GE (ALLEN Scholarship Cum Admission Test) (Session : 2017-2018) For NURTURE COURSE cummed (For X to XI Moving Students) Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes sp CRM Ce aD Maximum Marks : 320 ally for this purpose. ‘This booklet is your Question Paper. DO NOT break seal of Booklet until the invgilator instructs to do so. 2._ Fillyour Form No. inthe space provided onthe top ofthis page. 3. The Answer Sheet is provided to you separately which is a machine readable Optical Response Sheet (ORS). You have to mark your answers in the ORS by darkening bubble, as per your answer choice, by using black & blue ball point pen. 4, Total Questions to be Attempted 80. Part: 20 Questions & Part:l : 60 Questions. 5._ Alter brening the Gestion Pape seh heck the folowing 3. There are 19 pages in the booklet containing question no. 1 to 100 under 2 Parts i.e. Part-! & Part. b. Part: contains total 20 questions of (Menta Ability). . Partll contains total 80 questions under 4 s wich are-Section (A) : Physics, Section (B): Chemistry, Section (C): Mathematics" & Section (0): Biology “important : *For Engineering Stream attempt Only Section-A (Physics), Section-B (Chemistry) & Section-C (Mathematics). *For Medical Stream attempt Only Section-A (Physics), Section-8 (Chemistry) & Section-D (Biology). 6. Marking Scheme : 2. if darkened bubble is RIGHT answer : 4 Marks b. If no bubble is darkened in any question: No Mark. Only for part- it: f darkened bubble is WRONG answer: =i Mark (Minus One Mark). 7. Think wisely before darkening bubble as there is negative marking for wrong answer. 8. If you are found involved in cheating or disturbing others then your ORS will be cancelled 9. Donot put any tain on ORS and hand it over back property to the invgilator. 2. 3. SACS, WH aa Dotter ates 7a (ORS) Fah fe sera A ORS TH Fett sit sear at er ere et er a eet ThE a frtwe e ge rem hens ears aS wether ore eae fe AR | Sea sre THORS BAT year Hare a ate wet aE wen Sefer A THEA HL Greore es ed fme:20reT coe, of Taye stg warqerstadie: a, yferen# 19 953 8 1 wer sor 18 1008 2 err, a sm bm age 20 Fer 1a (are Aree) FF cA AR 80 Fes 4 eve HF Frere aos (A): sr, as (8): TH, WeSC): Ahh *aaTE (0) -sta aT BI sreenpel : sefatraten Sha fer’ avs (a): sre, ere (8) : TAP th aE (C): afer BET eI awe : tAfewa win F ferd eave (A) : stfirst, avs (8) : TaPTT SH GUE (0) : Sta Fara eT Eh air aT: a. REIN ae geaS a are HA 4 b. aie A gegen aren we eet ate ate eT ere aes fry: Tera SHC Te ATES wT TA Meat af (RMT ieee teeters ete RMT HF af arg sat sere a eR ET? A ORS w Fea fens Pan att ‘Corporate Office ALLEW CAREER INSTITUTE “SANKALP", CP.6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rejasthan)-324005 ‘B +91-744.5156100 @ info@allen.ac.in wwwaallen.ac.in1 sass ASAT : Nurture Course This section contains 20 multiple choise questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), () and () out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Baws 5 20 agfernes wea ti wet eT Hi aK fame (1), (2), 3) Sik (4) ER a dae ew EL In the following question, two statements are given followed by two conclusions. Indicate which of the conclusions follow logically from the statements given. Statements : (a) All guitars are strings (b) All strings are organs. Conclusion : (D All organs are strings (i) All guitars are organs. (1) Only conclusion (1) follows (2) Only conclusion (I1) follows G) Either (D or (M1) follows (4) Neither (1) nor (I1) follows Which letter replaces the question mark? WE QF @x @I If in a certain code ROPE is coded as 6821, CHAIR is coded as 73456, then the code for CRAPE is (73456 (2) 76421 (3) 77246 (4) 7123 ‘AxB means'A is to the South of B' A+B means‘A is to the North of B’ A.% B means'A is to the East of BY A~B means 'A is to the West of BY then in P % Q+R-S, S is in which direction with respect t0.Q? (Q) South-East (2) North-East 3) North-West (4) South West. 1 3 Prime aa set $ oem wa fread a 1a El fra 8 aren freed afar wa 8 fea a et a age eer wa: (@) WH fren, Sie () at eh, atta ‘Prem wh atts, ein G1 () M4 fren, sits 1 (1) Fae frend (2) we 81 (2) Sam fread (I) wet &1 @) 74 O aay we @ aa Dae ay wee re Fees ear oe ser sree eT"? QE QF @x @I aft fra dea 7 ROPE a1 dea 6821, CHAIR #1 a 73456 %, ft CRAPE # Ea on (a) 73456 (2) 76421 (@) 77246 4) 7123 AxBaad ABS eam &1 AtBRSGA BS THA ABBR AEA BSA A-Bal ad A,B S oitan #8, WP %Q+R-S4S, QS ade ath fem a em? (2) ef Q) aR 3) aaah ) Sara5 10. 2ne ASAT : Nurture Course ‘Two positions of a dice are shown below. What will be the number at the bottom if 5 is at the ¥ @ (2 (23 @B)2 (46 Introducing a girl, a boy said, * She is the daughter ‘of the daughter ofthe father of my uncle". How is the boy related to the girl ? (2) Brother (2) Nephew (3) Unele (4) Son-in-law Calendar of the year 1997 can be used again in which of the following years ? (1) 2001 (2)2002 (3) 2003 (4) 2007 Which letter replaces the question mark" - @@® O©® @O® ®O @T QU BV x Inacube one pair of adjacent faces is painted red, the second pair of adjacent faces is painted blue and a third pair of adjacent faces is painted green. This cube is now cut into 216 smaller but identical ‘cubes. Then how many small cubes are there with atleast two different colours on their faces ? (64 = @)S4— G33 4B If 'x’ means ‘addition’, '-" means ‘divisi means subtraction and '+' means multiplication, then which of the following is correct ? (1) 16+5-10x423=9 (2) 16-5x 10+443=12 (3) 16+5+10x4-3=9 (4) 16x 5+10+4-3=19 Which number replaces the "?" mark ? 9 4 7 9 at 26 (39 a4 5. 10. uu. Tera a a ea CT ATE Bak Fens wae ST t, A aad A she den @2 @3 @2 6 WH ASH, UH ea a Vas Sa GA HEM FTE eared feast at pH at ph ti aes a ead ana ahve side i 2 a) ag (2) stor @wa aya Fr 8 fe at Hal 1997 a Sauer GH: aT favor on wr? (1) 2001 (2)2002 (3)2003 (4) 2007 yer fag? ear ah sae T= @@® ©®© OO® ®O OT @U BV @x ee wa Fret Here TU OH oer a, ST were TGR AHAB cen se TT TT BHR or pers aT a aa 216 BE TET wal Haren ran 1 28 fara ar ait fara aS wea Owe Tester tah AAA EE aT? (1) 64 Q)54— 33 AM “a's! a ad Sg, a teh a, “2! a a eT an ‘4! a ad ym &, at Pra a ate aed am? (1) 16+5-10x4=3=9 (2) 16-5x10=4+3=12 8) 1645+10x4-3=9 (4) 16x5+10+4-3=19 “7S ear shee sen wlreantea ht? 2,1 ]9]7 2[7]4[4 33h [5 afo[s[z ai 26 GB) a4 ¥12 B. 14. 15. 16. Five Boys are sitting on atable tobe photographed 12, Shyam is to the left of Rohit and to the right of Bhuvan, Manoj is to the left of Rohit. Ritik is between Rohit and Manoj, then who is sitting immediate right to Ritik ? (1) Bhuvan (2) Rohit (3) Manoj (4) Shyam Select a suitable figure from the answer figure 13, ‘that would replace the "':~ jo AK lo A ol ol * Problem figure e pK ol <¢ oo “a ® © © Answer figure MA @B @C @D IfRanveer finds that he is 13" fromthe right ina 14, line of boys and 8" from the left. How many boys should be included in the line such that there are 30 boys in the line ? M8 QR @W @ At what time, in minutes, between 3 O'clock and 15. 40’clock, both the hands will coincide each other? ) 52. minutes i 124 mines il 4 3) 13+ minutes OBT™ @ 6s minutes, Choose the correct alternative that will continue 16, the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series, 13,32,24,43,35 ? 46,65,57,76 «4s 54 52 (447 ASAT : Nurture Course we faa a ota aed tah an aR ASE ea, fea Bara wen yar ord da Bh, es ard dar 8) Rie, ties am hs ee HB, A ers ab Shs ara at ar Or @ Per @) Fs @) ar am faa ¥ a7 & era a dma faa aT © [JA _[c ‘€ OK odoae “~” ® © ® ar fer (MA +Q)B gc @D af wreak @ ae ata gon fr ae creat a fa BAS 134 car aa a 8a Ga Te Tea Ra aed aftafern ef fee ten A creat at ci 30 @ ma? (Ms (212 (3) 10 414 3 ma ae 4 wa orem fire Ha a oT, we eet wea Tat a s+ fre a @) 124 frre in 4 3) 13 fire @ Br 4 (4) 16-— fire Ol wea StH 13,32,24,43,35 ? 46,65,57,76 FEA fared cera rea frre a fae a Bt eT ete 8 srt we yas (352 (2) 34 a7ASAT : Nurture Course Se eel ee 17. Select a figure from amongst the “Answer 17. er SE Figures" which will continue the same series as established by the five "Problem Figures" Problem Figures a> oo]. . o @ © © @ © Answer Figures > ao q 0 +o * oO ®@ @ & 18, In the following question, two statements are 18. given followed by two conclusions. Indicate which of the conclusions follow logically from the statements given. Statements : (a) All cars are pens (b) No pen is bike Conelusion : (D No caris bike. (I) All pens are cars, (1) Only conclusion (1) follows (2) Only conclusion (II) follows (3) Either (1) and (11) follows (4) Both (1) and (11) follows 19. Apama's mother is the daughter of Vishnu'ssister. 19, How is Vishnu's mother related to Aparna’s ‘mother (1) mother (2) daughter (3) sister (4) grand mother 20, How many rectangles are there in the given figure 29, 10 8 @» @7 ang wer Fest wt Ho ar srren fers er? we faa 5 a = io |. o]- od. o @®@ ®© © @ © Ho ® @ @ Praia wets arerewe frend Raa EL fre a tren Pra anfaias we a fea eT wa FTE! wa: @atan, Fe () ate 3, ares TE EL freed: © HE eR, ares Te eI dy wht, a8 () Sam freed (D wet tr (2) Sac Freed (I) wet @aAOAM wer @ aa © ae aD wee ro ait af, Poy at ae at ph ta fey a at aa arent wt af 8 are TET a? ait or 3) afer OS wa fee me fas Bi feat ora a - > @9 (a7 «10 G821. 2. 2B. PART-II ASAT : Nurture Course This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. THES 4 20 wyferanes wea G1 wea wer Han fara (1), (2), (3) stk 4) & fara a hae UH ae EL In the following figures there are few arrangements of a coil and a bar magnet. Arrow indicates direction of motion of either coil or bar ‘magnet with same speed. The galvanometer does not deflect in oO az © oD yyy sy Brakes are applied on a moving car. It takes 5 seconds to stop the car with an acceleration of 4 mis? in opposite direction. Distance travelled by the car during this time is - (25m 250m (75m (4) 100m A basic electromagnet consists of a coil of wire and a battery. Which of the following is NOT a ‘way to increase the strength of the electromagnet? (1) Alternate the current (2) Increase the current (3) Add an iron core (4) Add more turns 21. TeRin Ral pec nares gaa at Gwe ah ee en te eT er a ae Aavect aoe gaa a aft at Rema cater teen faa ae oO>Y»y4 © 8) @ ‘at ttn ae has ee a Ewe a Ret een H 4 m/s ee eH BHA H 5 soc HHA ATT tem d deren gum a: (1) 25m (2)50m 3)75m (4) 100m em are fag Gas an at ved a aed a ‘rere aon Ben 1 Fea Ha ata eh ar PT gaata aed ah agra sei on wa = (2) SRS WHT ERT Q) era a aga (3) che Fs eT (4) 3a den aR 519 \ASAT : Nurture Course 24, A magnetic field (1) Always exerts a force on charged particle (2) Never exerts a force on charged particle (3) Exert a force, if the charged particle is ‘moving across the magnetic field line (4) Exerts a force, if the charged particle is ‘moving along the magnetic field line ‘Two infinitely long parallel wires carry equal currents in same direction. The magnetic field at mid point in between the two wire is (1) twice the magnetic field produced due to each of the wires (2) half of the magnetic field produced due to each of the wires (3) square of the magnetic field produced due to each of the wires (4) zero ‘A person does 361 of positive work on a body of mass 2 kg moving initially with speed 8m/s, Final speed of the body will be :~ (1) J28 mis (2) 10 m/s @)8 mis (6 mis ‘The major problem in harnessing nuclear energy is how to: () Split nuclei (2) Sustain the reaction (3) Convert nuclear energy into electrical energy (4) dispose off spent fuel safely. An carth’s satellite is moving in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v.If the gravitational force of the earth suddenly disappears, the satellite will (1) vanish into outer space 2) continue to move with velocity v in original orbit ) fall down with increasing velocity (4) fly off tangentially from the orbit with velocity v ‘Volume of a 500 gm cube is 400 cm?. Itis keptin water having density Igm/em?. Buoyant force applied by water on the cube will be (g=10m/s?) :- ()2N (2)3N @)4N @)5N Joule/coulomb is same as :~ (1) Watt (2) Volt (3) Ampere (4) Ohm Ue yaaa oa (1) Ba snare oH ae aT Q) oH snes ao ae ae TT tL @) aa ene @, ae arts am Geaata zr ars wet @ Fa ere @, ae arate a Geeta a vans agiea fa went) Sara wad & wan ad 4 aa oa ew fee Fh wenfea tet t er it & sa eaing we Eat ate () wee are gre se gaa Ba a ET (2) Fee AR ER Se Gara Ss I ST (3) 3H IR ETI so Pasa aah or Sh aT Or Um wafer WHF 8 m/s ae a fee 2 kg FETT aa 7 36 J eer ard are Bary at if are Oh: (1) J38 ms (2) 10 mis )8 mvs (4) 6 mis carat sat & She F per aren ett (1) afte a fara wear Ae fier ara (2) safifanen Fare wer are] Tet TA G)aitea sat a farga Sat fare we Sorat fra ara 4) aa der a afiea Preare yatta Ue sore ar Sk Gra Ve Ge TA aa v 8 utara a ae 81 ae get ape Be rare ae ft a 8 wh sre (1) are seater en rE ) ae yd wera van wea at i aR Se @) waa ae (4) eral Raha fee Hae vB see BST wa | aT Fen sre fret 500 gm FA FI saat 400 cm #1 FB lgm/em) SAA aT eA A Ten are We BT Ae ST aT Sea ae eT (g = 10mv/s*) (1)2N (2)3N QG)4N @5N Bevan frat qe tient: (pate Qaee (3) eee @) aim31. 32. The direction of the force on a current carrying 31. wire placed in a magnetic field depends on :- (1) direction of the current only (2) direction of the field only (3) direction of current as well as field (4) None of these A positive charge released from rest 32. (1) Moves towards region of lower potential (2) Moves towards region of higher potential (3) Moves towards region of equal potential (4) does not move ‘Two crossed wires each carrying current I are 33. shown in the figure. The direction of the force exerted on wire 2 by wire 1 at the point C & Dare shown by arrow := cf D 2 (1) Current in wire 1 flows from left to right and current in wire 2 flows from bottom to top. (2) Current in wire 1 flows from left to right and current in wire 2 flows from top to bottom (3) Current in wire 1 flows from right to left & current in wire 2 flows from bottom to top. (4) Itis impossible to have given force directions at points C & D ‘Two electric bulbs have resistances in the ratio 34, 1:2. If they are joined in parallel, the energy ‘consumed in them are in the ratio :- (1:2 @2:1 @l:4 @4ad A current carrying loop is lying on a horizontal 35, plane as shown in figure. Current is anti-clockwise as seen from above the loop then direction of ‘magnetic field at point P will be w 7 | o7 orn, ASAT : Nurture Course paeta Oa Fea arcane ae wer at fe Fe at (1) Beare ra st fee ae (2) Fae fa at fem (3) &a cen ert at a fem ee 4 4) Ba ate Ae ‘ferorraeen 8 Set Tar Ta :— () sea fara a at oi fe eT BL (2) se4 fara da a ak fs eet) (3) Far faa are Ba wt sire nf eT (4) afer Te RT Settee od 4 8 wee Hara 1 faargan we we) aR 1 Bae 2 fry CoD Ha 1 ae aT Fem aie gra cate wet Br D 2 (1) oe 14 ore ait & cit sik cen on 2 FAA SRT SR watts @ TE (2) R14 or ah Bat STMT TIA SRA aa at sik wafea @ Hel (3) aR 1H ore cet 8 aie Sin TT A 2 AAA BR a SR wate Fl (4) fg Ca DT aa a fed Qa aeENa tl CAqaRts ohte 1 2dagait ae waRR HF stern at ert MA aren Sat aT ‘ra sega 8 a? (1:2 @2:1 0 @ls4 4a a era a gan Ss ae ean tae SK 8 aA TK ora aera fern H aed aE free ooh 8 fag Pe Gaeta Ba aT fem eh o 7 o| o7 on, 79ASAT : Nurture Course —— ss 36. 37. ‘A wire of length ¢ and radius r allows a current i to pass through it when potential difference V is applied across it. What will be the current passing through a wire of same material having length 4¢ and radius 2r if potential difference applied across Qi 324 4) 4i ‘A constant force was applied on a body of mass 10 kg in the direction opposite to direction of motion. Velocity of the body changes from 15mis to 10 m/s in 10 seconds. Value of force will be == (sn (2)10N @)ISN (4)25N Which of the following occurs when you jump into the air? (1) Your gravitational field pulls the earth toward you. (2) The earth's gravitational field pulls you towards it. (3) Both are true. (@) Neither is true. Person A and B each of mass 40 kg are standing ona frictionless surface. A throws a ball of mass ‘Skg toward B and B catches it. After catching, B and ball moves with speed 8m/s. Recoil velocity of A will be :- (D4ms (2)8 mis @)9 ms (4) 12 m/s Anelectric motor uses 5 KWh energy in 10 hours. Power rating of the motor (100 W (2)250W 3) 500w (4) 1000 36. re crea ¢ ae Far ATA ATR V eer 3. ‘ere ren at wa i ee weer Be A 4 ward ger 2r Pre are war vere @ a? a Fe 2 favrarene cen 2 A see er wafer eh? Min Qi (3)2i 4)4i fet 10 kg sere ard fos we aft a Prt ee Hae Fret ge cere eB foes 1A Sms A 10.mis 3 10 sec. # aFeafa orem Baer aT A an (DSN (2)10N @)ISN (4)25N wa aay wan a Ra Eat aT aire 7 () sre yearend da gest a saat ain eta & 2) pester peer Bx oneal yet a sik ast t (3) eH aa Er (4) aE tae ae EL deafirdl AaB Aa wet a KOT 40 kg tam Ataf afi woe we ee 1 Bates A gra Hat Skg KOT wg a safer B THE Sa 1 TTR wear B ag Smis ara 8 af aA BL A aT sf or: (4 m/s (2)8 m/s (3)9 m/s (4) 12 m/s ww fergn Htzx 10 42 4 5 KWh Saf sud wet iter at sifea ata ert (1) 100W (2) 250W (3) 500 W (4) 1000 W SS EEASAT : Nurture Course ‘This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. AES F 20 aa lawes wea F) yen wer Hae fares (1), (2), 3) otk (4) Efe a Fae va wee! 4 ‘The electronic configuration of the elements X, Y, Z and J are given below. Which element has the highest metallic charact ()X=2,84 QY=2,8.8 (3) Z=2,8,8,1 (4) 1 =2,8,8,7 In a container of volume 11.2ml containing 42. ammonia gas at 1 atm and 0°C. Total number of atoms present in container- (Use : R = 0.0821atm-litre/mole-K) (Use : Ny = 6 x 10°) (3 x 10 (3) 12. 10 Q) 12x 10° (4)3 x 107" For reaction N,(g) + 3H,(g) —+2NH,(g) 30 gm of H, is taken with 6 moles of N, gas Volume of ammonia gas produced at 1 atm and 600 K temperature is (Use: R = 0.08atm-litre/mole-K) (1) 480 tit (2) 48 fit. (3) 240 tit, (4) 120 fit Metals generally have the following physical properties: (@ They are conducting Gi) They have luster i) They are hard (iv) They are ductile Mercury has been classified as a metal because of the properties: (1) Gil) and Git) (2) (iv) and (3) @ and (4) (® and (iv) A HCI solution having concentration 0.01 M is diluted 1000 times then the pH of resultant solution is - as 2 @3 10 41. 43. X,Y, Zen J ara @ edad free fel 1a &, stra ara aera ener aT vam t? () X=2,8,4 Q)Y =2,8,8 (3) Z = 2, 8,8, 1 (4) J =2,8,8,7 112m eR ATA atm eT ONC ATT se fa oof bi a 4 often am seTaSH st clo aang ).0821atm-litre/mole-K) = 6x 10") (1) 3 x 10 (2) 12 x 10” (3) 12 x 108 (4) 3 x 10 ‘afifieat N,(g) + 3H,(g) —>2NH,(@) 430 gm H, # Wa N, aS 6 ster fea aa 1 atm war 600 K are ye seater ater ter ara eT | (Use: R = 0.08atm-litre/mole-K) (1) 480 lit. (2) 48 lit (3) 240 lit, (4) 120 lit. angel & ara: fra ifs 7 wat (3 wee BE Gi) FA efter are ett 1 Gi) a FER BAT) (iv) 7874 BT sat at a HS area ew og A aga fiver art & () Giy Gv) 7 Gi @@ a4 (4) @) 7 (iv) cafe UH HCI fre forest Aram 0.01 M %, # 1000 aA a feren sre &, at tore Farce at pH we. as (22 @3 (4) 10 99ASAT : Nurture Course 46. a7. 48. 49. 50. sl. 82. 53. 54. 1019 pH of 10M H,S0, is - 3 27 3)33 7 ‘When an alpha («2 particle is sent through a thin ‘metal foil, most of them go straight through the foil becasue (1) c-particle are much heavier than electrons (2) a-particle are positively charged (3) most part of the atom is empty space (4) a-particle move with high velocity When the gases sulphur dioxide and hydrogen sulphide mix in the presence of water, the reaction SO, + 2H,S > 2H,0 + 38 occurs. Here hydrogen sulphide is acting as (1) An oxidising agent (2) A reducing agent (3) A dehydrating agent (4) A catalyst SCland }7C1 differ from other in number of (1) Electron (2) Proton (3) Neutron 4) 0) & B) ‘The molecular formula of a compound is (CO), and its vapour density is 70. Then the possible value of x is: (2 @) 10 @)5 a9 Hydrogen reacts with oxygen to form water (1,0). The ratio between masses of Hydrogen and. oxygen is 1:8 2)65:8 @2:1 4) 65:16 Which of the following contains the largest number of molecules - (1) 02 mole of H, (2) 8.0 g of H, 3) 51g of HO (4) 88 g of CO, Which one of the following is most electronegative. (MF Qs (30 @N Which one of the following compound exist (1) MgN (2) Mg,N, G) Mg,0, (4) Mes, 46. 47. 49. 50. Si. 34. 10°M H,SO, #1 pH ®- (3 (2)2.7 @3)33 a7 we wee arg at weit ra sre (a. ail a aioe ai ont t, dori 8 aftrnin tH a aha free ara t, wh (1) Bea a Gera o-oo aftr oe BAB (2) oan errafes B8 & 3) Fey a sfrsia sm eet ene (4) oar sea ae 8 fel wea a wee rf sifsegs et weg eS Ae i oe at aofeafa frend t, at sifirar SO, + 2H,S > 2H,0 + 38 tt ® Tegin woos fire wo Hard went - () & attra 2) ara (3) & Fretetiares 4) aa Sciam 21 dai i fraat den a ont (1) SR 2) eR @) =ER () HB) we aif a1 sm ya (CO), @ ser gear ary mara 70 @1 x a weed ar am (2 (2) 10 @)s (49 ‘ego, stats a finer ae a (HO) ATT ager aa atrio & cert S ae aT - (1:8 2)65:8 @2:1 (4) 65:16 fra a a feat syst at dem aatfira te () 1, 0.2 Aa 2) 80H, (3) 51gH,0 (4) 88 2 CO, fra 9 8 an walfirn frgoaita & aF @s @)O @N fre FH 88 are athe a afer = (1) MeN (2) Mg,N, (3) Mg,0, (4) MgS, Ves7. Paragraph for Q. 58 to Q.60 ALLEN Which functional group is possible with general 58. formula CH,,0, (1) Aldehyde (2) Ether 3) Alcohol (4) Carboxylic acid Which of the following pairs of elements doesnot 56. belong to same group in periodic table: () Cl, Br Q)NP (3) Mg, Ca (4) Al, Si Which of the following is an example of 57. substitution reaction, 1 -CH-OH EASON, cH cH, fe @) cae @) ch-cHecH-cH, Ms cH,ci-cH,-ch, @) cH, + ch Sis cHc1 4) CH,-CH,-on Hels» ciL=cH, +1,0 The following table shows the positon of six elements A. B.C, D. Eand F in the periodic table. &, 3 eGo} 1 |2 | to [13/14 [15 [16 [1 7]18 “Os 12 peas E| [Bic Using the above table answer the following questions. When elements “F” & “B” combine together to. 58, form compound. The formula of compound will be (1) FB, EB G) FB @EB, Which element is anon metal with valency equal 59, to one. MA QE @B@F If atomic number and atomic mass of element E60. are respectively 7 and 14. Number of electrons present 28 mg of ion E* (Given: N, = 6x10") (D6 x 10 (3) 24 x 10 (2) 1.2 x 10% (4) 12 x 107 ASAT : Nurture Course ST! Ga CH,,0, 8 are franca aE Te a a) Resa (2) a G) Teta (4) arate ara fra a ad got & oa, read aro aa wh A wafers ae t (1) Cl, Br Q)N,P. (3) Mg, Ca (4) Al, Si fea a ard aftiea oie attra a oe ‘were (1) CH,-CH.-CH,- OF EKO, cH cH Con @) chh-crecH-cH, Ms cH-cH-cHycH, sree @) CH, + CL BEE", cH (4) CH,-CH, aig 9. 58 8 y. 60% fae ‘fae afore sted arch 4 6 adi A.B. C.D. Baa Fal feat a cat &1 Cy 3 eNYog} 1 |2 |to]13]14 f15 [16 [1718 12) a 2 fal | | 3 [r[p ata art a aed a a Fe we Fo afr “Paar “BY ae fererant Ue ahfires ar Fin ea, tia die age! (1) FB, FB G)FB EB, ere ae GH ing & oT eet eo Hs ara B MA QE @BaF “af ae ee ee eT eT FORE TT: 799 14%, AE* HTS 28 mg 4 sahtea seas went (RN FEN, (1) 6 x 10" Q12« 108 3) 24 x 10” (4) 12 x 108 1119ASAT : Nurture Course ‘Attempt any one of the section C or D Section C or D 4 & #aa UH @ section #eT ze) FOR ADMISSION IN ENG! ‘This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. FAS H 20 aefermes wet Ei wear we A aR ferwes (1), (2), (3) she (4) € faa a Pa ew wee 61. 1219 ‘The smallest natural number ofthe form 123x43y, which is divisible by 6, where x, y are whole numbers & 0 1, then the value of (+hyis- M10 @s @7 3 ‘The median ofa set of 13 observations which are in decreasing order is 18.6. If first two observations are increased by 1 and last three observations decreased by 5, then the median of set of new observations is- (1) increased by 1 (2) decreased by 1 (3) two times the original median (4) remains unchanged If polynomial P(x) =(x-1)!+ (x- 2)° +x? +2is divided by (x ~ 2), then remainder will be- «2 @s5 @u @2B 75. 16. 2B. ASAT : Nurture Course a faa AB ‘WAZ+BX+CY OT. 2, Y B % (18 9 6 a4 ‘SHE 1, 2,2, 3,3,3,4,4,4, 4, ..,9,9,9,9,9, 9, 9, 9, 9 I ae ARTE aT TOT HST eT (1) 285 (2171 (3)57 fr 8 ahem sree ee - () at wafearg fry arerg et 2) art aang Pings wateag eA G) wh aang Pry aHET eA @) Ba aE We RS AMHR Bert wr YR aH 20n BA Fer Si rea (> 1) ser Sar hee pate a, Ath maT @19 M10 @s @7 43 13 Revit F aaeaa a Are sh Ps ea UT TE 18.6 1 ae wa | Repo a 1 Bag tae sha ar aot a 58 se S, ahaa Ren S aqeea aT area em - (yaaa lad (3) areata Fre a2 TT (4) sraftatta AE ARIE P(x) = (x - 1)" + K- 240 42H (x — 2) are fevnra fare ren &, a Sere ee - M2 @5 @u @B SS enn VeASAT : Nurture Course FOR ADMISSION IN MEDICAL STREAM (Afsee Wa 4 et F feta) This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. ’ FR GUE 8 20 agfermes wea 1 wee we A aE fered (1), (2), (3) 3k (4) E faa a dae ew TE! 81. What is the role of bile during digestion ? 81. we Sehr fim aa art? (1) Emulsification of fat (2) Digestion of fat (yaaa wate (2) eA (3) Absorption of fat__(4) Assimilation of fat (3) Ber ar Sree (4) Berar aie 82. Seas coastlins area of India : 82. UR a ageaien oat: (1) 7500 km. (2) 4500 km (1) 7500 km (2) 4500 km. (3) 6700 km (4) 9600 km (3) 6700 km (4) 9600 km 83. The loss of water in the form of water vapour 83, Wet ampha writ Awe at are S Ka A ah from aerial parts is known as : ‘ween t: (1) Guttation (2) Bleeding () Peep TT (3) Transpiration (4) Exudation @) aie (4) afer 84. The one smallest vessels have walls which are gq, agra ara fort ff a sherk war aa ‘one cell thick are called : ait sh av acenté: (I) Artery (2) Veins at Qyfra (3) Aorta (4) Capillaries @) seer (4) Siren 85. On seeing good food our mouth waters. This uid gs, eae wr Baa we wa He Hae nen & ez is actully : area een () Water (2) Hormon aaa (2) ete (3) Saliva (4) Only enzyme «ar (@ aaa torte 86. In plant which of the following is/are waste g¢, qaqa fra 8.8 ata ar arofine vend 7 cri : @G oie Or ins jums 1. * During respiration in the R.B.C. carbon di oxide 5” .C lteter co i sere at fare: (1) Active transport Deroy (2) Secondy active transport (2) feta fara ofa @) Diffusion 3) Pret (4) Both (1) and (2) oma 88. Disease spread through the air is : 88. Stand Sifts wean aa a heh () Tuberculosis (2) AIDS () eareettre Ow (3) Cholera (4) Malaria Gata (6) see 89. Which of the following is/are natural resources? 89. fra Haat @ wrpft Hanes B 7 (1) Forest. (2) wild life on Q) ashe (3) Petrotium (4) All of the above (3) Rafer (4) sate a Oe Ven91. 93. 95. Which of the following is nota part of the female 90. reproductive system in human beings ? (1) Ovary (2) Uterus (3) Vas deferens (4) Fallopian tube ‘The kidneys in Human being are a part of system 91. for: (1) Nutrition (2) Respiration (3) Excretion (4) Transportation ‘The direction of impulse in typical neuron is :- ~ 92. (1) Dendrites to the cell body and then along the axon to its end (2) axon to dendrites and then within the cyton (3) Both 'I' and ‘2 are correct (4) Both 'I' and ‘2 arewrong Find the labelled part A and B :~ 93. — = LE ee (1) (A) - Plumule (B) - Radicle (2) (A) - Radicle (B) - Plumule 3) (A) - cotyledon (B) - plumule (4) (A) - Radicle (B) - cotyledon ‘The upward and downward growth of shoots and 94. roots are respectively ? (1) Positive geotropic, negative geotropic (2) Positive geotropic, positive geotropic (3) Negative geotropic, positive geotropic (4) Negative geotropic, negative geotropic In aerobic respiration, breakdown of pyruvate 95. using oxygen is takes place in : (1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplast (3) Cytoplasm (4) Nucleus Filtration units of kidney are : 96. (1) Alveoli (2) Renal artery (3) Nephrons (4) Glomerulus ASAT : Nurture Course fre 8 8 ara Fate ar ae ores ca ar fee ET e () serena (2) ase 3) werent (4) sweat as, Fra win Fi fea ia a fees: ae Q) eR (3) sca 4) sae ww faire =e H anda aA at fee ert (1) Saree 8 aftr ara at ae otk fie wR Pa sed Ts (2) WRT a Srgreee oth fia alae (3)'V att '2 ait wet Gy 'V shez erat erat amifea a A den BR Tee, (1) (A) - 3 CB) - ERE (2) (A) - RHE (B) - ERE (3) (A) - Stores (B) - WE (4) (A) - Hp (B) - aT wate ue a) a sty eel AA a she ge A: Behe? () Serer Terre, sees TeTeIGa 2) Ie ecard, wie TEI 3) sa PRCA, eT RATT 4) Fame Tory, Meo TRI carga eae 3, mermte a satires ae Br erat wom eat: (1) Spent (2) eftcrerae (3) Samer (4) aa ‘aaa a1 Freier gage: (1) safer (2) tre wrt (3) Ae 4) rah 179ASAT : Nurture Course 97. Whats the term for process of taking food in the body : (2) Ingestion (2) Assimilation (3) Absorption (4) Digestion 98. Which of the following is not a example of ‘Thallophyta ? (1) Ulotrix (2) Spirogyra (3) Chara (4) Marsitea 99. Ligament, is the example of : (1) Nervous Tissue (2) Muscular Tissue ()Epithetial Tissue (4) Connective tissue 100. Growth of pollen tube towards ovule is an example of : (1) Phototropism (2)Geotropism (3) Hydrotropism (4)Chemotropism 18H9 n. 100, wee SH one stars ore BF a afin S fore e (1) sete 2) inher (3) sree (4) 0 Fr 8 at a deter a sere ELE? 2 OS (2) eater 3) SRI (4) safeifera FY, & ee: ) afr sma (2) See arr aT 3) Reifectae sare aT (4) Sats ere aT errferer a ative at 3 gfe rer sere rE () ware (3) Senge = Q) Freya #1 (4) Targa a1ASAT : Nurture Course SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / t arf @ ford we