date of
opening
45 Pehla Kadam is a Savings Bank scheme for children below the age of
(a) 5 yrs (b) 15 yrs
(c) Minor of any age (d) 12 yrs
46 Pehli Udaan is a Savings Bank scheme for children above the age ofand
sign uniformly.
(a) 12 yrs (b) 5 yrs
(c) 1o yrs (d) 8 yrs
47 What is the cap on per day INB Transaction limits in Pehli Kadam, Pehli
Udaan account
(a) Rs. 2,000 (b) Rs. 3,000
(c) Rs. 4,000 (d) Rs. 5,000
Page 76 of 184
48 Which child plan of SBI life is offered to customers of Pehli Kadam and Pehli
Udaan with inbuilt premier waiver benefit:
(a) Smart Kadam (b) Smart Udaan
(c) Smart Scholar (d) Smart Student
49 What is the basis for determining the variant of Salary Account under
Corporate Salary Package
(a) CSP Gross Salary (b) Rank of the employee in all
other packages
(c) Both a & b are true (d) None of the above
50 Following are the common features of all Salary Packages
(a) Savings Plus accounts will be (b) Overdraft facility available up to
opened 2 months net salary
(c) 1% discount on purchase of (d) All the above
Gold Coins of all
denominations
51 Personal Accident Insurance cover available for Gold & Diamond variants in
all the salary packages
(a) Rs.5.00 lacs (b) Rs.4.00 lacs
(c) Rs.3.00 lacs (d) None of these
52 The following offers are available for Platinum Variant in all the salary
packages
(a) SBI Vishesh Status (b) Free Platinum International
Debit Card
(c) 25% concession in locker (d) All of these
charges
53 Authority vested with CGM to permit coverage of employees having salaries of
less than Rs.5000 p.m under Silver variant provided:
(a) All the salary accounts are (b) Employees drawing gross
maintained with our Bank salary of less than Rs.5000
should not be more than 20% of
total
(c) Both a & b are true (d) None of these
54 Max amount of deposit in any account under Pehla Kadam SB account
(a) Rs.5 lacs (b) Rs 10 lacs
(c) Rs.1 lac (d) Rs 2 lacs
55 Max amount of deposits under common CIF in Pehla Kadam SB Account
(a) Rs 10 lacs (b) Rs 5 lacs
(c) Rs 1 lac (d) Rs 3 lacs
56 The maximum deposit permitted under SBI Tax Savings Scheme 2006
(a) 150000 (b) 200000
(c) 100000 (d) 50000
57 If a customer feels that the services rendered by the branch are not
satisfactory he can close his SB account with in_ _ and the SB account
closure charges are waived
(c) 30 days (d) 18 days
58 What is the margin stipulation for loan against term deposits ?
(a) 10% of the face value plus (b) 5% of the face value plus
accrued interest accrued interest
Page 77 of 184
(c) 15% of the face value plus (d) None of these

accrued interest
59 The interest will be paid on pre-mature payment of term deposits, if the deposit
remained in the Bank for a minimum period of _ _ _ _ _ _ days
(c) 7 days (d) 30 days
60 The cap of 120 months on the tenor of term deposits is as per the guidelines
of _ _ _ _
(a) RBI (b) IBA
(c) Min. of Finance, GOI (d) None of these
61 Dishonor of electronic funds transfer has to be treated as dishonor of
negotiable instrument as per the provisions of ..
(a) BR Act (b) NI Act
(c) Payment and Settlement (d) None of these
Systems Act
62 Which of the following statement are incorrect
(a) Witness has to be obtained in (b) Two witness signatures have to
all nomination forms be obtained on nomination
forms given by illiterate persons
(c) For E or S deposit account (d) Nomination should be in favor
nomination can be obtained of an individual only
63 What is the minimum deposit under Kisan Mitra Jama Yojana scheme
(a) Rs.500 (b) Rs.1000
(c) Rs.1500 (d) Rs.2000
64 The tenure of deposit under Kisan Mitra Jama Yojana scheme
(a) 12 months to 5 years (b) 12 months to 7 years
(c) 12 months to 8 years (d) 12 months to 10 years
65 On pre-mature payment of deposits the reduction in waiver of penalty can be

permitted by ____
(a) CGM of the circle (b) GM of the Network
(c) DGM of the Module (d) No discretion
66 What is the minimum monthly pay out in CSP facility ?
(a) Rs.1.25 lacs (b) Rs.1.50 lacs
(c) Rs.2.00 lacs (d) Rs.5.00 lacs
67 Who can not open PPF account
(a) Resident Individual (b) NRI
(c) HUF (d) Both b and c
68 PMJDY scheme stands for
(a) Prime Minister Jan Dhan (b) Prime Minister Jeevan Dan
Yojana Yojana
(c) Prime Minister Jana Drishti (d) Prime Minister Jeevan Dharti
Yojana Yojana
69 Rupay card is associated with
(a) New Yuva Card (b) Credit Card
(c) Prepaid NRE Card (d) PMJDY
70 Accidental Death Insurance Cover of Rs________ is available in PMJDY A/C
(a) 25000 (b) 100000
(c) 50000 (d) 30000
71 Life Insurance Cover of Rs______ is available in PMJDY account
Page 78 of 184
(a) 50000 (b) 100000

(c) 30000 (d) 10000
72 Overdraft of Rs_____ is available after 6 months in PMJDY account
(a) 50000 (b) 5000
(c) 10000 (d) 25000
73 Which of the following is true about granting overdraft in Savings Bank
account:
(a) Good customers to an extent of (b) Not more than 3 occasions in a
Rs.1000/- year
(c) OD to be adjusted within one (d) All the above
month
74 Which of the following is not true about Basic Savings Bank account(fully KYC
Compliant) :
(a) No Minimum Balance (b) No annual maintenance fee
(c) Max 4 withdrawals in a month (d) Interest calculated on monthly
average basis
75 Which of the following is not in the list Officially Valid Documents declared by
Government of India for the purpose of proof of identity under KYC.
(a) Passport (b) Driving licence
(c) Id card issued by Post offices (d) NREGA card issued by
Revenue authorities
76 What is the periodicity for updation of KYC under High risk category customers
(a) 2 years (b) 3 years
(c) 4 years (d) 5 years
77 Bank has set up AML/CFT cell at Jaipur, what is the software used by them for
analysing the alerts on transactions across the bank
(a) Analog (b) Amlock
(c) Digilock (d) Amlcftlock
78 What is the periodicity for updation of KYC under High risk category customers
(c) 8 years (d) 10 years
79 What is the minimum threshold limit for executing auto sweep under Pehli
Kadam and Pehli Udaan account
(a) Rs.10000 (b) Rs.15000
(c) Rs.20000 (d) Rs.25000
80 Which of the following is true about Over Draft facility in Pehli Kadam and
Pehli Udaan account
(a) Overdraft facility is available to (b) Overdraft may be grated
the parents for meeting against fixed deposits
immediate requirements such
as payment of school fees, etc
(c) two months salary in case of (d) All the above
Corporate Salary package
accounts as the case may be
subject to fulfilling other terms
and conditions
Page 79 of 184
81 Under which of the following scheme is Value Added Feature(optional) facility

for PAI Cover by SBI General Insurance under
(a) Pehli Kadam (b) Pehli Udaan
(c) Available in Both a&b (d) No such facility
82 Which of the following is true about DL against TDR/STDR

(a) Maximum amount of loan that (b) Max of 4 DLs can be
can be granted against Term sanctioned
Deposits 90% of principal
amount + accrued interest
(c) Both a&b (d) None of these
83 Interest on deceased CA to be paid at the rate of

(a) No interest to be paid (b) TDR Rate
(c) SB rate based on simple (d) None of these
interest from the date of death
84 Which of the following is true about for 15G/H.

(a) Form 15H is submitted by (b) Form 15G is submitted by
Depositors with age of 60 Individuals below age of 60
years & above years
(c) Both a&b (d) None of these
85 If PAN card is not submitted by depositor alongwith 15G/H, applicable rate of

TDS for Resident Individuals
(a) 10% Plus 3% Cess (b) 15% Plus 3% Cess

(c) 20% Plus 3% Cess (d) 25% Plus 3% Cess
86 Which of the following is true about Recurring Deposit Minimum Monthly

installment
(a) Rs. 100/- at Metro/ Urban/ (b) Rs 50/- at Rural centres
Semi Urban centre
(c) Thereafter in multiples of Rs. (d) All the above
10/ -
87 What is the periodicity for MODs under Savings Plus Scheme:
(a) 1 year to 3 years (b) 1 year to 5 years
(c) 1 year to 10 years (d) 1 year to 7 years
88 Which of the following is true about Premium Savings Account.

(a) 50% concession in draft issue (b) No Service charges in respect
charges and cheque collection of outward RTGS/NEFT
charges. Bankers Cheques will transactions.
be issued free.
(c) Penalties for closing the (d) All the above
account before completion of
12 months: Rs.500/-
Page 80 of 184
89 Which of the following is true about Kissan Mitra Jama Yojana?
(a) Minimum amount of deposit (b) Minimum amount of Partial

Rs 1500 and thereafter in withdrawal Rs. 500/- in
multiples of Rs. 100/- multiples of Rs. 100/-
(c) Period of deposit 12 months & (d) All of the above
10 years
90 What is the minimum, maximum amount of deposit in a year under Sukanya

Samriddi Yojana Scheme
(a) Rs.1000, Rs.100000 (b) Rs.1000, Rs.150000
(c) Rs.1000, Rs.200000 (d) Rs.2000, Rs.100000
91 Which of the following true about Sukanya Samriddi Yojana Scheme

(a) Natural/ Legal guardian may (b) Minimum deposit mandatory till
open two accounts in the name 14 years from the date of
of two girl children. opening.
(c) The account shall mature on (d) All the above
completion of 21 years from
the date of opening the
account
92 Which of the following is not true about Caps Gain Plus Scheme
(a) No Cheque Book (b) Withdrawal at home branch
(c) ATM facility (d) No INB Facility
93 What is the period of deposit under Flexi Deposit Scheme

(a) Min 1 yrs & Max 7 yrs (b) Min 3 yrs & Max 7 yrs
(c) Min 2 yrs & Max 7 yrs (d) Min 5 yrs & Max 7 yrs
94 In case of joint account under SBI Tax Savings Scheme 2006, who will get the
benefit under Section 80C of IT Act 1961:
(a) First account holder (b) Second account holder
(c) All the account holders equally (d) None of these
95 The following is true in case of SBI Tax Saving Scheme 2006
(a) Max deposit Rs.1.50 lacs pa (b) Period of deposit 5-10 years
(c) No Loan facility (d) All of the above
96 What is the personal Accident cover available under Platinum variant of
Corporate Salary package in Rs.
(a) 3.00 lacs (b) 4.00 lacs
(c) 5.00 lacs (d) 10.00 lacs
97 What is the income criteria under Platinum variant of Corporate Salary
package in Rs.
(a) 50000-100000 (b) 50000-75000
(c) 25000-50000 (d) Above 100000
98 When an account holder is unable to attend personally for withdrawing

money,
(a) He may send his (b) He may send his representative
representative along with pass along with a letter of authority
book
Page 81 of 184
(c) Withdrawal not permitted to (d) Both a & b

third party
99 In case the account holder is too ill/old to sign a withdrawal or put their
thumb impression, the impression of the depositor should be identified by
(a) No witnesses required (b) Two independent witnesses
known to the Bank
(c) One of the witnesses should be (d) Both a & b
Bank official
100 Nomination in respect of a Term Deposit shall be in prescribed form:

(a) DA1 (b) DA2
(c) DA3 (d) DA4
PER DEPOSIT PRODUCTS

ANSWERS
1 b 11 d 21 b 31 d 41 a 51 a
2 b 12 d 22 c 32 a 42 d 52 d
3 b 13 c 23 a 33 d 43 b 53 b
4 c 14 d 24 c 34 d 44 d 54 c
5 c 15 d 25 d 35 d 45 c 55 a
6 c 16 b 26 d 36 c 46 c 56 a
7 d 17 c 27 d 37 b 47 d 57 a
8 c 18 d 28 c 38 a 48 c 58 a
9 c 19 c 29 a 39 b 49 c 59 c
10 a 20 c 30 d 40 d 50 d 60 b
61 c 67 d 73 d 79 c 85 c 91 d 97 d
62 a 68 a 74 d 80 d 86 d 92 c 98 d
63 c 69 d 75 c 81 a 87 b 93 d 99 b
64 d 70 b 76 a 82 c 88 d 94 a 100 a
65 d 71 c 77 b 83 c 89 d 95 d
66 a 72 b 78 d 84 c 90 b 96 c
Page 82 of 184
REMITTANCES & COLLECTIONS

Compiled by Sri K Giridhar Reddy, Manager (Training)
1. The RBI draft is valid for ____ ( becomes stale after)

2. RBI draft becomes lapsed if not paid within
a) 6 months from the date of its b) 1 accounting year from the date
issue of its issue
c) 2 accounting years from the date d) 3 accounting years from the date
of its issue of its issue
3. RBIs accounting Year is
a) April to March b) July to June
c) January to December d) Either of the above
4. A lapsed RBI draft can be revalidated
a) With the clearance of Local Office b) With the clearance of Central
of RBI Office of RBI
c) With the clearance of Dy. d) With the clearance of Currency
Governor of RBI Chest Branch of a Bank
5. Which of the following statements is not true in respect of RBI draft
a) Duplicate draft can be issued b) Duplicate Draft can be cancelled
against indemnity only if both the original &
duplicate are produced
c) If the original is not produced, d) Duplicate draft cannot be
the payment of the duplicate to be cancelled under any
obtained at the drawee office circumstances
6. RBI Interest warrant lapses _________ months after issue
a) 6 b) 8
c) 12 d) 18
7. Relationship of Banker with purchaser of Bank Draft:

a) Debtor & Creditor b) Creditor& Debtor
c) Principal & Agent d) Agent & Principal
8. Relationship of Banker with Payee of Bank Draft:
a) Trustee & Beneficiary b) Debtor & Creditor
c) Creditor& Debtor d) Principal & Agent
9. Hologram is affixed on drafts of Rs.______ against the Payees Name To
Prevent Tampering
a) Rs.50000 & above b) Rs 1 lakh & above
c) Rs.2 lakhs & above d) Rs.5 lakhs & above
10. Drafts of Rs. ________should be issued only by debit to customers A/C or
against cheque, etc.
a) Rs.20000/- and above b) Rs.50000/- and above
c) Rs.100000/- and above d) Rs.200000/- and above
11. Payment of Drafts of Rs ___ should be made through Bank A/C and not in
cash
c) Rs.100000/- and above d) Rs.200000/- and above
Page 83 of 184
12. Which of the following statements is not true in respect of Bank draft
a) If PAN is provided cash b) Drafts of Rs.1,50,000/- and
transactions of Rs 50000/- and above should be signed by two
above are permissible officials
c) No Advice is sent for Drafts d) Even If PAN is provided cash
below Rs 10 Lakh transactions of Rs 50000/- and
above are not permissible
13. Inter Office Instrument (IOI) is a single running security form for issuing ___
a) Demand Draft b) Associate Bank Draft
c) Bankers Cheque d) All the above
14. BGL A/C 98602BBBBBC represents
a) IOI Account b) IOI to be issued Account
c) Drafts Account d) Bankers Cheque
15. BGL A/C 98505BBBBBC represents
a) IOI Account b) IOI to be issued Account
c) Drafts Account d) Bankers Cheque
16. Which of the following statements is not true in respect of IOI
a) Duplicate IOI can be issued b) Duplicate IOI shall not be
by the issuing branch only. hand written
c) Triplicate IOI cannot be d) Triplicate IOI can be
issued Issued
17. Which of the following statements is not true in respect of IOI
a) Can be issued for all b) Serial number of IOI will be
denominations including HC a unique 12 digit number
series upto Rs.99,99,99,999/- without any Circle prefix
c) Serial number of IOI will be d) Instrument type for IOI is 16.
a unique 12 digit number with
Circle prefix
18. Which of the following statements is not true in respect of Bill of Exchange
a) A bill of exchange is a written b) signed by the maker, directing
instrument containing to pay a certain amount of money
an unconditional order, only to a particular person, or to
the bearer of the instrument
c) It is a negotiable instrument d) It is a negotiable instrument
drawn by the seller on the buyer drawn by the buyer on the seller
for value of the goods delivered to for value of the goods delivered
him. to him.
19. Which of the following statements is not true in respect of Bill of Exchange
a) A demand bill is payable on b) Clean Bills are accompanied by
demand whereas a Usance bill is documents of title to goods
payable after a specified time.
c) Documentary Bills are supported d) Clean Bills are not accompanied
by Railway Receipt (RR) or Lorry by documents of title to goods
Receipt (LR) or Bill of Lading (BL)
20. In case Blank IOI forms are lost during the transit from Printer to Circle
Stationary Department, such losses are to be reported by _______ to _____.
a) Branch to Central Stationery b) Circle Stationery Department to
Department Central Stationery Department
Page 84 of 184
c) Central Stationery Department to d) None of the above

Circle Stationery Department
21. As per the benchmark prescription known as 'CTS-2010 standard' issued by
RBI, no changes/ corrections should be carried out on the cheques other than
____ for validation purpose, if required effective from Dec 1, 2010. (under the
image-based Cheque Transaction System and not applicable to cheques
cleared under other clearing arrangements such as MICR clearing, non MICR
clearing , over the counter collection for cash payment or direct collection of
cheques)
a) Date b) Amount
c) Signature d) None of these
22. In case Blank IOI forms are lost at Branch, such losses are to be reported by
_______ to _____________.
a) Branch to Central Stationery b) Circle Stationery Department to
Department Central Stationery Department
c) Branch to Controllers besides d) Central Stationery Department to
making necessary input in CBS Circle Stationery Department
23. As the __________is updating the whole Bank level data of Draft/IOI reported
lost, the maintenance of Draft/IOI lost register at Branches is redundant and
hence is dispensed with.
a) Draft Reconciliation Department b) IOR
c) CRMD d) None of the above
24. RBI has advised that Savings as well as Current Account should be treated
as ________ if there are no debit as well as credit transactions induced at the
instance of customers in the account for over a period of ____ years.
a) Dormant, 2 b) Inoperative, 2
c) Dormant, 1 d) Inoperative, 1
25. IBTS is
A Inter branch transfer system B Inter branch transaction system
C Inter branch transfer scheme D Inter branch transaction scheme
26. IBTS is meant for
A Inter branch transfers other than B Inter Branch transfers including
SC/DDPs SC/DDP
C Inter Branch transfers other than D None of the above
staff purpose.
27. How many new BGL accounts have been created for IBTS purpose?
A 4 B 3
C 2 D 8
28. The purpose of IBTS is
A To ensure better control on inter B To replace Branch Clearing
Branch transactions. General Account (BCGA) as IBTS
is self reconciliation facility.
C Due to RBI compulsions. D To enable faster realization of
SCs/DDPs
29. In IBTS, the transaction originated by the originating Branch
A Can be monitored till the same is B The other Branch should be
responded by other Branch. responding instantly.
C The originating branch cant view D The controllers will be able to see
the status after originating the status for follow up.
transaction.
Page 85 of 184
30. The transaction originated by the originated Branch

A Should be accepted by the B Can be accepted or declined by the
responding Branch. responding Branch.
C Can be reversed by it at any point of D Cant be reversed by the originating
time. Branch
31. The transaction originated by the originating Branch in IBTS
A Can be reversed by the originating B Can be reversed by the originating
Branch at any point of time without Branch on the same day without
the involvement of the responding involvement of the responding
Branch. Branch.
C Cant be reversed by the declining D None of the above.
Branch without getting declined by
the responding Branch.
32. Once the transaction in IBTS is declined by the responding Branch
A The originating Branch has no B The originating Branch can either
option but to reverse it. reverse or re-originate the same.
C The originating Branch can only re- D Both (a) & (c)
originate the entry after reversal
33. Re-origination of entry in IBTS by the originating Branch involves
A Accounting entries. B No accounting entries.
C Automatic accounting entries at D Automatic accounting entries both
originating Branch by the system. at originating Branch and at
receiving Branch by the system.
34. While re-origination of the entry by the originating Branch, which of the following
can be changed/modified.
A Destination Branch code, amount B Destination Branch BGL No,
and narration amount and narration.
C Destination Branch code, amount D Destination Branch code, BGL
and destination BGL account. account and narration.
35. For responding a IBTS entry, the responding Branch
A Need not depend on any B It can respond after receiving
documents. system generated forward letter
and documents.
C It can respond on the strength of D None of the above.
Branch Clearing General Account.
36. If IOI security form fails to get printed or the printing is defective or the form gets
corrupted/torn while printing, the security form shall be treated as damaged and
destroyed, as it cannot be put to use. Who can mark such IOI as damaged in
CBS
a Vault teller only b VPIS custodian only
c Branch Manager d either a or b
37. Which of the following statement is not true in respect of blank IOI forms
a Blank IOI forms lost during the b Blank IOI forms lost during the
transit from Printer to Circle transit from Circle Stationary
Stationary Department then Central Department to Branch:
Stationary Department will make The Circle stationary Department
necessary input in CBS up on will inform the details of lost blank
receipt of information from circle IOI forms to Central Stationary
stationary department Department which will make
necessary input in CBS.
Page 86 of 184
c Loss of blank IOI forms at Branch: d Draft/IOI lost register is dispensed

The branch will inform Central with
Stationary Department who will
make the necessary input in CBS
38. Which is the customized forex outward remittance facility on the Retail Internet
Banking platform introduced by the Bank
a RemXout b Xoutrem
c ReXout d remoutX
39. The customized forex outward remittance facility on the Retail Internet Banking
platform named remXout is presently permitted in
a USD b Euro
c GBP d All of these
40. Under a customized forex outward remittance facility with RINB, a user can make
Upto ______ remittances in a calendar month.
a 8 b 4
c 12 d 18
41. Under remXout, Remittances will initially be permitted to be made for which of
the following purposes on self-declaration basis:
a Education b Medical treatment abroad
c Maintenance of close relatives d All of these
42. Under remXout, Remittance will initially be restricted to how many countries?
a 10 b 11
c 12 d 13
43. How many remittances can a person receive in a single calendar year under
Money Transfer Service Scheme (MTSS) through Western Union and
Moneygram
a 10 b 20
c 30 d 40
44. Bank has tied up with which of the following for Remittance Business with
Moneygram
a M/S Thomascook Ind Ltd b M/s Quwait India International
c Master Card International d None of the above
45. Cheques drawn on branches of other banks located at State Capitals/Major A
class Cities/other locations will be collected within __, __, ___ days respectively.
a 5,10,15 b 7,10,14
c 7,14,21 d 6,12,18
46. Cheques drawn on branches of SBI branches located at State Capitals/Major A
class Cities/other locations will be collected within __, __, ___ days respectively.
a 6,8,10 b 7,10,14
c 1,1,1 d 5,10,15
47. Duplicate IOI can be issued by
a Issuing Branch only b Drawee Branch only
c Any Branch d Cannot be issued
48. Triplicate IOI can be issued by
a Issuing Branch only b Drawee Branch only
c Any Branch d Cannot be issued
49. Serial Number of IOI is a unique _________ digit number
a 10 b 11
c 12 d 13
Page 87 of 184
50. IOI can be paid by ______ irrespective of the location of the drawee branch
a Drawee branch only b Clearing branch
c Issuing branch only d Any branch
51. Under Secion ______ of RBI Act, issue of bearer draft is prohibited as it would
virtually tantamount to issue of currency note
a 36 b 31
c 33 d 35
52. Duplicate draft is to be issued within a maximum period of
a 14 days b 5 days
c 10 days d 7 days
53. Physical verification of draft forms is to be done at _____ intervals
a Quarterly b yearly
c Fortnightly d Half yearly
54. All drafts over Rs._______ are to be crossed before issue as per RBI norms
a 50000 b 100000
c 20000 d 25000
55. Drafts can be revalidated if presented within __________ year of issue
a 1 b 3
c 2 d 5
56. A single individual beneficiary can receive ____ remittances in a calendar year
underr Western Union Money Transfer
a 12 b 30
c 10 d 20
57. A capof USD ______ is fixed on individual remittance under WUMT scheme
a 2500 b 1000
c 1500 d 5000
58. MTCN in Western Union Money Transfer stands for
a Money Transfer Currency Number b Money Transfer Control Note
c Money Transfer Control Number d Money Transfer Check Number
59. The per transaction limit for SBI Green Remit Card is
a Rs 40000 b Rs 30000
c Rs10000 d Rs 50000
60. IMPS in mobile banking facility stands for
a Immediate Payment Service B Inter Bank Money Payment Service
c Intermoney payment service d Intramoney Payment Service
61. What is the minimum balance for sending remittance through NEFT, RTGS?
a NIL, Rs.1,00,000/- B Nil, Rs.2,00,000/-
c Nil, nil d Nil, Rs.3,00,000/-
62. The front-end software used for making payments under Western Union
payment is
a WestLink B Bankslink
c Translink d FastLink
63. Release of foreign exchange is not admissible for travel to and transaction
with residents of _______ & _______.
a Bangladesh & Pakistan B Nepal & Bhutan
c Sri Lanka & Maldives d Pakistan & China
64. The Nodal Branch for making payments under Western Union payment is
a NRI Chennai B NRI Kochi
Page 88 of 184
c NRI Bangalore d Payment System Br, Mumbai

65. If RBI cuts CRR, then
a Excess Cash will be removed from B Liquidity will be infused into the
the economy Economy
c Foreign Inward Remittances will d Either (c) or (b)
take place on large scale
66. What is the function of Global Link Services?

a It enables user to manage gold B GLS handles the online remittance
loan portfolio product - SBI Express Remit
c it handles the ECB portfolio of d it handles FCCB requirements of

corporate Corporates
67. Limit under Liberalised Remittance Scheme for Resident Individuals in one
financial year as gift to a person residing outside India is
a USD 1 LAC B USD 250000
c USD 75000 d USD 500000
68. Production of sureties may not be insisted upon while obtaining indemnity for
issuance of duplicate IOI draft where the amount of IOI is upto Rs._______ if
the applicant is considered good for the amount.
a Rs.50000/- B Rs.100000/-
c Rs.200000/- d Rs.300000/-
69. In case both the original and duplicate drafts are presented simultaneously,
which is to be honoured
a Original B Duplicate
c Both to the paid d Both to be returned
70. If the duplicate is presented after the original is paid, the duplicate is returned
with the remarks:
a Draft reported lost B Payees endorsement required
c Original paid d No remarks
71. __ section of RBI Act prohibits issue of bearer draft as it would virtually
tantamount to issue of currency. And it is punishable under section __of the
act.
a 21, 48B B 31, 58B
c 31, 58B d 131, 158B
72. All Bankers cheques issued by debit to charges account and outstanding for
more than __ years are to be transferred to ____ account annually.
a 3, commission account B 2, commission account
c 3, Charges account d 2, Charges account
73. Branch will credit immediate credit of outstation cheques upto and inclusive of
Rs.___ tendered by customers of satisfactorily conducted accounts for atleast
6 months.
a 15000 B 20000
c 25000 d 30000
Page 89 of 184
74. Compensation for delay in collection of cheques(interest rate payable for

delayed collections) in India is:
a Nil B Savings Bank
c Term Deposit rate d 2% above corresponding TDR
rate
75. Compensation for delay in collection of cheques beyond 14 days is (interest
rate payable for delayed collections) in India is:
rate
76 Compensation for delay in collection of cheques beyond 90 days is (interest
rate payable for delayed collections) in India is:
rate
77. Compensation for delay in collection of cheques beyond 90 days for loan
accounts is (interest rate payable for delayed collections) in India is:
c Term Deposit rate d 2% above applicable interest rate
in the loan account
78. What is the limit on Foreign remittance to a SMALL account
a No credit of Foreign remittance B Rs.50,000/- per month
c Rs.10,000/- per day d Rs.25,000/- per annum
79. A revalidated draft is valid for a period of __ months and an overdue draft can
be revalidated only__ within a year.
a 1,1 B 2,2
c 3,3 d 6,6
80. Usance Bills are generally entitled to a grace period __ days
a 1 B 2
c 3 d 5
ANSWERS-REMITTANCES-KEY
1 d 2 d 3 b 4 b 5 d 6 b 7 a 8 a 9 b 10 b
11 b 12 d 13 d 14 a 15 b 16 d 17 c 18 d 19 b 20 b
21 a 22 c 23 a 24 b 25 b 26 a 27 a 28 b 29 a 30 b
31 b 32 b 33 b 34 d 35 b 36 d 37 c 38 a 39 d 40 b
41 d 42 b 43 c 44 a 45 b 46 a 47 a 48 d 49 c 50 d
51 b 52 a 53 d 54 c 55 a 56 b 57 a 58 c 59 a 60 a
61 b 62 c 63 b 64 b 65 b 66 b 67 b 68 b 69 b 70 c
71 c 72 c 73 d 74 b 75 c 76 d 77 d 78 a 79 c 80 c
Page 90 of 184
LEGAL ASPECTS
Compiled by Sri K. Giridhar Reddy, Manager (Training)
1 Payment in due course is defined under

(a) section 10 of NI Act (b) section 11 of NI Act
(c) section 10 of Contract Act (d) section 1 of NI Act
2 Hypothecation is defined in which of the following Act?
(a) Transfer of Property Act (b) SARFAESI Act
(c) Indian Contract Act (d) NI Act
3 The charge created with ROC for companies is for which of the following ?
(a) Lien (b) Mortgage
(c) Mortgage& Hypothecation (d) Pledge and Hypothecation
4 Income tax attachment order does not attach which of the following amount?
(a) Entire balance in joint accounts (b) Balance in Deceased depositor
account
(c) Fixed Deposit maturing in (d) Chq sent for collection
future date
5 A loan is guaranteed by a surety. When the Prinicpal Debtor failed to repay the
loan, bank asked the surety to pay which was complied. On making payment ,
the surety became entitled to all rights and remedies which the bank had
against the principal debtor. This right of the surety is called...
(a) Right of Subrogation (b) Right of redemption
(c) Right of Foreclosure (d) Right of Lien
6 Dishonor of an electronic fund transfer instruction due to insufficiency of funds
in the account etc., is an offence punishable with imprisonment or with fine or
both, similar to the dishonor of a cheque under the Negotiable Instruments Act
1881. Such a provision is under which Act?
(a) u/s 25 of PSS Act, 2007 (b) Section 138 of NI Act
(c) Section 172 of contract Act (d) None
7 The maximum number of partners in a Banking firm shall not exceed
(a) 20 (b) 10
(c) 2 (d) None of these
8 RBI was established on the recommendations of
(a) Hilton Young Commission (b) Royal Commission on Indian
currency & Finance
(c) Gorwala Committee (d) None of these
9 RBI Act was passed in the year 1934 and the RBI was established on 1.4.1935
as a Private Sector Bank. It was nationalised on
(a) 1.1.1946 (b) 1.1.1947
(c) 1.1.1948 (d) 1.1.1949
10 The Banking Regulation Act 1949 is applicable to, and
(a) commercial banks (b) co-operative Banks
(c) foreign banks operating in India (d) All of these
including J & K
11 Which among the following is not found in the Memorandum of Association of a
Company?
(a) Objectives of the Company (b) Authorised capital
(c) Borrowing powers of Directors (d) Registered office
Page 91 of 184
12 As per Section 108 of Indian Evidence Act person will be declared as legally
dead, if for a period of.........years or more, the persons who would have
normally known of his existence have not heard of him / known of his
existence.
(a) 12-years (b) 7-years
(c) 5-years (d) 3-years
13 Section 45-Z of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 deal with?
(a) Return of unclaimed deposits (b) Permission to open new
branches
(c) Maintenance of currency chest (d) Return of paid cheque
14 What is "conversion" according to the Negotiable Instrument Act?
(a) Calculating the rupee (b) Payment of cash against tender
equivalent of a negotiable of negotiable instrument drawn
instrument expressed in foreign on the Bank
currency
(c) Payment to a holder in due (d) Wrongful transfer of the benefit
course of negotiable instrument to a
person who is not the true
owner
15 The relationship between the hirers of Bank locker and the Bank is that of:
(a) Debtor - Creditor (b) Bailor - Bailee
(c) Licensor - Licensee (d) Principal- Agent
16 The provisions of Consumer Protection Act,1986 are applicable to the services
rendered by the Banks __________________.
(a) To the customers of the Bank (b) To the customers and the users
only of the services irrespective of
whether the service is gratis or
for consideration
(c) To the customers and any user (d) All of these
of Bank's services against
consideration
17 What does "Assignment" refer to ?
(a) Immovable property (b) Ownership rights
(c) Transfer of interest in (d) None of the above
actionable claims
18 As per Section___of NI Act 1881A Minor can draw, endorse and accept an
N.I.
(a) 16 (b) 26
(c) 36 (d) 46
19 Which of the following is true about dishonor of cheques in NI Act 1881.
(a) sections 138-142 have been (b) Drawer is liable for either
introduced by Banking, Public punishment upto 2 yerars or
Financial Institutions and with fine which may go pto twice
Negotiable Instruments Laws the amount, or both if cheque is
Amendment Act of 1988. returned for want of sufficient
balance
(c) Sec-138: Chq. return for (d) All of these
insufficient funds
20 As per Section___of Partnership Act 1932 Joint and Several liability of
partners for all acts
Page 92 of 184
(a) 16 (b) 20
(c) 25 (d) 46
21 As per Section___of Partnership Act 1932 Death, Insolvency etc of a partner
dissolves the partnership
(a) 16 (b) 20
(c) 25 (d) 42
22 As per Section___of BR Act 1949 No Advance to be sanctioned by a Bank
against its owns shares(it will amount to reduction of its capital)
(a) 16 (b) 20
(c) 25 (d) 42
23 As per Section___of BR Act 1949 Ombudsman is appointed is defined
(a) 25 (b) 30
(c) 35A (d) 45Y
24 As per Section___of BR Act 1949 Nomination facility is defined in
(a) 45C (b) 30Z
(c) 45ZA 45ZF (d) 45Y
25 As per Section___of Indian Contract Act 1872 Claytons rule. Appropriation of
payments when several debts are owed. is defined in
(a) 45-50 (b) 50-55
(c) 59-61 (d) 59-65
26 Mortgage is defined in ____________.
(a) Sale of Goods Act (b) Contract Act
(c) Transfer of property Act (d) Companies Act
27 Pari Passu charge refers to a charge ____________.
(a) Ranking equally in priority, (b) Merely notional in nature
regardless of quantum of
advances
(c) Ranking equally in priority in (d) None of these
proportion to the lender's share
of advance
28 RBI can issue directive to banks in respect of their loan / advances, under sec
21 of:
(a) Banking Regulation Act (b) Negotiable Instrument Act
(c) SBI Act (d) RBI Act 1934
29 The right to set-off of a banker has been conferred on the bank under ...
(a) NI Act (b) Indian Contract Act
(c) RBI Act (d) Civil Procedure Code
30 Under which of the following situations, the Clayton's rule applies......
(a) Payment of cheque (b) Right of set-off
(c) Right of appropriation (d) B and c
31 In the process of issuing a garnishee order court first issues.....
(a) Order Nisi (b) Order primary
(c) Order attachment (d) Order absolute
32 According to Hindu minority act and guardianship act 1956, the natural
guardian of married minor Hindu girl is.......
(a) Husband, if he is a major (b) Father in law, if husband is
minor
(c) Mother of the girl (d) a and b
Page 93 of 184
33 Usually, a loan obtained by a minor cannot be recovered but when it is given

for the necessity, the loan can be recovered from his property. This provision is
as per......
(a) Sec 11, Indian contract (b) Sec 68, Indian contract act1872
act1872
(c) Sec 11, majority act1872 (d) Sec 11,Indian minority act 1872
34 A partnership firm can be registered with......
(a) Registrar of firms (b) Registrar of companies
(c) Registrar of deeds (d) Registrar of estate
35 A company winds up its affairs and the Person appointed for this purpose by
the court is -
(a) Executor (b) Administrator
(c) Receiver (d) Liquidator
36 Who issues Certificate of Incorporation ?
(a) Central Govt (b) Ministry of corporate affairs
(c) Registrar of firms (d) Registrar of Companies
37 Which of the following documents will have to be carefully examined by a bank
branch, when It is approached by Administrator of a deceased estate?
(a) Succession certificate (b) Letter of probate
(c) Letter of Administration (d) Liquidation order
38 Who among the following is empowered to issue the succession certificate ?
(a) Special executive magistrate (b) Tahasildar
(c) Dist judge or high court (d) Presiding officer of DRT
39 A minor can draw, endorse and accept the cheque/negotiable instrument to
bind
(a) Self (b) Others
(c) Drawer (d) All other except self
40 Basel-III capital regulation will be fully implemented in India by........
(a) 31.03.2015 (b) 31.03.2017
(c) 31.03.2019 (d) 31.03.2018
41 Bank does not disclose the affairs of the customer's account and maintain
secrecy owing to ........
(a) Sec 27 of BR Act (b) Sec 17 RBI Act
(c) Sec 13, Banking Company (d) Sec 43, Banking Secrecy Act
acq.& trf of u/t Act 1970
42 Garnishee order attaches:
(a) Balance in term deposit (b) Term deposit payable at
maturity
(c) Unrealized proceeds of (d) both a & b
instruments sent for collection
43 The legal status of a nominee is ---------.
(a) Trustee for legal heirs (b) The depositor
(c) Agent of legal heirs (d) Agent of the depositor
44 BCSBI is a registered entity under .act.
(a) Societies Regn act (b) RBI act
(c) NI act (d) BR act
45 Who can seek information from the Bank
(a) Individual (b) Organisation
(c) Association (d) All of these
Page 94 of 184
46 In respect of application received through a CAPIO, the CPIO has a time limit
of .... days from the date of receipt of the application by the CAPIO.
(a) 35 (b) 30
(c) 25 (d) 20
47 Under the provisions of the RTI act, the appellate authority for branches in the
circle is......
(a) GM of the Network (b) CGM
(c) DGM of Module (d) None of these
48 what is the maximum limit on the amount of compensation as specified in an
award by the Banking Ombudsman
(a) 10 lac (b) 15 lac
(c) 20 lac (d) 30 lac
49 The District Forum Under the COPRA can hear claims upto a maximum of ...
(a) 20 lac (b) 15 lac
(c) 10 lac (d) 30 lac
50 President of State Commission Under the COPRA is a judge from the .....
(a) High Court (b) District Court
(c) Sessions Court (d) None of these.
51 The apex appellate authority under the provisions of the COPRA is.....
(a) Supreme Court (b) High Court
(c) National Forum (d) None of these.
52 In case of Bank Deposits the Law of Limitation operates from the Date of .....
(a) Deposit (b) Maturity
(c) Demand (d) Not Applicable
53 Appellate Authority is vested with......... under the provisions of the Banking
Ombudsman Act.
(a) Deputy Governor of the RBI (b) Regional Director of the RBI
(c) High Court (d) Supreme Court
54 A physical grievance from a pensioner has to be acknowledged within a period
of . days.
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
55 The amount to the credit of any account in India with any bank which has not
been operated upon for a period of ten years will be transferred to....... fund.
(a) Depositor Education and (b) Rural Infra Development
Awareness
(c) Financial Education (d) Rural Poverty Alleviation
56 Which of the following is not a document of title to goods
(a) Railway Receipt (b) Lorry Receipt
(c) None of these (d) Bill of lading
57 Tax is required to be deducted at source when rent payments made in a
financial year [including advance, if any] exceed Rs.......lac.
(a) 1.8 (b) 2
(c) 2.5 (d) 1.5
58 Form 24Q/26Q/27Q is associated with........
(a) Yrly TDS statement (b) Qrtly TDS statement
(c) Yrly Service Tax statement (d) Qrtly Service Tax statement
59 The periodicity of submission of Form15(G/H) to IT deptt is......
Page 95 of 184
(a) Half yearly (b) Yearly

(c) Monthly (d) Weekly
60 Under RTI Act CIC (Central Information Commission) can impose penalty of
Rs.____ per day till the information is provided subject to a maximum of Rs.__
(a) 500/- & 25,000/- (b) 100/- & 10,000/-
(c) 250/- & 25,000/- (d) 500/- & 50,000/-
61 Equitable Mortgage is defined under which act
(a) Sale of goods Act (b) Registration Act
(c) Transfer of property Act (d) Transfer of Assets Act
62 Garnishee order is issued by court under
(a) Sec 50 of Civil Procedure Code (b) Sec 126 of Indian Contract Act
(1908)
(c) Sec 60 of Civil Procedure Code (d) Sec 102 of Criminal Procedure
(1908) Code (1973)
63 The Bank has the right to sell the gold ornaments pledged, after giving
reasonable notice to the borrower vide section ___ of the Indian Contract Act.
(a) 138 (b) 25
(c) 167 (d) 176
64 As per Sec __ of RBI ACT 1934, CRR to be maintained with RBI
(a) 24 (b) 42
(c) 44 (d) 28
65 Under COPRA Act District forum deals with claims up to______
(a) Rs.20 lacs (b) Rs.25 lacs
(c) Rs.5 lacs (d) Rs.50 lacs
66 Penalty for non stamping / under stamping up to _________ ,the amount by
which documents have been under stamped.
(a) 10 Times (b) 5 times
(c) 20 times (d) 15 times
67 Father of a minor is convicted and imprisoned. Then the natural guardian of
the child will be
(a) Mother (b) Elder brother
(c) Paternal grand father (d) Father
68 Consumer protection act is not applicable to
(a) Failure to open accounts (b) Failure to issue draft
(c) Failure to accept small (d) Non-sanction of loans and
denominations & small coins advances.
69 Inchoate instrument is
(a) No proper name (b) Instrument partially or fully
destroyed
(c) Incomplete instrument (d) Instrument not legible.
70 uberrimae fides contracts are pertinent to
(a) Banking sector (b) Capital markets
(c) Insurance sector (d) Mutual funds sector
LEGAL ASPECTS - ANSWERS
Page 96 of 184
1 a 11 c 21 d 31 a 41 c 51 a 61 c
2 b 12 b 22 b 32 d 42 d 52 c 62 c
3 c 13 d 23 c 33 b 43 a 53 a 63 d
4 a 14 d 24 c 34 a 44 a 54 c 64 b
5 a 15 c 25 c 35 d 45 d 55 a 65 a
6 a 16 c 26 c 36 d 46 a 56 b 66 a
7 b 17 c 27 c 37 c 47 a 57 a 67 a
8 b 18 b 28 a 38 c 48 a 58 b 68 d
9 d 19 d 29 b 39 d 49 a 59 c 69 c
10 d 20 c 30 c 40 c 50 a 60 a 70 c
Page 97 of 184
FOREIGN EXCHANGE
Prepared by Smt B Savithri, Manager (Training)
Please choose correct answer from the given alternatives
1. NRI status is derived from
A Residential status B Citizenship/origin of a person
C Both the above D None of the above
2. Sending foreign currency remittance through fx-out is available at
A NRI branches B NRI intensive branches
C All SBI branches D Authorised branches
3. Ceiling on interest rate on 3-5 yr maturity of FCNR(B) deposit
A LIBOR/ SWAP rates plus 200 B LIBOR/ SWAP rates plus 100 basis
basis points points
C LIBOR/ SWAP rates plus 300 D Deregulated now
basis points
4. OCB (Overseas Corporate Body) is permitted to open
A NRE account only B FCNR account only
C Both the above D None of the above
5. The main difference between NRI and NRO account is
A Repatriability of funds B Nature of accounts
C Both the above D None of the above.
6. Resident Foreign Currency (Domestic) Account is a
A Current account B Current account or Term Deposit
C SB or Term Deposit D SB, CA or TDR / STDR
7. Which of the following is not true about NRO account?
A NRO account can be opened B NRO account can be opened
jointly with resident. jointly with Non-Resident.
C Nomination facility is available to D A resident cant operate a NRO
NRO account holders. account based on a POA.
8. Which of the following is not true about NRO account?
A Account holder can deposit any B Legitimate income earned by NRI
convertible foreign currency in India can be credited to NRO
brought in by him through legal account.
means.
C The NRO account holder can D International credit card payments
repatriate his current income. cant be made by debit to NRO a/c
9. A NRI can repatriate balance in his NRO account for bonafide purposes up to
A USD one million for FY B USD 0.1 million for FY
C USD 10 million for FY D Cant be repatriated.
10. A resident POA holder can operate on the NRO account of NRI for
A All local payments in rupees B For transfer of amount to other
including payments for eligible NRO accounts
investments.
C Make gift to a resident on behalf D All the above.
of the NRI
Page 98 of 184
11. A person having a overdraft facility became NRI. Then,

A The OD should be closed B The OD may be allowed to
immediately. continue subject to repayment from
domestic sources alone.
C The OD may be allowed to D Before leaving for foreign country,
continue subject to repayment the account should be closed.
either from domestic sources or
legitimate inward remittances.
12. NRE accounts are
A Rupee designated accounts B Opened in 6 foreign currencies
C POA holder of NRI can open the D Both (a) & (c) are correct
account for NRI
13. Which of the following is true regarding NRE accounts?
A Balances in the accounts are fully B Balances with interest can be fully
repatriable. repatriated.
C They are exempted from income D They are not exempted from any
tax, but not form wealth tax. tax.
14. An NRI can open FCNR(B) joint account with
A An NRI with Malaysian passport. B Any resident Indian.
C Another NRI. D Resident close relative
15. Which of the following is false about NRE accounts?
A NRE accounts can be opened as B Interest rates are totally de-
SB,CA and STDR with normal regulated for NRE deposits.
maturity periods as applicable to
domestic deposits.
C Transfers from FCNR accounts is D All the above.
strictly restricted for NRE
accounts.
16. Which of the following is not a permitted debit for NRE account?
A Local disbursements B Transfer to FCNR/NRE accounts of
other people.
C Remittance outside India D None of the above.
17. Which of the following is correct about NRE accounts?
A NRE account balances cant be B FCNs tendered by POA of NRI can
used for payment of charges of be credited to NRE account of the
International credit cards. NRI
C POA holder of NRE account cant D All the above.
make gifts on behalf of the NRI
18. Upon return to India, the NRE account of a NRI is
A Is redesignated as resident rupee B Converted into RFC (HCD)
account deposit.
C Either of the two at the option of D Can be continued as NRE account.
the depositor.
19. Upon return of NRI, the fixed deposit in NRE account
Page 99 of 184
A Will be converted into resident B Can be continued as NRE account

account and will earn applicable till the date of maturity and as per
deposit rates to domestic deposits NRE deposit rates
C Will be converted into resident D None of the above
account but continue to earn NRE
rates if the same is continued till
the date of maturity
20. Which of the following is true regarding FCNR(B) deposit scheme?
A They are 6 foreign currency B They are foreign currency
designated accounts in the form designated term deposits with
of STDR,SB,CA etc maximum maturity period of five
years irrespective of the currency.
C The interest income from these D Recurring deposits can be
accounts is not free of tax. accepted under FCNR(B).
21. Firms dealing in purchase / sale of rough or cut and polished diamonds /
precious metal jewellery can transact through Diamond Dollar Account if they
have average annual turnover of ______ during the preceding three licensing
years
A Rs. 3 crores B Rs. 1 crore
C USD 1 Mio D USD 250000
22. Which of the following is not a permitted mode to open FCNR(B) account?
A By a transfer of funds from B By transfer of funds from existing
existing NRE accounts. FCNR(B) account.
C By transfer of funds from NRO D With funds received by debit to the
accounts. account of non-resident bank
maintained with authorized dealer
in India.
23. Which of the following is true regarding FCNR(B) accounts?
A All credits permitted in NRE B All debits permitted in NRE
accounts are also permitted in accounts are not permitted in
FCNR(B) accounts. FCNR(B) deposits as well.
C The maturity proceeds of the D Only (b) & (c) are true.
FCNR(B) deposit can not be
remitted to third parties outside
India.
24. Which of the following is true regarding maturity proceeds of FCNR(B) deposit
scheme?
A The maturity proceeds will be B TT buying rate will be offered to the
paid in the same designated depositor for converting the
currency and the depositor cant maturity proceeds into Rupees.
convert it into the currency of his
choice.
C Interest is payable quarterly on D All the above.
FCNR(B) deposit as per the
choice of the depositor.
Page 100 of 184

25. The sale proceeds of the immovable property held by an NRI can be remitted
abroad upto ________ per financial year
A USD 250000 B USD 1 Mio
C USD 100,000 C Rs. 100,000
26. FCNR(B) deposits can be maintained in
A USD or GBP B Any freely convertible currency
C USD, GBP or EURO D INR
27. The repatriation of sale proceeds of immovable property should not exceed the
amount paid for acquisition of the property received through normal channels or
out of funds held in
A NRE account B EEFC account
C FCNR(B) account D A or C
28. The sum total of accruals during a calendar month in EEFC accounts is to
converted into Rupee value by
A before the last day of the current B before the last day of the
month succeeding calendar month
C before the last day of the current D before the last day of the
financial year succeeding financial year
29. Which of the following statement is true regarding loans to NRIs against
deposits?
A No loans can be granted to third B The loan amounts can be fully
parties against NRI deposits. repatriated.
C The loan amount can be credited D The loan can be repaid out of local
to NRE account of the NRI rupee resources in the NRO
account of the NRI.
30. Which of the following is true regarding loans in foreign currencies to NRIs?
A Documents can be executed by B Loan proceeds can be used for
POA holder investments in India.
C Repayment of the loan can be D Loans can be sanctioned against
made from NRO account. third party deposits.
31. The repatriation of sale proceeds of residential immovable property by an NRI
is restricted to
A No restrictions B Not more than five properties
C Not more than three properties D Not more than two properties
32. In case of remittance of sale proceeds of immovable property purchased by NRI
with foreign exchange, the sale proceed are restricted to
A USD 2 million for FY B 2 properties in a FY
C 2 years lock in period is D None of the above.
stipulated.
33. A student with NRI status can receive from close relations in India, a foreign
remittance of _______ under LRS
A USD 250,000 for maintenance B USD 200,000 for maintenance
C USD 50,000 for maintenance D He cant receive
Page 101 of 184

34. SBI Express Rupee is a

A A remittance product for US & UK B A remittance product for Gulf NRIs
NRIs
C A remittance product for US NRIs D None of the above.
alone
35. SBI Express is presently being facilitated by
A GLS (Global Link Services) B GMU (Global Markets Unit)
C OB,Mumbai D Exchange companies in Gulf
36. SBI Express Worldwide is a Money Transfer Request in GLS Worldwide
website through which online remittance upto ___________ is allowed
A USD 100000 per financial year B USD 100000 per month
C USD 100000 per calendar year D USD 100000 per transaction
37. Online remittance facility for customers based out of UK
A SBI Express Remit UK B SBI e-Remit
C SBI ERupee D SBI Express Rupee
38. The internet based online platform for Mid-corporate, small and medium
enterprises to book their trade transactions at rates provided directly by the
Central Treasury, Mumbai
A e-Remit B e-forex
C ERupee. D None
39. RNOR (Resident but not ordinarily resident) is defined
A Under FEMA Act B Under IT Act
C Defined by RBI D Defined by ministry of finance.
40. A NRI after coming back to India got his NRE accounts converted into RFC
accounts. What is status of the account when he becomes NRI again
A The RFC accounts will become B They will continue as RFC
NRE accounts accounts.
C Either of the above as per his D None of the above
choice
ANSWERS
1. c 2. c 3. c 4. d 5. a 6. a 7. d 8. d 9. a 10. a
11. c 12 a 13. b 14. d 15. d 16. d 17. c 18. c 19. c 20. b
21. a 22 c 23. a 24. b 25. b 26. b 27. d 28. b 29. d 30. c
31. d 32 b 33. a 34. b 35. a 36. d 37. a 38. b 39. b 40. a
Page 102 of 184

INTERNATIONAL BANKING: EXPORTS & IMPORTS

Compiled by Smt B Savithri, Manager (Training)
1. All categories of foreign exchange earners are now allowed to retain ______% of
their foreign exchange earnings in EEFC accounts.
a) 50 b) 75
c) 100 d) 125
2. Where an exporter receives advance payment (with or without interest), from a
buyer outside India, the exporter shall be under an obligation to ensure that the
shipment of goods is made within ____________ from the date of receipt of
advance.
a) Three months b) Six months
c) one year d) 15 months
3. Expand OPGSP
a) Online Payment Gateway b) Online Payment Gateway Service
System Providers Provision
c) Online Payment Gateway d) Online Payment General Service
Service Providers Providers
4. The exporter should submit declaration in Form SOFTEX in quadruplicate in
respect of export of computer software and audio / video / television software to
the designated official concerned of the Government of India at STPI / EPZ /FTZ
/SEZ for valuation / certification not later than ____ days from the date of invoice
/ the date of last invoice raised in a month
a) 30 b) 21
c) 180 d) 90
5. Interest is paid on EEFC accounts at the rate of
a) TDR rate b) SB rate
c) No interest d) As per FEMA rules
6. AD Category I) banks have been allowed to offer the facility of repatriation of
export related remittances by entering into standing arrangements with OPGSPs
for export of goods and services of value not exceeding
a) USD 1,000,000 b) USD 1 Mio
c) USD 10,000 d) Rs. 1 Crore
7. In cases where exporters present documents pertaining to exports after the
prescribed period of ____ days from date of export, AD Category I banks may
handle them without prior approval of the Reserve Bank
a) 21 b) 15
c) 7 d) 30
8. Status Holders exporters are permitted to write off to the extent of______ % of
the total export proceeds realised during the previous calendar year if he has
not been able to realize the outstanding export dues for more than one year,
despite best efforts,
a) 5 b) 10
c) 15 d) 20
Page 103 of 184

9. EBW statement in the context of exports is for _________________.

a) Export Bills Withheld b) Export Bills Without Payment
c) Exports Bills Withdrawn d) Export Bills Written Off
10. Who is the authority for considering requests by Indian exporter, for refund of
export proceeds of goods exported from India and being re-imported into India on
account of poor quality?.
a) Once exported from India b) Authorised Dealer, who handled the
cannot be imported back to export realisation
India.
c) Any authorized Dealer d) RBI
11. FEMA rules have come into force with effect from ____________.
a) 1st June,2000 b) 1st June,2010
c) 1st May,2000 d) 1st April, 2000
12. The exporter should submit declaration in Form SOFTEX in quadruplicate in
respect of export of computer software and audio / video / television software to
the designated official concerned of the Government of India at STPI / EPZ /FTZ
/SEZ for valuation / certification not later than _______ days from the date of
invoice / the date of last invoice raised in a month
a) 30 b) 21
c) 7 d) 10
13. Expand EDPMS
a) Export Data Processing and b) External Data Processing and
Monitoring System Monitoring System
c) Export Data Processing and d) Export Data Processing and
Monitoring Service Maintenance System
14. For setting up of an office abroad by Indian exporter, the maximum remittance
towards initial expenses, up to ____________% of the average annual
sales/income or turnover during the last two financial years or up to twenty-five
per cent of the net worth, whichever is higher can be permitted by authorised
dealers.
a) 5 b) 10
c) 15 d) 25
15. The rate of interest payable on the advance payment received by Indian
exporter, should not exceed ____________ basis points.
a) LIBOR + 10 b) LIBOR + 50
c) LIBOR + 75 d) LIBOR + 100
16. Exporters having a minimum export turnover of ___________ during the last
financial year can be granted permission by the authorised dealers, for opening /
hiring warehouses abroad.
a) USD 50,000/- b) USD 75,000/-
c) USD 150,000/- d) USD 100,000/-
17. AD Category I banks may allow payment of commission by Indian exporters, in
respect of their exports covered under counter trade arrangement through
________ Accounts designated in US Dollar
Page 104 of 184

a) EEFC b) NRE
c) RFC d) Escrow
18. AD Category I banks may regularize cases of dispatch of shipping documents
by the exporter direct to the consignee or his agent resident in the country of the
final destination of goods, up to ____________ or its equivalent, per export
shipment
a) USD 10,000 b) USD 1 Mio
c) USD 25,000 d) USD 10 Mio
19. AD Category I bank may allow advance remittance for import of goods without
any ceiling. However, if the amount of advance remittance exceeds
____________ or its equivalent, an unconditional, irrevocable standby Letter of
Credit or a guarantee from an international bank of repute situated outside India
or a guarantee of an AD Category I bank in India, if such a guarantee is issued
against the counter-guarantee of an international bank of repute situated outside
India, is obtained.
a) USD 200,000 b) USD 75000
c) USD 100000 d) USD 50000
20. AD (CategoryI) banks may permit settlement of import dues delayed due to
disputes, financial difficulties, etc. and Interest thereon, for a period of less
than_________ from the date of shipment.
a) 1 year b) 2 years
21. Remittances against import of books may be allowed within ________, as to the
time limit, provided interest payment is as prescribed from time to time for trade
credit.
c) 3 months d) without restriction
22. Which of the following is true with respect to pre-payment of usance import bills?,
a) remittances may be made, b) prepayment of usance import bills is
after reducing proportionate allowed only for 30 days.
interest for the unexpired
portion of usance at the rate at
which interest has been
claimed or LIBOR applicable.
c) prepayment of usance import d) No, prepayment of usance import
bills is allowed freely. bills is not allowed.
23. AD Category I banks may make remittances where import bills have been
received directly by the importers from the overseas supplier provided the value
of import bill doesnot exceed USD _________.
a) 100000 b) 150000
c) 200000 d) 300000
Page 105 of 184

24. AD Category - I banks may allow remittance for imports up to ______, where the
importer of rough diamonds, rough precious and semi-precious stones has
received the import bills / documents directly from the overseas supplier.
a) USD 100,000 b) USD 200,000
c) USD 300,000 d) No amount is allowed.
25. Currency declaration Form (CDF) to customs authorities need not be submitted if
at any one time, the value does not exceed ________ and/or the aggregate
value of foreign currency notes (cash portion) alone brought in does not exceed
USD 5,000 (US Dollars five thousand) or its equivalent.
a) USD 50,000 b) USD10,000
c) USD 1,00,000 d) USD 5,000
26. In the case of a Public Sector Company or a Department/ Undertaking of the
Government of India/ State Governments, approval from the Ministry of Finance,
Government of India for advance remittance for import of services without bank
guarantee for an amount exceeding _______
a) USD 100,000 b) USD 10,00,000
c) Rs.5,00,000 d) Rs. 5 crores
27. In case of all imports made by post, where value of foreign exchange remitted /
paid for import into India exceeds USD 100,000 or its equivalent, it is obligatory
on the part of the AD Category I bank through which the relative remittance was
made, to ensure that the importer submits
a) Customs Assessment b) Postal Appraisal Form
Certificate
c) Bill of Entry d) Either a or b
28. Authorised Dealer (CategoryI) may allow payment of interest on usance bills or
overdue interest for a period of __________, from the date of shipment at the
rate prescribed for trade credit from time to time.
a) less than 6 months b) less than 1 year
c) less than 2 years d) less than three years
29. Import bills and documents should be received from the banker of the supplier by
the banker of the importer in India. AD Category I bank should not, therefore,
make remittances where import bills have been received directly by the importers
from the overseas supplier, except Where the value of import bill does not
exceed USD ____________.
a) 100000 b) 200000
c) 250000 d) 300000
30. What is Currency Declaration Form (CDF)?
a) Which is submitted to b) Which is submitted to Customs when
Customs when an individual an individual sales foreign currency,
carries foreign currency after arrival in India
(import of currency)
c) Which is submitted to d) Which is submitted to Customs when
Customs when an individual an individual exports foreign
consumes foreign currency currency (export of currency)
Page 106 of 184

31. SOFTEX Form relates to _____________.

a) Soft foreign remittances b) Import and export of Softwares
c) Soft form of Foreign Exchange d) Form to be submitted to RBI by
related returns Authorised dealers at monthly
intervals.
32. Authorised Dealers need not obtain any document, including Form A-1, except a
simple letter from the applicant , as long as it is a current account transaction, if
the amount does not exceed ____.
a) USD 100 b) USD 500
c) USD 750 d) USD 25000
33. Any person resident in India who had gone out of India on a temporary visit, may
bring into India at the time of his return (other than from Nepal and Bhutan),
currency notes of India up to an amount not exceeding __________.
a) Rs.15,000/- per person b) Rs.25,000/- per person
c) Rs.7,500/- per person d) No such cap, since he is bringing
back Indian currency.
34. Which of the following is true with respect to advance payments for import of
goods?
a) Irrevocable Letter of Credit or b) Irrevocable Letter of Credit or Bank
Bank Guarantee to be Guarantee to be obtained if the
obtained if the amount of amount of remittance exceeds USD
remittance exceeds USD 50000.
100000.
c) No Irrevocable Letter of Credit d) Irrevocable Letter of Credit or Bank
or Bank Guarantee need to be Guarantee to be obtained if the
obtained now. amount of remittance exceeds USD
200000
35. For status holder exporters, the limit for EDF waiver as per the present Foreign
Trade Policy is Rs._____ or 2 per cent of the average annual export realization
during the preceding three licensing years (April-March), whichever is higher
a) USD 100,000 b) Rs.10 lacs
c) USD 10 Mio d) Rs.1,00,000
36. AD Category I banks may consider requests for grant of EDF waiver from
exporters for export of goods free of cost, for export promotion up to 2 per cent of
the average annual exports of the applicant during the preceding three financial
years subject to a ceiling of
a) Rs.5 lacs b) USD 500,000
c) Rs. 50 lacs d) USD 5 Mio
37. Airline companies which have been permitted by the Directorate General of Civil
Aviation to operate, can make advance remittance without bank guarantee, up
to_____________ for purchase of aircrafts/ Helicopters.
a) USD 25 million. b) USD 50 million.
c) USD 75 million. d) USD 100 million.
38. With respect of direct import of Gold, which of the following is true?
a) Suppliers and Buyers Credit, b) Suppliers and Buyers Credit,
Page 107 of 184

including the usance period of including the usance period of LCs

LCs opened should not should not exceed 180 days.
exceed 90 days.
c) Suppliers and Buyers Credit, d) No Suppliers and Buyers Credit, is
including the usance period of allowed for direct import of gold.
LCs opened should not
exceed 360 days.
39. Documents evidencing import into India should be preserved by AD Category I
banks for a period of ___________ from the date of its verification
c) one year d) 3 years.
40. Where imports are made in non-physical form, i.e., software or data through
internet / datacom channels and drawings and designs through e-mail/fax, a
certificate from ______________ that the software / data / drawing/ design has
been received by the importer, is to be obtained by the authorised dealer.
a) Concerned receiving Bank. b) Chartered Accountant
c) Exporter d) RBI
41. What is BEF statement?
a) Statement submitted by b) Statement submitted by authorised
authorised dealer to RBI with dealer to RBI with regard to
regard to importers defaulting exporters who defaulted submission
submission of import of documents.
documents
c) Statement submitted by d) Statement submitted by RBI to GOI
authorised dealer to RBI with with regard to importers.
regard to defaulting importers
& exporters.
42. Which of the following is true with regard to Merchanting Trade?
a) The entire merchant trade b) The entire merchant trade
transaction to be completed transaction is to be completed within
within a period of 3 months. a period of 45 days.
c) The entire merchant trade d) Merchanting Trade transactions are
transaction to be completed not being permitted now.
within a period of 9 months.
43. AD CategoryI bank may accept, in lieu of Exchange Control copy of Bill of Entry
for home consumption, a certificate from the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) or
auditor of the company that the goods for which remittance less than USD
1,000,000 was made have actually been imported to India, provided the
company is a listed one and its networth is not less than Rs._________crores.
a) 50 b) 100
c) 150 d) 250
44. Expand XBRL
a) eXtensible Business b) eXtensible Bills Receivable Letter
Reporting Language
c) eXtensible Business d) eXtensible Bills Reversal Letter
Reporting Letter
Page 108 of 184

45. Bill of Entry is ______________.

a) Evidence of export b) Evidence of payment
c) Evidence of import d) Evidence of remittance
46. EEFC stands for __________________.
a) Earners Exchange & Foreign b) Exchange Earning Foreign Currency
Currency
c) Exchange & Earning Foreign d) Exchange Earners Foreign Currency
Currency
47. In cases where exporters present documents pertaining to exports after the
prescribed period of ____ days from date of export, AD Category I banks may
handle them without prior approval of the Reserve Bank, provided they are
satisfied about the bonafides of the transaction
a) 90 b) 30
c) 21 d) 7
48. What is EDF in exports?
a) Export Declaration Form b) Extended Delivery Form
c) Export Demand Form d) Estate Declaration Form
49. Bill of Lading is _______________.
a) Evidence of shipment b) Evidence of import
c) Evidence of payment d) Evidence of remittance.
50. At what intervals the BEF statement is submitted to RBI?
a) Every June & December b) Every May & November
c) Every March & September d) It has recently been dispensed with.
ANSWERS
1. C 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. D 10. B
11. A 12 A 13. A 14. C 15. D 16. D 17. D 18. B 19. A 20. C
21. D 22 A 23. D 24. C 25. B 26. A 27. D 28. D 29. D 30. A
31. B 32 D 33. B 34. D 35. B 36. A 37. B 38. A 39. C 40. B
41. A 42 C 43. B 44. A 45. C 46. D 47. C 48. A 49. A 50. A
Page 109 of 184

INTERNATIONAL BANKING (UCPDC)

Compiled by Smt B Savithri, Manager (Training)
1. UCPDC in the context of International Banking stands for _______________.

a) Uniform Customs and b) Universal Customs and Procedures
Practice for Documentary for Documentary credits
Credits
c) Universal Customs and d) Uniform Customs and Procedures
Practice for Documentary for Documentary credits
credits
2. Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits (UCPDC), Revision
2007 is published by __________________.
a) International Chamber of b) World Chamber of Commerce
Commerce (ICC)
c) International Monetary Fund d) World Bank
(IMF)
3. The bank that is not a confirming bank advises the credit and any amendment
without any undertaking to honour or negotiate
a) The negotiating bank b) The issuing bank
c) The advising bank d) The paying bank
4. The current version of UCPDC is ____________.
a) UCPDC 500 b) UCPDC 600
c) UCPDC 700 d) UCPDC 800
5. International Chamber of Commerce (ICC) is Head quartered at _________.
a) Washington D.C. b) New York
c) Paris d) London
6. URC rules are published by ICC. URC stands for _______________.
a) Universal Rules for Collection b) Universal Realisation of Credits
c) Uniform Rules & Customs d) Uniform Rules for Collection
7. The no. of articles in current version of UCPDC is ________.
a) 39 b) 29
c) 19 d) 49
8. Article 2 of UCPDC is about ___________.
a) Definitions of Applicant, b) Credit Vs. Contracts
advising Bank, Credit etc.
c) Documents Vs. Goods d) Amendments to a Credit.
9. Which of the following is an Import L/c?
a) L/c opened by Citi Bank, b) L/c opened by SBI, New York in
Mumbai in favour of SBI, New favour of Citi Bank, Mumbai
York.
c) L/c opened by Citi Bank, d) None of these
Mumbai in favour of Citi
Bank, New Delhi
Page 110 of 184

10. The current version of URC, which is a publication of ICC is _______.

a) URR 522 b) URC 522
c) URC 725 d) URR 725
11. Except as otherwise provided by article 38, a credit can neither be amended nor
cancelled without the agreement of
a) the issuing bank b) the confirming bank
c) the beneficiary d) All the these
12. Article ____ of UCPDC (ICC 600) illustrates about Issuing Bank undertaking.
a) 7 b) 15
c) 22 d) 29
13. Which of the following is True with respect to revised version of UCPDC 600?
a) The no. of articles have been b) The no. of articles have been
reduced to 49 as against 59 reduced to 39 as against 49 in the
in the pre revised version pre revised version.
c) There is no change in No. of d) No. of Articles have been doubled
Articles as equal no. of when compared to pre revised
articles are deleted and are version.
added.
14. Article ____ of UCPDC (ICC 600) portrays Confirming Banks undertaking.
a) 5 b) 8
c) 11 d) 15
15. The other two important publications of International Chamber of Commerce,
other than UCPDC,600 are ______________.
a) URC, URR b) UCPDC 700 & 800
c) UCPDC I & II d) None of the above.
16. Unloading from one means of conveyance and reloading to another means of
conveyance (whether or not in different modes of transport) during the carriage
from the place of dispatch to the place of final destination stated in the Credit is
known as ___________.
a) Bill of Lading b) Partial Shipment
c) Sea Way Bill d) Transhipment
17. UCPDC is in use in more than _______ countries.
a) 175 b) 225
c) 255 d) 301
18. What is true about calculation of maturity period as per UCP600?
a) The words from and after b) The words from and after include
exclude date mentioned when date mentioned when used to
used to determine maturity determine maturity
c) Either of the above d) Maturity date has to be specific
19. A bank assumes no liability or responsibility for the consequences arising out of
the interruption of its business by Acts of God, riots, civil commotions,
insurrections, wars, acts of terrorism, or by any strikes or lockouts or any other
causes beyond its control. This is as per Article _____ of UCPDC,600.
Page 111 of 184

a) 36 b) 37
c) 38 d) 39
20. Which article of UCPDC deals with Extension of Expiry Date or Last Day for
Presentation?
a) 22 b) 25
c) 29 d) 31
21. Which article of UCPDC deals with Partial Drawings and Shipments?
a) 22 b) 29
c) 30 d) 31
22. Which of the following statements is True with regard to Advising Bank?
a) An advising bank may utilize b) An advising bank cannot utilize the
the services of another bank services of another bank (second
(second advising bank) to advising bank) to advise the credit
advise the credit and any and any amendment to the
amendment to the beneficiary. beneficiary.
c) An advising bank, after d) An advising bank which advises a
advising the Credit, cannot credit must add its confirmation.
advise any further
amendment to the beneficiary.
23. Except as otherwise provided by article 38, a credit can neither be amended nor
cancelled without the agreement of the issuing bank, the confirming bank, if any,
and the beneficiary. This is as per Article _____ of UCPDC,600.
a) 2 b) 10
c) 19 d) 22
24. Which of the following is True with respect to UCPDC provisions?
a) A credit is irrevocable even if b) All credits are normally revocable
there is no indication to that even if there is no indication to that
effect. effect.
c) A credit is irrevocable when it d) All the above
is requested by the Applicant.
25. A presentation including one or more original transport documents subject to
Articles 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24 or 25 must be made by or on behalf of the
beneficiary not later than _______ calendar days after the date of shipment as
described in these rules, but in any event not later than the expiry date of the
credit.
a) 15 b) 21
c) 30 d) 60
26. Which Article of UCPDC deals with Examination of Documents?
a) 14 b) 15
c) 21 d) 22
27. Which of the following is True as per UCPDC,600?
a) Beneficiary means the party in b) Applicant means the party on whose
whose favour a credit is request, the credit is issued.
issued.
Page 112 of 184

c) Both a & b d) None of these

28. Under Force Majeure Clause, as per Article 36 of UCPDC, Banks __________
a) assumes liability / b) assumes responsibility but No
responsibility for the liability for the interruption of its
interruption of its business by business by Acts of God, riots, civil
Acts of God, riots, civil commotions, wars etc., however
commotions, wars etc., if it is such liability shall not exceed the
covered by proper Insurance. amount mentioned in the Credit
c) assumes liability but not d) assumes no liability or responsibility
responsibility for the for the consequences arising out of
interruption of its business by the interruption of its business by
Acts of God, riots, wars etc., Acts of God, riots, civil commotions,
however such liability shall insurrections, wars, acts of terrorism,
not exceed the amount or by any strikes or lockouts or any
mentioned in the Credit (L/C). other causes beyond its control.
29. In documents other than the _____________, the description of the goods,
services or performance, if stated, may be in general terms not conflicting with
their description in the credit.
a) Beneficiary copy b) Transport document
c) Commercial invoice d) Insurance document
30. Which of the following is True with respect to UCPDC,600?
a) Confirming bank means the b) Confirmation means a definite
bank that adds its undertaking of the confirming bank,
confirmation to a credit upon in addition to that of the issuing
the issuing banks bank, to honour or negotiate a
authorization or request. complying presentation.
c) Both a & b d) None of the above
31. As per Article 14 of UCPDC, a nominated bank, a confirming bank, if any, and
the issuing bank shall each have a maximum of ______ banking days following
the day of presentation to determine if a presentation is complying.
a) 5 b) 7
c) 9 d) 11
32. Unless a nominated bank is the __________, an authorization to honour or
negotiate does not impose any obligation on that nominated bank to honour or
negotiate, except when expressly agreed to by that nominated bank and so
communicated to the beneficiary
a) paying bank b) advising bank
c) confirming bank d) negotiating bank
33. You have received a Letter of Credit advised by SBI, International Services
Branch (ISB), Mumbai issued by Barclays Bank, New York to be advised to M/s
PQR & Sons, Hyderabad. The beneficiary wanted to know whether the L/C
received, is revocable or irrevocable? You would _____________.
a) Contact SBI, ISB, Mumbai b) Contact L/C opening Bank
c) All L/Cs, if otherwise not d) In the credit (L/C), a mention must
mentioned, are irrevocable. be there as to whether it is revocable
or irrevocable.
Page 113 of 184

34. Which of the following is True in connection with amendment of L/Cs?

a) A bank that advises an b) Partial acceptance of an amendment
amendment should inform the is not allowed and will be deemed to
bank from which it received be notification of rejection of the
the amendment of any notifi- amendment.
cation of acceptance or
rejection
c) A provision in an amendment d) All of these
to the effect that the
amendment shall enter into
force unless rejected by the
beneficiary within a certain
time shall be disregarded.
35. Article 18 of UCPDC deals with ____________.
a) Bill of Lading b) Transport Documents
c) Quality Certificate d) Commercial Invoice
36. Who is the ultimate obligator of payment under LC?
a) Negotiating Bank b) Confirmating Bank
c) Nominated Bank d) Issuing Bank
37. Which of the following is True with regard to Confirming Bank?
a) A confirming bank is b) A confirming bank undertakes to
irrevocably bound to honour reimburse another nominated bank
or negotiate as it adds its that has honoured or negotiated a
confirmation to the credit. complying presentation and
forwarded the documents to the
confirming bank.
c) If a bank is requested to d) All the above
confirm a credit, but is not
prepared to do so, it must
inform the issuing bank with-
out delay and may advise the
credit without confirmation.
38. Partial acceptance of an amendment to credit is
a) not allowed b) Allowed
c) Allowed only with consent of d) Allowed only with consent of
issuing bank negotiating bank
39. What is effective date of UCPDC600?
a) 01/06/2007 b) 01/07/2007
c) 01/08/2007 d) 01/05/2007
40. As per Article 31 of UCPDC, which deals with Partial shipments, which of the
following is Correct?
a) Only partial shipments are b) Partial drawings or shipments are
allowed, but not partial allowed.
drawings.
c) Only partial drawings are allowed, d) Both partial shipments and drawings
but not partial shipments. are not allowed.
Page 114 of 184
41. Which of the following is True with respect to Commercial Invoice?

a) It need not be signed. b) It should be signed & stamped.
c) It should be countersigned by d) It should preferably in triplicate.
Customs, after shipment.
42. As per UCP 600, credit available with a nominated bank is also available with
a) the issuing bank b) The advising bank
c) the confirming bank d) The negotiating bank
43. Which is true about UCP 600 compared to UCP500?
a) Article 6,8,12,38 of UCP 500 b) 39 Articles are subdivided into sub-
have been completely delete articles
c) Topics wise categorization in d) All are true
UCP 600 has been provided
44. You have received a set of documents for negotiation and have observed that
documents require scrutiny and comparison with original credit for discrepancies
if any. You have ______ working days to do so.
a) Five b) Six
c) Seven d) 21
45. Which of the following is True?
a) A credit must state the bank b) A credit must state whether it is
with which it is available or available by sight payment, deferred
whether it is available with any payment, acceptance or negotiation.
bank.
c) A credit must not be issued d) All of the above.
available by a draft drawn on
the applicant.
46. As per Article 20 of UCPDC, a Bill of Lading _______________.
a) Must indicate the name of the b) Must indicate the port of loading and
carrier and it should be the port of discharge stated in the
signed. credit.
c) indicate that the goods have d) All the above

been shipped on board, a
named vessel at the port of
loading stated in the credit.
47. As per Article 30, which of the following is correct?
a) The words "about"/ b) A tolerance not to exceed 5% more
"approximately" used in or 5% less than the quantity of the
connection with the amount of goods is allowed, provided the credit
the credit or the quantity/unit does not state the quantity in terms
price are to be construed as of a stipulated number of packing
allowing a tolerance not to units/individual items and the total
exceed 10% more or 10% amount of the drawings does not
less. exceed the amount of the credit.
c) Both a & b d) Tolerance which was upto 10% has
now been reduced to zero.
Page 115 of 184

48. The last Article of UCPDC i.e. Article 39 deals with ___________.
a) Assignment of Proceeds b) Transferable Credits
c) Force Majeure d) Hours of Presentation
49. Which of the following is True as per the provisions of UCPDC?
a) A document may be dated b) If the expiry date of a credit or the
prior to the issuance date of last day for presentation falls on a
the credit, but must not be day when the bank is closed for
dated later than its date of reasons other than Force Majeure,
presentation. the expiry date or the last day for
presentation, as the case may be,
will be extended to the first following
banking day.
c) When the insurance d) All of the above
document indicates that it has
been issued in more than one
original, all originals must be
presented.
50. Which of the following is True with regard to UCPDC,600?
a) Negotiating bank / issuing b) All Credits are treated as
bank shall each have a Irrevocable.
maximum of five banking days
following the day of
presentation to determine if
documents are complying.
c) The No. of Articles have been d) All of the above
pruned down to 39
51. Which of the following is true as per Article 15 of UCPDC,600?
a) When an issuing bank b) When a confirming bank determines
determines that a presentation that a presentation is complying, it
is complying, it must honour. must honour or negotiate and
forward the documents to the issuing
bank.
c) When a nominated bank d) All of the these.
determines that a presentation
is complying and honours or
negotiates, it must forward the
documents to the confirming
bank or issuing bank.
52 The terms "beginning", "middle" and "end" of a month shall be construed
respectively as the 1st to the
a) Between 11th to the 20th b) 11th to the 20th both dates exclusive
c) 11th to the 20th both dates d) Between 10th to the 20th
inclusive
53. What is meaning of first class, well known, qualified, independent,
competent used to describe the issuer of a document as per UCP600?
Page 116 of 184

a) The issuer must have b) The issuer must be having license to

qualified degree of well known issue such document
institute
c) The issuer must be given d) Any issuer except the beneficiary
permission by competent to may be first class or well known or
issue such documents qualified or independent or
competent
54. Article 25 of UCPDC deals with ____________.
a) Courier Receipt, Post Receipt b) Commercial Invoice
or Certificate of Posting
c) Bill of Lading d) Original Documents
55. As per Article 17 of UCPDC, which of the following is true?
a) At least one original of each b) A bank shall treat a document as
document stipulated in the original, if it is bearing an apparently
credit must be presented. original signature, mark, stamp, or
label of the issuer of the document,
unless the document itself indicates
that it is not an original.
c) If a credit requires d) All of these
presentation of copies of
documents, presentation of
either originals or copies is
permitted.
56. Date of Bill of Lading is 01st June, LC is expiring on 23th June, then what will be
the latest date of presentation of documents?
a) 22nd June b) 15th June
c) 21st June d) 14th June
57. Article 26 of UCPDC deals with _____________.
a) Air way Bill of Lading b) Clean Transport Document
c) Courier Receipt, Post Receipt d) "On Deck", "Shipper's Load and
or Certificate of Posting Count", Said by Shipper to Contain
and Charges Additional to Freight.
58. Which of the following is True with regard to UCPDC,600?
a) These Articles/provisions are b) They are binding on all parties
applicable to thereto unless expressly modified or
Foreign/Import/Export excluded by the credit.
transactions only.
c) These are applicable to both d) Both b & c
Inland and Foreign Credits
59. What is true when expression on or about is used in Documentary Credit?
a) 5 days before and after b) Both start and end dates should be
specified date included
c) Both of the above d) Date has to be specific
60. Which of the following is True with respect to UCPDC,600?
Page 117 of 184

a) Issuing bank means the bank b) Negotiation means the purchase by

that issues a credit at the the nominated bank of drafts,
request of an applicant or on documents under a complying
its own behalf. presentation.
c) Credit means any irrevocable d) All of the above.
arrangement that constitutes a
definite undertaking of the
issuing bank to honour a
complying presentation.
ANSWERS
1. a 2. a 3. c 4. b 5. c 6. d 7. a 8. a 9. a 10. b
11. d 12 a 13. b 14. b 15. a 16. d 17. a 18. a 19. a 20. c
21. d 22 a 23. d 24. a 25. b 26. a 27. c 28. d 29. c 30. c
31. a 32 c 33. c 34. d 35. d 36. d 37. d 38. a 39. b 40. b
41. a 42 a 43. d 44. a 45. d 46. d 47. c 48. a 49. d 50. d
51. d 52 c 53. d 54. a 55. d 56. a 57. d 58. d 59. c 60. d
Page 118 of 184

SYSTEMS & PROCEDURES I

Prepared by Sri. P.Padma Babu Goud, Manager (Trg)
1. As per extant instructions regarding payment of balances in the deceased

constituents accounts, no separate affidavit (COS 539) would be required for
an aggregate amount up to Rs.______
a) Rs. 0.50 lacs b) Rs. 5 lac
c) Rs. 2 lacs d) Rs. 3 lacs
2. A person will be declared as legally dead, if for a period of _______ years or

more, the persons who would have normally known of his existence have not
heard of him / known of his existence:
a) 5 b) 6
c) 7 d) 8
3. Nomination by illiterate to be witnessed by ___________
a) One person b) Two persons
c) A Bank official d) Nominee
4. Which of the following statement is not correct?
a) Nomination can be made by b) Nomination can be made on
illiterate depositor joint Accounts also
c) One person should be nominated d) Two persons can be nominated
in the Joint Accounts
5. Nomination, cancellation of Nomination and change in nomination
require______
a) Registration with Revenue b) Registration with Co. Act
authorities
c) Registration with RBI under BR Act d) No Registration is required
6. An Officer of __ scale and above is authorized to issue notices under

SARFAESI Act
a) III b) IV
c) V d) VI
7. All customer complaints have to be

a) Acknowledged within 24 hours b) Disposed off within 21 days
c) Both (A) & (B) above d) None of the above
8. Search warrant for Locker issued by Income Tax Department should bear
Signature of official not below the rank of Commissioner of I.T. of search
authority. (Sec of I tax act)
a) Sec 52 b) Sec 122
c) Sec 132 d) Sec 142
9. Bearer Bonds, IVPs, TDR/STDR held as security against loan are kept in
a) Single custody of Branch Manager b) Single custody of Manager
(cash)
c) Joint Custody of Manager (cash) & d) Single custody of Manager
Branch Manager Branch operation
Page 119 of 184

10. Safe Custody A/c in the name of Minor can be opened in respect of
a) Govt Securities only b) Banks TDR only
c) Any Security d) Cannot be opened
11. While delivering scrip kept under safe custody to the depositor, his
acknowledgement is obtained on
a) COS 139 b) COS 339
c) COS 49 d) COS 141R
12. Relationship between Customer & Banker in case of Safe Deposit Article
a) Bailer- Bailee b) Debtor- Creditor
c) Licensor- Licensee d) None of the above
13. In case of Joint A/c (E or S), locker can be surrendered and the account
closed
a) By both of them jointly b) By either of them
c) By First Hirer singly d) Either a or b
14. Nomination facility is available in case of Safe Deposit Lockers under which
act?
a) Sec 45Z of BR Act b) Sec 45ZA of BR Act
c) Sec 45ZC of BR Act c) Sec 45 ZE of BR Act
15. Locker rent for New/existing hirers is to be paid every year in advance on
a) 31 st March b) 1 st April
c) 2 nd April d) Date of Allotment of Locker
16. Periodicity for balancing Safe custody/Security is
a) Monthly b) Quarterly
c) Half yearly d) Yearly
17. Lockers cannot be allotted to
a) Resident Individuals b) Non Resident Indians
c) Blind Persons d) Minors
18. While closing an account
a) Customers ID is to be established b) Ensure that no lien is marked
beyond doubt on deposits
c) Ensure that there is no d) All of these
direct/indirect liability to the Bank
19. Security forms should be stocked to meet
a) 6 months requirements b) 12 months requirements
c) 24 months requirements d) None of these
20. All state Government transactions are reported to
a) FSLO at LHO b) GAD, Belapur
c) GAS, Nagpur d) None of the above.
21. Security forms should be in the custody of
a) Accountant b) Branch Manager
c) Joint custodians d) None of these
22. Various audit reports and Branch Managers Monthly Certificate register
should be in the custody of
a) Record Keeper b) Accountant
c) Branch Manager d) Any officer
23. EXIM Bills is the software used in
a) LCPC b) LPC
c) RACPC/RASMECC d) CCIL
Page 120 of 184

24. Disaster Recovery Site for ATM Switch is at

a) Mumbai b) Chennai
c) Kolkata d) Bangalore
25. The stages of Pre Sanction Credit Process are
a) Appraisal and Sanction b) Assessment, Appraisal and
Sanction
c) Appraisal and recommendation, d) Appraisal and Assessment
Assessment and Sanction
26. CGTMSE stands for

a) Credit Guarantee Trust for Micro b) Credit Guarantee Fund Trust
and Small Enterprises for Micro and Small Enterprises
c) Credit Guarantee Trust for d) Credit Guarantee Fund Trust
Manufacturing & service Enterprises for Manufacturing & service
Enterprises
27. RTGS business hours as per the revised RBI guidelines are
a) 9 AM TO 2 PM b) 8 AM TO 8 PM
c) 10 AM TO 4 PM d) 9 AM TO 4 PM
28. Foreign Department (FD), Kolkatta has been renamed as
a) Global Link Services b) Global Marketing Unit
c) None of these d) No change
29. OPERATION SANKALP is the name of campaign announced by Bank for
a) RINB b) GCC & GRC
c) NPA reduction d) None of the above
30. i-Probe is mandatory for all loan applications of
a) Rs.5 lacs & above b) Rs.25 lacs & above
c) Rs.10 lacs & above d) Rs.1 cr & above
31. Maximum capability that can be given to Employee in CBS is
a) 7 b) 9
c) 10 d) 12
32. Maximum amount of subscription to be made in a PPF account in a financial
year is
a) Rs.1 lac b) Rs.1.50
c) Rs.1.25 lacs d) Rs.0.50 lac
33. The ceiling on MCCSs as per CTS 2010 Standard cheques at Home branch is
a) Rs.10 lacs b) No Ceiling
c) Rs.50 lacs d) Rs.20 lacs
34. Succession certificate does not cover
a) Gold loan ornaments b) Safe deposit lockers
c) Articles in safe custody d) All of the above
35. The Manager, CAC is having reporting relationship with
a) AGM, FSLO b) DGM (B&O)
c) Regional Manager of the Region in d) None of the above
which the CAC is Located
36. Which of the following roles is not stipulated by BPR manual for CAC?
a) Mobile messengers b) Dy Manager (transportation)
c) Deputy Manager(Maintenance) d) Mobile Cashiers
37. Issuance of a cheque without balance is punishable under
a) Cr.CPC b) IPC
Page 121 of 184

c) Banking Regulation Act d) NI Act

38. Small coin depot transaction reported to
a) SGLO b) FSLO
c) CAG d) ITS
39. A depositor of PPF account can nominate ____persons

a) One b) Two
c) Three d) No limit
40. When interest is applied to PPF accounts?
a) 31st December b) 31st March
c) 30th June d) 30th September
41. CDR mechanism covers only multiple banking/consortium/syndication
accounts with outstanding exposure of Rs. __ Cr. And above.
a) 10 b) 5
c) 25 d) 1
42. CRA is applicable to trade advances of ______
a) Above Rs.5 lacs b) Above Rs.10 lacs
c) Above Rs.20 lacs d) Above Rs.25 lacs
43. What are the KYC conditions we have to fulfill to open Small accounts ?
a) Photograph and Address proof b) Two Photo proof and self
certification
c) Photo proof and address proof d) Photograph and self
certification for the address
44. In the CPPC ( Centralized Pension Processing Centers) concept the
commission between Dealing/Home branch and Focal Point branch/ CPPC is
distributed -------
a) 75%-25% b) 100%by CPPC
c) 100% by Dealing/ Home branch d) 25%-75%
45. A authorizes B for operating his locker. B approaches the bank for surrender
thereof. How would you react?
a) B can surrender the locker b) B cannot surrender the locker
c) If contents are nil he can surrender d) None of the above

46. The packets or boxes accepted for keeping in safe custody must bear which
one of the following seals------------:
a) Seal of the Bank b) Seal of the depositor
c) Both the above d) None of the above
47. When a person dies without leaving behind a will, a person appointed by court
to manage his estate is called
a) An executor b) An attorney
c) An administrator d) A trustee
48. In the event of Original and duplicate IOI are presented for payment through
clearing, by two different banks on the same day, the Bank----------
a) Will pay the duplicate b) Will pay the original
c) Will return both d) Both will have to be paid
Page 122 of 184

49. 49.Maximum amount for which an IOI can be issued is

a) Rs. 100,00,00,000 b) Rs. 99,99,99,999
c) 99,00,00,000 d) none of these
50. If the collection is realized beyond 45 days it is treated as---------
a) Normal Delay b) Abnormal delay
c) Delay is delay, it hardly whether d) No such classification matters
normal or abnormal
ANSWERS SYSTEMS & PROCEDURES 1
1 B 11 C 21 C 31 B 41 C
2 C 12 A 22 C 32 B 42 D
3 B 13 A 23 D 33 B 43 D
4 D 14 D 24 B 34 D 44 A
5 D 15 C 25 C 35 B 45 B
6 B 16 C 26 B 36 C 46 B
7 C 17 D 27 B 37 D 47 C
8 C 18 D 28 B 38 B 48 A
9 C 19 A 29 C 39 D 49 B
10 B 20 A 30 C 40 B 50 B
Page 123 of 184

SYSTEMS & PROCEDURES - II

1. What is MDBTL Scheme?

a) Mobile Direct Benefit Transfer of b) Modified Direct Benefit Transfer of
LPG LPG
c) Mobile Direct Bank Transfer of d) None of the above
LPG
2. What is the name the Project rolled out by NPCI In respect of CTS-2010?
a) Payee Name Project b) Project CTS-2010
c) Project Vijay d) Project MCC
3. Nomination facility is available in case of Deposit accounts, under which act?
a) Sec 45Z of BR Act b) Sec 45ZA of BR Act
c) Sec 45ZC of BR Act d) Sec 45 ZE of BR Act
4. All branches should ensure that all cases of counterfeit currency note to be
reported by way of counterfeit currency report to principal office (KYC/AML)
through?
a) DGM& CFO and money b) GM & CFO
laundering officer
c) CGM & CFO d) AGM & CFO
5. Forgery of valuable security / cash transaction where forged or counterfeit
currency note have been used, the report should be furnished to FIU-IND?
a) Every month by 5th day of b) Every month by 15th day of
succeeding month succeeding month
c) Every month by 10th day of d) None of the above
succeeding month
6. Maximum number of deposits that can be made in a PPF account in a
financial year is
a) 24 b) 6
c) 36 d) 12
7. What is the name the campaign for Deposit Mobilization through BC channel ?
a) Lakshya 2000 b) Lakshya 7000
c) Lakshya 5000 d) Lakshya 3000

8. When a scrip is withdrawn for renewal, it will be entered in which register?
a) Miscellaneous register b) Branch Document Register

c) Securities Exchange Custody d) Securities Register
register
9. Nomination of safe custody and safe deposit articles is available under what
section?
a) Sec 45ZC of BR Act b) Sec 45ZC of SBI Act
c) Sec 45ZAof BR Act d) Sec 45ZF of SBI Act

10. Two currency Note press owned by RBI are at?
a) Devas and Nashik b) Devas and Salboni
c) Devas and Salboni d) Mysore and Salboni
11. Difference between Days deposit and withdrawal in the chest is known as?
a) Chest Transfer b) Currency Transfer
Page 124 of 184

c) Amount Transfer d) Balance Transfer

12. In case if counterfeit notes found in remittance from currency chest to RBI,
how much amount is debited from banks current account?
a) Entire amount + ( Bank Rate+2%) b) Entire amount + (Base Rate+ 2%)
c) Entire amount + (Base Rate ) d) Entire amount + (Bank Rate+ 1%)
13. What is the Fidelity insurance for SWO?
a) 1 Lac b) 3 Lac
c) 5 Lac d) 4 Lac
14. What is the size of the aluminium box of SWO?
a) 14x11x4 b) 11x14x4
c) 4x11x14 c) None of the above
15. IOI can be paid by ______ irrespective of the location of the drawee branch
a) Drawee branch only b) Clearing branch
c) Issuing branch only d) Any branch
16. Under Deceased account what is the aggregate balance upto which surety is
not required?
a) 1 Lac b) 2 Lac
c) 4 Lac d) 5 Lac
17. Under Pahla Kadam and Pehli Udaan what is the threshold limit for Auto
Sweep?
a) 10000/- b) 15000/-
c) 20000/- d) 25000/-
18. Under Pehla Kadam and Pehli Udaan the transaction limit for Internet Banking
per day is--?
a) 2000/- b) 4000/-
c) 3000/- d) 5000/-
19. Under Pehla Kadam and Pehli Udaan the transaction limit for Mobile Banking
per day is --?
a) 1000/- b) 2000/-
c) 3000/- d) 4000/-
20. Duplicate draft is to be issued within a maximum period of
a) 14 days b) 5 days
21. Which one of the following is NOT a BPR initiative ?
a) Grahak Mitra b) Drop Box
c) Project Ambience d) Cross Selling
22. How many compartments does the Drop Box have, to accept the
instruments/Cheques through it for processing ?
a) Two b) Four
c) Three d) None of these
23. Which one of the following Business Unit is not a part of National Banking
Group (NBG) at Corporate Centre ?
a) SME Business Unit b) Government Business Unit
c) Financial Institutions Business d) Agri Business Unit
Unit
24. What is the Annual Turnover Range defined for any unit to be classified under
Mid Corporate Group ?
a) Rs. 10 Cr to Rs.100 Cr b) Rs. 100 Cr to Rs.500 Cr
c) Rs. 500 Cr to Rs.1000 Cr d) Rs. 50 Cr to Rs.500 Cr
Page 125 of 184

25. Which one of the following is the major role of Green Banking Cell that has
been set up in the Bank ?
a) Setting up of Green Channel to all b) Providing Internet Banking Facility
Counters in the Branch
c) Providing Green Remit Cards d) Undertaking various initiatives like
Energy efficient lighting, tree
plantation, water & waste
management etc, to the
Customers.
26. CENMAC (Central Office Management Committee) consists of
a) CGM, CDO, MDs b) Chairman, MDs, DMDs
c) MDs, DMDs, Circle CGMs d) None of these
27. The Bank's Registered Office is at
a) Mumbai b) Kolkatta
c) New Delhi d) Chennai
28. The reduction of liquidity and interest rate risk and optimization of returns is
managed by which committee ?
a) Asset Liability Management b) Inspection and Audit Committee
Management System
c) Bank Risk Management d) Corporate Risk Mitigation
Department Committee
29. BPR is introduced as per the recommendations of which consultancy
organization
a) Rangarajan Committee b) Narasimham Committee
c) Mckinsey & Co d) Tata Consultancy Services
30. The functionality of Loan Origination Software (LOS) refers to
a) Designing a Loan Product b) Registration, Processing and
Generation of Loan using the
software Documents and tracking
the status of Loan applications
c) NPA Tracking d) None of these
31. As per the revised Bank's organizational structure, The Regional Manager of a
Region will directly report to
a) DGM (O & C) b) DGM (B & O)
c) GM (Net Work) d) CGM of the Circle
32. Which of the following is not a profitability Ratio for the Bank ?
a) Gross Rate of Return b) Net Profit Per Employee
c) Rs. Expenses Ratio d) Net Interest Margin
33. What is the role of Currency Administration Cell ?
a) Managing of Currency Chest b) It is the cell provided at RBI to
take care of Cash
c) Optimization of currency balances d) Printing of Currency Notes
at our branches, efficient
movement planning, insurance
and security arrangements.
34. Which is the software used at Currency Administration Cells ?
a) Finance One b) B@ncs 24
c) Bancslink d) Kubera
Page 126 of 184

35. The Role of CRO is linked to which Cell under BPR initiative ?
a) Currency Administration Cell b) Liability CPC
c) Multi Product Sales Team d) RACPC
36. Trade Finance Central Processing Center deals with
a) Letters of Credit b) Bank Guarantees
c) LC & BG d) LC, BG and Bills both rupees and
foreign currencies
37. Which is the unit set up by Bank which performs the various services like
receiving voice calls, emails, letters, complaints from the customers, in
addition to accepting the requests for cheque book, fund transfer, bill payment
etc.
a) Liability Centralized Processing b) Contact Centre
Center
c) Complaint Centre d) Outbound Sales Force
38. Presently, how many associate Banks are there in the State Bank Group ?
a) 7 b) 6
c) 5 d) None of these
39. What is the role of Document Archival Centre (DAC) under BPR ?
a) Decongest the Branches by b) Execution of Bank's Loan
removing records maintenance
c) Printing of Bank's Loan d) None of these
Documents
40. Who is a Manager (BO) in a BPR Branch?
a) Accountant b) Branch Manager
c) CRO d) RMPB
41. Number of IRCs (Inward Remittance Cell) in the country are
a) Only two b) 14 at all LHOs
c) 4 at Delhi, Chennai, Calcutta and d) Only one

Mumbai
42. Limitation period of a TDR is 3 years from the date of
a) Demand b) Maturity
c) No Limitation period d) None of the Above
43. Limitation period of a mortgage is _____years from the date the mortgage
money falls due.
a) 3 b) 12
c) 6 d) 1
44. Which one of the following is not an actionable claim ?
a) TDR b) Units of Unit Trust
c) LIC Policy d) Book Debt
45. Who is responsible for the genuiness and purity of the gold ornaments ?
a) Cash Officer b) Branch Manager
c) Joint Custodians d) Accountant
46. Bank cannot file a suit after the expiry of
a) The due date of installment b) The limitation period
c) None of these d) Both A&B
Page 127 of 184

47. All the accounts where mortgage has been created has to keyed in the system
within___ days failing which Rs.5000 has to be paid an additional fee.
a) 60 b) 30
c) 15 d) 90
48. License for Gun at the branch is obtained in the name of
a) Regional Manager b) Armed Guard
c) Bank d) Branch Manager
49. LIC Policy given as Security for Overdrafts are entered in
a) Miscellaneous Security Register b) Branch Documents Register
c) Risk Register d) Safe custody register
50. DRP and BCP is prepared in the first week of __________every year for
approval by C.A.
a) February b) January
c) December d) May
KEY FOR MCQ SYSTEM & PROC - 2
1 B 2 A 3 B 4 A 5 B
6 D 7 B 8 C 9 A 10 D
11 B 12 A 13 C 14 A 15 D
16 D 17 C 18 D 19 B 20 A
21 D 22 C 23 C 24 D 25 D
26 B 27 B 28 A 29 C 30 B
31 B 32 C 33 C 34 D 35 B
36 D 37 B 38 C 39 A 40 A
41 D 42 A 43 B 44 E 45 A
46 B 47 B 48 D 49 A 50 B
Page 128 of 184

CASH DEPARTMENT PROCEDURES
Compiled by Shri. A.S.R.K.K.SARMA, Manager (Training)
1. Currency held by non-chest branches of SBI is the property of ?

a) Govt of India b) SBI
c) RBI d) None of these
2. Strong Room fitness certificate has to be renewed once in ?
a) Once in two months b) A quarter
c) Once in a year d) Six months
3. Balances in Currency Transactions account are transferred to FSLO on last
working day of ?
a) April & October b) March & September
c) February & August d) January & July
4. Excess cash found in the cash balance of a SWO has to be credited to ?
a) Suspense account b) Charges account
c) Sundry Deposit account d) Commission account
5. The deposit and withdrawal of Cash Box in/from Vault under IBCH will be
entered in ?
a) Cash Receipt / Delivery Register b) Cash officers jotting book
c) Cash box receipt Delivery d) None of these
Register
6. Cash held in the cash box overnight, will be treated as ?
a) Sundry balance b) Petty cash balance
c) Branch Cash balance d) None of these
7. Specific gravity of pure gold is ?
a) 18.1 b) 20.1
c) 19.3 d) None of these
8. Cash officer is responsible for ______ while sanctioning gold loan ?
a) Purity b) Weight
c) Value d) All the above
9. Gold ornaments of deceased borrower pending their settlement will have to be
kept in ?
a) Joint custody b) Safe Deposit Articles
c) In a separate locker d) None of these
10. Vault Register will always be kept in ?
a) Accountants Hand Safe b) Strong Room
c) With Cash Officer d) None of these
11. Minimum Transaction that can be made to currency chest ?
a) Rs 1 lakh & multiples of Rs 1 lak b) Rs 1 lak & in multiples of Rs
only 50,000 there of
c) Rs 50,000 & multiples of Rs d) None of these
50,000
12. Currency Chest is the property of ?
a) Government of India b) SBI
c) Reserve Bank of India d) None of the above
13. Small Coin Depot consists of ?
a) All coins b) Coins upto Rs. 1/-
c) Coins below Re. 1/- d) Coins upto Rs. 5/-
Page 129 of 184

14. Small Coin Depot (SCD) is the property of ?

a) SBI b) RBI
c) Govt. of India d) None of these
15. Rs 1/- notes are issued by ?
a) Govt of India b) RBI
c) IBA d) None of these
16. Min. withdrawal / deposits in SCD ?
a) Rs 100/- & multiples of Rs 50/- b) Rs 500/- & multiples of Rs 50/-
c) Rs 1000/- & multiples of 100/- d) None of these
17. Small coin depot transactions are to be reported to ?
a) Zonal Office b) RBI
c) FSLO d) None of these
18. Clean Note Policy (CNP) is governed by ?
a) Sec 35 of Indian Currency Act b) Sec 35 A of B.R Act
c) Sec 35 A of RBI Act d) None of these
19. Relationship between RBI & SBI in case of currency chests is
a) Principal & Agent b) Bailor & Bailee
c) Agent & Principal d) None of these
20. Person preparing the note packet is responsible for both quality & quantity upto
?
a) Rs 100/- b) Rs 50/-
c) Rs 10/- d) Rs 500/-
21. IBCH overnight cash retention limit is ?
a) Rs 2 lakh b) Rs 5 lakh
c) Rs 1 lakh d) None of these
22. In Branch Cash Handling (IBCH) is applicable to ?
a) Metro branches b) Non currency chest branches
c) All branches d) Currency chest branches
23. For Rs 500/- & Rs 1000/- person preparing the note packet is responsible for ?
a) Quantity only b) Quality only
c) Both quality & quantity d) None of these
24. Balances in Currency Chest have to be verified by an official other than the joint
custodians once in ?
a) Once in two months b) Half year
c) Quarter d) Once in a year
25. The difference between days total withdrawals and days total deposits in the
chest is ?
a) Treasury Transfer b) Cash Transfer
c) Currency Transfer d) None of these
26. The certificate of chest balance as on ____ is submitted to RBI by the Chest
branch ?
a) 31st March b) 31st May
c) 30th June d) 31st Dec
27. In a soiled note remittance to RBI if more than ___% of notes is found to be
issuable notes, then entire remittance will be returned by RBI at sending banks
cost ?
a) 10 b) 5
c) 20 d) None of these
Page 130 of 184

28. Name the of the Register to record exchange of Cash between SWOs in Cash
Dept.?
a) Cash Transfer Register b) Cash Receipts Delivery Register
c) Cash Officers Jotting Book d) Cash Transaction Register
29. What type of insurance cover is obtained for Cash Remittances?
a) Comprehensive insurance cover b) Fidelity Insurance cover
c) Transit Insurance cover d) None of these
30. As per the latest instructions of the RBI, FIR has to be lodged in case of Fake
Currency notes, if the no. of notes is ?
a) 4 b) 5 or more
c) 3 d) 2
31. Days net Withdrawal/ Deposit to reported to FSLO through ?
a) ICCOMS b) IFAMS
c) Fax d) email
32. Verification of Currency Chest balances by officials other than Joint custodian is
done at___________ intervals ?
a) Once in a month b) Once in 2 months
c) No periodicity stipulated d) Once in a quarter
33. Surprise verification of Critical Currency Chests is made by LHO at ?
a) Monthly Interval b) Quarterly Interval
c) Half Yearly Interval d) No periodicity stipulated
34. Which of the following is true when remittance is sent from one currency chest
to another currency chest ?
a) Branch Cash Balance is credited b) Branch Cash Balance is debited
and RBIs Account is debited and RBIs Account is credited
c) No Entry is passed d) None of these
35. Charges towards police escorts, transport etc. for chest to chest remittances of
treasure is ?
a) Borne by Bank b) Paid by RBI
c) Paid initially by Bank, then d) None of these
reimbursed by RBI
36. Repository is part of ?
a) Branch Cash Balance b) Currency Chest
c) Small Coin Depot d) None of these
37. Printing & Circulation of forged Indian currency notes is an offence u/s ?
a) Sec 292 of Criminal Procedure b) Sec 489A to 489E of Indian Penal
Code Code
c) Both d) None
38. Forged Note Vigilance Cell (FNVC) of the bank is required to submit data on
counterfeit notes detected during a month on all India basis by email to
____before the end of succeeding month.
a) RBI Issue Office b) FIU-IND, New Delhi
c) National Crime Records Bureau, d) Currency Management Dept. of
New Delhi RBI, Mumbai
39. Fidelity insurance cover for single window operator is obtained for ?
a) Rs 1 Lakh b) Rs 2 Lakh
c) Rs 5 lakh d) Rs 8 Lakh
40. Recounting of note packets is not required for denominations upto ?
a) Rs 50/- b) Rs 100/-
c) Rs 500/- d) All note packets to be recounted
Page 131 of 184

41. Who will be responsible for tampered bundles / note packets kept in the vault ?
a) Cash-in-Charge alone b) Joint Custodian of Vault
c) Accountant alone d) Branch Head alone
42. In respect of soiled notes bundles prepared for remittance to RBI, who is/are
responsible for Quality & Quantity of notes in the bundle ?
a) Person preparing the bundle b) Cash-in-charge
c) Accountant d) Joint Custodian
43. Mahesh, single window operator, reported shortage of cash of Rs 5000/- in his
counter on 3rd Jan 2014. He is also not in position to deposit the same.
Shortage will be made good by debit to ?
a) Suspense A/c b) System Suspense A/c Originating
Debit
c) Recalled Asset A/c d) Charges A/c
44. Ceiling for petty cash expense is ?
a) Rs.100/- b) Rs.25/-
c) Rs.50/- d) Rs.49/-
45. Petty Cash should be checked by ____________ at _____________ interval
a) BM, Monthly Irregular b) Accountant, Regular
c) RM, Monthly d) BM, Fortnightly
46. Which of the following is not true regarding In- Branch Cash Handling Process ?
a) Size of the aluminium box should b) Each SWO/Asstt. Cash is provided
be 14X11X4 size with an aluminium box having
Overnight cash retention
limit of Rs 1.00 lakh
c) Every day, in the beginning, d) This process will reduce the time
Cash-in-Charge verifies the spent by the Cash Officer/Cashier-
contents of Cash box on the in-charge/SWO/Assistant
basis of system generated (Cash) in handing over and
random list receiving cash at the
beginning/close of the day
47. Safe deposit receipt relating to deposit of duplicate keys is entered in BD
register and the safe deposit receipt is held by _________________ ?
a) Accountant outside the strong b) Accountant inside the strong room
room
c) BM outside the strong room d) BM inside the strong room
48. One Re coin is issued under _______ act
a) Coinage Act, 1906 b) RBI
c) SBI d) BR Act
49. Currency Notes are printed at ?
a) Nasik, Dewas, Mysore & Salboni b) Nasik, Pune, Indore & Kanpur
c) Nasik, Pune, Dehradun &Mysore d) Nasik, Hissar, Salboni & Pune
50. Cash retention limit of the branch will be reviewed by _________ every year in
the month of__________ ?
a) RM or CM (Admin), May b) CM (Admin), May
c) Regional Manager, Nov d) RM or CM (Admin), Nov
51. RBI has extended the date of exchange pre-2005 bank notes to ?
a) 30 June, 2016 b) 01 January, 2015
c) 30 June, 2015 d) None of the above
Page 132 of 184

52 The Controller of the branches will arrange for periodical cash verification of
Hand Balance Branches ____ ?
a) at half yearly interval by the b) By the Branch Manager of the
Branch Managers of nearby Branch
branches
c) No need for verification d) None of the above
53 The coverage of cash-in transit insurance will be limited to _____?
a) The cash retention limit of the b) Upto 50,00,000/-
branch.
c) Upto 49,00,000/- d) None of the above
54. What is Shrink Wrapping in Cash Department ?
a) While sending soiled remittance b) While sending soiled remittance
to RBI Wrapping 1000 pieces in to RBI packing 10 packets of 100
a bundle instead of packing 10 pieces in a bundle
packets of 100 pieces in a
bundle
55 While sending Soiled Note Remittance to RBI, remittance should sent in
multiples of ________?
a) Rs.100000/- b) Rs.50000/-
c) Rs.500/- d) None of the above
56 The counterfeit bank notes cannot be impounded by-------------
a) All PSBs b) All Treasuries and Sub-treasuries
c) All NBFCs d) All Co-operative banks & RRBs
57 Cash shortage up to which is made good by the employee same day and if
there is no suspicion of fraud, it need not be reported as fraud.
a) Rs.1,000/- b) Rs.5,000/-
c) Rs.10,000/- d) None of these
58 In order to keep FCN(Foreign Currency Notes) at optimum level, branches are
advised to handover the FCNs to ........
a) Overseas Branch at monthly b) M/s Thomas Cook India
intervals Limited(TCIL) at regular interval
c) Reserve Bank of India d) Need not to hand over FCNs, to
be retained at branch
Page 133 of 184

ANSWERS
1. b 2. c 3. a 4. c 5. c 6. c 7. c 8. d 9. b 10. b
11. b 12. c 13. c 14. c 15. a 16. a 17. c 18. b 19. a 20. a
21. c 22. c 23. b 24. a 25. c 26. b 27. b 28. b 29. c 30. b
31. b 32. b 33. b 34. c 35. c 36. b 37. b 38. d 39. c 40. b
41. b 42. a 43. c 44. c 45. a 46. c 47. c 48. a 49. a 50. a
51. b 52 a 53. a 54. a 55 b 56. c 57. a 58. b
Page 134 of 184

GOVERNMENT BUSINESS
Compiled by Shri. A.S.R.K.K.SARMA, Manager (Training)
1 SBI handles Govt. Business as agent of RBI as per

(a) Sec 45 of RBI Act (b) Sec 32 of SBI Act
(c) Both a & b (d) None of these
2 TDS deducted during the month should be deposited to the credit of Govt
Account
(a) Before 1st of subsequent month (b) On the last working of the
respective month
(c) Before 7th of subsequent month (d) None of these
3 Agency commission paid by RBI in respect of Govt. Receipts - Physical mode
(a) Rs.45 per transaction (b) Rs.50 per transaction
(c) 9 paise per Rs.100 (d) None of these
4 Agency commission paid by RBI in respect of Govt. Receipts-e-mode
(c) 9 paise per Rs.100 (d) None of these
5 Agency commission paid by RBI in respect of pension payments where Pension
Files are held by the Bank
(c) 5.5 paise per Rs.100 turnover (d) None of these
6 Agency commission paid by RBI in respect of payments other than pension
(a) 9 paise per Rs.100 turnover (b) 5.5 paise per Rs.100 turnover
(c) Rs.50 per transaction (d) None of these
7 PPF account can be opened by
(a) Adult Individuals (b) HUF
(c) NRI (d) All the above
8 Maximum amount that can be deposited in a PPF account during financial year
(a) Rs.50000 (b) Rs.70000
(c) Rs.150000 (d) None of the above
9 How many installments in a financial year are allowed for depositing amounts in
PPF account
(a) 5 (b) 9
10 Withdrawal is allowed from PPF account from _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ onwards.
(a) 3rd financial year (b) 5th financial year
(c) 6th financial year (d) All the above are true
11 What is the maximum period for which a PPF account can be opened
(c) 15 years (d) None of the above
12 Who are eligible to open accounts under Senior Citizen Saving Scheme 2004
(a) An individual who has attained (b) Who has attained the age of 55
the age of 60 years and above years or more but less than 60
on the date of opening of an years and who has retired on
account superannuation or otherwise on
the date of opening the account
Page 135 of 184

13 Min and Maximum amount that can be accepted under Senior Citizen Savings
Scheme 2004
(a) Min Rs.1000 and Max Rs.15 (b) Min Rs.10000 and Max Rs.15
lacs lacs
(c) Any amount can deposited (d) None of the above
14 What is the maximum amount of deposit that can be accepted in cash under
Senior Citizen Savings Scheme 2004
(a) 100000 (b) 500000
(c) 1500000 (d) No cash is accepted
15 Deposits under Senior Citizen Savings Scheme 2004 is accepted for a
maximum period of
(c) 5 years and extension by 3 (d) None of the above
more years
16 What is the time limit within which Govt Transactions are to be settled with Govt
of India
(a) T+3 working days where (b) T+5 working days where Dealing
Dealing Branch and FPLB are Branch and FPLB are different
at the same centre centres
(c) Both a & b are true (d) None of these
17 CBDT transactions to be settled within
(a) T+3 working days irrespective (b) T+5 working days
of location
(c) T+1 working day (d) None of the above
18 All Govt Transactions through e-mode to be settled within
(a) T+1 day (b) T+3 days
(c) T+5 days (d) None of the above
19 Penalty rate for delay in settlement of Govt Transactions beyond permitted
period is
(a) At Bank Rate (b) Bank Rate+1%
(c) Bank Rate + 2% (d) None of the above
20 What is the expansion of EASIEST
(a) Electronic Accounting System (b) Electronic Accounting Standards
in Excise and Service Tax in Excise and Service Tax
(c) Eectronical Accounts Services (d) None of the above
in Excise and Sales Tax
21 Challan format to be used for CBEC credits is
(a) GAR 7 (b) ITS 280
(c) GAR 9 (d) None of the above
22 Settlement of State Govt transactions with regional office of RBI is the
responsibility of
(a) GAD (b) FLSO
(c) FSLO (d) None of the above
23 GBSS has been launched w.e.f.
(a) 01.1.2009 (b) 01.02.2009
(c) 01.03.2009 (d) None of the above
24 Which of the following are not true with regard to e-Focal Point Link branches
(a) e-FPB for CBDT Bangalore (b) e-FPB for Central Excise World
Main Branch University Service Centre Branch,
Chennai
Page 136 of 184

(c) e-FPB for Service Tax Fort (d) None of these

Market Branch, Mumbai
25 Which of the following statements are not true in case of CBDT Transactions
(a) CIN will be generated for each (b) CIN consist of BSR code, Date
credit transaction and serial number of challan
(c) Quoting PAN/TAN mandatory (d) None of these
in challans
26 Issue of Bankers Cheques at the request of Government Departments convered
under RBI Remittance facility Scheme
(a) Yes, Exchange need not be (b) No, not covered under RBI
collected Remittance facility Scheme,
hence exchange to be collected
27 Expand GBSS?
(a) Government Business (b) Government Business Software
Software Solutions System
(c) Government Business System (d) Government Banking Software
Software Solutions
28 Certified copy of Datewise Monthly Statement (DMS) is called
(a) Verified Datewise Monthly (b) Valued Datewise Monthly
Statement (VDMS) Statement
(c) Certified Datewise Monthly (d) None of the above
Statement (CDMS)
29 While transferring PPF account from one branch to the other what to be done
regarding the Accured Interest on the PPF A/c ?
(a) A separate Draft has to be sent (b) Advise the Accured interest to the
to the other branch other branch so as to incorporate
the same in CBS.
(c) A/c can be transferred as if it is (d) None of these
a normal Deposit account in
CBS.
30 The time frame for crediting the pension/ family after despatch of New PPO ?
(a) Within 5 days (b) With in a week
(c) Within a fortnight (d) At the month end
31 Interest paid on PPF Account on ?
(a) 31 January (b) On 31St March
(c) 31 December (d) None of the above
32 Interest will be accured on the balance available in PPF as on ?
(a) Minimum balance between 5th (b) Minimum balance between 10th to
th
to 30 of every month 30th of every month
(c) On daily balance (d) None of the above
33 Nomination facility available in PPF account ?
(a) Available in the name of single (b) Available infavour of one or more
individual persons
(c) Not available (d) None of the above
34 TDS parking system suspense A/c No.
(a) 3199363bbbbbc (b) 3199362bbbbbc
(c) 3198363bbbbbc (d) None of the above
Page 137 of 184

35 TDS decuted on Bank Deposits during the month of March to be remitted to

Govt. by
(a) 7th of next month (b) 27th April
(c) th
30 April (d) None of the above
36 Electronic filing of Quarterly TDS retunrs to be normally filed by
(a) 15th day of next calendar (b) 30th day of next calendar Quarter
Quarter
(c) 6th day of the next calendar (d) None of the above
Quarter
37 Electronic filing of Quarterly TDS retunrs for the Quarter ending March 31 to be
filed by
(a) 15th day of next calendar (b) 30th day of next calendar Quarter
Quarter
(c) 15 th May (d) None of the above
38 Penalty for delay/wrong submission of TDS Quarterly returns
(a) Rs.300/- per day till the date of (b) Rs.200/- per day till the date of
filing of returns filing
(c) Flat 10,000/- (d) None of the above
39 e-payment of central excise duty and service tax is mandatory for all tax payers
paying the tax of ___________ w.e.f. 01.01.2014.
(a) Rs 1,00,000.00 (Rs One Lac) & (b) Rs.10,00,000/-
over
(c) e-payment not required (d) None of the above
40 The pensioner can submit annual Life certificate at _________of the Bank either
in person or through his/ her authorized representative.
(a) Home Branch (b) Non Home Branch
(c) CPPC (d) Either at Home Branch or at Non-
home Branch
41 Income Tax Refund Order is a ?
(a) Negotiable Instrument , 3 (b) Not Negotiable Instrument , 3
months validity , Rs.50000/- months validity , Rs.50000/-
(c) Quasi Negotiable Instrument , (d) Quasi Negotiable Instrument , 3
3 months validity , Rs.25000/- months validity , Rs.50000/-
42 Public provident Fund Scheme framed under provision
(a) PPF ACT 1968 (23 OF 1968) (b) PPF ACT 1967 (23 OF 1968)
(c) PPF ACT 1966 (23 OF 1968) (d) PPF ACT 1965 (23 OF 1968)
43 What is the periodicity at which interest is paid out in SCSS account?
(a) monthly (b) Half yearly
(c) quarterly (d) Annually
44 What should be the source of funds for investing in SCSS?
(a) Only retirement benefits (b) Part of investment should be
invariably from retirement benefits
(c) Source of funds is immaterial, if (d) None of the above
the depositor is of 60 yrs
&above
Page 138 of 184

45 Sukanya Samriddhi Account is for GirlS below Yrs.

(a) 2 Yrs (b) 10 Yrs.
(c) 3 Yrs (d) 5 Yrs.
46 Minimum & Maximum contributions in Sukanya Samriddhi Account per year is
(a) 100 & 150000 (b) 1000 & 100000

(c) 500 & 150000 (d) 2500 & 250000
ANSWERS
1 c 2 c 3 b 4 b 5 b 6 b 7 a 8 c 9 c 10 c
11 c 12 c 13 a 14 a 15 c 16 c 17 a 18 a 19 c 20 a
21 a 22 c 23 b 24 d 25 d 26 b 27 a 28 a 29 c 30 b
31 b 32 a 33 b 34 b 35 c 36 a 37 c 38 b 39 a 40 d
41 c 42 a 43 c 44 c 45 b 46 a
Page 139 of 184

INTER BRANCH TRANSFER SYSTEM (IBTS)
Prepared by Shri A.S.R.K.K.SARMA, Manager (Training)
1. IBTS is
A Inter branch transfer system B Inter branch transaction system
C Inter branch transfer scheme D Inter branch transaction scheme
2. IBTS is meant for
A Inter branch transfers other than B Inter Branch transfers including
SC/DDPs SC/DDP
C Inter Branch transfers other than D None of the above
staff purpose.
3. How many new BGL accounts have been created for IBTS purpose?
A 4 B 3
C 2 D 8
4. The purpose of IBTS is
A To ensure better control on inter B To replace Branch Clearing General
Branch transactions. Account (BCGA) as IBTS is self
reconciliation facility.
C Due to RBI compulsions. D To enable faster realization of
SCs/DDPs
5. In IBTS, the transaction originated by the originating Branch
A Can be monitored till the same is B The other Branch should be
responded by other Branch. responding instantly.
C The originating branch cant view D The controllers will be able to see
the status after originating the status for follow up.
transaction.
6. The transaction originated by the originated Branch
A Should be accepted by the B Can be accepted or declined by the
responding Branch. responding Branch.
C Can be reversed by it at any point D Cant be reversed by the originating
of time. Branch
7. The transaction originated by the originating Branch in IBTS
A Can be reversed by the B Can be reversed by the originating
originating Branch at any point of Branch on the same day without
time without the involvement of involvement of the responding
the responding Branch. Branch.
C Cant be reversed by the declining D None of the above.
Branch without getting declined
by the responding Branch.
8. Once the transaction in IBTS is declined by the responding Branch
A The originating Branch has no B The originating Branch can either
option but to reverse it. reverse or re-originate the same.
C The originating Branch can only D Both (a) & (c)
re-originate the entry after
reversal.
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9. Re-origination of entry in IBTS by the originating Branch involves

A Accounting entries. B No accounting entries.
C Automatic accounting entries at D Automatic accounting entries both
originating Branch by the system. at originating Branch and at
receiving Branch by the system.
10. While re-origination of the entry by the originating Branch, which of the following
can be changed/modified.
A Destination Branch code, amount B Destination Branch BGL No, amount
and narration and narration.
C Destination Branch code, amount D Destination Branch code, BGL
and destination BGL account. account and narration.
11. For responding a IBTS entry, the responding Branch
A Need not depend on any B It can respond after receiving
documents. system generated forward letter and
documents.
C It can respond on the strength of D None of the above.
Branch Clearing General
Account.
ANSWERS
1 B 2 A 3 A 4 B 5 A
6 B 7 B 8 B 9 B 10 D
11 B
Page 141 of 184

INFORMATION SYSTEMS SECURITY & CORE BANKING SOLUTIONS

1 The need to establish information system security is to achieve _____?

(a) Confidentiality (b) Integrity
(c) Availability of information and (d) All of the above
information system
2 CISO is a?
(a) Chief Information Security (b) Chief IT Systems Officer
Officer
(c) Central Information Security (d) Chief Information Safety
Office Officer
3 Who approves IS Policy of the Bank?
(a) Chairman (b) CMC
(c) ECCB (d) ACB
4 Encryption means?
(a) Make readable data as an (b) Make unreadable data as a
unreadable one readable one
5 Which is not true about Phishing?
(a) It is an example of social (b) It is typically carried out by e-
engineering Technique mail spoofing
(c) It is a way of attempt to acquire (d) It is a type of computer virus
vital information as a
trustworthy entity in an
electronic communication
6 If you ever receive an unsolicited telephone call from someone claiming to
need your password, what would you do ?
(a) Tell him/her the password and (b) Send him/her the password via
change it the following day email
(c) Refuse and report immediately (d) Write the password on a piece
of paper, put it in an envelope
and send it by mail
7 When it is safe to open a file attached to an e-mail?
(a) When you know the sender, (b) When the e-mail is only sent to
the attachment is expected, you
and it is not unusual in any way
(c) When the attachment is not an (d) When you know the sender
.exe or .com
8 Which of the following is characteristic of spyware?
(a) Blocking access to antivirus (b) Aggregating surfing habits
and antispyware updates across multiple users for
advertising
(c) Customizing search results (d) All of the above
based on an advertisers needs
9 How can we ensure the security of Backup media?

(a) To secure against (b) To secure against environmental
unauthorized access and physical threats
Page 142 of 184

(c) Multiple copies of Backup to be (d) All the above are true
maintained to deal with media
failure
10 What is the biggest vulnerability to computer information security?
(a) End Users (b) Malware virus, worms, spyware
(c) Spam, Phishing attacks (d) Instant Messaging, Peer-to-Peer
(P2P) applications
11 The Encryption Mechanism implemented for online banking www.onlinesbi is?
(a) 32 Bit SSL (b) 64 Bit SSL
(c) 128 Bit SSL (d) 256 Bit SSL
12 Process of attempting to acquire sensitive information is called?
(a) Spoofing (b) Phishing
(c) Morphing (d) Spam
13 A program that migrates through networks and operating systems by attaching
itself to different programs and databases is ?
(a) Virus (b) Worm
(c) Damage (d) Denial of service
14 Where is the facility available to employees to report incidents related to
information security after logging in with their PF Index No. ?
(a) In B@ncs24 (b) In service desk
(c) In EMS (d) In Onlinesbi
15 Who is primarily responsible for the Physical and Logical security of Desktop as
per the Acceptable Usage Policy of the Bank /
(a) Branch Manager/Head of the (b) System Administrator
Department
(c) User to whom the desktop is (d) Information Security Department
allotted (ISD)
16 New mode for registering to Internet Banking is
(a) User Driven Registration (b) PPK Through Post
Process for Internet Banking
(URIB)
(c) Hand delivery of PPK (d) None of the above
17 What is SGTU in Registration process
(a) System Generated Temporary (b) System Guaranteed Temporary
User Name User name
(c) System Generated Typical (d) None of the above
Username
18 Each Scale I/ II/ III permitted to have __ MS Office licence.
(a) 2 (b) 1
(c) 4 (d) None of the above
19 Scale IV/ V Branches may be permitted to have upto ___ additional licences.
(a) 2 (b) 1
20 Branches headed by DGMs, MCG and CAG branches may be permitted to have
up to ___ licenses depending upon functional requirements
(a) 5 (b) 10
21 E-Aadhar is an ______
(a) Officially Valid Document for (b) Not an officially valid documents for
opening of account opening of account
Page 143 of 184

(c) In eligible document (d) None of the above

22 ATM card can now be blocked through
(a) Branch (b) By contacting call centre
(c) By SMS & Internet Banking (d) All of the above
23 Key word for blocking of ATM card through SMS
(a) BLOCK XXXX (b) BLOCK VVVV
(c) BLOCK XXXXX (d) BLOCK YYYY
24 For blocking ATM card SMS to be sent to
(a) 1800112211 (b) 567676
25 CDM accepts ___ per transaction?
(a) 50 pieces, Max. Rs. 40,000 per (b) 200 pieces, Max Rs.40,000/- per
txn txn.
(c) 100 pieces, Max. Rs.20,000/- (d) None of these
per txn
26 For blocking ATM card through Internet Banking the menu is available in which
TAB
(a) My Accounts (b) Funds Transfer
(c) e-Services (d) None of the above
27 For funds transfer through NEFT cash can be accepted?
(a) For less than Rs.50000/- (a) Upto Rs.50000/-
(c) Cash cannot be accepted (c) None of the above
28 Under Mobile Banking Service for SME Customers is available for
(a) Current Accounts only (b) Current Account & Cash Credit
(c) OD, CA, CC Accounts (d) None of the above
29 CDM can be used by swiping ?
(a) ATM Card (b) GRC Card
(c) SME Insta Deposit Card (d) All of these
30 Internet Banking users can now login after ____ minutes on the same day once
they are enabled in CBS
(a) 60 Min (b) 30 Min
(c) After EOD (d) None of the above
31 Roles in INB Branch Interface
(a) INB Officer, Rule Authoriser 1, 2 (b) Makers & Checkers
(c) Rule Authorier 1, 2 (d) None of the above
32 What is BAS & what factor of authorization is this?
(a) Biometric Authentication (b) Biometric Access Solutions &
Solution & Second Factor Second Factor
(c) Biometric Authentication (d) None of the above
Solution & First factor
33 Our Banks Centralized Antivirus Solution is ?
(a) Symantic Anti Virus (b) Trend Micro Antivirus
(c) Avast Anti Virus (d) None of the above
34 Visually Challenged internet banking user should login to ?
(a) https://www.onlinesbi.com/sbivc. (b) Normal internet banking site
html https://www.onlinesbi.com
(c) Any one of the above (d) None of the above
35 State Bank Xpress Money Card, a new variant of rupee prepaid card has been
rolled out. Inward remittances received through ______ can be loaded into the
card.
Page 144 of 184

(a) UAE Exchange and Financial (b) UAE Exchange only

Services Ltd only
(c) Westrun Union Money Transfer (d) None of the above
36 What is GRC, and its issue Charges?
(a) Green Remit Card, Rs.20/- (b) Green Return Card, Rs.100/-
(c) Green Red Card, Rs.50/- (d) None of the above
37 What is GRC cash deposit limit?
(a) Rs.5000/- per txn maximum (b) Rs.25000/- per txn, maximum
Rs.25000/- pm Rs.100000/-
(c) Rs.1000/- per txn, maximum (d) None of the above
Rs.5000/- pm
38 What are various modes of accessing SBI Freedom?
(a) SMS, USSD, Application based, (b) SMS, USSD, GPRS
GPRS
(c) USSD, SMS only (d) None of the above
39 What is new variant of Internet banking?
(a) State Bank Anywhere google (b) SBI New Internet Banking
play application
(c) SBI Freedom (d) None of the above
40 How many Gift Card can be ordered by a customer during a month?
(a) 5 cards (b) 10 cards
(c) 50 cards (d) None of the above
41 Where Gift card can be delivered?
(a) At the address of the customer (b) At the address of the customer
or at the address of the
beneficiary
(c) At the address of the beneficiary (d) None of the above
42 What are the minimum and maximum amount of top up of a Gift card?
(a) Min Rs.500/- Maximum (b) Min Rs.100/- Maximum Rs.10000/-
Rs.50000/-
(c) Flat Rs.10000/- (d) None of the above
43 How many times the Gift card can be topped up?
(a) Any number of times (b) Only once
(c) 5 times (d) None of the above
44 Who can avail the facility of Virtual Card?
(a) All the account holders (b) Only user of Internet Banking
(c) Users of Mobile Banking (d) None of the above
45 Validity period of Virtual Card?
(a) As soon as transaction is (b) After cancellation
completed. Or If the card is
cancelled. Or Card is not used
for 48 hours after creation.
(whichever is earlier)
(c) 24 hours (d) None of the above
46 What is the minimum and maximum amount of top up of a Virtual card?
(a) Min Rs.500/- Maximum (b) Min Rs.100/- Maximum Rs.10000/-
Rs.50000/-
(c) Flat Rs.10000/- (d) None of the above
47 Validity period of Smart Payout Card?
(a) 10 years from the date of issue (b) 1 year from the date of issue
Page 145 of 184

(c) 5 years from the date of issue (d) None of the above
48 What are the minimum and maximum amount of top up of Smart Payout Card?
(a) Rs.100/- to Rs.10000/- (b) Rs.500/- to Rs.50000/-
(c) Rs.10000/- to Rs.100000/- (d) None of the above
49 How many Smart Payout Cards can be issued to an SB Account holder?
(a) Maximum 3 cards (b) Maximum 5 cards
(c) Maximum 10 cards (d) None of the above
50 What is IMPS?
(a) Immediate Payment Service (b) Immediate Mobile Service
(IMPS)
(c) Maximum 10 cards (d) None of the above
51 URL for branch login in Internet Banking ?
(a) www.onlinesbi.com (b) www.branchonlinesbi.com
(c) www.inbintranet.com (d) None of the above
52 PPK of INB contains __ digits ?
(a) 9 (b) 10
53 New facilities added in Retail Internet Banking?
(a) User Driven Internet Banking (b) Compiling and printing of 15G/H
Registration
(c) Conversion of SB to SB Plus (d) All of these
54 Types of rights available in Internet Banking
(a) View rights (b) Transaction rights
(c) Limited transaction rights (d) All of these
55 Minor can be provided INB facility with?
(a) Transaction rights (b) View rights
(c) Limited transaction rights (d) Both b & c
56 PPK packet contains __PPKs?
(a) 50 (b) 100
57 What is a Trace No. is CBS?
(a) referring to committed (b) referring to clearing system of
transactions that are accepted in transactions that are rejected by
Database at CBS
CDC
(c) referring to CIF number rejected (d) None of these
by CBS
58 The software that was recently integrated with CBS is
(a) Kubera (b) LOS
(c) OLTAS (d) None of these
59 Who published IT Forum in the Bank?
(a) Hyderabad Circle (b) SBIICM
(c) Corporate Centre (d) None of these
60 Card types for SME Customers?
(a) Pride (b) Premium
(c) Insta Deposit Card (d) All of these
61 Computer Security Day is observed on ?
(a) 30th November (b) 1st August
(c) 26th January (d) None of these
Page 146 of 184

62 Virtual Card in INB can be issued in how many currencies ?

(a) 6 (b) 4
(c) Only in Indian Rupees (d) None of these
63 What is TPD ?
(a) Transaction Printing Device (b) Transaction processing Device
(c) Third Party Device (d) None of these
64 In NEFT the settlement is on DNS basis, what is DNS?
(a) Data Network Server (b) Digital Network Software
(c) Deferred Net Settlement (d) None of these
65 C2C transaction limit ?
(a) Rs.15000/- (b) Rs.40000/-
(c) Rs.50000/- (d) None of these
66 Corporate General Ledger Finance One software is purchased from ?
(a) FNS Australia (b) Comlink USA
(c) Oracle (d) None of these
67 State Bank Training Management System (SBTMS) is managed by ?
(a) TCS (b) Mahindra Satyam
(c) Wipro (d) None of these
68 Name of software used by our Bank at AML-CFT Cell, Jaipur for generation of
Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) ?
(a) STR lock (b) AM Lock provided by 3i InfoTech
(c) MS Lock (d) None of these
69 Which company has developed Active Directory Services
(a) TCL (b) HCL
(c) MS Office (d) None of these
70 New Service added in State Bank Anywhere
(a) Print Pass Book (b) m passbook
(c) New Passbook (d) None of these
71 To promote GRC bank has present reduced the core charges for cash deposit in
CDM to
(a) Rs.15.00 (b) Rs.30.00
Rs.50.00 (d) No charges
72 The ceiling for single transaction through GRC card for remitting cash is
(a) Rs.50000.00 (b) Rs.100000.00
Rs.25000.00 (d) Rs.15000.00
73 The amount an customer can remit through GRC card in month is
(a) Rs.100000.00 (b) Rs.25000.00
Rs.50000.00 (d) Unlimited
74 mCash facility is provided to customers through
(a) INB (b) MBS
ATM (d) Branch
75 The customer can sign up in Buddy by using
(a) FACEBOOK credentials (b) Gmail Credentials
Twitter Credentials (d) None of these
76 Charge for using State Bank Buddy
(a) Rs.0.50 per transaction (b) Rs.1.00 per transaction
Rs.2.50 per transaction (d) nil
77 The limit for funds transfer per transaction and per day in buddy is
(a) Rs.5000.00 (b) Rs.2500.00
Rs.3000.00 (d) Rs.1000.00
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78 Options are available under Payment Requests under Buddy are

(a) Pay Money (b) Claim Money
Receive Money (d) All of the above
79 The transaction limit in Buddy per day is (merchant and transfer)
(a) Rs.15000.00 (b) Rs.49900.00
Rs.25000.00 (d) Rs.50000.00
80 The billers that you can pay with Budd facility along with mobile are
(a) Electricity (b) DTH connection
Gas (d) All the above
ANSWERS
1 d 2 a 3 c 4 a 5 d 6 c 7 a 8 d 9 d 10 a
11 d 12 b 13 a 14 b 15 c 16 a 17 a 18 a 19 a 20 b
21 a 22 d 23 a 24 b 25 b 26 c 27 a 28 a 29 d 30 b
31 b 32 a 33 b 34 b 35 a 36 a 37 b 38 a 39 a 40 b
41 a 42 a 43 b 44 b 45 a 46 a 47 a 48 a 49 a 50 a
51 c 52 a 53 d 54 d 55 d 56 b 57 a 58 b 59 b 60 d
61 a 62 c 63 b 64 c 65 a 66 b 67 c 68 b 69 c 70 b
71 b 72 c 73 a 74 a 75 a 76 c 77 a 78 d 79 a 80 d
Page 148 of 184

GENERAL AWARENESS-1
Prepared by : Sri. P.Padma Babu Goud, Manager(Trg)
1. Commodity exchange markets in India are regulated by

a) Commodities exchange Board b) Forward markets commission
c) Commodities Exchange Regulation d) Commodities Exchange
Commission. Regulation Board.
2. MCA-21 relates to
a) Mopping up of black money in the b) Prevention of malpractices by
country. companies.
c) Computerization of ROC/MCA d) Governing companies in a
(Registrar of companies) dealings. better way in the wake of
Sathyam.
3. Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) is situated at Mumbai. Where is the National
Stock Exchange (NSE)?
a) Kolkata b) New Delhi
c) Bangalore d) Mumbai
4. Stress Testing in financial parlance relate to
a) Finding out Banks strength to b) An advanced approach for
withstand various stresses asset liability management of
emanating from various risks. financial institutions.
c) Business strategy of banks by testing d) An approach for measuring
the stress in the economy. stress levels in bank
employees.
5. IRDA Chairman is
a) Amitabh Chowadhary b) J.Hari Narayan
c) K.Chakraborthy d) T.S.Vijayan
6. The headline inflation measure in Indian economy are based on
a) Year-on-year variation of WPI. b) Year-on-year variation of CPI.
c) Real time variation of WPI d) Real time variation of CPI.
7. Bit coins in the economy means
a) Bit coins is digital currency not b) New currency going to be
backed by any Government. introduced.
c) Coins in bit form d) Plastic coins.
8. As per IRDA, a pension insurance policy should also contain a provision for
a) One time withdrawal b) An annuity
c) Benefits of accident d) Both (b) & (c)
9. M-3 money supply measurement in India takes into consideration
a) Post office SB savings b) Time deposits with banks
c) Interbank deposits d) All the above.
10. The social web site ORKUT is owned by
a) msn.com b) Rediff.com
c) Google d) None of the above
11. 3G SPECTRUM is
a) New generation of cell phones b) Allotment of new and higher
bandwidths in cellular
communication
c) New technology in cellular d) Multimedia cellular
.communication. communication technology.
Page 149 of 184

12. The managing director of IMF is

a) Percy Anderson b) Lileon Mathew
c) Christine Lagarde d) Lely Cipora
13. Vijay Malya Chairman of the ill fated Kingfisher Airlines is heading the famous
a) VB Group b) UB Group
c) Jaiswal Group d) Jindal Group
14. Who is the president of CII?
a) Adi Godrej b) Ajay S Shriram.
c) D.Parekh c) Anil Ambani
15. The world Bank consists of
a) IBRD (International Bank for b) IBRD only and IDA is an
reconstruction and Development) & independent and
IDA (International development complementing agency.
Agency).
c) IDA only and IBRD is an independent d) None of the above is correct.
and complementing agency.
16. Worlds largest bank in terms of balance sheet size is
a) BNP Paribas b) Deutche Bank
c) HSBC Bank d) ICBC
17. Procyclicality is a word associated with
a) Credit Risk b) Market Risk
c) Country Risk d) Systemic Risk
18. Carbon credits are systematized following
a) Paris protocol b) Kyoto protocol
c) Manila protocol d) Washington protocol
19. The institution which looks after regulation of insurance sector in the country is
a) IRDA b) AMFI
c) ICDA d) SEBI
20. As per the recommendations of Basel-III, the Tier-2 capital is to be ______
a) Enhanced b) Reduced
c) Eliminated d) Harmonized.
21. The tag line of which of the following banks is worlds local bank
a) HDFC b) ABN AMRO
c) HSBC d) CITY BANK
22. Who is the chairman of IBA (Indian Banks Association)?
a) Smt.Chanda Kochchar b) Sri.T M Basin
c) Shri.Bhaskar Sen d) Shri.K.R.Kamath
23. Aadhar Payment Bridge System (APBS) was developed by
a) NPCI b) RBI
c) SBI d) CCIL
24. Which bank / Financial Institution took the lead in setting up of CCIL (Clearing
Corporation of India Limited)?
a) SBI b) IDBI
c) LIC d) ICICI
25. As per SEBI Rules, what is the maximum investment limit for Retail Inventors
in public issues?
a) Rs.50,000/- b) Rs.100,000/-
c) Rs.125,000/- d) Rs.200,000/-
Page 150 of 184

26. Jean Claude Trichet is a personality associated with______?

a) IMF b) World Bank
c) European Central Bank d) Federal Reserve
27. Which of the following summits is related to climate change?
a) Canberra summit b) Greenland summit
c) Copenhagen summit d) Venice summit
28. Who is the honorary secretary of IBA?
a) Shri.T.M.Bhasin b) Smt.Arundhati Bhattacharya
c) Shri.Bhaskar Sen d) Shri.K.R.Kamath
29. Monetary review will be taken up by RBI at
a) Half yearly intervals b) Annual policy
c) Quarterly intervals d) Bi-monthly intervals.
30. Finacle is a CBS software developed by
a) TCS b) Infosys
c) IBM India d) i-flex solutions
31. Recently which European countrys economic state sent shivers in the global
economy?
a) Germany b) Netherlands
c) Greece d) France
32. Technology up-gradation fund scheme (TUFS) promoted by Government of
India is applicable to
a) Textile & Jute Industry b) Sugar industry
c) Tea & coffee industry d) Food industry
33. NASSCOM is the
a) Indo-American venture for b) American outsourcing
collaboration in software. regulatory authority
c) National Association of Software and d) Chamber of commerce of IT-
Service Companies BPO industries in America.
34. Rail Bandhu is a
a) Indian Railways magazine b) Indian Railways Volunteer
c) Indian Railways co-branded card d) Railways Hotel chain
35. Which committee on customer service appointed by RBI recommended for
restoration of cash failed to be dispensed through ATMs to the customers
accounts within 5 days?
a) Damodaran Committee b) Khale committee
c) Usha Thorat Committee d) Narendra Dev committee
36. Abbrevation of MUDRA
a) Micro Units Development and b) Money Utility Development
Recovery agency and Refinance agency
c) Micro Units Devlopment and d) None of the above.
Refinance agency
37. BRICS stands for
a) Brazil, Russia, Indonesia & Chile b) Britain, Russia, India and Chile
c) Britain, Russia, Indonesia and China. d) Brazil, Russia, India,China and
South Africa
38. VAT is imposed ----------

a) Directly on consumer b) On final stage of production
c) On first stage of production d) On all stages between
production and final sale.
Page 151 of 184

39. Viticulture refers to

a) Preparing honey b) Preparing wine from grapes.
c) Preparing olive oil d) Preparing narcotics.
40. DGFT is related to
a) Exports & imports form India b) Transportation in India.
c) Civil aviation in India d) Industrialization of the country.
41. Julian Assange is a name known for association with
a) Apple b) Dell
c) Wikileaks d) Times magazine
42. Which city has been identified as the hottest ( i.e. first ranking ) outsourcing
destination in the world.
a) Banglore ( India) b) Dublin ( Ireland)
c) Makati City (The Philippines) d) Tokyo (Japan)
43. How many capital buffers were recommended by Basel-III?
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Four
44. RIDF is a scheme to be operationalized by
a) State Governments b) Ministry of Rural development
c) NABARD d) Nationalized Banks
45. Which Indian Bank recently entered the mortgage loan market in UK?
a) BOB b) SBI
c) ICICI d) HDFC
46. OTCEI is __________
a) Atomic submarine of china b) Economy policy of USA
c) An Indian Share market d) A Defence research
organisation
47. The cap on FDI in insurance sector presently is
a) 74% b) 49%
c) 26% d) 51%
48. The entities identified by PFRDA for floating their pension funds are
a) LIC,SBI & UTI-AMC b) LIC, SBI & UTI
c) SBI, BOB & AXIS Banks d) SBI, BOB & UTI
49. Swavalamban is related to
a) RIDF (Rural Infrastructure b) Health insurance programme
development fund) scheme launched for rural poor
c) Rural housing scheme. d) Governments assistance to
NPS (New pension scheme)
50. According to 2001 census, the state with lowest literacy rate is
a) Bihar b) Rajastan
c) Madhya Pradesh d) Nagaland
51. The capital conservation buffer recommended by Basel-III as percentage os
RWA (Risk Weighted Assets) is
a) 2% b) 2.5%
c) 3% d) 5.0%
52. The base of Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers is being shifted from
1982 to ______
a) 1995 b) 1998
c) 2000 d) 2001
Page 152 of 184

53. TALLY is a
a) Software for book keeping b) Software for balancing banks daily
transactions
c) Software for Banks balance d) None of the above.
sheets.
54. Incredible India is
a) A campaign for promoting India b) A campaign for promoting India as
as a investment destination a global tourist hot spot
c) A campaign launched for d) A campaign launched to promote
promoting SBI as a global bank. India as an exporter.
55. Contribution is
a) Sales fixed cost b) Sales/variable cost
c) Sales variable cost d) Sales/fixed cost.
56. Which of the following is not a Credit Rating Agency?
a) CAMELS b) ICRA
c) CRISIL d) CARE
57. MCX is a
a) Exchange for gold trading b) Commodities exchange
c) Forex exchange d) Metals exchange
58. ETF stands for
a) Exchange traded fund b) Electronic traded fund
c) Exchange traded future d) Electronic traded future
59. Who is the NSE chairman?
a) Vijay Khelkar b) S.B.Mathur
c) J.Hari Narayan d) None of the above
60. One of the focus areas of Bharath Nirmaan programme is
a) Construction of rural dwellings b) Removal of poverty through
employment assurance
programme
c) Rural & urban upliftment d) Literacy programme.
programme
61. Chairman of Federal reserve of USA is
a) Alen Greenspan b) Ben Bernanke
c) Steve Goldstein d) Janet L.Yellen
62. iPhone is the product of
a) Microsoft b) Samsung
c) Apple d) Motorola
63. SAARC University will have its head office in
a) Dhaka ( Bangledesh) b) New Delhi ( India)
c) Colombo ( Srilanka ) d) Male ( Maldives )
64. SEZ (Special economic Zone) is a
a) Improvement over EPZ concept b) Renamed EPZ concept.
c) Old form of EPZ concept. d) No relation between EPZ and SPZ
concept.
65. There is a raging controversy regarding introduction of a new tax system as it is
being opposed by some states. What is the tax?
a) Direct tax code b) Uniform CST (Central sales Tax)
c) GST (Goods and Services Tax) d) All the above
66. Oligopoly refers to
a) Perfect competition b) Competition between few players
Page 153 of 184

b) A pure form of monopoly d) None of the above

67. 360 degrees feedback is
a) Boss appraisal b) Subordinate appraisal
c) HR system d) None of the above
68. Factoring relates to
a) Bill finance b) Export finance
c) Receivable finance d) Infrastructure finance
69. Take out finance is best used for
a) Bill finance b) Real estate sector
c) Stock broker finance d) Infrastructure finance
70. Derivatives derive their value
a) From SWAPs b) Based on market prices
c) From the underlying security d) Future tradable proposition.
71. Call option refers to
a) The right of the investor to buy a b) The right of the investor to sell a
stock stock.
c) The obligation of the investor to d) The right of the investor both to
buy a stock buy and sell a stock.
72. Which of the following is an Indian e-commerce firm?
a) Expedia.com b) Flipkart.com
c) Bestbuy.com d) Amazon.com
73. Reverse mortgage loans are introduced by banks
a) At the behest of RBI advice. b) To help out old age people.
c) Changing population profile. d) All the above
74. RBI advised Indian banks to adapt RBS (Risk Based Supervision)
a) To fall in line with BASEL-II b) To facilitate RFIA.
framework.
c) To quantify risk d) None of the above.
75. IFRS refers to
a) International financial b) International Financial Reporting
reconstruction system Standards
c) Internal Financial Regulation and d) Internal Financial reporting system
Supervision.
ANSWERS GENERAL AWARENSS - 1
1. b 2. c 3. d 4. a 5. b 6. a 7. a 8. d 9. b 10. c
11. b 12. c 13. b 14. b 15. a 16. d 17. d 18. b 19. a 20. d
21. c 22. b 23. a 24. a 25. a 26. c 27. c 28. b 29. c 30. b
31. c 32. a 33. c 34. a 35. a 36. c 37. d 38. d 39. b 40. a
41. c 42. a 43. b 44. c 45. b 46. c 47. b 48. a 49. d 50. a
51 b 52 d 53 a 54 b 55 c 56 a 57 b 58 a 59 b 60 a
61 d 62 c 63 b 64 a 65 c 66 b 67 a 68 c 69 d 70 c
71 a 72 b 73 d 74 a 75 b
Page 154 of 184

GENERAL AWARENESS -2
Compiled by Shri P.Padma Babu Goud, Manager (Training)
1. CAPART is related with ___

a) Assisting and Evaluating rural welfare b) Computer hardware
programmes
c) Consultanat Service of export d) Controlling pollution in big
promotion. cities.
2. Note issuing deptt. of RBI should always possess the minimum gold stock of
worth -------
a) Rs.85 crore b) Rs. 115 crore
b) Rs. 200 crore. d) None of these.
3. Which of the following does not grant any tax rebate ?
a) National Saving Certificate b) Indira Vikas Patra
c) National Saving Scheme d) Public Provident Fund
4. Ad hoc Treasury Bill System of meeting budget deficit in india was abolished on
_____
a) 31 March , 1997 b) 31 March , 1996
c) 1 April , 1992 d) 1 April , 1995
5. SEBI was established in _______
a) 1993 b) 1992
c) 1988 d) 1990
6. The working of SEBI includes ________
a) To regulate the dealings b) To check the foul dealings in share
of share market. market
c) To control the inside d) All of these.
trading of shares
7. The Committee appointed by RBI to look into the HR management practices in
Public sector Banks was headed by
a) Dr. A.K.Khandelval b) Dr. Rangarajan
c) Dr. Raghu Ram Rajan d) Dr. Bhimal Jalan
8. Which statement of the following is true for IMF ?
a) It is not an agency of UNO b) It can grant Loan to any country of
the world
c) It can grant loan to state d) It grants loan only to member
Govt. of a country. nations.
9. The Ad hoc Treasury Bill system of meeting budget deficit in India was
replaced by Ways and Means Advances System which has come into force
on _____
a) March 31, 1997. b) April 1, 1996.
c) April 1, 1997. d) None of these.
10. Indian economy is __________

a) Socialistic economy b) Gandhian economy
c) Mixed economy d) Free economy .
11. The most important source of capital formation in india has been ?
a) House Hold savings b) Public sector savings
c) Government revenue surpluses d) Corporate savings
Page 155 of 184

12. In india , the public sector is most dominant in ?

a) Transport b) Steel production
b) Commercial d) Organised term lending financial
banking institutions.
13. Goas economy is mainly based on ?
a) Tourism b) Export of ores.
c) Agriculture d) None of these
14. As per Finance Ministers speech while presenting the Union Budget, the
Current Account deficit continues to be high due to excess dependence on
a) Oil & Coal imports b) Coal & Gold imports
c) Gold & Oil imports d) All the three.
15. Indias wage policy is based on ?
a) Cost of living b) Standard of living
c) Productivity d) None of these.
16. Which of the following is correct regarding the Gross Domestic Savings in
India.
a) Contribution of the b) Contribution of Government sector
household sector is the is the largest.
largest.
c) Contribution of the corporate d) None of the above.
sector is the largest.
17. The modern economy is not characterized by
a) Capital intensive mode of b) Development of money
production economy
c) Production for market. d) Self Sufficient village
system.
18. One of the problems in calculating the national income in India correctly is ?
a) Under employment. b) Inflation.
c) Non monetized consumption. d) Low savings.
19. The main source of Indias national income is ?
a) Industry. b) Agriculture.
c) Forestry d) None of these.
20. Which of the following are the main causes of slow rate of growth of per capita
income in India. ?
a) High capital output ratio. b) High rate of growth of
population.
c) High rate of capital formation. d) All the above
21. Among Indian economists who had done pioneering work on National
Income?
a) P N Dhar b) Jagdish Bhagwati
c) V K R V Rao d) Prof. Shenoi
22. Which of the following is not a method of estimating national income ?
a) Income method b) Value added method.
c) Expenditure method d) Export import method.
23. In our country , which of the following affects poverty line the most ?
a) Level of Prices b) Expenditure method
c) Export import method. d) None of these.
Page 156 of 184

24. The largest revenue in india is obtained from

a) Sales tax. b) Direct taxes.
c) Excise duties. d) None of these.
25. DTC is related to
a) Income Tax b) Excise duty
c) Customs duty d) Service Tax
26. Which of the following is an advice rendered by RBI to banks to curtail frauds
involving stolen/theft cards?
a) Introducing additional b) Introducing photo embossed cards
passwords
c) Introducing online tracking d) Introduction of comprehensive chip
mechanism for cards based cards
27. Who is Prime Ministers economic advisory council chairman?
a) Mr.C.Rangarajan b) Dr.Y.V.Reddy
c) Mr.Ahluwalia d) None of these ( vacant)
28. Stagflation is a characterized by
a) High growth rate and low b) High growth rate and high inflation
inflation rate rate
c) Low growth rate and low d) Low growth rate and high inflation
inflation rate rate
29. As per specific guidelines of RBI, repayments into loans can be
a) Through ECS only wherever b) Either through ECS or through Post
ECS is available dated cheques as per the choice of
banks at all centers
c) Either through ECS or through d) No specific instructions.
Post dated cheques as per the
choice of banks at centers
where ECS is available.
30. Head quarter of IMF
a) New York b) Washington D.C.
c) Islamabad d) Hyderabad
31. WMA (Ways and means advances) is
a) Banks borrowings from RBI b) Government borrowings from RBI
c) Government borrowings from d) RBIs borrowings from banks
banks
32. The interest rate charges on WMA outstanding is
a) Repo rate b) Reverse Repo Rate
c) Bank rate d) Standing Facility Rate
33. After the recent infusion of capitalization of SBI by Government of India to the
tune of Rs.3,004 Crores, the share holding of Government of India will go up to
a) 62.31% b) 59.24%
c) 52.35% d) 55.0%
34. CAMELS framework is meant for
a) Credit appraisal b) Assessing health of banks
c) Sovereign credit rating method d) Trends in global economic
used by credit rating agencies situations
35. As per the census of India, which city (with a population of more than 1 million)
tops the list of cities with largest number of slum households?
a) Mumbai b) New Delhi
c) Chennai d) Visakhapatnam
Page 157 of 184

36. CDs (Certficate of Deposits) are basically

a) Short term instruments issued b) Promissory notes issued by banks
by Corporates for short term fund raising
c) Promissory notes issued by d) All the above
Corporates for short term fund
raising
37. Minimum public shareholding (MPS) norms of SEBI are applicable to
a) PSUs alone b) Non-PSUs only
c) To both PSUs and Non-PSUs d) PSBs alone
as well
38. As per the census of India, which State tops the list of cities with largest number
of slum households?
a) Andhra Pradesh b) Bihar
c) Delhi d) Maharastra
39. CAMELS was developed by
a) IMF b) World Bank
c) US Federal reserve d) European Central Bank
40. FSLRC (Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission) was led by
a) Mr.C.Rangarajan b) Justice. B.N. Sri Krishna
c) Sri Tarapore d) Mr.Chidambaram
41. Banks are being asked to populate Aadhaar Numbers along with bank account
numbers for the purpose of
a) Rapid cheque clearing and ECS b) Replacement of IFSC code for
operations NEFT/RTGS transactions in the
long run
c) Identification of government d) All the above
beneficiaries
42. IBAN stands for
a) International Bank Account b) Indian Banks Association Number
Number
c) International Bankers d) International Bankers
Authentication Number Authentication Norm
43. A post dated instrument/ debit mandate issued in favour of the creditor by the
debtor in some financial markets like Singapore, Indonesia are popularly called
as
a) PIRO b) LIRO
c) TEMPO d) GIRO
44. The principal recommendation of FSLRC (Financial Sector Legislative Reforms
Commission) is
a) One super regulator for entire b) RBI to be the super regulator for
financial sector entire financial sector
c) Stringent law enforcement to d) Widening the scope of laws for
regulate financial sector better controlling financial sector
45. Report on Currency and Finance is published by
a) RBI b) Ministry of Finance, Government of
India
c) Central Statistical Organization d) International Monetary Fund(IMF)
(CSO)
Page 158 of 184

46. Who is the present appellate authority of Banking Ombudsman?

a) Deputy Governor of RBI b) Dr.Raghuram Rajan, Governor of
RBI
c) Central Finance Minister d) Dr. Ranga Rajan
47. NIBM (National Institute for Bank Management) is an autonomous training
institute of
a) Promoted by Government of b) IBA
India.
c) NABARD d) RBI
48. The Slogan of Census-2011 is
a) Census India-Bright India b) Our Census-Our Future
c) Bright India-Our future d) Future India-Bright India
49. Who is the current World Bank president?
a) Mr.Jim Yong Kim b) Mr.Bon Yong Moon
c) Mr. Ravulfson d) Mr.Richard Calson
50. e-filing of income tax returns is mandatory for individuals with annual taxable
income of
a) Above Rs.5.00 lakhs b) Above Rs.5.50 lakhs
c) Above Rs.7.50 lakhs d) Above Rs.8.00 lakhs
51. El Nino is
a) A Korean trading Company b) A weather pattern in Pacific which
affects monsoon arrival in India
c) A pattern of movement in Dow d) Statistical tool for arriving at stock
Jones index of New York stock price sensitivities
exchange
52. PMI (Purchasing Managers Index) , an index relating to purchasing orders by
manufacturers company, is published by
a) HDFC b) CMIE (Center for monitoring Indian
economy)
c) HSBC India d) Ministry of Finance
53. EMV Compliance is related to
a) Cross border money transfers b) Payments systems in India
c) Debit cards d) Forex transactions
54. The Core Sector Industries in India are
a) 5 b) 6
c) 7 d) 8
55. Which of the following is not Core sector industry in Indian economy?
a) Gas & Oil production b) Coal mining
c) Cement industry d) Capital goods industry
56. The minimum capital required for setting up a new bank under RBIs new
licensing norms is
a) Rs.75 Cr b) Rs.100 Cr
c) Rs.250 Cr d) Rs.500 Cr
57. Which of the following is a must for new banks under new licensing norms of
RBI?
a) The new banks should be stock b) Foreign share holding should not
market listed within 3 years of exceed 49% within the first 5 years
commencement
c) th of the branches should be d) All the above
opened in rural areas.
Page 159 of 184

58. As per WTO estimates for 2012, India is the _______largest merchandise
exporter and _______largest merchandise importer in the world.
a) 19th and 12th b) 12th and 19th
c) 3rd and 7th d) 7th and 3rd
59. A recent committee appointed by Ministry of Finance suggested that currency
bins occupancy rate should not be more than ____% of Vault Holding Limit(VHL)
so that more shuffling of currency takes place.
a) 10% b) 25%
c) 50% d) 75%
60. Fresh evaluation of every item of expenditure from the very beginning of each
financial year is called ?
a) Fresh Budgeting b) Deficit Budgeting
c) Performance Budgeting d) Zero-based Budgeting
61. SBI recently opened its second Branch in China at

a) Shangai b) Beijing
c) Tianjin d) Shangdu
62. Chairman of Planning Commission In India is
a) Prime Minister of India b) President of India
c) Finance Minister d) Cabinet Secretary, Ministry of
Finance
63. SDRs are part of
a) Balance of payments b) Forex Reserves
c) Current Account deficit d) Trade deficit
64. The purpose of allowing banks to introduce Gold Deposit scheme by RBI is
a) To channelize idle gold with b) To check unbridled Gold imports
public into productive purposes
c) As suggested by K U B Rao d) All the above
committee
65. The FDI limits in retailing as introduced by Government of India recently are
a) 51% in single brand and 49% in b) 100% in single brand and 49% in
multi brand multi brand
c) 100% in single brand and 51% d) 100% in both single and multi
in multi brand brands
66. CAD (Current Account Deficit) is always measure as a proportion of
a) GNP b) GDP
c) NNP d) NDP
67. The proposed GST (General Sales Tax) is a replacement of
a) Central Excise duty b) Value added tax (VAT)
c) Service tax & other local taxes d) All the above
68 An ad valorem duty is a tax on the basis of

a) Check the accumulation of b) Run the machinery of the state
wealth among the rich.
b) Uplift weaker sections. d) None of these
69 Troika is the name for
a) IMF, World Bank and United b) IMF, World Bank and European
Nations Central Bank
c) IMF, United Nations and d) IMF, European Union and
European Central Bank European Central Bank
Page 160 of 184

70 Which group of firms is facing charges from SEBI for violating various norms of
mobilization of funds from the public?
a) Aditya Birla Group b) Vijaya Malya Group
c) Sahara Group d) All the above
71 Recently a sting operation on money laundering activities by some private banks
was conducted in India by
a) Financial Express b) Cobra Post
c) Wikileaks d) RBI and SEBI jointly
72 According to recent Banking Ombudsman Report, which type of complaints are
more in number form Banking Sector?
a) Card related complaints b) Excess Interest charged related
complaints
c) SB Account maintenance d) Cheque collection delay related
related complaints questions
73 Visa / Master Card Secure is a
a) Card to Card transfer b) A second factor authentication
mechanism
c) A special Card offered by both d) A special mechanism between
Visa and Master jointly Visa and Master to settle their
transactions
74 Which type of cards are being introduced on a large scale to protect users from
skimming and cloning?
a) Secure Cards b) Second factor authentication
c) Chip based Cards d) All the above
75 What is the name of the scheme launched under PDS (Public Distribution
Scheme) to benefit poor families with foodgrains availability?
a) AAY (Antyodaya Anna Yojana) b) Antyodaya Dhanya Yojana (ADY)
scheme scheme
c) Rajiv Anna Yojana d) Rajiv Dhanya Yojana
76 Who is SEBI chairman
a) R V Verma b) T S Vijayan
c) U K Sinha d) Vijay kelkar
ANSWERS- GENERAL AWARENESS - 2
1 a 2 b 3 b 4 a 5 b
6 d 7 a 8 d 9 c 10 c
11 a 12 b 13 b 14 d 15 a
16 a 17 d 18 c 19 b 20 a
21 c 22 d 23 c 24 c 25 a
26 b 27 d 28 d 29 a 30 b
31 b 32 a 33 a 34 b 35 d
36 b 37 c 38 a 39 c 40 b
41 c 42 a 43 d 44 a 45 a
46 a 47 d 48 b 49 a 50 a
51 b 52 c 53 c 54 d 55 d
56 d 57 d 58 a 59 b 60 d
61 c 62 a 63 b 64 d 65 c
66 b 67 d 68 a 69 d 70 d
71 c 72 b 73 a 74 d 75 a
76 c
Page 161 of 184

GENERAL AWARENESS-3
Compiled by Sri. P.Padma Babu Goud, Manager (Training)
1. The present C.R.R is

a) 3% b) 4%
c) 5% d) 6%
2. Base rate of SBI since 05/10/2015 is
a) 9.5% b) 10%
c) 9.3% d) 9%
3. Present Bank rate is
a) 8.25% b) 8%
c) 7.5% d) 7.75%
4. Which airliner borrowed substantially from SBI is facing liquidity problems?
a) Air India b) Jet Airways
c) Kingfisher Airlines d) Indigo Airlines
5. MCX stands for
a) Money Commodities Exchange b) Multiple Commodities Market
c) Multi Commodities Xchange d) Multi Commodities Exchange of
India
6. Subir Gokarn is
a) SEBI chief b) Election Commissioner
c) RBI Deputy Governor d) Advisor to Ministry of Finance.
7. White Label ATM (WLA) is an ATM owned by
a) Banks b) NBFC
c) Owned by non-bank and runs for d) By many banks together for
banks on fee basis collective use.
8. PPP represents
a) A political party in Uttara Pradesh b) An investment concept for
infrastructure projects
c) A new concept in financial d) None of the above
inclusion.
9. In recent times SENSEX generally became more sensitive to which of the
following factors?
a) FII flows b) FDI flows
c) Money flow from Mutual Funds d) Profits announced by companies.
10. Which five countries together are known as PIIGS?
a) 5 East Asian Countries b) 5 Latin American countries
c) 5 Southern Eurozone nations d) 5 Central Asian Nations
11. As per recent RBI guidelines which of the following is correct regarding White
Label ATM?
a) Five free transactions per month b) WLA is hired by one bank.
can be conducted by customers
c) Usage charges are displayed for d) All the above
the customers
12. The budget is presented to the parliament on

a) The last day of Feburary. b) 15th March.
c) The last day of March. d) Ist April.
Page 162 of 184

13. Who is the MD&GE of Corporate Accounts Group of SBI

a) B.V.Chaubal b) B.Sriram
c) V.G.Kannan d) P.Pradeep Kumar
14. Which of the following rates provide direction to interest rates in the country?
a) Bank Rate b) Prime Lending Rate
c) Repo and Reverse Repo Rates d) Base Rate
15. If RBI cuts CRR, then
a) Excess Cash will be removed from b) Liquidity will be infused into the
the economy economy
c) Foreign Inward Remittances will d) Either (a) or (b)
take place on large scale.
16. What are the main components for fixing base rate by a bank?
a) Cost of Deposits, Operating Costs b) Cost of Deposits, CRR & SLR
and Profit Margin Costs and Profit Margin
c) Profit Margin , Operating Costs d) Cost of deposits, Profit Margin ,
and CRR & SLR Costs Operating Costs and CRR & SLR
Costs
17. Which of the following rates play a key role in RBIs LAF (Liquidity Adjustment
Facility)?
a) Repo and Reverse Repo Rates b) Bank Rate
c) PLR d) All the above
18. The income tax in india is a
a) Indirect and Progressive b) Direct and Proportional
c) Direct and Progressive d) Indirect and proportional
19. Which of the following is true with respect to Bank rate?
a) A statutory rate in terms of b) A non-statutory rate used by RBI to
Banking Regulation Act provide direction to the interest rate
regime
c) A statutory rate in terms of RBI Act d) Bank Rate moves in tune with
Repo and Reverse Repo Rates
20. The state with highest population density in India as per census 2011 is
a) NCT Delhi b) Bihar
c) Tamilnadu d) Kerala
21. Fiscal policy is connected with ______
a) Issue of currency. b) Exports and imports.
c) Public revenue and expenditure. d) None of these.
22. AMA (Advanced Measurement Approach) is used to calculate
a) Operational risk b) Credit Risk
c) Market Risk d) Sovereign risk
23. Capital Conservation Buffer was mentioned in
a) Basel-1 b) Basel-II
c) Basel-III d) RBI Mid term policy Review.
24. Malegaom Committee was set up by RBI for

a) Reviewing LAF b) Looking into Micro Finance
Institutions regulation issue
c) Review Bank rate concept d) To look into issues related to
MSME finance.
Page 163 of 184

25. Government Business can be conducted by

a) Public Sector Banks only b) Public Sector Banks and a few
private sector Banks
c) All public Sector and Private sector d) None of the above
banks
26. Under FRBM (Fiscal responsibility and Budget management) mechanism, the
fiscal deficit to be restricted to
a) 3% of GDP b) 4.5% of GDP
c) 5% of GDP d) No such restriction
27. Gross Domestic Savings of India as part of GDP hover in the range of
a) 10-15% b) 15-18%
c) Around 20% d) Around 30%
28. Which of the following are called EMV Cards?
a) Magnetic stripe cards b) Signature based cards
c) Chip based cards d) All the above
29. At present which bank is leading in setting up of POS machines?
a) ICICI Bank b) Axis Bank
c) SBI d) Bank of Baroda
30. A CRR cut is expected to
a) Increase liquidity in the market b) Boost NIM of banks
c) Increase trends of inflation d) All the above
31. Which country is the largest consumer of sugar in the world?
a) USA b) China
c) India d) Brazil
32. Which of the following is not a direct tax ?
a) Wealth tax b) Income tax
c) Estate Duty d) Sales tax.
33. Recently RBI gave banking licenses to which of the following institutions ?
a) IDBI and Bandhan b) Godrej and videocon
c) Bajaj and Reliance d) Sundaram and Manapparam
34. HDI (Human Development Index) is a measure of human development used by
a) World Bank b) IMF (international Monetary fund)
c) G- 7 Nations d) UNDP of UNO (United Nations
Organization)
35. A decrease in general price level of goods and services in an economy is called
a) Inflation b) Hyperinflation
c) Deflation d) Disinflation
36. Broad Money in Indian economy is denoted by
a) M1 money supply b) M2 money supply
c) M3 money supply d) None of the above
37. The effective literacy rate of India as per census 2011 is
a) 68.34% b) 74.04%
c) 70.12% d) 68.25%
38. The population density of India as per census 2011 is
a) 282 b) 382
c) 252 d) 352
39. The agency to look after the regulation of foreign trade of India is
a) Ministry of commerce b) EXIM House
c) EXIM Bank d) DGFT
Page 164 of 184

40. Statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) is

a) 22.5% b) 23%
c) 21.5% d) 24.5%
41. Insurance for exports from and imports to India is provided by
a) Banks b) ECGC
b) EXIM Bank d) All the above
42 Which two organizations are popularly known as Brettenwoods Twins?
a) World Bank & United Nations b) IMF and UNDP
Development Program (UNDP)
c) IMF and World Bank d) IMF and International
Reconstructions Fund
43 SDR is a drawing facility available
a) From world Bank to member b) From IMF to member nations
nations
c) From Exim bank to big Corporate d) Aid from UNDP
houses in India
44 IMF Managing Director is
a) Nicolas Sarkozy b) Alexi Kudrin
c) Robert Zoellick d) Christine Lagarde
45. The much disgraced former chairman of IMF is
a) Alexi Kudrin b) Dominique Strauss Khan
c) Rolland Gullick d) Nicolas Sarkozy
46 The president of World Bank is
a) Nicolas Sarkozy b) Alexi Kudrin
c) Jim Yong Kim d) Christine Lagarde
47. There is a growing controversy about the deliberate undervaluation of a particular
currency to gain unfair advantage in trade by that nation. Which currency is that?
a) Yuan b) Yen
c) Rial d) Euro
48. Chief Executive of IBA (Indian Banks Association) is
a) K.Ramanathan b) Mohan V Tankasale
c) Sandeep Deshpande d) Sudip Gokarn
49. Gen X is a deposit product launched by
a) Oriental Bank of commerce b) SBH
c) Andhra Bank d) Bank of Baroda
50. There is a growing controversy between Tamilnadu and Kerala regarding which
dam?
a) Periyar Dam b) Udukki dam
c) Mullaperiyar dam d) Idukki dam
51. The present Repo rate is

a) 6.5% b) 6.75%
c) 7.75% d) 7.25%
52. The present Reverse repo rate is

a) 6% b) 5.75%
c) 6.75% d) 5.5%
Page 165 of 184

53. First ATM in India was installed in the year 1987 by

a) SBI b) HSBC
c) Standard & Chartered Bank d) Citi Bank
54. Investment limit under Sec 80C of the Income-tax act raised from 1 lack to
a) 1.25 lacs b) 2 lacs
c) 1.50 lacs d) 1.75 lacs
55. The Noble peace prize to Satyarthi and Malala Yousafzai is for the fought against
a) Right of all children to education b) Labour reforms
c) Protecting against widow d) None of these
marriages
56. Under Basel III, RBI has stipulated a CRAR(Capital to Risk weighted Asset Ratio)
of
a) 9% b) 11.5%
c) 10.5% d) 8%
57 Computer security day is observed on
a) Nov 30th b) Sep 30th
c) Sep 14th d) Nov 14th
58. Dr.Raghunath A.Mashelkar awarded Padma Vibhushan for his activities in
a) Literature and Education b) Science and Engineering
c) Medicine-Neonatology d) Sports-Tennis
59 The Trade Finance Software Exim Bills is being provided by
a) China system b) Infosys
c) TCS d) IBM
60 Which state ranked No.1 in Economic Freedom

a) Maharashtra b) Gujarat
c) West Bengal d) Tamilnadu
61. Sachin Tendulkars model village in Andhra Pradesh is
a) Mummidivaram, EG Dist b) Narsipatnam, Visaka Dist
c) Puttamraju Kandriga, Nellore d) Machilipatnam, Krishna Dist
Dist
62. The first asian country to send aircraft to Mars is

a) China b) India
c) Pakistan d) Srilanka
63. The author of book The Accidental Prime Minister-the making and unmaking of
Manmohan Singh
a) Sanjay Baru b) Pranab Mukherjee
c) PC Parakh d) Sachin Tendulkar
64. The autobiography of Sachin Tendulkar is
a) Playing cricket b) Playing it my way
c) The godfather d) None of the these
65. Which airlines plane disappeard in South China Sea
a) US airlines b) Arabian airlines
c) Malaysian Airlines d) Singapore Airlines
66. The bank formed on the efforts of Lala Lajpat Rai is
a) Bank of Baroda b) Punjab National Bank
c) Canara Bank d) Central Bank of India
Page 166 of 184

67. The slogan Indias International Bank is of which Bank?

a) Punjab National Bank b) Bank of Baroda
c) Allahabad Bank d) Bank of Maharashtra
68. The slogan Experience our expertise is of which Bank?
a) Axis Bank b) HSBC
c) BNP Paribus d) Yes Bank
69. The aim of 12th Five Year plan 2012-13 to 2016-17 is
a) Growth with social justice and b) Faster and inclusive growth
equality
c) Faster and inclusive and d) Maximisation of employment
sustainable growth in all sectors
70. The slogan The Art of Being Smart is of which insurance company?
a) United India Insurance Co., Ltd b) The New India Ins.,Com Ltd.,
c) The oriental insurance co., Ltd d) General Insurance Corporation of
India
71. Which ndian business group has announced joint venture with a South African
Insurance giant MMI Holding Ltd., to enter Indias health Insurance market
a) Reliance Group b) Aditya Birla Group
c) Tata group d) Bharati Enterprises
72. In International banking, TIBOR stands for
a) Tokyo Interbank offered rate b) Taiwan interbank offered rate
c) Thailand Interbank offered rate c) None of the above
73. The term Paper Gold refers to
a) Gold bonds b) Special Drawing Rights
c) Mutal funds d) Gold traded funds
74. Which country has recently launched Gandhi Inspired Tourist Attraction Project
a) England b) USA
c) Pakistan d) South Africa
68. Government of India has decided to dedicat year 2015-16 to which of the
following?
a) Water conservation b) Nuclear Energy
c) Clean India d) Digital India
69. International Internet day was observed globally on
a) October 29 b) October 30
c) October 24 d) October 1
70. With which bank, RBI has signed a pact for supervisory cooperation and exchange
of supervisory information in October.
a) Federal Reserve Bank b) Central Bank of Kenya
c) Bank of China d) Bank of Japan
71. Social networking site of SBI
a) SBI Aspirations b) SBI Facebook
c) SBI Twitter d) SBI You tube.
72. Which committee recommended a maximum age of 65 for private bank CEOs ?
a) Damodaran committee b) A.K.Kandelval committee
c) Dr. Rangarajan committee d) P J Nayak committee
73. SBI has its social media presence on
a) Only Face book b) Facebook, You tube and Twitter.
c) Face book and twitter d) Facebook and Youtube
Page 167 of 184

ANSWERS- GENERAL AWARENSS 3
1. b 11. c 21. c 31. c 41. B

2. c 12. a 22. a 32. d 42. C
3. a 13. b 23. c 33. d 43. B
4. c 14. c 24. b 34. d 44. D
5. d 15. b 25. c 35. c 45. B
6. c 16. d 26. a 36. c 46. C
7. c 17. a 27. d 37. b 47. A
8. b 18. c 28. c 38. b 48. B
9. a 19. c 29. a 39. d 49. B
10. c 20. a 30. d 40. c 50. C
51 b 61 c 71 b
52 b 62 b 72 c
53 b 63 a 73 b
54 c 64 b 74 d
55 a 65 c 75 a
56 B 66 b 76 a
57 a 67 b 77 b
58 b 68 d 78 a
59 a 69 c 79 d
60 b 70 b 80 b
Page 168 of 184

General Awareness 4
Prepared by Sri. P.Padma Babu Goud, Manager(Trg)
1. Prime Ministers prestigious project Make in India is related to

a) Discourage Multinational b) Manufacturing abroad and labelling
companies vis a vis our domestic in India
companies
c) Encouraging Multinational and d) Encourage Banks and financial
domestic countries to manufacture instutions to design products in
in India. India.
2. Make in India was launched on
a) 25.09.2014 b) 26.01.2015
c) 25.07.2015 d) 15.08.2015
3. Make in India policy consists of ______sectors
a) 10 b) 15
c) 20 d) 25
4. G-20 Finance ministers and Central Bank Governors meet was held in
a) Ankara, Turkey b) Geneva
c) Beijing d) New york
5. The project relating to cleanliness of rural and urban areas is
a) Swatch India b) Surabhi Bharat
c) Swatchata Bharat d) Swachh Bharat
6. Goveronor of RBI
a) Dr. Raghuram Rajan b) Dr. Subba Rao
c) Dr. K C Chakraborthy d) Dr. Ranga rajan
7. Foreign exchange reserves of India as on July 2015 were
a) US$300 billion b) US$353 billion
c) US$275 billion d) US$253 billion
8. Indias external debt during the end of financial year March 2015
a) 380 billion US$ b) 476 billion US$
c) 350 billion US$ d) 400 billion US$
9. The Target for Agricultural credit during 20-15-16 as per the Union budget is
a) Rs.8.50 lac crores b) Rs.7.50 lac crores
c) Rs.5.50 lac crores d) Rs.6.50 lac crores
10. As per union budget 2015-16 the fiscal budget target for 2015-16, 2016-17,
2017-18 respectively is
a) 4.2, 4.00, 3.9 b) 4.7, 4.25, 4
c) 3.9, 3.5, 3 d) 3,2.75, 2
11. The period of new Foreign trade policy is
a) 2015-2020 b) 2014-2019
c) 2012-2017 d) 2012-2018
12. The twelth five year plan is
a) 2014-2019 b) 2015-2020
c) 2012-2017 d) 2013-2018
13. The other Name of Career Development Scheme (C.D.S)

a) Saksham b) Sakshyam
c) Suraksha d) Suraksha unnati
Page 169 of 184

14. C.D.S is revamp of __________

a) Products of SBI b) Products of SBI Associates
c) Human Resources d) None of the above
15. The 5 grades of C.D.S are
a) A, B, C, D, E b) AAA, AA, A, B, C
c) AA, A, B, C, D d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
16. The Consultants of C.D.S are
a) Mckensy and Co b) Price water Cooper
c) Boston Consultancy group d) L & T
17. Gross N.P.A of SBI as on 31.03.2015 is
a) 4.95% b) 4.25%
c) 4.70% d) 4.75%
18. Net N.P.A of SBI as on 31.03.2015 is
a) 2.43% b) 2.12%
c) 3.42% d) 4.23%
19. 60th A.G.M (Annual General Meeting) of SBI was held at
c) Chennai d) Kolkata
20. C.D ratio of SBI for 2014-15 is
a) 77.80% b) 87.70%
c) 84.70% d) 87.07%
21. Finacle is CBS software developed by
a) TCS b) Infosys
c) IBM India d) i.flex solutions
22. Which committee on customer service appointed by RBI recommended for
restoration of cash failed to be dispensed through ATMs to the customers
accounts within 5 days?
a) Damodaran Committee b) Khale Committee
c) Usha Thorat Committee d) Narendra Dev committee
23. SEBI was established in
a) 1993 b) 1992
c) 1988 d) 1990
24. WMA (Ways and means advances) is
a) Bank borrowings from RBI b) Government borrowings from RBI
c) Government borrowings from Banks d) RBI borrowings from banks.
25. How many digits are there in the Unique Identity Number Adhaar, issued by the
Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI)
a) 9 b) 11
c) 12 d) 16
ANSWERS - GENERAL AWARENSS -4

1 c 2 a 3 d 4 a 5 d
6 a 7 b 8 b 9 a 10 c
11 a 12 c 13 a 14 c 15 b
16 c 17 b 18 b 19 a 20 c
21 b 22 a 23 b 24 b 25 c
Page 170 of 184

ORGANISATIONAL STRUCTURE AND HISTORY

Compiled by Sri.P.Padma Babu Goud, Manager (Training)
1. On recommendations of and ________through passing of an Act in

parliament, Imperial Bank of India was renamed as State Bank of India on 1st
July 1955.
a) All India Rural Credit Survey b) Goiporia committee
Committee (Gorawala Committee)
c) Narsimham committee d) RBI recommendations
2. SBI holds 100% shares in which of the following associate banks?

a) SBM&SBIN b) SBH & SBP
c) SBP & SBS d) SBH&SBM
3. Fully wholly owned banking subsidiary of SBI
a) Nepal SBI Bank Ltd b) SBI Mauritius Ltd
c) SBI Commercial & International d) SBICAP Securities Ltd
Bank Ltd (SBICI)
4. Find out which is not one of the Joint Venture of SBI
a) SBI Macquarie SBI Infrastructure b) Oman India Joint Investment
Trustee Pvt Ltd Fund-Trustee Co Pvt. Ltd
c) GE Capital Business Process d) SBI General Insurance
Management Services Pvt Ltd Company Ltd
5. Which of the following statement is wrong?
a) SBIs Registered Office & Central b) SBIs Corporate Centre (Apex
Accounts Office is in Kolkata Office) is in Chennai
c) Corporate Centre headed by d) SBIs Corporate Centre is in
Chairman Mumbai.
6. Each Business Group is headed by
a) Deputy Managing Director b) Managing Director
c) Chief General Manager d) Chairman
7. State Bank of India has adopted _____villages under SBI ka ApnaGaon
Scheme.
a) 1,272 b) 2,272
c) 1,722 d) 2,722
8. The Bank has ____ foreign offices in ___ countries spanning all time zones.
a) 173: 34 b) 190:36
c) 34:173 d) 34:186
9. Stressed Assets Management Group (SAMG) resolves all NPAs of Rs.___and
above across the country with a view to provide focused efforts in resolution of
NPAs.
a) 10 cr b) 1 cr
c) 100 cr d) 1000 cr
10. Asset Liability Management Committee (ALCO) is headed by
a) MD & GE CAG b) Chairman & DMD
c) MD & CCRO d) DMD & CFO
11. Strategic Training Unit has been created headed by a ________to cater to
ever increasing training needs of the Bank. There are 5 ATIs (Apex Training
Institutes) and 47 SBLCs State Bank Learning Centres) across the country.
Page 171 of 184

a) DGM (L&D) b) AGM (L&D)

c) CGM (L&D) d) CM (L&D)
12. Shareholding of president of India in State Bank of India, as on 31.03.2015
a) 51.58 b) 51.85
c) 61.32 d) 62.31
13. Consultants for BPR in SBI
a) Deloitte consultancy b) Tata consultant services
c) Mc Kinsey d) None of these
14. The following is not the Pillars of BPR
a) NPA Management b) Alternate Delivery Channels
c) Centralized Processing Centers c) Branch Re-design
15. The following is not a Central Processing Centre
a) Retail Asset Central Processing b) Currency Administration Cell
Centre (RACPC) (CAC)
c) Small and Medium Enterprise City d) Centralized Clearing Processing
Credit Centre or SMECCC Centre(CCPC)
16. Turn Around Time (TAT) for Housing Loan at BPR centre under builder tie-up
a) 6 days b) 16 days
17. SBI has _____ percentage of rural & semi urban branches.
a) 76 b) 86
c) 66 d) 26
18. CRA model is applicable for limits of ________
a) above 25lacs for all segments b) 25 lacs and above for all
segments except Personal
segment
c) above 50lacs for all segments d. d) None of the above
50 lacs and above for all segments
except Personal segment
19. If loan is given by two or more Banks jointly then it is
a) multiple banking b) consortium
c) sole banking d) None of these
20. Requirement of double signature while issuing DFT/ Bankers cheque

increased from 50000/- to .
a) 1,00,000 b) 1,50,000/-
c) 2,00,000 d) No such change
21. What is e_Booster
a) Migrating transactions from b) Migrating transactions from
branches to INB Channels branches to GCC
c) Migrating more & more d) Migrating more & more
transactions from branches to transactions from branches to
GRC ATM
22. SBI General Health Insurance pilot launched w.e.f
a) 01.09.2013 b) 02.09.2013
c) 03.09.2013 d) 04.09.2013
23. Priority Sector lending pertaining to Housing loans is reckoned up to Rs.___
a) 5 lacs b) 15lacs
Page 172 of 184

24. Abbreviation of GLIF is______.

a) General Ledger Interchange File b) General Ledger Interface File
c) General Loss Identification File d) General Loss Interface File
25. e-filing of income tax returns is mandatory for individuals with annual taxable
income of
a) Above Rs. 3.00 lacs b) Above Rs. 5.00 lacs
c) Above Rs. 7.50 lacs d) Above Rs.10.00 lacs
26. SBIs profit as on 31.03.2015 is
a) 10918 Cr b) 13201 Cr
c) 13102 Cr d) 10819 Cr
27. SBIs Gross NPA as 31.03.2015 is
a) 4.95% b) 4.25%
c) 4.70% d) 4.75%
28. SBI has sponsored_____ RRBs,
a) 3 b) 5
c) 10 d) 15
29. Interest concession for women given by SBI in which of the following scheme
a) Housing Loan b) Personal Loan
c) Agr Gold Loan d) Car Loan
30. What was the dividend paid by SBI for the financial year ended March, 2015
a) 215% b) 315%
c) 375% d) 350%
31. Net profit of SBI increased by _____% in financial year 2014-15
a) 25.20% b) 23.20%
c) 20.30% d) 22.30%
32. BCSBI means
a) Business correspondent of SBI b) Bankers Cheque of SBI
c) Banking Codes and Standards d) Bank Commission acct of SBI
Board of India
33. SBIs CASA ratio as on 31.03.2015 is
a) 34.58% b) 42.88%
c) 54.38% d) 45.38%
34. SBIs Savings Bank deposits as on 31.03.2015.
a) 513915 crores b) 564000 crores
c) 645000 crores d) 65000 crores
35. SBIs ROE as on 31.03.2015 is
a) 8.97 % b) 12.97%
c) 11.97% d) 11.17%
36. FIBU stand for
a) Financial Institutions Business Unit b) Foreign Institutions Business
Unit
c) First Institution Business unit d) Former Institution Business Unit
37. SBIs Average cost of deposits % as on 31.03.2015
a) 5.26 b) 6.34
c) 6.52 d) 5.62
38. SBIs Credit Deposit ratio for 2014-15 is
a) 77.80% b) 87.70 %
c) 84.70 % d) 87.07 %
Page 173 of 184

39. SBIs Net NPA % as on 31.03.2015 is

a) 2.43% b) 2.12%
c) 3.42% d) 4.23%
40. What is the % share of Home loans in the total retail advances of SBI as on
31.03.2015
a) 47.55% b) 37.25%
c) 67.45% d) 58.45 %
41. Aggregate amount of Members contribution and Banks contribution plus
interest /income (if any) of Pension is known as _________.
a) Pension Treasure b) Cumulative Pension
c) Pension Wealth d) Double Pension
42. Advertisement "Paisa Bolta Hai" is related to ____________.
a) Highlighting security features of b) Promotion of Credit Cards
Bank Notes
c) A slogan of Reserve Bank of India d) Promotion of Debit cards
43. Grievance Redressal Committee was reconstituted at Corporate Centre to
redress the appeals/representations of willful defaulters is headed by
a) Chairman b) MD & GE (IB)
c) DMD & GE (SAMG) d) Any DMD
44. Under Corporate Social Responsibility our Bank has taken new steps
beneficial to environment.
a) Green Champion b) Ozone Champion
c) Green Colour Banking d) Both (a) & (b)
45. Ultra Small Branches of the Banks are in the context of ______________
a) Financial Inclusion b) Focused lending for SME
c) Intensified Agricultural lending d) Priority sector lending
46. To facilitate online monitoring of currency chests maintained by us a Website
called ________has been launched.
a) CAC online b) CURRENCYCHEST-online
c) RBI online d) SBI online
th
47. 60 annual general meeting (AGM) of SBI was held at
c) Chennai d) Kolkata
48. The past and the latest data of the branch business ,environment, and
economic data is available in
a) P Report b) B.S.R. Report
c) Branch Dossier d) Weekly Abstract
49. Legal expenses incurred by the bank in respect of Recalled assets accounts
are to be debited to
a) Charges A/c - legal b) respective PB/RD A/c
c) Cash Receipt d) Charges sundries
50. Per day transaction limit(Both Cash and transfer) for customers at BC channel
increased from Rs.10000 to_________
a) Rs.12,000 b) Rs.15,000
c) Rs.25,000 d) Rs.20,000
Page 174 of 184

Organizational Structure key
1 a 2 b 3 c 4 b 5 b 6 a 7 a 8 b 9 a 10 c
11 c 12 d 13 c 14 a 15 b 16 a 17 c 18 b 19 b 20 b
21 a 22 b 23 c 24 b 25 b 26 c 27 b 28 d 29 a 30 d
31 c 32 c 33 b 34 a 35 d 36 a 37 b 38 c 39 b 40 d
41 c 42 a 43 b 44 d 45 a 46 b 47 a 48 c 49 a 50 d
Page 175 of 184

Supervisory roles and Responsibilities

1. Passing powers of MMGS-II and above

a) Rs.5,00,000/- lacs b) Rs.10,00,000/- lacs
c) Rs.4,00,000/- lacs d) Unlimited.
2. Passing powers of PO, TO is Cash Rs______ & Transfers_______ (3 months
after their date of joining)
a) Rs.20000/- and Rs.25000/- b) Rs.25000/- and Rs.50000/-
c) Rs.50000/- and Rs.100000/- d) None of the above
3. Passing powers of PO, TO is Cash Rs_____& Transfers_______ (6months
after their date of joining)
c) Rs.100000/- and Rs.200000/- d) Rs.200000/- and Rs.500000/-
4. Passing powers of JMGS I/ PO, TO is Cash Rs_____& Transfers_______
(2nd year of probation)
c) Rs.200000/- and Rs.500000/- d) None of the above.
5. Passing powers of JMGS-I designated as Accountant, Field officer, Branch
Manager, Manager of Division are
a) Cash-Rs.200000/- and Transfer- b) Cash-Rs.500000/- and
Rs.500000/- Transfer-Rs.1000000/-
c) Cash-Rs.700000/- and Transfer- d) Unlimited.
Rs.800000/-
6. The role of Assistant is redesignated as
a) Assistant (Cash and Accounts) b) Junior Associate
c) Junior Associate (Customer Support d) None of the above
and sales)
7. The role of Customer Assistant is redesignated as
a) Customer Assistant (Sales) b) Customer Assistant(Customer
support & sales)
c) Associate (Customer Support & d) None of the above.
sales)
8. The role of Senior Assistant is redesignated as
a) Senior Assistant (Sales) b) Senior Associate (Customer
support)
c) Senior Associate (Sales) d) Senior Associate (Customer
support & Sales)
9. The role of Special Assistant is redesignated as
a) Special Assistant (Sales) b) Chief Associate (Customer
support and sales)
c) Special Associate (Sales) d) Special Associate (Customer
support & Sales)
10. The role of Senior Special Assistant is redesignated as
a) Senior Special Assistant (Sales) b) Senior Special Associate
(Customer support and sales)
c) Chief Special Associate (Customer d) Chief Associate (Customer
support and sales) support and sales)
Page 176 of 184

11. Passing powers of Chief Associate (Customer Support & Sales) is Cash
Rs__________& Transfers_______
c) Rs.100000/- and Rs.400000/- d) Unlimited
12. Passing powers of Special Associate (Customer Support & Sales) is Cash
Rs_________& Transfers_______
13. Passing powers of Senior Associate (Customer Support & Sales) is Cash
Rs_________& Transfers_______
14. Passing powers of Junior Associate (Customer Support & Sales) with
capability level 1 is Cash Rs_________& Transfers_______
15. Passing powers of Associate (Customer Support & Sales) is Cash
Rs_________& Transfers_______
16. Passing powers of RM(SE) JMGS I officer is Cash Rs_________&
Transfers_______
a) Rs.200000/- and Transfer- b) Rs.200000/- and Transfer-
Rs.500000/- Rs.1000000/-
c) Cash-Rs.700000/- and Transfer- d) Unlimited
Rs.800000/-
17. Passing powers of Special Management Executives MMGS III officer for the
first 6 months and after 6 months is Cash Rs_________& Transfers_______
a) Up to 6 months : Rs.50000 & Rs.100000 a) Up to 6 months : Rs.100000 &
After 6 months : Rs.200000 & Rs.500000 Rs.200000
After 6 months : Rs.100000 &
Rs.200000
c) Up to 6 months : Rs.200000 & Rs.500000 c) None of the above.
After 6 months : Rs.500000 & Rs.800000
18. Signing powers of JMGS-I/Chief Associate (Customer support & sales) in
respect of Draft/IOI is
a) Below Rs.150000/- Individually b) Jointly with another official
Rs.150000/- and above: Jointly with having full signing powers.
another official having full signing
powers.
c) Unlimited signing powers d) None of the above.
individually
19. Drafts, Banker cheques, SC payment advices to be signed by _____ officials
if the amount is Rs.150000/- and above
a) One official b) Two officials
c) Three officials d) None of the above
20. LCs/Guarantees to be signed by______ officials irrespective of the amount

a) One official b) Two officials
c) Three officials d) None of the above
Page 177 of 184

21. Debits in Income A/cs should be authorized by

a) Branch Head b) Controlling authority
c) Accountant d) Field officer
22. Debits in Sundry Deposits should be authorized by
a) Accountant b) Controlling authority
c) Field officer d) Branch head
23. Both Debit & Credit in Suspense A/c should be authorized by
a) Accountant b) Branch head
c) Field officer d) Controlling authority
24. Retention period of power attorney register is
c) 60 years d) To be retained permanently
25. Record register, letter of Indemnity and General ledger are to be preserved
c) 60 years d) To be preserved permanently
26. Banker Cheques prepared by debiting to charges account and are
outstanding for more than 3 years are to be credited to
a) Charges(Sundries) b) Branch Exchange a/c
c) Branch Commission account d) Cannot be credited.
27. Purchases below Rs.1000/- fixed assets to be debited to
a) Fixed assets account(P&M) b) Charges account(Sundries)
c) Fixed assets (Furniture and fixtures) d) None of the above
28. Cost of furniture item (Tea poy) amounting to Rs.850/- is debited to
a) Fixed assets (Furniture and fixtures) b) Charges account (Sundries)
c) Fixed assets account (P&M) d) None of the above
29. The cost of a trunk box for an amount of Rs.700/- for the purpose of using for
cash remittances
a) Charges account b) Exchange account
c) Fixed assets account d) Commission account
30. Cheques / Instruments etc in respect of Govt / Non Govt transactions to be

passed by two officials with full passing powers for amount of
a) Rs.10 lacs and above b) Rs.25 lacs and above
c) Rs.50 lacs and above d) It is unlimited individually
31. Production of sureties may not be insisted upon while obtaining indemnity for
issuance of duplicate IOI (Draft) where the amount of IOI (Draft) is up to
Rs_____ if the applicant (purchaser) of a IOI (Draft) is considered good for
the amount.
a) Rs.5000/- b) Rs.10000/-
c) Rs.50000/- d) Rs.100000/-
32. Power of Attorneys are entered in
a) Power of Attorney register b) Branch Documents register
c) Miscellaneous security register d) Sundry deposit register
33. LIC Policy given as security for Overdrafts are entered in
Page 178 of 184

34. Death certificates, Succession certificates, Letter of Administration, Probates,

Court orders appointing receivers for property are entered in
35. Indemnity Bonds are entered in
36. Licenses, Retention limits, Insurance, Title Deed related to Banks property,
lease, agreement etc are entered in
37. The unused/ Un surrendered cheque leaves are entered in
c) Lost Document Register d) Sundry deposit register
38. DRP & BCP are entered in
c) Lost Document Register d) Sundry deposit register
39. Water droplet test (Fugitive ink test) needs to be conducted for instruments of
c) Rs.100000/- and above d) Not required in CTS
40. With effect from 01.04.2015 the interest rate charged on 5 year Senior citizen
savings scheme, 2004 is
a) 9.00% b) 9.30%
c) 9.50% d) 9.70%
41. With effect from 01.04.2015 the interest rate charged on PPF account (1968)
is
a) 8.25% b) 8.50%
c) 8.70% d) 8.75%
42. With effect from 01.04.2015 the interest rate charged on Kisan Vikas Patra is
a) 8.25% b) 8.50%
c) 8.70% d) 8.75%
43. With effect from 01.04.2015 the interest rate charged on Sukanya Samriddi
account is
a) 9.00% b) 9.20%
c) 9.50% d) 9.75%
44. In MRFTP (Market related fund transfer price mechanism), TP Bid rate means
a) Central office Interest receivable on b) Central office interest payable
deposits on advances
45. In MRFTP (Market related fund transfer price mechanism), TP offer rate
means
a) Central office Interest receivable on b) Central office interest payable
deposits on advances
46. Every year expenses on account of training of all the branch staff is
transferred to LHO on
a) 28th/29th February b) 31st January
st
c) 31 March d) On any day.
Page 179 of 184

47. Yearly entry relating to staff welfare fund is passed on

a) 31st January b) On any day.
c) 28th/29th February d) 31st March
48. Income tax register is to be preserved for atleast

c) 25 years d) permanently
49. Recoveries made on account of written off accounts are credited to
a) Charges account(Recovery from b) P & L account
return off accounts)
c) Adjusting account d) Loan account /deposit account
of the customer
50. Bank Guards name is entered in Gun license as
a) Owner b) Holder
c) Retainer d) Only BMs name entered
KEY FOR MCQ Supervisory roles and Responsibilities
1 d 2 a 3 b 4 c 5 d
6 c 7 c 8 d 9 d 10 d
11 a 12 b 13 a 14 d 15 c
16 b 17 a 18 a 19 b 20 b
21 a 22 d 23 b 24 c 25 d
26 a 27 b 28 a 29 b 30 a
31 d 32 a 33 c 34 d 35 b
36 b 37 c 38 b 39 a 40 b
41 c 42 c 43 b 44 a 45 b
46 a 47 c 48 b 49 a 50 c
Page 180 of 184

BUSINESS CORRESPONDENTS & BUSINESS FACILITATORS

Compiled by Sri.P.Padma Babu Goud, Manager (Training)
1 As per latest instructions, Savings Bank accounts opened by Business

correspondents/CSPs the instruction is
(a) Biometric machines to be (b) Signatures of the account
provided at branches in future. holders to be scanned and
withdrawls to be allowed at
branches.
(c) Transactions may be allowed (d) All the above.
at branches, based on photo
identification as in the case of
illiterate customers, till
biometric machines are
installed.
2 The services of Business facilitators to be
(a) Terminate the existing (b) Discontinue the engagement of
individual B.Fs on expiry of fresh individual B.Fs.
their agreements
wef.11.04.2012.
(c) New entity B.Fs(Corporate & (d) All the above.
NGOs) may be engaged on
selective basis and existing
entities may be reviewed
based on their contribution and
action taken.
3 An officer of the link branch will visit the CSPs once a week on fixed time and
day, and will use the visit for
(a) Monitor the activities at CSP. (b) Deposit mobilization,
Collect and check all Marketing for loans and
applications for opening of new advances, follow up for
savings account. recovery of loans/NPAs.
(c) To meet the villagers to create (d) All the above.
awareness and to get feed ack.
4 The Software that has been developed with the various objectives like
maintenance of BC/BF details, their commission details, computation of
commissions payable, MIS and performance control is.
(a) ChannelManagement Software (b) SBI connect
(c) China systems (d) B@ncs 24
5 Outsourcing of certain banking activities through Business Facilitators (BFs)
and Business Correspondents (BCs) has been permitted by which Authority?
(a) R.B.I (b) S.B.I
(c) S.E.B.I (d) I.R.D.A
6 The objectives of engaging BC/BF
(a) Greater financial inclusion (b) Increasing the out reach of the
banking sector.
(c) Only (a) (d) Both (a) & (b)
Page 181 of 184

7 Can BC/BFs source large value deposits / loans

(a) Yes (b) No
(c) None (d) Cant say
8 FIC (FINANCIAL INCLUSION CENTER) is primarily meant for
(a) Creating awareness about (b) Supporting Business
financial inclusion Correspondents
(c) RBI move (d) All the above
9 The security deposit for individual Business Correspondents is
(a) average turnover of 3 days with (b) average turnover of 2 days
minimum Rs. 0.50 lacs. with minimum Rs. 0.50lacs.
(c) average turnover of 4 days with (d) average turnover of 5 days
minimum Rs. 0.50 lacs. with minimum Rs. 0.50 lacs.
10 The minimum security deposit of Rs.10 lacs to be applicable for Entity BCs
(NGOs, Sec. 25 companies, Societies etc) is
(a) upto 1000 CSPs. (b) upto 2000 CSPs
(c) upto 3000 CSPs (d) upto 4000 CSPs
11 The maximum amount that can be accepted by a BC/CSP under message
based Cell phone channel of technology provider Eko is
(a) Rs.20000/- (b) Rs.10000/-
(c) Rs.5000/- (d) Rs.15000/-
12 The maximum amount that can be accepted in cash for deposit to a
customers account by third party in kiosk banking is
(a) Rs.20000/- (b) Rs.10000/-
(c) Rs.5000/- (d) Rs.15000/-
13 Who is the head of the committee on Financial Inclusion?
(a) V. Khelkar (b) Usha Thorat
(c) C.Rangarajan (d) Vepa Kamesam
14 At what periodicity is commission payable to BC/BF
(a) Monthly (b) Weekly
(c) Quarterly (d) Halfyearly
15 Which account is to be debited while paying commission to BC/BF?
(a) Charges fees paid to BC/ BF (b) Commission fees paid to
BC/BF
(c) Interest account (d) Suspense account
16 What is a small value transaction?
(a) Cash withdrawl/deposit upto (b) Cash withdrawl/deposit upto
Rs.10000/- Rs.1000/-
(c) Cash withdrawl/deposit upto (d) Cash withdrawl/deposit upto
Rs.5000/- Rs.100/-
17 What is the difference between a BC and BF?
(a) Both are same (b) A BF will only source
applications for deposits. A BC
in addition to the activities of
the BF will also carry out small
value transactions cash /
transfer
(c) A BC in addition to the (d) None of the above.
activities of the BF will also
carry out high value
transactions cash / transfer
Page 182 of 184

18 Whether commission is to be recovered from BC/BF in case of premature

payment of TDR?
(a) Yes. In case the pre-mature (b) Yes. In case the pre-mature
payment is before a period of payment is before a period of 6
1 year. months.
(c) Yes. In case the pre-mature (d) Yes. In case the pre-mature
payment is before a period of payment is before a period of 3
2 years. months.
19 What is the minimum period for which a term deposit can be
sourced by a BC/BF?
(a) 3 months (b) 1 year
(c) 9 months (d) 6 Months
20 Whether renewal of TDR is eligible for commission?
(a) Yes, sourced by any body (b) No such provision
(c) Yes, provided it is originally (d) None of the above
sourced by a BC/BF.
21 What is the rate of commission payable to BC/ BF on SB account?

(a) Rs.20/- is payable for every (b) Rs.10/- is payable for every
S.B account S.B account
(c) Rs.30/- is payable for every (d) Rs.5/- is payable for every S.B
S.B account account
22 ________Committee report is on Rural Credit and Micro Finance and deals

with modalities for appointment of banking correspondents
(a) Khan committee report (b) Narasimham committee
(c) Rangarajan committee (d) None of the above
23 Can BC accept cash

(a) Yes, maximum of Rs.20000/- (b) Yes, maximum of Rs.500/- per
per day per customer day per customer
(c) Yes, maximum of Rs.10000/- (d) Yes, maximum of Rs.1000/-
per day per customer per day per customer
24 Can an individual/entity affiliated to a political party be engaged as a BC/BF.?

(a) Yes (b) Yes, but with satisfactory
record
(c) None (d) No
25 Are the BCs required to make investment before commencing
transaction on behalf of the bank?
(a) Only laptop (b) The BCs need to make
investment in POS
devices,finger print capturing
machine, receipt printer and
finger print scanner, laptop and
a digital camera.
(c) None (d) Fixed amount of Rs.50000/-
26 What is a CSP?
(a) Customer Sales Point (b) Consumer sales point
(c) Customer sales procedure (d) Customer Service Point
Page 183 of 184

27 Does the BC/BF also required to maintain a complaint register?

(a) No (b) Maintained at the link branch
(c) Maintained at the R.B.O (d) Yes
28 Who will obtain insurance of the cash at the BC outlet?
(a) B.C himself (b) Link Branch
(c) Channel manager (d) Regional Business office
29 Will the BCs/BFs be given any business targets?
(a) No targets (b) Yes, Individual targets given
(c) Yes. The target given to the (d) Yes, maximum target of
Channel Manager / Channel Rs.100000/-
Manager Advisor will be
distributed among the
BCs/BFs.
30 Can the customers who have opened an account with BC Smart
Card / transact through the Branch also
(a) Yes. The customer has the (b) Yes. The customer has the
freedom to use Branch freedom to use only at CSP.
banking facilities.
(c) No such facility (d) None of the above
ANSWERS (FI)
1. d 2 d 3 d 4 a 5 a
6 d 7 b 8 b 9 a 10 a
11 b 12 b 13 c 14 a 15 a
16 a 17 b 18 a 19 d 20 c
21 b 22 a 23 a 24 d 25 b
26 d 27 d 28 a 29 c 30 a
Page 184 of 184

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(STUDY MATERIAL FOR PROMOTION EXAMINATIONS)

STATE BANK LEARNING CENTRE

Date : 21st January, 2016

Asst General Manager

S.NO. NAME CELL NO. EMAIL ID @sbi.co.in

Shri. D. Syam Prasad

Shri. P. Padma Babu Goud

Shri. R. Prabhakara Rao

Smt. S. Arun Jyothi

Shri. A.S.R.K.K. Sarma

Shri K.Giridhar Reddy

Shri. K. Bala Subramanyam

MS Maria Begum maria.begum

Shri K.Rajesh Kumar karri.kumar

Office Phone Nos.

SBI HOUSING LOAN SCHEME

Prepared by Shri R Prabhakara Rao, Manager (Training)

13. What is the rate of interest to CRE Maxgain loan

26. Housing loans up to _____amount is reckoned under priority sector advances

51. Minimum loan amount under Maxgain Home loan

62. SBI Home loan PAL(Pre approved limit) facility is available

80. A concession of _________ over the corresponding interest rate applicable to

82. Maximum loan under Earnest Money Deposit Scheme is

Compiled by Shri R Prabhakara Rao, Manager (Training)

1. A car loan can be sanctioned under which of the facilities?

35. Which mode of disbursement is correct in case of car loans?

55. In the case of short-term promotional drives, the G. M. Of Network can

58. Who will be borrower in case of NRI Car loan scheme?

72. Loan amount under Loyalty car Loan

74. Processing fee under Loyalty Car Loan Scheme

P SEGMENT LOANS (OTHER THAN HOUSING AND CAR LOANS)

Prepared by Shri R Prabhakara Rao, Manager (Training)

a) Vocational training & skill b) Medical courses in

37 Government of India has formulated a scheme of providing Interest Subsidy for

LOANS AGAINST BANK DEPOSITS/ SHARES/ GOLD LOANS/ NSCS

a) 20 lacs in Demat form 10 lacs b) 15 lacs

c) Maximum Rs.50,000/- d All of these

84 Prepayment penalty for Xpress Credit ?

c) Both of the above d) None of these

87 Maximum repayment for SBI Saral Personal Loan ?

LOANS AGAINST PROPERTY:

LOAN POLICY GUIDELINES:

96 Penal Interest should not be charged for loans upto ?

c) Both of the above d) None of these

99 Account status BLANK in CIBIL report indicates ?

OTHER P-SEGMENT LOANS - ANSWERS

COMMERCIAL & INSTITUTIONAL FINANCE (C&I)

Compiled by Ms. Arun Jyothi, Manager (Training)

1 1. What are two types of Ratings we have in New CRA?

c) Quarterly intervals within 6 weeks d) Half yearly intervals within 6 weeks

c) overall ceiling for the Bank as a d) Margin on advances

c) it is a part and parcel of PBF d) none of the above

40 Which one of these ratios is not a Liquidity ratio?

66 According to Basel-II, a corporate is a unit having annual turnover of---

Compiled by Ms. Arun Jyothi, Manager (Training)

verification of title the panel advocate

SME ASSET PRODUCTS

Compiled by Ms. Arun Jyothi, Manager (Training)

Please choose the correct answer from the given alternatives :

1. The maximum amount of loan that can be sanctioned to a Manufacturing unit

10. Which of the following is true?

c) Rs.10 Lacs fro Traders & Rs.20 d) Rs.25 Lacs

Scoring Model. eligible for the loan.