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CODE-B

JEE(MAIN) 2017 TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION


(HELD ON SUNDAY 02nd APRIL, 2017)
PART A PHYSICS
1. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion with
1
a time period T. AT time t = 0, it is at its position K.E. = mA 2 2 cos2 t
2
of equilibrium. The kinetic energy-time graph of
the particle will look like Hence graph of K.E. v/s time is square cos function

KE KE
(1) 0 T/2 T t 0 T

KE 2. The temperature of an open room of volume


(2) 30 m 3 increases from 17C to 27C due to
0 T/4 T/2 T t sunshine. The atmospheric pressure in the room
remains 1 105 Pa. If ni and nf are the number

(3)
KE
0 T/2 T T t
of molecules in the room before and after heating,
then nf ni will be :-
(1) 2.5 1025
(3) 1.61 1023
(2) 2.5 1025
(4) 1.38 1023
Ans. (2)
KE
Sol. Using ideal gas equation
(4) 0 T t PV = NRT

(N is number of moles)
Ans. (2)
P0V0 = NiR 290 ...... (1)
[Ti = 273 + 17 = 290 K]
Vmax V=0
After heating
P0V0 = NfR 300 ...... (2)
Sol. V=0

[Tf = 273 + 27 = 300 K]


from equation (1) and (2)
Equilibrium Extreme
position position P0 V0 PV
Nf Ni = 0 0
R 300 R 290
Time taken to reach the extreme position from
P0 V0 10
difference in number of moles
T R 290 300

equilibrium position is . Velocity is maximum at
4
Hence nf ni is
equilibrium position and zero at extreme position.
V = A cos t P0 V0 10
= 6.023 1023
R 290 300
1 2
K.E. = mv
2 putting P0 = 105 PA and V0 = 30 m3
(m is the mass of particle and v is the velocity of Number of molecules nf ni = 2.5 1025
particle

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JEE(MAIN)-2017
3. Which of the following statements is false ? 4. The following observations were taken for
(1) A rheostat can be used as a potential divider determining surface tensiton T of water by
(2) Kirchhoff's second law represents energy
capillary method :
conservation
(3) Wheatstone bridge is the most sensitive when Diameter of capilary, D = 1.25 102 m
all the four resistances are of the same order rise of water, h = 1.45 102 m
of magnitude.
(4) In a balanced wheatstone bridge if the cell and Using g = 9.80 m/s2 and the simplified relation
the galvanometer are exchanged, the null point rhg
T= 103 N/m, the possible error in surface
is disturbed. 2
Ans. (4) tension is closest to :
(1) 2.4% (2) 10% (3) 0.15% (4) 1.5%
Ans. (4)
Sol. (1)
rhg
Sol. T 103
On interchanging Cell & Galvanometer. 2

R1 R2
T r h
T

r

h
0

T 102 .01 102 .01


G 100 100
T 1.25 102 1.45 102

R3 R4 = (0.8 + 0.689)
(2)

= (1.489)

T
100 1.489 %
T
On balancing condition 1.5%
R1 R 2 5. In amplitude modulation, sinusoidal carrier

....(1)
R3 R 4 frequency used is denoted by c and the signal
frequency is denoted by m. The bandwidth (m)
R1 R2 of the signal is such that m << c. Which of the
following frequencies is not contained in the
G modulated wave ?
(1) m + c (2) c m
R3 R4 (3) m (4) c

On balancing condition Ans. (3)


Sol. Refer NCERT Page No. 526
R1 R 3
....(2) Three frequencies are contained
R2 R
m + c, c m & c
As we see both equation (1) & (2) are same. So
4th statement is false.
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6. A diverging lens with magnitude of focal length
m 2 m
25 cm is placed at a distance of 15 cm from a I
4 3
converging lens of magnitude of focal length
20 cm. A beam of parallel light falls on the diverging For maxima & minima
lens. The final image formed is : dI m 2 m
(1) real and at a distance of 40 cm from the 2 0
d 4 3
divergent lens
(2) real and at a distance of 6 cm from the 2 m 2 R 2
2
convergent lens 3 3 2
(3) real and at a distance of 40 cm from convergent 2 R 2
lens or
3
(4) virtual and at a distance of 40 cm from
2 3
convergent lens.
R2 2
Ans. (3)
Sol. As parallel beam incident on diverging lens if forms 2 3
or
virtual image at v1 = 25 cm from the diverging R 2

lense (f = 20 cm)

lense which works as a object for the converging 8. An electron beam is accelerated by a potential
difference V to hit a metallic target to produce
X-rays. It produces continuous as well as
characteristic X-rays.If min is the smallest
possible wavelength of X-ray in the spectrum, the
variation of log min with log V is correctly
represented in :

f = 25 cm f = 20 cm
log min
15 cm
So for converging lens u = 40 cm, f = 20 cm (1)
log V
Final image
1 1 1 log min

V 40 20
(2)

V = 40 cm from converging lenses. log V


7. The moment of inertia of a uniform cylinder of
length and radius R about its perpendicular
log min
bisector is I. What is the ratio /R such that the
moment of inertia is minimum ? (3)
3 3 log V
3
(1) 1 (2) (3) (4)
2 2 2
log min
Ans. (3)
m 2 mR 2 (4)
Sol. I log V
12 4
m 2 2 Ans. (3)
or I R ....(1)]
4 3 hc
Sol. eV
Also m = R2 min
m Put in equation (1) 1 eV
R2
min hc
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JEE(MAIN)-2017
1 e Ans. (1)
n nV n
min hc Sol. So from pE
e
n(min) = nV + n p
hc
e
n min nV n
hc x axis
It is a straight line with ve slope.
A radioactive nucleus A with a half life T, decays
9.
into a nucleus B. At t = 0, there is no nucleus B.

k k p x i p y j Ei 3Ej
At sometime t, the ratio of the number of B to that p 3E k p E k
x y
of A is 0.3. Then, t is given by :
0 Ek 3p p x y
T
(1) t = T log (1.3) (2) t = py
log(1.3) 3
T log 2 log1.3 px
(3) t = 2 log1.3 (4) t = T log 2 tan = 3
Ans. (4)
Sol. At time t

NB
.3 NB = .3 NA
= 60
11. In a common emitter amplifier circuit using an
n-p-n transistor, the phase difference between the
input and the output voltages will be :
NA
(1) 135 (2) 180 (3) 45 (4) 90
also let initially there are total N0 number of nuclei Ans. (2)
NA + NB = N0
Sol. In common emitter amplifier circuit input and out

N
NA 0 put voltage are out of phase. When input voltage
1.3
is increased then ib is increased, ic also increases
Also as we know
so voltage drop across Rc is increased. However
NA = N0et
increase in voltage across RC is in opposite sense.
N0 12. Cp and Cv are specific heats at constant pressure
N 0 e t
1.3

and constant volume respectively. It is observed


1 n 1.3 that
e t n(1.3) = t or t
1.3 Cp Cv = a for hydrogen gas
Cp Cv = b for nitrogen gas
n 1.3 n 1.3
t T The correct relation between a and b is :
n 2 n 2
T (1) a = 14 b (2) a = 28 b
1
10. An electric dipole has a fixed dipole moment p , (3) a = b (4) a = b
14
which makes angle with respect to x-axis. When Ans. (1)

subjected to an electric field E1 Ei , it Sol. CP CV = R

experiences a torque T1 k . When subjected to where CP and CV are molar specific heat capacities

another electric field E 2 3E1j it experiences As per the question
R R
torque T2 T1 . The angle is : a= b=
2 28
(1) 60 (2) 90 (3) 30 (4) 45 a = 14 b
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13. A copper ball of mass 100 gm is at a temperature Ans. (3)
T. It is dropped in a copper calorimeter of mass Sol. 10 = (5 103) (15 + R)

100 gm, filled with 170 gm of water at room r = 1985


16. A slender uniform rod of mass M and length is
temperature. Subsequently, the temperature of the
pivoted at one end so that it can rotate in a vertical
system is found to be 75C. T is given by : plane (see figure). There is negligible friction at
(Given : room temperature = 30 C, specific heat the pivot. The free end is held vertically above the
pivot and then released. The angular acceleration
of copper = 0.1 cal/gmC
of the rod when it makes an angle with the
(1) 1250C (2) 825C vertical is :
(3) 800C (4) 885 C z
Ans. (4)
Sol. Heat given = Heat taken
(100) (0.1)(T 75) = (100)(0.1)(45) + (170)(1)(45)
10(T 75) = 450 + 7650 = 8100 x
T 75 = 810 3g 2g
(1) cos (2) cos
T = 885 C 2 3
14. A body of mass m = 102 kg is moving in a medium 3g 2g
(3) sin (4) sin
2 3
and experiences a frictional force F = kv2. Its intial
Ans. (3)
speed is v0 = 10 ms1. If, after 10 s, its energy is
1 2
mv0 , the value of k will be:-
8
(1) 104 kg m1 (2) 101 kg m1 s1 Sol. mgsin


(3) 103kg m1 (4) 103 kg s1
Ans. (1)
1 2 1 2 mg
Sol. mvf mv0
2 8 Taking torque about pivot = I
v0 m 2
vf = = 5 m/s mgsin =
2 2 3

dv 3g
(102) kv 2 =
2
sin
dt
17. Some energy levels of a molecule are shown in
5 10
dv the figure. The ratio of the wavelengths r = 1/2,
v2 = 100 k dt is given by :
10 0

1 1 E
= 100 k (10) 2
5 10 4
E
k = 104 3
15. When a current of 5 mA is passed through a 1
galvanometer having a coil of resistance 15 , it 2E
shows full scale deflection. The value of the 3E
resistance to be put in series with the galvanometer 3 1
(1) r (2) r
to convert it into to voltmeter of range 0 10 V is: 4 3
(1) 2.535 103 (2) 4.005 103 4 2
(3) r (4) r
(3) 1.985 103 (4) 2.045 103 3 3
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JEE(MAIN)-2017

Ans. (2) Current


hC 10A
Sol. using E = Sol.

hC
for 1 E (2E) =
1
0.5 sec time
hC
1 =
E

hC q=
4E R
for 2 E =
3 2 = change in flux
3hC
2 = q = I dt
E
= Area of current-time graph
1 1
2 = r = 3 1
= 10 0.5 = 2.5 coloumb
18.
A man grows into a giant such that his linear
dimensions increase by a factor of 9. Assuming
that his density remains same, the stress in the leg
will change by a factor of :
q=
2


R
= 2.5 100 = 250 wb
1 1
(1) 81 (2) (3) 9 (4) 20. In a Young's double slit experiment, slits are
81 9
separated by 0.5 mm, and the screen is placed 150
Ans. (3)

cm away. A beam of light consisting of two
Force mg volume density g
Sol. Stress wavelengths, 650 nm and 520 nm, is used to obtain
area A Area
interference fringes on the screen. The least
3
L g distance from the common central maximum to the
Stress =
L2 point where the bright fringes due to both the
Stress L wavelengths coincide is :

19. In a coil of resistance 100 , a current is induced


(1) 9.75 mm (2) 15.6 mm
by changing the magnetic flux through it as shown
(3) 1.56 mm (4) 7.8 mm
in the figure. The magnitude of change in flux
Ans. (4)
through the coil is :
Sol. For common maxima
n11 = n22
10
n1 650 = n2 520
Current
(amp.) n1 4

n2 5

Time 0.5 sec yd


n
D
(1) 250 Wb (2) 275 Wb 4 650 109 1.5
y
(3) 200 Wb (4) 225 Wb 0.5 103
Ans. (1) y = 7.8 mm
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21. A magnetic needle of magnetic moment 23. In the above circuit the current in each resistance
6.7 10 2 Am 2 and moment of inertia is :
7.5 106 kg m2 is performing simple harmonic 2V 2V 2V
oscillations in a magnetic field of 0.01 T.
1 1
1
Time taken for 10 complete oscillations is :
(1) 6.98 s (2) 8.76 s 2V 2V 2V
(3) 6.65 s (4) 8.89 s (1) 0.5 A (2) 0 A (3) 1 A (4) 0.25 A
Ans. (3) Ans. (2)
I 4V 2V 0V
Sol. T = 2 6V
MB
I = 7.5 106 kg m2
Sol.
M = 6.7 102 Am2
6V A
By substituting value in the formula 4V 2V 0V
T = .665 sec
for 10 oscillation, time taken will be Taking voltage of point A as = 0

22.
Time = 10 T = 6.65 sec
Answer option 3

The variation of acceleration due to gravity g with
distance d from centre of the earth is best
Then voltage at other points can be written as
shown in figure
Hence voltage across all resistance is zero.
Hence current = 0
represented by (R = Earth's radius): 24. A particle A of mass m and initial velocity v collides
g g m
with a particle B of mass which is at rest. The
2
collision is head on, and elastic. The ratio of the

(1) (2)
d d deBroglie wavelengths A to B after the collision
O R O R is :
g g A 2 A 1
(1) 3 (2) 2
B B

(3) (4) A 1 A
d d (3) (4) 2

O O R B 3 B
Ans. (2) Ans. (4)

GMx After collision


Sol. g = inside the Earth (straight line) V M M
R3 Sol. m m V1 V2
2 2
GM rest
g= outside the Earth By conservation of linear momentum
r2
where M is Mass of Earth m
mv = mv1 + v2
g 2
2v = 2v1 + v2 ....(1)
by law of collision
v v1
e 2
u1 u 2
d ....(2)
u = v2 v1
option (2)
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JEE(MAIN)-2017
By equation (1) and (2) From work energy theorem
v 4v 1
v1 ; v2 WF K.E m v 2 u 2
3 3 2
h h 1
1 ; 2 1 9 0 = 4.5 J
p1 o2 2
1 2 27. An observer is moving with half the speed of light

2 1 towards a stationary microwave source emitting
waves at frequency 10 GHz. What is the frequency
Option (4) of the microwave measured by the observer?
25. An external pressure P is applied on a cube at 0C (speed of light = 3 108 ms1)
so that it is equally compressed from all sides. (1) 17.3 GHz (2) 15.3 GHz
K is the bulk modulus of the material of the cube
(3) 10.1 GHz (4) 12.1 GHz
and is its coefficient of linear expansion. Suppose
we want to bring the cube to its original size by Ans. (1)
heating. The temperature should be raised by : Sol. Doppler effect in light (speed of observer is not
3 very small compare to speed of light)
(1) (2) 3PK
PK 1 V / C 1 1/ 2
f1 f source 10 GHz
(3)

Ans. (3)
P
3K

Sol. Due to thermal expansion


(4)
P
K
28.
1 V /C
= 17.3 GHz
1 1/ 2

In the given circuit diagram when the current


reaches steady state in the circuit, the charge on
the capacitor of capacitance C will be :
v r
3T E
v
r1
Due to External pressure

v P C

v K r2
Equating both w1 get
P r2 r1
3T (1) CE (2) CE
K r r2 r1 r
P r1
T (3) CE (4) CE

3K r2 r
26. A time dependent force F = 6t acts on a particle Ans. (1)
of mass 1 kg. If the particle starts from rest, the
Sol. It steady state, current through AB = 0
work done by the force during the first 1 sec. will
be : E r
(1) 9 J (2) 18 J (3) 4.5 J (4) 22 J r1
Ans. (3) B A
Sol. F = 6t = ma C
D C
a = 6t r2
dv VAB = VCD
6t
dt
VAB r2 VCD
v 1 r r2
dv 6t dt
0 0
QC = CVAB
v = (3t2)10 = 3 m/s r
CE 2
r r2
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29. A capacitance of 2 F is required in an electrical 30. A body is thrown vertically upwards. Which
one of the following graphs correctly represent
circuit across a potential difference of 1.0 kV. the velocity vs time?
A large number of 1 F capacitors are available
v
which can withstand a potential difference of
not more than 300 V. (1) t

The minimum number of capacitors required


to achieve this is : v
(2) t
(1) 24 (2) 32

(3) 2 (4) 16
v
Ans. (2)
(3) t
Sol. To hold 1 KV potential difference

minimum four capacitors are required in series

C1
1
4
for one series.
(4)

Ans. (1)
v
t

So for Ceq to be 2F, 8 parallel combinations


Sol. Velocity at any time t is
are required.
given by

8 Parallel V0

v = u + at
v = v0 + (g)t

1 KV
v = v0 gt

Minimum no. of capacitors = 8 4 = 32 straight line with negative slope

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JEE(MAIN)-2017
PART B MATHEMATICS
31. Let k be an integer such that triangle with Sol. We have
n
vertices (k, 3k), (5, k) and (k, 2) has area 28
sq. units. Then the orthocentre of this triangle
x r 1 (x r) 10n
r 1

is at the point : n

(x 2 (2r 1)x (r 2 r)) 10n


1 1 r 1
(1) 2, (2) 2, On solving, we get
2 2
2
n 2 31
3 3 x + nx + 0
(3) 1, (4) 1, 3
4 4
Ans. (1) (n 1)
(2 + 1) = n ...(1)
Sol. We have 2
n 2 31
k 3k 1 and ( 1) ...(2)
1 3
5 k 1 28
2 n2 = 121 (using (1) in (2))
k 2 1 or n = 11
5k2 + 13k 46 = 0 1 1
33. The function f : R , defined as
or 2 2
5k2 + 13k + 66 = 0 (no real solution exist) x
f(x) = , is :
1 x2
23 (1) neither injective nor surjective.
k= or k = 2
5 (2) invertible.
As k is an integer, so k = 2 (3) injective but not surjective.

(4) surjective but not injective
A(2, 6)
Ans. (4)
1 1
Sol. f : R , ,
H E 2 2
()
x
f(x) = x R
1 x2

B C(2, 2)
D
(5, 2) (1 x 2 ) 1 x 2x (x 1)(x 1)
f (x)
(1 x 2 ) 2 (1 x 2 )2
1
orthocentre is 2, +
2 sign of f(x)
x = 1 x=1
32. If, for a positive integer n, the quadratic
equation, y 1, 1
2
x(x + 1) + (x + 1) (x + 2) + .....
O x
+ (x + n 1 ) (x + n) = 10n (0,0) x = 1
has two consecutive integral solutions, then n
is equal to : 1, 1
2
(1) 11 (2) 12
(3) 9 (4) 10 From above diagram of f(x), f(x) is
Ans. (1) surjective but not injective.
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CODE-B
34. The following statement
(p q ) [(~p q) q] is :
(1) a fallacy Sol. x+y=3
(2) a tautology
(3) equivalent to ~ p q y = 1 + x
(1,2) 2
(4) equivalent to p ~q 4y = x
Ans. (2) (0,1)
Sol. (p q) [(~p q) q]
(2,1)
p q ~ p p q ~ p q (~ p q) q (p q) ((~ p q) q)
T F F F T F T
T T F T T T T
(0,0) (1,0) (2,0)
F F T T F T T
F T T T T T T

It is tautology
35. If S is the set of distinct values of 'b' for which
1 2 2
the following system of linear equations x2
Area = (1 x) dx (3 x) dx 4
dx
x+y+z=1
x + ay + z = 1
ax + by + z = 0
=
5
2
0 1 0

has no solution, then S is :


(1) a singleton 37. For any three positive real numbers a, b and c,
(2) an empty set 9(25a2 + b2) + 25(c2 3ac) = 15b(3a + c).

(3) an infinite set Then :
(4) a finite set containing two or more elements
(1) a, b and c are in G.P.
Ans. (1)
(2) b, c and a are in G.P.
1 1 1 (3) b, c and a are in A.P.
Sol. D 1 a 1 0 a = 1

(4) a, b and c are in A.P.


a b 1
Ans. (3)
and at a = 1 D1 = D2 = D3 =0
Sol. (15a)2 + (3b)2 + (5c)2 (15a) (5c) (15a) (3b)
but at a = 1 and b = 1
(3b) (5c) = 0
First two equationsare x + y + z =1
There is nosolution.
and third equation is x + y + z = 0 1
[(15a 3b)2 + (3b 5c)2 + (5c 15a)2]=0
b = {1} it is a singleton set 2

36. The area (in sq. units) of the region it is possible when 15a = 3b = 5c
{(x, y} : x 0, x + y 3, x2 4y and y 1 + x}
is : 5c c
b= , a=
3 3
5 59 3 7
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 12 2 3 a + b = 2c
Ans. (1) b, c, a in A.P.
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JEE(MAIN)-2017
38. A man X has 7 friends, 4 of them are ladies x2 y2
and 3 are men. His wife Y also has 7 friends, Sol. Equation of hyperbola is 1
a 2 b2
3 of them are ladies and 4 are men. Assume foci is (2, 0) hence ae = 2, a2e2 = 4
X and Y have no common friends. Then the b2 = a2(e2 1)
total number of ways in which X and Y a2 + b2 = 4 ...(1)
together can throw a party inviting 3 ladies and
3 men, so that 3 friends of each of X and Y are
Hyperbola passes through 2, 3

in this party, is : 2 3
1 ...(2)
(1) 484 (2) 485 (3) 468 (4) 469 a 2 b2
Ans. (2) On solving (1) and (2)
a2 = 8 (is rejected) and a2 = 1 and b2 = 3
4 Ladies 3 Ladies
x2 y2
Sol. x y 1
1 3
3 Men 4 Men
2x 3y
Total number of ways Equation of tangent is 1
4C 3C 3C 4C 4 3 3 4 1 3
0 3 3 0 + C1 C2 C2 C1
4 3 3 4 4 3 3
+ C2 C1 C1 C2 + C3 C0 C0 C3 4 Hence 2 2,3 3 satisfy it.
= 485 41. Let a, b, c R. If f(x) = ax2 + bx + c is such
39.

y-axis passes through the point :


1 1 1 1

The normal to the curve y(x 2)(x 3) = x + 6
at the point where the curve intersects the
that a + b + c = 3 and
f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) + xy, x, y R,

then
10

f(n)
n 1
is equal to :
(1) , (2) ,
2 3 2 2 (1) 255 (2) 330 (3) 165 (4) 190
Ans. (2)
1 1 1 1 Sol. f(x) = ax2 + bx + c
(3) , (4) ,
2 2 2 3 f(1) = a + b + c = 3

Ans. (3) Now f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) + xy
put y = 1
x6 f(x + 1) = f(x) + f(1) + x
Sol. y = (x 2)(x 3) f(x + 1) = f(x) + x + 3
Now
Point of intersection with yaxis (0, 1) f(2) = 7
f(3) = 12
(x 2 5x 6)(1) (x 6)(2x 5) Now

y
(x 2 5x 6)2 Sn = 3 + 7 + 12 + ..... tn ...(1)
y= 1 at point (0, 1) Sn = 3 + 7 + ......tn 1 + tn ...(2)
Slope of normal is 1 On subtracting (2) from (1)
Hence equation of normal is x + y = 1 tn = 3 + 4 + 5 + ....... upto n terms
1 1
, satisfy it. (n 2 5n)
2 2 tn =
2
40. A hyperbola passes through the point

P 2, 3 and has foci at ( 2, 0). Then the (n 2 5n)


tangent to this hyperbola at P also passes
Sn = tn = 2
through the point :
(1) 2, 3 (2) 3 2, 2 3 1 n(n 1)(2n 1) 5n(n 1)
Sn
2 6 2
(3) 2 2, 3 3 (4) 3, 2
S10 = 330
Ans. (3)
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Let a 2i j 2k and b i j . Let c be a
AB 1
42. Sol.
AP 2

vector such that | c a | = 3, (a b) c = 3 and Let APC =

the angle between c and a b be 30. Then ac AC 1 AB 1 1
tan = = = AC AB
is equal to : AP 2 AP 4 2

B
1 25
(1) (2) (3) 2 (4) 5
8 8
C

Ans. (3)
A P

Sol. a 2i j 2k , b i j and | a | 3 Now

tan tan
a b 2i 2j k tan( )
1 tan tan

|ab| 3



Now : ( a b ) c = | a b | | c | sin 30 n

tan tan 1

1 tan tan 2
AB
tan( ) AP
1
tan( )

2
1
|( a b ) c | = 3| c | 2
2 on solving tan =
9

1 44. Twenty meters of wire is available for fencing


3 = 3| c | off a flower-bed in the form of a circular sector.
2
Then the maximum area (in sq. m) of the flower
-bed, is :-
| c | = 2
(1) 30 (2) 12.5 (3) 10 (4) 25

Now : | c a | = 3
Ans. (4)

c2 + a2 2 ca 9
Sol. Total length = r + r + r = 20

4 + 9 2ac 9
20 2r

r
ac 2

43. Let a vertical tower AB have its end A on the 1 2 1 2 20 2r


Area = r r
2 2 r
level ground. Let C be the mid-point of AB and r
P be a point on the ground such that AP = 2AB. A = 10r r2
If BPC = , then tan is equal to :-
dA
4 6 1 2 0 10 2r = 0, r = 5
(1) (2) (3) (4) dr
9 7 4 9
Ans. (4) A = 50 25 = 25
13
JEE(MAIN)-2017
3 n
4
47. Let I n tan x dx,(n 1) . I4 + I6 = a tan5x + bx5
dx + C, where C is a constant of integration, then

45. The integral 1 cos x is equal to :-
the ordered pair (a, b) is equal to :-
4
1 1 1 1
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 2 (4) 4 (1) ,0 (2) ,1 (3) ,0 (4) , 1
5 5 5 5
Ans. (3)
Ans. (3)
3
4
4
Sol. I4 + I6 = (tan x tan 6 x) dx = tan
4
x sec 2 x dx
dx
I
Sol. 1 cos x ...(1)
1 1
4 = tan5 x + c a= ,b=0
5 5
3
48. Let be a complex number such that
4
dx 2 + 1 = z where z = 3 . If
I
1 cos x ...(2)
1 1 1
4

1 1 2 3k,
2
Adding (1) and (2)
3
1 2 7
4
2 then k is equal to :-
2I 2 dx
sin x (1) 1 (2) z (3) z (4) 1

4 Ans. (2)
3 Sol. Here is complex cube root of unity
4
R1 R1 + R2 + R3
I cosec 2 x dx


4 3 0 0
2 2
= 1 1
3 / 4
I cot x / 4 2
1 2
dy
46. If (2 sin x) (y 1)cos x 0 and y(0) = 1,
dx = 3(1 ) = 3z k = z
49. The value of
then y is equal to :-

2 (21 C1 10C1) + (21C2 10C2) +


4 1 2 1 (21C3 10C3) + (21C4 10C4) + .... +
(1) (2) (3) (4) (21C10 10C10) is :-
3 3 3 3
Ans. (2) (1) 220 210 (2) 221 211
dy (3) 221 210 (4) 220 29
Sol. (2 + sinx) (y 1)cos x 0 Ans. (1)
dx
Sol. (21C1 + 21C2 .........+ 21C10)
d
(2 sin x)(y 1) 0 (10C1 + 10C2 ......... 10C10)
dx
(2 + sinx) (y + 1) = c 1 21 21 C
= [( C1 + ....+ 10 ) + (21C11 +..... 21C20)]
x = 0, y = 1 c = 4 2
4 (210 1)
y 1
2 sin x 1 21
= [2 2] (210 1)
4 1 2
y 1
2 3 3 = (220 1) (210 1) = 220 210
14
CODE-B
cot x cos x x 1 y2 z 3
lim Sol. Line PQ ; = =
50. x
( 2x)3 equals :- 1 4 5
2
Let F( + 1, 4 2, 5 + 3)
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 24 16 8 P(1,2,3)
Ans. (3)
cot x(1 sin x)
lim 3

Sol. x
2

8 x F
2


tan x 1 cos x
2 2 Q
lim 2
= x
2 8 x x
2 2 F lies on the plane

1 1 1 2( + 1) + 3(4 2) 4(5 + 3) + 22 = 0
= 1 =
8 2 16 6 + 6 = 0 =1
51.
of cos4x is :-

(1)
7
(2)
3
(3)
1

If 5(tan2x cos2x) = 2cos 2x + 9, then the value

(4)
2
F (2, 2, 8)

PQ = 2 PF = 2 42 .
9 5 3 9
53. The distantce of the point (1, 3, 7) from the
Ans. (1) plane passing through the point (1, 1, 1),
having normal perpendicular to both the lines
1 t
Sol. 5 t = 2(2t 1) + 9 {Let cos2 x = t}

x 1 y 2 z 4 x 2 y 1 z 7
t and , is :-
1 2 3 2 1 1
5(1 t t2) = t(4t + 7)
9t2 + 12t 5 = 0 10 20
(1) (2)
9t2 + 15t 3t 5 = 0 74 74

(3t 1) (3t + 5) = 0 10 5

(3) (4)
1 5 83 83
t = as t .
3 3
Ans. (3)
1 1
cos 2x = 2 1 = Sol. Normal vector
3 3
2
1 7 i j k
cos 4x = 2 1 =
3 9 1 2 3 = 5i 7j 3k
52. If the image of the point P(1, 2, 3) in the plane, 2 1 1
2x + 3y 4z + 22 = 0 measured parallel to line,
x y z So plane is 5(x 1) + 7(y + 1) + 3(z + 1) = 0
is Q, then PQ is equal to :-
1 4 5
5x + 7y + 3z + 5 = 0
(1) 6 5 (2) 3 5

(3) 2 42 (4) 5 21 21 5 10
42 Distance =
25 49 9 83
Ans. (3)
15
JEE(MAIN)-2017
1 2 2
54. If for x 0, , the derivative of x2 y
4 2

6x x 2 2
tan 1 4 y y
3 is x g(x) , then g(x) equals :- 2
1 9x
2
3 9 3x x 3x y 2 y 2 1 40
(1) 3 (2) 3 (3) 3 (4)
2
1 9x 1 9x 1 9x 1 9x3
2 2
Ans. (2) 2 1 4 4 0
6x x 2
1
Sol. Let y = tan1 3 where x
0,
1 9x 4 42 4 1 22 16 0
2.(3x 3 / 2 ) 22 4 15 0
= tan1 3 / 2 = 2 tan
1 (3x3/2)
1 (3x )
4 16 120 4 2 34

3 4 4
As 3x3/2 0,
8
2 34 34 2
dy 1 3
=2 3 3 x1/2 2 2
dx 1 9x 2
34 2
9 r
= x 2 2
1 9x 3
which is not in options therefore it must be
9 bonus. But according to history of JEE-Mains
g(x) =
1 9x3 it seems they had following line of thinking.
55. The radius of a circle, having minimum area, Given curves are y = 4 x2 and y = |x|
which touches the curve y = 4 x2 and the lines,

y = |x| is :- (0, 4)
(1) 4 2 1 (2) 2 2 1
(0,4r)
(3) 2 2 1 (4) 4 2 1
Ans. (Bonus or 4)

Sol.
4 2 2 4 There are two circles satisfying the given
conditions. The circle shown is of least area.
2
Let radius of circle is 'r'
co-ordinates of centre = (0, 4 r)
4
circle touches the line y = x in first quadrant
0 (4 r)
=r r4=r 2
x2 + (y )2 = r2 2
xy =0 4
r= = 4 ( 2 1)
0 2 1
r r 2 which is given in option 4.
2

16
CODE-B
56. A box contains 15 green and 10 yellow balls. 58. If two different numbers are taken from the set
If 10 balls are randomly drawn, onebyone, {0, 1, 2, 3, ......., 10), then the probability that
with replacement, then the variance of the
number of green balls drawn is :- their sum as well as absolute difference are both
multiple of 4, is :-
6 12
(1) (2) (3) 6 (4) 4
25 5 7 6
Ans. (2) (1) (2)
55 55
Sol. We can apply binomial probability distribution
Variance = npq 12 14
3 2 12 (3) (4)
55 45
= 10 =
5 5 5
Ans. (2)
57. The eccentricity of an ellipse whose centre is
Sol. Let A {0, 1,2 ,3 ,4 ......, 10 }
1
at the origin is . If one of its directices is n(s) = 11C2 (where 'S' denotes sample space)
2
Let E be the given event
x= 4, then the equation of the normal to it at
E {(0, 4), (0, 8), (2, 6), (2, 10), (4, 8), (6, 10)}
3
1, is :- n(E) = 6
2
(1) x + 2y = 4
(3) 4x 2y = 1
Ans. (3)

(2) 2y x = 2
(4) 4x + 2y = 7

1 59.
P(E) =
6
55
For three events A, B and C,
Sol. Eccentricity of ellipse = P(Exactly one of A or B occurs)
2
= P(Exactly one of B or C occurs)

1

= P(Exactly one of C or A occurs) = and
(0, 0) 4

x = 4 x=4 1
P(All the three events occur simultaneously) = .
16
a 1
Now, =4 a=4 =2
e 2 Then the probability that at least one of the

1 events occurs, is :-
b2 = a2(1 e2) = a2 1 = 3
4
Equation of ellipse 3 7 7 7
(1) (2) (3) (4)
16 32 16 64
x2 y2
+ 1
4 3 Ans. (3)
x 2y 3x P(exactly one of A or B occurs)
+ y' = 0 y' =
2 3 4y
1
3 2 1 = P(A) + P(B) 2P(A B) =
y ' |(1,3 / 2) 4
4 3 2
3 P(Exactly one of B or C occurs)
Equation of normal at 1,
2
1
3 = P(B) + P(C) 2P(B C) =
y = 2(x 1) 2y 3 = 4x 4 4
2
4x 2y = 1 P(Exactly one of C or A occurs)

17
JEE(MAIN)-2017
Ans. (3)
1
= P(C) + P(A) 2P(C A) =
4 2 3
Sol. Given A =
Adding all, we get 4 1

3
2P(A) 2P(A B) = 16 9
4 3A2 =
12 13
3
P(A) P(A B) =
8 24 36
12A =
48 12
1
Now, P(A B C) = (Given)
16
72 63
P(A B C) 3A2 + 12A =
84 51
= P(A) P(A B) + P(A B C)

3 1 7 51 63
= + = adj (3A2 + 12A) =

60.
8 16

2 3
If A
16
, then adj (3A 2 + 12A) is equal
4 1
84 72

to :-

72 63 72 84
(1) 84 51
(2) 63 51

51 63 51 84
(3) 84 72 (4) 63 72

18
CODE-B
PART C CHEMISTRY
61. Which of the following compounds will 63. The increasing order of the reactivity of the
significant amont of meta product during following halides for the S N1 reaction is
mono-nitration reaction ? CH3CHCH2CH3 CH3CH2CH2Cl
OH OCOCH 3 Cl
(I) (II)
(1) (2)
p-H3COC6H4CH2Cl
NH2 NHCOCH 3 (III)
(1) (III) < (II) < (I) (2) (II) < (I) < (III)
(3) (4) (3) (I) < (III) < (II) (4) (II) < (III) < (I)
Ans. (2)
Ans. (3) Sol. For any S N1 reaction reactivity is decided by
Sol. (i) Nitration is carried out in presence of ease of dissociation of alkyl halide
concentrated HNO3 + concentrated H2SO4.
R X
R X
(ii) Aniline acts as base. In presence of H2SO4

NH2
+
NH3 HSO4

its protonation takes place and anilinium
ion is formed

Higher the stability of R (carbocation) higher
would be reactivity of S N1 reaction.
Since stability of cation follows order.

+
CH3 CH 2 CH 2
H

H2SO4 CH 3 CH CH 2 CH3

(iii) Anilinium ion is strongly deactivating p H 3CO C 6 H 4 CH 2

group and meta directing in nature so it
Hence correct order is
give meta nitration product in significant
amount. II I III
+
NH2 NH3 HSO4 64. The radius of the second Bohr orbit for
hydrogen atom is :
conc.H2SO4
+ conc. HNO3 (Plank's const. h = 6.6262 1034 Js ; mass of

NO2 electron = 9.1091 1031 kg ; charge of electron


62. U is equal to e = 1.60210 1019 C ; permittivity of vaccum
(1) Isochoric work (2) Isobaric work
= 8.854185 1012 kg1 m3 A2)
(3) Adiabatic work (4) Isothermal work
Ans. (3) (1) 1.65 (2) 4.76
Sol. From 1st law : (3) 0.529 (4) 212
U = q + w
Ans. (4)
For adiabatic process :
q=0 Sol. Radius of nth Bohr orbit in H-atom
U = w = 0.53 n2
Work involve in adiabatic process is at the
expense of change in internal energy of the Radius of II Bohr orbit = 0.53 (2)2
system. = 2.12

19
JEE(MAIN)-2017
65. pKa of a weak acid (HA) and pKb of a weak Total weight of person = 75 kg
base (BOH) are 3.2 and 3.4, respectively. The
pH of their salt (AB) solution is 10
Mass due to 1H is = 75 7.5kg
(1) 7.2 (2) 6.9 100
(3) 7.0 (4) 1.0 1H atoms are replaced by 2H atoms.
Ans. (2) So mass gain by person =7.5 kg
Sol. Given
68. Which of the following , upon treatment with
pKa (HA) = 3.2 tert-BuONa followed by addition of bromine
pKb (BOH) = 3.4 water, fails to decolourize the colour of
As given salt is of weak acid and weak bas bromine ?
O C6H5
1 1
pH = 7 + pK a pK b (1) (2)
2 2 Br Br
O
1 1 O
=7+ (3.2) (3.4)
2 2 (3) (4)
Br Br

66.
= 6.9
The formation of which of the following
polymers involves hydrolysis reaction ?
(1) Nylon 6 (2) Bakelite
Ans. (1)
68. Ans.(1)

O O
(3) Nylon 6, 6 (4) Terylene tert-BuONa

Ans. (1) Sol.


Br O-tBu
Sol. Formation of Nylon-6 involves hydrolysis of
its monomer (caprolactum) in initial state.
(fails to decolorise the

colour of bromine)
O
NH O
Hydrolysis +
H3NCH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CO C 6H5 C 6H 5
tert-BuONa
Caprolactum
/Polymerization
Br
O (it decolorises
bromine solution)

HN ( CH2 )5 C
n

Nylon-6
O O
67. The most abundant elements by mass in the tert-BuONa
body of a healthy human adult are :
Br
Oxygen (61.4%) ; Carbon (22.9%), Hydrogen (it decolorises bromine
(10.0%) ; and Nitrogen (2.6%). The weight solution due to
which a 75 kg person would gain if all 1H atoms unsaturation)
are replaced by 2H atoms is
(1) 15 kg (2) 37.5 kg
(3) 7.5 kg (4) 10 kg O O
Ans. (3) tert-BuONa
Sol. Mass in the body of a healthy human adult
Br
has :-
(it decolorises bromine
Oxygen = 61.4%, Carbon = 22.9%, solution due to
Hydrogen = 10.0% and Nitrogen = 2.6% unsaturation).
20
CODE-B
69. In the following reactions, ZnO is respectively
CH3
acting as a/an : CH3
(a) ZnO + Na2O Na2ZnO2 Br H
H Br
(b) ZnO + CO2 ZnCO3 H 3C H
H CH3
(1) base and acid (2) base and base Et
(3) acid and acid (4) acid and base Et
(I) (II)
Ans. (4)
Sol. Although ZnO is an amphoteric oxide but in CH3 CH3
given reaction.
Br H H Br
(A) ZnO + Na2O Na2ZnO2 H CH3 H3 C H
acid base salt
Et Et
(B) ZnO + CO2 ZnCO3
(III) (IV)
base acid salt
70. Both lithium and magnesium display several 72. A metal crystallises in a face centred cubic
similar properties due to the diagonal structure. If the edge length of its unit cell is
relationship ; however, the one which is 'a', the closest approach between two atoms in
incorrect is :
(1) Both form basic carbonates
(2) Both form soluble bicarbonates
(3) Both form nitrides
metallic crystal will be :-

(1) 2a (2) 2 2 a

a
(4) Nitrates of both Li and Mg yield NO2 and (3) 2a (4)
2
O2 on heating
Ans. (1) Ans. (4)

Sol. Mg can form basic carbonate like Sol. In FCC unit cell atoms are in contant along face
5Mg + +2
6CO32 + 7H2O diagonal
4MgCO3 . Mg(OH)2 . 5H2O + 2HCO3 So, 2 a 4R

While Li can form only carbonate (Li2CO3) not 2a a


closest distance (2R) =
basic carbonate. 2 2
73. Two reactions R1 and R2 have identical pre-
71. 3-Methyl-pent-2-ene on reaction with HBr in

exponential factors. Activation energy of R1


presence of peroxide forms an addition product.
exceeds that of R2 by 10 kJ mol1. If k1 and k2
The number of possible stereoisomers for the
are rate constants for reactions R 1 and R 2
product is :-
respectively at 300 K, then ln(k2/k1) is equal to :-
(1) Six (2) Zero
(R = 8.314 J mol1K1)
(3) Two (4) Four
(1) 8 (2) 12
Ans. (4)
(3) 6 (4) 4
Sol.
Ans. (4)

Br Sol. From arrhenius equation,


2 4 Ea
3 5
1
HBr K A.e RT
+H2 O2

3-methyl pent-2-ene Anti markownikov product so, K1 A.e Ea 1 / RT .....(1)


(4 stereo isomers possible E a / RT
due to 2 chiral centre as K 2 A.e 2 .....(2)
molecule is nonsymmetric)
21
JEE(MAIN)-2017
75. The Tyndall effect is observed only when
( Ea 1 Ea 2 )
K following conditions are satisfied :-
so, equation (2)/(1) 2 e RT
K1 (a) The diameter of the dispersed particles is
much smaller than the wavelength of the
(As pre-exponential factors of both reactions
ligh used.
is same)
(b) The diameter of the dispersed particle is not
K E E a2 10,000
ln 2 a1 4 much smaller than the wavelength of the
K1 RT 8.314 300
light used.
74. The correct sequence of reagents for the (c) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase
following conversion will be :- and dispersion medium are almost similar
in magnitude.
(d) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase
and dispersion medium differ greatly in
magnitude.
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (b) and (d)
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (b) and (c)
Ans. (2)
(1) [Ag(NH3)2]+ OH, H+/CH3OH, CH3MgBr As per NCERT book (fact)
(2) CH3MgBr, H+/CH3OH, [Ag(NH3)2]+ OH 76. Which of the following compounds will
(3) CH3MgBr, [Ag(NH3)2]+ OH, H+/CH3OH behave as a reducing sugar in an aqueous KOH
solution ?
(4) [Ag(NH3)2]+ OH, CH3MgBr, H+/CH3OH
Ans. (1)
Sol. (1)
O O

[Ag(NH3)2]OH
Tollens reagent

CHO CO2H
+
H /CH 3OH (2)
(esterification)

C (3)
O OCH3

CH3MgBr

CH3

(4)

H 3CCCH 3
Ans. (1)
OH

22
CODE-B
Sol. (1) Ester in presence of Aqueous KOH solution 78. Which of the following reactions is an example
give SNAE reaction so following reaction takes of a redox reaction ?
place
(1) XeF4 + O2F2 XeF6 + O2
HOCH2 CH2OH HOCH2 CH2OH (2) XeF2 + PF5 [XeF]+PF6
O Aq. KOH O O
O AE
SN + MeCO (3) XeF6 + H2O XeOF4 + 2HF
OCMe O

OH OH
(4) XeF6 + 2H2O XeO2F2 + 4HF

Hemiketal Ans. (1)


Ring opening
Sol. In the reaction
HOCH 2 O
CH2OH
4 1 6
Tollen's
ve silver Reagent O X eF4 O2 F2 X eF6 O20
mirror
test OH
Xenon undergoes oxidation while oxygen
(2) In above compound in presence of Aq. undergoes reduction.
KOH (SN AE ) reaction takes place & 79. The products obtained when chlorine gas reacts
-Hydroxy carbonyl compound is formed with cold and dilute aqueous NaOH are :-
which give ve Tollen's test So this compound
(1) ClO and ClO3
behave as reducing sugar in an aqueous KOH
solution.
(2) ClO2 and ClO3
77. Given
C(grahite) + O2(g) CO2(g) ; (3) Cl and ClO
rH = 393.5 kJ mol1

(4) Cl and ClO2
1
H 2 (g) O 2 (g) H 2 O(l); Ans. (3)
2
rH = 285.8 kJ mol1 Sol.
CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) CH4(g) + 2O2(g);
rH = +890.3 kJ mol1

Based on the above thermochemical equations, 80. The major product obtained in the following
the value of rH at 298 K for the reaction reaction is :-
C(grahite) + 2H2(g) CH4(g) will be :-
Br
(1) +74.8 kJ mol1 (2) +144.0 kJ mol1 H
C6H 5 BuOK
(3) 74.8 kJ mol1 (4) 144.0 kJ mol1
C6H 5
Ans. (3)
Sol. CO2(g)+2H2O() CH4(g)+2O2(g);rH= 890.3
(1) C6 H5 CH O t Bu CH2 CH 6 H5
fH 393.5 285.8 ? 0
(2) C6H5CH=CHC6H5
rH = ( H)
f products ( f H)Re actan ts
(3) (+)C6H5CH(OtBu)CH2H5
890.3 1 ( f H) CH4 2 0 1 (393.5) 2(285.8)
(4) ()C6H5CH(OtBu)CH2C6H5
( f H)CH 4 890.3 965.1 74.8 kJ / mol Ans. (2)

23
JEE(MAIN)-2017
Sol. Elimination reaction is highly favoured if Sol. NO One unpaired electron is present in *
(a) Bulkier base is used molecular orbital.
(b) Higher temperature is used CO No unpaired electron is present
Hence in given reaction biomolecular O2 Two unpaired electrons are present in *
ellimination reaction provides major product. molecular orbitals.

Br H B2 Two unpaired electrons are present in


C6H5 bonding molecular orbitals.
C6 H 5
C6 H 5 +tBuOH +Br
C6H5 83. The freezing point of benzene decreases by
H H 0.45C when 0.2 g of acetic acid is added to
t 20 g of benzene. If acetic acid associates to
O Bu
form a dimer in benzene, percentage
81. Sodium salt of an organic acid 'X' produces association of acetic acid in benzene will be :-
effervescence with conc. H2SO4. 'X' reacts with (Kf for benzene = 5.12 K kg mol1)
the acidified aqueous CaCl2 solution to give a (1) 64.6% (2) 80.4%
white precipitate which decolourises acidic (3) 74.6% (4) 94.6%
solution of KMnO . 'X' is :- Ans. (4)
4
Sol. In benzene
(1) C6H5COONa 2CH3COOH (CH3COOH)2
(2) HCOONa 1
i = 1 1
(3) CH3COONa 2

(4) Na2C2O4
i = 1 Here is degree of association
2
Ans. (4)

Tf iK f m
Sol.
0.2


1 5.12 60
0.45= 2 20
1000


1 0.527
2
= 0.945
% degree of association = 94.5%
84. Which of the following molecules is least
resonance stabilized ?
82. Which of the following species is not
paramagnetic :-
(1) (2)
(1) NO (2) CO O
(3) O2 (4) B2
Ans. (2) (3) (4)
N O
Ans. (4)

24
CODE-B

Number of Cl present in ionization sphere =
O Mole of ion precipitated with exess AgNO3 0.02
2
mole of complex 0.01
Sol. (4) is nonaromatic and hence least It means 2Cl ions present in ionization sphere
complex is [Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl 2.H2O
86. The major product obtained in the following
reasonance stabilized reaction is :-
O
O
(1) Benzene is aromatic
DIBAL H

(2) furan is aromatic COOH


O
OH

(3)
N
pyridine is aromatic
(1)
COOH
CHO

85. On treatment of 100 mL of 0.1 M solution of


CoCl 3 . 6H2O with excess AgNO3; 1.2 1022 OH
ions are precipitated. The complex is :-

CHO
(1) [Co(H2O)4 Cl2]Cl.2H2O (2)
CHO
(2) [Co(H2O)3Cl3].3H2O
(3) [Co(H2O)6]Cl 3
(4) [Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl 2.H2O CHO
(3)

Ans. (4)
COOH
Molarity volume(ml)
Sol. Moles of complex =
1000
CHO
100 0.1 (4)
= = 0.01 mole
1000 CHO

Moles of ions precipitated with excess of Ans. (2)


1.2 10 22 Sol. DIBAL H is electrophilic reducing agent
AgNO3 = reduces cynide, esters, lactone, amide,
6.02 10 23
carboxylic acid into corresponding Aldehyde
= 0.02 moles (partial reduction)

25
JEE(MAIN)-2017
87. A water sample has ppm level concentration of 89. Given
following anions
E oCl / Cl
o
1.36 V, E Cr 3
/ Cr
0.74 V
2

F 10; SO24 100; NO3 50

the anion/anions that make / makes the water E oCr O2 / Cr3 1.33 V, E oMnO / Mn2 1.51V .
2 7 4

sample unsuitable for drinking is / are :


Among the following, the strongest reducing
(1) only NO3 (2) both SO24 and NO3 agent is

(3) only F (4) only SO24 (1) Cr (2) Mn2+

Ans. (3) (3) Cr3+ (4) Cl


Sol. NO3: The maximum limit of nitrate in drinking Ans. (1)
water is 50 ppm. Excess nitrate in drinking
water can cause disease. Such as Sol. E oMnO / Mn 2 1.51V ..(i)
4
methemoglobinemia.
2 2
SO4 : above 500 ppm of SO4 ion in drinking E oCl / Cl
1.36 V ..(ii)
2

water causes laxative effect otherwise at


moderate levels it is harmless

F : Above 2ppm concentration of F in

drinking water cause brown mottling of teeth.

E oCr O 2 / Cr 3 1.33 V
2 7

E oCr 3 / Cr 0.74
..(iii)

..(iv)

The concentration given in question of SO


2 Since Cr+3 is having least reducing potential,
4

& NO3 in water is suitable for drinking but the so Cr is the best Reducing agent.
concentration of F (i.e 10 ppm) make water 90. The group having isoelectronic species is :-

2 + 2+
unsuitable for drinking purpose : (1) O , F , Na , Mg
+
88. 1 gram of a carbonate (M2CO3) on treatment (2) O , F , Na , Mg
with excess HCl produces 0.01186 mole of
(3) O2 , F , Na , Mg2+
CO2. the molar mass of M2CO3 in g mol1 is :- + 2+
(1) 1186 (2) 84.3 (4) O , F , Na , Mg
(3) 118.6 (4) 11.86 Ans. (1)

Ans. (2) Sol.


Sol. Given chemical eqn 2 + +2
M2CO3 + 2HCl 2MCl + H2O + CO2 ions O F Na Mg
1gm 0.01186mol Atomic number = 8 9 11 12
from the balanced chemical eqn.
No. of e = 10 10 10 10
1 2 + +2
0.01186 therefore O , F , Na , Mg are isoelectronic
M

M 84.3 gm/mol

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