Objective Questions For Nursing

(Useful for Nursing exams conducted by SSC, UPSC, Kerala PSC, MOH
exams etc.)
Nursing Objective questions
1. Bile is secreated by
A:-liver cells
B:-hepatic duct
C:-cystic duct
D:-gall bladder
Answer:- A:-liver cells

2. . Antiseptic solution containing bleaching powder is
A:-AF lotion
B:-Magsulf solution
C:-Mercurochrome solution
D:-Eusol
Answer:- D:-Eusol
3. Fourth general cephalosporin
A:-cefadroxil
B:-cefpirome
C:-cefoxitin
D:-cefixime
Answer:-
B:-cefpirome
4. Identify the killed vaccine among the followng
A:-MMR
B:-BCG
C:-OPV
D:-DPT
Answer:- D:-DPT
5. The antimicrobial should be avoid in renal failure is
A:-clarithromycin
B:-ciprofloxacin
C:-nalidixic acid
D:-aztreonam
Answer:- C:-nalidixic acid

6. Which of the following edible oil contains highest percentage of
saturated fatty acids ?
A:-ground nut oil
B:-palm oil
C:-corn oil
D:-coconut oil
Answer:- D:-coconut oil
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7. Mother tinctures should be kept at a temperature of

A:-15.6 degree celsious
B:-20 degree celsious
C:-20.6 degree celsious
D:-16.4 degree celsious
Answer:- A:-15.6 degree celsious

8. The dose of freeze dried BCG vaccine given intra cutaneously is
A:-0.01 mL
B:-0.2 mL
C:-0.02 mL
D:-0.1 mL
Answer:- D:-0.1 mL
9. Presence of food increases the absorption of
A:-Simvastatin
B:-Fluvastatin
C:-Lovastatin
D:-Atorvastatin
Answer:- C:-Lovastatin
10. Antiviral drug used in the treatment of Parkinsonism is
A:-Amantadine
B:-Levodopa
C:-Acyclovir
D:-Bromocriptine
Answer:- A:-Amantadine
11. Increased amount of ketone bodies are excreted in urine in which of the
following ?
A:-starvation
B:-diabetes mellitus
C:-pregnancy
D:-all the above
Answer:- D:-all the above

12.. Kopliks spots are seen in
A:-Typhoid
B:-Measels
C:-Mumps
D:-Rubella
Answer:- B:-Measels
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13. DOTS programme introduced for the treatment of

A:-tuberculosis
B:-leprosy
C:-polio
D:-malaria
Answer:- A:-tuberculosis
14. Therapeutic use of clotrimazole
A:-systemic antibacterial
B:-topical anti fungal
C:-systemic antifungal
D:-topical antibacterial
Answer:- B:-topical anti fungal

15. Hardness of water is due to the presence of
A:-Calcium carbonate
B:-Magnesium carbonate
C:-Calcium and magnesium sulphate
D:-Both Calcium carbonate and Magnesium carbonate
Answer:- D:-Both Calcium carbonate and Magnesium carbonate

16. Antiseptic solution containing bleaching powder is
A:-Eusol
B:-Magsulf solution
C:-Mercurochrome solution
D:-AF lotion
Answer:- A:-Eusol
17. Medicine prepared from the sun
A:-Luna
B:-Skatol
C:-Sol
D:-Pollis umbo
Answer:- C:-Sol
18. Both Vitamin A & D are present in
A:-shark liver oil
B:-cod liver oil
C:-gossypol
D:-sesame oil
Answer:- B:-cod liver oil

19.The chemical substance which is responsible for the therapeutic effect in
a drug is
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A:-Tannin
B:-Glycoside
C:-Alkaloid
D:-Active principle
Answer:- D:-Active principle

20. Which of the following drug concentrates in skeletal muscle ?
A:-Tetracycline
B:-Atropine
C:-Digoxin
D:-INH
Answer:- C:-Digoxin
21.The optimum level of fluoride in drinking water is between
A:-0.6 0.9 mg/liter
B:-0.2 0.4 mg/liter
C:-0.3 0.7 mg/liter
D:-0.5 0.8 mg/liter
Answer:- D:-0.5 0.8 mg/liter

22. Peripheral neuropathy is the principal adverse effect of
A:-INH
B:-Rifampicin
C:-Pyrazinamide
D:-Ethambutol
Answer:- A:-INH
23.Patient who refuses to eat his meal stating that the food is
poisoned is an example of
A. Delusion
B. Hallucination
C. Suicidal idea
D. Negativism
24. In patient with normal renal function, oral morphine should be given
A:-8 hourly
B:-6 hourly
C:-4 hourly
D:-2 hourly
Answer:- C:-4 hourly

25.Angular stomatitis is caused by
A:-Iodine deficiency
B:-Thiamine deficiency
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C:-Pyridoxine deficiency
D:-Riboflavin deficiency
Answer:- D:-Riboflavin deficiency

26. International Red Cross Society is founded by
A:-Charles Dickson
B:-Charles Darwin
C:-Henry Dunant
D:-Von pirguet
Answer:- C:-Henry Dunant

27.Anti sterility vitamin is
A:-Vitamin A
B:-Vitamin E
C:-Vitamin K
D:-Vitamin D
Answer:- B:-Vitamin E
28. The bacteria grows in the baby intestine and prevent harmful bacteria
such as E-coli from growing and causing
diarrhea the bacteria called
A:-Lactobacillus bifidus
B:-Lysosomes
C:-Lactoferrin
D:-None of the above
Answer:- A:-Lactobacillus bifidus

29.Which cranial nerve emerges out from the either side of frenulum veli ?
A:-Abducent nerve
B:-Oculomotor nerve
C:-Trochlear nerve
D:-Facial nerve
Answer:- C:-Trochlear nerve

30. A definite diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis can be ensured with
A:-Sputum macroscopy
B:-Chest x-ray
C:-CT scan of thorax
D:-Sputum AFB culture
Answer:- D:-Sputum AFB culture

31.The optimum level of fluoride in drinking water is between
A:-0.6 0.9 mg/liter
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B:-0.2 0.4 mg/liter

C:-0.3 0.7 mg/liter
D:-0.5 0.8 mg/liter
Answer:- D:-0.5 0.8 mg/liter

32. Peripheral neuropathy is the principal adverse effect of
A:-INH
B:-Rifampicin
C:-Pyrazinamide
D:-Ethambutol
Answer:- A:-INH
33. Patient who refuses to eat his meal stating that the food is
poisoned is an example of
A. Delusion
B. Hallucination
C. Suicidal idea
D. Negativism
34. In patient with normal renal function, oral morphine should be given
A:-8 hourly
B:-6 hourly
C:-4 hourly
D:-2 hourly
Answer:- C:-4 hourly

35.Angular stomatitis is caused by
A:-Iodine deficiency
B:-Thiamine deficiency
C:-Pyridoxine deficiency
D:-Riboflavin deficiency
Answer:- D:-Riboflavin deficiency

36. International Red Cross Society is founded by
A:-Charles Dickson
B:-Charles Darwin
C:-Henry Dunant
D:-Von pirguet
Answer:- C:-Henry Dunant

37.Anti sterility vitamin is
A:-Vitamin A
B:-Vitamin E
C:-Vitamin K
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D:-Vitamin D
Answer:- B:-Vitamin E
38. The bacteria grows in the baby intestine and prevent harmful bacteria
such as E-coli from growing and causing
diarrhea the bacteria called
A:-Lactobacillus bifidus
B:-Lysosomes
C:-Lactoferrin
Answer:- A:-Lactobacillus bifidus

39.Which cranial nerve emerges out from the either side of frenulum veli ?
A:-Abducent nerve
B:-Oculomotor nerve
C:-Trochlear nerve
D:-Facial nerve
Answer:- C:-Trochlear nerve

40.A definite diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis can be ensured with
A:-Sputum macroscopy
B:-Chest x-ray
C:-CT scan of thorax
D:-Sputum AFB culture
Answer:- D:-Sputum AFB culture

41.The muscle relaxant of choice in patients with liver disease is
A:-Rocuronium
B:-Pancuronium
C:-Atracurium
D:-d tubo curarine
Answer:- C:-Atracurium
42. One of the following drug causes reddish discoloration of urine
A:-Isoniazid
B:-PAS
C:-Rifampicin
D:-Ethambutol
Answer:- C:-Rifampicin
43.Delayed union and non union is common with fractures of the following
bone except
A:-Scaphoid
B:-Calcaneum
C:-Intracapsular fracture neck of femur
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D:-Talus
Answer:- B:-Calcaneum
44. The reading of Mantoux test is done at
A:-12-24hrs
B:-24-36hrs
C:-36-48hrs
D:-48-72hrs
Answer:- D:-48-72hrs
45.Which is a specific ulcer ?
A:-Tuberculous ulcer
B:-Aphthous ulcer
C:-Dermatitis artefacta
D:-Venous ulcer
Answer:- A:-Tuberculous ulcer

46. Abnormal blue colouration of skin and mucous membrane is called
A:-Jaundice
B:-Cyanosis
C:-Chemosis
D:-Echymosis
Answer:- B:-Cyanosis
47. In breech presentation, delivery of the head is by
A:-Lateroflexion
B:-Extension
C:-Extreme flexion and extension
D:-Flexion
Answer:- D:-Flexion
48. which of the following interventions can best prevent bedsore?
A:-Keep the skin clean and dry
B:-Massage reddened areas with lotion and oils
C:-Change position every 2 hourly
D:-Use special water mattress
Answer:- C:-Change position every 2 hourly
49.The intracranial haemorrhage which is always a coup injury is
A:-Extradural
B:-Pontine
C:-Subdural
D:-Subarachnoid
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Answer:- A:-Extradural
50. Primary health care includes all except
A:-Appropriate technology
B:-Equitable distribution
C:-Intersectorial co-ordination
D:-Treatment is done by a doctor
Answer:- D:-Treatment is done by a doctor
51.Mosquito may fly up to
A:-2 miles
B:-3 miles
C:-4 miles
D:-5 miles
Answer:- B:-3 miles
52.Elimination diet refers to diet for
A:-Allergic conditions
B:-Diarrohea
C:-Obesity
D:-Coeliac diseases
Answer:- A:-Allergic conditions
53. FSSAI stands for
A:-Food Safety and Security Authority of India
B:-Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
C:-Food Standards and Security Authority of India
D:-Food Safety and Standards Agency of India
Answer:- B:-Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
54.Schick test can be done in case of
A:-German measles
B:-Diphtheria
C:-Measles
D:-Meningitis
Answer:- B:-Diphtheria
55.The site for commonest limb amputation is
A:-Above elbow
B:-Below elbow
C:-Below knee
D:-Above knee
Answer:- C:-Below knee

56. The raise in pasteurization temperature was done for the complete
destruction of
A:-Coxiellaburnetti
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B:-E. Coli
C:-FMD virus
D:-Salmonella
Answer:- A:-Coxiellaburnetti
57.World Health Organisation came into function on
A:-`12^(th)` April, 1948
B:-`2^(nd)` March, 1956
C:-`24^(th)` April, 1954
D:-`7^(th)` April, 1948
Answer:- D:-`7^(th)` April, 1948

58.Mallet Finger is
A:-Flexed MP Joint
B:-Flexed PIP Joint
C:-Flexed DIP Joint
D:-Extended MP Joint
Answer:- C:-Flexed DIP Joint

59. Pavlik Harness is indicated in
A:-Wrist drop
B:-Foot drop
C:-Anterior dislocation of shoulder
D:-Congenital dislocation of hip
Answer:- D:-Congenital dislocation of hip

60.Paratyphoid fever is caused by
A:-S. Enterilidis
B:-S. Choleraesuis
C:-S. Delby
D:-S. Typhi
Answer:- A:-S. Enterilidis

61.Back bone of public health nursing is
A:-Environmental sanitation
B:-Health problems
C:-Home visiting
D:-Planning and evaluation
Answer:- C:-Home visiting

62. Radiation sickness is otherwise known as
A:-Radiation poisoning
B:-Leukemia
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C:-Acute radiation syndrome

D:-Shortening of life
Answer:- D:-Shortening of life

63.which day is observed as World Population Day?
A:-June 11
B:-July 11
C:-April 11
D:-May 11
Answer:- B:-July 11
64. If the first stage of labour is prolonged IV glucose is given to prevent
A:-Foetal distress
B:-Hemorrhage
C:-Maternal distress
D:-1 and 3
Answer:- C:-Maternal distress
65.Which client is at risk for opportunistic diseases such as pneumocystis
pneumonia?
A. The client with cancer who is being treated with chemotherapy
B. The client with Type I diabetes
C. The client with thyroid disease
D. The client with Addisons disease
Answer: A. The client with cancer who is being treated with

chemotherapy
66.The mosquito which transmits yellow fever is
A:-Mansonoides
B:-Anopheles mosquitoes
C:-Culex
D:-Aedes aegypti
Answer:- D:-Aedes aegypti

67. A patient has a diagnosis of psoriasis. Her nurses aide should:
a. avoid contact with the highly contagious lesions.
b. wear gloves for patient care.
c. treat her the same as any other patient with a non-infectious disease.
d. wear a mask when entering the room.
Answer: c. treat her the same as any other patient with a non-
infectious disease.
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68.Milk is a good source of all vitamins except

A:-Vitamin A
B:-Vitamin C
C:-Vitamin E
D:-Vitamin D
Answer:- B:-Vitamin C
69. The generally accepted term of community health nurse is
A:-Sector nurse
B:-Care giver of the community
C:-Private health nurse
D:-Public health nurse
Answer:- D:-Public health nurse

70. Dryness of the eye is known as
A:-Keratomalacia
B:-Bitots spots
C:-Xerophthalmia
D:-Night blindness
Answer:- C:-Xerophthalmia
71. A moving clot in the blood stream is known as _________.
A:-Necrosis
B:-Thrombosis
C:-Infarction
D:-Embolism
Answer:- D:-Embolism
72. USG stands for _________.
A:-Unit Specific Gram's staining
B:-Ultra Sonogram
C:-Ultra Sound Gauge
D:-Ultraviolet Sensors
Answer:- B:-Ultra Sonogram

73.Diabetes insipidus differs from Diabetes mellitus by lack of presence of
________ in urine.
A:-Bilurubin
B:-Urea
C:-Sugar
D:-Insulin
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Answer:- C:-Sugar
74.________ is transmitted through blood transfusion.
A:-Cholera
B:-Viral hepatitis
C:-Arthritis
D:-Splenomegaly
Answer:- B:-Viral hepatitis

75. The child dosage of drugs is determined by _________ formula in
western medicine.
A:-Young's
B:-Hick's
C:-Hess's
D:-Dentition
Answer:- A:-Young's
76.A patient chokes while eating. The first thing the nurses assistant should
do is:
a. attempt to remove the obstruction.
b. call for a licensed person.
c. tilt the victims head back and give two quick breaths.
d. slap the patient between the shoulder blades.
Answer: d. slap the patient between the shoulder blades.

77. Kshara suthra can be used in __________.
A:-Bhanga
B:-Bhagandara
C:-Gulma
D:-Karna soola
Answer:- B:-Bhagandara
78.Continuing education is
a. necessary for recertification in many states.
b. important for keeping abreast of new development.
c. a professional standard.
d. all the above.
Answer: d. all the above.

79.On what side should the patient lie for an enema?
a. Right.
b. Left.
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c. Whichever side is more comfortable.

d. The side closer to the restroom.
Answer: b. Left.
80.The nurse on oncology is caring for a client with a white blood count of
600. During evening visitation, a visitor brings a potted plant. What
action should the nurse take?
A. Allow the client to keep the plant
B. Place the plant by the window
C. Water the plant for the client
D. Tell the family members to take the plant home
Answer: D. Tell the family members to take the plant home

81.The client asks the nurse why an electronic health record (EHR) system
is being used. Which response by the nurse indicates an understanding of
the rationale for an EHR system?
1) It includes organizational reports of unusual occurrences that are not

part of the client's record.
2) This type of system consists of combined documentation and daily
care plans.
3) It improves interdisciplinary collaboration that improves efficiency in
procedures.
4) This type of system tracks medication administration and usage over
24 hours
Answer: 3) It improves interdisciplinary collaboration that improves

efficiency in procedures.
Rationale:
The EHR has several benefits for use, including improving
interdisciplinary collaboration and making procedures more accurate and
efficient. An occurrence report is an organizational record of an unusual
occurrence or accident that is not a part of the client's record. Integrated
plans of care (IPOC) are a combined charting and care plan format. A
medication administration record (MAR) is used to document
medications administered and their usage.
82.A 73-year-old patient who sustained a right hip fracture in a fall requests
pain medication from the nurse. Based on his injury, which type of pain
is this patient most likely experiencing?
1) Phantom
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2) Visceral
3) Deep somatic
4) Referred
Answer: 3) Deep somatic
Rationale:
Deep somatic pain originates in ligaments, tendons, nerves, blood
vessels, and bones. Therefore, a hip fracture causes deep somatic pain.
Phantom pain is pain that is perceived to originate from a part that was
removed during surgery. Visceral pain is caused by deep internal pain
receptors and commonly occurs in the abdominal cavity, cranium, and
thorax. Referred pain occurs in an area that is distant to the original site.
83.Which of the following is/are an example(s) of theoretical knowledge as

defined in this chapter? Select all that apply.
1) Antibiotics are ineffective in treating viral infections.

2) When you take a patient's blood pressure, the patient's arm should be
at heart level.
3) In Maslow's framework, physical needs are most basic.
4) When drawing medication out of a vial, inject air into the vial first.
Answer: 1) Antibiotics are ineffective in treating viral infections.

3) In Maslow's framework, physical needs are most basic.
Rationale:
Theoretical knowledge consists of research findings, facts (e.g.,
"Antibiotics are ineffective . . ." is a fact), principles, and theories (e.g.,
"In Maslow's framework . . ." is a statement from a theory). Instructions
for taking a blood pressure and withdrawing medications are examples of
practical knowledgewhat to do and how to do it.
84.Which of the following incidents requires the nurse to complete an

occurrence report?
1) Medication given 30 minutes after scheduled dose time

2) Patient's dentures lost after transfer
3) Worn electrical cord discovered on an IV infusion pump
4) Prescription without the route of administration
Answer: 2) Patient's dentures lost after transfer
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Rationale:
You would need to complete an occurrence report if you suspect your patient's
personal items to be lost or stolen. A medication can be administered within a
half-hour of the administration time without an error in administration;
therefore, an occurrence report is not necessary. The worn electrical cord should
be taken out of use and reported to the biomedical department. The nurse should
seek clarification if the provider's order is missing information; an occurrence
report is not necessary.
85.Which of the following aspects of nursing is essential to defining it as both a

profession and a discipline?
1) Established standards of care

2) Professional organizations
3) Practice supported by scientific research
4) Activities determined by a scope of practice
Answer: 3) Practice supported by scientific research
Rationale: The American Nurses Association (ANA) has developed standards

of care, but they are unrelated to defining nursing as a profession or discipline.
Having professional organizations is not included in accepted characteristics of
either a profession or a discipline. A profession must have knowledge that is
based on technical and scientific knowledge. The theoretical knowledge of a
discipline must be based on research, so both are scientifically based. Having a
scope of practice is not included in accepted characteristics of either a
profession or a discipline.
86. Intermittent claudication is the typical feature of
A:-Coronary Artery Disease
B:- Testes cancer
C:-Interstitial Lung Disease
D:- Peripheral Vascular Disease
Answer:- D:- Peripheral Vascular Disease
87. The International Council of Nurses (ICN) was established by

A:-Ruther Gullick
B:-Evan Sullivan
C:-Bedford Fenwick
D:- Red Cross
Answer:- C:-Bedford Fenwick
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88. The mode of human to human transmission of Ebola Virus Disease

A:-Airborne
B:-Direct contact
C:-Vectorborne
D:- Water
Answer:- B:-Direct contact
89.The most common cancer associated with AIDS

A:-Kaposi sarcoma
B:-Ewing sarcoma
C:-Breast Cancer
D:-Small cell carcinoma
Answer:- A:-Kaposi sarcoma
90. An obstetric emergency

A:-Down syndrome
B:-Gilbert syndrome
C:-HELLP syndrome
D:-Conn syndrome
Answer:- C:-HELLP syndrome

91. In the internationally accepted four colour code system of Triage, red colour
indicates the type of patient who is
A:- Dead
B:- High Priority
C:- Medium Priority
D:- Ambulatory
Answer:- B:- High Priority
92. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a measure of

A:-Intra Cranial Pressure (ICP)
B:-Memory
C:-Fluid volume
D:-Level of Consciousness (LOC)
Answer:- D:-Level of Consciousness (LOC)
93. The Govt. of India recommended dosage of elemental iron during

pregnancy
A:-50 mg/day
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B:-100 mg/day
C:-160 mg/day
D:-210 mg/day
Answer:- B:-100 mg/day
94. Common cause of ante partum hemorrhage

A:- Ruture of Cervix
B:-Uterine rupture
C:-Placenta preavia
Answer:- C:-Placenta preavia
95. The technique of physical examination which uses the sense of touch
A:-Palpation
B:-Percussion
C:-Auscultation
D:-Inspection
Answer:- A:-Palpation
96. Insulin is produced from
A:-Pancreas
B:-Liver
C:-Thyroid
D:-Spleen
Answer:- A:-Pancreas
97.Marasmus is
A:-Deficiency of vitamin
B:-Protein malnutrition
C:-Deficiency of fatty acids
D:-Protein energy malnutrition
Answer:- D:-Protein energy malnutrition
98. The World's AIDS Day is celebrated on

A:-December 1st
B:-December 10th
C:-December 14th
D:-December 31st
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Answer:- A:-December 1st
99.The position given for a patient with dyspnoea

A:-Sim's position
B:-Lithotomy position
C:-Orthopneic position
D:-Trendelen burg
Answer:- C:-Orthopneic position
100. The parasite responsible for cerebral malaria

A:-Plasmodium vivax
B:-Plasmodium falciforum
C:-Plasmodium quartan
D:-Plasmodium ovale
Answer:- B:-Plasmodium falciforum

101. Surgery for cancer of colon
A:-Illeostomy
B:-Abdominoperineal resection
C:-Cecostomy
D:-Colostomy
Answer:- B:-Abdominoperineal resection

102.What is the concept of vision 2020 ?
A:-The right to healthy eye
B:-Right to reduce blindness
C:-Right to donate
D:-Right to sight
Answer:- D:-Right to sight

103. The causative organism of whooping cough.
A:-Bordetella Pertussis
B:-Clostridium tetani
C:-Coryne bacterium diphtheriae
D:-Mycobacterium
Answer:- A:-Bordetella Pertussis

104. Normal bleeding time is
A:-1-3 m
B:-3-6 mt
C:-6-10 mt
D:-10-12 mt
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Answer:- C:-6-10 mt
105. Mantoux (tuberculin) test was developed in

A:-1807
B:-1910
C:-1707
D:-1907
Answer:- D:-1907
MIDWIFERY NURSING QUESTIONS

106. The drug used to induce labour
A:-Terbutaline
B:-Ergometrin
C:-Oxytocin
D:-Duvadilan
Answer:- C:-Oxytocin
107. The denominator in a vertex presentation is
A:-Sacrum
B:-Acromion process
C:-Mentum
D:-Occiput
Answer:- D:-Occiput
108. The last menstrual period of a primi mother is `26th May 2014.
Her EDD is on
A:-1-3-2015
B:-2-3-2015
C:-5-3-2015
D:-6-3-2015
Answer:- C:-5-3-2015
109. The first fetal movement felt by the mother during pregnancy is
termed as
A:-Lightening
B:-Quickening
C:-Braxton Hick's contraction
D:-Funic Souffle
Answer:- B:-Quickening
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110. Full dilatation cervix at term equates to about

A:-4 cm
B:-6 cm
C:-8 cm
D:-10 cm
Answer:- D:-10 cm
111. Nonhormonal oral contraceptive pills contains
A:-Oestrogen
B:-Copper
C:-Centchroman
D:-Monoxynol-9
Answer:- C:-Centchroman
112. World tuberculosis day is observed on
A:-March 30
B:-March 24
C:-April 7
D:-December 12
Answer:- B:-March 24
113. Which among the following is a local anesthetic ?
A:-benzocaine
B:-halothane
C:-nitrous oxide
D:-thiopentone
Answer:- A:-benzocaine
114. Which of the following is NOT seen in CREST syndrome?
A:-Calcinosis
B:-Raynaud's phenomenon
C:-Serositis
D:-Dysphagia
Answer:- C:-Serositis
115. In acute overdose of paracetamol elimination half life over 4 hours
is associated with
A:-nephrotoxicity
B:-ototoxicity
C:-coma
D:-hepatic necrosis
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Answer:- D:-hepatic necrosis

116. A patient started on antituberculous treatment complains of joint
pain after a few days.Which of the following drugs is the most likely
cause for this symptom?
A:-ANH
B:-Pyrazinamide
C:-Rifampicin
D:-Ethambutol
Answer:- B:-Pyrazinamide
117. All are health promotion strategies except
A:-Chemoprophylaxis
B:-Portable safe water supply
C:-Life style modification
D:-Insecticide spray
Answer:- A:-Chemoprophylaxis
118. Inflammation of the tongue is known as
A:-Gingivitis
B:-Stomatitis
C:-Parotitis
D:-Glossitis
Answer:- D:-Glossitis
119. Which of the following Vitamins regulates the serum level of
calcium and phosphate?
A:-Vitamin A
B:-Vitamin B
C:-Vitamin D
D:-Vitamin K
Answer:- C:-Vitamin D
120. Dietary supplement alone cannot compensate for the increased
requirement of which nutrient in pregnant women
A:-Iron
B:-Magnesium
C:-Calcium
D:-Iodine
Answer:- A:-Iron
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PSYCHIATRIC NURSING OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION AND

ANSWERS
121. Which of the following is not true of dementia?
a. Patients can have hallucinations.
b. People with dementia act uncooperative to be spiteful.
c. People with dementia are often frightened and anxious.
d. Grooming is difficult for patients with dementia.
Answer: b. People with dementia act uncooperative to be spiteful.
122. A patient tells a nurses aide that the foods on her tray conflict with
her religious beliefs. The nurses assistant should:
a. tell the patient that it is all that is available.
b. leave the tray there in case she changes her mind.
c. take the tray away and notify the charge nurse.
d. check the patients religious preference on the chart.
Answer: c. take the tray away and notify the charge nurse.
123. A patient who is on suicide watch should be allowed to have:
a. a glass container of flowers in her room.
b. a leather belt.
c. a mirror.
d. pictures of her family in an album.
Answer: b. a leather belt.
124. There is an order to give the patient a shower, but she refuses. The
nurses assistant should:
a. document in the chart that the patient refused to shower.
b. tell her that she must do what is ordered
c. take the patient to the shower anyway.
d. threaten to use restraints if she does not cooperate.
Answer: a. document in the chart that the patient refused to shower.

125. After the end of the shift some nurses aides go to a restaurant.
Acceptable topics of conversation would include:
a. their patients.
b. procedures that others in the restaurant might not want to hearabout.
c. hospital politics.
d. the weather.
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Answer: d. the weather.

126. Diethyl carbamazine is used in the treatment of
A:-Dengue fever
B:-Chikungunya
C:-Malaria
D:-Filariasis
Answer:- D:-Filariasis
127. The mode of transmission of hepatitis B
A:-Fecal oral route
B:-Direct contact
C:-Parenteral route
D:-Droplet infection
Answer:- C:-Parenteral route

128. Antidote of heparin
A:-Protamin
B:-Promethazine
C:-Probenecid
D:-Warfarin
Answer:- A:-Protamin
129. The confirmatory test for AIDS
A:-Elisa test
B:-Western blot test
C:-VDRL
D:-Shick test
Answer:- B:-Western blot test

130. The most effective method of disinfection
A:-Boiling
B:-Burning
C:-Autoclaving
D:-Use of hot air
Answer:- C:-Autoclaving
131. While taking a rectal temperature the nurses aide should insert
thethermometer and:
a. go on his break.
b. hold onto the thermometer until it can be removed.
25
c. take care of other patients and return in three minutes.

d. stay in the room until it is time to read the temperature.
Answer: b. hold onto the thermometer until it can be removed.

132. The pigment responsible for skin colour
A:- Arginine
B:- Alanine
C:- Methionine
D:- Melanin
Answer:- D:-Melanin
133. A patient complains that her hand hurts where the IV is running.
The nurses assistant notices that the hand is puffy. The best thing to do
is:
a. notify the medication nurse that the patient is complaining of pain.
b. notify the IV nurse that the infusion appears to have infiltrated.
c. put ice onto the hand.

d. reassure the patient that needles always hurt.
Answer: b. notify the IV nurse that the infusion appears to have

infiltrated.
134. The clinical thermometer is disinfected using dettol at the strength
of
A:-1 : 40 for 3 mts
B:-1 : 20 for 5 mts
C:-1 : 40 for 5 mts
D:-1 : 20 for 3 mts
Answer:- A:-1 : 40 for 3 mts

135. A patient complains of pain. A nurses aide who has completed the
basic certified nurses aide course should:
a. get the patient some pain medication.
b. call the doctor.
c. tell the med nurse.
d. tell the patient to tell the med nurse when he or she comes in.
Answer: c. tell the med nurse.

136. Whooping cough is caused by
A:-Virus
B:-Protozoa
C:-Fungus
26
D:-Bacteria
Answer:- D:-Bacteria
137. A nurses aide notices blood in a patients IV tubing. The aide
should
A. try to flush the tubing.
B. do nothing; thats normal.
C. notify the IV nurse.
D. stop the IV.
Answer: C. notify the IV nurse.

138. ALL are acid fast EXCEPT
A:-Pneumocystis
B:-Rhodococcus
C:-Nocardia
D:-Mycobacteria
Answer:- A:-Pneumocystis
139. Siderails should be up if:
A. there is an order to that effect.
B. the patient is in bed without a staff member standing directly at his or
her side.
C. the patient is unsteady
D. the patient appears confused
Answer: B. the patient is in bed without a staff member standing directly

at his or her side.
140. Pott's disease is
A:-TB of abdomen
B:-TB of skin
C:-TB of genitourinary tract
D:-TB of spine
Answer:- D:-TB of spine

141. Community health guide measures malnutrition by
A:-Mid-arm circumference
B:-Height and Weight
C:-Skin fold thickness
D:-Any of the above
Answer:- D:-Any of the above

142. Meralgia paresthetica is involvement of
A:-Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
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B:-Obturator nerve
C:-Femoral nerve
D:-Lateral popliteal nerve
Answer:- A:-Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh

143. Boston Brace is
A:-Knee Orthosis
B:-Lumbosacral Orthosis
C:-Under Arm Orthosis

D:-Cervical Orthosis
Answer:- C:-Under Arm Orthosis

144. Inhalation therapy is under the professional supervision of
A:-Thoracic surgeon
B:-Physiology department
C:-Nephrology department
D:-Anaesthesiology department
Answer:- D:-Anaesthesiology department

145. Enteroclysis is used in the evaluation of
A:-Hepatobiliary system
B:-Hepatobiliary system
C:-Fallopian tubes
D:-Thecal sac
Answer:- B:-Hepatobiliary system

146. Lymphatics from tonsil drain into
A:-Mediastinal lymph nodes
B:-Lower deep cervical lymph nodes
C:-Submental lymph nodes
D:- Jugulodigastric lymph nodes
Answer:- D:- Jugulodigastric lymph nodes

147. Hormone which induces ovulation
A:-ACTH
B:-FSH
C:-LH
D:-MSH
Answer:- C:-LH
148. Medical care evaluation focuses on.
A:-The quality of care provided in an institution
28
B:-The length of stay

C:-The efficiency of Medical professionals
D:-Utilisation of resources
Answer:- A:-The quality of care provided in an institution

149. Cerebral palsy is
A:-Lower motor neurone lesion
B:-Autoimmune disease
C:-Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
D:-Upper motor neurone lesion
Answer:- D:-Upper motor neurone lesion

150. Testosterone is produced by
A:-Leydig cells
B:-Sertoli cells
C:-Lacis cells
D:-Parietal cells
Answer:- A:-Leydig cells

151. The normal length of fallopian tube is
A:-5 cms
B:-10 cms
C:-25 cms
D:-18 cms
Answer:- B:-10 cms

152. Most vascular part of bone is
A:-Epiphysis
B:-Epiphyseal cartilage
C:-Diaphysis
D:-Metaphysis
Answer:- D:-Metaphysis
153. The basic sources of hospital statistical information is.
A:-Registries
B:-Indexes
C:-Medical Records
D:-Abstracts
Answer:- C:-Medical Records

154. Charting of care in the patient's record is the responsibility of.
A:-Physician
B:-Administrator
C:-MRO
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D:-Charge nurse
Answer:- D:-Charge nurse

155. The drug of choice of eclampsia
A:-Magnesium sulphate
B:-Nifedipine
C:-Ergometrine
D:-Carboprost
Answer:- A:-Magnesium sulphate

156. Hormone that facilitates water reabsorption from the distal part of
renal tubule
A:-Oxytocin
B:-cortisol
C:-ANP
D:-ADH
Answer:- D:-ADH
157. The hospital can submit the original record only to the
A:-The court in case of subpoena
B:-Patient
C:-Attending physician
D:-Health care organisations
Answer:- A:-The court in case of subpoena

158. Breathing that is normal in rate and depth
A:-Apnea
B:-Bradypnea
C:-Tachypnea
D:-Eupnea
Answer:- D:-Eupnea
159. Criminal cases are the following except
A:-Assault cases
B:-Artificial insemination
C:-Sexual assault
D:-Violent or unexplained death
Answer:- B:-Artificial insemination

160. Gossiping between the doctors about the patient is ...............
A:-Breach of confidentiality
B:-Invasion of privacy
C:-Defamation
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D:-Tort
Answer:- A:-Breach of confidentiality

161. Permanent cessation of menstruation is termed as
A:-Menarche
B:-Menopause
C:-Telarche
D:-Amenorrhoea
Answer:- B:-Menopause
162. Which of the following gland has both exocrine and endocrine
parts ?
A:-Thyroid
B:- Testis
C:-Pancreas
D:-Adrenal
Answer:- C:-Pancreas
163. Fourth cranial nerve is
A:-Trigeminal
B:-Abducens
C:-Facial
D:-Trochlear
Answer:- D:-Trochlear
164. Lymphatic drainage of anal canal is to
A:-Internal iliac lymph nodes
B:-External iliac lymph nodes
C:-Inguinal lymph nodes
D:-Para aortic lymph nodes
Answer:- C:-Inguinal lymph nodes

165. Bluish discolouration of vagina during pregnancy is called
A:-Chadwick's sign
B:-Palmer's sign
C:-Hegar's sign
D:-Osiander's sign
Answer:- A:-Chadwick's sign

166. Which of the following drug is contraindicated in a patient with
glaucoma who is scheduled for surgery?
A:-Demerol (meperidine) 50 mg IM
B:-Phenergan (promethazine) 25 mg IM
31
C:-Valium (diazepam) 2 mg IM
D:-Atropine sulfate 0.4 mg IM
Answer:- D:-Atropine sulfate 0.4 mg IM

167. World Breast Feeding week is celebrated in the first week of
A:-January
B:-August
C:-March
D:-December
Answer:- B:-August
168. The president of Indian Nursing Council (INC) is
A:-Nominated by state government
B:-Nominated by central government
C:-Elected by registered nurses

D:-Elected by state nursing councils
Answer:- B:-Nominated by central government

169. A patient rings for the bedpan while visitors are in the room. The
nurses assistant should:
a. ask the visitors to leave the room during the procedure
b. give the bedpan to the patient in front of family
c. wait until the visitors leave
d. ask the supervisor what to do
Answer: a. ask the visitors to leave the room during the procedure
170. WHO recently declared India to be free of which communicable
disease
A:-Chicken pox
B:-Polio myelitis
C:-Measles
D:-Tetanus
Answer:- B:-Polio myelitis

171. Significant proteinuria in pregnancy
A:-150 mg/24 hrs
B:-220 mg/24 hrs
C:-250 mg/24 hrs
D:-300 mg/24 hrs
Answer:- 300 mg/24 hrs
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172. Craniospinal irradiation is primarily used in the treatment of

A:-Craniopharyngioma
B:-Vertebral metastasis
C:-Multiple myeloma
D:-Medulloblastoma
Answer:- D:-Medulloblastoma
173. Hospital acquired infection is known as
A:-Nosocomial infection
B:-Opportunistic infection
C:-Contamination
D:-Droplet infection
Answer:- A:-Nosocomial infection

174. What is the primary action of insulin in the body?
A:-Stimulates the pancreatic beta cells
B:-Aids in the process of gluconeogenesis
C:-Enhances the transport of glucose across cell walls
D:-Decreases the intestinal absorption of glucose
Answer:- C:-Enhances the transport of glucose across cell walls

175. Which vaccine is given earliest?
A:-Hepatitis
B:-BCG
C:-Measles
D:-DPT
Answer:- B:-BCG
176. Pentavalent vaccine prevents
A:-Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Hepatitis B, Haemophilus influenza B
B:-Diphtheria, Pertussis, Typhoid, Hepatitis B, Tetanus
C:-Diphtheria, Tetanus, Hepatitis B, Typhoid, Haemophilus influenza B
D:-Diphtheria, Pertussis, Typhoid, Hepatits B, Tetanus
Answer:- A:-Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Hepatitis B, Haemophilus

influenza B
177. ''Nursing is the diagnosis and treatment of human responses to
health and illness''. This definition was given by
A:-American Nurses Association (ANA), 1995
B:-International Council of Nurses
C:-Indian Nursing Council, 1948
D:-Florence Nightingale, 1858
33
Answer:- A:-American Nurses Association (ANA), 1995

178. A sleep disorder where undesirable behaviour occur during sleep
A:-Insomnia
B:-Parasomnia
C:-Hypersomnia
D:-Narcolepsy
Answer:- B:-Parasomnia
179. Which of the following is an indicator of AIDS?
A:-CD4 count lower than 200/ml
B:-CD4 count lower than 1000/ml
C:-CD4 count lower than 600/ml
D:-CD4 count more than 400/ml
Answer:- D:-CD4 count more than 400/ml

180. The term 'nursing process' was first used by
A:-Lydia Hall
B:-Virginia Henderson
C:-Dorothea Orem
D:-Florence Nightingale
Answer:- A:-Lydia Hall

181. A patient has a chest tube placement post right thoracotomy.
During assessment the nurse expects all of the following findings except:
A. Chest drainage flows into the first chamber.
B. Water level in the chamber rises and falls with each respiration.
C. Use of accessory muscles with respirations.
D. Evaluate tidaling by disconnecting chest tube from wall suction
Answer: C. Use of accessory muscles with respirations.

182. The thermoregulatory centre is located at
A. Hypothalamus
B. Pons
C. Medulla
D. Pituitary
Answer: A. Hypothalamus
183. A patient with suspected ulcers is scheduled for a diagnostic
gastroscopy. During the insertion of the scope the patient experiences a
vasovagal response. The nurse should expect all except:
A. The patient is given atropine before the procedure.
B. The patient has a decrease in heart rate
34
C.A patient has an increase in gastric secretions.
D. The patients pupils become dilated.
Answer: D. The patients pupils become dilated.

184. Which ethical principle is the nurse utilizing when supporting the
decision of a client to terminate chemotherapy treatments?
A. Justice
B. Confidentiality
C. Fidelity
D. Autonomy
Answer: D. Autonomy
185. A patient presents to the emergency room with the following
symptoms: Anxiety, dyspnea, rhonchi, fever, Oxygen saturation of 88%,
and a pH of 7.21. The nurse realized that the patient suffering from:
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Metabolic acidosis
Answer: B. Metabolic alkalosis

186. In Marfans syndrome,there is increased risk for
A:-Pneumonia
B:-Pleural effusion
C:-Pneumothorax
D:-All of the above
Answer:-C:-Pneumothorax
187. An aide is pushing a resident down the hall with a wheelchair
when a call light lights up. The aide should
a. continue pushing the patient and assume someone else will answer the
call.
b. take the patient inside the room while answering the call.
c. put the patient back to bed and then answer the call.
d. push the patient to a safe place, apply the wheel locks, and answer the
call.
Answer: d. push the patient to a safe place, apply the wheel locks, and
answer the call.
188. The earliest manifestation of hepatic encephalopathy
A:-Flapping tremor
B:-Confusion
C:-Spider angioma
35
D:-Fetor hepaticus
Answer:- B:-Confusion
189. Siderails should be up if:
a. there is an order to that effect.
b. the patient is in bed without a staff member standing directly at his or
her side.
c. the patient is unsteady
d. the patient appears confused
Answer: b. the patient is in bed without a staff member standing directly

at his or her side.
190. Egg has all Vitamins except
A:-Vitamin B1
B:-Vitamin B6
C:-Vitamin C
D:-Vitamin E
Answer:- C:-Vitamin C
191. Which of the following actions is the first priority care for a client
exhibiting signs and symptoms of coronary artery disease?
a. Decrease anxiety
b. Educate the client about his symptoms
c. Administer sublignual nitroglycerin
d. Enhance myocardial oxygenation
Answer: d. Enhance myocardial oxygenation

192. A physician has diagnosed acute gastritis in a clinic patient. Which
of the following medications would be contraindicated for this patient?
a. Furosemide (Lasix).
b. Calcium carbonate.
c. Clarithromycin (Biaxin).
d. Naproxen sodium (Naprosyn)
Answer: d. Naproxen sodium (Naprosyn).

193. Dyspnea, cough, expectoration, weakness, and edema are classic
signs and symptoms of which of the following conditions?
a. Restricitve
b. Hypertension
c. Pericarditis
d. Obliterative
36
Answer; a. Restricitve
194. A child is seen in the emergency department for scarlet fever.
Which of the following descriptions of scarlet fever is NOT correct?
a. Scarlet fever is caused by infection with group A Streptococcus

bacteria.
b. Petechiae occur on the soft palate.
c. "Strawberry tongue" is a characteristic sign.
d. The pharynx is red and swollen.
Answer: b. Petechiae occur on the soft palate.

195. With which of the following disorders is jugular vein distention
most prominent?
a. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
b. Myocardial infarction
c. Heart failure
d. Pneumothorax
Answer: c. Heart failure

196. Thrombolytic therapy is frequently used in the treatment of
suspected stroke. Which of the following is a significant complication
associated with thrombolytic therapy?
a. Air embolus.
b. Resolution of the clot.
c. Expansion of the clot.
d. Cerebral haemorrhage.
Answer: d. Cerebral haemorrhage.

197. Which of the following IV fluids is prescribed to increase
intravascular volume, replace immediate
blood loss volume and increase blood pressure?
Answer: 5% dextrose in lactated Ringers Solution
2. Umbilical cord consists of
Answer: 2 arteries and 1 vei
198. Phases of counselling does not include
Answer: Imagination
199. When performing chest compressions on an adult in CPR, the
sternum should be depressed for at least
Answer: 1 to 2 inches
200. Peg cells are seen in
Answer: Fallopian tubes
37
201. Fear of crowded or closed in spaces

Answer: Agora phobia
202. Soiled waste can be disposed by which method ?
Answer: Incineration
203. What is the normal score in Mini Mental status examination?
Answer: 2530
204. The reason for urbanization is
Answer: Industrialization
205. Which is the most appropriate time of IUD insertion ?
Answer: During or within 10 days of menstruation
206. Fatty acids can be transported into and out of cell membrane by
Answer: Facilitated transport
207. Which of the following might help the pregnant client to overcome
firsttrimester morning sickness?
Answer: Eat dry crackers before arising
208. The position of the uterus is
Answer: Anteverted & anteflexed
209. Rational behind play therapy is
Answer: Sensorimotor & Intellectual development
210. The amount of sperm present in seminal fluid is
Answer: 100 million/ml
211. A client has cancer of the liver. The nurse should be most
concerned about which nursing diagnosis?
A. Ineffective coping
B. Alteration in urinary elimination
C. Alteration in skin integrity
D. Alteration in nutrition
Answer D is correct. Cancer of the liver frequently leads to severe

nausea and vomiting, thus the need for altering nutritional needs. The
problems in answers B, C, and D are of lesser concern and, thus, are
incorrect in this instance.
212. The client is having fetal heart rates of 100110 beats per minute
during the contractions. The first action the nurse should take is to:
A. Apply an internal monitor
B. Get the client up and walk her in the hall
C. Turn the client to her side
D. Move the client to the delivery room
Answer C is correct. The normal fetal heart rate is 120160 bpm. A heart
rate of 100110 bpm is bradycardia. The first action would be to turn the
client to the left side and apply oxygen. Answer A is not indicated at this
38
time. Answer C is not the best action for clients experiencing

bradycardia. There is no data to indicate the need to move the client to
the delivery room at this time, so answer D is incorrect as well
213. A 5-year-old client with hyperthyroidism is admitted to the
pediatric unit. What would the nurse expect the admitting assessment to
reveal?
A. Bradycardia
B. Exophthalmos
C. Decreased appetite
D. Weight gain
Answer B is correct. Exophthalmos (protrusion of eyeballs) often occurs

with hyperthyroidism. The client with hyperthyroidism will often exhibit
tachycardia, increased appetite, and weight loss. Answers A, B, and D
are not associated with hyperthyroidism.
214. A client has cancer of the liver. The nurse should be most
concerned about which nursing diagnosis?
A. Ineffective coping
B. Alteration in urinary elimination
C. Alteration in skin integrity
D. Alteration in nutrition
Answer D is correct. Cancer of the liver frequently leads to severe

nausea and vomiting, thus the need for altering nutritional needs. The
problems in answers B, C, and D are of lesser concern and, thus, are
incorrect in this instance.
215. The client is having fetal heart rates of 100110 beats per minute
during the contractions. The first action the nurse should take is to:
A. Apply an internal monitor
B. Get the client up and walk her in the hall
C. Turn the client to her side
D. Move the client to the delivery room
Answer C is correct. The normal fetal heart rate is 120160 bpm. A heart
rate of 100110 bpm is bradycardia. The first action would be to turn the
client to the left side and apply oxygen. Answer A is not indicated at this
time. Answer C is not the best action for clients experiencing
bradycardia. There is no data to indicate the need to move the client to
the delivery room at this time, so answer D is incorrect as well.
216. A 5-year-old client with hyperthyroidism is admitted to the
pediatric unit. What would the nurse expect the admitting assessment to
reveal?
39
A. Bradycardia
B. Exophthalmos
C. Decreased appetite
D. Weight gain
Answer B is correct. Exophthalmos (protrusion of eyeballs) often occurs with

hyperthyroidism. The client with hyperthyroidism will often exhibit
tachycardia, increased appetite, and weight loss. Answers A, B, and D are not
associated with hyperthyroidism.
217. Which of the following is a characteristic of a reassuring fetal heart
rate pattern?
A. A fetal heart rate of 180bpm
B. A baseline variability of 35bpm
C. A fetal heart rate of 90 at the baseline
D. Acceleration of FHR with fetal movements
Answer D is correct. Answers A, B, and C indicate ominous findings on

the fetal heart monitor and so are incorrect in this instance. Accelerations
with movement are normal, so answer D is the reassuring pattern.
218. A gravida II para 0 is admitted to the labor and delivery unit. The
doctor performs an amniotomy. Which observation would the nurse
expect to make immediately after the amniotomy?
A. Fetal heart tones 160 beats per minute
B. A moderate amount of clear fluid
C. A small amount of greenish fluid
D. A small segment of the umbilical cord
Answer B is correct. Normal amniotic fluid is straw colored and

odorless, so this is the observation the nurse should expect. An
amniotomy is artificial rupture of membranes, causing a straw-colored
fluid to appear in the vaginal area. Fetal heart tones of 160 indicate
tachycardia, and this is not the observation to watch for. Greenish fluid is
indicative of meconium, not amniotic fluid. If the nurse notes the
umbilical cord, the client is experiencing a prolapsed cord. This would
need to be reported immediately. For this question, answers A, C, and D
are incorrect.
219. The nurse is caring for a client admitted with acute
laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB). Because of the possibility of complete
obstruction of the airway, which of the following should the nurse have
available?
A. Intravenous access supplies
B. Emergency intubation equipment
C. Intravenous fluid-administration pump
40
D. Supplemental oxygen
Answer B is correct. For a child with LTB and the possibility of

complete obstruction of the airway, emergency intubation equipment
should always be kept at the bedside. Intravenous supplies and fluid will
not treat an obstruction, nor will supplemental oxygen; therefore,
answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
220. The home health nurse is planning for the days visits. Which
client should be seen first?
A. The client with renal insufficiency
B. The client with multiple sclerosis who is being treated with IV
cortisone
C. The client with diabetes who has a decubitus ulcer
D. The client with Alzheimers
Answer B is correct. The client who should receive priority is the client
with multiple sclerosis and who is being treated with IV cortisone. This
client is at highest risk for complications. Answers A, B, and C are
incorrect because these clients are more stable and can be seen later.
221. Gluconeogenesis is decreased by
Answer: (D) Insulin
222. The absorption of the fats and glycerol takes place in the
Answer: (A) Ileum
223. Normal head circumference of a New Born:
Answer: (A) 3335 cm
224. Causative organism of diarrhoea in AIDS patient is
Answer: (C) Cryptosporidium
225. Weaning should start from the month of
Answer: (B) 6 th month
226. Tuberculosis is a/an
Answer: (B) Air borne disease
227. An intravenous (IV) site is cool, pale & swollen & the solution is
not infusing. Which complication has occurred ?
Answer: (C) Infiltration
228. What should nurse conclude that a client is doing when making up
stories to fill in blank spaces of
memory ?
Answer: (D) Confabulating
229. WHOORS packet includes following, except
Answer: (D) Calcium carbonate
230. The length of the uterine tube is approximately
Answer: (C) 10 cm
41
231. Which of the following illnesses is the leading cause of death in the
US?
a) Cancer
b) Renal failure
c) HIV Disease
d) Coronary artery disease
e) None of the above
Answer: d. Coronary artery disease

232. A patient who has just had a miscarriage at 8 weeks of gestation is
admitted to hospital. In
caring for this patient, the nurse should be alert for signs of:
a) Hemorrhage
b) Subinvolution
c) Dehydration
d) Hypertension
Answer: a) Hemorrhage
233. Which of the following arteries primarily feeds the anterior wall of
the heart?
a) Circumflex artery
b) Left anterior descending artery
c) Internal mammary artery
d) Right coronary artery
Answer: b) Left anterior descending artery

234. A patient presents to the emergency department with diminished
and thready pulses,
hypotension and an increased pulse rate. The patient reports weight loss,
lethargy, and decreased
urine output. The lab work reveals increased urine specific gravity. The
nurse should suspect:
a) Renal failure
b) Dehydration
c) Pneumonia
d) Mal Nutrition
Answer: b) Dehydration
42
235. Which of the following recurring conditions most commonly

occurs in clients with cardiomyopathy?
a) MI
b) DM
c) Heart failure
d) Pericardial effusion
Answer: c) Heart failure

236. What two behaviors are important when documenting the depth of
the patient's depression?
a) Orientation and appearance
b) Mood and Tension Control
c) Affect and thought processes
d) Helplessness and hopelessness
Answer: d) Helplessness and hopelessness

237. Which of the following complications of an abdominal aortic repair
is indicated by detection of a hematoma in the perineal area?
a) Retroperitoneal rupture at the repair site
b) Stage 1 pressure ulcer
c) Inguinal Hernia
d) Rapid expansion of the aneurysm
Answer: a) Retroperitoneal rupture at the repair site

238. Which of the following techniques should the nurse implement to
prevent the patient's mucous membranes from drying when the oxygen
flow rate is higher than 4 liters per minute?
a) Use a non rebreather mask
b) Reduce flow rate
c) Use a high flow oxygen delivery system IT Certification Guaranteed,
The Easy Way!
d) Add humidity to the delivery system
Answer: d) Add humidity to the delivery system

239. Blood bourne infections include:
a. shingles
b. pneumonia
Stop crying.
d. urinary tract infection
43
Answer: Stop crying.

240. Which of the following is not true of blindness?
a. Always identify yourself before touching a blind person.
b. Diabetes is an important cause of blindness.
c. Most legally blind or visually-impaired people have no sight at all.
d. Ask if a blind person needs help before giving assistance.
Answer: c. Most legally blind or visually-impaired people have no

sight at all.
241. It is important that dressings remain:
a. clean and dry.
b. loose to admit air.
c. tight to keep out bacteria.
d. untouched until ordered removed.
Answer: a. clean and dry.

242. A patient suddenly complains of feeling weak on one side while he
is getting a bed bath. The nurses assistant should:
a. tell him that weakness is normal at his age.
b. report this to a licensed person immediately.
c. prop him up with pillows.
d. pass it on at end of shift.
Answer: b. report this to a licensed person immediately
243. Normal value of Fasting Blood Sugar level is _________.

A:-80 mg - 110 mg/100 ml
B:-150 mg - 200 mg/100 ml
C:-Below 50 mg/100 ml
D:-80 gm - 110 gm/100 ml
Correct Answer:- Option-A
244. Hydrophobia can be correlated to _________.
A:-Jalasanthrasa
B:-Lutha visham
C:-Mooshika visham
D:-Keeta visham
245. ___________ is an example for air borne disease.
A:-Cholera
B:-Dysentery
44
C:-Influenza
D:-Typhoid
Correct Answer:- Option-C
246. DPT stands for __________.
A:-Dysentery, Pneumonia, Tetanus
B:-Dysentery, Poliomyelitis, Tetanus
C:-Diphtheria, Pertusis, Tetanus

D:-Diphtheria, Polydipsia, Typhoid
247. 'Kalyanaka kshara' is indicated in _________.
A:-Kasa
B:-Arsas
C:-Oshtakopa
D:-Kunakha
Correct Answer:- Option-B
248. _________ is an example of 'Sasthra'.
A:-Vreehi
B:-Jaluka
C:-Dantha
D:-Samdamsa
249. Agryaushadha for visha is _________.
A:-Grutha
B:-Guluchi
C:-Silajathu
D:-Sireesha
Correct Answer:- Option-D
250. The best among valleebhala is _________.
A:-Kaaravellam
B:-Patolam
C:-Visaala
D:-Kushmandam
Correct Answer:- Option-D
251. OPV stands for __________.
A:-Oral Polio Vaccine
B:-Oro-Pharynx Vessels
45
C:-Oral Pneumonia Vaccine

D:-Oral Pertusis Vaccine
252. _________ is a disease associated with Madhyama roga marga.
A:-Athisaram
B:-Rajayakshma
C:-Udaram
D:-Sopha
253. Power obtained because of identification with the leader
symbolizes:
Answer: Referent power
254. Who is acknowledged as Father of Modern Management theory ?
Answer: Henry Fayol
255. The term "schizophrenia" was coined by
Answer: Blessler
256. A patient suffering with iron deficiency anemia should include the
following food items in her diet:
Answer: Oranges and dark green leafy vegetable
257. Vaccination to be given after completion of 9 th month of birth is
Answer: MMR
258. The stage that designs curriculum is
Answer: Formative
259. Planned Educational activities provided in a job setting is called
Answer: Inservice education
260. Which is not a direct mode of transmission of communicable
diseases ?
Answer: Vector borne transmission
261. Standard deviation summarizes the average amount of deviation of
values
Answer: From the mean
262. _______ is characterized by episode of rapid ingestion of large
volume of food followed by induced
vomiting.
Answer: Bulimia Nervosa
46
263. A plan showing the placement of students in theory and practical

area is called
Answer: Clinical rotation plan
264. Which of the following is an example of neurotransmitter?
Answer: Acetylcholine
265. Which of the following may increase in pregnancies complicated
by anemia in the second trimester?
Answer: Preterm birth
266. Referring the patients main thought as he expressed:
Answer: Restating
267. Which model states that most frequently occurring behaviour as
normal?
Answer: Statistical
268. Which of the following causes the most infections in healthcare
facilities?
a. unwashed hands
b. airborne bacteria
c. contaminated food
d. sick visitors
Answer: a. unwashed hand

269. A resident is standing in the hallway holding a bag, and asks the
nurses aide when the train is due. The aide should tell her:
a. that she is being ridiculous.
b. where she is, in a matter-of-fact tone of voice
c. to go back to her room.
d. that it should be here any time now.
Answer: b. where she is, in a matter-of-fact tone of voice

270. A patient is sobbing. What is the best thing for the nursing
assistant to say?
a. You appear sad.
b. Cheer up.
c. Dont be a baby.
d. Stop crying.
Answer: a. You appear sad.
47
271. A client with a chest injury has suffered flail chest. A nurse
assesses the client for which most distinctive sign of flail chest?
a. Paradoxical chest movement
b. Hypotension
c. Cyanosis
d. Dyspnea, especially on exhalation
272. PCOD stands for _________.
A:-Pre cyclic ovarian disease
B:-Post cyclic ovarian disease
C:-Poly cyclic ovarian disease
D:-Poly cystic ovarian disease
Answer: Option-D
273. 'Caloric Test' is done in _________.
A:-Fever
B:-Vertigo
C:-Lumbago
D:-Meningitis
Answer: Option-B
274. Jaundice is seen in _________.
A:-Leptospirosis
B:-Typhoid
C:-Brain tumor
D:-Lymph adenitis
Answer: Option-A
275. Amoebiasis is caused by _________.
A:-Entamoeba hystolitica
B:-Escherichia coli
C:-Enterobacterium leprae
D:-Staphylococcus aureus
Answer: Option-A
276. Jaipur foot has an advantage over conventional prosthetic feet
because
A:-Separate Male and Female feet are available
B:-Same foot can be used lifelong (Durable)
C:-It can be used without a footwear (Bare foot walking possible)
48
D:-It matches any skin colour

277. Shick test is done in
A:-meningitis
B:-diphtheria
C:-pertussis
D:-poliomyelitis
278. Most commonly used laboratory technique used to identify
tubercle bacilli in sputum
A:-Acid-fast staining
B:-Sensitivity testing
C:-Agglutination testing
D:-Dark-field illumination
279. Isotonic solution
A:-0.9%Sodium Chloride
B:-0.45% Sodium Chloride
C:-10 %Dextrose
D:-25% Dextrose
280. The antidote of paracetamol is
A:-Cyclosporin
B:-N-acetylcysteine
C:-Cyclophosphamide
D:-Diclofenac
281. Cretinism is caused by the congenital deficiency of
A:-Thyroid hormone
B:-Parathormone
C:-Antidiuretic hormone
D:-Adrenaline
282. Which lab test is to be monitored while the client is on treatment
with aminoglycocides?
A:-Haemoglobin
B:-S. bilirubin
49
C:-S. creatinine
D:-Platelets
283. The position contraindicated for a child after cleft lip surgery is
A:-Supine position
B:-Prone position
C:-Right lateral position
D:-Left lateral position
284. Which of the following classes of medications maximizes cardiac
performance in clients with heat failure by increasing ventricular
contractility?
a. Beta-adrenergic blockers
b. Calcium channel blockers
c. Diuretics
d. Inotropic agents
Correct Answer:-Option-D
285. Synchronizer switch is in off position in
A:-Cardioversion
B:-Pacing
C:-Defibrillation
D:-Intubation
286. A client presents to the clinic requesting a renewal of her
prescription for oxycodone (Percocet). What should the NP do?
A. Decline to provide the prescription
B. Renew the prescription and document the action taken
C. Assess the client and conduct appropriate investigations
D. Perform a medication reconciliation prior to prescribing
Answer: A. Decline to provide the prescription
50
287. Which of the following symptoms might a client with right-sided

heart failure exhibit?
A. Adequate urine output
B. Polyuria
C. Polydipsia
D. Oliguria
Answer: d. Oliguria
288. A father expresses concerns about his sons upcoming surgery.
The nurse listens to the father's concerns and validates his feelings. What
component of the nurse-client relationship is the nurse demonstrating?
A. Professional intimacy
B. Respect
C. Empathy
D. Trust
Answer: C. Empathy
289. A nurse gives a double dose of acetaminophen (Tylenol) to a client
who only requires a single dose. What, if anything, must the nurse do?
A. Report the error as soon as possible
B. Withhold the clients next dose of Tylenol
C. Ask a colleague to help assess the client
D. Nothing, because this is an over-the-counter medication
Answer: A. Report the error as soon as possible

290. Prolonged occlusion of the right coronary artery produces an
infarction in which of he following areas of the heart?
A. Anterior
B. Inferior
C. Apical
51
D. Lateral
Answer: B. Inferior
291. Normal sperm count should be
a) 20 million or above/ml
b) 5 million or less
c) 50 thousands
d) None of the above
292. Sex hormones are
a) Thyroxine
b) Insulin
c) Growth Hormone
d)Testosterone
293. Antero posterior diameter of the gynaecoid pelvic outlet is
a) 11 cm
b) 10 cm
c) 13 cm
d) 12 cm
294. Difficult labour is called as
a) Dyspepsia
b) Dysparenia
c) Dyspnoea
d)Dystocia
295. Quickening is first felt by the mother at
a) 10 weeks
b) 24 weeks
c) 20 weeks
d) 36 weeks
296. Ovum has the pair of sex chromosomes
a) XXX
b) XY
c) XX
d)None of the above
52
297. *Anaemia is commonly seen in the following women

a) Child bearing women
b) Multi parity women
c) Lower income group
d) all the above
298.The denominator in face presentation
a) occiput
b) Sacrum
c) Mentum
d)Acromion process
299.During 3rd week of pregnancy
a) The ovum is without villi
b) The ovaries covered with chorionic villi
c) The ovum is absent
d) None of the above
300.Fertilization of ovam & sperm takes place
a) In uterus
b) Cervix
c) Vagina
d) Ampulla of fallopian tube
53

Objective Questions For Nursing

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Objective Questions For Nursing

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(Useful for Nursing exams conducted by SSC, UPSC, Kerala PSC, MOH

Answer:- A:-liver cells

Answer:- C:-nalidixic acid

Answer:- D:-coconut oil

7. Mother tinctures should be kept at a temperature of

Answer:- A:-15.6 degree celsious

Answer:- D:-all the above

13. DOTS programme introduced for the treatment of

Answer:- B:-topical anti fungal

Answer:- D:-Both Calcium carbonate and Magnesium carbonate

Answer:- B:-cod liver oil

Answer:- D:-Active principle

Answer:- D:-0.5 0.8 mg/liter

Answer:- C:-4 hourly

Answer:- D:-Riboflavin deficiency

Answer:- C:-Henry Dunant

Answer:- A:-Lactobacillus bifidus

Answer:- C:-Trochlear nerve

Answer:- D:-Sputum AFB culture

B:-0.2 0.4 mg/liter

Answer:- D:-0.5 0.8 mg/liter

Answer:- C:-4 hourly

Answer:- D:-Riboflavin deficiency

Answer:- C:-Henry Dunant

Answer:- A:-Lactobacillus bifidus

Answer:- C:-Trochlear nerve

Answer:- D:-Sputum AFB culture

Answer:- A:-Tuberculous ulcer

Answer:- C:-Below knee

Answer:- D:-`7^(th)` April, 1948

Answer:- C:-Flexed DIP Joint

Answer:- D:-Congenital dislocation of hip

Answer:- A:-S. Enterilidis

Answer:- C:-Home visiting

C:-Acute radiation syndrome

Answer:- D:-Shortening of life

Answer: A. The client with cancer who is being treated with

Answer:- D:-Aedes aegypti

68.Milk is a good source of all vitamins except

Answer:- D:-Public health nurse

Answer:- B:-Ultra Sonogram

Answer:- B:-Viral hepatitis

Answer: d. slap the patient between the shoulder blades.

Answer: d. all the above.

c. Whichever side is more comfortable.

Answer: D. Tell the family members to take the plant home

1) It includes organizational reports of unusual occurrences that are not

Answer: 3) It improves interdisciplinary collaboration that improves

Answer: 3) Deep somatic

83.Which of the following is/are an example(s) of theoretical knowledge as

1) Antibiotics are ineffective in treating viral infections.

Answer: 1) Antibiotics are ineffective in treating viral infections.

84.Which of the following incidents requires the nurse to complete an

1) Medication given 30 minutes after scheduled dose time

Answer: 2) Patient's dentures lost after transfer

85.Which of the following aspects of nursing is essential to defining it as both a

1) Established standards of care

Answer: 3) Practice supported by scientific research

Rationale: The American Nurses Association (ANA) has developed standards

Answer:- D:- Peripheral Vascular Disease

87. The International Council of Nurses (ICN) was established by

Answer:- C:-Bedford Fenwick

88. The mode of human to human transmission of Ebola Virus Disease