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A network designer is considering whether to implement a switch block on the company

network. What is the primary advantage of deploying a switch block?

A single core router provides all the routing between VLANs.

The failure of a switch block will not impact all end users.

This is a security feature that is available on all new Catalyst switches.

This is network application software that prevents the failure of a single network device.

Which characteristic would most influence a network design engineer to select a multilayer
switch over a Layer 2 switch?

ability to build a routing table

ability to aggregate multiple ports for maximum data throughput

ability to provide power to directly-attached devices and the switch itself

ability to have multiple forwarding paths through the switched network based on VLAN
number(s)

What are three access layer switch features that are considered when designing a network?
(Choose three.)

broadcast traffic containment

failover capability

forwarding rate

port density

Power over Ethernet

speed of convergence

In a large enterprise network, which two functions are performed by routers at the distribution
layer? (Choose two.)

connect remote networks

provide Power over Ethernet to devices

connect users to the network

provide data traffic security


provide a high-speed network backbone

A set of switches is being connected in a LAN topology. Which STP bridge priority value will
make it least likely for the switch to be selected as the root?

4096

32768

61440

65535

Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be the root bridge after the election process is
complete?

S1

S2

S3

S4

Refer to the exhibit. What are the possible port roles for ports A, B, C, and D in this RSTP-
enabled network?

alternate, root, designated, root

designated, root, alternate, root

alternate, designated, root, root

designated, alternate, root, root

A network administrator enters the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default command. What
is the result of this command being issued on a Cisco switch?

Any switch port will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.

Any trunk ports will be allowed to connect to the network immediately, rather than waiting to
converge.

Any switch port that has been configured with PortFast will be error-disabled if it
receives a BPDU.

Any switch port that receives a BPDU will ignore the BPDU message.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring PVST+ for the three switches.
What will be a result of entering these commands?

S1 will set the priority value for VLAN 10 to 0.

S2 will set the priority value for VLAN 10 to 24576.

S3 will set the priority value for VLAN 30 to 8192.

S1 will set the priority value for VLAN 20 to 24596.

Refer to the exhibit. Which destination MAC address is used when frames are sent from the
workstation to the default gateway?

MAC address of the forwarding router

MAC addresses of both the forwarding and standby routers

MAC address of the standby router

MAC address of the virtual router

A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop
router redundancy protocols. Which statement is a feature that is associated with GLBP?

GLBP allows load balancing between routers.

It is nonproprietary.

It uses a virtual router master.

It works together with VRRP.

A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop
router redundancy protocols. Which statement describes a feature that is associated with
HSRP?

HSRP uses active and standby routers.

It uses ICMP messages in order to assign the default gateway to hosts.

It allows load balancing between a group of redundant routers.

HSRP is nonproprietary.

Which function is provided by EtherChannel?

spreading traffic across multiple physical WAN links


dividing the bandwidth of a single link into separate time slots

enabling traffic from multiple VLANs to travel over a single Layer 2 link

creating one logical link by using multiple physical links between two LAN switches

Which mode configuration setting would allow formation of an EtherChannel link between
switches SW1 and SW2 without sending negotiation traffic?

SW1: on

SW2: on

SW1: desirable

SW2: desirable

SW1: auto

SW2: auto

trunking enabled on both switches

SW1: auto

SW2: auto

PortFast enabled on both switches

SW1: passive

SW2: active

Which two channel group modes would place an interface in a negotiating state using PAgP?
(Choose two.)

on

desirable

active

auto

passive

What are two requirements to be able to configure an EtherChannel between two switches?
(Choose two.)
The interfaces that are involved need to be contiguous on the switch.

All the interfaces need to work at the same speed.

All the interfaces need to be working in the same duplex mode.

All interfaces need to be assigned to different VLANs.

Different allowed ranges of VLANs must exist on each end.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the output? (Choose two.)

The EtherChannel is down.

The port channel ID is 2.

The port channel is a Layer 3 channel.

The bundle is fully operational.

The load-balancing method used is source port to destination port.

What two conditions have to be met in order to form a cluster that includes 5 access points?
(Choose two.)

Clustering mode must be enabled on the APs.

At least two controllers are needed to form the cluster.

The APs have to be connected on the same network segment.

The APs must all be configured to use different radio modes.

The APs must use different cluster names.

A remote classroom can successfully access video-intensive streaming lectures via wired
computers. However, when an 802.11n wireless access point is installed and used with 25
wireless laptops to access the same lectures, poor audio and video quality is experienced.
Which wireless solution would improve the performance for the laptops?

Decrease the power of the wireless transmitter.

Add another access point.

Upgrade the access point to one that can route.

Adjust the wireless NICs in the laptops to operate at 10GHz to be compatible with 802.11n.
Which wireless network topology is being configured by a technician who is installing a
keyboard, a mouse, and headphones, each of which uses Bluetooth?

ad hoc mode

hotspot

infrastructure mode

mixed mode

What are the two methods that are used by a wireless NIC to discover an AP? (Choose two.)

sending an ARP request

delivering a broadcast frame

transmitting a probe request

initiating a three-way handshake

receiving a broadcast beacon frame

At a local college, students are allowed to connect to the wireless network without using a
password. Which mode is the access point using?

network

open

passive

shared-key

Which wireless encryption method is the most secure?

WPA

WEP

WPA2 with TKIP

WPA2 with AES

Users on an IEEE 801.11n network are complaining of slow speeds. The network
administrator checks the AP and verifies it is operating properly. What can be done to improve
the wireless performance in the network?
Split the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz band.

Change the authentication method on the AP.

Switch to an 802.11g AP.

Set the AP to mixed mode.

A network engineer is implementing security on all company routers. Which two commands
must be issued to force authentication via the password 1C34dE for all OSPF-enabled
interfaces in the backbone area of the company network? (Choose two.)

ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 1C34dE

area 1 authentication message-digest

username OSPF password 1C34dE

enable password 1C34dE

area 0 authentication message-digest

Refer to the exhibit. When the show ip ospf neighbor command is given from the R1#
prompt, no output is shown. However, when the show ip interface brief command is given, all
interfaces are showing up and up. What is the most likely problem?

R2 has not brought the S0/0/1 interface up yet.

R1 or R2 does not have a loopback interface that is configured yet.

The ISP has not configured a static route for the ABC Company yet.

R1 or R2 does not have a network statement for the 172.16.100.0 network.

R1 has not sent a default route down to R2 by using the default-information originate
command.

What are two methods to make the OSPF routing protocol more secure? (Choose two.)

Use only OSPFv3.

Use MD5 authentication.

Use the enable secret command.

When feasible, create a VPN tunnel between each OSPF neighbor adjacency.
Use the passive-interface command on LAN interfaces that are connected only to end-
user devices.

A network engineer is troubleshooting a single-area OSPFv3 implementation across routers


R1, R2, and R3. During the verification of the implementation, it is noted that the routing
tables on R1 and R2 do not include the entry for a remote LAN on R3. Examination of R3
shows the following:

that all interfaces have correct addressing

that the routing process has been globally configured

that correct router adjacencies have formed

What additional action taken on R3 could solve the problem?

Enable the OSPFv3 routing process on the interface connected to the remote LAN.

Use the network command to configure the LAN network under the global routing process.

Force DR/BDR elections to occur where required.

Restart the OPSFv3 routing process.

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is troubleshooting missing OSPFv3 routes on a


router. What is the cause of the problem based on the command output?

There is a problem with the OSPFv3 adjacency between the local router and the router
that is using the neighbor ID 2.2.2.2.

The local router has formed complete neighbor adjacencies, but must be in a 2WAY state for
the router databases to be fully synchronized.

The dead time must be higher than 30 for all routers to form neighbor adjacencies.

The neighbor IDs are incorrect. The interfaces must use only IPv6 addresses to ensure fully
synchronized routing databases.

When does an OSPF router become an ABR?

when the router has interfaces in different areas

when the router is configured as an ABR by the network administrator

when the router has the highest router ID

when the router has an OSPF priority of 0


Which type of OSPF LSA represents an external route and is propagated across the entire
OSPF domain?

type 1

type 2

type 3

type 4

type 5

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about network 192.168.1.0 in the R2 routing
table?

This network has been learned from an internal router within the same area.

This network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR.

This network is directly connected to the interface GigabitEthernet0/0.

This network should be used to forward traffic toward external networks.

What are two features of OSPF interarea route summarization? (Choose two.)

ASBRs perform all OSPF summarization.

Routes within an area are summarized by the ABR.

ABRs advertise the summarized routes into the backbone.

Type 3 and type 5 LSAs are used to propagate summarized routes by default.

Route summarization results in high network traffic and router overhead.

Refer to the exhibit. A company has migrated from single area OSPF to multiarea. However,
none of the users from network 192.168.1.0/24 in the new area can be reached by anyone in
the Branch1 office. From the output in the exhibit, what is the problem?

There are no interarea routes in the routing table for network 192.168.1.0.

The OSPF routing process is inactive.

The link to the new area is down.

The router has not established any adjacencies with other OSPF routers.
When are EIGRP update packets sent?

only when necessary

when learned routes age out

every 5 seconds via multicast

every 30 seconds via broadcast

Which two statements are correct about EIGRP acknowledgment packets? (Choose two.)

The packets are sent in response to hello packets.

The packets are used to discover neighbors that are connected on an interface.

The packets are sent as unicast.

The packets require confirmation.

The packets are unreliable.

Refer to the exhibit. If router B is to be configured for EIGRP AS 100, which configuration
must be entered?

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3

B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 255.255.255.248

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 255.255.255.248

B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 255.255.255.192

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63


B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.63

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255

An administrator issues the router eigrp 100 command on a router. What is the number 100
used for?

as the autonomous system number

as the number of neighbors supported by this router

as the length of time this router will wait to hear hello packets from a neighbor

as the maximum bandwidth of the fastest interface on the router

A network administrator wants to verify the default delay values for the interfaces on an
EIGRP-enabled router. Which command will display these values?

show ip protocols

show running-config

show interfaces

show ip route

Which two parameters does EIGRP use by default to calculate the best path? (Choose two.)

delay

MTU

reliability

transmit and receive load

bandwidth

Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be derived from the output? (Choose two.)

There is one feasible successor to network 192.168.1.8/30.

The network 192.168.10.8/30 can be reached through 192.168.11.1.

The reported distance to network 192.168.1.0/24 is 41024256.


The neighbor 172.16.6.1 meets the feasibility condition to reach the 192.168.1.0/24
network.

Router R1 has two successors to the 172.16.3.0/24 network.

When will a router that is running EIGRP put a destination network in the active state?

when the EIGRP domain is converged

when there is outgoing traffic toward the destination network

when there is an EIGRP message from the successor of the destination network

when the connection to the successor of the destination network fails and there is no
feasible successor available

Which address is used by an IPv6 EIGRP router as the source for hello messages?

the 32-bit router ID

the IPv6 global unicast address that is configured on the interface

the all-EIGRP-routers multicast address

the interface IPv6 link-local address

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 eigrp neighbors command.
Which conclusion can be drawn based on the output?

The link-local addresses of neighbor routers interfaces are configured manually.

R1 has two neighbors. They connect to R1 through their S0/0/0 and S0/0/1 interfaces.

The neighbor with the link-local address FE80::5 is the first EIGRP neighbor that is learned
by R1.

If R1 does not receive a hello packet from the neighbor with the link-local address FE80::5 in
2 seconds, it will declare the neighbor router is down.

Refer to the exhibit. Which route or routes will be advertised to the router ISP if
autosummarization is enabled?

10.0.0.0/8

10.1.0.0/16

10.1.0.0/28
10.1.1.0/24

10.1.2.0/24

10.1.3.0/24

10.1.4.0/28

By default, how many equal cost routes to the same destination can be installed in the routing
table of a Cisco router?

16

32

When a Cisco router is configured with fast-switching, how are packets distributed over
equal-cost paths?

on a per-packet basis

on a per-interface basis

on a per-path-load basis

on a per-destination basis

Refer to the exhibit. Router CiscoVille has been partially configured for EIGRP
authentication. What is missing that would allow successful authentication between EIGRP
neighbors?

The interfaces that will use EIGRP authentication must be specified.

The same key number must be used on any EIGRP neighbor routers.

The keychain for EIGRP authentication must be configured on the interfaces.

The CiscoVIlle router requires a second keychain to function correctly when using two
interfaces for EIGRP authentication.

When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?

when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes

when a router has more than three active interfaces


when a network contains discontiguous network addresses

when a router has less than five active interfaces

when a network addressing scheme uses VLSM

Refer to the exhibit. Why did R1 and R2 not establish an adjacency?

R1 S0/0/0 and R2 S0/0/0 are on different networks.

The AS number must be the same on R1 and R2.

The link-local address must be the same on both routers.

The no shutdown command is misapplied on both routers.

The router ID must be the same on both routers.

Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a
Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)

Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command.

Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.

Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version command.

Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.

Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show
flash command.

Which requirement should be checked before a network administrator performs an IOS image
upgrade on a router?

The FTP server is operational.

The old IOS image file has been deleted.

There is sufficient space in flash memory.

The desired IOS image file has been downloaded to the router.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is attempting to upgrade the IOS system image
on a Cisco 2901 router. After the new image has been downloaded and copied to the TFTP
server, what command should be issued on the router before the IOS system image is
upgraded on the router?
dir flash:

ping 10.10.10.1

copy tftp: flash0:

ping 10.10.10.2

What is the purpose of the Cisco PAK?

It is a key for enabling an IOS feature set.

It is a proprietary encryption algorithm.

It is a compression file type used when installing IOS 15 or an IOS upgrade.

It is a way to compress an existing IOS so that a newer IOS version can be co-installed on a
router.

Which Cisco IOS Software Release 15.0 technology pack is shipped with a permanent license
on all Cisco ISR G2 devices?

IPBase

DATA

Unified Communications

Security

A network administrator issues the command R1(config)# license boot module c1900
technology-package securityk9 on a router. What is the effect of this command?

The IOS will prompt the user to reboot the router.

The features in the Security package are available immediately.

The IOS will prompt the user to provide a UDI in order to activate the license.

The Evaluation Right-To-Use license for the Security technology package is activated.

What two license states would be expected on a new Cisco router once the license has been
activated? (Choose two.)

License Type: ipbasek9

License Type: Permanent


License Type: Temporary

License State: Active, In Use

License State: Active, Registered

License State: On

Fill in the blank.

The area interconnects with all other OSPF area types.

Correct Answer: backbone

Scaling Networks (Version 5.02)

2
Refer to the exhibit. What are two consequences of issuing the
displayed commands? (Choose two.)

The routing update information is protected against being falsified.*


The key is encrypted with the MD5 hashing algorithm. *
The routing table of R2 will be secured.
OSPF routes will get priority over EIGRP routes going into the routing table.
The overhead of OSPF information exchange will reduce.

3
What two STP features are incorporated into Rapid PVST+? (Choose
two.)

loop guard
BPDU guard
BPDU filter
UplinkFast *
BackboneFast*
PortFast

4
What are two reasons to enable OSPF routing protocol
authentication on a network? (Choose two.)

to prevent data traffic from being redirected and then discarded *


to ensure faster network convergence
to provide data security through encryption
to prevent redirection of data traffic to an insecure link *
to ensure more efficient routing

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the show ip


eigrp neighbors command. What can be concluded from the output?
An EIGRP neighbor with IP address 10.10.10.14 is connected to R1 via serial
interface 0/1/0.
If R1 does not receive a Hello packet in 4 seconds from the neighbor with IP
10.10.10.18, it will declare the neighbor is down.
There is no incoming EIGRP message at this moment.
The first EIGRP neighbor R1 learned about has the IP address
10.10.10.2.*

6
What are three characteristics of the Cisco IOS Software Release
12.4T train? (Choose three.)

It receives regular software fixes that are synchronized with the 12.4
Mainline train.*
It has a number of embedded technology packages.
It requires the activation of a license.
It is updated with new features and hardware support. *
It is derived from the Cisco IOS Software Release 12.4 Mainline
train.*
It has extended maintenance new feature releases approximately every 16 to
20 months.
8

Refer to the exhibit. How did this router learn of the highlighted
route in the routing table?

by entering the router configuration mode command default-information


originate
by entering the global configuration mode command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
ip-address
by entering the global configuration mode command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
interface-type interface-number
by receiving an update from another OSPF router that is running another
routing protocol
by receiving an update from another OSPF router that has the
default-information originate command configured*

9
When the show spanning-tree vlan 33 command is issued on a
switch, three ports are shown in the forwarding state. In which two
port roles could these interfacesfunction while in the forwarding
state? (Choose two.)

blocked
disabled
designated *
alternate
root*

10
Which method of wireless authentication is currently considered to
be the strongest?

WEP
WPA2 *
WPA
shared key
open

11
When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which
mode will configure LACP on a port only if the port receives LACP
packets from another device?
passive*
auto
desirable
active

12
While attending a conference, participants are using laptops for
network connectivity. When a guest speaker attempts to connect to
the network, the laptop fails to display any available wireless
networks. The access point must be operating in which mode?

active*
passive
mixed
open

13

Fill in the blank.


By default, EIGRP is able to use up to 50 percent of the bandwidth for
EIGRP messages on an EIGRP-enabled

interface.

14
Which model and which two characteristics would be more likely to
be considered in purchasing an access layer switch, as compared to
buying switches that operate at the other layers of the Cisco
hierarchical design model? (Choose three.)

RSTP
EtherChannel
PoE *
number of ports *
Catalyst 4500X
Catalyst 2960

15
What is the purpose of issuing the ip ospf message-digest-key key
md5 password command and the area area-id authentication
message-digest command on a router?

to facilitate the establishment of neighbor adjacencies


to encrypt OSPF routing updates
to enable OSPF MD5 authentication on a per-interface basis
to configure OSPF MD5 authentication globally on the router*

16
Which two metric weights are set to one by default when costs in
EIGRP are being calculated? (Choose two.)
k4
k3*
k2
k1*
k6
k5

17
What are two reasons to install a single 48-port fixed configuration
switch, rather than two 24-port fixed configuration switches, in a
wiring closet that supports two classrooms? (Choose two.)

more ports available for end devices *


more power provided to each port
higher uplink speeds
reduced power and space requirements *
reduced number of VLANs/broadcast domains

18
In the Cisco hierarchical design model, which layer is more likely to
have a fixed configuration switch than the other layers?

access *
internet
transport
core
distribution

19
Which step supports disaster recovery and should be performed first
when upgrading an IOS system image on a Cisco router?

Delete the current image from flash memory.


Configure the router to load the new image from the TFTP server.
Copy the current image from the router to a TFTP server. *
Use the boot system command to configure the router to load the new image.

20

Refer to the exhibit. Two routers have been configured to use EIGRP.
Packets are not being forwarded between the two routers. What
could be the problem?
An incorrect IP address was configured on a router interface. *
The default bandwidth was used on the routers.
The routers were not configured to monitor neighbor adjacency changes.
EIGRP does not support VLSM.

21

Refer to the exhibit. Which destination MAC address is used when


frames are sent from the workstation to the default gateway?

MAC addresses of both the forwarding and standby routers


MAC address of the forwarding router
MAC address of the standby router
MAC address of the virtual router *

22

Fill in the blank.


In RSTP, BPDU frames are sent every 2 seconds by default
23

Refer to the exhibit. Which switching technology would allow data to


be transmitted over each access layer switch link and prevent the
port from being blocked by spanning tree due to the redundant link?

trunking
EtherChannel *
PortFast
HSRP

24
In which mode is the area area-id range address mask command
issued when multiarea OSPF summarization is being configured?

global configuration mode


interface configuration mode of all participating interfaces
router configuration mode *
interface configuration mode of area 0 interfaces

25
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions
and then answer the question.
Why are users in the OSPF network not able to access the Internet?

The interface that is connected to the ISP router is down.


The default route is not redistributed correctly from router R1 by OSPF.
The OSPF network statements are misconfigured on the routers R2 and R3.
The OSPF timers that are configured on the routers R1, R2, and R3 are not
compatible.
The network statement is misconfigured on the router R1.*

26
Which statement describes the Autonomous System number that is
used in EIGRP?

It identifies the priority of the networks to be included in update packets.


It is associated with the global Autonomous System number that is assigned
by IANA.
It specifies the EIGRP routing process on a router. *
It defines the reliability of the EIGRP routing protocol.
27

Refer to the exhibit. Why are some of the entries marked O IA?

They correspond to entries that are learned from other routing protocols.
They are default routes that are learned from other routing protocols.
They represent summary routes that are internal to the area.
They correspond to entries that are learned from other areas.*

28
Which command can be issued on a router to display information
about the successors and feasible successors for a destination
network when EIGRP is used as the routing protocol?

show ip eigrp topology *


show ip protocols
show ip eigrp interfaces
show ip eigrp neighbors

29
What does an OSPF area contain?

routers that share the same router ID


routers that have the same link-state information in their LSDBs *
routers whose SPF trees are identical
routers that share the same process ID

30
A network administrator is configuring the authentication for EIGRP
routing. The administrator enters these commands:

R1(config)# key chain THE_KEY


R1(config-keychain)# key 1
R1(config-keychain-key)# key-string key123
What is the next step necessary to enable the authentication for
EIGRP routing?

Configure an ACL to identify the networks that are participating in EIGRP.


Configure the priority of authentication algorithms to be used.
Configure the authentication in the router eigrp as-number configuration
mode.
Configure the authentication on all interfaces that are participating
in EIGRP.*

31
When EtherChannel is configured, which mode will force an interface
into a port channel without exchanging aggregation protocol
packets?

desirable
on *
active
auto

32
In wireless networks what is a disadvantage of using mixed mode on
an AP?

The wireless network operates slower if one device uses an older


standard wireless NIC.*
No encryption can be used by the AP or by the wireless NIC that is attached to
the AP.
Devices must be closer to the AP due to the limited distance range.
Only 802.11n wireless NICs can attach to the AP.

33
The customer of a networking company requires VPN connectivity for
workers who must travel frequently. To support the VPN server, the
customer router must be upgraded to a new Cisco IOS software
version with the Advanced IP Services feature set. What should the
field engineer do before copying the new IOS to the router?

Issue the show running-configuration command to determine the features of


the currently installed IOS image file.

Issue the show version and the show flash commands to ensure that
the router has enough memory and file space to support the new IOS
image.*

Delete the currently installed IOS by using the erase flash: command, and
reload the router

Set the router to load the new IOS image file directly from the TFTP server on
the next reboot.
34

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the bridge


ID and the status of this switch in the STP election. Which statement
is correct based on the command output?

The bridge priority of Switch_2 has been lowered to a predefined


value to become the root bridge.*
The bridge priority of Switch_2 has been lowered to a predefined value to
become the backup root bridge.
The STP instance on Switch_2 is using the default STP priority and the election
is based on Switch_2 MAC address.
The STP instance on Switch_2 is failing due to no ports being blocked and all
switches believing they are the root.

35
A network technician is attempting to upgrade an IOS system image
on a Cisco 1941 router. Which command should the technician issue
to verify the presence of sufficient free space in flash for the new
image on the router that is being upgraded?

show file system


show flash0: *
show running-config
show version

36
When would a network engineer configure an access point with
channel bonding?

when trunking is enabled between the access point and switch


when security is an issue
when older wireless NICs are being used
when more throughput is needed*

37
Which two parameters must match on the ports of two switches to
create a PAgP EtherChannel between the switches? (Choose two.)
MAC address
port ID
VLAN information *
speed *
PAgP mode

38
Which statement describes a characteristic of a Cisco Enterprise
Architecture module?

Server Farm and Data Center Module are submodules of the Enterprise Edge
module.
The Enterprise Campus only consists of the core layer of the campus
infrastructure.
The Enterprise Edge consists of the Internet, VPN, and WAN modules
connecting the enterprise with the service providers network. *
The Service Provider Edge provides QoS, policy reinforcement, service levels,
and security.

39
What is a wireless security mode that requires a RADIUS server to
authenticate wireless users?

shared key
personal
WEP
enterprise*

40
Refer to the exhibit. The routing table on R2 does not include all
networks that are attached to R1. The network administrator verifies
that the network statement is configured to include these two
networks. What is a possible cause of the issue?

The no auto-summary command is missing in the R1 configuration. *


The network statements should include the wild card mask.
The AS number does not match between R1 and R2.
The interfaces that are connected to these two networks are configured as
passive interfaces.

41
Which wireless network topology would be used by network
engineers to provide a wireless network for an entire college
building?

hotspot
ad hoc
infrastructure *
mixed mode

42

Refer to the exhibit. Why did R1 and R2 not establish an adjacency?

The automatic summarization is enabled on R1 and R2.


There is no network command for the network 192.168.1.0/24 on R1.
The IPv4 address of Fa0/0 interface of R1 has a wrong IP address.
The AS number does not match on R1 and R2.*
43
Which command will start the process to bundle two physical
interfaces to create an EtherChannel group via LACP?

channel-group 2 mode auto


interface port-channel 2
channel-group 1 mode desirable
interface range GigabitEthernet 0/4 5*

44
A laptop cannot connect to a wireless access point. Which two
troubleshooting steps should be taken first? (Choose two.)

Ensure that the laptop antenna is attached.


Ensure that the correct network media is selected.
Ensure that the NIC is configured for the proper frequency.
Ensure that the wireless NIC is enabled.*
Ensure that the wireless SSID is chosen.*

45

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ip


protocols command. Based on the exhibited output, what can be
concluded?

The EIGRP K values are default values. *


The no auto-summary command is not applied for the EIGRP operation.
Up to 4 routes of different metric values to the same destination network will
be included in the routing table.
R1 receives routes to the network 192.168.1.0/24 and 10.0.0.0/24.
47
Which routing protocol is able to scale for large networks and utilizes
non-backbone areas for expansion?

BGP
RIPv2
OSPF *
EIGRP

48
What are two advantages of EtherChannel? (Choose two.)

Load balancing occurs between links configured as different EtherChannels.


Spanning Tree Protocol views the physical links in an EtherChannel
as one logical connection.*
EtherChannel uses upgraded physical links to provide increased bandwidth.
Configuring the EtherChannel interface provides consistency in the
configuration of the physical links. *
Spanning Tree Protocol ensures redundancy by transitioning failed interfaces
in an EtherChannel to a forwarding state.

49
A network administrator is troubleshooting the EIGRP routing
between two routers, R1 and R2. The problem is found to be that
only some, but not all networks attached to R1 are listed in the
routing table of router R2. What should the administrator investigate
on router R1 to determine the cause of the problem?

Does the hello interval setting match the hello interval on R2?
Does the AS number match the AS number on R2?
Do the network commands include all the networks to be advertised?
*
Is the interface connected to R2 configured as a passive interface?

50

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is preparing to upgrade the IOS


system image on a Cisco 2901 router. Based on the output shown, how much
space is available for the new image?

25574400 bytes
33591768 bytes
249856000 bytes
221896413 bytes*

====================

Which port role is assigned to the switch port that has the lowest
cost to reach the root bridge?
disabled port
non-designated port
root port*
designated port
CCNA 3 Scaling Networks Chapter 1 v5.0 Exam
Answers 2014
1
What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to
users through a wireless medium? (Choose two.)

increased network management options

reduced costs*

increased flexibility*

increased bandwidth availability

decreased number of critical points of failure

2
A network engineer is reviewing a network design that uses a fixed
configuration enterprise router that supports both LAN and WAN
connections. However, the engineer realizes that the router does not
have enough interfaces to support growth and network expansion.
Which type of device should be used as a replacement?

a PoE device

another fixed configuration router

a modular router*

a Layer 3 switch

3
What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.

It increases the size of the broadcast domain.

It manages the VLAN database.

It determines the best path to send packets.*

It connects multiple IP networks.*

4
Which design feature will limit the size of a failure domain in an
enterprise network?

the purchase of enterprise equipment that is designed for large traffic volume
the installation of redundant power supplies

the use of the building switch block approach*

the use of a collapsed core design

5
How can an enterprise network be designed to optimize bandwidth?

by installing devices with failover capabilities

by deploying a collapsed core model

by organizing the network to control traffic patterns*

by limiting the size of failure domains

6
As the network administrator you have been asked to implement
EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this
configuration consist of?

grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two


switches*

providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic

grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address

providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device


failure

7
Which technology is required when switched networks are designed
to include redundant links?

Spanning Tree Protocol*

virtual LANs

link aggregation

virtual private networks

8
Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Catalyst 2960
switches?

New Cisco Catalyst 2960-C switches support PoE pass-through.*

They are best used as distribution layer switches.


They do not support an active switched virtual interface (SVI) with IOS
versions prior to 15.x.

They are modular switches.

Refer to the exhibit. Which devices exist in the failure domain when
switch S3 loses power?

PC_3 and PC_2

AP_2 and AP_1

S4 and PC_2

PC_3 and AP_2*

S1 and S4

10
Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network
administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From
privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the
administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)

show flash

show startup-config*
show NVRAM

show version

show running-config*

11
A network administrator is planning redundant devices and cabling
in a switched network to support high availability. Which benefit will
implementing the Spanning Tree Protocol provide to this design?

Redundant paths can be available without causing logical Layer 2


loops.*

Multiple physical interfaces can be combined into a single EtherChannel


interface.

Faster convergence is available for advanced routing protocols.

Network access can be expanded to support both wired and wireless devices.

12
Which two requirements must always be met to use in-band
management to configure a network device? (Choose two.)

at least one network interface that is connected and operational*

a terminal emulation client

a direct connection to the console port

a direct connection to the auxiliary port

Telnet, SSH, or HTTP access to the device*

13
Place the options in the following order:

connectivity

not scored

identification

access remote networks

security

14
In which situation would a network administrator install a Cisco
Nexus Series or Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series switch to promote
infrastructure scalability?

on a service provider network to promote integrated security, and simplified


management

on a data center network to provide expansion and transport


flexibility*

to enable virtual stacking of switches to provide cloud-managed access

on a campus LAN network as access layer switches

15
Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Meraki switches?

They are service provider switches that aggregate traffic at the edge of the
network.

They are cloud-managed access switches that enable virtual stacking


of switches.*
They are campus LAN switches that perform the same functions as Cisco
2960 switches.

They promote infrastructure scalability, operational continuity, and transport


flexibility.
16
Why would a network administrator issue the show cdp neigbors
command on a router?

to display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors

to display device ID and other information about directly connected


Cisco devices*

to display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco
devices

to display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco
devices
17
What is a characteristic of in-band device management?

It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network


device over a network connection.*

It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.

It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable.

It uses a terminal emulation client.

18
Which two features of enterprise class equipment assists an
enterprise network in maintaining 99.999 percent up-time? (Choose
two.)

failure domains

services module

collapsed core

redundant power supplies*

failover capabilities*
CCNA 3 Scaling Networks Chapter 2 v5.0 Exam
Answers 2014
1
Which protocol provides up to 16 instances of RSTP, combines many
VLANs with the same physical and logical topology into a common
RSTP instance, and provides support for PortFast, BPDU guard, BPDU
filter, root guard, and loop guard?

STP

Rapid PVST+

PVST+

MST*

2
Which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause suboptimal
traffic flows because they assume only one spanning-tree instance
for the entire bridged network? (Choose two.)

STP*

RSTP*

MSTP

Rapid PVST+

PVST+

3
Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol information is being displayed in
the output?

HSRP

VRRP

GLBP*

FHRP

4
A network administrator is preparing the implementation of Rapid
PVST+ on a production network. How are the Rapid PVST+ link types
determined on the switch interfaces?

Link types can only be configured on access ports configured with a single
VLAN.

Link types must be configured with specific port configuration commands.

Link types are determined automatically.*

Link types can only be determined if PortFast has been configured.

5
Which RSTP ports are connected to end devices?

root ports
designated ports

trunk ports

edge ports*

6
If no bridge priority is configured in PVST, which criteria is
considered when electing the root bridge?

highest IP address

lowest MAC address*

lowest IP address

highest MAC address

7
Which port state will switch ports immediately transition to when
configured for PortFast?

learning

blocking

forwarding*

listening

8
To obtain an overview of the spanning tree status of a switched
network, a network engineer issues the show spanning-tree
command on a switch. Which two items of information will this
command display? (Choose two.)

The role of the ports in all VLANs.*

The IP address of the management VLAN interface.

The number of broadcasts received on each root port.

The status of native VLAN ports.

The root bridge BID.*

9
Launch PT Hide and Save PT
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions
and then answer the question.
Which switch is the root bridge?

Switch_1

Switch_2

Switch_4*

Switch_3

10
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
The spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst global configuration command is
used to enable Rapid PVST+.

11
Which STP priority configuration would ensure that a switch would
always be the root switch?

spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary


spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 4096

spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0*

spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 61440

12
Which nonproprietary protocol provides router redundancy for a
group of routers which support IPv4 LANs?

VRRPv2*

SLB

GLBP

HSRP

13
Fill in the blank.
In FHRP operation, two or more routers are represented as a single virtual
router.

14
Which three components are combined to form a bridge ID?

extended system ID*

MAC address*

port ID

IP address

cost

bridge priority*

15
What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 loop?

A switch is continually forwarding the same unicast frame.

Broadcast frames are forwarded back to the sending switch.*

Routers continually forward packets to other routers.

The Time-to-Live attribute of a frame is set to infinity.


16
Which two network design features require Spanning Tree Protocol
(STP) to ensure correct network operation? (Choose two.)

redundant links between Layer 2 switches*

removing single points of failure with multiple Layer 2 switches*

link-state dynamic routing that provides redundant routes

static default routes

implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts

17
What additional information is contained in the 12-bit extended
system ID of a BPDU?

MAC address

VLAN ID*

port ID

IP address

18
What is an advantage of PVST+?

PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through load sharing.*

PVST+ requires fewer CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.

PVST+ reduces bandwidth consumption compared to traditional


implementations of STP that use CST.

PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through autoselection of the


root bridge.

19
What is the purpose of HSRP?

It prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports.

It enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding state.

It prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.

It provides a continuous network connection when a router fails.*


20
In which two port states does a switch learn MAC addresses and
process BPDUs in a PVST network? (Choose two.)

listening

learning*

forwarding*

disabled

blocking

21

Place the options in the following order:


Step 4
not scored
Step 3
Step 1
Step 2

22
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is troubleshooting host
connectivity on a LAN that uses a first hop redundancy protocol.
Which IPv4 gateway address should be configured on the host?

192.168.2.0

192.168.2.1

192.168.2.2

192.168.2.100*

23
What is the outcome of a Layer 2 broadcast storm?

CSMA/CD will cause each host to continue transmitting frames.

ARP broadcast requests are returned to the transmitting host.

Routers will take over the forwarding of frames as switches become


congested.

New traffic is discarded by the switch because it is unable to be


processed.*
CCNA 3 Scaling Networks Chapter 3 v5.0 Exam
Answers 2014
1
When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which
mode will configure LACP so that it initiates the EtherChannel
negotiation?

desirable

auto

active*

passive

Place the options in the following order:

This command shows information about the status of the port


involved in the Etherchannel.

not scored

This command shows information about the reliability of the port-


channel.

This command is used to check what port channels are configured on


a switch.
This command shows the list of ports involved in the port channel
and the time since the ports were bundled.
3
What is an advantage of using LACP?

decreases the chance of a spanning-tree loop

provides a simulated environment for testing link aggregation

allows automatic formation of EtherChannel links*

decreases the amount of configuration that is needed on a switch for


EtherChannel

increases redundancy to Layer 3 devices

4
Which command will initiate EtherChannel interface configuration
mode?

interface port-channel interface-identifier*

interface interface-identifier

interface range interface-identifier

channel-group group-identifier

5
Launch PT Hide and Save PT
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions
and then answer the question.
What are two reasons why the ping messages that are issued from
Laptop0 towards Laptop1 are failing? (Choose two.)

The wrong cable types are connecting the two switches.

The channel group mode is not set correctly on the switches.

The interface VLAN 1 is shut down on both switches.

The channel group should be configured as a trunk on each switch.*

The two interfaces on each of the switches belong to different


VLANs.*

6
Which three options must match in order to establish an
EtherChannel between two directly connected switches? (Choose
three.)
speed of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel*

port numbers that are used for the EtherChannel

VLAN memberships of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel*

duplex settings of the interfaces that are used for EtherChannel*

port security settings on the interfaces that used for EtherChannel

domain names on the switches

Refer to the exhibit. Which switching technology would allow each


access layer switch link to be aggregated to provide more bandwidth
between each Layer 2 switch and the Layer 3 switch?

trunking

EtherChannel*

HSRP

PortFast

8
Which statement is true regarding the use of PAgP to create
EtherChannels?

It requires more physical links than LACP does.

It mandates that an even number of ports (2, 4, 6, etc.) be used for


aggregation.

It is Cisco proprietary.*

It increases the number of ports that are participating in spanning tree.

It requires full duplex.


9
Which PAgP mode combination will establish an EtherChannel?

switch 1 set to desirable; switch 2 set to desirable.*

switch 1 set to on; switch 2 set to desirable.

switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to auto.

switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to on.

10
What is a best practice to use before beginning an EtherChannel
implementation?

Shut down each of the affected interfaces.*

Assign affected interfaces to VLAN 1.

Assign affected interfaces to the management VLAN.

Enable each of the affected interfaces.

Assign affected interfaces to an unused VLAN.

11
Which two protocols are link aggregation protocols? (Choose two.)

STP

802.3ad*

EtherChannel

RSTP

PAgP*

12
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided that an
EtherChannel between ports 0/1 and 0/2 on switches S1 and S2
would help performance. After making the configuration, the
administrator notices no performance gain. Based on the output that
is shown, what two possible assumptions could a network
administrator make? (Choose two.)

The EtherChannel bundle is working.

One of the ports on S2 was not configured correctly.*

Switch S2 must be configured so that the maximum number of port channels


is increased.

LACP and PAgP were both used to form the EtherChannel.

Switch S2 did not use a compatible EtherChannel mode.

The EtherChannel bundle is not working.*

13
Which statement describes an EtherChannel implementation?

EtherChannel can connect up to a maximum of eight separate links.

EtherChannel operates only at Layer 2.

PAgP cannot be used in conjunction with EtherChannel.

A trunked port can be part of an EtherChannel bundle.*


14
When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel by the
use of PAgP, which mode will form the bundled channel only if the
port receives PAgP packets from another device?

active

desirable

auto*

passive

15
As the network administrator you have been asked to implement
EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this
configuration consist of?

grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two


switches*

grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address

providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device


failure

providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic

16

Refer to the exhibit. The administrator tried to create an


EtherChannel between S1 and the other two switches via the
commands that are shown, but was unsuccessful. What is the
problem?
Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches through the same
EtherChannel link.*

Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is


implemented on Gigabit Ethernet interfaces.

Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is


implemented on Layer 3 switches.

Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches, but only to two different
devices like an EtherChannel-enabled server and a switch.

17
An EtherChannel link using LACP was formed between two switches,
S1 and S2. While verifying the configuration, which mode
combination could be utilized on both switches?

S1-on and S2-active

S1-passive and S2-active*

S1-passive and S2-passive

S1-on and S2-passive

18
What is the most cost-effective method of solving interface
congestion that is caused by a high level of traffic between two
switches?

aggregate ports by using EtherChannel*

insert a router between the switches

increase uplink speed

add more VLANs to reduce broadcast domains

19
Refer to the exhibit. An EtherChannel was configured between
switches S1 and S2, but the interfaces do not form an EtherChannel.
What is the problem?

The interface port-channel number has to be different on each switch.

The switch ports were not configured with speed and duplex mode.

The EtherChannel was not configured with the same allowed range of
VLANs on each interface.*

The switch ports have to be configured as access ports with each port having
a VLAN assigned.

20
Which two load balancing methods can be implemented with
EtherChannel technology? (Choose two.)

destination IP to source IP

destination MAC to destination IP

source IP to destination IP*

source MAC to destination MAC*

destination IP to destination MAC

destination MAC to source MAC


CCNA 3 Scaling Networks Chapter 4 v5.0 Exam
Answers 2014
1

Launch PT Hide and Save PT


Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions
and then answer the question.
What is the SSID of the connected network and which message is
displayed in the browser window?

SSID: Home-Network
Message: Well done!

SSID: Home-Network
Message: Good job!
SSID: Home-Net
Message:Congratulations! You did it!

SSID: Home-Net
Message:Congratulations! You were able to connect it! *

2
A administrator wishes to extend the range of the existing IEEE
802.11n network without changing the AP. What can the
administrator do to accomplish this?

Change to WPA2 authentication.

Deploy a Wi-Fi Range Extender.*

Split the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz
band.

Upgrade the firmware on the AP.

3
Which security mode is the least secure choice when a home wireless
router is configured?

WPA

WEP*

WPA2-Personal

WPA2

4
Which two roles are typically performed by a wireless router that is
used in a home or small business? (Choose two.)

RADIUS authentication server

repeater

access point*

WLAN controller

Ethernet switch*

5
Which organization certifies vendors for adherence to the 802.11
standards to improve interoperability of 802.11 products?
IEEE

FCC

ITU-R

Wi-Fi Alliance*

6
Which feature of 802.11n wireless access points allows them to
transmit data at faster speeds than previous versions of 802.11 Wi-Fi
standards did?

MITM

SPS

MIMO*

WPS

7
Which type of wireless topology is created when two or more Basic
Service Sets are interconnected by Ethernet?

ESS*

BSS

IBISS

ad hoc WLAN

WiFi Direct

8
If three 802.11b access points need to be deployed in close
proximity, which three frequency channels should be used? (Choose
three.)

1*

6*

8
11*

9
What type of wireless antenna is best suited for providing coverage
in large open spaces, such as hallways or large conference rooms?

Yagi

omnidirectional*

directional

dish

10
Which three Wi-Fi standards operate in the 2.4GHz range of
frequencies? (Choose three.)

802.11b*

802.11n*

802.11ac

802.11a

802.11g*

11
What is the purpose of the Distributed Coordination Function in an
IEEE 802.11 WLAN environment?

It is used to send data over a half-duplex connection.

It is used in a full-duplex environment to detect collisions.

It allows a client to detect whether or not a channel is clear prior to


transmission.*

It allows the client to change transmission channels.

12
An employee connects wirelessly to the company network using a
cell phone. The employee then configures the cell phone to act as a
wireless access point that will allow new employees to connect to the
company network. Which type of security threat best describes this
situation?

rogue access point*


spoofing

cracking

denial of service

13
During which stage of establishing connectivity between a WLAN
client and an AP does the client learn the MAC address of the AP?

encryption

authentication

discovery

association*

probing

14
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
Ad hoc wireless topologies sometimes can use a feature called tethering
to enable a smartphone to create a personal hotspot.

15
What is an advantage of SSID cloaking?

It is the best way to secure a wireless network.

Clients will have to manually identify the SSID to connect to the


network.*

SSIDs are very difficult to discover because APs do not broadcast them.

It provides free Internet access in public locations where knowing the SSID is
of no concern.

16
A student uses a laptop to upload an assignment to a file server.
Which wireless frame type did the laptop send to locate and
associate with the campus access point?

data frame

beacon frame

management frame*
control frame

17
Which type of management frame may regularly be broadcast by an
AP?

authentication

beacon*

probe response

probe request

18
A company has recently implemented an 802.11n wireless network.
Some users are complaining that the wireless network is too slow.
Which solution is the best method to enhance the performance of the
wireless network?

Disable DHCP on the access point and assign static addresses to the wireless
clients.

Replace the wireless NICs on the computers that are experiencing slow
connections.

Split the traffic between the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands.*

Upgrade the firmware on the wireless access point.

19
For which discovery mode will an AP generate the most traffic on a
WLAN?

open mode

passive mode*

active mode

mixed mode

20
Which statement defines the control frame operation between two
stations?

After receiving a data frame, the receiving station will send an ACK
frame to the sending station if no errors are found.*
A station responds to an RTS frame with an ACK frame, thus providing
permission for the requesting station to send a data frame.

If the sending station does not receive an ACK frame within a predetermined
period of time, the sending station will drop the connection.

A station sends an RTS frame as the first step in a three-way handshake that
is required before sending data frames.

21
What is a difference between Cisco APs that operate in a home
environment and Cisco APs that operate in a corporate environment?

Some corporate AP models can operate in either autonomous mode


or controller-based mode.*

Controller-based APs are used in the corporate environment, and they are
server-dependent devices that require an initial configuration to operate.

Autonomous APs are used only in the home environment, and they
incorporate the functions of a router, switch, and AP into one device.

Cisco corporate APs do not support PoE.

22

Place the options in the following order:


not scored
MITM
spoofed disconnct DoS
CTS flood DoS

23
Place the options in the following order:
not scored
Step 2
Step 5
Step 1
Step 3
not scored
Step 4

CCNA 3 Scaling Networks Chapter 5 v5.0 Exam


Answers 2014
1
A network administrator has just changed the router ID on a router
that is working in an OSPFv2 environment. What should the
administrator do to reset the adjacencies and use the new router ID?

Issue the clear ip ospf process privileged mode command.*

Configure the network statements.

Change the OSPFv2 process ID.

Change the interface priority.

2
Refer to the exhibit. What three conclusions can be drawn from the
displayed output? (Choose three.)

The DR can be reached through the GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface.*

There have been 9 seconds since the last hello packet sent.*

The router ID on the DR router is 3.3.3.3

The BDR has three neighbors.

The router ID values were not the criteria used to select the DR and
the BDR.*

This interface is using the default priority.

3
When checking a routing table, a network technician notices the
following entry:

O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.16.3, 00:20:22, Serial0/0/0

What information can be gathered from this output?

This route is a propagated default route.*

The edge of the OSPF area 0 is the interface that is addressed 192.168.16.3.

The route is located two hops away.

The metric for this route is 110.

4
Which command will a network engineer issue to verify the
configured hello and dead timer intervals on a point-to-point WAN
link between two routers that are running OSPFv2?

show ipv6 ospf interface serial 0/0/0

show ip ospf neighbor

show ip ospf interface serial 0/0/0*

show ip ospf interface fastethernet 0/1

5
A network engineer has manually configured the hello interval to 15
seconds on an interface of a router that is running OSPFv2. By
default, how will the dead interval on the interface be affected?

The dead interval will not change from the default value.

The dead interval will now be 30 seconds.

The dead interval will now be 15 seconds.

The dead interval will now be 60 seconds.*

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure R1 to run


OSPFv3 but the neighbor adjacency is not forming with the router
connected to Fa0/0. What is the cause of the problem?
FastEthernet0/0 has been configured as a passive interface.

No router ID has been configured.*

A link-local address has not been configured on interface FastEthernet0/0.

The OSPF process ID and area values are backwards in the interface
configuration.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured the


OSPF timers to the values that are shown in the graphic. What is the
result of having those manually configured timers?

The R1 dead timer expires between hello packets from R2.*

The neighbor adjacency has formed.

R1 automatically adjusts its own timers to match the R2 timers.

The hello timer on R2 expires every ten seconds.


8
When OSPFv2 neighbors are establishing adjacencies, in which state
do they elect a DR and BDR router?

Two-Way state*

Loading state

Init state

Exchange state

9
Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are connected to the same LAN
segment and are configured to run OSPFv3. They are not forming a
neighbor adjacency. What is the cause of the problem?

The OSPFv3 process IDs of R1 and R2 are different.

The priority value of both R1 and R2 is 1.

The timer intervals of R1 and R2 do not match.*

The IPv6 addresses of R1 and R2 are not in the same subnet.

10
Refer to the exhibit. What kind of OSPF authentication has been
configured on this interface?

null

simple

MD5*

plain text

11
Why is MD5 authentication more secure than simple authentication
for OSPF updates?

MD5 does not send the password to the neighbor router.*

MD5 requires passwords that are at least 8 characters long.

MD5 uses both a username and a password to authenticate the neighbor.

MD5 employs IPsec to keep the updates from being intercepted.


12
Which two pieces of information are used by the OSPF MD5
algorithm to generate a signature? (Choose two.)

OSPF router ID

secret key*
router hostname

interface IP address

OSPF message*

13
A network engineer is troubleshooting convergence and adjacency
issues in an OSPFv2 network and has noted that some expected
network route entries are not displayed in the routing table. Which
two commands will provide additional information about the state of
router adjacencies, timer intervals, and the area ID? (Choose two.)

show running-configuration

show ip ospf neighbor*

show ip ospf interface*

show ip route ospf

show ip protocols

14
Why do OSPF serial interfaces usually require manual bandwidth
configuration?

OSPF uses the bandwidth value to compute routes for its routing
table.*

All serial interfaces default to a value of 1.544 Mb/s.

Each side of an OSPF serial link should be configured with a unique value.

Bandwidth value affects the actual speed of the link.

15
A network engineer is troubleshooting an OSPFv2 network and
discovers that two routers connected by a point-to-point WAN serial
link are not establishing an adjacency. The OSPF routing process,
network commands and area ID are all confirmed as correct, and the
interfaces are not passive. Testing shows that the cabling is correct,
that the link is up, and pings between the interfaces are successful.
What is most likely the problem?

A clock rate has not been set on the DCE interface of the serial link.

The OSPFv2 process IDs on each router do not match.


A DR election has not taken place.

The subnet masks on the two connected serial interfaces do not


match.*

16
A network engineer is troubleshooting OSPFv2 routing issues on two
connected routers. Which two requirements to form an adjacency
need to be verified? (Choose two.)

Verify that the interfaces that connect the two routers are in the
same area.*

Verify that one of the routers is the DR or BDR and the other router a DRother.

Verify that one of the interfaces that connects the two routers is active and
the other passive.

Verify that the interfaces that connect the two routers are in the
same subnet.*

Verify that both routers are using the same OSPFv2 process ID.

17
Which command is used to verify that OSPF is enabled and also
provides a list of the networks that are being advertised by the
network?

show ip protocols*

show ip ospf interface

show ip interface brief

show ip route ospf

18
Refer to the exhibit. Four routers are connected to an Ethernet LAN
segment and are configured to run OSPFv3. However, none of the
routers are receiving routing updates. What is the cause of the
problem?

The routers are using IPv6 link local addresses to communicate.

The network type has been set to BROADCAST instead of NBMA.

The routers are using IPv4 addresses for router IDs.

All of the routers have an OSPFv3 interface priority of 0.*

19

Refer to the exhibit. These two routers are configured to run OSPFv3
but they are not forming a neighbor adjacency. What is the cause of
the problem?

The routers do not have global IPv6 addresses that are configured on the
Fa0/0 interfaces.

The routers have both been elected as the DR.

The routers are configured with the same router ID.*

The routers have the same priority.

20
A network engineer suspects that OSPFv3 routers are not forming
neighbor adjacencies because there are interface timer mismatches.
Which two commands can be issued on the interface of each OSFPv3
router to resolve all timer mismatches? (Choose two.)

no ipv6 ospf dead-interval*

no ipv6 router ospf 10

ip ospf dead-interval 40

no ipv6 ospf hello-interval*

no ipv6 ospf cost 10

ip ospf hello-interval 10

21
Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
The command show ipv6 route can be issued on router R2 to verify the
propagation of a static default route from R1 to R2.

22
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
When IPv4 and OSPFv2 are being used, the command show ip ospf
neighbor is used to verify that a router has formed an adjacency with its
neighboring routers.

23

Place the options in the following order:

not scored

full state
loading state

ExStart state

24

Place the options in the following order:


[+] third
[+] second
not scored
[+] first
[+] fourth

[+] Order does not matter within this group.

CCNA 3 Scaling Networks Chapter 6 v5.0 Exam


Answers 2014
1
The network administrator has been asked to summarize the routes
for a new OSPF area. The networks to be summarized are 172.16.8.0,
172.16.10.0, and 172.16.12.0 with subnet masks of 255.255.255.0 for
each network. Which command should the administrator use to
forward the summary route for area 15 into area 0?

area 15 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.255.248

area 0 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.248.0

area 0 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.255.248


area 15 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.248.0*

2
Fill in the blank.
The backbone area interconnects with all other OSPF area types.

Place the options in the following order:


backbone router
not scored
internal router
Autonomous System Boundary Router
Area Border Router

4
Fill in the blank. Do not use acronyms.
OSPF type 2 LSA messages are only generated by the DR router to
advertise routes in multiaccess networks.

5
What is one advantage of using multiarea OSPF?

It improves the routing efficiency by reducing the routing table and


link-state update overhead.*

It enables multiple routing protocols to be running in a large network.

It increases the routing performance by dividing the neighbor table into


separate smaller ones.

It allows OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 to be running together.


6
A network administrator is verifying a multi-area OSPF configuration
by checking the routing table on a router in area 1. The
administrator notices a route to a network that is connected to a
router in area 2. Which code appears in front of this route in the
routing table within area 1?

O IA*

O E2

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about network


192.168.4.0 in the R2 routing table?

This network should be used to forward traffic toward external networks.

The network was learned from a router within the same area as R2.*

The network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR.

The network can be reached through the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface.

8
An ABR in a multiarea OSPF network receives LSAs from its neighbor
that identify the neighbor as an ASBR with learned external
networks from the Internet. Which LSA type would the ABR send to
other areas to identify the ASBR, so that internal traffic that is
destined for the Internet will be sent through the ASBR?

LSA type 1
LSA type 2

LSA type 3

LSA type 4*

LSA type 5

9
Which three steps in the design and implementation of a multiarea
OSPF network are considered planning steps? (Choose three.)

Configure OSPF.

Define the OSPF parameters.*

Troubleshoot the configurations.

Gather the required parameters.*

Define the network requirements.*

Verify OSPF.

10
Fill in the blank. Use a number.
An ASBR generates type 5 LSAs for each of its external routes and floods
them into the area that it is connected to.

11

Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the O IA in the router


output?

The route was learned from within the area.

The route was learned from outside the internetwork.


The route was manually configured.

The route was learned from another area.*

12
Which command can be used to verify the contents of the LSDB in an
OSPF area?

show ip route ospf

show ip ospf database*

show ip ospf interface

show ip ospf neighbor

13
Which statement describes a multiarea OSPF network?

It has a core backbone area with other areas connected to the


backbone area.*

It has multiple routers that run multiple routing protocols simultaneously, and
each protocol consists of an area.

It consists of multiple network areas that are daisy-chained together.

It requires a three-layer hierarchical network design approach.

14
Which characteristic describes both ABRs and ASBRs that are
implemented in a multiarea OSPF network?

They usually have many local networks attached.

They both run multiple routing protocols simultaneously.

They are required to perform any summarization or redistribution


tasks.*

They are required to reload frequently and quickly in order to update the
LSDB.

15
Where can interarea route summarization be performed in an OSPF
network?

ABR*
any router

DR

ASBR

16

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose


two.)

The entry for 172.16.200.1 represents a loopback interface.

To reach network 172.16.2.0, traffic will travel through the GigabitEthernet0/0


interface.

To reach network 192.168.1.0, traffic will exit via the Serial0/0/0


interface.*

The routing table contains routes from multiple areas.*

The routing table contains two intra-area routes.

17
Launch PT Hide and Save PT
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions
and then answer the question.
What is preventing users who are connected to router R2 from
accessing resources located either within the network 192.168.1.0 or
the internet?

The router R2 is not receiving any updates from either router R1 or


R3.*

The default route is not redistributed correctly from the router R1 by OSPF.

The OSPF timers that are configured on routers R1, R2, and R3 are not
compatible.

The interface that is connected to the ISP is down.


The OSPF network statements are misconfigured on one of the routers.

18
Which two statements correctly describe OSPF type 3 LSAs? (Choose
two.)

Type 3 LSAs are used to update routes between OSPF areas.*

Type 3 LSAs are known as router link entries.

Type 3 LSAs are used for routes to networks outside the OSPF autonomous
system.

Type 3 LSAs are known as autonomous system external LSA entries.

Type 3 LSAs are generated without requiring a full SPF calculation.*

19
A network administrator is implementing OSPF in a portion of the
network and must ensure that only specific routes are advertised via
OSPF. Which network statement would configure the OSPF process
for networks 192.168.4.0, 192.168.5.0, 192.168.6.0, and 192.168.7.0,
now located in the backbone area, and inject them into the OSPF
domain?

r1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 1

r1(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0 0.0.255.255 area 0

r1(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0 0.0.15.255 area 1

r1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0

r1(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0 0.0.3.255 area 0*

r1(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0 0.0.3.255 area 1

20
Which two networks are part of the summary route 192.168.32.0/22?
(Choose two.)

192.168.35.0/24*

192.168.36.0/24

192.168.33.0/24*

192.168.31.0/24
192.168.37.0/24

192.168.38.0/24

21

Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.


The network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.127 area 1 command must be
issued to configure R1 for multiarea OSPF.

CCNA 3 Scaling Networks Chapter 7 v5.0 Exam


Answers 2014
1

Place the options in the following order:


first
not scored
third
second
2

Refer to the exhibit. Which command should be used to configure


EIGRP to only advertise the network that is attached to the gigabit
Ethernet 0/1 interface?

network 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.63*

network 172.16.23.0 255.255.255.192

network 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.127

network 172.16.23.0 255.255.255.128

3
What is the purpose of using protocol-dependent modules in EIGRP?

to accommodate routing of different network layer protocols*

to identify different application layer protocols

to describe different routing processes

to use different transport protocols for different packets

4
Which statement describes a characteristic of the delivery of EIGRP
update packets?

EIGRP sends all update packets via unicast.

EIGRP uses a reliable delivery protocol to send all update packets.*

EIGRP uses UDP to send all update packets.

EIGRP sends all update packets via multicast.

5
A new network administrator has been asked to verify the metrics
that are used by EIGRP on a Cisco device. Which two EIGRP metrics
are measured by using static values on a Cisco device? (Choose two.)

bandwidth*

MTU

delay*

load

reliability

6
Which protocol is used by EIGRP to send hello packets?

RTP*

TCP

UDP

IP

7
Which destination MAC address is used when a multicast EIGRP
packet is encapsulated into an Ethernet frame?

01-00-5E-00-00-09

01-00-5E-00-00-10

01-00-5E-00-00-0A*

01-00-5E-00-00-0B

8
Place the options in the following order:
not scored
EIGRP for IPv4 only
both EIGRP for IPv4 and EIGRP for IPv6
EIGRP for IPv6 only

Refer to the exhibit. R2 has two possible paths to the 192.168.10.4


network. What would make the alternate route meet the feasibility
condition?

a reported distance greater than 41024000

a feasible distance greater than 41024000

an administrative distance less than 170

a reported distance less than 3523840*

10
Refer to the exhibit. Which two networks contain feasible
successors? (Choose two.)

192.168.51.0

10.44.101.252

10.44.104.253

10.44.100.252*

192.168.71.0*
11
If all router Ethernet interfaces in an EIGRP network are configured
with the default EIGRP timers, how long will a router wait by default
to receive an EIGRP packet from its neighbor before declaring the
neighbor unreachable?

10 seconds

15 seconds*

20 seconds
30 seconds

12
Which command or commands must be entered on a serial interface
of a Cisco router to restore the bandwidth to the default value of
that specific router interface?

shutdown
no shutdown

bandwidth 1500

copy running-config startup-config


reload

no bandwidth*

13
Which EIGRP route would have the preferred administrative
distance?

a summary route*

an internal route

an external route that is redistributed from RIP

an external route that is redistributed from OSPF

14
How do EIGRP routers establish and maintain neighbor relationships?

by comparing known routes to information received in updates

by exchanging routing tables with directly attached routers

by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors

by exchanging hello packets with neighboring routers*

by exchanging neighbor tables with directly attached routers

15
When an EIGRP-enabled router uses a password to accept routes
from other EIGRP-enabled routers, which mechanism is used?

EIGRP authentication*

Diffusing Update Algorithm


Reliable Transport Protocol

bounded updates

partial updates

16
What is indicated when an EIGRP route is in the passive state?

The route has the highest path cost of all routes to that destination network.

The route is a feasible successor and will be used if the active route fails.

The route is viable and can be used to forward traffic.*

There is no activity on the route to that network.

The route must be confirmed by neighboring routers before it is put in the


active state.

17
Which three metric weights are set to zero by default when costs in
EIGRP are being calculated? (Choose three.)

k6

k3

k5*

k4*

k2*

k1

18
Why would a network administrator use a wildcard mask in the
network command when configuring a router to use EIGRP?

to send a manual summarization

to exclude some interfaces from the EIGRP process*

to subnet at the time of the configuration

to lower the router overhead


19
Which table is used by EIGRP to store all routes that are learned
from EIGRP neighbors?

the adjacency table

the routing table

the topology table*

the neighbor table

20
Where are EIGRP successor routes stored?

only in the routing table

in the routing table and the topology table*

only in the neighbor table

in the routing table and the neighbor table

21
Launch PT Hide and Save PT
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions
and then answer the question.

Which code is displayed on the web server?

Done

Complete*

EIGRP

IPv6EIGRP

22
Which command is used to display the bandwidth of an interface on
an EIGRP-enabled router?

show ip protocols
show interfaces*

show ip interface brief

show ip route

23
Fill in the blank.
In an EIGRP topology table, a route that is in a/an active state will cause
the Diffusing Update Algorithm to send EIGRP queries that ask other routers
for a path to this network.

CCNA 3 Scaling Networks Chapter 8 v5.0 Exam


Answers 2014
1
Which command can be issued on a router to verify that automatic
summarization is enabled?

show ip eigrp neighbors

show ip protocols*

show ip interface brief

show ip eigrp interfaces

2
Which address best summarizes the IPv6 addresses
2001:DB8:ACAD::/48, 2001:DB8:9001::/48, and 2001:DB8:8752::/49?

2001:DB8:8000::/48

2001:DB8:8000::/36

2001:DB8:8000::/47

2001:DB8:8000::/34*

3
Refer to the exhibit. Router R3 is receiving multiple routes through
the EIGRP routing protocol. Which statement is true about the
implementation of summarization in this network?

Automatic summarization has been enabled only for the 172.21.100.0/24


network.

Automatic summarization is enabled on neighboring routers.

Automatic summarization is disabled on a per-interface basis.

Automatic summarization is disabled on R3.*

4
Refer to the exhibit. Considering that R2, R3, and R4 are correctly
configured, why did R1 not establish an adjacency with R2, R3, and
R4?

because the automatic summarization is enabled on R1

because the IPv4 address on Fa0/0 interface of R1 is incorrect

because the Fa0/0 interface of R1 is declared as passive for EIGRP*

because there is no network command for the network 192.168.1.0/24 on R1

5
In which IOS CLI mode must a network administrator issue the
maximum-paths command to configure load balancing in EIGRP?

router configuration mode*

interface configuration mode

global configuration mode

privileged mode

6
Two routers, R1 and R2, have established an EIGRP neighbor
relationship, but there is still a connectivity problem. Which issue
could be causing this problem?
a process ID mismatch

an authentication mismatch

an access list that is blocking advertisements from other networks*

automatic summarization that is disabled on both routers

Refer to the exhibit. Remote users are experiencing connectivity


problems when attempting to reach hosts in the 172.21.100.0 /24
network. Using the output in the exhibit, what is the most likely
cause of the connectivity problem?

The GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface is not participating in the EIGRP


process.*

The hello timer has been modified on interface GigabitEthernet 0/1 of R3 and
not on the neighbor, causing a neighbor adjacency not to form.

The passive-interface command is preventing neighbor relationships on


interface GigabitEthernet 0/0.

The GigabitEthernet interfaces are not limiting the flow of EIGRP message
information and are being flooded with EIGRP traffic.
8
In which scenario will the use of EIGRP automatic summarization
cause inconsistent routing in a network?

when there is no common subnet that exists between neighboring routers

when the routers in an IPv4 network have mismatching EIGRP AS numbers

when there is no adjacency that is established between neighboring routers

when the routers in an IPv4 network are connected to discontiguous


networks with automatic summarization enabled*

Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via


their serial interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing
protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the directly connected serial interface
of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP neighbor adjacency.

What action should be taken to solve this problem?

Configure the same hello interval between the routers.

Configure EIGRP to send periodic updates.

Enable the serial interfaces of both routers.

Configure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID.*

10
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement accurately reflects the
configuration of routing on the HQ router?

The IP address assigned to the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface is 172.16.2.0


255.255.255.0.

A static default route was configured on this router.*

A static default route was learned via EIGRP routing updates.

The static default route should be redistributed using the default-information


originate command.

11

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is supported by the output?


The route to 192.168.1.1 represents the configuration of a loopback interface.

A static default route has been manually configured on this router.

A default route is being learned through an external process.*

Summarization of routes has been manually configured.

12

Refer to the exhibit. Which two routes will be advertised to the


router ISP if autosummarization is disabled? (Choose two.)

10.1.2.0/24*

10.1.4.0/28

10.1.4.0/30*

10.1.4.0/24

10.1.0.0/16

13
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured EIGRP
authentication between routers R1 and R2. After the routing tables
are reviewed, it is noted that neither router is receiving EIGRP
updates. What is a possible cause for this failure?

The same autonomous system numbers must be used in the


interface configurations of each router.*

The key string should be used in interface mode instead of the key chain.

The same number of key strings must be used on each router.

The same key chain name must be used on each router.

The authentication configuration is correct, issue the show ip eigrp neighbors


command to troubleshoot the issue.

14
Two routers, R1 and R2, share a 64 kb/s link. An administrator wants
to limit the bandwidth used by EIGRP between these two routers to
48 kb/s. Which command is used on both routers to configure the
new bandwidth setting?

ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 100 48

ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 100 75*

ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 75 100

ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 64 48

ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 100 64


15
Which three statements are advantages of using automatic
summarization? (Choose three.)

It decreases the number of entries in the routing table.*

It reduces the frequency of routing updates.*

It ensures that traffic for multiple subnets uses one path through the
internetwork.*

It maximizes the number of routes in the routing table.

It improves reachability in discontiguous networks.

It increases the size of routing updates.

16

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration shown is applied on


router R1, the exhibited status message is displayed. Router R1 is
unable to form a neighbor relationship with R2 on the serial 0/1/0
interface. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

The passive-interface command should have been issued on serial 0/1/0.

The IPv4 address configured on the neighbor that is connected to R1


serial 0/1/0 is incorrect.*
The hello interval has been altered on serial 0/1/0 and is preventing a
neighbor relationship from forming.

The network statement used for EIGRP 55 does not enable EIGRP on interface
serial 0/1/0.

The networks that are configured on serial 0/0/0 and serial 0/1/0 of router R1
are overlapping.

17
What is a characteristic of manual route summarization?

requires high bandwidth utilization for the routing updates

has to be configured globally on the router

reduces total number of routes in routing tables*

cannot include supernet routes

18
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
The passive-interface command causes an EIGRP router to stop sending
hello packets through an interface.

19

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the shown


commands. The EIGRP routing domain has completely converged and
a network administrator is planning on configuring EIGRP
authentication throughout the complete network. On which two
interfaces should EIGRP authentication be configured between R2
and R3? (Choose two.)
gig 0/0 of R3

serial 0/1/0 of R4

serial 0/1/0 of R2*

serial 0/0/1 of R2

serial 0/0/1 of R3*

20
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
What is the command that should be issued on a router to verify that EIGRP
adjacencies were formed?

show ip eigrp neighbor

21

Launch PT Hide and Save PT


Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions
and then answer the question.

R1 and R2 could not establish an EIGRP adjacency. What is the


problem?
EIGRP is down on R2.

EIGRP is down on R1.*

R1 Fa0/0 link local address is wrong.

R1 Fa0/0 and R2 Fa0/0 are on different networks.

R1 Fa0/0 is not configured to send hello packets.

22

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has attempted to


implement a default route from R1 to the ISP and propagate the
default route to EIGRP neighbors. Remote connectivity from the
EIGRP neighbor routers to the ISP connected to R1 is failing. Based
on the output from the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of the
problem?

There are no EIGRP neighbor relationships on R1.

The command default-information originate has not been issued on R1.

The network statement for the ISP connection has not been issued.

The command redistribute static has not been issued on R1.*

The ip route command must specify a next-hop IP address instead of an exit


interface when creating a default route.
23

Refer to the exhibit. All networks are active in the same EIGRP
routing domain. When the auto-summary command is issued on R3,
which two summary networks will be advertised to the neighbors?
(Choose two.)

172.16.3.0/24

172.16.0.0/16*

192.168.10.0/24*

192.168.10.0/30

192.168.1.0/30

CCNA 3 Scaling Networks Chapter 9 v5.0 Exam


Answers 2014
1
Beginning with the Cisco IOS Software Release 15.0, which license is
a prerequisite for installing additional technology pack licenses?

UC

IPBase*

SEC
DATA

2
When a router is powered on, where will the router first search for a
valid IOS image to load by default?

flash memory*

RAM

ROM

NVRAM

3
What statement describes a Cisco IOS image with the
universalk9_npe designation for Cisco ISR G2 routers?

It is an IOS version that, at the request of some countries, removes


any strong cryptographic functionality.*

It is an IOS version that provides only the IPBase feature set.

It is an IOS version that offers all of the Cisco IOS Software feature sets.

It is an IOS version that can only be used in the United States of America.

4
Which statement describes a difference between the IOS 15.0
extended maintenance release and a standard maintenance release?

A new standard maintenance release will synchronize with the latest


extended maintenance release before the extended is made available.

The extended maintenance release will deliver new IOS features as soon as
they are available.

They consist of two separate parallel trains.

The standard maintenance release enables faster IOS feature


delivery than the extended maintenance release does.*

5
A network administrator configures a router with the command
sequence:

R1(config)# boot system tftp://c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-


4.M3.bin
R1(config)# boot system rom
What is the effect of the command sequence?

The router will copy the IOS image from the TFTP server and then reboot the
system.

The router will search and load a valid IOS image in the sequence of flash,
TFTP, and ROM.

On next reboot, the router will load the IOS image from ROM.

The router will load IOS from the TFTP server. If the image fails to
load, it will load the IOS image from ROM.*

6
Which command would a network engineer use to find the unique
device identifier of a Cisco router?

show running-configuration

show license udi*

license install stored-location-url

show version

7
Which command is used to configure a one-time acceptance of the
EULA for all Cisco IOS software packages and features?

license save

license accept end user agreement*

show license

license boot module module-name

8
How long is the evaluation license period for Cisco IOS Release 15.0
software packages?

30 days

15 days

60 days*

180 days
9
Which IOS 12.4 software package integrates full features, including
voice, security, and VPN capabilities, for all routing protocols?

Service Provider Services

Advanced Enterprise Services*

Advanced Security

Advanced IP Services

10
A network engineer is upgrading the Cisco IOS image on a 2900
series ISR. What command could the engineer use to verify the total
amount of flash memory as well as how much flash memory is
currently available?

show version

show interfaces

show startup-config

show flash0:*

11
Which three software packages are available for Cisco IOS Release
15.0?

Security*

Advanced IP Services

IPVoice

DATA*

Enterprise Services

Unified Communications*

12
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
The license install flash0:seck9-C1900-SPE150_K9-FAB12340099.xml
command will restore the specified saved Cisco IOS Release 15 license to a
router.
13
A newly hired network engineer wants to use a 2911 router from
storage. What command would the technician use to verify which IOS
technology licenses have been activated on the router?

show interfaces

show flash0:

show version

show license*

show startup-config

14
When a customer purchases a Cisco IOS 15.0 software package, what
serves as the receipt for that customer and is used to obtain the
license as well?

Product Activation Key*

Unique Device Identifier

Software Claim Certificate

End User License Agreement

15
The customer of a networking company requires VPN connectivity for
workers who must travel frequently. To support the VPN server, the
customer router must be upgraded to a new Cisco IOS software
version with the Advanced IP Services feature set. What should the
field engineer do before copying the new IOS to the router?

Issue the show version and the show flash commands to ensure that
the router has enough memory and file space to support the new IOS
image.*

Set the router to load the new IOS image file directly from the TFTP server on
the next reboot.

Delete the currently installed IOS by using the erase flash: command, and
reload the router

Issue the show running-configuration command to determine the features of


the currently installed IOS image file.
16
What is the major release number in the IOS image name c1900-
universalk9-mz.SPA.152-3.T.bin?

52

1900

15*

17

Place the options in the following order:


universalk9
1
mz
c1900
not scored
M4
4
bin
15

18

Place the options in the following order:


[+] branches from another train
[+] has the latest features
[#] possibly is 12.4
[#] contains mostly bug fixes

[+] Order does not matter within this group.


[#] Order does not matter within this group.

CCNA 3 v5 SN Pretest Exam Answers 2014


Scaling Networks (Version 5.0) ScaN Pretest Exam
1
What is a disadvantage of NAT?
There is no end-to-end addressing. *
The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.
The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external
communication.
The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed
network.
2

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what type of
NAT has been implemented?

static NAT with a NAT pool


dynamic NAT with a pool of two public IP addresses
PAT using an external interface *
static NAT with one entry

3
A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which
two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
RouterA(config)# router ospf 1 *
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 *
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
RouterA(config)# router ospf 0

4
Which OSPF component is identical in all routers in an OSPF area
after convergence?
adjacency database
SPF tree
routing table
link-state database*

5
Which statement is true about the difference between OSPFv2 and
OSPFv3?
OSPFv3 routers do not need to have matching subnets to form
neighbor adjacencies.*
OSPFv3 routers use a 128 bit router ID instead of a 32 bit ID.
OSPFv3 routers use a different metric than OSPFv2 routers use.
OSPFv3 routers do not need to elect a DR on multiaccess segments.

6
What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.
Routers create a topology of the network by using information from
other routers. *
Routers send triggered updates in response to a change. *
The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.
Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated
router.

7
What condition is required to enable Layer 3 switching?
All routed subnets must be on the same VLAN.
All participating switches must have unique VLAN numbers.
Inter-VLAN portions of Layer 3 switching must use router-on-a-stick.
The Layer 3 switch must have IP routing enabled.*

Refer to the exhibit. Which address will R1 use as the source address
for all OSPFv3 messages that will be sent to neighbors?

2001:DB8:ACAD:A::1
FF02::1
FE80::1 *
FF02::5

9
An organization needs to provide temporary voice and data services
to a new small lab building. They plan to install an access switch in
the new lab and connect it using a 100Mb/s FastEthernet trunk link.
The network administrator is concerned about the capability of the
link to meet quality requirements of the proposed voice and data
services. The administrator plans to manage the datalink layer traffic
to and from the lab so that trunk usage is optimized. What could the
administrator apply to the trunk to help achieve this?

Disable Spanning Tree Protocol to provide maximum bandwidth for the voice
and data traffic.
Configure the trunk ports on the trunk link to the lab to allow only
the voice and data VLANs.*
Configure the switches to run Per VLAN Spanning Tree for the voice and data
VLANs only.
Configure the lab switch to use the same voice and data VLAN as the rest of
the campus LAN.

10
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router
as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool
command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the
reason that the number of active clients is 0?

The default gateway address is not provided in the pool.


No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.
The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.
The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless
DHCPv6 operation.*

11
Which two factors are important when deciding which interior
gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

campus backbone architecture


the autonomous system that is used
scalability*
speed of convergence*
ISP selection

12
A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to
configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to
the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port
for the task?

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1


Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1
Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1


Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk*****

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1


Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast

13
Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol
use initially as link-state information for locally connected links?
(Choose three.)

the link next-hop IP address


the link bandwidth
the link router interface IP address and subnet mask *
the type of network link*
the cost of that link*

14

Fill in the blank.


The ip default-gateway command is used to configure the default
gateway on a switch.

15
Which three parameters could be in an extended access control list?
(Choose three.)

source address and wildcard mask *


default gateway address and wildcard mask
access list number between 1 and 99
subnet mask and wild card mask
access list number between 100 and 199 *
destination address and wildcard mask*

16

17
The computers used by the network administrators for a school are
on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a
minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are
used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to
the routers? (Choose two.)

access-list 5 deny any


ip access-group 5 in
access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31*
access-class 5 in *
ip access-group 5 out
access-list standard VTY
permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127

18
Which two commands should be implemented to return a Cisco 3560
trunk port to its default configuration? (Choose two.)

S1(config-if)# switchport mode access


S1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk native vlan *
S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan *
S1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable

19
Which two methods can be used to provide secure management
access to a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)

Configure specific ports for management traffic on a specific VLAN.*


Configure all unused ports to a black hole.
Configure SSH for remote management.*
Configure all switch ports to a new VLAN that is not VLAN 1.
Configure the native VLAN to match the default VLAN.

20
What is a function of the distribution layer?

fault isolation
network access to the user
high-speed backbone connectivity
interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets*

21
Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs?

They can be created with a number but not with a name.


They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only. *
They can be configured to filter traffic based on both source IP addresses and
source ports.
They are configured in the interface configuration mode.
22

Refer to the exhibit.

What summary static address should be configured on R3 to


advertise to an upstream neighbor?
192.168.0.0/24
192.168.0.0/23
192.168.0.0/22
192.168.0.0/21*

23

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ip


route command on R2. What two types of routes are installed in the
routing table? (Choose two.)

a configured default route


routes that are learned through the EIGRP routing protocol *
routes that are learned through the OSPF routing protocol
a configured static route to the network 209.165.200.224
directly connected networks*

24

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has an OSPF neighbor relationship


with the ISP router over the 192.168.0.32 network. The 192.168.0.36
network link should serve as a backup when the OSPF link goes
down. The floating static route command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
S0/0/1 100 was issued on R1 and now traffic is using the backup link
even when the OSPF link is up and functioning. Which change should
be made to the static route command so that traffic will only use the
OSPF link when it is up?

Change the destination network to 192.168.0.34.


Add the next hop neighbor address of 192.168.0.36.
Change the administrative distance to 120. *
Change the administrative distance to 1.

25
Which two statements are true about half-duplex and full-duplex
communications? (Choose two.)

Full duplex offers 100 percent potential use of the bandwidth.


Full duplex allows both ends to transmit and receive simultaneously.
*
Half duplex has only one channel.
Full duplex increases the effective bandwidth.*
All modern NICs support both half-duplex and full-duplex communication.

26
What are the two methods that a wireless NIC can use to discover an
AP? (Choose two.)
sending a multicast frame
transmitting a probe request *
receiving a broadcast beacon frame *
initiating a three-way handshake
sending an ARP request broadcast

27
What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

prevents routing loops on a router


creates smaller collision domains
prevents Layer 2 loops *
allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates
creates smaller broadcast domains

28

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about network


192.168.1.0 in the R2 routing table?

This network has been learned from an internal router within the same area.
This network should be used to forward traffic toward external networks.
This network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR. *
This network is directly connected to the interface GigabitEthernet0/0.

29
When are EIGRP update packets sent?

every 5 seconds via multicast


only when necessary *
every 30 seconds via broadcast
when learned routes age out

30
What are two advantages of EtherChannel? (Choose two.)

Configuring the EtherChannel interface provides consistency in the


configuration of the physical links.*
EtherChannel uses upgraded physical links to provide increased bandwidth.
Load balancing occurs between links configured as different EtherChannels.
Spanning Tree Protocol views the physical links in an EtherChannel
as one logical connection. *
Spanning Tree Protocol ensures redundancy by transitioning failed interfaces
in an EtherChannel to a forwarding state.

31

Refer to the exhibit. What are two results of issuing the displayed
commands on S1, S2, and S3? (Choose two.)

S1 will automatically adjust the priority to be the highest.


S2 can become root bridge if S3 fails.
S3 can be elected as a secondary bridge.
S2 can become root bridge if S1 fails. *
S1 will automatically adjust the priority to be the lowest.*

32
A network engineer is troubleshooting a newly deployed wireless
network that is using the latest 802.11 standards. When users
access high bandwidth services such as streaming video, the
wireless network performance is poor. To improve performance the
network engineer decides to configure a 5 Ghz frequency band SSID
and train users to use that SSID for streaming media services. Why
might this solution improve the wireless network performance for
that type of service?

The 5 GHz band has more channels and is less crowded than the 2.4
GHz band, which makes it more suited to streaming multimedia.*
The only users that can switch to the 5 GHz band will be those with the latest
wireless NICs, which will reduce usage.
Requiring the users to switch to the 5 GHz band for streaming media is
inconvenient and will result in fewer users accessing these services.
The 5 GHz band has a greater range and is therefore likely to be interference-
free.

33
Which wireless encryption method is the most secure?
WPA2 with TKIP
WPA
WEP
WPA2 with AES*

34
Which statement describes a characteristic of the delivery of EIGRP
update packets?

EIGRP sends all update packets via unicast.


EIGRP sends all update packets via multicast.
EIGRP uses a reliable delivery protocol to send all update packets. *
EIGRP uses UDP to send all update packets.

35

Refer to the exhibit. Which destination MAC address is used when


frames are sent from the workstation to the default gateway?

MAC address of the virtual router *


MAC address of the forwarding router
MAC address of the standby router
MAC addresses of both the forwarding and standby routers
36

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is troubleshooting missing


OSPFv3 routes on a router. What is the cause of the problem based
on the command output?

There is a problem with the OSPFv3 adjacency between the local


router and the router that is using the neighbor ID 2.2.2.2. *
The neighbor IDs are incorrect. The interfaces must use only IPv6 addresses
to ensure fully synchronized routing databases.
The local router has formed complete neighbor adjacencies, but must be in a
2WAY state for the router databases to be fully synchronized.
The dead time must be higher than 30 for all routers to form neighbor
adjacencies.

37
Which statement is true regarding states of the IEEE 802.1D
Spanning Tree Protocol?

It takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding.


Ports must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled state.
Ports are manually configured to be in the forwarding state.
Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.*

38
Which wireless network topology is being configured by a technician
who is installing a keyboard, a mouse, and headphones, each of
which uses Bluetooth?

hotspot
mixed mode
infrastructure mode
ad hoc mode*

39
A network administrator is troubleshooting slow performance in a
Layer 2 switched network. Upon examining the IP header, the
administrator notices that the TTL value is not decreasing. Why is
the TTL value not decreasing?

The outbound interface is set for half duplex.


The MAC address table is corrupt.
This is the normal behavior for a Layer 2 network. *
The VLAN database is full.

40

Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be derived from the
output? (Choose two.)

The network 192.168.10.8/30 can be reached through 192.168.11.1.


The neighbor 172.16.6.1 meets the feasibility condition to reach the
192.168.1.0/24 network. *
The reported distance to network 192.168.1.0/24 is 41024256.
There is one feasible successor to network 192.168.1.8/30. *
Router R1 has two successors to the 172.16.3.0/24 network.

1
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is attempting to
upgrade the IOS system image on a Cisco 2901 router. After the new
image has been downloaded and copied to the TFTP server, what
command should be issued on the router before the IOS system
image is upgraded on the router?

ping 10.10.10.1
dir flash:
ping 10.10.10.2*
copy tftp: flash0:

Fill in the blank.

The backbone area interconnects with all other OSPF area types.

3
Which address is used by an IPv6 EIGRP router as the source for
hello messages?

the interface IPv6 link-local address*


the 32-bit router ID
the all-EIGRP-routers multicast address
the IPv6 global unicast address that is configured on the interface
4

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6


eigrp neighbors command. Which conclusion can be drawn based on
the output?

The link-local addresses of neighbor routers interfaces are


configured manually.*
If R1 does not receive a hello packet from the neighbor with the link-local
address FE80::5 in 2 seconds, it will declare the neighbor router is down.
R1 has two neighbors. They connect to R1 through their S0/0/0 and S0/0/1
interfaces.
The neighbor with the link-local address FE80::5 is the first EIGRP neighbor
that is learned by R1.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be derived from the
output? (Choose two.)

The network 192.168.10.8/30 can be reached through 192.168.11.1.


The reported distance to network 192.168.1.0/24 is 41024256.
Router R1 has two successors to the 172.16.3.0/24 network.
There is one feasible successor to network 192.168.1.8/30.*
The neighbor 172.16.6.1 meets the feasibility condition to reach the
192.168.1.0/24 network.*

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator attempts to configure EIGRP


for IPv6 on a router and receives the error message that is shown.
Which command must be issued by the administrator before EIGRP
for IPv6 can be configured?

eigrp router-id 100.100.100.100


no shutdown
ipv6 eigrp 100
ipv6 cef
ipv6 unicast-routing*

7
What two conditions have to be met in order to form a cluster that
includes 5 access points? (Choose two.)

The APs must use different cluster names.


The APs must all be configured to use different radio modes.
At least two controllers are needed to form the cluster.
The APs have to be connected on the same network segment.*
Clustering mode must be enabled on the APs.*

8
Which technological factor determines the impact of a failure
domain?

the forwarding rate of the switches used on the access layer


the number of layers of the hierarchical network
the role of the malfunctioning device*
the number of users on the access layer

9
Which mode configuration setting would allow formation of an
EtherChannel link between switches SW1 and SW2 without sending
negotiation traffic?

SW1: desirable
SW2: desirable

SW1: passive
SW2: active
SW1: on
SW2: on*

SW1: auto
SW2: auto
trunking enabled on both switches

SW1: auto
SW2: auto
PortFast enabled on both switches

10
In a large enterprise network, which two functions are performed by
routers at the distribution layer? (Choose two.)

provide Power over Ethernet to devices


provide a high-speed network backbone
connect remote networks*
connect users to the network
provide data traffic security*

11
A network engineer is implementing security on all company routers.
Which two commands must be issued to force authentication via the
password 1C34dE for all OSPF-enabled interfaces in the backbone
area of the company network? (Choose two.)

area 0 authentication message-digest*


ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 1C34dE*
username OSPF password 1C34dE
enable password 1C34dE
area 1 authentication message-digest

12
When does an OSPF router become an ABR?

when the router is configured as an ABR by the network administrator


when the router has interfaces in different areas*
when the router has an OSPF priority of 0
when the router has the highest router ID

13
Which characteristic would most influence a network design engineer
to select a multilayer switch over a Layer 2 switch?

ability to have multiple forwarding paths through the switched network based
on VLAN number(s)
ability to aggregate multiple ports for maximum data throughput
ability to build a routing table*
ability to provide power to directly-attached devices and the switch itself
14
A network designer is considering whether to implement a switch
block on the company network. What is the primary advantage of
deploying a switch block?

A single core router provides all the routing between VLANs.


This is network application software that prevents the failure of a single
network device.
The failure of a switch block will not impact all end users.*
This is a security feature that is available on all new Catalyst switches.

15

A network administrator enters the spanning-tree portfast


bpduguard default command. What is the result of this command
being issued on a Cisco switch?

Any switch port will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.


Any switch port that has been configured with PortFast will be error-
disabled if it receives a BPDU.*
Any trunk ports will be allowed to connect to the network immediately, rather
than waiting to converge.
Any switch port that receives a BPDU will ignore the BPDU message.

16
What are two differences between the Cisco IOS 12 and IOS 15
versions? (Choose two.)

Every Cisco ISR G2 platform router includes a universal image in the IOS 12
versions, but not the IOS 15 versions.
The IOS version 15 license key is unique to each device, whereas the
IOS version 12 license key is not device specific.*
The IOS 12 version has two trains that occur simultaneously, whereas the IOS
15 version still has two trains, but the versions occur in a single sequential
order.
The IOS 12 version has commands that are not available in the 15 version.
IOS version 12.4(20)T1 is a mainline release, whereas IOS version
15.1(1)T1 is a new feature release.*

17
Refer to the exhibit. What are two results of issuing the displayed
commands on S1, S2, and S3? (Choose two.)

S3 can be elected as a secondary bridge.


S2 can become root bridge if S3 fails.
S1 will automatically adjust the priority to be the lowest.*
S2 can become root bridge if S1 fails.*
S1 will automatically adjust the priority to be the highest.

18
A remote classroom can successfully access video-intensive
streaming lectures via wired computers. However, when an 802.11n
wireless access point is installed and used with 25 wireless laptops
to access the same lectures, poor audio and video quality is
experienced. Which wireless solution would improve the
performance for the laptops?

Upgrade the access point to one that can route.


Decrease the power of the wireless transmitter.
Adjust the wireless NICs in the laptops to operate at 10GHz to be compatible
with 802.11n.
Add another access point.*

19
A network engineer is troubleshooting a single-area OSPFv3
implementation across routers R1, R2, and R3. During the
verification of the implementation, it is noted that the routing tables
on R1 and R2 do not include the entry for a remote LAN on R3.
Examination of R3 shows the following:

that all interfaces have correct addressing


that the routing process has been globally configured
that correct router adjacencies have formed
What additional action taken on R3 could solve the problem?

Force DR/BDR elections to occur where required.


Use the network command to configure the LAN network under the global
routing process.
Enable the OSPFv3 routing process on the interface connected to the
remote LAN.*
Restart the OPSFv3 routing process.

20
When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?

when a network addressing scheme uses VLSM


when a router has more than three active interfaces
when a network contains discontiguous network addresses*
when a router has less than five active interfaces
when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes
21
When will a router that is running EIGRP put a destination network in
the active state?

when the EIGRP domain is converged


when there is outgoing traffic toward the destination network
when the connection to the successor of the destination network
fails and there is no feasible successor available*
when there is an EIGRP message from the successor of the destination
network

22
Which action should be taken when planning for redundancy on a
hierarchical network design?

add alternate physical paths for data to traverse the network


continually purchase backup equipment for the network*
immediately replace a non-functioning module, service or device on a
network
implement STP portfast between the switches on the network

23
Fill in the blank. Use the acronym.
Which encryption protocol is used by the WPA2 shared key authentication
technique? AES

24

Refer to the exhibit. When the show ip ospf neighbor command is


given from the R1# prompt, no output is shown. However, when the
show ip interface brief command is given, all interfaces are showing
up and up. What is the most likely problem?
R1 has not sent a default route down to R2 by using the default-information
originate command.
R2 has not brought the S0/0/1 interface up yet.
R1 or R2 does not have a network statement for the 172.16.100.0
network.*
The ISP has not configured a static route for the ABC Company yet.
R1 or R2 does not have a loopback interface that is configured yet.

25

Refer to the exhibit. If router B is to be configured for EIGRP AS 100,


which configuration must be entered?

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3


B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.63

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 255.255.255.248


B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 255.255.255.248
B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 255.255.255.192

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3


B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63*

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3


B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3
26

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is troubleshooting missing


OSPFv3 routes on a router. What is the cause of the problem based
on the command output?

The local router has formed complete neighbor adjacencies, but must be in a
2WAY state for the router databases to be fully synchronized.
The neighbor IDs are incorrect. The interfaces must use only IPv6 addresses
to ensure fully synchronized routing databases.
The dead time must be higher than 30 for all routers to form neighbor
adjacencies.
There is a problem with the OSPFv3 adjacency between the local
router and the router that is using the neighbor ID 2.2.2.2.*

27

Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the
output? (Choose two.)

The bundle is fully operational.


The port channel is a Layer 3 channel.
The EtherChannel is down.*
The port channel ID is 2.*
The load-balancing method used is source port to destination port.

28

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the command output shown, what is


the status of the EtherChannel?

The EtherChannel is dynamic and is using ports Fa0/10 and Fa0/11 as passive
ports.
The EtherChannel is in use and functional as indicated by the SU and
P flags in the command output.*
The EtherChannel is down as evidenced by the protocol field being empty.
The EtherChannel is partially functional as indicated by the P flags for the
FastEthernet ports.

29
A network engineer is configuring a LAN with a redundant first hop
to make better use of the available network resources. Which
protocol should the engineer implement?

FHRP
VRRP
GLBP*
HSRP

30
Users on an IEEE 801.11n network are complaining of slow speeds.
The network administrator checks the AP and verifies it is operating
properly. What can be done to improve the wireless performance in
the network?

Split the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the
5 GHz band.*
Set the AP to mixed mode.
Change the authentication method on the AP.
Switch to an 802.11g AP.

31
A network administrator is troubleshooting slow performance in a
Layer 2 switched network. Upon examining the IP header, the
administrator notices that the TTL value is not decreasing. Why is
the TTL value not decreasing?

This is the normal behavior for a Layer 2 network.*


The VLAN database is corrupt.
The MAC address table is full.
The inbound interface is set for half duplex.

32
What is a wireless modulation technique used by 802.11 WLAN
standards that can implement MIMO?

FHSS
OFDM*
BSS
DSSS

33
Which technology is an open protocol standard that allows switches
to automatically bundle physical ports into a single logical link?

Multilink PPP
PAgP
DTP
LACP*

34
A set of switches is being connected in a LAN topology. Which STP
bridge priority value will make it least likely for the switch to be
selected as the root?

32768
4096
65535
61440*

35
Which wireless network topology is being configured by a technician
who is installing a keyboard, a mouse, and headphones, each of
which uses Bluetooth?

ad hoc mode*
hotspot
mixed mode
infrastructure mode
36

Refer to the exhibit. Which route or routes will be advertised to the


router ISP if autosummarization is enabled?

10.0.0.0/8*

10.1.0.0/16

10.1.0.0/28

10.1.1.0/24
10.1.2.0/24
10.1.3.0/24
10.1.4.0/28

37
When are EIGRP update packets sent?

only when necessary*


every 30 seconds via broadcast
every 5 seconds via multicast
when learned routes age out

38
Which requirement should be checked before a network
administrator performs an IOS image upgrade on a router?
The old IOS image file has been deleted.
The FTP server is operational.
There is sufficient space in flash memory.*
The desired IOS image file has been downloaded to the router.

39
What method of wireless authentication is dependent on a RADIUS
authentication server?

WPA Personal
WEP
WPA2 Enterprise*
WPA2 Personal

40
A network administrator wants to verify the default delay values for
the interfaces on an EIGRP-enabled router. Which command will
display these values?

show running-config
show interfaces*
show ip protocols
show ip route

41
A network administrator in a branch office is configuring EIGRP
authentication between the branch office router and the
headquarters office router. Which security credential is needed for
the authentication process?

a randomly generated key with the crypto key generate rsa command
a common key configured with the key-string command inside a key
chain*
the username and password configured on the headquarters office router
the hostname of the headquarters office router and a common password

42
Refer to the exhibit. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 on S1 is connected to
Interface FastEthernet 0/1 on S2, and Interface FastEthernet 0/2 on
S1 is connected to Interface FastEthernet 0/2 on S2. What are two
errors in the present EtherChannel configurations? (Choose two.)

Desirable mode is not compatible with on mode.


The trunk mode is not allowed for EtherChannel bundles.
Two auto modes cannot form a bundle.*
The channel group is inconsistent.*
The interface port channel ID should be different in both switches.

43
Which port role is assigned to the switch port that has the lowest
cost to reach the root bridge?

disabled port
root port*
designated port
non-designated port

44
What are two features of OSPF interarea route summarization?
(Choose two.)

ASBRs perform all OSPF summarization.


Routes within an area are summarized by the ABR.*
Route summarization results in high network traffic and router overhead.
ABRs advertise the summarized routes into the backbone.*
Type 3 and type 5 LSAs are used to propagate summarized routes.

45

Launch PT Hide and Save PT


Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions
and then answer the question.

Which message was displayed on the web server?

Work done!
Congratulations!
Wonderful work!
Youve made it!*

46

Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information could be


determined by a network administrator from this output? (Choose
two.)

The metric that will be installed in the routing table for the 10.0.0.0 route will
be 65 (64+1).
Interface Fa0/1 is not participating in the OSPF process.
R1 is the distribution point for the routers that are attached to the
10.0.0.4 network.*
R1 is participating in multiarea OSPF.*
The OSPF process number that is being used is 0.

47
RouterA# -> copy flash0:tftp:

Source Filename? -> C1900-universalk9-m.SPA.152-4.M3.bin

Address or name of remote host ->2001:DB8:CAFE:100::9

48
A network administrator has configured an EtherChannel between
two switches that are connected via four trunk links. If the physical
interface for one of the trunk links changes to a down state, what
happens to the EtherChannel?

Spanning Tree Protocol will recalculate the remaining trunk links.


The EtherChannel will remain functional.*
The EtherChannel will transition to a down state.
Spanning Tree Protocol will transition the failed physical interface into
forwarding mode.

49

Refer to the exhibit. Which destination MAC address is used when


frames are sent from the workstation to the default gateway?

MAC addresses of both the forwarding and standby routers


MAC address of the standby router
MAC address of the virtual router*
MAC address of the forwarding router
50

Refer to the exhibit. A company has migrated from single area OSPF
to multiarea. However, none of the users from network
192.168.1.0/24 in the new area can be reached by anyone in the
Branch1 office. From the output in the exhibit, what is the problem?

There are no interarea routes in the routing table for network


192.168.1.0.*
The OSPF routing process is inactive.
The router has not established any adjacencies with other OSPF routers.
The link to the new area is down.

51
What are two requirements when using out-of-band configuration of
a Cisco IOS network device? (Choose two.)

Telnet or SSH access to the device


a connection to an operational network interface on the device
a direct connection to the console or AUX port*
a terminal emulation client*
HTTP access to the device

52
For troubleshooting missing EIGRP routes on a router, what three
types of information can be collected using the show ip protocols
command? (Choose three.)

any interfaces on the router that are configured as passive*


any ACLs that are affecting the EIGRP routing process*
any interfaces that are enabled for EIGRP authentication
networks that are unadvertised by the EIGRP routing protocol
the local interface that is used to establish an adjacency with EIGRP neighbors
the IP addresses that are configured on adjacent routers*

53
What are two requirements to be able to configure an EtherChannel
between two switches? (Choose two.)

All the interfaces need to work at the same speed.*


All interfaces need to be assigned to different VLANs.
The interfaces that are involved need to be contiguous on the switch.
All the interfaces need to be working in the same duplex mode.*
Different allowed ranges of VLANs must exist on each end.

54

This type of LSA exists in multi-access & non-broadcast multi-access


networks w/DR => TYPE 2 LSA
This type of LSA describes routes to networks outside of the OSPF AS
=> TYPE 5 LSA
This type of LSA is flooded only within the area which it originated
=> TYPE 1 LSA
This type of LSA is used by ABR to advertise networks from other
areas => TYPE 3 LSA

55
At a local college, students are allowed to connect to the wireless
network without using a password. Which mode is the access point
using?

network
shared-key
open*
passive

56
What are three access layer switch features that are considered
when designing a network? (Choose three.)

broadcast traffic containment


forwarding rate***
failover capability
Power over Ethernet***
speed of convergence
port density***
57

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about network


192.168.1.0 in the R2 routing table?

This network has been learned from an internal router within the same area.
This network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR.*
This network is directly connected to the interface GigabitEthernet0/0.
This network should be used to forward traffic toward external networks.

58
Which two statements are correct about EIGRP acknowledgment
packets? (Choose two.)

The packets are sent as unicast.*


The packets are unreliable.*
The packets are used to discover neighbors that are connected on an
interface.
The packets require confirmation.
The packets are sent in response to hello packets.

59
An STP instance has failed and frames are flooding the network.
What action should be taken by the network administrator?

Broadcast traffic should be investigated and eliminated from the network.


Spanning tree should be disabled for that STP instance until the problem is
located.
Redundant links should be physically removed until the STP instance
is repaired.*
A response from the network administrator is not required because the TTL
field will eventually stop the frames from flooding the network.

60
A network administrator issues the command R1(config)# license boot
module c1900 technology-package securityk9 on a router. What is the
effect of this command?
The IOS will prompt the user to provide a UDI in order to activate the license.
The IOS will prompt the user to reboot the router.
The features in the Security package are available immediately.
The Evaluation Right-To-Use license for the Security technology
package is activated.*

61
A router has been removed from the network for maintenance. A new
Cisco IOS software image has been successfully downloaded to a
server and copied into the flash of the router. What should be done
before placing the router back into service?

Delete the previous version of the Cisco IOS software from flash.
Copy the running configuration to NVRAM.
Back up the new image.
Restart the router and verify that the new image starts successfully.*

62
What are the two methods that are used by a wireless NIC to
discover an AP? (Choose two.)

receiving a broadcast beacon frame*


delivering a broadcast frame
transmitting a probe request*
sending an ARP request
initiating a three-way handshak

63
Refer to the exhibit. Why did R1 and R2 not establish ad adjacency?

The link-local address must be the same on both routers.

The AS number must be the same on R1 and R2.*

R1 S0/0/0 and R2 S0/0/0 are on different networks.

The no shutdown command is misapplied on both routers.

The router ID must be the same on both routers.

64

feasible distance to 192.168.11.64 => 660110


new successor to network 192.168.1.0 => 192.168.3.1
destination network => 192.168.11.64

NEW QUESTIONS

65
Refer to the exhibit. Router CiscoVille has been partially configured
for EIGRP authentication. What is missing that would allow
successful authentication between EIGRP neighbors?

The interfaces that will use EIGRP authentication must be specified.

The CiscoVIlle router requires a second keychain to function correctly when


using two interfaces for EIGRP authentication.

The same key number must be used on any EIGRP neighbor routers.

The keychain for EIGRP authentication must be configured on the


interfaces.*

66 Which Cisco IOS Software Release 15.0 technology pack is


shipped with a permanent license on all Cisco ISR G2 devices?

IPBase*

DATA

Unified Communications

Security

New questions:

By default, how many equal cost routes to the same destination can
be installed in the routing table of a Cisco router?
2
4***
16
32

=======================
What are two reasons to implement passive interfaces in the EIGRP
configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose two.)
to provide increased network security ***

to shut down unused interfaces

to exclude interfaces from load balancing

to mitigate attacks coming from the interfaces

to avoid unnecessary update traffic ***

=======================================

What is a difference between the Cisco IOS 12 and IOS 15 versions?

The IOS 12 version has commands that are not available in the 15 version.

IOS version 12.4(20)T1 is a mainline release, whereas IOS version


15.1(1)T1 is a new feature release.*

The IOS version 15 license key is unique to each device, whereas the IOS
version 12 license key is not device specific.

Every Cisco ISR G2 platform router includes a universal image in the IOS 12
versions, but not the IOS 15 versions.

=======================================

Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.


The spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst global configuration command is used
to enable Rapid PVST+.

=======================================

A WLAN user wants to allocate an optimal amount of bandwidth to a


specific online game. What is a Linksys Smart Wi-Fi tool that will
allow the user to do this?

Widgets

Speed Test

Media Prioritization

Bandwidth Prioritization*

=======================================

When a Cisco router is configured with fast-switching, how are


packets distributed over equal-cost paths?

on a per-path-load basis
on a per-destination basis*

on a per-interface basis

on a per-packet basis

=======================================

A network administrator is analyzing first-hop router redundancy


protocols. What is a characteristic of VRRPv3?

VRRPv3 is Cisco proprietary.

It supports IPv6 and IPv4 addressing.*

It allows load balancing between routers.

It works together with HSRP.

=======================================

Which two channel group modes would place an interface in a


negotiating state using PAgP? (Choose two.)
auto *
desirable *
on
passive
active

=======================================
What is the purpose of the Cisco PAK?
It is a proprietary encryption algorithm.
It is a compression file type used when installing IOS 15 or an IOS upgrade.
It is a way to compress an existing IOS so that a newer IOS version can be
co-installed on a router.
It is a key for enabling an IOS feature set.*

=======================================
What two license states would be expected on a new Cisco router
once the license has been activated? (Choose two.)
License State: On
License State: Active, Registered
License Type: Permanent *
License Type: ipbasek9
License Type: Temporary
License State: Active, In Use *

=======================================
If a company wants to upgrade a Cisco 2800 router from IOS 12.4T,
what IOS should be recommended for a stable router platform?
13.1T
12.5T
15.1M *
14.0

=======================================
Fill in the blank.
EIGRP keeps feasible successor routes in the routing table.

=======================================
A network engineer is troubleshooting a newly deployed wireless
network that is using the latest 802.11 standards. When users
access high bandwidth services such as streaming video, the
wireless network performance is poor. To improve performance the
network engineer decides to configure a 5 Ghz frequency band SSID
and train users to use that SSID for streaming media services. Why
might this solution improve the wireless network performance for
that type of service?
Requiring the users to switch to the 5 GHz band for streaming media is
inconvenient and will result in fewer users accessing these services.
The 5 GHz band has a greater range and is therefore likely to be
interference-free.
The 5 GHz band has more channels and is less crowded than the 2.4
GHz band, which makes it more suited to streaming multimedia. *
The only users that can switch to the 5 GHz band will be those with the
latest wireless NICs, which will reduce usage.

Feel free to correct me if Im wrong.

NEW QUESTIONS 2015/02/05

What type of OSPF IPv4 route is indicated by a route table entry


descriptor of O E1?
an intra-area route that is advertised by the DR
a summary route that is advertised by an ABR
a directly connected route that is associated with an Ethernet interface
an external route that is advertised by an ASBR*

Which type of OSPF LSA represents an external route and is


propagated across the entire OSPF domain?
type 1
type 2
type 3
type 4
type 5*

A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported


by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement
is a feature that is associated with GLBP?
It uses a virtual router master.
GLBP allows load balancing between routers.*
It works together with VRRP.
It is nonproprietary.

A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported
by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement
describes a feature that is associated with HSRP?
HSRP uses active and standby routers.*
HSRP is nonproprietary.
It uses ICMP messages in order to assign the default gateway to hosts.
It allows load balancing between a group of redundant routers.

What is the purpose of a Cisco IOS 15 EM release?

It specifies advanced IP services features such as advanced security and


service provider packages.

It provides regular bug fix maintenance rebuilds, plus critical fix support for
network-affecting bugs.

It is used for long-term maintenance, enabling customers to qualify,


deploy, and remain on the release for an extended period.*

It provides premium packages and enables additional IOS software feature


combinations that address more complex network requirements.

A network administrator is analyzing first -hop router redundancy


protocols.What is characteristic of VRRPv3.
characteristics of VRRPV3:
*INTEROPERABILITY IN MULTI-VENDOR ENVIRONMENTS
*VRRPv3 SUPPORTS USAGE OF IPv4 and IPv6
*IMPROVE SCALABILITY THROUGH USE OF VRRS PATHWAYS
so judging from the options given it will be supports both IPv6 and IPv4
addressing

What are two methods to make the OSPF routing protocol more
secure? (Choose two.)
-Use only OSPFv3.
-Use MD5 authentication. *
-When feasible, create a VPN tunnel between each OSPF neighbor adjacency.
-Use the enable secret command.
-Use the passive-interface command on LAN interfaces that are connected
only to end-user devices.

Which function is provided by EtherChannel?


-enabling traffic from multiple VLANs to travel over a single Layer 2 link
-dividing the bandwidth of a single link into separate time slots
-creating one logical link by using multiple physical links between
two LAN switches *
-spreading traffic across multiple physical WAN links

New question 21.02.2015

Which two parameters does EIGRP use by default to calculate the


best path? (Choose two.)
-transmit and receive load
-delay*
-MTU
-bandwidth*
-reliability

New question 21.02.2015

Which wireless encryption method is the most secure?


-WPA
-WPA2 with AES *
-WPA2 with TKIP
-WEP

New question 21.02.2015

What occurs when authentication is configured on an EIGRP router?


-After EIGRP authentication has been configured, the router must be rebooted
to be able to reestablish adjacencies.
-If adjacencies are displayed after the use of the show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
command, then EIGRP authentication was successful.
-Only one router is required to be configured for EIGRP authentication.
-If only one router has been configured for EIGRP authentication, any
prior adjacencies will remain intact.* (propabbly)

New question Mar 21, 2015

An administrator issues the router eigrp 100 command on a router.


What is the number 100 used for?

-as the maximum bandwidth of the fastest interface on the router


-as the autonomous system number*
-as the length of time this router will wait to hear hello packets from a
neighbor
-as the number of neighbors supported by this router

New question Apr 14, 2015

Refer to the exhibit. What are the possible port roles for ports A, B, C
and D in this RSTP-enabled network?

alternate, root, designated, root

designated, root, alternate, root

alternate, designated, root, root

designated, alternate, root, root

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring PVST+


for the three switches.

What will be a result of entering these commands?

S2 will set the priority value for VLAN 10 to 24576

S1 will set the priority value for VLAN 20 to 24596

S3 will set the priority value for VLAN 30 to 8192

S1 will set the priority value for VLAN 10 to 0

What are two drawbacks to turning spanning tree off and having
multiple paths through the Layer 2 switch network? (Choose two.)

Broadcast frames are transmitted indefinitely.

Port security shuts down all of the port that attached devices.

The switch acts like a hub.

The Mac address table becomes unstable.

Port security becomes unstable.

Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before


attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server?
(Choose two.)
Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the
ping command.*
Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS
image using the show flash command.*
Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command.
Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.
Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version
command.

An EIGRP router loses the route to a network. Its topology table


contains two feasible successors to the same network. What action
will the router take?
The router will query neighbors for an alternate route.
The router uses the default route.
The DUAL algorithm is recomputed to find an alternate route.
The best alternative backup route is immediately inserted into the routing
table.

May 6, 2015

What is the function of STP in a scalable network?


It combines multiple switch trunk links to act as one logical link for increased
bandwidth.
It decreases the size of the failure domain to contain the impact of failures.
It protects the edge of the enterprise network from malicious activity.
It disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops.

Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be the root bridge after the
election process is complete?
S1
S2
S3
S4

08 May 2015
NEW Question: What is a requirement to configure a trunking
EtherChannel between two switches?
The participating interfaces must be on the same module on a switch.

The participating interfaces must be physically contiguous on a switch.

The participating interfaces must be assigned the same VLAN number on both
switches.

The allowed range of VLANs must be the same on both switches.