Bulacan State University

City of Malolos
COLLEGE OF NURSING
NCM-101A
Final Examination
__________________________________________________________________________________
Direction: Write the letter that corresponds to your answer on the answer sheet provided.
Use CAPITAL LETTER only. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
Family Planning
1. Abstinence is perhaps the surest & the most effective way to prevent pregnancy,
but obviously not the best. Educating the client about abstinence leads to less
protection when it comes to sexual intercourse that leads to higher STD rates.A
client asked you about a natural way to prevent pregnancy by checking her
cervical mucus. This is known as:
a. Symptothermal method c. Cervical Mucus Method
b. Billings method d. All of these
2. A more effective way than cervical mucus method alone, in this method,the client
will combine both BBT as well as cervical mucus method:
a. Symptothermal method c. LAM
b. Billings method d. Coitus interruptus
3. May 23, 2012 Julie experience a drop in temperature followed by an increase in
temperature the following day. When should she avoid coitus?
a. May 22, 2012 c. May 24, 25, 26 & 27, 2012
b. May 24 to June 10, 2012 d. May 24 to June 5, 2012
4. LAM is effective only during the first:
a. Month c. Year
b. 3 months d. 6 months
5. If Julie have a record of the following length of menstrual cycle: Cycle 1 -26, Cycle
2-25, Cycle 3 26, Cycle 4-29, Cycle 5-28, Cycle 6-29, Cycle 7-25, Cycle 8-26,
Cycle 9-29, Cycle 10-28, Cycle 11-25, Cycle 12-29. When should she abstain
sexual intercourse if she will use the biological method?
a. 7th to 18th day of Menstrual cycle c. 8th to 18th day of Menstrual
cycle
b. 6th to 17th day of menstrual cycle d. 9th to 19th day of menstrual cycle
6. Julie gets her period on January 8, 2012 & then again on February 2, 2012. How
long is her menstrual cycle days?
a. 25 b. 26 c. 27 d.28
7. In selecting the best contraceptive methods, which of the following should be at
the highest priority?
a. Acceptance of the couple c. culture of the couple
b. Religious belief of the couple d. expert opinion of the nurse
8. Side effects of oral contraceptives include which of the following except?
a. Weight gain b. nausea c. vomiting d. uterine
cramping
9. This method of contraception is most effective if accompanied by spermicides
a. Diaphragm b. condom c. IUD d. both a & b
10. In Billings method of family planning, the finding of clear, stretchable,
lubricated cervical mucus is a sign that a woman is:
a. Fertile b. infertile c. nearing her menses d. none of
them
11. In the rhythm method, calendar ovulation in a woman with a 30-day cycle is
estimated to occur by which period of the menstrual cycle?
a. 16th day b. 14th day c. 18th day d. 12th day
12. This is a social/ behavioural method of family planning characterized by
absence of ejaculation
a. Coitus reservatus b. coitus interruptus c. coitus interfemura d.
abstinence
13. The long acting injectable methods of family planning given intramuscularly
every 3 months is
a. Ortho-Evra b. Methergine c. Depo-Provera d. Norplant
14. This is a positive sign of ovulation characterized by the ability of the mucus
to be stretched to about 10-13 cm:
a. Mittleschmerz b. spinnbarkeit c. both a & b c. implantation
15. Menstruation in breastfeeding woman is usually:
a. Scanty c. excessive
 b. Delayed; comes after puerperium d. absent called the lactation
amenorrhea
16. Oral contraceptive pill prevent pregnancy by suppressing:
a. Ovulation b. fertilization c. implantation d. menstruation
17. In Bilateral tubal ligation which of the following is ligated?
a. Vas deferens b. fallopian tube c. ovaries d. uterus
18. A client seeking advice about contraception asks the nurse about an IUD.
The nurse explains that the IUD provides contraception by:
a. Blocking the cervical os
b. increasing the mobility of the uterus
c. Preventing the sperm from reaching the vagina
d. IUDs interfere with either fertilization or implantation promoting contraception
19. In using the natural method the nurse should instruct the client to begin
counting the first day of her cycle as
a. The day the menstrual period ceases
b. The day of ovulation
c. The first day of her menstrual period
d. The first day after her menstrual period ceases
20. When oral contraceptives are prescribed for a client the nurse should teach
the client about the potential of developing:
a. Cervicitis c. fibrocystic disease
b. Ovarian cysts d. breakthrough bleedings
21. A client is scheduled for a BTL. Preoperative teaching should include
a. You can go home 1 hour after surgery
b. You need to use birth control until you return in 6 weeks
c. You must avoid lifting heavy object & strenuous exercise for a few
weeks
d. If you decide you want children, the operation is easily reversible.
22. The nurse teaches that the most frequent side effect associated with the use
of IUDs is:
a. Ectopic pregnancy c. Rupture of the uterus
b. Excessive menstrual flow d. Expulsion of the IUD
23. The nurse should explain that the most common problem that has been
associated with IUDs when they are used is:
a. Perforation of the uterus
b. Discomfort associated with coitus
c. Development of vaginal infections
d. Spontaneous expulsion of the device
24. Which method of family planning is safe for breastfeeding mothers as it does
not interfere with the normal flow of milk:
a. DMPA c. IUD
b. Norplant d. pills
25. The use of condom ensures protection from certain STD such as
a. Genital warts b. gonorrhea/syphilis c. pubic lice d. UTI
26. Selecting a method of family planning should be decision of:
a Husband only c. wife only
b Health care worker d. both husband & wife
27. Mariane, a 17 year old, asks how tubal ligation prevents pregnancy. Which
would be the best answer?
a Prostaglandin released from the cut fallopian tubes can kill sperm
b Sperm cannot enter the uterus because the cervical entrance is blocked
c Sperm can no longer reach the ova because the fallopian tubes are
blocked
d The ovary no longer releases ova as there is no where for them to go

NEWBORN
28. Immunity transferred to the fetus from an immune mother through the
placenta is:
a. Active natural immunity
b. Active artificial immunity
c. Passive natural immunity
d. Passive artificial immunity
29. A baby is delivered precipitously in the labor room. The nurse initial action
should be to:
a. Establish airway for the baby
 b. Ascertain the condition of the fundus
c. Quickly tie & cut the umbilical cord
d. Move mother & baby to the delivery room
30. The father who was allowed to view the baby soon after birth noticed the
white cheesy substance all over the babys body. You would explain this is
a. Molding c. milia
b. Vernix caseosa d. lanugo
31. You would expect the baby to have his first stool within
a. 8 to 10 hours b. 24 hours c. 2 days d. 5 days
32. The proportion of the newborns head to its total length is
a. b. 1/3 c. d. 1/8
33. Which of the following is not included in the APGAR score?
a. Weight b. color c. respiratory effort d. muscle
tone
34. All of the following are considered in the evaluation of prematurity except
a. Birth weight c. color of skin
b. Length of gestation d. body length
35. Slate color marks of the newborn that appears on the buttocks or lower
portion of the backs
a. Jaundice c. milia
b. Mongolian spot d. skin turgor
36. An infant with respiratory distress will show all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Respiration between 30-40 c. expiratory grunt
b. Flaring of the nostrils d. cyanosis
37. As part of the initial evaluation of the newborn, you count the babys cord
vessels. Normally, these are:
a. Two vessels: one vein, one artery c. three vessels: one artery, two vein
b. Three vessels: one vein, two arteries d. four vessels: two vein, two
arteries
38. As you were moving about the nursery, you jarred the bassinette of a
newborn. You noticed that he assumed an embracing position. What action should
you take?
a. Check the babys diaper if he passed out stool
b. report your findings to the doctor
c. Review the babys birth record for the type of anesthesia used during delivery
d. Recognize that this is a normal response
39. Fetal circulation differs from the newborns circulation. Which among the
following is true in the fetal circulation?
a. Exchange of gases occurs in the lungs
b. Exchange of gases occurs in the placenta
c. Umbilical arteries carry oxygenated blood
d. Foramen ovale is the opening between the pulmonary artery & aorta
40. Vitamin K is injected to the newborn to:
a. Reduce possibility of hemorrhage in the baby
b. increase the babys resistance to infections
c. Help conjugate bilirubin
d. Prevent jaundice in the newborn
41. Which of the following is not true of physiologic jaundice?
a. It appears within the first 24 hours & lasts 6-7 days
b. It occur in 55-70% of all newborns
c. An etiologic factor is liver immaturity
d. It appears on the 2nd or 3rd day & begins to disappear on 6th or 7th day
42. At the age of 6 months the infant
a. Triples her birth weight c. has 6 teeth
b. Doubles her birth weight d. drinks from a cup
43. The primary critical observation for APGAR Score is the:
a. Heart Rate c. color
b. Respiratory rate d. evaluation of moro reflex
44. Within 3 minutes after birth the normal heart rate of an infant may range
between
a. 100 and 180 c. 130 and 170
b. 120 and 160 d. 100 and 130
45. In a noisy room, the newborn is noted to startle & have rapid movements
initially, but soon goes to sleep. The most appropriate nursing action would be to:
a. Test the infants hearing c. assess the infants vital signs
 b. Allow the infant to sleep d. stimulate the infants respiration
46. The normal respiratory ate of an infants within 3 minutes after birth may be
as high as
a. 50 b. 80
b. 60 d. 100
47. At 10 hours of age an infant has a large amount of mucus & becomes slightly
cyanotic. The nurse should first:
a. Give the infant oxygen c. refer to the physician
b. Suction the mucus as needed d. note the incident on the chart
48. The following are characteristic of caput succedaneum in the newborn
except:
a. It is an edema of the scalp c. it needs no treatment
b. It subsides within 48-72 hours d. it indicates injury to the brain
49. A mother asks about the soft spot on the babys head. You would explain that
the anterior fontanel closes by the:
a. 12th -18th month & posterior by the 3rd month
b. 3rd month & the posterior by 12th 18th month
c. 12th month & the posterior by the 5th month
d. 4th month & the posterior by the 4th month

50. Initial assessment of a term female neonate about 4 hours old reveals a
normal anterior fontanel.. The nurse documents the shape as which of the
following?
a. oval b. square c. diamond-shaped d. triangular
51. A babys cord comes off in about
a. 6-10 days b. 3-5 days c. 2-4 days d. 1-3 days
52. After the cord drops off, healing usually takes about
a. A week b. a month c. 2 weeks d. 3 weeks
53. Should the newborn become jaundiced on the 2nd or 3rd day after birth, you
would suspect that it was due to:
a. Destruction of excess RBC with the production of more bilirubin than
the immature liver can handle
b. Immature heat regulating mechanism
c. Poor peripheral circulation
d. None of the above
54. When an object is placed in a newborns hand, he will take hold of it
momentarily. This is a result of:
a. Moro reflex b. dancing reflex c. grasp reflex d. rooting
reflex
55. A newborn has small whitish pinpoint spots over the nose, which the nurse
knows are caused by retained sebaceous secretions. When charting this
observation, the nurse identifies it as:
a. Milia c. Mongolian spots
b. Lanugo d. white heads

56. Teaching the mother care for her newborn with cephalhematoma, the nurse
should include
a. daily massage of the swelling
b. gradual disappearance of cephalhematoma by 2-3 weeks
c. application of warm compress twice a day
d. minor incision and drainage of the swelling
57. A baby born 2 hours ago has just arrived in the newborn nursery. Which
nursing measure will prevent the newborn from losing heat due to evaporation?
a. Putting a cap on his head
b. Keeping him away from drafts
c. Drying him thoroughly after a bath
d. Putting a blanket between him and cold surfaces
58. The conversion of liquid to vapour is:
a. Conduction c. radiation
b. Evaporation d. convection
59. Transfer of body heat to cooler solid object in contact with the newborn
a. Conduction c. radiation
b. Evaporation d. convection
60. Nursing prevention of heat loss include which of the following?
 a. Position the baby in trendelenburgh position
b. Always keep the baby dry & warm
c. Elevate the head when feeding
d. Expose the baby to morning sunlight
61. A 3-month-old baby is to receive DPT vaccine. The nurse prepares to
administer the vaccine thru
a. IM route, upper outer portion of the thigh
b. intradermal route, upper outer portion of the arm
c. subcutaneous, right deltoid region
d. oral route

62. In the immediate care of the newborn, which nursing action is implemented
first to ensure the newborns safety?
a. identify the newborn using foot tag identical with that of the mother
b. clear the mouth and nose of mucus
c. inject Vitamin K to prevent bleeding
d. administer Credes prophylaxis right after birth to prevent gonorrheal
conjunctivitis
63. The neonatal period is recognized internationally as the period from birth of
the child up to 28 days but under R.A. 9288, otherwise known as the Newborn
Screening Act of 2004, the
newborn is a child from the time of complete delivery to how many days old?
a. 45 days b. 25 days c. 30 days d. 7 days
64. Immediately after delivery, the nurse dries the baby to prevent heat loss.
The nurse is aware that drying the baby prevents heat loss by
a. Evaporation b. conduction c. Convection d. radiation
65. The babys HR = 120 beat/min, well flexed with good cry, extremities blue
and body pink. Which of the following is her APGAR score?
a. 9 b. 8 c. 10 d. 7
66. The nurse should interpret the APGAR score in no. 63 as?
a. Good adjustment c. Severely depressed, in need of resuscitation
b. Poor adjustment d. Moderately depressed, needs airway clearance
Situation: After the respiration and temperature of a full term newborn was stabilized,
the nurse perform physical examination.
67. Which of the following is typical initial newborn assessment?
a. hands and feet has a bluish color
b. an apical heart rate of 90 beats per minute
c. an eye discharge that is yellow and watery
d. an umbilical stump that has two veins and one artery
68. When the nurse accidentally bumps the crib, the neonate throws out his
arms, hands opened, and begins to cry. After giving instructions, the nurse
determines that the mother understands this reflex when she says that it is
a. startle reflex c. extrusion reflex
b. babinski reflex d. tonic neck reflex
69. Which of the following senses is most developed in the newborn?
a. Sight b. Hearing c. Smell d. Touch
70. While performing a gestational age assessment, the nurse determines that
the neonate is at term when the nurse determines the neonates
a. ear lying flat against the head c. sole creases covering the entire
foot
b. absence of rugae in the scrotum d. absence of tremors
71. For which of the following findings should the nurse notify the physician?
a. Pupillary reflex c. Respiratory rate of 40 breath/minutes
b. Expiratory grunt d. Full breast areola
72. Which of the following assessment findings would alert the nurse that a
newborn needs special attention?
a. birth weight of 3,500 grams c. positive babinski reflex
b. apgar score of 3 d. RBC = 6 million/cu mm
73. In caring for a newborn the nurse should consider the following normal
EXCEPT:
a. meconium which colored greenish black is passed 20 hours after birth
b. yellow discoloration of skin and sclera 6 hours after birth
c. secretions coming from slightly engorged breast
d. urine is colorless, oderless
Situation: A female neonate is delivered vaginally at 40 weeks gestation. The mother
of the neonate plans to breastfeed.
74. During the one minute Apgar assessment, the neonate has a heart rate of
120bpm, lusty cry, acrocyanosis, and minimal flexion of extremities. A nurse
would give the newborn an Apgar score of a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 9
75. The nurse notes small, shiny round white specks on the neonates hard palate
The nurse should
a. place the neonate in an isolation area
b. try to remove the specks with a wet washcloth
c. notify the physician
d. continue to monitor the neonate because these spots are normal
76. After feeding, the nurse places the newborn on right sims position. After 15
minutes she noted that the newborn is red on the dependent side and pallor on
the other half of the body. Which statement best explains this? The newborn has
a. a congenital heart defect c. signs of hypoxia
b. an immature circulatory system d. an immature thermoregulatory
system
SITUATION: A nurse is assigned at the NICU. During endorsement rounds the nurse
performs her assessment of the newborn.
77. The nurse documents the neonates anterior fontanelle as normal because it
is
a. Oval b. diamond shaped c. Square d. triangular
78. On the 3rd day of extrauterine life, transitional stools were noted. This is best
described as
a. Tarry-green b. Thin brown to green c. Light yellow d. Bright
Yellow
79. The nurse is about to give a full-term neonate his first bath. How should the
nurse proceed?
a. Bathe the neonate only after his vital signs have stabilized.
b. Clean the neonate with medicated soap.
c. Scrub the neonate's skin to remove the vernix caseosa.
d. Wash the neonate from feet to head.
80. The nurse caring for a 3-day-old newborn notices that he looks slightly
jaundiced. Although not a normal finding, it's an expected finding of physiologic
jaundice and is caused by which of the following?
a. High WBC count levels c. bottlefeeding
b. Poor clotting mechanism d. immature liver
BREASTFEEDING
81. The mother tells the her baby regurgitates after each feeding. Which of the
following statement is INCORRECT?
a. This is due to an immature Pyloric sphincter.
b. Position baby on right Sims position.
c. Burp your baby twice each feeding.
d. During feeding position baby upright.
82. Colostrum has some definite benefits for the newborn. These include which
of the following?
a. Presence of antibodies & IgA c. increased fluid content
b. High fat & carbohydrate level d. high levels of WBCs
83. The client understands health teaching about breastfeeding if she states
that: I will:
a. Use mild soap for washing
b. Remove my brassiere at night
c. Air dry my nipples after feeding
d. Line my breast pads with plastic
84. Growth factor in colostrums is important because
a. It protects against infection
b. Prevents eye diseases
c. It clears meconium
d. It helps the intestine to mature, prevent allergy & intolerance
85. The following are TRUE of the human milk EXCEPT:
a. Human milk contains more protein than in cows milk
b. Human milk contains more carbohydrate than cows milk
c. Human milk is more easily digested
d. Human milk is deficient in Iron content
86. If you teach a mother about infant feeding, you should discuss which of
these reflexes?
 a. Palmar grasp b. tonic neck c. rooting d. moro
87. When milk from mammary gland is carried to the nipples of the
breastfeeding mother, this is known as:
a. After pains c. let-down reflex
b. Rooting reflex d. sucking reflex
88. Milk ejection is primarily regulated by:
a. Estrogen b. progesterone c. oxytocin d. prolactin

89. The nurse should recognize that the client needs further teaching when she
states: I will
a. Try to empty my breast at each feeding
b. Use an alternate breast at each feeding
c. Wash my breast with water before each feeding
d. Wash my breast with soap & water before each feeding
90. Rooming in & Breast feeding Act of 1992 is known as:
a. Executive order # 51 c. Executive order # 151
b. Republic Act # 7600 d. Republic Act # 7060
91. Milk Code of the Philippines is known as:
a. Executive order # 51 c. Executive order # 151
b. Republic Act # 7600 d. Republic Act # 7060
GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT
92. Play during infancy is
a. Initiated by the child c. a way of teaching how to share
b. More important than in later years d. mostly used for physical
development
93. when teaching the mother of 6 months old child, the nurse would emphasize
that at this age the child can:
a. sit-up c. roll over
b. crawl lengthy distances d. stand
94. Preventive teaching for the parents of a 1 year old child, the nurse would
speak to them about:
a. Accidents c. toilet training
b. Adequate nutrition d. sexual development
95. The primary task to be accomplished between the age of 12 and 15 months
is to learn to:
a. Walk erect c. climb stairs
b. Use spoon d. say simple words
96. You observe that a 2 year old child at play
a. Builds houses with blocks c. is extremely possessive of toys
b. Is pond of book d. knows how to color
97. A toddler would be engaged in:
a. Parallel play c. solitary play
b. Competitive play d. tumbling-type play
98. A 5 year old child is incapable of
a. Tying shoe laces c. abstract thought
b. Making decisions d. hand-eye coordination
99. When a mother with a 3 month old infant comes to the clinic, Nurse Leah
include in the accident prevention teaching plan the need to:
a Remove all tiny objects from the floor
b Cover electric outlets with safety plugs
c Keep crib rails up to the highest position
d Remove poisonous substance from low areas
100. Which of the following is not a part of psychosexual stages of development:
a Phallic stage c. anal stage
b Oral stage d. role identification