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Ph.: 011-45543147/148 Fax : 011-25084124

Solutions to IIT-JEE 2008


Time : 3 hrs.
PAPER - II (Code - 0) Max. Marks: 243

Instructions :
1. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part I : Mathematics, Part II : Physics, Part III : Chemistry). Each
part has 4 sections.
2. Section I contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which only one is correct.
t d. )
3. sL
Section II contains 4 questions. Each question contains STATEMENT-1 and STATEMENT-2.
e
rvic explanation of STATEMENT-1
Se
Bubble (A) if both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct
Bubble (B) if both the statement are TURE AND STATEMENTS-2
t i o nal is NOT the correct explanation of
STATEMENT-1. a uc
Edis FALSE.
sh
Bubble (C) if STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2
a ka
Bubble (D) if STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE.
fA
o each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be
nupon
4. Section III contains 2 paragraphs. Based
i o
ivis (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which only one is correct.
(D
answered. Each question has 3 choices
5. Section IV contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in 2 columns. Statements in the
first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. The answers to these questions
have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section.
6. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darkened only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one
(1) mark will be awarded.
7. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darkened only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one
(1) mark will be awarded.
8. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the buble corresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark
will be awarded.
9. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 6 marks if you darken All the bubbles corresponding
ONLY to the correct answer or awarded 1 mark each for correct bubbling of answer in any row. No
negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly bubbled answer.

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(1)
MATHEMATICS
PART-I
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.

1. A particle P starts from the point z0 = 1 + 2i , where i = 1 . It moves first horizontally away from origin by
5 units and then vertically away from origin by 3 units to reach a point z1. From z1 the particle moves 2

units in the direction of the vector i + j and then it moves through an angle in anticlockwise direction on
2
a circle with centre at origin, to reach a point z2. The point z2 is given by
(A) 6 + 7i (B) 7 + 6i (C) 7 + 6i (D) 6 + 7i
Answer (D)
Hints :
Imaginary axis

Z2 Z2 (7, 6)
1
1
, 2)

t d. )
(1

3
90
0
Z

(6, 2)
5
s L
Real axis
ic e
e rv
n al S
uc a ti o
d
Z 2 = (6 + 2 cos 45, 5 + 2 sin 45) = (7, 6) = 7 + 6i
s hE
a ka
by rotation about (0, 0)
o f A

i on
i vi s
Z2 i i
= e 2 Z 2 = Z 2 (e 2 )
Z2 (D

Z 2 = (7 + 6i ) cos + i sin = (7 + 6i )(i ) = 6 + 7i
2 2


Let the function g : ( , ) , be given by g (u ) = 2 tan (e ) . Then, g is
1 u
2.
2 2 2

(A) Even and is strictly increasing in (0, )

(B) Odd and is strictly decreasing in ( , )

(C) Odd and is strictly increasing in ( , )

(D) Neither even nor odd, but is strictly increasing in ( , )


Answer (C)

1 u
Hints : g (u ) = 2 tan (e ) for u (, )
2

g ( u ) = 2 tan 1(e u )
2

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(2)

= 2(cot 1(e u ))
2

= 2 tan 1(e u ))
2 2

= 2 tan 1(e u )
2

= 2 tan 1(e u ) = g (u )
2
g(u) = g(u) g(u) is odd function.
3. Consider a branch of the hyperbola

x 2 2y 2 2 2 x 4 2 y 6 = 0
with vertex at the point A. Let B be one of the end points of its latus rectum. If C is the focus of the hyperbola
nearest to the point A, then the area of the triangle ABC is

2 3 2 3
(A) 1 (B) 1 (C) 1+ (D) +1
3 2 3 2
Answer (B)

( x 2 ) 2 ( y + 2 )2
Hints : =1
4 2
for A(x, y)
Lt d. )
y
e s
2 3
ic
e rv
e = 1+ =
al S
4 2
n
a ti o B
du c
x 2 =2 x = 2+ 2
E
For C(x, y)
sh
a ka x
of A
A C
x 2 = ae = 6
n
i v isio
x= 6+ 2 (D
AC = 6 + 2 2 2 = 6 2

b2 2
BC = = =1
a 2
1 1 3
Area = BC ( 6 2) = 1 ( 6 2) = 1.
2 2 2

1+ sin x 1 sin x
4. The area of the region between the curves y = and y = bounded by the lines x = 0 and
cos x cos x


x= is
4

2 1 2 1
4t

t
(A)
0 (1 + t 2 ) 1 t 2
dt (B)
0 (1 + t 2 ) 1 t 2
dt

2 +1 2 +1
4t

t
(C)
0 (1 + t ) 1 t
2 2
dt (D)

0 (1 + t ) 1 t 2
2
dt

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Answer (B)

4
1 + sin x 1 sin x 1 + sin x 1 sin x
Hints : cos x

cos x
dx



cos x
>
cos x
> 0

0

x x
2 tan 2 tan
1+ 2 1 2

x x
4 1 + tan 2
1 + tan 2

=
1 tan 2 x
2
1 tan 2
x
2
0
2 2
2 x 2 x
1 + tan 1 + tan
2 2


4 1 + tan x 1 tan
x
dx
=
2
x
1 + tan
2
x
0 1 tan
2 2

x x
4 1+ tan 1 + tan
= 2
2 x
2

0 1 tan
2

x
4 2 tan
2 dx
=
0 1 tan
x 2
Lt d. )
e s
ic
2
e rv
al S
x 1 x
Put tan = t, sec 2 dx = dt
n
a ti o
2 2 2

d uc
hE
tan
s
8
ka
4t dt
= 1 + t 2 2
f A a
1 t o
i on
0

(D i vi s
as tan = 2 1
8
2 1
4t dt
So (1 + t ) 2
1 t2
0

5. Consider three points P = ( sin( ), cos ), Q = (cos( ), sin ) and R = (cos( + ), sin( )) ,

where 0 < , , < . Then,
4
(A) P lies on the line segment RQ (B) Q lies on the line segment PR
(C) R lies on the line segment QP (D) P, Q, R are non-collinear
Answer (D)
Hints : For collinear points

sin( ) cos 1
= cos( ) sin 1
cos( + ) sin( ) 1

Clearly 0 for any value of , , , hence points are non-collinear.

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IInd method : (by observation)
cos sin
P R Q
(sin( ), cos ) (cos( ), sin )

cos cos( ) sin sin( ) cos sin sin cos


In this case R ,
sin + cos sin + cos

cos( + ) sin( )
R , = (cos( + ), sin( )) , if sin + cos = 1
sin + cos sin + cos )


Which is not possible if 0 < <
4
Hence points are non-collinear.
6. An experiment has 10 equally likely outcomes. Let A and B be two non-empty events of the experiment. If A
consists of 4 outcomes, the number of outcomes that B must have so that A and B are independent, is
(A) 2, 4 or 8 (B) 3, 6 or 9 (C) 4 or 8 (D) 5 or 10
Answer (D)

2
Hints : P(A) =
5
For independent events
P (A B) = P (A) P (B)
2
t d. )
P (A B)
5
s L
e
P (A B) =
1 2 3 4
, , , (Maximum 4 outcomes may be in A B)Ser
vi c
10 10 10 10 al
at i on
du c
1
(i) P (A B) = E
10
sh
1 fA a ka
P(A) . P(B) =
i o no
i vi s
10
1 5 1 (D
= , not possible
P (B) =
10 2 4
2 2 2
(ii) P (A B) = P (B ) =
10 5 10
5
P(B) = , outcomes of B = 5
10
3
(iii) P (A B) =
10
3
P (A) P (B) =
10
2 3
P (B ) =
5 10
3
P (B) = , not possible
4
4
(iv) P (A B) =
10
4
P (A) . P (B) = P (B) = 1, outcomes of B = 10
10
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7. Let two non-collinear unit vectors a and b form an acute angle. A point P moves so that at any time t the

position vector OP (where O is the origin) is given by a cos t + b sin t . When P is farthest from origin O, let

M be the length of OP and u be the unit vector along OP . Then,

1
a b
1
a + b
(A) u = and M = (1 + a b )
2 (B) u = and M = (1 + a b ) 2
| a + b | | a b |

1 1
a + b a b
(C) u = and M = (1 + 2a b ) 2 (D) u = and M = (1 + 2a b ) 2
| a + b | | a b |

Answer (A)

Hints : OP = a cos t + b sin t

| OP | = (a a cos 2 t + (b b ) sin 2 t + 2a b sin t cos t

| OP | = 1 + 2a b sin t cos t

| OP | = 1 + a b sin 2t


| OP |max = 1 + a b at sin 2t = 1 t =
4
Lt d. )
e s
1 ic
OP at t = = (a + b )
e rv
al S
4 2
n
uc a ti o
d
Unit vector along OP at t = = a + b hE

4 | a + b | ka s
f A a
o
i on
ievis
x x
e
8. Let I =
e 4x
+ e2x + 1
dx, J = e (D + e
4x 2 x
+1
dx .

Then, for an arbitrary constant C, the value of J I equals

1 e 4x e 2x + 1 1 e 2x + e x + 1
(A) log 4 x +C (B) log 2 x +C
2 e + e 2x + 1 2 e e x + 1

1 e2x e x + 1 1 e 4 x + e 2 x + 1
(C) log 2 x +C (D) log 4 x +C
2 e + e x + 1 2 e e 2x + 1

Answer (C)

e3 x
Hints : J = 1+ e 2x
+ e 4x
dx

(e 3 x e x )
J I = 1+ e 2x
+ e 4x
dx

(u 2 1)
= 1+ u 2
+ u4
du (u = ex)

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1
1 2 du
u
= 1
1+ 2 + u 2
u
1
1 2 du
u
= 1
2
u + 1
u
dt 1
= t 2
1
t = u +
u
1 t 1
= log +C
2 t +1

1 u2 u + 1
= log 2 +C
2 u + u +1

1 e2x e x + 1
= log 2 x +C
2 e + ex + 1

9. Let g ( x ) = log f ( x ) where f(x) is a twice differentiable positive function on (0, ) such that f ( x + 1) = x f ( x ) .
Then, for N = 1, 2, 3,....,
1 1
g N + g =
2 2
Lt d. )
1 1 1 1 e s1
+ .....rv+ic
1
(A) 41 + + + ..... + (B) 4 1 + +
9 25 (2N 1)
2
9 25 Se (2N 1) 2
l na
1 tio 1
(D) 41u+ca +
1 1 1 1
(C) 41 + + + ..... + + ..... +
9 25 (2N + 1)
2
E d
9 25 (2N + 1)
2
h s
Answer (A) a ka
o f A
Hints : f(x) = eg(x) eg(x + 1) n
sio
= f(x + 1)
= xf(x) = xe (D
g(x) i v i
g(x + 1) = log x + g(x)
i.e. g(x + 1) g(x) = log x ...(1)
1
Replacing x by x
2
1 1 1
g x + g x = log x
2 2 2
= log(2x 1) log2
1 1 2
g' x + g' x =
2 2 2 x 1

1 1 4
g' ' x + g'' x = ...(2)
2 2 ( 2 x 1) 2
Substituting, x = 1, 2, 3, ......, N in (2) and adding

1 1 1 1 1
g ' ' N + g ' ' = 41 + + + .... +
2 2 9 25 (2N 1)
2

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SECTION - II
Reasoning Type
This section contains 4 reasoning type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

10. Suppose four distinct positive numbers a1, a2, a3, a4 are in G.P. Let b1 = a1, b2 = b1 + a2, b3 = b2 + a3 and
b4 = b3 + a4.

STATEMENT-1 : The numbers b1, b2, b3, b4 are neither in A.P. nor in G.P.
and
STATEMENT-2 : The numbers b1, b2, b3, b4 are in H.P.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Answer (C)
Hints : Let a1 = 1, a2 = 2, a3 = 4, a4 = 8
b1 = 1, b2 = 3, b3 = 7, b4 = 15
Clearly, b1, b2, b3, b4 are not in HP.
Statement-2 is false.

td 2 .)
s L x + 2px + q = 0 and ,
1
11. Let a, b, c, p, q be real numbers. Suppose , are the roots of the equation
i ce

are the roots of the equation ax2 + 2bx + c = 0, where 2 {1, 0a,l1S
e rv
i on
}
at
STATEMENT-1 : ( p 2 q )(b 2 ac ) 0 E du c
sh
and
fA a ka
STATEMENT-2 : b pa or c qa i o no
D i vi s
( is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Answer (B)

Hints : x 2 + 2 px + q = 0

+ = 2p (i)
= q (ii)

ax 2 + 2bx + c = 0

1 2b
+ = (iii)
a
c
= (iv )
a

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2
+ 1
+
2
2
2 2
( p q ) (b ac ) =
a
2 2


2
( ) 2 1
= . a 2 0 statement-1 is true
16

+ a
Now pa = a = ( + )
2 2

a 1
b = +
2

1
pa b + + 2 1, {1, 0, 1}, correct

Similarly


If c qa a a

1
0

Lt d. )
e s
ic
1 e rv
0, and 0 {1, 0, 1}
n al S
uc a ti o
Statement 2 Is true. d
hE
as 2 do not explains statement 1
ak
Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true, But statement
fA
no
12. Consider
v isio
L1 : 2x + 3y + p 3 = 0 (D i
L2 : 2x + 3y + p + 3 = 0
where p is a real number, and C : x2 + y2 + 6x 10y + 30 = 0.

STATEMENT-1 : If line L1 is a chord of circle C, then line L2 is not always a diameter of circle C.
and
STATEMENT-2 : If line L1 is a diameter of circle C, then line L2 is not a chord of circle C.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Answer (C)

Hints : ( x + 3)2 + ( y 5)2 = 9 + 25 30 = 4

( x + 3)2 + ( y 5 )2 = 2 2
centre = (3, 5)

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If L1 is diameter, then, 2(3)+ 3( 5) + p 3 = 0
p = 12
L1 is 2x + 3y + 9 = 0
L2 is 2x + 3y + 15 = 0
Distance of centre of circle from L2 equals

2(3) + 3 ( 5) + 15 6
= < 2 (radius of circle)
2 +3
2 2 13
L2 is a chord of circle C.
Statement (2), false
13. Let a solution y = y(x) of the differential equation

x x 2 1 dy y y 2 1 dx = 0
2
satisfy y(2) =
3

STATEMENT-1 : y(x) = sec sec x
1
6
and
1 2 3 1
STATEMENT-2 : y(x) is given by = 1 2
y x x
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
.)
Ltd
es
Answer (C)
ic
e rv
dy y y 1 al S
2
= n
a ti o
Hints :
dx x x 2 1
d uc

dy
=
dx
s hE
y y 1
2
x x 2 1 a ka
o f A
i on
sec1 y = sec1 x + c
x=2 (D i vi s
2
y=
3
2
sec 1 = sec 1 2 + c
3

= +c
6 3

c=
6
y = sec (sec 1 x / 6)

1 3
= cos cos 1 cos 1 =
x 2
3 1 3
= cos cos 1 + 1 2 1
4
2x x

1 3 1 1
= + 1 2
y 2x 2 x

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SECTION - III
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered.
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16
Consider the function f : ( , ) ( , ) defined by

x 2 ax + 1
f(x) = , 0 < a < 2.
x 2 + ax + 1
14. Which of the following is true?
(A) (2 + a)2 f " (1) + (2 a)2 f " (1) = 0 (B) (2 a)2 f " (1) (2 + a)2 f " (1) = 0
(C) f ' (1) f ' ( 1) = (2 a)2 (D) f ' (1) f ' ( 1) = (2 + a)2
Answer (A)

(x 2
)
+ ax +1 2ax
Hints : f (x ) =
x + ax + 1
2

2ax
= 1
x + ax + 1
2

( x 2 + ax + 1) 2a 2ax(2x + a)
f ( x ) =
( x 2 + ax + 1)2

2ax 2 + 2a ( x 2 1) Lt d. )
= 2 = 2a (1) e s
2 2 2 ic
( x + ax + 1) ( x +ax+1) e rv
on al S
( x 2 + ax+1)2 (2x ) 2( x 2 1) ( x 2 + ax + 1) (2 x + caa) ti
f ( x ) = 2a
E du
( x 2 + ax + 1)4
k a sh
Aa
2x ( x 2 + ax + 1) 2( x 2 1) (2x +ofa )
= 2a
( x 2 + ax + 1)3ivis
ion

(D
x 3 + 3 x+ a
= 4a 2 3
( 2)
( x + ax + 1)

4a (a + 2) 4a
f (1) = =
( a + 2) 3 ( a + 2) 2

4a ( a 2 ) 4a
f ( 1) = =
( 2 a )3 ( a 2) 2

(2 + a )2 f (1) + (2 a )2 f ( 1) = 4a 4a
=0

15. Which of the following is true?


(A) f(x) is decreasing on (1, 1) and has a local minimum at x = 1
(B) f (x) is increasing on (1, 1) and has a local maximum at x = 1
(C) f (x) is increasing on (1, 1) but has neither a local maximum nor a local minimum at x = 1
(D) f (x) is decreasing on (1, 1) but has neither a local maximum nor a local minimum at x = 1

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Answer (A)
Hints : When x (1,1)

x 2 < 1 x 2 1 < 0

f ( x ) < 0 f ( x ) is decreasing

4a
Also, at x = 1, f (1) = > 0 ( 0 < a < 2)
( a + 2) 2

f (x)has a local minimum at x = 1


16. Let

ex
f (t )
g(x) = 1+ t
0
2
dt

Which of the following is true?


(1) g'(x) is positive on ( , 0) and negative on (0, )
(2) g'(x) is negative on ( , 0) and positive on (0, )
(3) g'(x) changes sign on both ( , 0) and (0, )
(4) g'(x) does not change sign on ( , )
Answer (B)

f (e x )
Hints : g(x) = . ex
t d. )
1+ (e x )2
s L
e 1 2x e x
ic e
e rv
= 2a 2 x
2
(e + ae + 1) 1 + e al S
x 2x

n
g ( x ) = 0, if e 2 x 1 = 0, i .e. x =0 uc a ti o
d
s hE
If x < 0, e 2x < 1 g ( x ) < 0 a ka
f A
o no
visi for Question Nos. 17 to 19
Paragraph
Consider the lines : (D i
x +1 y +2 z +1
L1 : = =
3 1 2

x2 y +2 z3
L2 : = =
1 2 3
17. The unit vector perpendicular to both L1 and L2 is

i + 7 j + 7k i 7 j + 5k i + 7 j + 5k 7i 7 j k
(A) (B) (C) (D)
99 5 3 5 3 99
Answer (B)
Hints : The equations of given lines in vector form may be written as

L1 : r = ( i 2 j k ) + (3i + j + 2k )

and L2 : r = (2i 2 j + 3k ) + (i + 2 j + 3k )

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Vector perpendicular to both L1 and L2 is

i j k
3 1 2 = i 7 j + 5k
1 2 3

( i 7 j + 5k )
Required unit vector =
( 1)2 + ( 7)2 + (5)2

1
= ( i 7 j + 5k )
5 3
18. The shortest distance between L1 and L2 is
17 41 17
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D)
3 5 3 5 3
Answer (D)
Hints : Shortest distance between L1 and L2 is

{(2 ( 1))i + (2 2) j + (3 ( 1))k } ( i 7 j + 5k )


5 3

(3i + 4k ) ( i 7 j + 5k ) 17
= = units
5 3 5 3
19. The distance of the point (1, 1, 1) from the plane passing through the point (1, 2, 1) and whose normal is
perpendicular to both the lines L1 and L2 is ) t d.
s L
2 7 13
ic e 23
(A)
75
(B)
75
(C)
75
lS e rv (D)
75
Answer (C)
a ti on a
u c
Hints : The equation of the plane passing through the point (1,
h Ed2, 1) and whose normal is perpendicular to both
the given lines L1 and L2 may be written as
ka s
f A a
no
(x + 1) + 7 (y + 2) 5 (z + 1) = 0
i o
vi s
(D i
i.e. x + 7y 5z + 10 = 0

1 + 7 5 + 10 13
The distance of the point (1, 1, 1) from the plane = = units
1 + 49 + 25 75

SECTION-IV
Matrix-Match Type
This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be
matched. Statements in Column I are labelled as A, B, C and D whereas statements in Column II are labelled
as p, q, r and s. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following
example.
If the correct matches are A-q, A-r, B-p, B-s, C-r, C-s and D-q, then the correctly bubbled matrix will look like the
following :
p q r s

A p q r s

B p q r s

C p q r s

D p q r s

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20. Consider the lines given by
L1 : x + 3y 5 = 0
L2 : 3x ky 1 = 0
L3 : 5x + 2y 12 = 0
Match the Statements/Expressions in Column I with the Statements/Expressions in Column II and indicate
your answer by darkening the appropriate bubbles in the 4 4 matrix given in the ORS.
Column I Column II
(A) L1, L2, L3 are concurrent, if (p) k = 9
6
(B) One of L1, L2, L3 is parallel to at least one (q) k =
5
of the other two, if

5
(C) L1, L2, L3 form a triangle, if (r) k =
6
(D) L1, L2, L3 do not form a triangle, if (s) k = 5
Answer : A(s); B(p,q); C(r), D(p, q, s)
Hints.
(A) Solving L1 and L3
x y 1
= =
36 + 10 + 12 25 2 15
x = 2, y = 1

t d. )
L1, L2, L3 are concurrent, if (2, 1) lies on L2
s L
6k1=0 k=5
ic e
e rv
(B) Either L1 is parallel to L2, or L3 is parallel to L2,
n al S
1 3 3 k
uc a ti o
= or = d
hE
then
3 k 5 2
ka s
6
f A a
k = 9 or k = o
5
i on
i vi s
(C) L1, L2, L3 form a triangle, if they(Dare not concurrent, or not parallel
6 5
k 5, 9, k =
5 6

(D) L1, L2, L3 do not form a triangle, if


6
k = 5, 9,
5
21. Match the Statements/Expressions in Coilumn I with the Statements/Expressions in Column II and indicate
your answer by darkening the appropriate bubbles in the 4 4 matrix given in the ORS.
Column I Column II

x 2 + 2x + 4
(A) The minimum value of is (p) 0
x+2
(B) Let A and B be 3 3 matrices of real number, (q) 1
where A is symmetric, B is skew-symmetric, and
(A + B) (A B) = (A B) (A + B). If (AB)t = (1)k AB,
where (AB)t is the transpose of the matrix AB,
then the possible values of k are

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(C) Let a = log3 log32. An integer k satisfying (r) 2
a
1 < 2( k + 3 )
< 2 , must be less than

(D) If sin = cos , then the possible values of (s) 3

1
are
2

Answer : A(r); B(q, s); C(r), D(p, r)


Hints :

x 2 + 2x + 4
(A) Let y =
x+2
x2 + (2 y)x + (4 2y) = 0
(2 y)2 4(4 2y) 0
y2 + 4y 12 0
y 6, y 2
minimum value of y is 2

(B) (A + B) (A B) = (A B) (A + B)
A2 AB + BA B2 = A2 + AB BA B2
AB = BA

t d. )
(AB)t = (1)k AB B t At = (1)k AB
s L
BA = (1)k + 1AB (Bt = B, At = A)
ic e
e rv
al S
BA = (1)k + 1AB
n
(1)k + 1 = 1
uc a ti o
d
hE
k + 1 is even, or k is odd
ka s
a
f A a
(C) 1 < 2( k + 3 )
<2 o
i on
0<k+ 3a <1
(D i vi s
a = log3 log3 2 3 = log32 a

3 a = log2 3 .....(2)

k < log2 3 < 2 .....(3)

and 1 + k > log2 3 > 1 k > 0 .....(4)

by (3) & (4), 0 < k < 2 k = 1 (k is an integer)


k<2


(D) sin = cos cos = cos
2

= 2n , n Z
2

= 2n, n Z
2
1
= 2n, n Z
2

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22. Consider all possible permutations of the letters of the word ENDEANOEL. Match the Statements/Expressions
in Column I with the Statements/Expressions in Column II and indicate your answer by darkening the
appropriate bubbles in the 4 4 matrix given in the ORS.
Column I Column II
(A) The number of permutations containing the (p) 5!
word ENDEA is
(B) The number of permutations in which the (q) 2 5!
letter E occurs in the first and the last positions
is
(C) The number of permutations in which none of the (r) 7 5!
letters D, L, N occurs in the last five positions is
(D) The number of permutations in which the letters (s) 21 5!
A, E, O occur only in odd positions is
Answer : A(p); B(s); C(q), D(q)
Hints :
(A) If ENDEA is fixed word then assume this as a single letter

Total letters = 5, total number of arrangement = 5 !

(B) If E is at first and last places then


Lt d. )
e s
ic
e rv
al S
7!
total permutation = 2! = 21 5 ! n
uc a ti o
d
s hE
ka
(C) If D, L, N is not in last five position
f A a
n o
D,L,N,N i
E,E,E,A,O v isio
(D
4! 5!
total permutation = 2! 3 ! = 2 5 !

(D) Total odd position = 5

5!
permutation of AEEEO are 3 !

Total even position = 4

4!
Permutation of N,N,D,L = 2 !

5 ! 4!
hence total permutation = 3 ! 2! = 2 5 !

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PHYSICS
PART- II

SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

q q 2q
23. Consider a system of three charges , and placed at points A, B and C, respectively, as shown
3 3 3
in the figure. Take O to be the centre of the circle of radius R and angle CAB = 60
Figure :
y

C x
O
60

q
(A) The electric field at point O is directed along the negative x-axis
2
80 R
Lt d. )
s
i ce
(B) The potential energy of the system is zero
r v
(C) The magnitude of the force between the charges at C and B isnal
Sqe 2

atio 540R
2
u c
h Ed
(D) The potential at point O is
q
ka s
12 0 R
f A a
i o no
vi s
Answer (C)
Hints : Force between C and B is (D i
1 2q q 1 q2
=
4 0 3 3 (R 3 )2 54 0 R 2

24. A radioactive sample S1 having an activity of 5 Ci has twice the number of nuclei as another sample S2
which has an activity of 10 Ci. The half lives of S1 and S2 can be
(A) 20 years and 5 years, respectively (B) 20 years and 10 years, respectively
(C) 10 years each (D) 5 years each
Answer (A)
Hints : For S1, activity 1N1 = 5 Ci
For S2, activity 2N2 = 10 Ci
Also N1 = 2N2
2
1 =
4
T1 = 4T2

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25. A transverse sinusoidal wave moves along a string in the positive x-direction at a speed of 10 cm/s. The
wavelength of the wave is 0.5 m and its amplitude is 10 cm. At a particular time t, the snap-shot of the wave
is shown in figure. The velocity of point P when its displacement is 5 cm is
Figure :

P
x

3 3 3 3
(A) j m s (B) j m s (C) i m s (D) i m s
50 50 50 50
Answer (A)
Hints : The wave equation can be written as

y = (0.1 m ) sin( 4 0.4 t )j .....(1)

2
as A = 10 cm, v = = 10 cm/s and k = = 4 .....(2)
k

dy
Now = 0.1 0.4 cos(0.4 t 4 x ) j
t d. )
dt

s L
From (1), Put y = 5 cm and t = 0, calculate x.
ic e
From (2), velocity can be calculated e rv
o n al S
A block (B) is attached to two unstretched springs S1 andcaS2
i
t with spring constants k and 4k, respectively
26.
d u
(see figure I). The other ends are attached to identicalE supports M1 and M2 not attached to the walls. The
h
springs and supports have negligible mass. There
a kaiss no friction anywhere. The block B is displaced towards
fA
omeasured
wall 1 by a small distance x (figure II) and released. The block returns and moves a maximum distance y
n
is o
towards wall 2. Displacements x and y iare with respect to the equilibrium position of the block B.
i v
The ratio
y
is
(D
x
Figure :
2 1
M2 S2 S1 M1
B I

2 x 1
M2 S2 S1 M1 II
B
x
1 1
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) (D)
2 4
Answer (C)
Hints : Using conservation of energy,

1 1
kx 2 = 4ky 2
2 2
2y = x

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27. A bob of mass M is suspended by a massless string of length L. The horizontal velocity V at position A is
just sufficient to make it reach the point B. The angle at which the speed of the bob is half of that at A,
satisfies
Figure :
B


L
V
A

3 3
(A) = (B) << (C) << (D) <<
4 4 2 2 4 4
Answer (D)

Hints : At lowest point v = 5gl

By conservation of energy,

1 1 v
mv 2 = mv B2 + mgl (1 cos ) Here VB =
2 2 2

7
cos =
t d. )
8
s L
ic e
e rv
7
= cos 1
8
o n al S
t i
28. A glass tube of uniform internal radius (r) has a valve separating
d uca the two identical ends. Initially, the valve is
in a tightly closed position. End 1 has a hemispherical h E bubble of radius r. End 2 has sub-hemispherical
soap
a s
k valve,
Aa
soap bubble as shown in figure. Just after opening the
o f
Figure : n
i v isio
(D

2
1
(A) Air from end 1 flows towards end 2. No change in the volume of the soap bubbles
(B) Air from end 1 flows towards end 2. Volume of the soap bubble at end 1 decreases
(C) No change occurs
(D) Air from end 2 flows towards end 1. Volume of the soap bubble at end 1 increases
Answer (B)
Hints : The sub-hemispherical bubble will have greater radius of curvature. So pressure inside 1 will be more.
29. A vibrating string of certain length under a tension T resonates with a mode corresponding to the first overtone
(third harmonic) of an air column of length 75 cm inside a tube closed at one end. The string also generates
4 beats per second when excited along with a tuning fork of frequency n. Now when the tension of the string
is slightly increased the number of beats reduces to 2 per second. Assuming the velocity of sound in air to
be 340 m/s, the frequency n of the tuning fork in Hz is
(A) 344 (B) 336 (C) 117.3 (D) 109.3
Answer (A)

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3 340
Hints : fstring = = 344 Hz
75
4
100

Now, fstring ~ n = 4
On increasing T, fstring increases and difference between the string frequency and tuning fork decreases. So,
fstring < n
n = 344 Hz
30. A parallel plate capacitor C with plates of unit area and separation d is filled with a liquid of dielectric constant
d
K = 2. The level of liquid is initially. Suppose the liquid level decreases at a constant speed V, the time
3
constant as a function of time t is
Figure :

C
d R
d
3

6 0 R (15d + 9V t ) 0 R
(A) (B)
5d + 3V t 2
2d 3d V t 9V t
2 2

6 0 R (15d 9V t ) 0R
(C) (D)
5d 3V t 2
2d + 3d V t 9V t
2 2

Answer (A)
Lt d. )
e s
ic
e rv
Hints : Time constant T = RC

n al S
a ti o
0 A
Now, C =
d
x d uc
2d
+x+ 3 s hE
3 k a ka
o f A
i on
i vi s
where x = vt.
(D I to Region IV (Refer Figure). The refractive index in Regions I, II, III and
31. A light beam is traveling from Region
n n0 n0
IV are n0, 0 , and , respectively. The angle of incidence for which the beam just misses entering
2 6 8
Region IV is
Figure :

Region I Region II Region III Region IV

n0 n0 n0
n0 2 6 8

0 0.2 m 0.6 m
1 3 1 1 1 1 1 1
(A) sin (B) sin (C) sin (D) sin
4 8 4 3
Answer (B)
Hints : For total internal reflection, at IV, depends only on I and IV
IV 1
sin = =
I 8

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SECTION - II
Assertion - Reason Type
This section contains 4 reasoning type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.

32. STATEMENT-1 : For an observer looking out through the window of a fast moving train, the nearby objects
appear to move in the opposite direction to the train, while the distant objects appear to be stationary.
and

STATEMENT-2 : If the observer and the object are moving at velocities V1 and V2 respectively with reference
to a laboratory frame, the velocity of the object with respect to the observer is V2 V1.

(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Answer (B)
Hints : The angular position of farther objects change less. So, they appear stationary. O and O represent initial
and final position of an observer in motion

Lt d. )
ce s
motion near by r vi
farthereby
object
al S
object
O
at i on
du c
a s hE
33. STATEMENT-1 : It is easier to pull a heavy object athan k to push it on a level ground.
o f A
and n
i v isio force depends on the nature of the two surfaces in contact.
(D
STATEMENT-2 : The magnitude of frictional
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Answer (B)
Hints : During pull, normal reaction decreases so friction decreases

34. STATEMENT-1 : For practical purposes, the earth is used as a reference at zero potential in electrical circuits.
and
STATEMENT-2 : The electrical potential of a sphere of radius R and with charge Q uniformly distributed on
Q
the surface is given by .
40R
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

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Answer (B)
Hints : Earth is assumed to have zero potential, although it does have a negative potential. When potential at
Q
infinity is regarded as zero, the potential of a sphere with uniform charge of the surface is 4 R
0

35. STATEMENT-1 : The sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is increased by placing a suitable magnetic
material as a core inside the coil.
and
STATEMENT-2 : Soft iron has a high magnetic permeability and cannot be easily magnetized or demagnetized.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Answer (C)
Hints : By a suitable magnetic material field strength increases. Sensitivity is directly proportional to field as
NBA
= . Soft iron can be easily magnetised
I C

SECTION-III
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered.
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. td.)
c e sL
Paragraph for Question Nos. 36 torv38 i
l S e
The nuclear charge (Ze) is non-uniformly distributed within a nucleus
t i o naof radius R. The charge density (r) [charge
per unit volume] is dependent only on the radial distance r cfrom a the centre of the nucleus as shown in figure.
E du
The electric field is only along the radial direction.
h
a k as
of A
Figure :

(r) isio n
v
(D i
d

r
a R
36. The electric field at r = R is
(A) Independent of a (B) Directly proportional to a
(C) Directly proportional to a2 (D) Inversely proportional to a
Answer (A)
Hints : The electric field at R (at the surface) is

1 (Ze )
E = 4 2
0 R

It is independent of a

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37. For a = 0, the value of d (maximum value of as shown in the figure) is

3Ze 3Ze 4Ze Ze


(A) (B) (C) (D)
4R 3
R 3 3 R 3
3 R 3

Answer (B)

r
Hints : When a = 0, = d 1
R

R R
2 r3
Now, Ze =
0
4r 2dr = 4d r

0
dr
R

3Ze
d=
R 3
38. The electric field within the nucleus is generally observed to be linarly dependent on r. This implies

R 2R
(A) a = 0 (B) a = (C) a = R (D) a =
2 3

Answer (C)
Hints : When E r charge density is uniform (like the case of a uniformly charged sphere).
So, a=R

t d. )
Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 41
L
s massless springs of spring
A uniform thin cylindrical disk of mass M and radius R is attached to two identical
r v iceattached
constant k which are fixed to the wall as shown in the figure. The springs
a l Sise massless andtoboth
are the axle of the disk
symmetrically on either side at a distance d from its centre. The axle
t i o n the springs and

ucaL from the wall. The disk rolls without slipping


the axle are in a horizontal plane. The unstretched length of each spring is L. The disk is initially at its
d
hE
equilibrium position with its centre of mass (CM) at a distance
k
with velocity V0 = V0 i . The coefficient of friction isa.
a s
o fA
n
isio
Figure
i v
(D

2d

d d
R V0

39. The net external force acting on the disk when its centre of mass is at displacement x with respect to its
equilibrium position is
2kx 4kx
(A) kx (B) 2kx (C) (D)
3 3

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Answer (D)
Hints : F fr = Ma
Ia
fr.R = I fr =
R2 F
Solving these two,
F fr
a=
I
M+
r2

2Kx
Also, F = 2Kx a=
I
M+ 2
r

I 2Kx
fr = 2
R I
M + 2
r

1
For disc I = MR 2
2

fr = 4kx
3
40. The centre of mass of the disk undergoes simple harmonic motion with angular frequency equal to

k 2k 2k 4k
t d. )
(A) (B) (C) (D)
M M 3M 3M
s L
ic e
e rv
Answer (D)

n al S
a ti o
2kx
a=
uc
Hints :
I
d
hE
M+ 2
r
ka s
f A a
with a = 2x o
i on
2k 4k (D i vi s
= I
=
M+ 3m
r2
41. The maximum value of V0 for which the disk will roll without slipping is

M M 3M 5M
(A) g (B) g (C) g (D) g
k 2k k 2k
Answer (C)
Ia
Hints : fr = Mg
R2
IV0
and mg ( amax = v o )
R2
MR 2 V0
mg
2 R2
3M
V0 2g
4k
3M
g
k
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SECTION - IV
Matrix Match Type
This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be
matched. Statements in Column I are labelled as (A), (B), (C) and (D), whereas statements in Column II are labelled
as p, q, r and s. The answers to these questions have to be appropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following
example.
If the correct matches are A-q, A-r, B-p, B-s, C-r, C-s and D-q, then the correctly bubbled matrix will look like the
following :
p q r s

A p q r s

B p q r s

C p q r s

D p q r s

42. Column I gives a list of possible set of parameters measured in some experiments. The variations of the
parameters in the form of graphs are shown in Column II. Match the set of parameters given in Column I with
the graphs given in Column II. Indicate your answer by darkening the appropriate bubbles of the 4 4 matrix
given in the ORS.
Column I Column II
(A) Potential energy of a simple (p) y
pendulum (y axis) as a function

t d. )
of displacement (x axis)
s L
ic e
e rv
n al S
a ti o
x
O
E du c
(q)sh y
(B) Displacement (y axis) as a function
k a
of time (x-axis) for a one dimensional
o f Aa
motion at zero or constant acceleration n
isio
when the body is moving along theivpositive
x-direction ( D

x
O

(C) Range of a projectile (y axis) as (r) y


a function of its velocity (x axis)
when projected at a fixed angle

x
O
(D) The square of the time period (y axis) (s) y
of a simple pendulum as a function
of its length (x axis)

O x

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Answer : A(p,s); B(q, r, s); C(s), D(q)
Hints :
(A) p,s
potential energy of a simple pendulum varies curvilinearly with displacement and is minimum at a certain value
(B) q, r, s
q and r correspond to zero acceleration, while S corresponds to accelerated motion p is not possible as velocity
is negative corresponding to initial portion of the graph.
(C) s

u 2 sin 2
R= R u2
g

(D) q

l
T = 2 T2 l
g

43. An optical component and an object S placed along its optic axis are given in Column I. The distance between
the object and the component can be varied. The properties of images are given in Column II. Match all the
properties of images from Column II with the appropriate components given in Column I. Indicate your answer
by darkening the appropriate bubbles of the 4 4 matrix given in the ORS.
Column I Column II

S Lt d. )
(A) (p) Real Image e s
ic
e rv
n al S
uc a ti o
d
S hE
s(q)
(B)
a ka Virtual image
o f A
i on
(D i vi s

S
(C) (r) Magnified image

(D) S (s) Image at infinity

Answer : A(p, q, r, s); B(q); C(p, q, r, s), D(p, q, r, s)


Hints : In all cases, u is negative
(A) p, q, r, s
f
Magnification for mirror, m =
f u
f is negative. Depending on valve of u, m can be positive or negative and | m | can be > 1 or < 1.

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(B) q

f
m=
f u

f is positive 0 < m < 1, for any value of u


(C) p, q, r, s

f
m=
f +u

f is positive m can be positive or negative and | m | can be > 1 or < 1 depending on u.


(D) p, q, r, s

f
m=
f +u

f is positive m can be positive or negative and |m| can be > 1 or < 1 depending on u.
44. Column I contains a list of processes involving expansion of an ideal gas. Match this with Column II describing
the thermodynamic change during this process. Indicate your answer by darkening the appropriate bubbles of
the 4 4 matrix given in the ORS.
Column I Column II
(A) An insulated container has two chambers (p) The temperature of the gas decreases
separated by a valve. Chamber I contains
an ideal gas and the Chamber II has vacuum.

t d. )
The valve is opened.

s L
ic e
I II
e rv
n al S
ideal gas Vacuum
uc a ti o
d
as hE
a k(q)
(B) An ideal monoatomic gas expands
fA The temperature of the gas increases
no
isio
to twice its original volume such or remains constant
v
that its pressure P ,
1
(DVi
where
V2
is the volume of the gas
(C) An ideal monoatomic gas expands to (r) The gas loses heat
twice its original volume such that

1
its pressure P 4/3
, where V is
V
its volume
(D) An ideal monoatomic gas expands such (s) The gas gains heat
that its pressure P and volume V follows
the behaviour shown in the graph

V1 2V1V

Answer : A(q); B(p, r); C(p, s), D(q, s)

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Hints : (A) in free expansion W = U = Q = 0
(B), (C) & (D)
n
PV = const. if n < Q>0
n> Q<0
n= Q=0
n=1 T = constant
n>1 T decreases
n<1 T increases

CHEMISTRY
PART- III

SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 9 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

45. The correct stability order for the following species is


O O
Lt d. )
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
s
(B) (I) > (II) > (III)e>rv(IV)
i ce
lS
(A) (II) > (IV) > (I) > (III)
(C) (II) > (I) > (IV) > (III) on>a (II) > (IV)
(D) (I) > (III)
a ti
Answer (D) d uc
hE
kas and + inductive effect.
Hints : I & III are stabilized by resonance, hyperconjugation
a
fA
order (I) > (III) > (II) > (IV)
no
v isio
(Di acetic anhydride / H2SO4 (catalytic) gives cellulose triacetate whose
46. Cellulose upon acetylation with excess
structure is
AcO
AcO O O
H H
AcO O OAc H
H H O H
H H O O OAc H H H OAc
(A)
OAc H H H OAc
O
H OAc AcO
AcO O O
H H
AcO O OH H
H H O H
H H O O OH H H H OH
(B) OH H
O H H OH

H OH

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AcO AcO AcO

H O H H O H H O O
H H H
(C) OAc H OAc H OAc H
O O O H
H OAc H OAc H OAc

AcO AcO AcO

H H O H H O H H O O
H H
(D) H H H H H H
O O O H
OAc OAc OAc OAc OAc OAc

Answer (C)
Hints : Cellulose is polymer of -D glucose. Hence structure (C) is correct.

47. In the following reaction sequence, the correct structures of E, F and G are

O O I2
Heat
[E] [F] + [G]
Ph OH NaOH
*

( implies 13C labelled carbon)


O O Lt d. )
e s
ic
e rv
(A) E = * F= * G = CHI3
Ph CH3 Ph O Na
n al S
O O
c a ti o
(B) E = Ph * F= G = CHIE3 du
sh
CH3 Ph O Na
a ka
O O
o f A
n
sio
*
(C) E = Ph F= OviNa G = CHI3
*
CH3 Ph
(D i
O O
*
(D) E = * F = Ph G = CH3I
Ph CH3 O Na
Answer (C)

O O O O
I2 + NaOH
CO2 C C
iodoform reaction
Hints : Ph OH Ph CH3 Ph ONa + CHI3

-keto acid E G

48. Among the following, the coloured compound is


(A) CuCl (B) K3[Cu(CN)4] (C) CuF2 (D) [Cu(CH3CN)4]BF4
Answer (C)
Hints : In CuF2, copper is in +2 oxidation state
coloured. In other options copper is in +1 oxidation state therefore colourless.

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49. Both [Ni(CO)4] and [Ni(CN)4]2 are diamagnetic. The hybridisations of nickel in these complexes, respectively,
are
(A) sp3, sp3 (B) sp3, dsp2 (C) dsp2, sp3 (D) dsp2, dsp2
Answer (B)
Hints : [Ni(CO)4] --------- sp3 hybridization
[Ni(CN)4]2 --------- dsp2 hybridization

50. The IUPAC name of [Ni(NH3)4][NiCl4] is


(A) Tetrachloronickel (II)-tetraamminenickel (II) (B) Tetraamminenickel (II) - tetrachloronickel (II)
(C) Tetraamminenickel (II) - tetrachloronickelate (II) (D) Tetrachloronickel(II) - tetraamminenickelate (0)
Answer (C)
Hints : IUPAC name is tetraamminenickel(II)-tetrachloronickelate(II).
51. Electrolysis of dilute aqueous NaCl solution was carried out by passing 10 milli ampere current. The time
required to liberate 0.01 mol of H2 gas at the cathode is (1 Faraday = 96500 C mol1)
(A) 9.65 104 sec (B) 19.3 104 sec (C) 28.95 104 sec (D) 38.6 104 sec
Answer (B)

W it
Hints : =
E F

W 10 10 3 t
= 0.01 2 =
E 96500

t = 19.3 104 s Lt d. )
e s
ic
e rv
52. Among the following, the surfactant that will form micelles in aqueousl Ssolution at the lowest molar concentration
a
at ambient conditions is ti o n
ca
(A) CH3(CH2)15N+(CH3)3Br du 3(CH2)11OSO3Na+
hE
(B) CH
(C) CH3(CH2)6COONa+ ka s(D) CH3(CH2)11N+(CH3)3Br
f A a
Answer (B)
i o no
vis solution at the lowest molar concentration at ambient condition.
(D i
Hints : Detergent will form micelles in aqueous

53. Solubility product constants (Ksp) of salts of types MX, MX2 and M3X at temperature 'T' are 4.0 108,
3.2 1014 and 2.7 1015, respectively. Solubilities (mol dm3) of the salts at temperature 'T' are in the order
(A) MX > MX2 > M3X (B) M3X > MX2 > MX
(C) MX2 > M3X > MX (D) MX > M3X > MX2
Answer (D)
Hints : (MX) S2 = 4.0 108
S = 2.0 104
(MX2) 4S3 = 3.2 1014
S3 = 0.8 1014
S3 = 8 1015
S = 2 105
(M3X) 27S4 = 2.7 1015
S = 1 104
Order is
MX > M3X > MX2

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SECTION - II
Assertion - Reason Type
This section contains 4 reasoning type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
54. STATEMENT-1 : Aniline on reaciton with NaNO2/HCl at 0C followed by coupling with -naphthol gives a dark
blue coloured precipitate.
and
STATEMENT-2 : The colour of the compound formed in the reaction of aniline with NaNO2/HCl at 0C followed
by coupling with -naphthol is due to the extended conjugation.
(A) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(B) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(C) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False
(D) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True
Answer (D)
Hints : Aniline on reaction with NaNO2/HCl at 0 C followed by coupling with -naphthol gives a orange red dye.
Statement-1 is false but statement 2 is true.
55. STATEMENT-1 : [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 is paramagnetic.
and
STATEMENT-2 : The Fe in [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 has three unpaired electrons.
(A) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1

t d. )
(B) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(C) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False
s L
ic e
(D) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True
e rv
Answer (A)
o n al S
i
Hints : [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 is paramagnetic in nature. Magnetic moment
d u ca t of complex is 3.9 BM. Hence it has 3
unpaired electrons. In this complex, oxidation number Eof Fe is +1.
h
56. STATEMENT-1 : The geometrical isomers of the complex a kas [M(NH3)4 Cl2] are optically inactive.
n of A
and
o
STATEMENT-2 : Both geometrical isomersD i visi of the complex [M(NH3)4Cl2] possess axis of symmetry.
(
(A) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(B) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(C) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False
(D) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True
Answer (A)
Hints : [M(NH3)4Cl2] show cis-trans geometrical isomers and are not optically active due to presence of axis of
symmetry.
57. STATEMENT-1 : There is a natural asymmetry between converting work to heat and converting heat to work.
and
STATEMENT-2 : No process is possible in which the sole result is the absorption of heat from a reservoir and
its complete conversion into work.
(A) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(B) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
(C) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False
(D) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True
Answer (B)
Hints : According to second law of thermodynamics, It is impossible to convert energy into 100% work.
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SECTION-III
Linked Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered.
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 58 to 60


A tertiary alcohol H upon acid catalysed dehydration gives a product I. Ozonolysis of I leads to compounds
J and K. Compound J upon reaction with KOH gives benzyl alcohol and a compound L, whereas K on reaction
with KOH gives only M.
H3C O
Ph
M=
Ph H
58. Compound H is formed by the reaction of

O
||
(A) + PhMgBr
Ph CH3

O
||
(B) + PhCH2MgBr
Ph CH3

O
(C) || + PhCH2MgBr
Ph H

O Me
t d. )
|| |
(D) +
s L
Ph H Ph MgBr
ic e
e rv
al S
Answer (B)
n
59. The structure of compound I is
uc a ti o
d
Ph CH3 s hE
a ka
(A)
o f A
i on
H Ph

H 3C Ph (D i vi s
(B)
H Ph

Ph CH3
(C)
H CH2Ph

H3C CH3
(D)
Ph H
Answer (A)
60. The structures of compounds J, K and L respectively, are
(A) PhCOCH3, PhCH2COCH3 and PhCH2COOK+
(B) PhCHO, PhCH2CHO and PhCOOK+
(C) PhCOCH3, PhCH2CHO and CH3COOK+
(D) PhCHO, PhCOCH3 and PhCOOK+

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Answer (D)
Hints : Solution of Q. 58 to 60

O OH
Ph C CH3 + PhCH2MgBr Ph C CH2 Ph
CH3 H

Conc. H2SO4 dehydration

Ph C = CHPh Ph CH3
or
CH3 H Ph
I

Ozonolysis

O
Ph C = O + Ph C H
CH3 J
K
Cannizzaro's
KOH reaction
Aldol followed
KOH

t d. )
by dehydration

s2LOH + PhCOOK
PhCH
e
O ic
H3C
lS e rv L
Ph H
Ph
a ti on a
du c
hE
M

k a s
f Aa
Paragraph for Question Nos. 61 to 63
o
n encountered arrangement of atoms is described as a hexagonal
isioare regular hexagons and three atoms are sandwiched in between
In hexagonal systems of crystals, a frequently
v
prism. Here, the top and bottom of the icell
(D
them. A space-filling model of this structure, called hexagonal close-packed (HCP), is constituted of a sphere
on a flat surface surrounded in the same plane by six identical spheres as closely as possible. Three spheres
are then placed over the first layer so that they touch each other and represent the second layer. Each one
of these three spheres touches three spheres of the bottom layer. Finally, the second layer is covered with a
third layer that is identical to the bottom layer in relative position. Assume radius of every sphere to be r.
61. The number of atoms in this HCP unit cell is
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 12 (D) 17
Answer (B)
Hints : The number of effective atom in a unit cell

1 1
= 12 + 2 + 3 1 = 6
6 2 no of atoms in
(corner ) Face hexagonal primitive
Centre unit cell

62. The volume of this HCP unit cell is

64
(A) 24 2 r 3 (B) 16 2 r 3 (C) 12 2 r 3 (D) r3
3 3
Answer (A)

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Hints : Volume of HCP unit cell
= Base area height

3 2 2

= 6 4 a 4r 3

2
= 6 4 (2r ) 4r
3 2
3

= 24 2 r 3
63. The empty space in this HCP unit cell is
(A) 74% (B) 47.6% (C) 32% (D) 26%
Answer (D)

4 3
r6
3
Hints : Packing fraction =
Base area Height

4 3
6 r
3
= = 0.74

6 3 a 2 4r 2
4 3

% of empty space = (1 0.74) 100 = 26%

Lt d. )
e s
SECTION - IV
ic
Matrix Match Type
lS e rv
t
This section contains 3 questions. Each question contains statements i o na given in two columns, which have to be
a whereas statements in Column II are labelled
uc(D),
matched. Statements in Column I are labelled as (A), (B), (C) and
as p, q, r and s. The answers to these questions have tohbe Edappropriately bubbled as illustrated in the following
k as
f Aa
example.
o
n C-s and D-q, then the correctly bubbled matrix will look like the
If the correct matches are A-q, A-r, B-p, B-s, oC-r,
i v isi
(D
following :
p q r s

A p q r s

B p q r s

C p q r s

D p q r s

64. Match the compounds in Column I with their characteristic test(s)/reaction(s) given in Column II. Indicate your
answer by darkening the appropriate bubbles of the 4 4 matrix given in the ORS
Column I Column II

(A) H2NNH3Cl (p) Sodium fusion extract of the compound gives Prussian
blue colour with FeSO4


NH3l
(B) HO (q) Gives positive FeCI3 test
COOH

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(C) HO NH3Cl (r) Gives white precipitate with AgNO3


(D) O2N NHNH3Br (s) Reacts with aldehydes to form the corresponding
hydrazone derivative
NO2

Answer : A(r, s); B(p, q); C(p, q, r), D(p)


65. Match the conversions in Column I with the type(s) of reaction(s) given in Column II. Indicate your answer
by darkening the appropriate bubbles of the 4 4 matrix given in the ORS
Column I Column II
(A) PbS PbO (p) Roasting
(B) CaCO3 CaO (q) Calcination
(C) ZnS Zn (r) Carbon reduction
(D) Cu2S Cu (s) Self reduction
Answer : A(p); B(q); C(p, r), D(p, s)
66. Match the entries in Column I with the correctly related quantum number(s) in Column II. Indicate your answer
by darkening the appropriate bubbles of the 4 4 matrix given in the ORS
Column I Column II
(A) Oribital angular momentum of the electron (p) Principal quantum number
in a hydrogen-like atomic orbital

t d. )
(B) A hydrogen-like one-electron wave function (q) Azimuthal quantum number
obeying Pauli principle
s L
i ce
(r) Magnetic quantumvnumber
er
(C) Shape, size and orientation of hydrogen-like
lS
on a
atomic orbitals
(s) Electrontispin quantum number
u ca
(D) Probability density of electron at the nucleus
d
hE
in hydrogen-like atom
Answer A(q); B(s); C(p, q, r), D(p, q, r)
ka s
f A a
o
i on
(D i vi s

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