1. During preparation for bowel surgery, a male client receives an antibiotic to reduce intestinal bacteria.

Antibiotic therapy
may interfere with synthesis of which vitamin and may lead to hypoprothrombinemia?

A. vitamin A
B. vitamin D
C. vitamin E
D. vitamin K

1. Answer: D. vitamin K

Intestinal bacteria synthesize such nutritional substances as vitamin K, thiamine, riboflavin, vitamin B12, folic acid, biotin, and nicotinic
acid. Therefore, antibiotic therapy may interfere with synthesis of these substances, including vitamin K. Intestinal bacteria dont
synthesize vitamins A, D, or E.

2. When evaluating a male client for complications of acute pancreatitis, the nurse would observe for:

A. increased intracranial pressure.

B. decreased urine output.
C. bradycardia.
D. hypertension.

2. Answer: B. decreased urine output.

Acute pancreatitis can cause decreased urine output, which results from the renal failure that sometimes accompanies this condition.
Intracranial pressure neither increases nor decreases in a client with pancreatitis. Tachycardia, not bradycardia, usually is associated
with pulmonary or hypovolemic complications of pancreatitis. Hypotension can be caused by a hypovolemic complication, but
hypertension usually isnt related to acute pancreatitis.

3. A male client with a recent history of rectal bleeding is being prepared for a colonoscopy. How should the nurse position
the client for this test initially?

A. Lying on the right side with legs straight

B. Lying on the left side with knees bent
C. Prone with the torso elevated
D. Bent over with hands touching the floor

3. Answer: B. Lying on the left side with knees bent

For a colonoscopy, the nurse initially should position the client on the left side with knees bent. Placing the client on the right side with
legs straight, prone with the torso elevated, or bent over with hands touching the floor wouldnt allow proper visualization of the large
intestine.
4. A male client with extreme weakness, pallor, weak peripheral pulses, and disorientation is admitted to the emergency
department. His wife reports that he has been spitting up blood. A Mallory-Weiss tear is suspected, and the nurse begins
taking a client history from the clients wife. The question by the nurse that demonstrates her understanding of Mallory-Weiss
tearing is:

A. Tell me about your husbands alcohol usage.

B. Is your husband being treated for tuberculosis?
C. Has your husband recently fallen or injured his chest?
D. Describe spices and condiments your husband uses on food.

4. Answer: A. Tell me about your husbands alcohol usage.

A Mallory-Weiss tear is associated with massive bleeding after a tear occurs in the mucous membrane at the junction of the esophagus
and stomach. There is a strong relationship between ethanol usage, resultant vomiting, and a Mallory-Weiss tear. The bleeding is
coming from the stomach, not from the lungs as would be true in some cases of tuberculosis. A Mallory-Weiss tear doesnt occur from
chest injuries or falls and isnt associated with eating spicy foods.

5. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform for a female client receiving enteral feedings
through a gastrostomy tube?

A. Change the tube feeding solutions and tubing at least every 24 hours.
B. Maintain the head of the bed at a 15-degree elevation continuously.
C. Check the gastrostomy tube for position every 2 days.
D. Maintain the client on bed rest during the feedings.

5. Answer: A. Change the tube feeding solutions and tubing at least every 24 hours.

Tube feeding solutions and tubing should be changed every 24 hours, or more frequently if the feeding requires it. Doing so prevents
contamination and bacterial growth. The head of the bed should be elevated 30 to 45 degrees continuously to prevent aspiration.
Checking for gastrostomy tube placement is performed before initiating the feedings and every 4 hours during continuous feedings.
Clients may ambulate during feedings.

6. A male client is recovering from a small-bowel resection. To relieve pain, the physician prescribes meperidine (Demerol), 75
mg I.M. every 4 hours. How soon after administration should meperidine onset of action occur?

A. 5 to 10 minutes
B. 15 to 30 minutes
C. 30 to 60 minutes
D. 2 to 4 hours

6. Answer: B. 15 to 30 minutes

Meperidines onset of action is 15 to 30 minutes. It peaks between 30 and 60 minutes and has a duration of action of 2 to 4 hours.
7. The nurse is caring for a male client with cirrhosis. Which assessment findings indicate that the client has deficient vitamin
K absorption caused by this hepatic disease?

A. Dyspnea and fatigue

B. Ascites and orthopnea
C. Purpura and petechiae
D. Gynecomastia and testicular atrophy

7. Answer: C. Purpura and petechiae

A hepatic disorder, such as cirrhosis, may disrupt the livers normal use of vitamin K to produce prothrombin (a clotting factor).
Consequently, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, including purpura and petechiae. Dyspnea
and fatigue suggest anemia. Ascites and orthopnea are unrelated to vitamin K absorption. Gynecomastia and testicular atrophy result
from decreased estrogen metabolism by the diseased liver.

8. Which condition is most likely to have a nursing diagnosis of fluid volume deficit?

A. Appendicitis
B. Pancreatitis
C. Cholecystitis
D. Gastric ulcer

8. Answer: B. Pancreatitis

Hypovolemic shock from fluid shifts is a major factor in acute pancreatitis. The other conditions are less likely to exhibit fluid volume
deficit.

9. While a female client is being prepared for discharge, the nasogastric (NG) feeding tube becomes cloggeD. To remedy this
problem and teach the clients family how to deal with it at home, what should the nurse do?

A. Irrigate the tube with cola.

B. Advance the tube into the intestine.
C. Apply intermittent suction to the tube.
D. Withdraw the obstruction with a 30-ml syringe.

9. Answer: A. Irrigate the tube with cola.

The nurse should irrigate the tube with cola because its effervescence and acidity are suited to the purpose, its inexpensive, and its
readily available in most homes. Advancing the NG tube is inappropriate because the tube is designed to stay in the stomach and isnt
long enough to reach the intestines. Applying intermittent suction or using a syringe for aspiration is unlikely to dislodge the material
clogging the tube but may create excess pressure. Intermittent suction may even collapse the tube.
10. A male client with pancreatitis complains of pain. The nurse expects the physician to prescribe meperidine (Demerol)
instead of morphine to relieve pain because:

A. meperidine provides a better, more prolonged analgesic effect.

B. morphine may cause spasms of Oddis sphincter.
C. meperidine is less addictive than morphine.
D. morphine may cause hepatic dysfunction.

10. Answer: B. morphine may cause spasms of Oddis sphincter.

For a client with pancreatitis, the physician will probably avoid prescribing morphine because this drug may trigger spasms of the
sphincter of Oddi (a sphincter at the end of the pancreatic duct), causing irritation of the pancreas. Meperidine has a somewhat shorter
duration of action than morphine. The two drugs are equally addictive. Morphine isnt associated with hepatic dysfunction.

11. Mandy, an adolescent girl is admitted to an acute care facility with severe malnutrition. After a thorough examination, the
physician diagnoses anorexia nervosa. When developing the plan of care for this client, the nurse is most likely to include
which nursing diagnosis?

A. Hopelessness
B. Powerlessness
C. Chronic low self-esteem
D. Deficient knowledge

11. Answer: C. Chronic low self-esteem

Young women with Chronic low self-esteem are at highest risk for anorexia nervosa because they perceive being thin as a way to
improve their self-confidence. Hopelessness and Powerlessness are inappropriate nursing diagnoses because clients with anorexia
nervosa seldom feel hopeless or powerless; instead, they use food to control their desire to be thin and hope that restricting food intake
will achieve this goal. Anorexia nervosa doesnt result from a knowledge deficit, such as one regarding good nutrition.

12. Which diagnostic test would be used first to evaluate a client with upper GI bleeding?

A. Endoscopy
B. Upper GI series
C. Hemoglobin (Hb) levels and hematocrit (HCT)
D. Arteriography

12. Answer: A. Endoscopy

Endoscopy permits direct evaluation of the upper GI tract and can detect 90% of bleeding lesions. An upper GI series, or barium study,
usually isnt the diagnostic method of choice, especially in a client with acute active bleeding whos vomiting and unstable. An upper GI
series is also less accurate than endoscopy. Although an upper GI series might confirm the presence of a lesion, it wouldnt necessarily
reveal whether the lesion is bleeding. Hb levels and HCT, which indicate loss of blood volume, arent always reliable indicators of GI
bleeding because a decrease in these values may not be seen for several hours. Arteriography is an invasive study associated with life-
threatening complications and wouldnt be used for an initial evaluation.

13. A female client who has just been diagnosed with hepatitis A asks, How could I have gotten this disease? What is the
nurses best response?

A. You may have eaten contaminated restaurant food.

B. You could have gotten it by using I.V. drugs.
C. You must have received an infected blood transfusion.
D. You probably got it by engaging in unprotected sex.

13. Answer: A. You may have eaten contaminated restaurant food.

Hepatitis A virus typically is transmitted by the oral-fecal route commonly by consuming food contaminated by infected food handlers.
The virus isnt transmitted by the I.V. route, blood transfusions, or unprotected sex. Hepatitis B can be transmitted by I.V. drug use or
blood transfusion. Hepatitis C can be transmitted by unprotected sex.

14. When preparing a male client, age 51, for surgery to treat appendicitis, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk
for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery. What is the rationale for choosing this nursing diagnosis?

A. Obstruction of the appendix may increase venous drainage and cause the appendix to rupture.
B. Obstruction of the appendix reduces arterial flow, leading to ischemia, inflammation, and rupture of the appendix.
C. The appendix may develop gangrene and rupture, especially in a middle-aged client.
D. Infection of the appendix diminishes necrotic arterial blood flow and increases venous drainage.

14. Answer: B. Obstruction of the appendix reduces arterial flow, leading to ischemia, inflammation, and rupture of the
appendix.

A client with appendicitis is at risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery because obstruction of the appendix
causes mucus fluid to build up, increasing pressure in the appendix and compressing venous outflow drainage. The pressure continues
to rise with venous obstruction; arterial blood flow then decreases, leading to ischemia from lack of perfusion. Inflammation and
bacterial growth follow, and swelling continues to raise pressure within the appendix, resulting in gangrene and rupture. Geriatric, not
middle-aged, clients are especially susceptible to appendix rupture.

15. A female client with hepatitis C develops liver failure and GI hemorrhage. The blood products that would most likely bring
about hemostasis in the client are:

A. whole blood and albumin.

B. platelets and packed red blood cells.
C. fresh frozen plasma and whole blood.
D. cryoprecipitate and fresh frozen plasma.
15. Answer: D. cryoprecipitate and fresh frozen plasma.

The liver is vital in the synthesis of clotting factors, so when its diseased or dysfunctional, as in hepatitis C, bleeding occurs. Treatment
consists of administering blood products that aid clotting. These include fresh frozen plasma containing fibrinogen and cryoprecipitate,
which have most of the clotting factors. Although administering whole blood, albumin, and packed cells will contribute to hemostasis,
those products arent specifically used to treat hemostasis. Platelets are helpful, but the best answer is cryoprecipitate and fresh frozen
plasma.

16. To prevent gastroesophageal reflux in a male client with hiatal hernia, the nurse should provide which discharge
instruction?

A. Lie down after meals to promote digestion.

B. Avoid coffee and alcoholic beverages.
C. Take antacids with meals.
D. Limit fluid intake with meals.

16. Answer: B. Avoid coffee and alcoholic beverages.

To prevent reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus, the nurse should advise the client to avoid foods and beverages that increase
stomach acid, such as coffee and alcohol. The nurse also should teach the client to avoid lying down after meals, which can aggravate
reflux, and to take antacids after eating. The client need not limit fluid intake with meals as long as the fluids arent gastric irritants.

17. The nurse caring for a client with small-bowel obstruction would plan to implement which nursing intervention first?

A. Administering pain medication

B. Obtaining a blood sample for laboratory studies
C. Preparing to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube
D. Administering I.V. fluids

17. Answer: D. Administering I.V. fluids

I.V. infusions containing normal saline solution and potassium should be given first to maintain fluid and electrolyte balance. For the
clients comfort and to assist in bowel decompression, the nurse should prepare to insert an NG tube next. A blood sample is then
obtained for laboratory studies to aid in the diagnosis of bowel obstruction and guide treatment. Blood studies usually include a
complete blood count, serum electrolyte levels, and blood urea nitrogen level. Pain medication often is withheld until obstruction is
diagnosed because analgesics can decrease intestinal motility.
18. A female client with dysphagia is being prepared for discharge. Which outcome indicates that the client is ready for
discharge?

A. The client doesnt exhibit rectal tenesmus.

B. The client is free from esophagitis and achalasia.
C. The client reports diminished duodenal inflammation.
D. The client has normal gastric structures.

18. Answer: B. The client is free from esophagitis and achalasia.

Dysphagia may be the reason why a client with esophagitis or achalasia seeks treatment. Dysphagia isnt associated with rectal
tenesmus, duodenal inflammation, or abnormal gastric structures.

19. A male client undergoes total gastrectomy. Several hours after surgery, the nurse notes that the clients nasogastric (NG)
tube has stopped draining. How should the nurse respond?

A. Notify the physician

B. Reposition the tube
C. Irrigate the tube
D. Increase the suction level

19. Answer: A. Notify the physician

An NG tube that fails to drain during the postoperative period should be reported to the physician immediately. It may be clogged, which
could increase pressure on the suture site because fluid isnt draining adequately. Repositioning or irrigating an NG tube in a client who
has undergone gastric surgery can disrupt the anastomosis. Increasing the level of suction may cause trauma to GI mucosa or the
suture line.

20. What laboratory finding is the primary diagnostic indicator for pancreatitis?

A. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

B. Elevated serum lipase
C. Elevated aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
D. Increased lactate dehydrogenase (LD)

20. Answer: B. Elevated serum lipase

Elevation of serum lipase is the most reliable indicator of pancreatitis because this enzyme is produced solely by the pancreas. A
clients BUN is typically elevated in relation to renal dysfunction; the AST, in relation to liver dysfunction; and LD, in relation to damaged
cardiac muscle.
21. A male client with cholelithiasis has a gallstone lodged in the common bile duct. When assessing this client, the nurse
expects to note:

A. yellow sclera.
B. light amber urine.
C. circumoral pallor.
D. black, tarry stools.

21. Answer: A. yellow sclera.

Yellow sclerae may be the first sign of jaundice, which occurs when the common bile duct is obstructed. Urine normally is light amber.
Circumoral pallor and black, tarry stools dont occur in common bile duct obstruction; they are signs of hypoxia and GI bleeding,
respectively.

22. Nurse Hannah is teaching a group of middle-aged men about peptic ulcers. When discussing risk factors for peptic ulcers,
the nurse should mention:

A. a sedentary lifestyle and smoking.

B. a history of hemorrhoids and smoking.
C. alcohol abuse and a history of acute renal failure.
D. alcohol abuse and smoking.

22. Answer: D. alcohol abuse and smoking.

Risk factors for peptic (gastric and duodenal) ulcers include alcohol abuse, smoking, and stress. A sedentary lifestyle and a history of
hemorrhoids arent risk factors for peptic ulcers. Chronic renal failure, not acute renal failure, is associated with duodenal ulcers.

23. While palpating a female clients right upper quadrant (RUQ), the nurse would expect to find which of the following
structures?

A. Sigmoid colon
B. Appendix
C. Spleen
D. Liver

23. Answer: D. Liver

The RUQ contains the liver, gallbladder, duodenum, head of the pancreas, hepatic flexure of the colon, portions of the ascending and
transverse colon, and a portion of the right kidney. The sigmoid colon is located in the left lower quadrant; the appendix, in the right
lower quadrant; and the spleen, in the left upper quadrant.
24. A male client has undergone a colon resection. While turning him, wound dehiscence with evisceration occurs. The
nurses first response is to:

A. call the physician.

B. place saline-soaked sterile dressings on the wound.
C. take a blood pressure and pulse.
D. pull the dehiscence closed.

24. Answer: B. place saline-soaked sterile dressings on the wound.

The nurse should first place saline-soaked sterile dressings on the open wound to prevent tissue drying and possible infection. Then the
nurse should call the physician and take the clients vital signs. The dehiscence needs to be surgically closed, so the nurse should
never try to close it.

25. The nurse is monitoring a female client receiving paregoric to treat diarrhea for drug interactions. Which drugs can
produce additive constipation when given with an opium preparation?

A. Antiarrhythmic drugs
B. Anticholinergic drugs
C. Anticoagulant drugs
D. Antihypertensive drugs

25. Answer: B. Anticholinergic drugs

Paregoric has an additive effect of constipation when used with anticholinergic drugs. Antiarrhythmics, anticoagulants, and
antihypertensives arent known to interact with paregoric.

26. A male client is recovering from an ileostomy that was performed to treat inflammatory bowel disease. During discharge
teaching, the nurse should stress the importance of:

A. increasing fluid intake to prevent dehydration.

B. wearing an appliance pouch only at bedtime.
C. consuming a low-protein, high-fiber diet.
D. taking only enteric-coated medications.

26. Answer: A. increasing fluid intake to prevent dehydration.

Because stool forms in the large intestine, an ileostomy typically drains liquid waste. To avoid fluid loss through ileostomy drainage, the
nurse should instruct the client to increase fluid intake. The nurse should teach the client to wear a collection appliance at all times
because ileostomy drainage is incontinent, to avoid high-fiber foods because they may irritate the intestines, and to avoid enteric-coated
medications because the body cant absorb them after an ileostomy

27. The nurse is caring for a female client with active upper GI bleeding. What is the appropriate diet for this client during the
first 24 hours after admission?

A. Regular diet
B. Skim milk
C. Nothing by mouth
D. Clear liquids

27. Answer: C. Nothing by mouth

Shock and bleeding must be controlled before oral intake, so the client should receive nothing by mouth. A regular diet is incorrect.
When the bleeding is controlled, the diet is gradually increased, starting with ice chips and then clear liquids. Skim milk shouldnt be
given because it increases gastric acid production, which could prolong bleeding. A liquid diet is the first diet offered after bleeding and
shock are controlled.

28. A male client has just been diagnosed with hepatitis A. On assessment, the nurse expects to note:

A. severe abdominal pain radiating to the shoulder.

B. anorexia, nausea, and vomiting.
C. eructation and constipation.
D. abdominal ascites.

28. Answer: B. anorexia, nausea, and vomiting.

Hallmark signs and symptoms of hepatitis A include anorexia, nausea, vomiting, fatigue, and weakness. Abdominal pain may occur but
doesnt radiate to the shoulder. Eructation and constipation are common in gallbladder disease, not hepatitis A. Abdominal ascites is a
sign of advanced hepatic disease, not an early sign of hepatitis A.

29. A female client with viral hepatitis A is being treated in an acute care facility. Because the client requires enteric
precautions, the nurse should:

A. place the client in a private room.

B. wear a mask when handling the clients bedpan.
C. wash the hands after touching the client.
D. wear a gown when providing personal care for the client.

29. Answer: C. wash the hands after touching the client.

To maintain enteric precautions, the nurse must wash the hands after touching the client or potentially contaminated articles and before
caring for another client. A private room is warranted only if the client has poor hygiene for instance, if the client is unlikely to wash
the hands after touching infective material or is likely to share contaminated articles with other clients. For enteric precautions, the nurse
need not wear a mask and must wear a gown only if soiling from fecal matter is likely.

30. Which of the following factors can cause hepatitis A?

A. Contact with infected blood

B. Blood transfusions with infected blood
C. Eating contaminated shellfish
D. Sexual contact with an infected person

30. Answer: C. Eating contaminated shellfish

Hepatitis A can be caused by consuming contaminated water, milk, or food especially shellfish from contaminated water. Hepatitis B
is caused by blood and sexual contact with an infected person. Hepatitis C is usually caused by contact with infected blood, including
receiving blood transfusions.