NEET

Model Grand Test - 2017

NEET Date: 00-00-2017
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 720
PHYSICS
1. The dimensions of emf in MKS is (if charge
(c) N m (d) N m
is fundamental unit) 15 18
(a) ML-1 T-2 Q-2 (b) ML2T-2Q-2 7. Two bodies have their moments of inertia I
(c) MLT-2Q-1 (d) ML2T-2Q-1 and 2I respectively about their axis of
2. A 150 m long train is moving with a rotation. If their kinetic energies of rotation

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uniform velocity of 45 km/h. The time are equal, their angular momenta will be in
taken by the train to cross a bridge of the ratio

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length 850 meters is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 :1
(a) 56 sec (b) 68 sec

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(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1: 2
(c) 80 sec (d) 92 sec
8. Two satellites of earth, S1 and S2, are
3. Two particles of mass M and m are moving

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moving in the same orbit. The mass of S1 is
in a circle of radii R and r. If their time
four times the mass of S2. Which one of the
periods are the same, what will be the ratio
following statements is true ?
of their linear velocities ?
ra
(a) The time period of S1 is four times that
(a) MR : mr (b) M : m
up
of S2
(c) R : r (d) 1 : 1
(b) The potential energies of earth and
4. A 30 gm bullet initially travelling at 120
satellite in the two cases are equal
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m/s penetrates 12 cm into a wooden block.

(c) S1 and S2 are moving with the same
The average resistance exerted by the
speed
wooden block is
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(d) The kinetic energies of two satellites are

(a) 2850 N (b) 2200 N
equal
(c) 2000 N (d) 1800 N
.e

9. A particle of mass m is thrown upwards

5. If a long spring is stretched by 0.02 m, its
from the surface of the earth, with a
potential energy is U. If the spring is
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velocity u. The mass and the radius of the

stretched by 0.1 m, then its potential
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earth are, respectively, M and R. G is

energy will be
gravitational constant and g is acceleration
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U
(a) (b) U due to gravity on the surface of the earth.
5
The minimum value of u so that the
(c) 5 U (d) 25 U
particle does not return back to earth is
6. A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg m2
about its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 2GM 2GM
(a) (b)
60 rpm about this axis. The torque which R R2
can stop the wheels rotation in one minute 4GM
(c) 2gR 2 (d)
would be R2
2 10. The approximate depth of an ocean is 2700
(a) N m (b) N m
15 12 m. The compressibility of water is 45.410 -
11 Pa-1 and density of water is 103 kg/m3.
 What fractional compression of water will ratio of its displacement and amplitude will
be obtained at the bottom of the ocean ? be

(a) 0.8 102 (b) 1.0 102 1 3

(a) (b)
(c) 1.2 102 (d) 1.4 102 2 2
11. Water rises to height h in capillary tube. If 1
(c) (d) 2
the length of capillary tube above the 2
surface of water is made less than h, then 17. Which one of the following statements is
(a) water does not rise at all true for the speed v and the acceleration a
(b) water rises up to the tip of capillary tube of a particle executing simple harmonic
and then starts overflowing like a fountain motion ?

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(c) water rises up to the top of capillary (a) When v is maximum, a is minimum
tube and stays there without overflowing (b) Value of a is zero, whatever may be the

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(d) water rises up to a point a little below value of v
the top and stays there (c) When v is zero, a is zero

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12. The temperature of the body is increased (d) When v is maximum, a is zero
from -73oC to 357oC, the ratio of energy 18. An observer moves towards a stationary

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emitted per second is source of sound with a speed 1/5th of the
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 81
ra speed of sound. The wavelength and
(c) 1 : 27 (d) 1 : 91 frequency of the source emitted are and f
13. If the temperate of the sun (black body) is respectively. The apparent frequency and
up
doubled, the rate of energy received on wavelength recorded by the observer are
earth will be increased by a factor of respectively
ad

(a) 2 (b) 4 (a) 1.2 f, (b) f, 1.2

(c) 8 (d) 16
(c) 0.8 f, 0.8 (d) 1.2 f, 1.2
14. An ideal refrigerator has a freezer at a
en

19. Two points are located at a distance of 10

temperature of -13oC. The coefficient of
m and 15 m from the source of oscillation.
performance of the engine is 5. The
The period of oscillation is 0.05 s and the
.e

temperature of the air (to which heat is

velocity of the wave is 300 m/s. What is the
rejected) will be
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phase difference between the oscillation of

(a) 325oC (b) 325 K
two points ?
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(c) 39oC (d) 320oC

2
15. A mono atomic gas is supplied with the (a) (b)
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3 3
heat Q very slowly keeping the pressure

constant. The work done by the gas will be (c) (d)
6
2 3
(a) Q (b) Q 20. The electric intensity due to a dipole of
3 5
length 10 cm and having a charge of
2 1
(c) Q (d) Q 500 C , at a point on the axis at a distance
5 5
20 cm from one of the charges in air, is
16. The kinetic energy and the potential energy
of a particle executing SHM are equal. The (a) 6.25 107 N / C (b) 9.28 107 N / C
(c) 13.1 1111 N / C (d) 20.5 107 N / C
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21. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, (a) the resistance will be doubled and the
are separated by a distance d. If F is the specific resistance will be halved
force of repulsion between the ions, the (b) the resistance will be halved and the
number of electrons mission from each ion specific resistance will remain unchanged
will be ( e being the charge on an electron) (c) the resistance will be halved and the
specific resistance will be doubled
4 0 Fd 2 4 0 Fe 2
(a) (b) (d) the resistance and the specific
e2 d2
resistance, will both remain unchanged
4 0 Fd 2 4 0 Fd 2 26. A battery is charged at a potential of 15 V
(c) (d)
e2 q2 for 8 H when the current flowing is 10 A.
22. Three capacitors each of capacity 4 F are The battery on discharge supplied a current

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to be connected in such a way that the of 5 A for 15 H. The mean terminal voltage

6 F . This can be during discharge is 14 V. The watt-hour

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effective capacitance is
efficiency of the battery is :
done by

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(a) 82.5% (b) 80%
(a) Connecting them in parallel
(c) 90% (d) 87.5%
(b) Connecting two in series and one in
27. The resistance of an ammeter is 13 and

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parallel
(c) Connecting two in parallel and one in its scale is graduated for a current up to
100 A. After an additional shunt has been
series
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(d) Connecting al of them in series connected to this ammeter it becomes
up
23. A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a possible to measure currents up to 750 A

potential difference of V volts. After by this meter. The value of shunt resistance

disconnecting the charging battery the is

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distance between the plates of the capacitor (a) 20 (b) 2

is increased using an insulating handle. As (c) 0.2 (d) 0.02
en

a result the potential difference between the

28. An electron moves in a circular orbit with a
plates
uniform speed v. It produces a magnetic
.e

(a) decreases (b) does not change

field B at the centre of the circle. The
(c) becomes zero (d) increases
radius of the circle is proportional to
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24. A steady current flows in a metallic

B v
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conductor of non-uniform cross-section. (a) (b)

v B
The quantity / quantities constant along
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the length of the conductor is / are

v B
(c) (d)
(a) Current, electric field and drift speed
B v
(b) Drift speed only 29. Under the influence of a uniform magnetic

(c) Current and drift speed field a charged particle is moving in a circle

(d) Current only of radius R with Constant speed v. The time

25. The electric resistance of a certain wire of period of the motion

iron is R. If its length and radius are both (a) depends on v and not on R

doubled, then (b) depends on both R and v

(c) is independent of both R and v

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 (d) depends on R and not on v (c) 40 s (d) 20 s
30. Two magnets are held together in a 35. What is the value of inductance L for which
vibration magnetometer and are allowed to the current is a maximum in a series LCR
oscillate in the earths magnetic field with circuit with C 10 F and 1000s 1 ?
like poles together, 12 oscillations per
(a) 100 mH
minute are made but for unlike poles
(b) 1 mH
together only 4 oscillations per minute are
(c) Cannot be calculated unless R is known
executed. The ratio of their magnetic
(d) 10 mH
moments is
36. Which of the following are not
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 3
electromagnetic waves ?
(c) 3 : 5 (d) 5 : 4
(a) Cosmic rays (b) Gamma rays

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31. Curie temperatures is the temperature
(c) rays (d) X-rays
above which

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37. The electric and the magnetic field,
(a) ferromagnetic material becomes
associated with an electromagnetic wave,

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paramagnetic material
propagating along the +z axis, can be
(b) paramagnetic material becomes
represented by
diamagnetic material

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(c) paramagnetic material becomes (a) E E0 k, B B0i

ferromagnetic material
ra (b) E E0 j , B B0i

(d) ferromagnetic materials becomes
diamagnetic material
E E0 j , B B0i

up
(c)
32. A magnetic field of 2 102 T acts at right
(d) E E0i, B B0i
angles to a coil of area 100 cm2 with 50
ad

turns. The average emf induced in the coil 38. An air bubble in sphere having 4 cm

is 0.1 V, when it is removed from the field diameter appears 1 cm from surface
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in time t. The value of t is nearest to eye when looked along diameter.

(a) 0.1 sec (b) 0.01 sec If a g 1.5 , the distance of bubble from
.e

(c) 1 sec (d) 20 sec refracting surface is

33. A long solenoid has 500 turns. When a (a) 1.2 cm (b) 3.2 cm
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current of 2 A is passed through it, the (c) 2.8 cm (d) 1.6 cm

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resulting magnetic flux linked with each 39. A person who can see things most clearly at
3
the turn of the solenoid is 4 10 Wb . The a distance of 10 cm requires spectacles to
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self-inductance of the solenoid is enable to him to sec clearly things at a

(a) 2.5 H (b) 2.0 H distance of 30 cm. What should be the focal
(c) 1.0 H (d) 4.0 H length of the spectacles.
34. A coil of 40 H inductance is connected in (a) 15 cm (Concave)
series with a resistance of 8 ohm and the (b) 15 cm (Convex)
combination is joined to the terminals of a (c) 10 cm
2V battery. The time constant of the circuit (d) 0
is 40. Two slits are separated by a distance of 0.5
(a) 5 s (b) 1/5 s and illuminated with light of 6000 Ao . If
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 the screen is placed 2.5 m from the slits. 5 5
(a) A (b) A
The distance of the third bright image from 40 50
the centre will be 5 5
(c) A (d) A
(a) 1.5 mm (b) 9 mm 10 20
(c) 6 mm (d) 3 mm CHEMISTRY
41. A photosensitive metallic surface has work 46. Which has maximum number of
function, hv0. If photons of energy 2hv0 fall molecules?
on this surface, the electrons come out with (a) 7 gm N2 (b) 2 gm H2
a maximum velocity of 4 10 m/s. When
6
(c) 16 gm NO2 (d) 16 gm O2
the photon energy is increased to 5hv0, 47. The following quantum numbers are
then maximum velocity of photoelectrons possible for how many orbital (s) n = 3, l =

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will be 2, m = +2 ?

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(a) 2 106 m / s (b) 2 107 m / s (a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 4
(c) 8 105 m / s (d) 8 106 m / s

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48. Identify the incorrect statements among the
42. In the phenomenon of electric discharge
following :
through gases at low pressure, the coloured

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(a) lanthanoids contraction is observed in
glow in the tube appears as a result of
lanthanoid elements and their ions
(a) excitation of electrons in the atoms
(b) as a result of lanthanoids contraction,
ra
(b) collision between the atoms of the gas
the properties of 4d series of the transition
(c) collisions between the charged particles
up
elements have no similarities with the 5d
emitted from the cathode and the atoms of
series of transition elements
the gas
(c) shielding power of 4f electrons is quite
ad

(d) collision between different electrons of

weak
the atoms of the gas
(d) there is a decrease in the radii of the
en

43. The total energy of an electron in the first

atoms or ions as one proceeds from La to
excited state of hydrogen is about -3.4 eV.
Lu
Its kinetic energy in this state is
.e

49. H2O is dipolar, whereas BeF2 is not. It is

(a) -3.4 eV (b) -6.8 eV
because
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(c) 6.8 eV (d) 3.4 eV

(a) The electro negativity of F is greater
44. Which of the following are suitable for the
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than that of O
fusion process ?
(b) H2O involves hydrogen bonding whereas
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(a) Heavy nuclei (b) Light nuclei

BeF2 is a discrete molecule
(c) Atom bomb (d) Radioactive decay
(c) H2O is linear an dBeF2 is angular
45. Current in the circuit will be
(d) H2O is angular and BeF2 is linear
50. If a gas expands at constant temperature, it
indicates that
(a) pressure of the gas increases
(b) number of the molecules of gas
increases

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 (c) kinetic energy of molecules remains the (c) In electrochemical series, Zn is above
same hydrogen
(d) kinetic energy of molecules decreases (d) NO3 is reduced in preference to
51. Considering entropy (S) as a
hydronium ion
thermodynamics parameter, the criterion
55. The O O H bond angle in H2O2 (gas) is
for the spontaneity of any process is
(a) 106o (b) 109o28
(a) Ssystem Ssurroundingsbe ve (c) 120o (d) 94.8o

(b) Ssystem Ssurroundings be ve 56. The alkali metals form slat like hydrides by
the direct synthesis at elevated
(c) Ssystem be zero
temperature. The thermal stability of these
(d) Ssurroundings be zero hydrides decreases in

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52. Equilibrium constants K1 and K2 for the Which of the following orders ?

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following equilibria are related as (a) KH > NaH > LiH > CsH > RbH
(b) NaH > LiH > KH > RbH > CsH

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1
NO g O2 g
NO2 g ; K1 (c) LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH
2
(d) CsH > RbH > KH > NaH > LiH
2 NO2 g
2 NO g O2 g ; K 2

tib
57. Which oxidation states are the most
1 1 characteristic of lead and tin respectively ?
(a) K2 (b) K2
K12
ra K1 (a) +2, +2 (b) +4, +4

K1 (c) +2, +4 (d) +4, +2

(c) K 2 K12 (d) K2
up
2 58. In Dumas method of estimation of nitrogen

53. H2S gas when passed through a solution of 0.35 g of an organic compound gave 55 mL
ad

cations containing HCl precipitates the of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature

cations of second group in qualitative and 715 mm pressure. The percentage

analysis but not those belonging to the composition of nitrogen in the compound
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fourth group. It is because would be : (Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15

(a) the presence of HCl decreases the mm)

.e

sulphide ion concentration (a) 14.45 (b) 15.45

(b) the presence of HCl increases the (c) 16.45 (d) 17.45
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sulphide ion concentration 59. Which one is a nucleophilic substitution

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(c) the solubility product of group II reaction among the following ?

sulphides is more than that of group IV (a) CH 3CHO HCN CH 3CH OH CN

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sulpides
(b) CH 3 CH CH 2 H 2O
H
(d) the sulphides of group IV cations are
unstable in HCl CH 3 CH CH 3
54. Zn gives H2 gas with H2SO4 and HCl but |
not with HNO3 because OH
(a) Zn acts as an oxidizing agent when it R CH R
reacts with HNO3 (c) RCHO RMgX |
(b) HNO3 is weaker acid than H2SO4 and OH
HCl
Page | 6 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017
 CH 3 64. Liquid hydrocarbon can be converted to a

(d) | mixture of gaseous hydrocarbon by

CH 3 CH 2 CH CH 2 Br NH 3 (a) oxidation (b) cracking

(c) hydrolysis
CH 3
(d) distillation under reduced pressure
|
65. Green chemistry remains such reactions
CH 3 CH 2CH CH 2 NH 2
which
60. A strong base can abstract an hydrogen (a) produce colour during reactions
from (b) reduce the use and production of
(a) amine (b) ketone hazardous chemical
(c) alkane (d) alkene (c) are related to the depletion of ozone

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61. The chirality of the compound is layer
(d) study the reactions in plants

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66. the radioisotope tritium H3
1 has a half-

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life of 12.3 years. If the initial amount of
tritium is 32 mg, how many milligrams of it

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(a) R (b) S would remain after 49.2 years ?
(c) Z (d) I
ra (a) 1 mg (b) 2 mg
62. The order of stability of the following (c) 4 mg (d) 8 mg
tautomeric compounds is 67. AB crystallizes in a bcc lattice with edge
up
length a equal to 387 pm. The distance
between two oppositely charged ions in the
ad

lattice is
(a) 335 pm (b) 250 pm
(c) 200 pm (d) 300 pm
en

68. A solution of urea (molar mass 56) boils at

100.18oC at atmospheric pressure. If Kf and
.e

Kb for water are 1.86 and 0.512 K molality

respectively, the above solution will freeze
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at
(a) III > I > II (b) II > I > III
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(a) -6.54oC (b) 6.54oC

(c) III > II > I (d) II > III > I
(c) -0.654oC (d) 0.654oC
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63. Using HCl and anhydrous AlCl3 as catalyst,

69. The electrolytic conductance is a direct
which one of the following reactions
measure of
produces ethylbenzene (PhEt) ?
(a) resistance (b) potential
(a) H 3C CH 2OH C6 H 6 (c) concentration (d) dissociation
(b) CH 3 CH CH 2 C6 H 6 70. Standard free energies of formation (in
kJ/mol) at 298 K are -237.2, -394.4 and -
(c) H 2C CH 2 C6 H 6
8.2 for H2O(l), CO2 (g) and pentane (g)
(d) H 3C CH 3 C6 H 6

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 respectively. The value of
0
Ecell for the (c) a solution of K2Cr2O7 acidified with
H2SO4
pentane oxygen fuel cell is
(d) a solution of KOH (aq)
(a) 0.0968 V (b) 1.0968 V
76. Bleaching action of SO2 is due to its
(c) 0.0968 V (d) 1.968 V
(a) Oxidising property
71. The reaction A B follows fist order
(b) Acidic property
kinetics. The time taken for 0.8 mole of A to
(c) Basic property
produce 0.6 mole of B is 1 hr. What is the
(d) Reducing propery
time taken for conversion of 0.9 mole of A
77. Which has the highest molar heat of
to produce 0.675 mole of B ?
vaporization ?
(a) 1 hr (b) 0.5 hr
(a) HF (b) HCl

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(c) 0.25 hr (d) 2 hr
(c) HBr (d) HI
72. The rate constants k1 and k2 for two
78. Which of the following is monoatomic ?

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different reactions are 1016 e-2000/T and 1015
(a) Nitrogen (b) Fluorine
e-1000T, respectively. The temperature at

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(c) Neon (d) Oxygen
which k1 = k2 is
79. When HNO3 is dropped onto the palm and
2000
(a) K (b) 2000 K washed with water, it turns into yellow. It

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2.303
shows the presence of
1000 (a) NO2 (b) N2O
(c) K (d) 1000 K
2.303
ra
(c) NO (d) N2O5
73. Which of the following forms cationic
80. Which of the following pairs is coloured in
up
micelles above certain concentrations ?
aqueous solution ?
(a) Sodium dodecyl sulphate
(a) Sc3+, Co2+ (b) Ni2+, Zn2+
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(b) Urea
(c) Ni2+, Ti3+ (d) Sc3+, Ti3+
(c) Sodium acetate
81. Atomic numbers of Cr and Fe are
(d) Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide
en

respectively 24 and 26. Which of the

74. Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X as a
following is paramagnetic with the spin of
by product. This is a colourless gas with
.e

the electron ?
chocking smell of burnt sulphur and
3
causes great damage to respiratory organs (a) Cr NH 3 6 (b) Fe CO 5
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as a result of acid rain. Its aqueous 4

Fe CN 6 Cr CO 6
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(c) (d)
solution is acidic, acts as a reducing agent
82. Which of the following does not have a
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and its acid has never been isolated. The

gas X is metal carbon bond ?

(a) CO2 (b) SO2 (a) K Pt C2 H 4 Cl3

(c) SO3 (d) H2S
(b) Ni CO 4
75. Nitrogen can be purified from the
impurities of oxides of nitrogen and (c) Al OC2 H 5 3
ammonia by passing through
(d) C2 H 5 MgBr
(a) conc. HCl
(b) alkaline solution of pyrogallol 83. Chloroform, when kept open, is oxidized to
(a) O2 (b) COCl2

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 (c) O2, C2 (d) none of these
84. Consider the following reaction: Phenol
(c)

Zn dust
X
CH 3Cl
Anhydrous AlCl3
Y
( i ) Alkaline KMnO4
( ii ) H
Z
, the product Z is
(a) benzoic acid (b) toluene (d)

(c) benzaldehyde (d) benzene 89. The ligands in anti-cancer drug cisplatin

85. Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into are

hydrocarbons using Zn Hg + HCl (conc.) (a) NH3, Cl (b) NH3, H2O

is called (c) Cl, H2O (d) NO, Cl

(a) Cope reaction 90. When bismuth chloride is poured into a

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(b) Dow reaction large volume of water, the white precipitate
produced is

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(c) Wolf-Kishner reaction
(d) Clemmensen reduction (a) Bi(OH)3 (b) Bi2O3

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86. Method by which Aniline cannot be (c) BiOCl (d) Bi2OCl3

prepared is BIOLOGY
91. Biosystematics aims at

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(a) reduction of nitrobenzene with H2/Pd in
ethanol (a) The classification of organisms based on

(b) potassium salt of phthalimide treated broad morphological characters

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with chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis (b) Delimiting various taxa of organism and
establishing their relationships
up
with aqueous NaOH solution
(c) hydrolysis of phenylisocyanide with (c) The classification of organisms based on

acidic solution their evolutionary history and establishing

ad

(d) degradation of benzamide with bromine their phylogeny on the totality of various

in alkaline solution parameters from all fields of studies

en

87. Methyl - -D-glucoside and methyl- -D (d) Identification and arrangement of

organisms on the basis of cytological
glucoside are
.e

characteristics
(a) epimers
92. Tobacco mosaic virus is a tubular filament
(b) anomers
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of size
(c) enatiomers
(a) 300 10 nm (b) 300 5 nm
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(d) conformational diastereomers

(c) 300 20 nm (d) 700 30 nm
88. Which one of the following is an example of
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93. Which of the following statements is not

thermosetting polymer ?
true for retroviruses ?
(a) Retroviruses carry gene for RNA
dependent DNA polymerase
(a) (b) The genetic material in mature
retroviruses is RNA
(c) Retroviruses are causative agents for
(b)
certain kinds of cancer in man

Page | 9 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017

 (d) DNA is not present at any stage in the 99. A common structural feature of vessel
life cycle of retroviruses elements and sieve tube elements is
94. In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam, (a) Thick secondary walls
the antherozoids and eggs mature at (b) Pores on lateral wall
different times (c) Presence of p-protein
As a result (d) Enucleate condition
(a) Self fertilization is prevented 100. If a live earthworm is pricked with a needle
(b) There is no change in success rate of on its outer surface without damaging its
fertilization gut, the fluid that comes out is
(c) There is high degree of strerility (a) Slimy mucus (b) Excretory fluid
(d) One can concude that the plant is (c) Coelomic fluid (d) Haemolymph

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apomictic 101. In fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane
95. Select one of the following pairs of (a) Upper layer is non-polar and hydrophilic

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important features distinguishing Gneutum (b) Polar layer is hydrophobic

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form Cycas and Pinus and showing (c) Phospholipis form a biomolecular layer
affinities with angiosperms in middle part
(a) perianth and two integuments (d) Proteins form a middle layer

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(b) embryo development and apical 102. Vacuole in a plant cell
meristem (a) Lacks membrane and contains air
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(c) absence of resin duct and leaf venation (b) Lacks membrane and contains water
(d) presence of vessel elements and absence and excretory substances
up

of Archegonia (c) Is membrane bound and contains

96. In Hydra, waste material of food digestion storage proteins and lipids
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and nitrogenous waste material removed (d) Is membrane bond and contains water
from and excretory substances
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(a) Mouth and mouth 103. Which of the following statements regarding
(b) Body wall and body wall enzyme inhibition is correct ?
.e

(c) Mouth and body wall (a) Competitive inhibition is seen when a
(d) Mouth and tentacles substrate competes with an enzyme for
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97. One of the following is a very unique binding to an inhibitor protein

feature of the mammalian body (b) Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to
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(a) Presence of diaphragm the enzyme irreversibly

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(b) Four chambered heart (c) Competitive inhibition is seen when the
(c) Rib cage substrate and the inhibitor compete for the
(d) Homeothermy active site on the enzyme
98. Pentamerous, actinomorphic flowers, (d) Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme
bicarpelary ovary with oblique septa, and can be overcome by adding large amount of
frit a capsule or berry are characteristic substrate
features of 104. Which one of the following structural
(a) Asteraceae (b) Brassicaceae formulae of two organic compounds is
(c) Solanaceae (d) Liliaceae

Page | 10 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017

 correctly identified along with its related (a) Blue and green (b) Green and red
function ? (c) Red and violet (d) Violet and blue
109. In leaves of C4 plants malic acid synthesis
during CO2 fixation occurs in
(a) bundle sheath (b) guard cells
(c) epidermal cells (d) mesophyll cells
110. During anaerobic digestion of organic
waste, such as in producing biogas, which
one of the following is left under graded
(a) Lipids
(b) Lignin

et
(c) Hemi cellulose
(d) Cellulose

.n
111. Which one of the following pairs is not

ha
(a) A: Lecithin a component of cell correctly matched ?

membrane (a) IAA Cell wall elongation

(b) Absicisic acid Stomatal closure

tib
(b) B: Adenine a nucleotide that makes up
nucleic acids (c) Gibberellic acid Leaf fall

(c) A: Triglyceride major source of energy (d) Cytokinin Cell division

ra
(d) B: Uracil a component of DNA 112. Which one of the following mammalian cells
is not capable of metabolizing glucose to
up
105. In S phase of the cell cycle
(a) amount of DNA doubles in each cell carbon dioxide aerobically ?

(b) amount of DNA remains same in each (a) Red blood cells
ad

cell (b) White blood cells

(c) chromosome number is increased (c) Unstraited muscle cell

en

(d) amount of DNA is reduced to half in (d) Liver cells

each cell 113. If due to some injury the chordate

.e

106. The ability of the Venus Flytrap to capture tendineae of the tricuspid value of the

insects is due to human heart is partially non-functional,

w

(a) Rapid turgor pressure changes what will be the immediate effect
(a) the flow of blood into the arota will be
w

(b) A passive process requiring no special

ability on the part of the plant slowed down
w

(c) Specialized muscle-like cells (b) The pacemaker will stop working

(d) Chemical stimulation by the prey (c) The blood will tend to flow back into the

107. An element playing important role in left atrium

nitrogen fixation is (d) The flow of blood into the pulmonary

(a) Molybdenum (b) Copper artery will be reduced

(c) Manganese (d) Zinc 114. Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous

108. Which fractions of the visible spectrum of component of the excretory products of

solar radiations are primarily absorbed by (a) Frog (b) man

carotenoids of the higher plants ? (c) Earthworm (d) Cockroach

Page | 11 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017

115. A person entering an empty room suddenly (b) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines
finds a snake right in front on opening the (c) Corpus luteum will disintegrate
door. Which one of the following is likely to (d) Primary follicle starts developing
happen in his neurohormonal control 120. The part of fallopian tube closest to the
system ? ovary is
(a) Hypothalamus activates the (a) Isthmus (b) Infundibulum
parasympathetic divison of brain (c) Cervix (d) Ampulla
(b) Sympathetic nervous system is activated 121. The Leydig cells as found in the human
releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine body are the secretory source of
from adrenal cortex (a) Glucagon (b) Androgens
(c) Sympathetic nervous system is activated (c) Progesterone (d) Intestinal mucus

et
releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine 122. The main function of mammalian corpus
from adrenal medulla luteum is to produce

.n
(d) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across (a) estrogen only

ha
the cleft and transmit a nerve impulse (b) progesterone
116. Which one of the following statements is (c) human chorionic gonadotropin
correct ? (d) relaxin only

tib
(a) Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but 123. Which of the following events is not
not vice versa associated with ovulation in human
ra
(b) Endocrine glands regulate neural female?
activity, and nervous system regulates (a) LH surge
up

endocrine glands (b) Decrease in estadiol

(c) Neither hormones control neural activity (c) Full development of Graafian follicle
ad

nor the neurons control endocrine activity (d) Release of secondary oocyte
(d) Endocrine glands regulate neural 124. Which of the following cannot be detected
en

activity, but not vice versa in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?

117. Top shaped multiciliate male gametes, (a) Klinefelter syndrome
.e

and the mature seed which bears only one (b) Sex of the foetus
embryo with two cotyledons, are (c) Down syndrome
w

characteristic features of (d) Jaundice

(a) Gamopetalous angiosperms 125. Two nonallelic genes produce the new
w

(b) Conifers phenotype when present together but fail to

w

(c) Polypetalous angiosperms do so independently then it is called

(d) Cycads (a) Epistasis
118. The fleshy receptacle of syconus of fig (b) Polygene
encloses a number of (c) Non-complimentary gene
(a) berries (b) mericarps (d) Complimentary gene
(c) achenes (d) smaras 126. A gene is said to be dominant if
119. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, (a) It expresses its effect only in
which one of the following is unlikely homozygous stage
(a) Estrogen secretion further decreases

Page | 12 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017

 (b) It is expressed only in heterozygous often superior to both parents. This
condition phenomenon is called
(c) It is expressed both in homozygous and (a) Metamorphosis (b) Heterosis
in heterozygous condition (c) Transformation (d) Sphcing
(d) It is never expressed in any condition 134. If both parents are carriers for thalassemia,
127. Two crosses between the same pair of which is an autosomal recessive disorder,
genotypes or phenotypes In which the what are the chances of pregnancy
sources of the gametes are reversed in one resulting in an affected child ?
cross is known as (a) no chance (b) 50%
(a) Test cross (b) Reciprocal cross (c) 25% (d) 100%
(c) Dihybrid cross (d) Reverse cross 135. Fruit colour in squash is an example of

et
128. A male human is heterozygous for (a) Recessive epistasis
autosomal genes A and B and is also (b) Dominant epistasis

.n
hemizgous for hemophilic gene h. What (c) Complementary genes

ha
proportion of his sperms will be abh ? (d) Inhibitory genes
(a) 1/32 (b) 1/16 136. In his classic experiments on pea plants,
(c) (d) 1/8 Mendel did not use

tib
129. G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is (a) Flower position (b) Seed colour
associated with haemolysis of (c) Pod length (d) Seed shape
ra
(a) Leucocytes (b) Lymphocytes 137. In negative operon
(c) Platelets (d) RBCs (a) Inducer binds with repressor
up

130. Sickle cell anemia has not been eliminated (b) Corepressor binds with inducer
from the African population because (c) Corepressor binds with inducer
ad

(a) It is controlled by recessive genes (d) CAMP have negative effect on lac operon
(b) It is not a fatal disease 138. Which one of the following triplet codes is
en

(c) It provides immunity against malaria correctly matched with its specificity for an
(d) It is controlled by dominant genes amino acid in protein synthesis or as start
.e

131. Two genes R and y are located very close on or stop codon
the chromosomal linkage map of maize (a) UCG Start (b) UUU Stop
w

plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are (c) UGU Leucine (d) UAC Tyrosine
hybridized, the F2 segregation will sow 139. The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes
w

(a) Higher number of the parental types consist of short sequences of

w

(b) Higher number of the recombinant types (a) Cytosine rich repeats
(c) Segregation in the expected 9:3:3:1 ratio (b) Adenine rich repeats
(d) Segregation in 3:1 ratio (c) Guanine rich repeats
132. Infectious proteins are present in (d) Thymine rich repeats
(a) Gemini viruses (b) Prions 140. In which mode of inheritance do you expect
(c) Viroids (d) Satellite viruses more maternal influence among the
133. When two unrelated individuals or lines are offspring ?
crossed, the per romance of F1 hybrid is (a) Autosomal (b) Cytoplasmic
(c) Y-linked (d) X-linked

Page | 13 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017

141. Which one of the following pairs of codons (a) Colour change in chameleon
is correctly matched with their function or (b) Poison fangs in snakes
the signal for the particular amino acid ? (c) Melanism in moths
(a) AUG, ACG Start / Methionine (d) Enlargement of body size by swallowing
(b) UUA, UCA Leucine air in puffer fish
(c) GUU, GCU Alanine 149. Adaptive radiation refers to
(d) UAG, UGA Stop (a) Power of adaptation in an individual to a
142. The one aspect which is not a salient variety of environments
feature of genetic code is its being (b) Adaptations due to geographical
(a) Degenerate (b) Ambiguous isolation
(c) Universal (d) Specific (c) Evolution of different species from a

et
143. Which one of the following is not a part of a common ancestor
transcription unit in DNA ? (d) Migration of members of a species to

.n
(a) A promoter (b) The structural gene different geographical areas

ha
(c) the inducer (d) A terminator 150. Which one of the following statement is
144. An abnormal human baby with XXX sex correct ?
chromosomes was born due to (a) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny

tib
(a) fusion of two sperms and on ovum (b) Stem cells are specialized cells
(b) formation of abnormal sperms in the (c) There is no evidence of the existence of
ra
father gills during embryogenesis of mammals
(c) formation of abnormal ova in the mother (d) All plant and animal cells are totipotent
up

(d) fusion of two ova and one sperm 151. Which one of the following in birds
145. Which of the following biomolecules does indicates their reptilian ancestry ?
ad

have a phosphodiester bond ? (a) Two special chambers crop and gizzard
(a) Nucleic acids in a nucleotide in their digestive tract
en

(b) Fatty acids in a diglyceride (b) Eggs with a calcareous shell

(c) Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide (c) Homeothermy
.e

(d) Amino acids in a polypeptide (d) Four chambered heart

146. There is no life on moon due to the absence 152. According to Darwin, the organic evolution
w

of is due to
(a) O2 (b) Water (a) Intraspecific competition
w

(c) Light (d) Temperature (b) Interspecific competition

w

147. de Vries gave his mutation theory on (c) Competition within closely related
organic evolution while working on species
(a) Oenothera lamarckiana (d) Reduced feeding efficiency in one
(b) Drosophila melanogaster species due to the presence of interfering
(c) Pisum sativum species
(d) Althaea rosea 153. Industrial melanism is an example of
148. Animals have the innate ability to escape (a) Neo Lamarckism (b) Neo Darwinism
from predation. Examples for the same are (c) Natural selection (d) Mutation
given below. Select the incorrect example.

Page | 14 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017

154. Which one of the following conditions (d) Chikungunya virus
though harmful in itself is also a potential 160. The most likely reason for the development
saviour from a mosquito borne infectious of resistance against pesticides in insects
disease ? damaging a crop is
(a) Thalassemia (a) Genetic recombination
(b) Sickle cell anaemia (b) Directed mutations
(c) Pernicius anaemia (c) Acquired heritable changes
(d) Leukemia (d) Random mutations
155. The blue baby syndrome results from 161. Triticale, the first man-made cereal crop,
(a) Excess of chloride has been obtained by crossing wheat with
(b) Methemoglobin (a) Rye (b) Pearl millet

et
(c) Excess of dissolved oxygen (c) Sugarcane (d) Barley
(d) Excess of TDS (total dissolved solids) 162. What is antisense technology ?

.n
156. To which type of barriers under innate (a) When a piece of RNA that is

ha
immunity, do the salvia in the mouth and complementary in sequence is used to stop
the tears from the eyes, belong ? expression
(a) Physiological barriers (b) RNA polymerase producing DNA

tib
(b) Physical barriers (c) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used
(c) Cytokine barriers for the synthesis of antigens
ra
(d) Cellular barriers (d) Production of somaclonal variants in
157. Select the correct statement from the ones tissue cultures
up

given below 163. Jaya and Ratna developed for green

(a) Barbiturates when given to criminals revolution in India are the varieties of
ad

make them tell the truth (a) Bajra (b) Maize

(b) Morphine is often given to persons who (c) Rice (d) Wheat
en

have undergone surgery as a pain killer 164. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly
(c) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure matched ?
.e

and heart rate (a) Coliforms Vinegar

(d) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery (b) Methanogens Gobar gas
w

as it stimulates recovery (c) Yeast Ethanol

158. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in (d) Streptomycets Antibiotic
w

(a) Human RBCs 165. What is true for monoclonal antibodies ?

w

(b) Human liver (a) These antibodies obtained from one

(c) Gut of female Anopheles parent and for one antigen
(d) Salivary glands of Anopheles (b) These obtained from different parents
159. Which of the following viruses is not and for one antigen
transferred through semen of an infected (c) These obtained from one parent and for
male ? many antigens
(a) Herpes simplex virus (d) These obtained from many parents and
(b) Hepatitis B virus for many antigen
(c) Human immunodeficiency virus

Page | 15 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017

166. Transgenic plants are the ones (a) the population is large
(a) Grown in artificial medium after (b) individuals mate selectively
hybridization in the field (c) there are no mutations
(b) Produced by a somatic embryo in (d) thee is no migration
artificial medium 173. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged
(c) Generated by introducing foreign DNA but can recover after some time if damaging
into a cell and regenerating a plant from effect stops will be having
that cell (a) High stability and low resilience
(d) Produced after protoplast fusion in (b) Low stability and low resilience
artificial medium (c) High stability and high resilience
167. Continuous addition of sugars in fed batch (d) Low stability and high resilience

et
fermentation is done to 174. The slow rate of decomposition of fallen
(a) degrade sewage logs in nature is due to their

.n
(b) produce methane (a) anaerobic environment around them

ha
(c) obtain antibiotics (b) low cellulose content
(d) purify enzymes (c) low moisture content
168. Choose the correct sequence of stages of (d) poor nitrogen content

tib
growth curve for bacteria 175. Given below is an imaginary pyramid of
(a) Lag, log, decline, stationary phase numbers. What could be one of the
ra
(b) Lag, log, stationary phase possibilities about certain organisms at
(c) Stationary, lag, log, decline phase some of the different levels ?
up

(d) Decline, lag, log phase

169. Which one of the following pairs is
ad

mismatched ?
(a) Savanna acacia trees
en

(b) Coniferous forest evergreen trees (a) Level one PP is papal trees and the
(c) Tundra permafrost level SC is sheep
.e

(d) Prairie epiphytes (b) Level PC is rats and level SC cats

170. Which one of the following is one of the (c) Level PC is insects and level SC is
w

etheracteristics of a biological community ? small insectivorous birds

(a) Stratification (b) Natality (d) Level PP is phytoplanktons in sea and
w

(c) Mortality (d) Sex-ratio Whale on top level TC

w

171. A biologist studied the population of rats in 176. In an ecosystem the rate of production of
a barn. He found that the average natality organic matter during photosynthesis is
was 250, average mortality 240, termed as
immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net (a) Net productivity
increase in population is (b) Net primary productivity
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) Gross primary productivity
(c) 05 (d) zero (d) Secondary productivity
172. A population will not exist in Hardy-
Weinberg equilibrium if

Page | 16 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017

177. Which of the following pairs of an animal 180. Measuring biochemical oxygen demand
and a plant represents endangered (BOD) is a method used for
organism in India (a) Measuring the activity of Saccharomyces
(a) Bentinckia nicobarica and red panda cereviscae in producing card on a
(b) Tamarind and rhesus monkey commercial scale
(c) Cinchona and leopard (b) Working out the efficiency of RBCs
(d) Banyan and blackbuck about their capacity to carry oxygen
178. Which one of the following is an example of (c) Estimating the amount organic matter in
exsitu conservation ? sewage water
(a) Wild life sanctuary (d) Working out the efficiency of oil driven
(b) Seed bank automobile engines

et
(c) Sacred groves
(d) National park

.n
179. Step taken by the Government of India to

ha
control air pollution include
(a) Use of non-polluting compressed
Natural Gas (CNG) only as fuel by all buses

tib
and trucks
(b) Compulsory mixing of 20% ethyl alcohol
ra
with petrol and 20% biodiesel with diesel
(c) Compulsory PUC (Pollution Under
up

Control) certification of petrol driven

vehicles which tests for carbon monoxide
ad

and hydrocarbons
(d) Permission to use only pure diesel with
en

a maximum of 500 ppm sulphur as fuel for

vehicles
.e
w
w
w

Page | 17 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017

 Model Grand Test

KEY
NEET Date: 00-00-2017
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 720

PHYSICS
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (d)
6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (c)
16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (b)
26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (d)

et
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (a)
36. (c) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b)

.n
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (b)

ha
CHEMISTRY
46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (c)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (d)

tib
56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (d) 60. (b)
61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (b) 65. (b)
66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (b)
71. (a) 72. (c) 73. (d) 74. (b) 75. (c)
76. (d) 77. (d)
ra 78. (c) 79. (a) 80. (c)
81. (a) 82. (c) 83. (b) 84. (a) 85. (d)
up
86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (d) 89. (a) 90. (c)

BIOLOGY
ad

91. (c) 92. (c) 93. (d) 94. (a) 95. (d)
96. (c) 97. (a) 98. (c) 99. (d) 100. (c)
101. (c) 102. (d) 103. (c) 104. (a) 105. (a)
106. (a) 107. (a) 108. (d) 109. (d) 110. (b)
en

111. (c) 112. (a) 113. (d) 114. (d) 115. (c)
116. (b) 117. (d) 118. (c) 119. (a) 120. (b)
121. (b) 122. (b) 123. (b) 124. (d) 125. (a)
.e

126. (c) 127. (b) 128. (d) 129. (d) 130. (c)
131. (a) 132. (b) 133. (b) 134. (c) 135. (b)
136. (c) 137. (c,b) 138. (d) 139. (b) 140. (b)
w

141. (d) 142. (b) 143. (c) 144. (c) 145. (a)
146. (b) 147. (a) 148. (b) 149. (c) 150. (a)
w

151. (b) 152. (a) 153. (c) 154. (b) 155. (b)
156. (a) 157. (b) 158. (c) 159. (d) 160. (d)
w

161. (a) 162. (a) 163. (c) 164. (a) 165. (a)
166. (c) 167. (d) 168. (a) 169. (d) 170. (a)
171. (d) 172. (b) 173. (d) 174. (b) 175. (d)
176. (c) 177. (a) 178. (b) 179. (c) 180. (c)

Page | 18 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017

 HINTS & SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1.

2. Total distance to be covered for crossing

the bridge 8. In the same orbit, orbital sped of satellites

et
= length of train + length of bridge remain same. When two satellites of earth
are moving in the same orbit, then time

.n
= 150 m + 850 m = 1000 m
periods of both are equal

ha
From Keplers third law

T 2 r3
3. Linear velocity v r

tib
Time period is independent of mass, hence
v1 r1 , v2 r2 their time periods will be equal.
[ is the same in both cases because The potential energy and kinetic energy are
ra
time period is the same] mass dependent, hence the PE and KE of
up
v1 r1 R satellites are not equal

v2 r2 r But, if they are orbiting in the same orbit,
then they have equal orbital speed
ad

4.
9. Escape velocity
en

5.
.e
w

60 10. Bulk modulus

6. Given I = 2 kg m2, 0 2 rad / s
w

60
0, t 60 s
w

The torque required to stop the wheels

rotation is

7. AS said, (KE)rot remains same

Page | 19 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017

11. Condition of insufficient length of capillary 18.
1
tube h
r
and since the source is stationary, so wave
Q
12. Energy per second P T4 length remains unchanged for observer
t
19.
13. Amount of energy radiated
(Temperature)4
14. Coefficient of performance

et
15.

.n
ha
tib
20.

ra
16.
up
ad
en

17. In simple harmonic motion, the

displacement equation is, y = A sin t 21. Two positive ions each carrying a charge q
.e

Where A is amplitude of the motion. are kept at a distance d, then it is found

that force of repulsion between them is
w
w
w

22. The given circuit can be drawn as follows

Hence, it is clear that when v is maximum,

then a is minimum (i.e., zero) or vice versa
Page | 20 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017
23. Charge remains constant after charging. If
the battery is removed after charging, then
the charge stored in the capacitor remains
constant.
q = constant

26.

et
As capacitance decreases, so potential

.n
difference increases
24. If E is the electric field, then current

ha
density j E
27. The potential difference across ammeter
i and shunt is the same

tib
Also we know that current density j
A Let ia is the current. Flowing through
Hence j is different for different area of
ammeter and i the total current. So, a
ra
cross section. When j is different, then E is
current i - ia will flow through shunt
also different. Thus E is not constant. The
up
resistance
drift velocity vd is given by
j
vd =different for different j value.
ad

ne
Hence only current i will be constant
en

25. The formula for resistance of the wire is

l
R
.e

A
Where =specific resistance of the wire
w

l
R
w

A
l
A r
w

R 2

r2
R1 l1 r22
(i)
R2 l2 r12
28. The time period of electron moving in a
circular orbit

Page | 21 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017

 Electric current corresponds to the 32.
revolution of electron is

Magnet field at centre of circle

33. Inductance of a coil is numerically equal to

the emf induce din the coil when the
current in the coil changes at the rate of 1
As-1.
Hence
If I is the current flowing in the circuit,
29. To move on circular path in a magnetic
then flux linked with the circuit is observed

et
field, a centripetal force is provide by the
to be proportional to I, i.e.,
magnetic force. When magnetic field is

.n
perpendicular to motion of charged particle,
I
or LI (i)

ha
then
Centripetal force = magnetic force Where L is called the self inductance or
That is coefficient of self-inductance or simply

tib
inductance of the coil.
Net flux through solenoid,
ra
Further, time period of the motion
up

34.
ad

It is independent of both R and v.

30. In the sum and difference method of
vibration magnetometer
en

M 1 T22 T12

M 2 T22 T12 35. In resonance condition, maximum current
.e

Here flows in the circuit

w

Current in LCR series circuit

w
w

31. Ferromagnetism decreases with rise in Where V is rms value of current, R is

temperature. If we heat a ferromagnetic resistance, XL is inductive reactance and XC

substance, then at a definite temperature is capacitive reactance

the ferromagnetic property of the substance For current to be maximum, denominator

suddenly disappears and the substance should be minimum which can be done, if

becomes paramagnetic. The temperature XL = X C

above which a ferromagnetic substance This happens in resonance state of the

becomes paramagnetic is called the Curie circuit, i.e.,

temperature of the substance

Page | 22 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017
 1 41. Einseins photoelectric equation can be
L
C written as

1
Or L .. (i)
2C
Given, 1000 s 1 , C 10 F 10 10 6 F
Hence,
1
L 0.1 H 100mH
1000 10 106
2

36. -rays are beams of fat electrons

42. The discharge of electricity through rarefied
37. EB

et
gases is an interesting phenomenon which
E0i B0 j E0 B0 k can be systematically studied with the help

.n
E B points in the direction of wave of a discharge tube. In discharge tube
collisions between the charge particles

ha
propagation
38. v=1 cm, R = 2 cm emitted from the cathode and the atoms of
the gas results to the coloured glow in the
2 1 2 1

tib
By using tube.
v u R
43. Kinetic energy of electron
ra
Ze 2
K
8 0 r
up

1 Ze 2
Potential energy of electron U
4 0 r
ad

Total energy
en

Ze 2 Ze 2
E K U
8 0 r 4 0 r
.e

Ze 2
or E
8 0 r
w

39. for lens u = wants to sec = -30cm or E = - K

and v = can see = -10 cm
w

or K E 3.4 3.4eV
w

44. For nuclear fusion process the nuclei with

low mass are suitable
40. Distance of the nth bright fringe from the
45. The diode in lower branch is forward biased
centre
and diode in upper branch is reverse biased
5 5
i A
20 30 50
CHEMISTRY
46. 2 g of H2 means one mole of H2, hence
contains 6.023 1023 molecules. Others

Page | 23 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017

 have less than one mole, so have less no. of
molecules.
47. Quantum numbers n = 3, l = 2, m = +2

represent an orbital with 3d xy or 3d x2 y 2

48. In each vertical column of transition
element, the elements of second and third
transition series resemble each other more
closely than the elements of first and
second transition series on account of
55. O O H bond angel in H2O2 is 94.8o
lanthanoids contraction. Hence the
56. The tendency to form their hydrides, basic

et
properties of elements of 4d series of the
character and stability decreases from Li to
transition elements resemble with the

.n
Cs since the electropositive character
properties of the elements of 5d series of
decreases from Cs to Li
the transition elements

ha
57. the tendency to form +2 ionic state
50. KE = 3/2 RT. (At any constant temperature
increases on moving down the group due to
the KE of gaseous molecules remains the

tib
inert pair effect. Most characteristic
same).
oxidation states for lead and tin are +2 and
51. For a spontaneous process
ra +4 respectively.
58.
up
52.
ad
en
.e

53. In qualitative analysis of cations of second

group, H2S gas is passed in the presence of
w

HCl. Therefore, due to common ion effect, 59. Nucleophile (-NH3) replaces other
w

lower concentration of sulphide ions is nucleophile (-Br) in the reaction

obtained which is sufficient for the 60. Removal of H from ketone gives resonance
w

precipitation of second group cations in the stabilized carbanion

form of their sulphides due to lower value
of their solubility product (Ksp). Here fourth
group cations are not precipitated because
they require more sulpide ions for
exceeding their ionic product to their
61. Highest to lowest priority (Br > CH3) is clock
solubility products which is not obtained
wise, i.e., R.
here due to common ion effect
Its Fisher projection
54.

Page | 24 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017

63. 71. For the reaction
HCl AlCl3
C6 H 6 CH 2 CH 2 C6 H 5CH 2CH 3 2 A B 3C D
64. Cracking converts liquid hydrocarbons to Rate constant of first order reaction
gaseous hydrocarbons by cleavage of C C

et
and C H bonds
65. Green chemistry may be defined as the

.n
programme of developing new chemical
(because 0.6 mole of B is formed)
products and chemical processes or making

ha
Suppose t1 hour is required for changing
improvements in the already existing
the concentration of A from 0.9 mole to
compounds and processes so as to make

tib
0.675 mole of B. Remaining mole of A = 0.9
less harmful to human health and
0.675 0.225
environment. This means the same as to
ra
reduce the use and production of
hazardous chemicals.
up
66.
ad
en

72.
67. For body centered cubic (bcc) lattice,
distance between two oppositely charged
.e

ions,
w

74.
w

76. SO2 act as bleaching agent due to its

w

68. reducing property

SO2 2 H 2O H 2 SO4 2 H
Coloured matter H Colourless matter
77. In case of HI due to large size of iodine
strong vander Waal forces are present.
69. Because conductance is increased when Hence, it has highest molar heat of
the dissociation is more vaporization
70.

Page | 25 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017

78. Neon Ne is monoatomic and others (N2, 88. Thermosetting polymers undergo chemical
F2 and O2) are diatomic changes when heated and set to hard mass
79. 4 Zn 10 HNO3 4 Zn NO3 2 NH 4 NO3 3H 2O when cooled, Exaple. Bakelite
89. Cis-diamminedichloroplatinum (II) (cis-
80.
platin) is a widely used anticancer drug.
Ligands in cis-platin are NH3 and Cl

Hence, Ni2+ and Ti3+ are coloured in

aqueous solution due to the presence of

et
90.
unpaired electrons in d-subshell
82. Al(OC2H5)3 contains bonding through O and

.n
thus it does not have metal carbon bond

ha
83. Chloroform is oxidized to a poisonous gas,
phosgene (COCl2) by atmospheric gas

tib
CHCl3 O COCl2 HCl
ra
up
84.
ad
en

85. It is called Clemmensen reduction

.e

86.
w
w
w

due to resonance C Cl bond acquires

double bond character.
87. Methyl- -D-glucoside and methyl- -D-

glucoside differs at C-1, hence are called

anomers.

SRIGAYATRI EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS - INDIA

Page | 26 NEET :: MODEL TEST 00-00-2017