Q1. If 6 people exchange addresses with one another, how many exchanges take place?

a. 12 b. 15 c. 30 d. None

Q2. A Maths exam is made of 3 sets of 5 questions. A student must select 3 questions from each set. How many different
sets of 3 questions can be the student select?

a. 90 b. 45 c. 99 d. 1000

Q3. Two discs are thrown. The chances of getting a sum 10 is

a. 1/36 b. 1/12 c. 5/18 d. None

Q4. The odds in favour of team A winning a Cricket test against B are 3:2. The chances of team A winning the test is

a. 0.6 b. 0.4 c. 0.2 d. None

Q5. Deepak is a member of a group of 10 from which a committee of 4 is to be chosen at random. What is the probability
that Deepak will be a member of the committee.

a. 6/10 b. 21/51 c. 2/5 d. None

Q6. Which polygon has the same number of sides and diagonals

a. Pentagon b. Hexagon c. Septagon d. Octagon

Q7. What is the probability of getting more than 70% of the questions correct in a 5 minute test containing 10 questions?

a. 1/16 b. 5/32 c. 7/128 d. None

Q8. In a locality having 1893 families. 761 families subscribe to the Hindu only. 308 to both Hindu and Times of India and 203
to none. How many subscribe to Times of India only.

a. 620 b. 621 c.622 d. 623

Q9. In a household survey it was found that 15 had TVs. 14 had VCRs and 17 had washing m achines. 17 households had 2
items each and no household had all three. How many households in all were surveyed?

a. 49 b. 15 c. 30 d. None

Q10. In a group of people, 6 knew French and 6 knew German and 3 knew both. If there are 5 men in the group. How many
women are there?

a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

Q11. 9 people like Vanilla and 8 like Strawberry in a group of 15. Vanilla costs Rs. 7 and Strawberry costs Rs. 8. What is the
least amount needed so that each person gets a flavour that he likes?

a. 117 b. 112 c. 111 d. 119

Q12. In a survey of 1280 households. 50% were found to be using Palmolive. 60% Lux and 25% both. How many household did
not use either?

a. 15 b. 192 c. 306 d. 128

Q13. One third of a group of 18 had seen Bombay and Delhi. While one third had not seen either place. What is the maximum
possible number who had seen Bombay?

a. 6 b. 12 c. 14 d. 18
Q14. Four letters are written to four different persons. The probability that the addresses of all the four letters are correct is

a. 1/27 b. 1/12 c. 1/24 d. None

Q15. 6 alternative answers are given for a question of which 2 answers are correct. The probability that a student ticks the 2
correct answers is

a. 1/15 b. 1/6 c. 1/3 d. None

Answer:
B, d, b, a, c, a, d, b, d, b, c, b, b, c, c

Q1. Choose correct choice (s). You will be given marks only when you mark all the correct choices.
(10 x 2 = 20 Marks)

1. In an examination, 35% candidates failed in one subject and 42% failed in another subject, while 15% failed in both the
subjects. If 2500 candidates appeared in the examination, how many passed in either subject but not in both

(a) 325 (b) 1175 (c) 2125 (d) 60

2. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 50%, then its area will be increased by

(a) 50% (b) 100% (c) 125% (d) 225%

3. A circular piece of metal of maximum size is cut out of a square piece and then a square piece of maximum size is cut out
of the circular piece. The total amount of metal wasted is

(a) the area of the original square

(b) the area of the original square
(c) the area of the circular piece
(d) the area of the circular piece
(e) none of these

4. A man has part of Rs. 4500 invested at 4% and the rest at 6%. If his annual return on each investment is same, the average
rate of interest, which he realized on Rs. 4500 is

(a) 5% (b) 4.8% (c) 5.2% (d) 4.6%

5. A house worth Rs. 9000 is sold by Mr. A to Mr. B at a 10% loss. Mr. B sells the house back to Mr. A at a 10% gain. The result
of the two transactions is

(a) Mr. A breaks even (b) Mr. B gains Rs. 900

(c) Mr. A loses Rs. 900 (d) Mr. A loses Rs. 810
(e) Mr. B gains Rs. 710

6. A cryptographer devises the following method for encoding positive integers. First, the integer is expressed in base 5.
Second, a 1-to-1 correspondence is established between the digits that appear in the expressions in base 5 and the
elements of the set {V, W, X, Y, Z}. Using this correspondence the cryptographer finds that three consecutive integers in
increasing order are coded as VYZ, VYX, VVW, respectively. What is the base 10 expressions for the integer coded as XYZ?

(a) 48 (b) 71
(c) 82 (d) 108
(e) 113

7. In an office, at various times during the day the boss gives the secretary a letter to type, each time putting the letter on top
of the pile in the secretarys in box. When there is time, the secretary takes the top letter off the pile and types it. If there
are five letters in all, and the boss delivers them in the order 12345, which of the following could not be the order in which
the secretary types them?

(a) 12345 (b) 24351

 (c) 32415 (d) 45231
(e) 54321

8. In a mathematics competition, the sum of the scores of Bobby and Dinesh equalled the sum of the scores of Amit and
Cheenu. If the scores of Bobby and Cheenu had been interchanged, then the sum of the scores of Amit and Cheenu would
have exceeded the sum of the scores of the other two. Also, Dineshs score exceeded the sum of the scores of Bobby and
Cheenu. Determine the order in which the four contestants finished, from highest to lowest. Assume all scores were
nonnegative.

(a) Dinesh, Amit, Cheenu, Bobby

(b) Dinesh, Amit, Bobby, Cheenu
(c) Dinesh, Cheenu, Bobby, Amit
(d) Amit, Dinesh, Cheenu, Bobby
(e) Amit, Dinesh, Bobby, Cheenu

9. Deepak is a member of a group of 10 from which a committee of 4 is to be chosen at random. What is the probability that
Deepak will be a member of the committee.

(a) 6/10 (b) 21/51 (c) 2/5 (d) None

10. It takes A algebra books (all of the same thickness) and H geometry books (all of the same thickness, which is greater than
that of an algebra book) to completely fill a certain shelf. Also S of the algebra books and M of the geometry books would
fill the same shelf. Finally, E of the algebra books alone would fill this shelf. Given that A, H, S, M, E are distinct positive
integers, it folows that E is

AM SM AM 2 SM 2 AH SM
(a) (b) (c)
M H M2 H2 M H
AM SH AM 2 SM 2
(d) (e)
M H M2 H2

Q2. Read the following problem and answer questions 11 15 based on it.
(5 Marks)

The organizer of local 58 of the hospital workers is forming a five-person team to leaflet a nearby hospital. The team must
contain two persons to distribute leaflets, one-speaker to address the workers who stop, and a two-person defense squad.
A, B and C are possible leaf-letters; C, D and E are possible speakers. F, G and H are possible members of the defense guard.
A and C prefer to work with each other on the same team. F prefers to work only if E works.

11. Which choice of personnel is impossible if all preferences are respected?

(a) A and B as leaf-letters, C as speaker

(b) B and C as leaf-letters
(c) A and C as leaf-letters, F and H on defense
(d) Either D or E as speaker, with F on defense
(e) G and H on defense

12. If A and B are leaf-letters and all preferences are respected, which is (are) true?

I. C is the speaker
II. F is on defense
III. Either F or G is on defense

(a) Only
(b) II Only
(c) III Only
(d) I and II Only
 (e) I and III Only

13. Which is a possible team if all preferences are respected?

(a) A, B, C, D, F
(b) A, C, D, E, F
(c) A, B, C, F, G
(d) A, C, E, G, H
(e) B, C, D, F, G

14. If A is chosen as a member of the team and all preferences are respected, which must be true?

(a) B must be a leaf-letter.

(b) C must be a leaf-letter.
(c) F must go.
(d) Any of the three defense personnel may go.
(e) Neither D nor E can go.

15. Which person(s) must be chosen as part of any team if all preferences are respected?

I. A
II. E
III. F

(a) I Only
(b) III Only
(c) I and II Only
(d) II and III Only
(e) I, II and III

Answers:
Question 1.b, c, b, b, d, d, d, e, c, d
Question 2.b, e, c, d, a

1. If the average of two numbers is 88.5 and one number is 5.5 less than the average. Find out the next number?
a) 84
b) 83
c) 94
d) None of these

2. The ratio of the areas of the incircle and the circumcircle of a square is?
(a) 1: 2
(b) 1: 3
(c) 1: 4
(d) 1: 2

3. Mr. Jain sold two pipes at Rs. 1.20 each. Based on the cost of his profit on one was 20% and his loss on the other was
20%. On the sale of the pipes, he
a) Broken even
b) Lost 4 paise
c) Gained 4 paise
d) Lost 10 paise

4. The area of a right triangle is A and one of its sides containing the right angles is l . The altitude on the hypotenuse is?
(a) 2A/ l
2A
(b)
4A 4
 4A 4
(c)
2A
2l A
(d)
3

5 6 5 1
5. The value of of 1 2 3 is
7 13 7 4
a) 1
119
b) 1
180
c) 5/4
d) 20/169

6. In this figure, x + y is equal to?

a) 45
b) 90
c) 180
d) 100

7. The radius and height of a cone are increased by 20 per cent each. The volume would increase by the following
percentage?
a) 20%
b) 40%
c) 72.8%
d) 60%

8. In what proportion must a man mix beer at Rs. 11 a litre with beer at Rs. 6 a litre so that the mixture may be worth Rs. 8
a litre?
(a) 2: 3
(b) 3: 2
(c) 5: 7
(d) 5: 6

9. The radius of a circle is 14 cm. A chord of this circle subtends an angle of 60 at the centre. Find the area of the smaller
segment cut off by the chord?
3
196 m
(a)
6 4

3
(b) 196 m
4

 3
(c) 196 m
2

(d) 196p m

10. In the figure given below AB = 10 cm, PB = 4 cm, PD = 8 cm. What is the measure of PC?

a) cm
b) 4 cm
c) 5 cm
d) 3.2 cm

11. Evaluate log10(tan 1) + log10(tan 2) + log10(tan 3) + + log10(tan 88) + log10(tan 89)

(a) 0
(b) 1
1
(c) log10 2
2
(d) None of these

12. The value of x - 6x + 13 can never be less than?

(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 4.5
(d) 7
1
13. The value of sin 22 is?
2

2 2
(a)
2
2 2
(b)
2
2 2
(c)
2
(d) 2

14. The mean of n numbers is M. If one of the numbers x is replaced by x, then the new mean is?

nM x x'
(a)
n
n ( x x' ) M
(b)
2n
(n 1)( M ) x'
(c)
n
(n 1)(M ) ( x'1)
(d)
n

15. If tan 35 tan 55 = sin A, A is equal to?

 (a) 35
(b) 55
(c) 90
(d) 180

16. A cylindrical tube is 3 m long. Its inner diameter is 3.5 cm and outer diameter 4.0 cm. Find its weight in kg, if the metal
weights 8 tonnes per cubic metre?

(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10

17. A ball was floating in a lake when the lake froze. The ball was removed (without breaking the ice), leaving a hole 24 cm
across at the top and 8 cm deep. What was the radius of the ball (in centimeters)?
a) 8
b) 12
c) 13
d) 8 3
x 1 x 13
18. The roots of the equation + = are?
1 x x 6
a) 3/13, 2/13
b) 9/13, 4/13
c) 13/6, 11/6
d) None of these

19. The number of coins, of radius 0.75 cm and thickness 0.2 cm, to be melted to make a right circular cylinder of height 8 cm
and radius 3 cm is?
(a) 640
(b) 460
(c) 500
(d) 600

20. If a + b + c = 0, the value of a + b + c is?

(a) 0
(b) abc
(c) abc
(d) 3 abc

There are eight alarm lamps (A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H) in an industrial organization.

A is on whenever the mains (power supply) is on
None of the lamps is on if the power supply is off
B is on whenever the pressure is abnormal
C is on whenever the temperature is abnormal
D is on whenever both B and C are on
E is on whenever either, but not both B and C is on
F is on whenever the sound level is abnormal
G is on whenever any two or more of the parameters are abnormal
H is on whenever all these parameters are abnormal.

21. How many of these eight lamps can be on at the same time, at the most?

a) 8
b) 7
c) 6
d) 5
22. If E is on then which of the following are definitely off?

a) D and H
b) F and G
c) D and G
d) B,D and G

23. If F is off then which of the following is definitely off?

a) D
b) E
c) G
d) H

24. If B, E and G are on then in all how many of the eight lamps are on?
a) 6
b) 5
c) 7
d) 4

A code word is formed using the letters A, B, C, D, and E. The following conditions need to be confirmed with:
The code word has to contain at least 2 letters, not necessarily distinct.
The code word cannot start with A.
C cannot be either the second-last or the last letter.
If B occurs, it should occur at least twice.
If A occurs, D should also occur.
E cannot be the last letter unless B has occurred previously.

25. If a code word starts with CAB, which of the following could occupy the last position if it is 5 letters long?
a) A
b) E
c) D
d) All of these

26. If only A, B, and C are available, then what is the possible number of exactly 2 - letter long code words that can be
made?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) None of these

27. Which of the following is a valid code word?

(a) ABBD
(b) BECB
(c) CBBE
(d) DCAE

28. How many exact 3 letter long code words with all the three identical letters can be made?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

A group of 8 people is camping in tents tent 1, tent 2 and tent 3. The group consists of two women V and X, and 6 girls A, B,
C, D, E, and F. Tent assignments will be made as follows:
V will be in tent 1
V will not be in a tent with her daughter D and X will not be in a tent with her daughter E.
A, B, C who are close friends will be in a tent together, one tent cannot have more than 3 people staying in it.
29. Which of the following can be in Tent 1?
(a) X
(b) A
(c) B
(d) C

30. If B is in tent 3 and the two women are not in the same tent as each other, the people in tent 2 can be:
(a) C, F
(b) D, F, X
(c) D, E, X
(d) X, F

31. If X is in tent 2, which of the following must be in the same tent as V?

(a) A
(b) F
(c) E
(d) D
32. If V and F are together in a tent, it is possible that:
a) F and V are the only people in tent 1
b) D and X are the only people in tent 2
c) D and F are together in a tent.
d) E and X are the only people in tent 2.

Each of seven objects - T, U, V, W, X, Y, and Z - is placed either on the lower, middle, or top shelf of a three-shelf bookcase that
contains no other objects
At least two objects are on the top shelf
No more than four objects are on any shelf
T and U are on different shelves
V is either on one shelf or two shelves above the shelf that X is on
W is either on one shelf or two shelves above the shelf that X is on.

33. If V and W are the only objects on one of the shelves and four objects are on the middle shelf, which of the following must be
true?
a) T is on the middle shelf
b) X is on the bottom shelf
c) Y is on the top shelf
d) Z is on the middle shelf

34. If all the objects are on two shelves, which of the following must be true?
a) At least three objects are on the top shelf
b) No more than three objects are on the middle shelf
c) T, V and W are on the top shelf
d) U is on the top shelf

35. If V and T are the only objects on one of the shelves, which of the following must be true?
a) W is on the top shelf
b) X is on the bottom shelf
c) U is on either the middle or top shelf
d) If U and Y are on different shelves, Z is on the top shelf

36. If T, V, Y and Z are on the same shelf, which of the following must be true?

a) U is not on the middle shelf

b) W is not on the middle shelf
c) X is alone on a shelf
d) If U is on the top shelf, W is also on the top shelf
A combination of three fabrics is being chosen to decorate a room. The fabrics must be chosen from a group of seven fabrics F,
G, H, J, K, L, and M according to the following conditions:
If F or G is chosen, the other must also be chosen.
H and J cannot be chosen together.
Either H or F or both must be chosen.

37. Which of the following combinations of fabrics conforms to the conditions?

a) F, H, J
b) H, K, M
c) G, H, M
d) H, J, L

38. If J is chosen, which of the following pairs of fabrics must also be chosen?
a) F and G
b) F and M
c) G and H
d) H and K

39. If K is chosen, which of the following pairs of fabrics could also be chosen?
a) F and H
b) F and L
c) G and H
d) H and L

40. If H and M are chosen, how many of the remaining fabrics could possibly be the third fabric chosen?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

1. If a + b + c = 0, the value of a + b + c is?

(a) 0
(b) abc
(c) abc
(d) 3 abc

2. If selling price of 16 items is same as the cost price of 20 items, then there is a?
(a) Loss of 20%
(b) Loss of 25%
(c) Gain of 20%
(d) Gain of 25%

3. As shown in figure below, PMO = MQO = 90 each. PQ = 9 cm and QO = 16 cm. What is the length of QM?

(a) 10 cm
(b) 14 cm
(c) 12 cm
(d) 12.5 cm

4. In the figure given below, O is the center of the circle. BAC = n. OCB = m. Then, which one of the following is true?
 (a) m + n = 90
mn
(b) = 90
2
(c) m + n = 120
(d) m + n = 180

5. If tan = 2 - 3 , then tan (90 - ) is equal to?

(a) 2+ 3
(b) 2- 3
(c) 2- 2
(d) 3- 2

6. The length of two parallel chords of a circle, 1 cm apart, are respectively 8 cm and 6 cm. The distance of the longer chord
from the center of the circle is?
(a) 4 cm
(b) 3.5 cm
(c) 3 cm
(d) 2 cm

7. In the given figure what percent of the area of rectangle LMNP is shaded?

(a) 40%
(b) 33.3%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%

8. Three equal cubes are placed side by side in a row. The ratio of the surface area of the new cuboid so formed to the sum
of the surface areas of 3 cubes is?
(a) 7: 8
(b) 7: 9
(c) 5: 9
(d) 3: 8

9. Inside a circle, whose radius is 13 cms, there is a point M at a distance of 5 cm from the center of the circle. A chord AB,
whose length is 25 cm, is drawn through the point M. The lengths of the segments into which, the chord is divided, by point
M, are?
(a) 12 cm, 13 cm
(b) 11 cm, 14 cm
(c) 16 cm, 9 cm
(d) 17 cm, 8 cm

cos 80 cos 59
10. The value of is equal to?
sin 10 sin 31
 (a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 1/2
(d) 2/3

11. There are six parts in a pie- chart. The parts make angles of 30, 40, 60, 90 and 105 at the centre of the pie chart. If
the biggest angle represents an expenditure of Rs. 630, what is the expenditure represented by the smallest angle?
(a) Rs. 480
(b) Rs.180
(c) Rs. 130
(d) Rs. 100

12. Find a simple discount equivalent to the discount series 30%, 20%, 10%?
(a) 60%
(b) 53%
(c) 49.6%
(d) 48.5%

13. A man sold a horse at a loss of 7%. Had he been able to sell it at a gain of 9%, it would have fetched him Rs. 32, more
than it did. What was the CP of the horse?
(a) Rs. 200
(b) Rs. 220
(c) Rs. 320
(d) Rs. 190

14. Three bells toll at intervals of 36 seconds, 40 seconds and 48 seconds, respectively. They start ringing together at
particular time. They will toll next time together after?
(a) 6 minutes
(b) 12 minutes
(c) 18 minutes
(d) 24 minutes

x a b . xb c . x c a
15. The value of
x . x . x
a b c
is?

(a) 1
(b) x
a+b+c
(c) x
abc
(d) x

16. The set of equations 2x + y = 3. 4x + 2y = 6 has?

(a) One solution

(b) Two solutions
(c) Infinite solutions
(d) No solution

17. The equation, whose roots are 4 and 5, is?

(a) x + 9x 20 = 0
(b) x + 9x + 20 = 0
(c) x - 9x + 20 = 0
(d) x - 9x 20 = 0

18. The value of tan 5 tan 10 tan 15 tan 20 .Tan 85 equals?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 6
19. An isosceles triangle has two equal sides of length a, and angle between them is . The area of the triangle is?

(a) a cos
a
(b) cos
2
a 2 sin
(c)
2
(d) a sin
4
20. If sin x + sinx = 1, then cosx + cos x is equal to?

(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 1.5

A restaurant offers three daily specials each day of the week. The daily specials are selected from a list of dishes: P, Q, R,
S, T, and U. The daily specials for the menu are selected in accordance with the following restrictions:
On any day that S on the menu, Q must also be on the menu.
If R is on the menu one day, it cannot be included on the menu the following day.
U can be on the menu only on a day following a day on which T is on the menu.
Only one of the three specials from a given day can be offered the following day.

21. Which of the following could be the list of daily specials offered two days in a row?
(a) Q, S, and R, Q, S, and T
(b) P, Q, and S; S, R, and T
(c) Q, S, and P; T, U, and Q
(d) S, Q, and R; Q, T, and P.

22. If P and S are on the menu one day, which of the following must be true of the menu the following day?

I. U is on the menu.
II. S is on the menu.
III. T is on the menu.
IV. R is on the menu.

(a) I and II only

(b) I and III only
(c) III and IV only
(d) I, II, and III

23. If P, R, and Q are on the menu one day and P, T, and R are on the menu two days later, which daily specials must have
appeared on the menu for the intervening day?

(a) P, R, and T
(b) P, S, and T
(c) Q, S, and T
(d) Q, S, and U

24. If on a certain day neither Q nor T is on the menu, how many different combinations of daily specials are possible for that
day?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
25. If Q, R, and S are on the menu one day, which specials must be offered the following day?
(a) P, Q, and T
(b) P, R, and T
(c) P, R, and U
(d) R, S, and Q

Directions for questions 26 to 31:

Answer the questions based on the information given below.
Two-way roads exist among the following towns surrounding a mountain:
Between M and N
Between M and O
Between O and R
Between R and T
Between R and U
Between T and P
Between P and S
There is also a one-way road between town P and town N; the permitted direction of travel is from P to N.
None of these roads intersects each other except at the towns.
There are no other towns or roads in the vicinity.
Bicycles must follow the direction established for general traffic on roads.

26. For a bicyclist going from S to N by road, it is necessary to go to or through town.

(a) M
(b) P
(c) R
(d) T

27. If a rockslide temporarily makes the road between O and R im-passable, then in order to reach M by road from U, a
bicyclist would have to go to or through a total of how many other towns besides M and U?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

28. If a bridge on the road between M and O is washed out, making the road im-passable, a bicyclist would NOT be able to
go by road from.

(a) N to M
(b) N to S
(c) P to M
(d) R to M

29. If a Rock slide blocks a lane of the road from R to T, with the result that travel on the road can go only one way, from R
to T, it will still be possible to go on a bicycle by road from P to
(a) N, S, and / or T but impossible to go to M, O, R, O U.
(b) M, N, O, and / or T, but impossible to go to S, R, or U.
(c) M, O, R, S, and / or T but impossible to go to N or U.
(d) M, N, O, R, S, T, and / or U.

30. Assume that one lane of the road from O to R is closed for repairs, with the result that travel on the road goes only one
way, from R to O. Which of the following one-way temporary roads should be constructed to keep the travel by road on
a bicycle among any of the towns, M, N, O, P, R, S, T and U possible as before the closing?
(a) From M to U
(b) From P to R
(c) From S to R
(d) From S to U
31. If M is lower and T is higher on the mountain than any of the other towns in the vicinity and if N, P, and R are all at the
same altitude, the distance by road going from U to S will be shortened by building a two-way road along a level straight
line between.
(a) R and N
(b) R and M
(c) P and N
(d) P and R

Directions for questions 32 to 36:

In a game, exactly six inverted cups stand side by side in a straight line, and each has exactly one ball hidden under it.
The cups are numbered consecutively through six. Each of the balls is green, magenta, orange, purple, red and yellow.
The balls have been hidden under the cups in a manner that conforms to the following conditions:
The purple ball must be hidden under a lower numbered cup than the orange ball
The red ball must be hidden under a cup immediately adjacent to the cup under which the magenta ball is hidden. The
green ball must be hidden under cup 5

32. If the purple ball is under cup 4, the orange ball must be under cup:
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 6

33. Which of the following must be true?

(a) The green ball is under a lower numbered cup than the yellow ball.
(b) The orange ball is under a lower numbered cup than the green ball
(c) The purple ball is under a lower numbered cup than the green ball.
(d) The purple ball is under lower numbered cup than the red ball.

34. If the orange ball is under cup 2, the ball of which of the following colors could be under cups immediately adjacent to
each other?
(a) Green and magenta
(b) Red and yellow.
(c) Purple and red.
(d) Purple and yellow.

35. If the magenta ball is under cup 1, balls of which of the following colors must be under cups immediately adjacent to
each other?
(a) Green and orange.
(b) Green and yellow
(c) Purple and red.
(d) Purple and yellow

36. A ball of which of the following colors could be under cup 6?

(a) Magenta
(b) Purple
(c) Red
(d) Yellow

Directions for questions 37 to 40:

Answer the questions based on the information given below.
At a certain restaurant, above the kitchen door there are four small lights, arranged side by side, and numbered
consecutively, left to right, from one to four. The lights are used to signal waiters when orders are ready. On a certain
shift there are exactly five waiters David, Ed, Flint, Guy, and Hank.
To signal David, all four lights are illuminated.
To signal Ed, only lights one and two are illuminated.
To signal Flint, only light one is illuminated.
To signal Guy, only lights two, three, and four are illuminated.
To signal Hank, only lights three and four are illuminated.

37. If lights two and three are both off, then the waiter signaled is
 (a) David
(b) Ed
(c) Flint
(d) Guy

38. If lights three and four are illuminated, then the signal of which of the following waiters might be displayed?

I. David
II. Guy
II. Hank

(a) I only
(b) I and II only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II, and III

39. If light one is not illuminated, then the signal of which of the following waiters might be displayed?

I Ed
II. Guy
III. Hank

(a) I only
(b) I and II only
(c) I and III only
(d) II and III only

40. If light three is on and light two is off, then the waiter signaled is

(a) David
(b) Ed
(c) Guy
(d) Hank

BVICAM

1. A reduction of 20% in the price of rice enables a person to buy 3.5 kg more for Rs. 77. Find the original price per kg?

(a) Rs. 4.00

(b) Rs. 4.50
(c) Rs. 5.00
(d) Rs. 5.50

2. If tan 35 tan 55 = sin A, A is equal to?

(a) 35
(b) 55
(c) 90
(d) 180

3. A person at his first game loses 1/3rd of his money; at the second, 3/5th of the remainder; at the third, 4/7th of the rest.
What fraction of original money is he left with?

4
(a)
35
14
(b)
35
 29
(c)
35
12
(d)
105

4. Find the value of x in the figure given below?

(a) 1 cm
(b) 2 cm
(c) 2.5 cm
(d) 3 cm

5. A shopkeeper sells a badminton racket marked Rs. 30 at a 15% discount and gives a shuttlecock costing Rs. 1.50 free with
each racket. He makes a profit of 20%. His CP per racket is?
(a) Rs. 15
(b) Rs. 16
(c) Rs. 18
(d) Rs. 20

6. In the figure given below, two circles, each of radius 4 cm, intersect each other. The centers of the circles pass through
each other. The length of common chord is?

(a) 2 3 cm
(b) 3 3 cm
(c) 4 3 cm
(d) 4 cm

7. A team of men promise to do a piece of work in 10 days but five men do not turn up when the job is started. If rest of the
team completes the work in 12 days, find the original number of men?
(a) 22
(b) 36
(c) 30
(d) 32

8. In figure given below, AB = AC, CH = CB and HK BC. If CAX is 140, then HCK is?
 (a) 40
(b) 30
(c) 45
(d) 60

9. The difference between the compound interest and simple interest on a certain sum at 5% for 2 years is Rs. 8.50. What is
the sum?

(a) Rs. 3200

(b) Rs. 3100
(c) Rs. 4000
(d) Rs. 3400

11
0. A circular swimming pool is surrounded by a concrete walk 4 feet wide. If the area of the walk is that of the pool,
25
then the radius of the pool is?

(a) 20 ft
(b) 8 ft
(c) 30 ft
(d) 16 ft

11. In an examination, the average grade of all the students of class A was 68.4. The average grade of all the students in class
B was 71.2. If the combined average of both the classes was 70, what was the ratio of number of students of class A to
the number of students of class B?

(a) 5: 6
(b) 3: 7
(c) 4: 3
(d) 3: 4

12. In a ABC, AD is the bisector of BAC. If AB = C, AC = b and BC = a, then the measure of BD would be?

a c
(a)
bc
ac
(b)
(b c )
 ac
(c)
bc
b
(d)
ca

13. The angles of depression of two boats, as observed from the masthead of a ship, 50 m high, are 45 and 30, respectively.
The distance between the boats, if they are on the same side of the masthead, is?

(a) 50 3m
(b) 50( 3 1) m
(c) 50( 3 1) m
1
(d) 501 m
3

14. In the figures OAB is a sector of radius r cm and AOB = 120. It is bent to form a cone with points A, B touching each
other. Find the base radius of the cone?

(a) r/2 cm
(b) r/4 cm
(c) r/5 cm
(d) r/3 cm

15. The equation, whose roots are 4 and 5, is?

(a) x + 9x 20 = 0
(b) x + 9x + 20 = 0
(c) x - 9x + 20 = 0
(d) x - 9x 20 = 0

16. In the given figure what percent of the area of rectangle LMNP is shaded?

(a) 40%
(b) 33.3%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%

17. A square and an equilateral triangle have equal perimeter. If the diagonal of the square is 6 2 , then the area of the
equilateral triangle is?
(a) 16 2
 (b) 16 3
(c) 12 3
(d) 18 2

1 1
18. If x a b and x a b then?
x x

(a) ab = 1
(b) a=b
(c) ab = 2
(d) a+b=0

19. The area of the shaded region in the following figure is?

1
(a) a 1 sq. unit
2 2
(b) a 1 sq. units

(c) a 1) sq. Units
2
1
(d) a ( 1) sq. units
2

20. Two circles of radii x and y touch each other externally. If AB is the common tangent, then AB is given by?

(a) (x + y)
(b) (x y)
(c) x + y
(d) 4xy

Directions for questions 21 to 26:

Data: City High School must put together a debating team consisting of four debaters. There are seven candidates of
equal ability: X, Y and Z who are all seniors; and A, B, C and D who are all under classmen. The school requires that there
should be two seniors and two under classmen on the team. It is also necessary that all the debaters be able to work
with one another. Debaters Y and A cannot work together. Debaters Z and C cannot work together. Debaters A and B
cannot work together.

21. If debaters B is selected and debater Y is rejected, the team will consist of which foursome?

(a) X, Z, A and B
(b) X, Z, D and B
(c) X, Z, C and B
(d) X, D, C and B
22. If debater A is on the team, what other debaters must be on the team as well?

(a) X, Y and B
(b) X, Z and D
(c) X, Z and B
(d) X, Y and C

23. If both Y and Z are selected, which of the other debaters must be in the team with them?
(a) Both C and D
(b) Only D
(c) Both B and A
(d) Both B and D

24. Which statement(s) must be false?

I. Debaters Y and C are never selected together.
II. Debaters Z and B are never selected together.
III. Debaters Z and D are never selected together.

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) I, II and III

25. Which of the following statements are true of debater X?

I. Debater X must be selected as one of the seniors of the team.
II. Debater X must be selected if debater C is selected.
III. Debater X cannot be if both A and C are rejected.

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) I and III only

26. Which of the following statements must always be true?

I. If X is in the team, B is in the team.
II. If X is not in the team, B is on the team
III. If D is not in the team, then both X and Y are in the team.

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) II and III only

Directions for questions 27 to 30:

There are eight alarm lamps (A, B, C, ., H) in an industrial organization.
A is on whenever the mains (power supply) is on.
None of the lamps is on if the power supply is off.
B is on whenever the pressure is abnormal.
C is on whenever the temperature is abnormal.
D is on whenever both B and C are on.
E is on whenever either, but not both B and C is on.
F is on whenever the sound level is abnormal.
G is on whenever any two or more of the parameters are abnormal.
H is on whenever all these parameters are abnormal.

27. How many of these eight lamps can be on at the same time, at the most?
(a) 8
(b) 7
(c) 6
 (d) 5

28. E is on. Which of the following are definitely off?

(a) D and H
(b) F and G
(c) D and G
(d) B, D and G

29. F is off. Which of the following is definitely off?

(a) D
(b) E
(c) G
(d) H

30. B, E and G are on. Totally how many of the eight lamps are on?
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 4

Directions for questions 31 to 36:

In a certain word game, an acceptable sequence of 5 words is one that meets all of the following rules.

The 5 words in a sequence must be written down side by side on a single line.
Each word must have at least 5 letters, and, of the letters in a word, no more than two can be vowels (a, e, i, o, u).
Words cannot begin with any of the following letters; i, p and x.
The five words must be in alphabetical order from left to right with the added requirement that the initial letters of the 5
words must come immediately after each other in the alphabet.

31. Which of the following is an acceptable sequence of words for the game?
(a) Aster, bread, dieter, enlisted, farther
(b) Jester, kettle, label, mental, nerves
(c) Nearer, opens, plate, quite, rowed
(d) Plastic, quay, rooster, trailer, zephyr

32. If the middle word in a sequence is fright, then the initial letter of the first word and the initial letter of the last word of
that sequence, respectively, must be
(a) a, e
(b) b, g
(c) c, a
(d) d, h

33. The last word in a sequence cannot begin with

(a) e
(b) o
(c) s
(d) u

34. The first word in a sequence cannot begin with

(a) a
(b) d
(c) j
(d) u

35. With which of the following words could an acceptable sequence begin?
(a) George
(b) Opposite
(c) Quest
(d) Trusted
36. If WHALE is the last word in a sequence, the first in that sequence could be
(a) Sailor
(b) Salt
(c) Suede
(d) Smart

Directions for Questions 37 to 40:

A music student is composing a musical phrase from six notes J, K, L, M, N, and O. Each note will be played exactly once
in the phrase according to the following conditions.
Both J and O must be played after N.
J must be played before M.
K is the third note.

37. Which of the following could be the order in which the notes are played?
(a) K, L, N, O, M, J
(b) K, N, O, J, M, L
(c) M, J, K, O, L, N
(d) N, L, K, J, O, M

38. Which of the following must be true of the order in which the notes are played?
(a) K is played before L.
(b) N is played before M.
(c) K is played before N.
(d) M is played before O.

39. Which of the following could be true?

(a) The second note is M.
(b) The third note is N.
(c) The sixth note is J.
(d) The sixth note is O.

40. If L is the first note in the phrase, then the second note must be
(a) J
(b) M
(c) N
(d) O