Dgca Module 12 Part 07 PDF

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12.13 Ice and Rain Protection (ATA 30) 12.14 Landing Gear (ATA 32) 12.15 Lights (ATA 33) 12.16 Pneumatic/Vacuum (ATA 36)
12.13, Ice and Rain Protection (ATA 30). B- independent on each side but with the
same power source.
C- independent on each side with different
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power sources.
Correct Answer is. independent on each
Q. 1. How is a serrated rod ice detector side with different power sources.
bench tested?. Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems,
A- Screwdriver torque test. Pallett, Page 178.
B- By a motor load test.
C- Motor test and go / no-go gap
measurement. Q. 6. Prior to securing a leading edge de-
Correct Answer is. Screwdriver torque icing boot you must.
test. A- remove all paint.
Explanation. Retard rotation [of the B- paint the surface.
detector] with slight thumb pressure using a C- shave rivet to prevent further abrasion.
torque screwdriver.' Ref: CAIPs AL/11-6.
Correct Answer is. remove all paint.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/11-1 4.2.2.
Q. 2. Windshield heating provides.
A- thermal expansion for a tighter fit. Q. 7. On a 'hot rod' type of ice detector, it
B- impact resistance enhancement. is switched on.
C- increases strength to resist cabin A- all the time.
pressure. B- when selected by the crew.
Correct Answer is. impact resistance C- when in the air.
enhancement. Correct Answer is. when selected by the
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician crew.
Airframe Textbook Page 13-6 (last Explanation. AL/11-6 3.2.1.
paragraph).
Q. 8. Ice formation on wings is due to.

Q. 3. At what pressure and temperature is
anti ice fluid applied?. A- suspended ice crystals melting on contact
A- 7 F at 100 PSI. with the wing and instantly re-freezing.
B- 70 C at 100 PSI. B- ice crystals forming layers on contact
C- 70 F at 10 PSI. with the wing.
Correct Answer is. 70 C at 100 PSI. C- supercooled water changing state on
Explanation. CAIPs AL/11-3 5.2.2. contact with the wing.
Correct Answer is. supercooled water
changing state on contact with the wing.
Q. 4. The advantage of leading edge fluid Explanation. AL/11-6 2.
de-icing is.
A- less of a fire hazard.
B- aerodynamic shape is not disturbed. Q. 9. When a vibrating rod ice detector has
C- more efficient. de-iced, the warning lamp on the flight deck.
Correct Answer is. aerodynamic shape is
not disturbed. A- goes out immediately.
Explanation. The advantage of leading edge B- goes out after one more cycle.
fluid de-icing is aerodynamic shape is not C- goes out after a set period of time.
disturbed. Correct Answer is. goes out after a set
period of time.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/11-6 3.4.1.
Q. 5. On large transport aircraft, the
windshield wiper system is.
Page
A- one system for both sides but with the Q. 10. De-misting of passenger windows is
same power source. provided by.
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A- sealed window. C- use a pneumatic motor to drive

B- an electrical heating element. windscreen wipers.
C- air from the cabin. Correct Answer is. use engine bleed air at
Correct Answer is. air from the cabin. high velocity to remove water droplets from
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-24 fig 1. windscreen.
Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Technician
Airframe Textbook page 13-18.
Q. 11. A deicer boot is completely bonded to
the leading edge to.
A- provide smoother airflow over leading Q. 15. Windscreen wiper torque tests are
edge. carried out at.
B- prevent electrical static build up. A- blade attachment end.
C- provide more efficient deicer cycles. B- centre point of the blade.
Correct Answer is. prevent electrical static C- the shaft end.
build up. Correct Answer is. the shaft end.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/11-1 3.4 (unless Explanation. NIL.
they mean 'bonded' as in cemented. In
which case the answer is b).
Q. 16. Windscreen autotransformers.
Q. 12. In a cockpit window heater system, A- step down voltage.

the autotransformer. B- step up voltage.
A- supplies DC power for heating. C- are used to supply extra current under
B- supplies AC Power for heating. difficult conditions.
C- steps up output for severe weather Correct Answer is. step up voltage.
conditions. Explanation. AL/11-4 4.2.2.
Correct Answer is. steps up output for
severe weather conditions.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Q. 17. An ice deposit formed when liquid
Pallett Page 62/63 (Note: a transformer water flows over the airframe before
cannot 'supply'. freezing, and which is dense, tough and
sticks closely to the surface is called.
Q. 13. Windshield rain repellent is applied. A- glaze Ice.

B- rime Ice.
A- when rain is on windows and spread by C- hoar Frost.
wipers. Correct Answer is. glaze Ice.
B- before rain and spread on window Explanation. NIL.
surface by wipers.
C- when in heavy rain so vision is
unobscured. Q. 18. When testing pitot head heaters.
Correct Answer is. when rain is on
windows and spread by wipers. A- they can only be checked by noting the
Explanation. Jeppesen, A&P Airframe temperature rise of the probe.
Textbook Page 13-17. B- they must only be switched on for the
http://www.b737.org.uk/iceandrain.h minimum time required to check
tm serviceability.
C- they should be switched on for five
minutes to allow to stabilise before taking
Q. 14. Pneumatic rain removal systems. ammeter readings.
Correct Answer is. they must only be
A- use engine bleed air at high velocity to switched on for the minimum time required
remove water droplets from windscreen. to check serviceability.
B- are not permitted on large transport Explanation. NIL.
Page
aircraft.
Q. 19. A rotary knife edge ice detector A- stainless steel.

provides warning of ice by. B- Monel.
A- increased torque caused by ice formation C- nylon.
slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a Correct Answer is. nylon.
warning light in the cockpit. Explanation. NIL.
B- decreased torque caused by ice
formation slowing the rotating wheel and
illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. Q. 24. When operating a windscreen wiper
C- ice formation stopping the rotation of a on the ground, make sure to.
rotary knife edge and illuminating a warning A- use slow wiper only.
light in the cockpit. B- use water as lubricant when operating.
Correct Answer is. decreased torque C- place soft cloth between blade and
caused by ice formation slowing the rotating window.
wheel and illuminating a warning light in the Correct Answer is. use water as lubricant
cockpit. OR increased torque caused by ice when operating.
formation slowing the rotating wheel and Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 6-8 para 5.1.2.
illuminating a warning light in the cockpit.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems,
Pallett, page 174.
Q. 25. What is run-back ice?.
A- Glaze ice.
Q. 20. Windscreen heating is supplied from. B- Rime ice.
C- Glime ice.
A- frequency wild generator, direct to the Correct Answer is. Glaze ice.
windscreen. Explanation. AC20-147.
B- DC generator, via a transformer.
C- frequency wild generator, via a rectifier. 12.14, Landing Gear (ATA 32).
Correct Answer is. frequency wild

generator, direct to the windscreen.
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems,
Pallett, page173, fig.10-29.
Q. 1. Spongy brakes are usually a result of.
Q. 21. A wing thermal anti-ice annunciator is A- internal leakage.

illuminated permanently in flight deck B- air in the system.
without selection being made. The most C- external leakage.
probable cause would be. Correct Answer is. air in the system.
A- a short circuit. Explanation. CAAIPs 5-8 Jeppesen A&P
B- an open circuit. Technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-31.
C- normal.
Correct Answer is. a short circuit.
Explanation. NIL. Q. 2. Over inflated tyres may cause
damage to the.
A- wheel hub.
Q. 22. Air for anti-icing of the wings is B- wheel flange.
obtained from. C- brake drum.
A- air conditioning ducting. Correct Answer is. wheel flange.
B- engine compressors. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician
C- a combustion heater. Airframe Textbook Page 1-32.
Correct Answer is. engine compressors.
Explanation. NIL.
Q. 3. A brake debooster valve is provided
for.
Page
Q. 23. The usual material for pipelines in a A- increasing the pressure and applying the
fluid deice system. brakes rapidly.
B- applying brake pressure slowly and B- The leg is serviceable - the separator has
releasing the brakes quickly. bottomed.
C- decreasing the pressure and slowly C- Leaking air/oil seals.
releasing the brakes. Correct Answer is. The leg is serviceable -

Correct Answer is. applying brake pressure the separator has bottomed.
slowly and releasing the brakes quickly. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-6.
Explanation. NIL. www.adtl.army.mil/cgi-
bin/atdl/fm/1-509/ch10.html
Q. 9. The type of fluid in an oleo strut will
depend upon.
Q. 4. Tubeless tyres are stored. A- the type of seal material.
A- at 15 to 20 P.S.I. B- heat generated in operation of the
B- vertically. system.
C- horizontally maximum of four high with C- type of fluid most readily available.
smallest diameter tyre on top. Correct Answer is. heat generated in
Correct Answer is. vertically. operation of the system.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Explanation. The type of fluid in an oleo
Airframe Textbook Page 9-47 CAIPs AL/3-18 strut will depend upon heat generated in
15.1. operation of the system.
Q. 5. A badly corroded and pitted brake Q. 10. A restrictor valve.

disk will. A- speed up the flow in one direction.
A- produce a loss of fluid. B- may be used to slow down undercarriage
B- wear brake pads too quickly, and should extension.
be replaced. C- restrict the extent of travel of the
C- be serviceable, and provide better grip. undercarriage.
Correct Answer is. may be used to slow
Correct Answer is. wear brake pads too down undercarriage extension.
quickly, and should be replaced. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-6 Page 7&8.
Explanation. Badly corroded brakes should
be replaced.
Q. 11. The function of the oil in a shock
absorber is to.
Q. 6. How much oxygen is in a tyre (as a A- absorb the landing shock.
maximum)?. B- damp the rebound.
A- 5% by pressure. C- ensure the separator does not bottom.
B- 5% by volume. Correct Answer is. damp the rebound.
C- 15% by volume. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P technician
Correct Answer is. 5% by volume. Airframe Textbook Page 9-5.
Explanation. AWN 70, and JAR 25.733.
Q. 12. The purpose of the flutter plate in a

Q. 7. A tyre specification 32 * 10.75-14. shock absorber is to.
What does the 10.75 refer to?. A- permit free flow of oil during compression
A- Overall diameter. and restriction of oil during extension.
B- Section Width. B- restrict the compression of the air.
C- Bead diameter. C- separate the oil from the air.
Correct Answer is. Section Width. Correct Answer is. permit free flow of oil
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-18 3.1. during compression and restriction of oil
during extension.
Explanation. NIL.
Q. 8. When servicing an oleo, fluid comes
out of the air valve when the leg is
Page
depressurised?. Q. 13. Made up wheels should be stored.

A- Separator plate stuck open.
A- horizontal no more than 4 high. Explanation. AL/3-19 3.1.2 Fuse plugs

B- vertical at 20/30 PSI charge. protect the tyre from explosion due to
C- vertical at working pressure. overpressure,albeit the overpressure as a
Correct Answer is. vertical at 20/30 PSI result of temperature rise.

charge.
Explanation. CAIPS AL3-18 para 15-1 and
15-3. Q. 19. A breaker strip in an aircraft tyre is.
A- to provide a wear indication.

Q. 14. When checking for alignment of a B- to indicate the position for tyre levers.
MLG, check. C- to provide strength.
A- symmetry, twist, tracking. Correct Answer is. to provide strength.
B- symmetry, splay, tracking. Explanation. NIL.
C- symmetry, tracking, camber. www.dunlopaircrafttyres.com/tyrecar
Correct Answer is. symmetry, tracking, e/dm1172/dm1172.pdf
camber.
Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe
Textbook Page 9-13. Q. 20. If fluid leaks along with air whilst oleo
charging, this is.
A- caused by a leaky seal.
Q. 15. These markings are found on a tyre B- normal.
32 * 10.45 R 14. What does the number 32 C- due to excessive charging pressure.
mean?. Correct Answer is. caused by a leaky seal.
A- Inner diameter.
B- Outer diameter. Explanation. AL/3-6 3.3.3 iii.
C- width.
Correct Answer is. Outer diameter.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-18 3.1. Q. 21. A red dot / triangle mark on aircraft
tyres means.
A- military reference.
Q. 16. A green/grey dot marking on aircraft B- breather points.
tyre casing represents. C- the light part of the tyre.
A- military reference. Correct Answer is. the light part of the
B- breather points. tyre.
C- the light part of the tyre. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-18 3.6, CAAIPs
Correct Answer is. breather points. Leaflet 5-7 3.7.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-18 3.6, CAAIPs
Leaflet 5-7 2.4.
Q. 22. When fitting a tyre, the red dot
should be positioned.
Q. 17. In detachable flange type wheels, the A- opposite the charging valve.
flange is secured by. B- adjacent to the charging valve.
A- a retainer plate. C- on the other side of the wheel opposite
B- a lock ring. to the charging valve.
C- bolts. Correct Answer is. adjacent to the
Correct Answer is. a lock ring. charging valve.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-18 4.7.1. Explanation. Dunlop Aircraft Tyres General
Servicing Instructions Para 3.2.1.10.
Q. 18. Fuse plugs in aircraft tyres are.

Q. 23. Composite brake units.
A- for overpressure protection. A- have less weight than normal brake units
B- to deflate the tyre before removal. but fade away at high temperatures.
C- for over temperature protection. B- weigh the same as normal brake units
Page
Correct Answer is. for overpressure and fade away at high temperatures.
protection.
C- have less weight than normal brake units

and have increased efficiency at high
temperatures Q. 28. The cam plate in a nose
Correct Answer is. have less weight than undercarriage is.

normal brake units and have increased A- to align for nose wheel on nose
efficiency at high temperatures. undercarriage retraction.
Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe B- part of the shimmy damper.
Textbook Page 9-20 'Carbon Brakes'. C- for alignment of the nose wheel steering
on nose undercarriage extension.
Correct Answer is. to align for nose wheel
Q. 24. A restrictor valve can be used. on nose undercarriage retraction.
Explanation. NIL.
A- to increase the speed of undercarriage
retraction.
B- to reduce the speed of the undercarriage Q. 29. What is tyre creep related to?.
extension.
C- to increase the speed of the A- Vertical movement of the tyre.
undercarriage extension. B- Tyre moving around the wheel.
Correct Answer is. to reduce the speed of C- Horizontal movement of the tyre.
the undercarriage extension. Correct Answer is. Tyre moving around
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-6 4.2. the wheel.
Explanation. Leaflet 5-7 Para 9.
Q. 25. When an undercarriage is lowered, it

tends to creep back up. The fault could be. Q. 30. Aquaplaning' can be reduced by.
A- a stuck relief valve. A- lowering slats.

B- a leaky selector valve. B- increased flaring.
C- the emergency system. C- an anti-skid device.
Correct Answer is. a leaky selector valve. Correct Answer is. an anti-skid device.
Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. NIL.
Q. 31. Why is a hydraulic damper fitted to a

Q. 26. Vents holes are found on. nose wheel steering system?.
A- tubed and tubeless tyres. A- To centralise the nose leg assembly
B- tubed tyres. during an up selection.
C- tubeless tyres. B- To centralise the nose wheel during an
Correct Answer is. tubed and tubeless up selection.
tyres. C- To reduce vibration and shimmy.
Explanation. AL/3-18 2.4. A&P Technician Correct Answer is. To reduce vibration and
Airframe Textbook Page 9-42 says both shimmy.
tubed and tubeless. So does Dunlop General Explanation. NIL.
Servicing Instructions.
Q. 32. What decides the type of oil used in

Q. 27. At what temperature does a yellow an undercarriage leg?.
fuse plug melt at?. A- The types of seals the leg uses.
A- 200 C. B- The material of the leg.
B- 250 C. C- Neither, any oil can be used.
C- 150 C. Correct Answer is. The types of seals the
Correct Answer is. 200 C. leg uses.
Explanation. Boeing 757 Carbon Brake Explanation. NIL.
wheel, Description and Operation 32-42-82
Page
Part AHA1648 - Yellow Plug Temperature

390 F.
Q. 33. If an undercarriage oleo has B- the control column.

insufficient deflection, the likely cause is. C- a separate pilot operated control.
Correct Answer is. rudder pedals.
A- oil level too high. Explanation. Helicopter is different to a

B- loss of pressure/leakage. fixed wing due to pilot workload issues.
C- air pressure too high.
Correct Answer is. air pressure too high.
Q. 38. The fusible plugs installed in some
Explanation. NIL. aircraft wheel will.
A- facilitate servicing of the wheel assembly.
Q. 34. Some helicopters are fitted with B- melt at a specified elevated temperature.
floats. These are.
A- manufactured with one float inside C- eliminate the need to check air pressure.
another float, so that if the outer leaks it will
not cause instability. Correct Answer is. melt at a specified
B- partitioned so that any one compartment elevated temperature.
that leaks will not cause instability. Explanation. NIL.
C- monocoque structure.
Correct Answer is. partitioned so that any
one compartment that leaks will not cause Q. 39. Excessive wear in the shoulder area
instability. of an aircraft tyre is an indication of.
Explanation. NIL.
A- under-inflation.
B- excessive toe-in.
Q. 35. A fusible plug fitted to an aircraft C- over-inflation.
wheel prevents. Correct Answer is. under-inflation.
A- brakes seizure, if brake stators and Explanation. NIL.
rotors weld together under excessive
temperatures.
B- over inflation of tyres during servicing. Q. 40. Ribbed tyres with marker tie bars
C- tyre bursts due to high temperatures may be worn to.
created by excessive braking. A- 1 mm from the rib base.
Correct Answer is. tyre bursts due to high B- the base of the tie bar.
temperatures created by excessive braking. C- the top of the tie bar.
Correct Answer is. the top of the tie bar.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-8 para 3.1.3
and A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 9-6. Explanation. NIL.
Q. 41. Brake deboosters.

Q. 36. The breaker strip of a tyre is fitted. A- assist the operation of the anti-skid unit.
A- between the apex strip and the casing B- reduce the hydraulic pressure entering
piles. the brakes.
B- between the tread rubber and the casing C- increase the hydraulic pressure entering
piles. the brakes.
C- between the bead and the casing piles. Correct Answer is. reduce the hydraulic
Correct Answer is. between the tread pressure entering the brakes.
rubber and the casing piles. Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. CAAIP Leaflet 5-7 fig 1.
Q. 42. A modulator is fitted in conjunction

Q. 37. Nose wheel steering in a modern with.
Page
helicopter is by. A- anti-skid units.

A- rudder pedals. B- non-return valve.
C- brake control valves. C- carry on inflating as ice in the valve stem

Correct Answer is. anti-skid units. is no problem.
Explanation. AL/3-21 6.6. Correct Answer is. wait for ice to melt
before carrying on with inflation.

Explanation. NIL.
Q. 43. Tubed tyres are stored.
A- horizontally, up to 4 in total with the
smallest at the top. Q. 48. Un-mounted tubeless tyres must be
B- horizontally, up to 4 in total staggering stored.
them to prevent distortion of beads. A- horizontally.
C- horizontally, up to 4 in total in a rack B- in the manufactures boxes.
with supporting tubes so each tyre is C- vertically.
supported at 2 points. Correct Answer is. vertically.
Correct Answer is. horizontally, up to 4 in Explanation. AL/3-18 15.1.
total with the smallest at the top.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7 15.2.1 and
15.2.2. Q. 49. With a single oleo leg with a stub axle
used, the torque links will.
A- allow the wheel to shimmy.
Q. 44. On a main landing gear, what is B- keep the wheel in track.
positive camber?. C- assist the wheel to castor.
A- Front of wheels closer to fuselage. Correct Answer is. keep the wheel in
B- Bottom of wheels closer to fuselage. track.
C- Top of wheels closer to fuselage. Explanation. NIL.
Correct Answer is. Bottom of wheels closer
to fuselage.
Explanation. NIL. Q. 50. When fitting a tyre to a hub, the red
http://www.desertrides.com/referenc spot on the tyre should be in line with.
e/terms.php#C
A- the valve assembly.
B- opposite side to the valve assembly.
Q. 45. How is skid gear attached to a C- maker's serial number.
helicopter?. Correct Answer is. the valve assembly.
A- Attached to a spring assembly. Explanation. NIL.
B- Bolted on.
C- Welded on.
Correct Answer is. Attached to a spring Q. 51. A red or yellow line on an inner tube
assembly. would indicate.
Explanation. NIL. A- light spot.
B- heavy spot.
C- balance indicator.
Q. 46. Tyre creep could be caused by. Correct Answer is. heavy spot.
Explanation. NIL.
A- overpressure.
B- excessive wear.
C- under pressure. Q. 52. On a multi-brake unit with automatic
Correct Answer is. under pressure. adjusters, brake wear is checked by.
Explanation. NIL.
A- measuring the protrusion of the indicator
pins with the brakes released.
Q. 47. When inflating a tyre and you notice B- application of the brakes and checking
ice in the valve stem. indicator pin protrusion.
A- heat the valve stem gently with a blow C- using a go-no go gauge to measure the
torch. gap between the cylinder and the thrust
Page
B- wait for ice to melt before carrying on plate.

with inflation.
Correct Answer is. application of the A- of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the
brakes and checking indicator pin protrusion. helicopter 110 degrees either side of dead
astern.
Explanation. Dunlop component B- of at least 3 lumens, at the rear of the

maintenance manual Ch. 32-42-98. helicopter 110 degrees either side of dead
astern.
12.15, Lights (ATA 33). C- of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the
helicopter 70 degrees either side of dead
astern.
Correct Answer is. of at least 3 candelas,
at the rear of the helicopter 70 degrees
Q. 1. With helicopter lights - which of the either side of dead astern.
following is true?. Explanation. CAP 393 Rules of the Air Rule
A- Starboard light green, port light red, tail 11 (2) (a) (3).
light white.
B- Starboard light red, port light green, tail
light Red. Q. 5. How many floor path lights can you
C- Starboard light red, port light green, tail fly with unserviceable?.
light White. A- 20%.
Correct Answer is. Starboard light green, B- 15%.
port light red, tail light white. C- 25%.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Correct Answer is. 25%.
Systems 3rd Edition Page 145. Explanation. AWN 56 2.11.
Q. 2. Emergency floor lighting system is Q. 6. What is the arc of a landing light is?.
inoperative, then.
A- the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to a A- 20 .
main base. B- 11 .
B- the aircraft is allowed to fly in daylight C- 15 .
conditions only. Correct Answer is. 11 .
C- the aircraft is not allowed to fly until Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical
repaired. Systems 3rd Edition Page 146 Fig 10-1.
Correct Answer is. the aircraft is allowed
to fly empty to a main base.
Explanation. Can fly without passengers in Q. 7. The visible angle of a white tail
accordance with the MEL. No reference navigation light is.
found. A- 140 .
B- 110 .
C- 11 .
Q. 3. A fluorescent tube contains. Correct Answer is. 140 .
A- iodine coatings and rare gases. Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical
B- orange coatings, rare gases and mercury Systems 3rd Edition Page 146, and JAR
vapour. 25.1387.
C- phosphor coatings, rare gases and
mercury vapour.
Correct Answer is. phosphor coatings, rare Q. 8. Left and right navigation lights must
gases and mercury vapour. be visible through which angle?.
Explanation. NIL. A- 110 .
http://www.users.mis.net/~pthrush/li B- 125 .
ghting/flour.html C- 180 .
Correct Answer is. 110 .
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems
Q. 4. A white steady light is required. Pallett Page 146, and JAR 25.1387, and
Page
EEL/1-10 301 a).
A- 25%.
Q. 9. Cockpit dome lighting is provided by B- 10%.
the. C- None.
A- ground services bus. Correct Answer is. 25%.
B- battery bus. Explanation. JAR 25.812 (l) (1), and CAAIPs
C- battery bus and ground services bus. Leaflet 5-11 2.11.1.
Correct Answer is. battery bus and ground
services bus.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Q. 15. Cabin fluorescent lighting circuits are
Electronics, Eismin 5th edition page 256. supplied with.
A- 28 V DC.
B- 28 V AC.
Q. 10. Upper and lower strobe lights are C- 115 V AC.
coloured. Correct Answer is. 115 V AC.
A- red. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician
B- green. Airframe Textbook Page 7-76 (figure 7-115).
C- white.
Correct Answer is. red.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft
Systems Jeppesen Page 7-2. Q. 16. How are passenger reading lights
normally tested?.
A- Each one is switched on individually at
Q. 11. Cargo bay lights on a modern aircraft passenger panel.
are supplied by. B- By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch at
A- the battery bus. any passenger panel.
B- AC handling bus. C- By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch on
C- DC handling bus. the cabin attendant panel.
Correct Answer is. AC handling bus. Correct Answer is. Each one is switched on
Explanation. BAe 146 AMM (AC ground individually at passenger panel.
service busbar) although other aircraft Explanation. NIL.
(A340, B747) use 28 VDC ground bus.
Q. 17. In what position should the selector

Q. 12. What will happen if the Master Dim switch be for a standby and emergency
and test switch is switched to the on lighting system during flight?.
position?. A- ON.
A- All lights will illuminate. B- OFF.
B- Dome lights will illuminate. C- Armed.
C- Rectangular indicator lights will Correct Answer is. Armed.
illuminate. Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft
Correct Answer is. Rectangular indicator Systems 11-23.
lights will illuminate.
Explanation. NIL.
Q. 18. The emergency lighting system must
be designed so that after any single
Q. 13. Escape route lighting must not have transverse vertical separation of the fuselage
more than. during crash landing the maximum amount
A- 20% obscured. of emergency lighting that fails is.
B- 10% obscured. A- 10%.
C- 15% obscured. B- 25%.
Correct Answer is. 20% obscured. C- 15%.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. 25%.
Explanation. JAR 25.812.
Page
Q. 14. How many emergency lights are

allowed to be inoperative?.
Q. 19. A rotating beacon must have a Correct Answer is. 140 degrees and be 3
minimum light rating of. candelas minimum.
A- 20 candelas. Explanation. CAP 393 Section 2 Rules of the

B- 100 candelas. Air Para 2 a iii and CAIPs EEL/1-10 3.1 c).
C- 50 candelas.
Correct Answer is. 20 candelas.
Explanation. CAP 393 Section 2 Rules of the Q. 24. Self-illuminating signs.
Air Para. 11 (2) (d). A- are instantly seen in dark areas by
persons who are not dark adapted.
B- require a period of daylight, or intense
Q. 20. Service lights include. artificial light to operate.
A- refuelling lights, engine scanning lights, C- are self powered and contain phosphor
logo lights. and helium gas.
B- avionics bay lights, engine scanning Correct Answer is. are instantly seen in
lights, baggage compartment lights. dark areas by persons who are not dark
C- baggage compartment lights, avionics adapted.
bay lights, refuelling lights. Explanation. EEL/1-10 4.8.
Correct Answer is. baggage compartment
lights, avionics bay lights, refuelling lights.
Explanation. EEL/1-10 3.5. Q. 25. When an annunciator light is selected
to 'DIM', the resistor is in.
A- parallel with the light and the transistor
Q. 21. If the 'blow-back' device on a landing is not conducting.
lamp operates, how is it reset?. B- series with the light and the transistor is
A- Select full 'RETRACT'. not conducting.
B- The linkage must be repositioned and C- series with the light and the transistor is
latched when the aircraft is on the ground. conducting.
C- It cannot. The unit must be replaced Correct Answer is. series with the light
because of the high stress loads and the transistor is conducting.
experienced. Explanation. The transistor is conducting all
Correct Answer is. Select full 'RETRACT'. the time the light is switched on. Pallett -
Aircraft Electrical Systems. Page 153.
Explanation. EEL/1-10 3.3.1.
Q. 26. Storm lights are usually fluorescent

Q. 22. Before touching or disconnecting a lights that are switched on.
strobe light head, a time period must elapse A- and the glare-shield lights are
to avoid electrical shock or burning. That automatically dimmed.
time period is at least. B- to reduce the effect of lightning on the
A- 2 minutes. pilot's sight.
B- 1 minute. C- because lightning has less effect on
C- 5 minutes. fluorescent lamp units.
Correct Answer is. 2 minutes. Correct Answer is. to reduce the effect of
Explanation. EEL/1-10 5.5. lightning on the pilot's sight.
Explanation. NIL.
http://www.flightsim.com/cgi/kds?$=
Q. 23. The rear light of an aircraft must be main/special/real777.htm
white and, in addition, must show through
an inclusive angle of.
A- 110 degrees and be 40 candelas Q. 27. Captain and First Officer's 'Dome'
minimum. lights can be dimmed.
B- 140 degrees and be 3 candelas A- individually - they are wired in parallel.
minimum. B- First Officer's only in emergency mode.
C- 110 degrees and be 5 candelas
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minimum. C- together - they are wired in series.
Correct Answer is. together - they are B- Neon gas and blue.
wired in series. C- Helium gas and white.
Explanation. Pallett - Aircraft Electrical Correct Answer is. Xenon Gas and blue-
Systems. Page 153. white.
Explanation. EEL/1-10 3.2.3.
Q. 28. In the CWS system, the caution light

is coloured. Q. 34. The helicopter has a partial failure of
A- amber. its emergency lighting system.
B- red. A- ground the aircraft.
C- green. B- ferry flight to main base for rectification.
Correct Answer is. amber.
Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-10 4.4.1. C- continue with reduced passenger load.
Correct Answer is. continue with reduced
passenger load.
Q. 29. On a CWS, which has the highest Explanation. A user who got this question,
priority?. queried it with the CAA. He was told (by the
A- Fire warning. CAA assessor) that the answer is b.
B- Hydraulic pump failure. However, no reference has been found.
C- Duct overheat.
Correct Answer is. Fire warning.
Explanation. NIL. Q. 35. Navigation lights are supplied by the
following circuit.
A- Single circuit.
Q. 30. What inert gas is used in a typical B- Individual circuits
strobe light?. C- Dual circuit.
A- Freon. Correct Answer is. Single circuit.
B- Halon. Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and
C- Xenon. Electronics Eismin Page 250.
Correct Answer is. Xenon.
Explanation. NIL.
Q. 36. Automatic no smoking sign will
illuminate.
Q. 31. Floor proximity lighting is a A- when landing gear doors are not closed.
mandatory requirement and each light
should be spaced. B- below 10,000ft and descending.
A- at 70 inch intervals. C- when landing gear is up.
B- at 40 inch intervals. Correct Answer is. below 10,000ft and
C- at 60 inch intervals. descending.
Correct Answer is. at 40 inch intervals. Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-11 2.7.1.
12.16, Pneumatic/Vacuum (ATA 36).
Q. 32. Tritium Gas is used in a.

A- strobe light.
B- landing Light.
C- self illuminating lights. Q. 1. When the moisture separator is
Correct Answer is. self illuminating lights. purged in a pneumatic system, it dumps.
Explanation. EEL/1-10 4.8.1. A- just the moisture trap.

B- the system between compressor and
regulator valve.
Q. 33. A strobe light is a light unit that takes C- the whole system.
form of glass tube filled with which gas and Correct Answer is. just the moisture trap.
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its light colour is what?.

A- Xenon Gas and blue-white.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician C- all the system.

Airframe Textbook Page 8-54. CAIPs AL/3- Correct Answer is. between the
22. compressor and the PRV.

Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-22 Fig 1.
Q. 2. The pneumatic system pump is a.

Q. 7. On a high pressure pneumatic
A- centrifugal type. system, if the drain plug for oil and water is
B- rotor vane type. left open for long periods of time, the system
C- piston type. would.
Correct Answer is. piston type. A- lose all pressure.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician B- lose pressure from the compressor side
Airframe Textbook Page 8-56, Although only.
smaller systems may have a vane type. C- lose pneumatic pressure partially.
Correct Answer is. lose pressure from the
compressor side only.
Q. 3. In a pneumatic system, the Explanation. AL/3-22 figure 1.
maintainer valve will be fitted in supply lines
to.
A- essential equipment. Q. 8. Two compressors driven by separate
B- non-essential equipment. engines use.
C- all equipment. A- Interconnected to share loads.
Correct Answer is. non-essential B- PRVs.
equipment. C- NRVs to prevent compressors driving
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-22. Maintainer each other.
valves work in same way as those in Correct Answer is. NRVs to prevent
hydraulic systems (hence the reference). compressors driving each other.
Although they protect the flow to the Explanation. NIL.
essential systems they do so by being
situated in the non-essential lines, and
closing off if the pressure drops. Q. 9. What is important about the air
entering a dry air pump?.
A- It must be filtered.
Q. 4. High pressure pneumatic source is a. B- It must be pressure controlled.
C- It must be temperature controlled.
A- centrifugal Compressor. Correct Answer is. It must be filtered.
B- butterfly pump. Explanation. NIL.
C- reciprocating pump. http://www.avweb.com/news/maint/
Correct Answer is. reciprocating pump. 182905-1.html
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23 4.1.
Q. 10. What type of compressor is used on a

Q. 5. High pressure pneumatic pump is a. pneumatic system?.
A- Positive displacement type.
A- reciprocating pump. B- Rotary vane type.
B- butterfly pump. C- Spur gear type.
C- spur gear. Correct Answer is. Positive displacement
Correct Answer is. reciprocating pump. type.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23 4.1. Explanation. NIL.
12.17.
Q. 6. If the pneumatic water drain trap is
left open for a long time it will drain.
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A- between the compressor and the PRV.

B- just the moisture trap. Q. 1. Primary Radar is.
A- interrogation of aircraft's transponder. Correct Answer is. the pilot must resume
B- reflected signal from aircraft's own radar. control and land the aircraft.
Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control

C- for ground use only. p211
Correct Answer is. reflected signal from
aircraft's own radar.
Explanation. NIL. Q. 6. On the direct current short shunt
generator circuit shown, output voltage at
the load is 200 V. What is the voltage across
Q. 2. A battery in situ on an aircraft. the shunt winding?.
A- may charge slowly if initial battery

voltage is low.
B- may charge at an excessive rate if initial
battery voltage is low.
C- charges at a fairly constant rate because
generator voltage remains constant.
Correct Answer is. may charge at an
excessive rate if initial battery voltage is low.
Explanation. NIL.
A- 206 V.
Q. 3. To parallel an alternating current B- 212 V.
generator with one or more other C- 200 V.
generators, phase A must be. Correct Answer is. 200 V.
A- 90 degrees out-of-phase and ABC. Explanation. The 10 ohm shunt, 0.06 ohm
B- in-phase with other generators and ABC. and the 0.04 ohm are the field windings.The
generator output is split between the 0.06
C- in-phase with other generators and CBA ohm and the 100 ohm load, but only by
only. 0.06/100 x200 V = 0.12 V (across the 0.06
Correct Answer is. in-phase with other ohm). So the voltage across the shunt
generators and CBA only. winding is closer to 200 V than the other two
Explanation. NIL. answers.
Q. 4. On an unparalleled twin generator

alternating current system, the phase of the
second generator to be brought on line.
A- must be in-phase prior to paralleling.

B- is important if the first generator fails.
C- is unimportant.
Correct Answer is. must be in-phase prior
to paralleling.
Explanation. NIL.
Q. 5. When an autopilot is Fail Passive. Q. 7. On a direct current circuit, current

limiters.
A- the aircraft reverts to fail operational A- prevent excessive current to the load
autopilot. circuit.
B- the autoland can continue. B- prevent excessive current to the field
C- the pilot must resume control and land circuit.
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the aircraft. C- allow excessive current to the load

circuit.
Correct Answer is. prevent excessive Correct Answer is. the aircraft's indicated
current to the load circuit. altitude is below decision height.
Explanation. Explanation. NIL.
Q. 8. On a direct current twin generator

system, the paralleling relay contacts close
when the oncoming generators voltage is.
A- the same as bus voltage.

B- above bus voltage.
C- below bus voltage.
Correct Answer is. above bus voltage.
Explanation. NIL.
Q. 9. On an aircraft's navigation displays,

distance measuring equipment gives.
A- slant range to beacon.

B- ground range to beacon.
C- height and range to beacon.
Correct Answer is. slant range to beacon.
Explanation. NIL.
Q. 10. On a modern aircraft flight

instrumentdisplay system, Radio deviation is
shown on.
A- EADI.
B- EHSI.
C- EHSI & EADI.
Correct Answer is. EHSI & EADI.
Explanation. Radio deviation is VOR or ILS.
The deviation indicator is duplicated. It is on
the EHSI and EADI.
Q. 11. On a flight management system, the

database is updated every.
A- 2 Months.
B- 1 Month.
C- 3 Months.
Correct Answer is. 1 Month.
Explanation. NIL.
Q. 12. The decision height light will

illuminate when.
A- the aircraft's indicated altitude is above
decision height.
B- the decision height is selected.
C- the aircraft's indicated altitude is below
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decision height.

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IN - DGCA CAR -66 MODULE 12 PART -07

Q. 8. Ice formation on wings is due to.

A- sealed window. C- use a pneumatic motor to drive

Q. 12. In a cockpit window heater system, A- step down voltage.

Q. 13. Windshield rain repellent is applied. A- glaze Ice.

Q. 19. A rotary knife edge ice detector A- stainless steel.

Correct Answer is. frequency wild

Q. 21. A wing thermal anti-ice annunciator is A- internal leakage.

releasing the brakes. Correct Answer is. The leg is serviceable -

Q. 5. A badly corroded and pitted brake Q. 10. A restrictor valve.

Q. 12. The purpose of the flutter plate in a

depressurised?. Q. 13. Made up wheels should be stored.

A- horizontal no more than 4 high. Explanation. AL/3-19 3.1.2 Fuse plugs

Correct Answer is. vertical at 20/30 PSI result of temperature rise.

A- to provide a wear indication.

Q. 18. Fuse plugs in aircraft tyres are.

C- have less weight than normal brake units

Correct Answer is. have less weight than undercarriage is.

Q. 25. When an undercarriage is lowered, it

A- a stuck relief valve. A- lowering slats.

Q. 31. Why is a hydraulic damper fitted to a

Q. 32. What decides the type of oil used in

Part AHA1648 - Yellow Plug Temperature

Q. 33. If an undercarriage oleo has B- the control column.

A- oil level too high. Explanation. Helicopter is different to a

Q. 41. Brake deboosters.

Q. 42. A modulator is fitted in conjunction

helicopter is by. A- anti-skid units.

C- brake control valves. C- carry on inflating as ice in the valve stem

before carrying on with inflation.

B- wait for ice to melt before carrying on plate.

Explanation. Dunlop component B- of at least 3 lumens, at the rear of the

EEL/1-10 301 a).

Q. 17. In what position should the selector

Q. 14. How many emergency lights are

A- 20 candelas. Explanation. CAP 393 Section 2 Rules of the

Q. 26. Storm lights are usually fluorescent

minimum. C- together - they are wired in series.

Q. 28. In the CWS system, the caution light

Q. 32. Tritium Gas is used in a.

Explanation. EEL/1-10 4.8.1. A- just the moisture trap.

its light colour is what?.

Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician C- all the system.

22. compressor and the PRV.

Q. 2. The pneumatic system pump is a.

Q. 10. What type of compressor is used on a

A- between the compressor and the PRV.

Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control

A- may charge slowly if initial battery

Q. 4. On an unparalleled twin generator

A- must be in-phase prior to paralleling.

Q. 5. When an autopilot is Fail Passive. Q. 7. On a direct current circuit, current

the aircraft. C- allow excessive current to the load

Explanation. Explanation. NIL.

Q. 8. On a direct current twin generator

A- the same as bus voltage.

Q. 9. On an aircraft's navigation displays,

A- slant range to beacon.

Q. 10. On a modern aircraft flight

Q. 11. On a flight management system, the

Q. 12. The decision height light will

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