SSC CHSLE Guide Free Guide WWW - Sscportal.in

Free Guide for SSC Combined Higher
Secondary Level (10+2) Examination
Content Index
(A) SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Exam Syllabus
(B) Topic Wise Sample Practice Question

General Intelligence & Reasoning (Verbal)
o Alphabet Test
o Logical Sequence of Words
o Classification Test
o Analogy
o Series Completion
o Coding-Decoding
o Blood Relation
o Direction Sense Test
o Alpha-Numeric Sequence Test
o Number, Ranking and Time Sequence Test
o Mathematical Operations
o Puzzle Test
o Logical Venn diagram
o Inserting the Missing Character
o Data Sufficiency
General Intelligence & Reasoning (Non-Verbal)
o Series
o Analogy
Quantitative Aptitude
o Number System
o Squares, Cubes and Indices
o Decimal Fractions
o HCF & LCM
o Average
o Ratio & Proportion
o Partnership, Mixtures and Allegations
o Problems on Ages
o Percentage
o Profit & Loss
o Time and Work
o Pipes and Cisterns
o Time and Distance
o Problems on Train
o Allegation or Mixture
o Probability
o Boats and Streams
o Simple Interest
o Compound Interest
o Area
o Volume and Surface Area
o Stock and Shares
English Comprehension
o Narration (Direct and Indirect)
o Common Error
o One-Word Substitution
o Synonyms and Antonyms
o Idioms and Phrases
o Sentence Correction
o Sentence Arrangements
o Analogy
o Foreign Words & Phrases
o Comprehension
General Knowledge
o Indian History
o General Science
o Indian Polity
o Indian Economy
(C) Previous Year Exam Paper of CHSL/LDC Exam
Solved CHSL Exam Paper Held on 4 Dec., 2011
Solved CHSL Exam Paper Held on 11 Dec., 2011
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Exam Syllabus
General Intelligence:
1 Semantic Analogy 14 Symbolic operations
2 Symbolic/Number Analogy 15 Trends
3 Figural Analogy 16 Space Orientation
4 Semantic Classification 17 Venn Diagrams
5 Symbolic/Number Classification 18 Drawing inferences

6 Figural Classification 19 Punched hole/pattern-folding & unfolding
7 Semantic Series 20 Figural Pattern folding and completion

8 Number Series 21 Embedded figures
9 Figural Series 22 Critical Thinking

10 Problem Solving 23 Emotional Intelligence
11 Word Building 24 Social Intelligence
12 Coding and de-coding 25 Other sub-topics, if an

13 Numerical operations
English Language:
1 Spot the Error
2 Fill in the Blanks
3 Synonyms/Homonyms
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4 Antonyms
5 Spellings/Detecting Mis-spelt words
6 Idioms & Phrases
7 One word substitution
8 Improvement of Sentences
9 Active/Passive Voice of Verbs
10 Conversion into Direct/Indirect narration
11 Shuffling of Sentence parts
12 Shuffling of Sentences in a passage
13 Comprehension Passage
14 Cloze Passage
Quantitative Aptitude:
Arithmetic:
Number Systems:
o Computation of Whole Number
o Decimal and Fractions
o Relationship between numbers
Fundamental arithmetical operations:
o Percentages
o Ratio and Proportion
o Square roots
o Averages
o Interest (Simple and Compound)
o Profit and Loss
o Discount
o Partnership Business
o Mixture and Allegation
o Time and distance
o Time and work

Algebra:
o Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra (and their simple applications)
e.g. Formulas for (a+b)2,(a-b)2, (a+b)3 (a-b)3 , a3-b3, a3+b3, a2-b2; if
a+b+c=0, then a3+b3+c3=3 abc etc. and Elementary surds (simple
problems)
o Graphs of Linear Equations.
Geometry:
Familiarity with elementary geometric figures and facts:
Triangle and its various kinds of centres viz. Centroid, In-centre,
Orthocentre, Circumcentre
Congruence and similarity of triangles
Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle,
common tangents to two or more circles.
Mensuration:
Triangle, Quadrilaterals
Regular Polygons (sum of the internal angles of a polygon)
Circle
Right Prism
Right Circular Cone
Right Circular Cylinder
Sphere, Hemispheres
Rectangular Parallelepiped
Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square Base
Trigonometry:
Trigonometry (for acute angles 0 with 0090)
o Trigonometric ratios
o Degree and Radian Measures
o Standard Identities like sin20 + Cos20=1 etc.
Complementary Angles, Heights and Distances (simple problems only)

Statistical Charts:
Use of Tables and Graphs:
Histogram
Frequency Polygen
Bar-diagram
Pic-chart
General Awareness
Questions are designed to test the candidates general awareness of the environment around him and its
application to society. Questions are also designed to test knowledge of current events and of such
matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspect as may be expected of an
educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighbouring countries
especially pertaining to History, Culture Geography, Economic Scene, General policy and scientific
research.
(B) SKILL TEST for DATA ENTRY OPERATOR:

Data Entry Speed of 8,000 (eight thousand) Key Depressions per hour on Computer.
The Speed of 8000 key depressions per hour on Computer will be adjudged on the basis of the correct
entry of words key depressions as per the given passage and the duration of the said Test will be 15
(Fifteen) minutes and printed matter in English containing about 2000-2200 strokes/key-depressions
would be given to each candidate who would enter the same in the Computer.
The Data Entry Speed Skill Test would be of qualifying nature. Candidates allowed to take this test,
will have to qualify the test at the prescribed speed on Computer, to be provided by the Commission or
the agency authorized by the Commission to conduct such skill test at the Centre/venue so notified.
Only those candidates who qualify in the written part of examination and secure at least minimum
qualifying marks as may be fixed by the Commission in their discretion, will be eligible to take the Skill
Test.
Only such candidates who qualify in the Skill Test at a speed of not less than 8000 key depressions per
hour will be eligible for being recommended for appointment as per their position in the merit list.
None of the candidates including PH candidates who qualify in the written part of the examination will
be exempted from the Skill Test as passing of the skill test is a precondition and one of the essential
qualifications for appointment to the post of Data Entry Operator.

(C) Typing Test for LDCs:

Typing Test will be conducted for those candidates who qualify in the Written Examination. Such
Typing Test will be conducted in English or Hindi and candidates while applying for the Examination,
will have to indicate his/her choice/option for Skill Test Medium in the Application Form. The choice of
language in the application will be final and no change will be allowed.
Typing Test will be administered on the Computer, to be provided by the Commission or any agency
authorized by the Commission will be of qualifying in nature.
Candidates opting for English medium should have typing speed of 35 words per minute and those
opting for Hindi medium should have typing speed of 30 words per minute.
The speed will be adjudged on the accuracy of typing on the Computer of a given text passage in 10
minutes. Visually Handicapped candidates (with 40% disability and above) will be allowed 30 minutes.
Passage Dictators will be provided to each of VH candidates for the Typewriting test. The Passage
Dictators will read out the passage to the VH candidates within the allotted time period.

Topic Wise
Sample
Practice
Questions
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GENERAL INTELLIGENCE
&
REASONING (VERBAL)
ANSWERS
ALPHABET TEST
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a)
Directions (Q. No. 1-10): In each of the following
Questions, five words are given which of them
will come in the middle it all of them are arranged Classification Test
alphabetically as in a distionary?
1. (a) Bishop (b) Bifocal
(c) Bicycle (d) Bitter Directions (Q. No. 1-10) : Choose the word which
2. (a) Parasite (b) Party is look like the other words in the group
(c) Petal (d) Paste 1. (a) House (b) Cottage
3. (a) Research (b) Rational (c) School (d) Palace
(c) Round (d) Rustic 2. (a) Tamato (b) Cucumber
3. (a) Nature (b) Native (c) Brinjal (d) Carrot
(c) Narrate (d) Diastole 3. (a) Brick (b) Heart
5. (a) Didactic (b) Dictum (c) Bridge (d) Spade
(c) Dictionary (d) Diastole 4. (a) Hostel (b) Hotel
(c) Inn (d) Club
ANSWERS 5. (a) Kennel (b) House
(c) Stable (d) Aviary
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c)
ANSWERS
Logical Sequence of 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b)
Words
Direction (Q. No. 1-20): Sequence of occurrence
Analogy
of events or various stages in a process:
1. 1. Curd 2. Grass
Directions (Q. No. 1-20) : In each of the following
3. Butter 4. Milk Questions, there is a certain relationship between
(a) 2, 5, 4, 3, 1 (b) 4, 2, 5, 3, 1 two given words on one side of : : and one word is
(c) 5, 2, 3, 4, 1 (d) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3 given on another side of : : while another word is
2. 1. Heel 2. Shoulder to be found from the given alternatives, having
3. Skull 4. Neck the same relation with this word as the words of
5. Knee 6. Chest the given pair bear : choose the correct alternatives.
7. Thigh 8. Stomach 1. Aeroplane : Cockpit : : Train : ?
9. Face 10. Hand (a) Wagon (b) Coach
(a) 2, 4, 7, 10, 1, 5, 8, 9, 6, 3 (c) Compartment (d) Engine
(b) 3, 4, 7, 9, 2, 5, 8, 10, 6, 1
(c) 4, 7, 10, 1, 9, 6, 3, 2, 5, 8
2. Amnesia : Memory : : Paralysis : ?
(d) 3, 9, 4, 2, 10, 6, 8, 7, 5, 1 (a) Movement (b) Limbs
3. 1. Butterfly 2. Cocoon (c) Handicapped (d) Legs
3. Egg 4. Work 3. Meningitis : Brain : : Cirrhosis : ?
(a) 1, 3, 4, 2 (b) 1, 4, 3, 2 (a) Lungs (b) Brain
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3 (d) 3, 4, 2, 1 (c) Liver (d) Heart
4. 1. Rainbow 2. Rain 4. Book : Publisher : : Film : ?
3. Sin 4. Happy (a) Producer (b) Director
5. Child (c) Editor (d) Writer
(a) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5 (b) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4 5. Forecast : Future : : Regret : ?
(c) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1 (d) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3
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(a) Present (b) Atone FTJBBNM. How is FISHERY written in that
(c) Past (d) Sins code?
(a) ZSFIGJT (b) ZSFGIHR
(c) ZSFGEHR (d) ZSFEHGR
ANSWERS ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c)
Series Completion Blood Relation
1. Pointing to a woman, Naman said, "She is the

Directions (Q. No. 1-10) : Find the missing term in daughter of the only child of my grandmother."
each of the following series : How is the woman related to Naman?
1. 625, 5, 125, 25, 25, ?, 5 (a) Sister (b) Niece
(a) 5 (b) 25 (c) Cousin (d) Data inadequate
(c) 125 (d) 625 2. Pointing to a photograph, a person tells his
2. 3, 4, 7, 7, 13, 13, 21, 22, 31, 34, ? friend, "She is the grand daughter of the elder
(a) 42 (b) 43 brother of my father." How is the girl in the
(c) 51 (d) 52 photograph related to this man?
3. 11, 10, ?, 100, 1001, 1000, 10001 (a) Niece (b) Sister
(a) 101 (b) 110 (c) Aunt (d) Sister-in-law
(c) 111 (d) 113 3. A man said to a lady, "Your mother's husband's
4. 13, 32, 24, 43, 35, ?, 46, 65, 57, 76 sister is my aunt." How is the lady related to
(a) 45 (b) 52 the man?
(c) 54 (d) 55 (a) Daughter (b) Grand daughter
5. 0, 4, 6, 3, 7, 9, 6, ?, 12 (c) Mother (d) Sister
(a) 8 (b) 10 4. If Neena says, "Anita's father Raman is the only
(c) 11 (d) 14 son of my father-in-law Mahipal", then how is
Bindu, who is the sister of Anita, related to
ANSWERS Mahipal?
(a) Niece (b) Daughter
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b) (c) Wife (d) None of these
5. Pointing to the woman in the picture, Rajiv
said, "Her mother has only one grandchild
Coding-Decoding whose mother is my wife." How is the woman
in the picture related to Rajiv?
(a) Cousin (b) Wife
1.In a certain code LAWN is written as JCUP. How (c) Sister (d) Data inadequate
will SLIT be coded in that code?
(a) QNGV (b) QJGV ANSWERS
(c) QNVG (d) NJGV
2. In a certain code SATELLITE is written as 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (b)
FUBHTLDSHK. How is LAUNCHING written
in that code?
(a) DOUBFMGHO (b) OVBMCFMHG Direction Sense Test
(c) OVMBCFMGH (d) DOUBCFMHG
3. In a certain code LOUD is written as JOSF then
which of the following English words shall be 1. A man walks 1 km towards East and then he
coded as PKQG? turns to South and walks 5 km. Again he turns
(a) RISE (b) ROPE to East and walks 2 km, after this he turns to
(c) ROAD (d) RICE North and walks 9 km. Now, how far is he from
4. In a certain code BREAKDOWN is written as his starting point?
BFSCJMVNC. How is ORGANISED written in (a) 3 km (b) 4 km
that code? (c) 5 km (d) 7 km
(a) PSHBMCDRH (b) BHSPMCDRH
2. Raj travelled from a point X straight to Y at a
(c) BHSPOCDRH (d) BHSPNHRDC
distance of 80 metres. He turned right and
5. In a certain code CONCISE is written as
walked 50 metres, then again turned right and
walked 70 metres. Finally, he turned right and 4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
walked 50 metres. How far is he from the way based on the positions of the elements in
starting point? the above arrangement and hence form a
(a) 10 metres (b) 20 metres group. Which one does not belong to the
(c) 50 metres (d) 70 metres group?
3. Laxman went 15 kms to the west from my (a) 2 Y C D (b) S 1 3
house, then turned left and walked 20 kms. He (c) J S 3 (d) = # 2 C
then turned East and walked 25 kms and finally 5. 2 Y S is to E G in the same way as P H K is to?
turning left covered 20 kms. How far was he (a) W Q (b) @ W L
from his house? (c) @ Q (d) @ W K
(a) 5 kms (b) 10 kms
(c) 40 kms (d) 80 kms ANSWERS
4. From his house, Lokesh went 15 kms to the
North. Then he turned West and covered 10 1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b)
kms. Then, he turned South and covered 5 kms.
Finally, turning to East, he covered 10 kms. In
which direction is he from his house?
Number, Ranking and
(a) East (b) West Time Sequence Test
(c) North (d) South
5. Going 50 m to the South of her house, Radhika 1. If the positions of the first and the sixth digits
turns left and goes another 20 m. Then, turning of the number 2796543018 are interchanged,
to the North, she goes 30 m and then starts similarly the positions of the second and the
walking to her house. seventh digits are interchanged and so on,
In which direction is she walking now? which of the following will be the third to the
(a) North-west (b) North left of seventh digit from the left end?
(c) South-east (d) East (a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 7 (d) 8
ANSWERS 2. What will be the difference between the sum
of the odd digits and the sum of the even digits
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) in the number 857423?
(a) 0 (b) 1
Alpha-Numeric Sequence (c) 2 (d) None of these
3. If each of the odd digits in the number 54638 is
Test decreased by 1 and each of the even digits is
increased by 1, then which of the following will
Directions (Q. No. 1 to 5) : These questions are be the sum of the digits of the new number?
based on the following arrangement; (a) 25 (b) 26
JY2=SEGM7$HP9KL@WQ13#C (c) 28 (d) 29
D 4. How many times will you write even numerals
if you write all the numbers from 291 to 300?
1. How many such symbols are there in the above
(a) 11 (b) 13
arrangement each of which is either
(c) 15 (d) 17
immediately followed by a number or
5. A number is greater than 3 but less than 8. Also,
immediately preceded by a letter, but not both?
it is greater than 6 but less than 10. The number
(a) Nil (b) One
is?
(c) Two (d) Three
(a) 5 (b) 6
2. How many such letters are there in the above (c) 7 (d) 8
immediately followed by a number or ANSWERS
immediately preceded by a symbol, but not
both? 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c)
(a) Four (b) Five
(c) Six (d) None of these
3. How many such letters are there in the above Mathematical Operations
immediately followed by a number or 1. If + means , means , means , means +,
immediately preceded by a symbol, but not then 12 + 6 3 2 8 = ?
both? (a) 2 (b) 2
(a) Two (b) Three (c) 4 (d) 8
(c) Four (d) Five
2. If + means , means , means + and means (c) (iii)
, then 15 3 + 10 5 5 = ? (d) All are required
(a) 5 (b) 22
(c) 48 (d) 52 ANSWERS
3. If means , means , means + and + means
, then (3 15 19) 8 + 6 = ? 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (d)
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 4 (d) 8
4. If means +, + means , means and means Logical Venndiagram
, then 8 7 8 + 40 2 = ?
2 Directions (Q. No. 1-5) : In the following diagram,
(a) 1 (b) 7
5 the circle represents College Professors, the
triangle stands for Surgical Specialists, and
3
(c) 8 (d) 44 Medical Specialists are represented by the
5 rectangle.
5. If means , + means , means and means
+, then 15 2 900 + 90 100 = ? A
(a) 190 (b) 180
(c) 90 (d) None of these D
X Y X
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d) B Z B
C
Puzzle Test 1. College Professors who are also Surgical
Specialists are represented by
(1) A (b) B
Directions (Q. No. 1-5): Study the given (c) C (d) D
information carefully and answer the questions 2. Surgical Specialists who are also Medical
that follow : Specialists but not Professors are represented
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting on a wall and by
all of them are facing east. (a) B (b) X
(c) X (d) Z
(ii) C is on the immediate right of D.
3. C represents
(iii) B is at an extreme end and has E as his
(a) Medical Specialists
neighbour.
(b) College Professors
(iv) G is between E and F. (c) Surgical Specialists
(v) D is sitting third from the south end. (d) Mecial and Surgical Specialists
1. Who is sitting to the right of E? 4. B represents
(a) A (b) C (a) Professors who are neither Medical nor
(c) D (d) F Surgical Specialists
2. Which of the following pairs of people are (b) Professors who are not Surgical Specialists
sitting at the extreme ends? (c) Medical Specialists who are neither
(a) AB (b) AE Professors nor Surgical Specialists
(c) CD (d) FB (d) Professors who are not Medical Specialists
3. Name the person who should change place 5. College Professors who are also Medical
with C such that he gets the third place from Specialists are represented by
the north end. (a) A (b) X
(a) E (b) F (c) Y (d) Z
(c) G (d) D
4. Immediately between which of the following
pairs of people is D sitting? ANSWERS
(a) AC (b) AF
(c) CE (d) CF 1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b)
5. Which of the conditions (i) to (v) given above
is not required to find out the place in which A
is sitting?
(a) (i) (b) (ii)
III. Some deserts are hills.
Syllogism (a)
(b)
None follows
Only I follows
(c) Only I and II follow
(d) Only II and III follow
Directions (Q. No. 1-20) : In each of the questions
below are given three statements followed by three ANSWERS
conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to
take the given statements to be true even if they 1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (b)
seem to be at variance from the commonly known
facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows
Inserting the
from the given statements disregarding commonly Missing Character
known facts.
1. Statements: All dolls are windows. Directions (Q. No. 1-20): In each of the following
All bottles are windows. questions, a set of figures carrying certain
All cars are bottles. characters, is given. Assuming that the characters
Conclusions: I. All cars are windows. in each set follow a similar pattern, find the
II. Some cars are dolls. missing character in each case.
III. Some windows are cars.
(a) Only I and II follow 1. 4 9 9 16 16 ?
(b) Only II and III follow
(c) Only I and III follow
(d) All follow
2. Statements: All fruits are vegetables.
All pens are vegetables.
All vegetables are rains. 6 12 20
Conclusions: I. All fruits are rains. (a) 21 (b) 25
II. All pens are rains. (c) 35 (d) 45
III. Some rains are vegetables.
(a) None follows 2. 18 19 22 24 26 27
(b) Only I and II follow
(c) Only II and III follow
(d) All follow
3. Statements: All snakes are trees.
Some trees are roads.
All roads are mountains. 35 43 ?
Conclusions: I. Some mountains are snakes. (a) 49 (b) 76
II. Some roads are snakes. (c) 89 (d) 94
III. Some mountains are trees.
(a) Only I follows 3. 27 54 42 84 ? 42
(b) Only II follows
(c) Only III follows
(d) Both I and II follow
4. Statements: Some saints are balls.
All balls are bats.
9 14 7
Some tigers are balls.
Conclusions: I. Some bats are tigers. (a) 12 (b) 21
II. Some saints are bats. (c) 24 (d) 35
III. All bats are balls.
(a) Only I and II follow 4. 2 4 3 9 1 7
(b) Only II follows
(d) Only III follows
5. Statements: Some hills are rivers.
Some rivers are deserts.
20 90 ?
All deserts are roads.
Conclusions: I. Some roads are rivers. (a) 20 (b) 25
II. Some roads are hills. (c) 50 (d) 75
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but heavier than Kamal.
5. 4 3 11 9 15 6
5. On a T.V. channel, four serials A, B, C
and D were screened, one on each day,
on four consecutive days but not
necessarily in that order. On which day
was the serial C screened?
144 9801 ? I. The first serial was screened on 23rd,
Tuesday and was followed by serial
(a) 1216 (b) 2250 D.
(c) 8100 (d) 11036 II. Serial A was not screened on 25th and
one serial was screened between
ANSWERS serials A and B.
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) ANSWERS

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d)
Data Sufficiency
Directions (Q. No. 1-10) : Each of the Questions
below consists of a Question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to
decide whether the data Provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the Questions.
Read both statements and give answer.
(a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to
answer the Question, while the data in
statement II alone are not dufficient to answer
the Question.
(b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient
to answer the Question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer
the Question.
(c) If the data either in statement I alone or in
statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
Question.
(d) If the data given in both statements I and II
together are not sufficient to answer the
Question; and
(d) If the data in both statements I and II together
are necessary to answer the Question.
1. Among A, B, C, D, E and F, who is the
heaviest?
I. A and D are heavier than B, E and F but
none of them is the heaviest.
II. A is heavier than D but lighter than C.
2. Madan is taller than Kamal and Sharad is
younger than Arvind. Who among them is the
youngest?
I. Sharad is younger than Madan.
II. Arvind is younger than Kamal.
3. Among five friends, who is the tallest?
I. D is taller than A and C.
II. B is shorter than E but taller than D.
4. Manoj, Prabhakar, Akash and Kamal are four
friends. Who among them is the heaviest?
I. Prabhakar is heavier than Manoj and Kamal
but lighter than Akash.
II. Manoj is lighter than Prabhakar and Akash
GENERAL INTELLIGENCE
&
REASONING (NON - VERBAL)
Series
Directions (Q. No. 1-40): Each of the following (a) (b) (c) (d)
questions consists of five figures called the 5. Problem figures
problem figures followed by five other figures
marked a, b, c, d . Select a figure from amongst
the answer figures. which will continue the same
series as established by the five problem figures.
1. Problem figures
Answer figures
Answer figures (a) (b) (c) (d)
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2. Problem figures
Analogy
Directions (Q. No. 1-40): Each of the following

Answer figures
questions consists of two sets of figures. Figures
A, B, C and D constitute the problem set while
figures a, b, c, d .There is a difinite relationship
between figures A and B. Establish a similar
relationship between figures C and D by selecting
(a) (b) (c) (d)
a suitable figure from the answer set that would
3. Problem figures
replace the question mark (?) in figure (D)
1. Problem figures
Answer figures
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Answer figures
(a) (b) (c) (d)

4. Problem figures
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2. Problem figures
Answer figures
(A) (B) (C) (D)

Answer figures
(a) (b) (c) (d)

3. Problem figures
(A) (B) (C) (D)

Answer figures
(a) (b) (c) (d)

4. Problem figures
(A) (B) (C) (D)

Answer figures
(a) (b) (c) (d)

5. Problem figures
(A) (B) (C) (D)

Answer figures
(a) (b) (c) (d)
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a)
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
(c) 5/6 (d) 8/15

Number System 3. A decimal number has 16 decimal places. The
number of decimal places in the square root of
this number will be:
9 3 - 5 - 5 4 10 (a) 7 (b) 4
1. Evaluate:
-3 ( 5) - 2 4 2 (c) 8 (d) 16
(a) 9/10 (b) 8/17 4. Consider the following values of three given
(c) 16/19 (d) 4/7 numers:
2. The sum of three consecutive natural numbers 103, 99.35, 102.20
each divisible by 3 is 72. What is the largest (a) 10.1489 (Approx.)
among them? (b) 10.109 (Approx.)
(a) 25 (b) 26 (c) 9.967 (Approx.)
(c) 27 (d) 30 The correct sequence of these values matching
3. 55% of a number is more than one-third of that with the above number is:
number by 52. What is two-fifth of that (a) 3, 2, 1 (b) 1, 3, 2
number? (c) 2, 3, 1 (d) 3, 1, 2
(a) 96 (b) 240 5. If a four-digited perfect square number is such
(c) 144 (d) 142 that the number formed by the first two digits
4. The digits of a two-digit number are in the ratio and the number formed by the last two digits
of 2 : 3 and the number obtained by are also perfect squares, then the four digited
interchanging the digits is bigger than the number is:
original number by 27. (a) 5625 (b) 3616
What is the original number? (c) 1681 (d) 1024
(a) 63 (b) 48
(c) 96 (d) 69 ANSWERS
5. What least number would be subtracted from
427398 so that the remaining number is 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c)
divisible by 15?
(a) 13 (b) 3
(c) 16 (d) 11 Decimal Fractions
ANSWERS 1. If 2025 = 45, then the value of
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b) 0.00002025 + 0.002025 + 2025 +
20.25 =
Squares, Cubes and Indices (a) 49.95
(c) 4.9995
(b) 49.5495
(d) 499.95
5
2. If 15 = 3.88, the the value of is:
.85 (.105 + .024 - .008) 3
1. The expression
.022 .25 1.7 (a) 1.39 (b) 1.29
simplifies to: (c) 1.89 (d) 1.63
3. If 2805 2.55 = 1100, then 280.5 25.5 is:
(a) 11 (b) 1.1 (a) 111 (b) 1.1
(c) 0.11 (d) .011 (c) 0.11 (d) 11
4. The value of 213 + 2.013 + 0.213 + 2.0013 is:
16 1 (a) 217.2273
2. The value of + is:
(b) 21.8893
36 4
(c) 217.32
(a) 4/5 (b) 1/3
(d) 3.217.32 her eighth examination to obtain an average
of 60% on 8 examinations?
0.05 0.05 0.05 + 0.04 0.04 0.04
5. =? (a) 88% (b) 78%
0.05 0.05 - 0.05 0.04 + 0.04 0.04 (c) 92% (d) 68%
(a) 0.09 (b) 0.9 3. Ages of A and B are in the ratio of 2 : 3
(c) 0.009 (d) 0.001 respectively. Six years hence the ratio of their
ages will become 8 : 11 respectively. What is
ANSWERS Bs present age?
(a) 18 years (b) 28 years
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (a)
(c) 27 years (d) 25 years
4. The total age of A and B is 12 years more than
that of total age of B and C. C is how many
HCF & LCM years younger than A?
(a) C is elder than A (b) 26
1. How many numbers less than 10,000 are there (c) 12 (d) 25
which are divisible by 21, 35 and 63? 5. The average marks fetched by Mohan in
(a) 33 (b) 32 History, Geography, Science and Mathematics
(c) 38 (d) 37 is 10 more than the marks fetched in
2. Find the side of the largest possible square slabs Mathematics. If he has got 110 marks aggregate
which can be paved on the floor of a room 2m in History and Geography, what will be the
50 cm long and 1 m 50 cm broad. Also find the aggregate marks fetched in Science and
number of such slabs to pave the floor. Mathematics?
(a) 40, 18 (b) 30, 15 (a) 90 (b) 70
(c) 50, 15 (d) 20, 25 (c) 75 (d) 85
3. What is the largest number which when
divides 1475, 3155 and 5255 leaves the same ANSWERS
remainder in each case?
(a) 220 (b) 420 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (d)
(c) 350 (d) 540
4. A florist has 200 roses and 180 jasmines with
him. He was asked to make garlands of flowers Ratio & Proportion
with only roses or only jasmines each
containing the same number of flowers. What 1. In a school the number of boys and that of the
will be the largest number of flowers, he can girls are in the respective ratio of 2 : 3 If the
join together without leaving a single flower? number of boys is increased by 20% and that
(a) 16 (b) 17 of girls is increased by 10%, what will be the
(c) 20 (d) 19 new ratio of number of boys to that of the girls?
5. The HCF and LCM of a pair of numbers are 12 (a) 13 : 7 (b) 7 : 9
and 926 respectively. How many such distinct (c) 13 : 4 (d) 8 : 11
pairs are possible? 2. Income of two companies A and B are in the
(a) 3 (b) 7 ratio of 5 : 8. Had the income of company A
(c) 1 (d) 0 been more by Rs. 25 lakhs, the ratio of their
incomes would have been 5 : 4 respectively.
ANSWERS What is the income of company B?
(a) Rs. 45 lakhs (b) Rs. 80 lakhs
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d) (c) Rs. 40 lakhs (d) Rs. 65 lakhs
3. The ratio of males and females in a city is
7 : 8 respectively and the percentage of children
Average among males and females is 25% and 20%
respectively. If the number of adult females in
the city is 1,56,800, what is the total population?
1. The average weight of 8 persons increases by (a) 3,00,000 (b) 3,67,500
2.5 kg when a new person comes in place of (c) 3,96,000 (d) 2,71,500
one of them weighing 65 kg. What might be 4. A sum of money is to be distributed among P,
the weight of the new person? Q and R in the ratio 6: 19:7. If R gives Rs. 200
(a) 82 kg (b) 85 kg from his share to Q, the ratio of P, Q and R
(c) 76.5 kg (d) 80 kg becomes 3 : 10 3 what is the total sum?
2. Sumitra has an average of 56% on her first 7 (a) Rs. 6400 (b) Rs. 4800
examinations. How much she should make on (c) Rs. 3200 (d) Rs. 3600
5. A total of 91 boys are seated in three rows. The
ratio between the number of boys seated in the ANSWERS
first and the second row is 5 : 2 respectively
and the ratio between the number of boys 1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a)
seated in the second and the third row is 1 : 3
respectively. How many boys were there in the
second row? Problems on Ages
(a) 24 (b) 14
(c) 42 (d) 60
1. Six years ago, the ratio of the ages of Kunal
and Sagar was 6 : 5. Four years hence, the ratio
ANSWERS of their ages will be 11 : 10. What is Sagars
age at present?
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b)
(a) 16 years (b) 19 years
(c) 22 years (d) 25 years
Partnership, 2. The total of the ages of Jayant, Prem and

Saransh is 93 years. Ten years ago, the ratio of
their ages was 2 : 3 : 4. What is the present age
of Saransh?
1. Avinash invested an amount of Rs. 25,000 and (a) 44 years (b) 36 years
started a business. Jitendra joined him after one (c) 33 years (d) 38 years
year with an amount of 3. The ratio of the present ages of two brothers is
Rs. 30,000. After two years from starting the 1 : 2 and 5 years back, the ratio was1 : 3. What
business they earned the profit of Rs. 46,000. will be the ratio of their ages after 5 years?
What will be Jitendras share in the profit? (a) 3 : 4 (b) 3 : 2
(a) Rs. 16,000 (b) Rs. 13,000 (c) 3 : 5 (d) 5 : 6
(c) Rs. 7,66.67 (d) 17,250 4. Hitesh is 40 years old and Ronnie is 60 years
2. Mr. Nilesh Agrawal opened a workshop old. How many years ago was the ratio of their
investing Rs. 40,000. He invested additional ages 3 : 5?
amount of Rs. 10,000 every year. After two (a) 2 years (b) 10 years
years his brother Suresh joined him with an (c) 30 years (d) 47 years
amount of Rs. 85,000. Thereafter Suresh did not 5. The ratio of the fathers age to his sons age is
invest any additional amount. On completion 7 : 3. The product of their ages is 756. The ratio
of four years from the opening of workshop of their ages after 6 years will be:
they earned an amount of Rs. 1,95,000. What (a) 6 : 7 (b) 2 : 1
will be Nileshs share in the earning? (c) 10 : 9 (d) 3 : 2
(a) Rs. 96,000 (b) Rs. 1,10,000
(c) Rs. 1,35,000 (d) Rs. 98,000 ANSWERS
3. A invests Rs. 3000 for one year in a business.
How much B should invest in order that the 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (b)
profit after 1 year may be divided into ratio of
2 : 3?
(a) Rs. 3,000
(c) Rs. 3600
(b) Rs. 1800
(d) Rs. 9,000
Percentage
4. A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and
B in the ratio 7 : 5. When 9 litres of mixture are 1. The difference of two numbers is 20% of the
drawn off and can is filled with B, the ratio of larger number. If the smaller number is 20, then
A and B becomes the larger number is:
7 : 9. How many litres of liquid A was contained (a) 25 (b) 46
by the can initially? (c) 27 (d) 82
(a) 28 (b) 21 (c) 25 (d) 23 2. When any number is divided by 12, then
5. Three friends A, B and C started a business by dividend becomes 1/4th of the other number.
investing amount in the ratio of 5 : 7 : 6 By how much percent first number is greater
respectively. After a period of six months C than the second number?
withdrew half of the amount invested by him. (a) 165 (b) 200
If the amount invested by A is Rs. 40,000 and (c) 300 (d) 400
the total profit earned at the end of one year is 3. If one number is 80% of the other and 4 times
Rs. 33,000, what, is Cs share in profit? the sum of their squares is 656, then the
(a) Rs. 9,000 (b) Rs. 15,000 numbers are:
(c) Rs. 11,000 (d) Rs. 12,000 (a) 6,8 (b) 8, 10
(c) 16, 20 (d) 10, 15
4. Two numbers A and B are such that the sum of
5% of A and 4% of B is two-third of the sum of Time and Work
6% of A and 8% of B. Find the ratio of A : B.
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 3 : 1
(c) 3 : 4 (d) 4 : 3 1. A and B together can do a piece of work in 12
5. Three candidates contested an election and days, which B and C together can do in 16 days.
received 1136, 7636 and 11628 votes After A has been working at it for 5 days and B
respectively. What percentage of the total votes for 7 days, C finishes it in 13 days. In how many
did the winning candidate get? days C alone will do the work?
(a) 57% (b) 77% (a) 16 (b) 24
(c) 80% (d) 90% (c) 37 (d) 48
2. A and B can do a piece of work in 45 days and
ANSWERS 40 days respectively. They began to do the work
together but A leaves after some days and then
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (a) B completed the remaining work in 23 days.
The number of days after which A left the work
was:
Profit & Loss (a) 11
(c) 9
(b) 7
(d) 12
3. A can do a piece of work in 14 days which B
1. A man purchased a box full of pencils at the can do in 21 days. They begin together but 3
rate of 7 for Rs. 9 and sold all of them at the days before the completion of the work, A
rate of 8 for Rs. 11. In this transaction, he gained leaves off. The total number of days to
Rs. 10. How many pencils did the box contain? complete the work is:
(a) 111 (b) 112
3 1
(c) 114 (d) 116 (a) 6 (b) 8
2. A man bought a number of clips at 3 for a rupee 5 2
and an equal number at 2 for a rupee. At what 1 1
price per dozen should he sell them to make a (c) 10 (d) 13
5 2
profit of 20%?
(a) Rs. 9 (b) Rs. 10 4. A, B and C can complete a work separately in
(c) Rs. 6 (d) Rs. 7 24, 36 and 48 days respectively. They started
together but C left after 4 days of start and A
3. A man buys eggs at 2 for Re. 1 and an equal
left 3 days before the completion of the work.
number at 3 for Rs. 2 and sells the whole at 5
In how many days will the work be completed?
for Rs. 3. His gain or loss percent is:
(a) 15 days (b) 24 days
2 6 (c) 25 days (d) 38 days
(a) 2 % loss (b) 3 % gain
7 7 5. A, B and C together earn Rs. 300 per day, while
A and C together earn Rs. 188 and B and C
2 6 together earn Rs. 152. The daily earning of C
(c) 3 % loss (d) 2 % loss
7 7 is:
4. A man bought some oranges at Rs. 10 per (a) Rs. 40 (b) Rs. 70
dozen and bought the same number of oranges (c) Rs. 112 (d) Rs. 160
at Rs. 8 per dozen. He sold these oranges at
Rs. 11 per dozen and gained Rs.120. The total ANSWERS
number of oranges bought by him was:
(a) 55 dozens (b) 80 dozens 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a)
(c) 90 dozens (d) 60 dozens
5. A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How
many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%? Pipes and Cisterns
1 8 (b) 9
(c) 5 (d) 2
1. A pump can fill a tank with water in 2 hours.
1
ANSWERS Because of a leak, it took 2
3
hours to fill the
tank. The leak can drain all the water of the

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c) tank in:
(a) 43 hrs (b) 9 hrs
(c) 10 hrs (d) 14 hrs my bicycle went out of order.
2. Two taps A and B can fill a tank in 5 hours and Consequently, I rested for 35 minutes
20 hours respectively. If both the taps are open and came back to my house walking all
then due to a leakage, it took 30 minutes more the way. I reached my house at 1 p.m. If
to fill the tank. If the tank is full, how long will my cycling speed is 10 kmph and my
it take for the leakage alone to empty the tank? walking speed is
(a) 44 hrs (b) 12 hrs 1 kmph, then on my bicycle I covered a
(c) 18 hrs (d) 36 hrs distance of:
3. Two pipes A and B together can fill a cistern in 61 4
(a) 4 km (b) 13 km
4 hours. Had they been opened separately, then 66 3
B would have taken 6 hours more than A to fill 3 7
the cistern. How much time will be taken by A (c) 5 km (d) 15 km
6 8
to fill the cistern separately? 5. A, B and C are on a trip by a car. A drives
(a) 10 hr (b) 4 hrs during the first hour at an average speed
(c) 6 hrs (d) 8 hrs. of 50 km/hr. B drives during the next 2
4. One pipe can fill a tank three times as fast as hours at an average speed of 48 km/hr.
another pipe. If together the two pipes can fill C drives for the next 3 hours at an
the tank in 36 minutes, then the slower pipe average speed of 52 km/hr. They
alone will be able to fill the tank in: reached their destination after exactly 6
(a) 92 min (b) 112 min hours. Their mean speed was:
(c) 144 min (d) 192 min
5. A tank is filled in 5 hours by three pipes A, B
1
(a) 50 km/hr (b) 50 km/hr
and C. The pipe C is twice as fast as B and B is 3
twice as fast as A. How much time will pipe A (c) 51 km/hr (d) 52 km/hr
alone take to fill the tank?
(a) 22 hrs (b) 27 hrs ANSWERS
(c) 35 hrs
(d) cannot be determined 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b)
ANSWERS
Problems on Train
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (6) 4. (c) 5. (c)
1. A train moves past a telegraph post and a
bridge 264 m long in 8 seconds and 20 seconds
Time and Distance respectively. What is the speed of the train?
(a) 75 km/hr (b) 82 km/hr
(c) 79 km/hr (d) 79.2 km/hr
1. Mac travels from A to B a distance of 250 miles
2. A train takes 18 seconds to pass completely
1 through a station 162 m long and 15 seconds
in 5 hours. He returns to A in 4 hours 30
2 through another station 120 m long. The length
minutes. His average speed is: of the train is:
(a) 42 mph (b) 49 mph (a) 73 m (b) 92 m
(c) 48 mph (d) 50 mph (c) 90 m (d) 100 m
2. A boy goes to his school from his house at a 3. How many seconds will a 500 metre long train
speed of 3 km/hr and returns at a speed of 2 take to cross a man walking with a speed of 3
km/hr. If he takes 5 hours in going and coming, km/hr in the direction of the moving train if
the distance between his house and school is: the speed of the train is 63 km/hr?
(a) 8.5 km (b) 5.5 km (c) 6 km (d) 9 km (a) 32 (b) 30
3. The average speed of a train in the onward (c) 40 (d) 48
journey is 25% more than that in the return 4. A jogger running at 9 kmph alongside a railway
journey. The train halts for one hour on track is 240 metres ahead of the engine of a
reaching the destination. The total time taken 120 metre long train running at 45 kmph in the
for the complete to and for journey is 17 hours, same direction. In how much time will the train
covering a distance of 800 km. The speed of pass the jogger?
the train in the onward journey is: (a) 38 sec (b) 20 sec
(a) 50 km/hr (b) 53 km/hr (c) 36 sec (d) 72 sec
(c) 52 km/hr (d) 56.25 km/hr 5. A train 110 metres long is running with a speed
4. I started on my bicycle at 7 a.m. to reach a of 60 kmph. In what time will it pass a man
certain place. After going a certain distance, who is running at 6 kmph in the direction
opposite to that in which the train is going? probability that the ticket drawn bears a
(a) 8 sec (b) 6 sec number which is a multiple of 3?
(c) 7 sec (d) 12 sec 3 5 5 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
ANSWERS 10 11 2 5
3. Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b) then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the
probability that the ticket drawn bears has a
number which is a multiple of 3 or 5?
Alligation or Mixture (a)
6
(b)
9
(c)
8
(d)
9
7 11 15 20
1. In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties 4. In a lottery, there are 10 prizes and 25 blanks.
of tea worth Rs. 60 a kg and Rs. 65 a kg so that A lottery is drawn at random. What ist he
by selling the mixture at Rs. 68.20 a kg he may probability of getting a prize?
gain 10%? 11 7 2 5
(a) 3 : 2 (b) 6 : 7 (a) (b) (c) (d)
13 9 7 7
(c) 3 : 5 (d) 4 : 5
5. One card is drawn at random from a pack of
2. How many kilograms of sugar costing Rs. 9 52 cards. What is the probability that the card
per kg must be mixed with 27 kg of sugar drawn is a face card?
costing Rs. 7 per kg so that there may be a gain
of 10% by selling the mixture at Rs. 9.24 per 5 4
(a) (b)
kg? 7 13
(a) 38 kg (b) 43 kg
1 11
(c) 54 kg (d) 63 kg (c) (d)
3. In what ratio must water be mixed with milk 4 52
2 ANSWERS
to gain 16 on selling the mixture at cost
3
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c)
price?
(a) 1 : 6 (b) 7 : 1
(c) 7 : 3 (d) 4 : 3
9. A dishonest milkman professes to sell his milk Boats and Streams
at cost price but he mixes it with water and
thereby gains 25%. The percentage of water in 1. Speed of a boat in standing water is 9 kmph
the mixture is: and the speed of the stream is 1.5 kmph. A man
(a) 4% 2. 35% (c) 20% (d) 30% rows to a place at a distance of 105 km and
4. Two vessels A and B contain spirit and water comes back to the starting point. The total time
mixed in the ratio 5 : 2 and 7 : 6 respectively. taken by him is:
Find the ratio in which these mixture be mixed (a) 22 hours (b) 27 hours
to obtain a new mixture in vessel C containing (c) 20 hours (d) 24 hours
spirit and water in the ratio 8 : 5? 2. The speed of a boat in still water is 15 km/hr
(a) 5 : 3 (b) 9 : 4 (c) 5 : 6 (d) 7 : 9 and the rate of current is 3 km/hr. The distance
travelled downsteam in 12 minutes is:
ANSWERS (a) 3.3 km (b) 2.9 km
(c) 2.4 km (d) 3.6 km
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d)
3. A man can row at 5 kmph in still water. If the
velocity of current is 1 kmph and it takes him
1 hour to row to a place and come back, how
Probability far is the place?
(a) 2.4 km (b) 2.5 km
1. Two dice are thrown simultaneusly. What is (c) 3 km (d) 3.1 km
the probility of getting two numbers whose 4. A boat takes 19 hours for travelling
product is even? downstream from point A to point B and
coming back to a point C midway between A
3 3 3 7 and B. If the velocity of the stream is 4 kmph
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 4 8 9 and the speed of the boat in still water is 14
2. Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and kmph, what is the distance between A and B?
then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the (a) 162 km (b) 180 km
(c) 223 km (d) 220 km
5. A man can row 9

1
3
kmph in still water and Compound Interest
finds that it takes him thrice as much time to
row up than as to row down the same distance 1. The difference between compound interest and
in the river. The speed of the current is: simple interest on an amount of Rs. 15,000 for
1 1 2 years is Rs. 96. What is the rate of interest
(a) 2 km hr (b) 4 km hr per annum?
3 9
(a) 8 (b) 11
2 1 (c) 12 (d) None of these
(c) 4 km hr (d) 4 km hr
3 2 2. The difference between simple and compound
interests and compounded annually on a
ANSWERS certain sum of money for 2 years at 4% per
annum is Re. 1. The sum (in Rs.) is:
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c) (a) 625 (b) 620
(c) 640 (d) 660
3. The compound interest on a sum of money for
Simple Interest 2 years is Rs. 832 and the simple interest on
the same sum for the same period is Rs. 800.
The difference between the compound interest
1. If Rs. 64 accounts to Rs. 83.20 in 2 years, what and the simple interest for 3 years will be:
will Rs. 86 amount to in 4 years at the same (a) Rs. 50 (b) Rs. 67
rate per cent pr annum? (c) Rs. 98.56 (d) Rs. 75.45
(a) Rs. 115.80 (b) Rs. 127.70
4. The difference between the simple interest on
(c) Rs. 127.40 (d) Rs. 51.60
a certain sum at the rate of 10% per annum for
2. The simple interest on a certain sum of money 2 years and compound interest which is
at the rate of 5% p.a. for 8 years is Rs. 840. At compounded every 6 months is Rs. 124.05.
what rate of interest the same amount of What is the principal sum?
interest can be received on the same sum after
(a) Rs. 9000 (b) Rs. 8000
5 years?
(c) Rs. 10,000 (d) Rs. 13,000
(a) 10% (b) 8%
(c) 9% (d) 12% 5. The difference between compound interest and
simple interest on a sum for 2 years at 10% per
3. The interest on a certain deposit at 4.5% p.a. is
annum, when the interest is compounded
Rs. 202.50 in one year. How much will the
annually is Rs. 16. If the interest were
additional interest in one year be on the same
deposit at 5% p.a.? compounded half-yearly, the difference in two
(a) Rs. 30.25 (b) Rs. 22.50 interests would be:
(c) Rs. 25 (d) Rs. 52.75 (a) Rs. 24.81 (b) Rs. 30
(c) Rs. 31.61 (d) Rs. 35
4. A sum invested at 5% simple interest per
annum grows to Rs. 504 in 4 years. The same ANSWERS
amount at 10% simple interest per annum in
1 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a)
2 years will grow to:
2
(a) Rs. 530 (b) Rs. 555
(c) Rs. 525 (d) Rs. 650 Area
5. What will be the ratio of simple interest earned
by certain amount at the same rate of interest
for 6 years and that for 9 years? 1. The diagonal of a rectangle is thrice its smaller
(a) 5 : 3 (b) 4 : 7 side. The ratio of the length to the breadth of
(c) 2 : 3 (d) data inadequate the rectangle is:
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 3 :1
(c) 2 :1 (d) 2 2 :1
ANSWERS
2. A rectangular carpet has an area of 120 sq.
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) metres and a perimeter of 46 metres. The length
of its diagonal is:
(a) 15 m (b) 19 m
(c) 17 m (d) 22 m
3. The diagonal of a rectangle is 41 cm and its (a) 5835 (b) 6400

(c) 6420 (d) 9260
area is 20 sq. cm. The perimeter of the rectangle
must be:
(a) 10 cm (b) 18 cm ANSWERS
(c) 22 cm (d) 42 cm
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d)
4. A took 15 seconds to cross a rectangular field
diagonally walking at the rate of 52 m/min and
B took the same time to cross the same field
along its sides walking at the rate of 68 m/min. Stock and Shares
The area of the field is:
(a) 52 m2 (b) 40 m2 1. A 9% stock yields 8%. The market value of the
(c) 61 m2 (d) 60 m2 stock is:
5. A rectangular carpet has an area of 60 sq. m. If (a) Rs. 72 (b) Rs. 94
its diagonal and longer side together equal 5 (c) Rs. 112.50 (d) Rs. 118.50
times the shorter side, the length of the carpet 2. A 12% stock yielding 10% is quoted at:
is: (a) Rs. 87 (b) Rs. 112
(a) 8 m (b) 12 m (c) Rs. 112 (d) Rs. 120
(c) 15 m (d) 14.5 m
3. By investing Rs. 1620 in 8% stock, Michael
earns Rs. 135. The stock is then quoted at:
ANSWERS (a) Rs. 90 (b) Rs. 96
(c) Rs. 106 (d) Rs. 110
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b)
4. To produce an annual income of Rs. 1200 from
a 12% stock at 90, the amount of stock needed
is:
Volume and Suface Area (a) Rs. 10,000 (b) Rs. 12,800
(c) Rs. 13,000 (d) Rs. 16,000
1. A rectangular water tank is 80 m 40 m. Water 5. In order to obtain an income of Rs. 650 from
flows into it through a pipe 40 sq. cm at the 10% stock at Rs. 96, one must make an
opening at a speed of 10 km/hr. By how much, investment of:
the water level will rise in the tank in half an (a) Rs. 6200 (b) Rs. 6240
hour? (c) Rs. 6500 (d) Rs. 9800
(a)
4
cm (b)
5
cm ANSWERS
11 9
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b)
5 4
(c) cm 4. cm
8 5
2. A hall is 15 m long and 12 m broad. If the sum
of the areas of the floor and the ceiling is equal
to the sum of areas of the four walls, the
volume of the hall is:
(a) 720 (b) 800
(c) 1200 (d) 2000
3. The sum of the length, breadth and depth of a
cuboid is 19 cm and its diagonal is 5 5 cm. It
surface area is:
(a) 127 cm2 (b) 236 cm2
(c) 361 cm 2
(d) 480 cm2
4. A swimming pool 9 m wide and 12 m long is 1
m deep on the shallow side and 4 m deep on
the deeper side. Its volume is:
(a) 309 m3 (b) 270 m3
(c) 360 m 3
(d) 607 m3
5. A metallic sheet is of rectangular shape with
dimensions 48 m 36 m. From each of its
corners, a square is cut off so as to make an
open box. If the length of the square is 8 m, the
volume of the box (in m3) is:
ENGLISH COMPREHENSION
Narration ANSWERS
(Direct and Indirect) 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b)
Directions: Pick out the correct alternative that Common Error

complete sentence which is changed into indirect
narration.
1. The thief said to the policeman, Why did you Directions: In each of the following sentences four
beat me so mercilessly? words or phrases have been underlined. Only one
The thief: underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable
(a) asked the policeman why he had beaten him in standard English. Pick up the part 1, 2, 3, 4.
so mercilessly. 1. I have seen as bad or worse scenes of
(b) said the policeman that why he had beaten 1
him mercilessly. disorder at the English fair than the ones
(c) asked the policeman that why he had beaten 2 3
him so mercilessly. in any other Australian mining town.
(d) None of these. 4
2. The saint said to me, Why do you not go to 2. This is the third communication we have
the temple daily? 1
The saint: sent and we are surprised that we have
(a) said to me that why I did not go to the 2 3
temple daily. received no answer.
(b) asked me that why I did not go to the temple 4
daily. 3. The officers are now perfectly happy
(c) asked me that why I do not go to the temple 1 2
daily. fishing, boating, shooting, playing cricket
(d) enquired of me why I did not go to the 3
temple daily.
3. My friend said to me, Where do you go and other sports.
daily? 4
My friend: 4. While in conversation with a high ranking
(a) asked me where I went daily. 1
(b) said to me that where I went daily. military officer he told me that at the
(c) told me that where I went daily. 2 3
(d) asked me that where I go daily. head-quarters nothing was known.
4
4. The teacher said to me, Have you read this 5. The fear of an impending invasion has more
book? The teacher 1 2
(a) told to me that had I read this book. to do than even the debasing of the coinage
(b) said to me that had I read this book. 3
(c) asked me if I had read that book. with the financial difficulties.
(d) told me that I had read that book. 4
5. The milk man says, My cow does not give
much milk.
The milk man :
ANSWERS
(a) said that his cow does not give much milk.
(b) told that his cow does not give much milk. 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c)
(c) says that his cow does not give much milk.
(d) told that his cow do not give much milk.
(a) Spiteful (b) Careless
(c) Fussy (d) Ignorant
One-Word Substitution
ANSWERS
Directions: In each of these questions, out of the 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (c)
four lternatives, choose the one which can be
substituted for the given sentence, group of words
or clauses.
Idioms and Phrases
1. Parts of a country behind the coast or a river's
banks.
(a) Swamps (b) Archipelago Directions (Q. No. 1-30): Select the meaning of the
(c) Hinterland (d) Isthmus bold Idiom or phrase from the given alternatives.
2. A lower-area storm with high winds rotating
1. In the organised society of today no individual
about a centre of low atmospheric pressure
or nation can plough a lonely furrow.
(a) Cyclone (b) Tornado
(a) remain unaffected
(c) Typhoon (d) Hurricane
(b) do without the help of others
3. One who promotes the idea of absence of (c) survive in isolation
government of any kind, when every man (d) remain non-aligned
should be a law unto himself
2. To flog a dead horse
(a) Anarchist (b) Belligerent
(a) to do interesting things
(c) Iconoclast (d) Agnostic
(b) to try to take work from a weak horse
4. Something which is not through or profound (c) to beat a horse that is dead
(a) Superficial (b) Superstitious (d) to revive interest in a subject which is out
(c) Superfluous (d) Supernatural of date
5. Indifference to pleasure or pain 3. To bait the hook to suit the fish
(a) Docility (b) Stoicism (a) to look at things from other person's point
(c) Patience (d) Reticence of veiw
(b) to catch fish by providing suitable food
ANSWERS (c) to do things to please others
(d) to prepare a box to pack the fish
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b)
4. Bed of roses
(a) very soft bed (b) dull life
(c) belong to (d) full of joys
Synonyms and Antonyms 5. Black and blue
(a) painting (b) severely
(c) together (d) intermix
Directions (Q. No. 1-30): In this section you find
a number of sentences, parts of which are bold. ANSWERS
For each bold part, four or five words/phrases are
listed below. Choose the word/phrase nearest in 1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b)
meaning to the bold part.
1. Indians are likely to be parochial.
(a) Generous Sentence Correction
(b) Narrow-minded.
(c) Brave (d) Short-sighted
2. I was discomfited to find the boss in the disco. Directions: Each of the following question is in
(a) irritated (b) uncomfortable the form of a sentence with four underlined
(c) embarrassed (d) displeased portions marked a, b, c and d, respectively. Choose
3. He spent most of his years debunking the marked portion that carries errors. If no error
politicians. required then your answer is 5.
(a) Exposing (b) Cheating 1. A tapestry consists of a foundation weave,
(c) Threatening (d) Pacifying a
4. We arrived safely at the quay and went ashore. called the wrap, which across are passed
(a) Peninsula (b) Wharf b
(c) Target (d) Island several coloured threads, called wefts,
5. Editors are known to be pernickety about c
grammar. forming decorative patterns.
d
2. The fossil remains of much extinct 2. A. The Vikings were the terrorists whom
a Europe feared the most between the eighth
mammals have been found in the tar pits and the twelfth centuries.
b c B. They set out on these voyages of dangerous
or Rancho Brea in Los Angles. adventure because they felt an even more
d unbearable fear than did their neighbours
3. Chemical engineering is based on the who stayed behind.
a C. For they were tortured by the thought that
principles of physics, chemists, and their name and reputation might vanish
b c into nothingness.
mathematics. D. They managed to brave the seas to pillage,
d ransom, and create havoc from
4. The salesman refused to show the family Constantinople to Lisbon and Dublin, even
a though they carried inside them all the
around the showroom, till they told him usual fears of poor peasants as well as the
b c loneliness of Scandinavia's long nights.
what kind of a carthey were looking for. (a) CDAB (b) CBAD
d e (c) DABC (d) ADBC
5. Despite the manager's comprehensive and 3. A. Deprived of livelihood and income, they
a face penury, and as families split up and
enthusiastic explanation of the scheme, we spread out, their community bonds
b crumble.
were completely disinterested in the matter. B. Oddly, all this happens in the name of
d development, and the victim are described
as beneficiaries.
C. Cut off from their most vital resources,
ANSWERS those uprooted are then robbed of their
history traditions and culture.
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c)
D. Imagine the entire population of the
continent of Australia turned out of their
homes eighteen million people losing
Sentence Arrangements their lands, evicted from their houses.
(a) DACB (b) DBAC
(c) ACDB (d) ABDC
Direction (Q. No. 1-30) : Sentences given in each 4. A. This chemical compound finds wide usage
in diversified industries such as refectories,
question, when properly sequenced form a
ceramics, etc.
coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with
B. Indal developed the requisite technology
letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences
in-house at its Belgaum centre.
from among the given choices to construct a
C. In 1982-83, it started developing special
coherent paragraph.
alumina, an import substitute.
1. A. 'Electricity' is a subject enumerated in the D. In pursuit of its policy of adding value to
Concurrent list, meaning that the Federal the basic products, Indal has been adding
and State legislatures are competent to enact value to alumina too.
laws on the subject. (a) BCDA (b) CDAB
B. The Constitution of India has demarcated (c) CBAD (d) DCAB
the legislative competence of the Federal
5. A. India accorded Most Favoured Nation
and State legislatures in three different lists.
(MFN) status to Pakistan long ago.
C. However, a State law cannot override, or
B. Matters have hardly improved since
be inconsistent with, a Federal law and in
case of inconsistency, the Federal law will dialogue was broken off in early 1994.
override the State law. C. Pakistan is still only talking about giving
D. The Union list contains matters within the India MFN status in trade, even though it
exclusive domain of the Federal legislature, is obliged to under the World Trade
the State list contains matters within the Organisation.
exclusive domain of the State legislature, D. In some ways, they have worsened.
and the Concurrent list contains subjects on (a) CADB (b) BDCA
which both the Federal and the State (c) CBDA (d) ACBD
legislatures are competent to enact laws.
(a) ACBD (b) BDAC ANSWERS
(c) DABC (d) BCDA
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (d)
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(c) according to cost
(d) according to demand
Analogy 4. Aide memoire
(a) hearing aid
Direction (Q. No. 1-30): Each of the questions (b) without memory
consists of two capitalised words which have a (c) with sound memory
certain relationship to each other. Followed by four (d) notes to aid memory
pairs of words. Choose the pair that is related to 5. Ad interim :
each other in the same way as the capitalised pair. (a) finally (b) ultimately
(c) unanimously (d) in the mean time
1. PEST : IRKSOME
(a) salesclerk : courteous
(b) expert : proficient ANSWERS
(c) enigma : unexpected
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b)
(d) leader : non-descript
2. PROLOGUE : NOVEL
(a) preamble
(b) sketch
:
:
constitution
drawing
Comprehension
(c) movement : symphony
(d) index : book
3. EXPAND : VOLUME Directions (Q.111): Read the following
(a) ascent : flight passage carefully and answer the questions given
(b) proliferate : number below it. Certain words are printed in bold in the
(c) bend : flexibility passage to help you locate them while answering
(d) cool : temperature some of the questions.
4. RUST : CORROSION What is immediately needed today is the
(a) vapour : flammability establishement of a Wrold Government or an
(b) dew : condensation
(c) crystal : purification
International Federation of mankind. It is the
(d) solution : precipitation utmost necessity of the world today, and all
5. CLAIM : LEGITIMATED those persons who wish to see all human beings
(a) hypothesis : confirmed happy and prosperous naturally feel it keenly.
(b) verdict : appealed Of course, at times we feel that many of the
(c) counter :
problem of our political, social, linguistic and
argument : doubted
(d) proposition : repeated cultural life would come to an end if there were
one Govenment all ovet the world. Travellers,
ANSWERS businessmen, seekers of knowledge and teach-
ers of righteousness know very well that great
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a)
impediments and obstructions are faced by
them when they pass from one country to
Foreign Words & Phrases another, exchange goods, get information, and
make an efforts to spread their good gospel
among their fellow-men. In the past, religious
Directions: Choose the correct meaning of the sects divided one set of people against another,
foreign words and phrases out of the four
responses a, b, c and d. colour of skin or shape of the body set one
against the other. But today when philosophical
1. vis-a-vis :
(a) similar (b) face to face
light has exploded the darkness that was cre-
(c) contrary to the fact ated by religious differences, and when scien-
(d) in good faith tific knowledge has flasified the superstitions,
2. Modus operandi they have enabled human beings of all religious
(a) successful operation views and of all races and colours to come in
(b) unsuccessful mission
frequent contact with one another . It is the
(c) mode or manner of doing a thing
(d) a clandestine operation governments of various countries that keep
3. Ad valorem poeple of one country apart from, those of
(a) according to the-value another. They create artificial barriers, unnatu-
(b) according to utility
ral distinctions, unhealthy isolation, unneces-

sary fears and dangers in the minds of
common men who by their nature want to
live in friendship with their fellow-men. But
all these evils would cease to exist if there
were one Government all over the world.
1. What divides people of a country against
another?
(a) Different religions
(b) Different language
(c) Different social and political systems of
different people
(d) Government of various countries
2. What is the urgent heed of the world today?
(a) The establishment of an international
economic order.
(b) The establishment of a world
government.
(c) The creation of a cultural international
social order.
(d) The raising of an international spiritual
army.
3. What will the world Government be
expected to do?
(a) it will arrange for interplanetary contacts
(b) it will end all wars for all time to come
(c) it will bring about a moral regeneration
of mankind
(d) it will kill the evil spirit in man
4. Choose the word which is SIMILAR in
meaning as the word "righteousness" as
used in the passage.
(a) rectitude (b) religiosity
(c) requirement (d) scrupulousness
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d)
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
ered the oldest civilization before the discovery
Indian History of Mohenjodaro and Harappa. The main features
of Ancient Indian History are as follows:
Indus Valley Civilization
The Indian History is perhaps the oldest in Discovery: In 1921, R.B. Dayaram Sahani,
the world, and the sources of Indian History are first discovered Harappa, in the Montgomery dis-
the verbal history, because our ancients never did trict of the Punjab. According to radio-carbon
bother about putting things down on paper and dating, it spread from the year 2350-1750.
archaeological evidences. Based on the evidences
Indus Valley Civilization
available today, Indian History, like the history
of every ancient culture in the world, is broadly Dr. R. D. Banerjee found the ancient city
divided into four periods as mentioned below: Mohenjodaro (literally, city of the dead) in Larkana
district of Sindh, now in Pakistan in 1922.
Pre-History The Marvelous Town Planning of
From the big bang, the primeval swamp to Mohenjodaro: A chief feature of Mohenjodaro
the Indus Valley civilization. Though Indus Val- is its superb town planning. The streets, which
ley civilization is included in pre-historical period. divided the city into neat rectangular or square
However, technical evidences shows that Indus blocks, varied in width but always intersected each
Valley civilization did have a script, although it other at right angles. The city had an elaborate
has not been decoded yet. So, it is generally in- drainage system, consisting of horizontal and ver-
cluded in Ancient History nowadays. tical drains, street drains and so on. The architec-
Ancient History ture of the buildings was clearly intended to be
It begins from the Indus Valley civilization functional and minimalist, and certainly not to
(for which the date is a matter of hot debate, but please the aesthete. Mohenjodaro was obviously
historians have agreed to disagree on 3000 BC) a cosmopolitan city, with people of different races
to just after the king Harsha Vardhana, which is mingling with the local populace-Prot o-
around 700-800 BC. Austroloid, Mediterranean, Alpine and Mongol-
Medieval History oid.
It begins from 800 BC to mid-18th century The Indus Valley Civilization
AD. Before the coming of Aryans, there was a
civilization that was not only well-developed, but
Modern History
actually far more sophisticated than that of the
From mid-18th century to the independence Aryans. The Indus Valley civilization said its last
of India, which is on August 15, 1947. The his- hurray roughly in 2200 BC. The beginning and
tory of Modern India is farther sub-divided into end of the Indus Valley Civilization are both a
two major periods: matter of debate because people could not have
1. The British Period.
emerged complete with their perfect town plan-
2. The India Freedom Struggle and Partition of
India. ning, neat houses, lovely jewellery and loads of
make-up. So where did they come from? and then
ANCIENT INDIA having come, just where did they disappear?
The discovery of Mohenjodaro and Harappa Popular theory, which is most accepted is that
by British archeologist: Marshall proved that the people of the Harappan civilization were
Indian civilization is the oldest civilization in the chased out by the Aryans and went down south.
world. Even India came before Greece, consid- The present South Indians are their descendants.
The Vedic Period (1500 Bc-600 Bc)

Initially, they settled in the area of Sapt- Geography
Sindhu, which included Punjab, Kashmir, Sindh,
Kabul and Gandhara (Kandhar). The chief sources
SOLAR SYSTEM
of this period are The Vedas and the Epics, the
Mahabharata and the Ramayana, which through Important Facts
their stories PO and hymns tell us about the ex- Biggest planet : Jupiter
pansion of the Aryans. The epic Ramayana is a Smallest plant : Mercury
symbolic tale which tells of the Aryan expansion Satellite of Earth : Moon
to the south-the good, almost godly, aryaputra Nearest planet from Sun : Mercury
(an Aryans son) king Rama surging forth to fin- Farthest planet from Sun : Neptune
ish off the evil Dasyu (that was what the Aryans Nearest planet to Earth : Venus
called the natives) Ravana. Brightest planet : Venus
Aryans Political System Brightest star : Dog Star
Planet having maximum
There was complex political system. They
number of satellite : Jupiter (63)
hung around together in small village settlements
Coldest planet : Neptune
(which later grew to kingdoms) and the basis of Red planet (seen at night) : Mars
their political and social organization was the clan Heaviest planet : Jupiter
or kula. It was very much a patriarchal society, Biggest satellite of solar : Ganymede system
with the man the house expected to keep his clan Smallest satellite of solar : Demos
in control. system
The King was the Supreme Power Blue planet : Earth
The king was the supreme power though he Red planet : Mars
Morning star : Venus
had to work in tandem with the peoples wishes.
Evening star : Venus
He had an elaborate court of many officials, in-
Sister of Earth : Venus
cluding the chief queen (Mahishi) who was elected
9th planet : Karla
to help in the decision making process. Two As-
semblies, Sabha and Samiti further assisted the Sun
Distance from Earth: 149.6 million km
king.
(Approximately).
No Rigidity in Caste System Critical value of absolute visual magnitude 4.83
The caste system was a loose social system Diameter: 13,92,000 km
where people could move up and down the so- Temperature of Code: 20-15 million Celsius Apparent
cial scale. Aryans worshipped nature gods-they surface temperature: 5778C (6000C approximately)
Rotational period: 25 days, 3 hrs., 21 minutes, 136
prayed to the Usha (Dawn), Prajapati (The Cre- seconds (in reference of equator) 33 days (in reference
ator), Rudra (Thunder), Indra (Rain), Surya (Sun) to pole)
and so on. These gods and goddesses were ap- Chemical composition: Hydrogen-69.5%, Helium-
peased by prayers and sacrifices. 28%. Carbon, Nitrogen and Oxygen-2%, Magnesium,
Sulphur, Silicon and Iron 0.5%
Growth of Buddhism and Jainism
Age: 5 billion years (approximately)
Buddhism and Jainism were instant hits with Possible life of normal star
the populace and became powerful clannish mi- 10 billion years (approximately)
norities while the bulk of the people remained Equatorial radius: 6,95,500 km
with Aryanism. Not for long, however. As the (approximately)
two new religions which had extremely charis- GALAXIES
matic leaders and very zealous followers caught Galaxy Name Magnitude Visual
the peoples imagination, the influence of both Milky way
faiths spread enough for kings to profess and ac- Large Magellanic Cloud 0.9
tively promote them. Small Magellanic Cloud 2.5
Ursa Minor Dwarf 11.9
Sculptor Dwarf 80
Draco Dwarf 10.9
Formax Sysyem 8.3 Average distance from Sun: 149,597,887.5 km
Leo -II System 12.04
Leo -I System 12.0
Venus
N. G.C 6822 8.9 Diameter: 11,102 km
N.G.C. 147 9.73 Mass: 4.867 10224 kg
N.G.C. 185 10.1 Volume: 92.843 1010 km3
N .G.C. 205 8.17 Mean Radius: 6052 km
N.G.C. 2 21 (M 32) 8.16 Mean Density: 5204 kg/metre3
IC 1613 9.61 Surface Gravity: 8.87 metre/second2
Andromeda Galaxy 3.47
Mean distance from the Sun: 108.2 million km
N.G.C. 598 (M 33) 5.79
Maffel I 11.0
Greatest distance from the Sun (Aphelion): 108.9
million km
Moon Least distance from the Sun: 107.5 million km
Average distance: 3,84,365 km Diameter: 3,474 km (Perihelion)
Ratio of mass in reference to Earth: 1:81.30 Rotational period: 243.7 days
Density (with reference to water): 3.3464 kg/metre3 Revolutional period (Sidereal period): 224.7 days
Density (with reference to Earth): 0.6058 Ratio in the earth days
gravitational force of Moon & Inclination of orbit: 3.39
Sun: 0.116 Mean surface temperature: 464C
Disappearing part of Moon: 0.41 Maximum distance Mean surface pressure: 92 bars
of Earth from Sun 4,05,508 km No. of Satellites: Nil
Minimum distance of Earth from Sun 3,63,300 km
Mercury
Revolution period of the Moon round the Earth.
Diameter: 4878 km
Sidereal Month: 27 days, 7 hrs, 43.25 minutes
Mass: 3.64 1020 tons (3.3 10 kg) (About 5% of the
Synodic Month: 29 days, 12 hrs, 44 minutes
earth)
Rotation on its own axis : 27 days, 7 hrs, 43 minutes,
Volume: 2.15 1021 cube metre (About 6% of the
11.47sec.
earth)
Atmosphere: Absent
Average density: 340 pound/cubic feet
Highest mts. Peak : 35,000 (Libtney, situated at
Surface gravity: 11.8 feet/sec. (3.6 metre)
Moons south pole).
Surface temperature: 280 to 800F (175 to 425C)
Time taken by light to reach the earth.: 1.3 seconds.
Surface atmospheric pressure: 2 1012 millibar
Speed of Rotation at its own axis: 2287 miles per hrs.
Greatest distance from the earth: 142.6 million miles
Earth (229.4 million km)
Approximate age of Earth: 4600,000,000, years, Greatest distance from the Sun (Aphelion) 43 million
Total surface area: 510,072,000 km2 miles (70 million km)
Total land area: 153,000,000 km2 Least distance from the Sun (Perihelion) 29 million
Water area: 71% of the total land surface 357,100,000 miles (46.5 million km)
km2 Revolution period (Sidereal year): 87.97 earth days
Average density: 5.52 gm per cub.cm. Rotational period (Sidereal day): 58.65 earth days
Equatorial diameter: 12,756 km No. of Satellites: Nil
Polar diameter: 12,714 km
Necessary escape velocity to cross the gravitational
attraction of the Earth: 11.2 km/sec.
Velocity of a rocket to go against the gravitational
attraction of the Earth 8 km /sec.
Distance from Moon: 3,84,365 km
Maximum height of the earth from M.S.L. 8848 m
(Mount Everest)
Maximum depth of sea from M.S.L. : 11,033 metro
(Mariana Trench)
Lowest part of the earth surface: 396 metre (Dead
Sea)
Rotational period at its own axis: 23 hrs, 56 minutes
4.091 sec.
Revolution of earth round the Sun: 365 day, 5 hrs, 48
minutes, 45.51 second
Satellite of Earth: Moon
Inclination at its own axis: 23*-27.
Indian Polity
DIRRERENT SOURCES OF THE INDIAN CONSTITURION

Although the skeleton of the constitution was derived from Government of India Act 1935, many provisions were
imported from other constitution,, of the world. Some of them are listed below:
Government of India Act 1935: Federal scheme, office of Governor, power of Federal judiciary, emergency powers
etc.
Constitution of Britain: Law making procedures, rule of law, provision for single citizenship, Parliamentary system of
government, office of CAG.
Constitution of USA: Independence of judiciary. judicial review, fundamental rights, removal of Supreme Court and
High Court judges, preamble and functions of Vice-president.
Constitution of Canada: Federation with strong Centre, to provide residuary powers to the centre.
Constitution of Ireland: Directive Principles of State policy, method of presidential elections, and the nomination of
members to Rajya Sabha by the President,
Constitution of Germany: Provisions concerning the suspension of fundamental rights during emergency.
Constitution of Australia: Idea of the Concurrent list.
Constitution of South Africa: Amendment with 2/3rd majority in Parliament and election of the Members of Rajya
Sabha on the basis of proportional representation.
THE PREAMBLE
The 42nd Amendment (1976) added the words Secular and Socialist end now the Preamble reads as follows:
We, the people of India having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic
Republic and to secure to all its citizens: Justice, social. economic and political; Liberty of thought, expression, belief,
faith and worship Equality of status and of opportunity: and to promote among them all Fraternity assuring the dignity
of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation. In our Constituent Assembly on this twenty-sixty day November,
1949, we do hereby, Adopt, Enact and Give Ourselves this Constitution.
PARTS AND ARTICLES OF THE CONSTITUTION

Part I/Articles 1-4 : Territory of India, admission, establishment or formation of new
states
Part II/Articles 5-11 : Citizenship
Part III/Articles 12-35 : Fundamental Rights
Part I V/Articles 36-51 : Directive Principles of State Policy
Part I V-A/Article 51A : Duties of a citizen of India
Part V/Articles 52-151 : Government at the Union level
Part VI/Articles 152-237 : Government at the State level
Part VII/Article 238 : Repeated by 7th Amendment 1956
Part VIII/Articles 239-241 : Administration of Union Territories
Part IX/Articles 242-243 : The Panchayats
Part IX-A/Articles 243P-243 ZG : The Municipalities
Part X/Articles 244-244 : A Scheduled and tribal areas
Part XI/Articles 245-263 : Relations between the Union and States
Part XMI/Articles 263-300 : A Finance, property, contracts and suits
Part XIII/Articles 301307 : Trade, commerce and travel within territory of India
Part XIV/Articles 308-323 : Services under the Union and States
Part XIV-A/Articles 323A-323B : Deals with administrative tribunals
Part XV/Articles 324-329 : A Election and Election Commission
Part XVI/Articles 330-342 : Special provision to certain classes SCs/STs, OBCs and Anglo
Indians
Part XVII/Article 343-351 : Official languages
Part XVIII/Articles 352-360 : Emergency provisions
Part XIX/Article 361-367 : Miscellaneous provisions
Part XX/Article,68 : Amendment of Constitution
Part XXI/Articles X69-392 : Temporary, transitional and special provisions
SCHEDULES IN THE CONSTITUTION

First Schedule It deals with the territories of th, 28 states and 7 union, territories of the Indian
Union.
Second Schedule Deals with salaries, allow a cesn etc., payable to the President of India, Governors
of States, Chief Justice of India, judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts and
the Comptroller and editor General of India. There revised salaries now are:
President of India Rs 1.50,000 pm
Vice-President Rs 1.20.000 pm
Governor of a state Rs 1,10,000 par
(varies from state to state)
Chief Justice of India Rs 1,00.000 pm
Judges of the Supreme Court Rs 90,000 pm
Chief Justice of a High Court Rs 90,000 put
Judges of a High Court Rs. 80.000 put
Third Schedule It prescribes the various forms of oath or affirmation, which various incumbents
have to take before assuming a public office.
Fourth Schedule Allocates seats to each state and union territory in the Rajya Sabha. Contains
provisions as to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas.
Fifth Schedule It deals with the administration and control of the Scheduled Areas.
Sixth Schedule Deals with provisions regarding administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam,
Meghalaya and Mizoram. This Schedule in the Constitution, amended in 1988 by
the Act 67 of 1988, received the assent of the President on 16 December 1988,
and was applied to the states of Tripura and Mizoram w.e.f. 16 December 1988.
Seventh Schedule Gives three lists of powers and subjects to be looked after by the Union and the
states as follows:
(i) Union ListComprises subjects of all-India importance like Defence.
International Affairs. Railways. Post and Telegraph, Income tax, etc. The
Parliament has the exclusive power to legislate on these subjects. It
contains 97 subjects:
(ii) State List-Contains subjects of local importance. Normally, the State
Legislature alone legislates on these subjects. It contains 66 subjects.
(iii) Concurrent List-Contains subjects on which the Parliament as well as the
State Legislature enjoy authority. According to the 88th amendment,
service tax is to be levied, collected and appropriated by the union and
the states.
Eighth Schedule Gives a list of 22 regional languages recognised by the Constitution; Originally
there were only 14 languages in the schedule and the l5th language Sindhi was
added by the list amendment in 1967, and three languages-Konkani, Manipuri and
Nepali were added by the 71st amendment in 1992. In 2003, the 92nd amendment
added four more languages to the list-Bolo, Dogri, Maithali and Santhali. The
language are as follows:
1. Assamese 2. Bengali 3. Bndo
4. Dogri 5. Gujarati 6. Hindi,
7. Kanada 8. Kashmiri 9. Malayalam
10. Maithali 11. Marathi 12. O, it a,
13. Punjabi 14. Sanskrit 15. Sindhi,
16. Tamil 17. Telugu 18. Santhali
19. Urdu 20. Konkagi 21. Manipuri
22. Nepali.
Ninth Schedule Contains certain Acts and regulations of the State Legislature dealing with and
reforms and abolition of the zamindari system. it contains 284 Acts. This Schedule
was added to the Constitution in 1951, by the First Constitution (Amendment Act.
Tenth Schedule Contains certain provisions -regarding disqualification of members on grounds of
defection.
Eleventh Schedule It lists 29 subjects on which the panchayats have been given administrative control.
It was added to the Constitution on 20 April 1992, by the 73rd Amendment in 1992.
Twelfth Schedule It lists 18 subjects on which the municipalities are given administrative control. It
was added to the Constitution on 20 April 1992 by the 74th Amendment in 1992.
NATIONAL DEVELOPMENT COUNCIL
Indian Economy All the plans made by the Planning
Commission have to be approved by National
Development Council first. It was constituted
HISTORY OF PLANNING IN INDIA to build co-operation between the States and
First attempt to initiate economic planning in the Planning Commission for economic
India was made by Sir M.Visvesvarayya, a planning.
noted engineer and politician in 1934 through It is an extra-constitutional and extra-legal
his book Planned Economy For India. body.
In 1938 National Planning Commission was It was set up on August 6, 1952, by a proposal
set-up under the chairmanship of J.L. Nehru of the Government. The PM is the ex-officio
by the Indian National Congress. Its chairman of NDC. Other members are Union
recommendations could not be implemented Cabinet ministers, Chief Ministers & Finance
because of the beginning of the Second World Ministers of all States, Lt. Governors of Union
War and changes in the Indian political Territories and Governors of Centrally Ruled
situation. States.
In 1944 Bombay Plan was presented by 8 State Planning Boards
leading industrialists of Bombay. Apex planning body at State level is generally
In 1944 Gandhian Plan was given by S. N. a State Planning Body comprising the Chief
Agarwal. Minister as Chairman, Finance and Planning
In 1945 Peoples Plan was given by M. N. Roy. ministers of that State and some technical
In 1950 Sarvodaya Plan was given by J. P. experts.
Narayan. A few points of this plan were District Planning Committee is also there
accepted by the Government. comprising both official and non-official
members.
THE PLANNING COMMISSION
FIVE YEAR PLANS
The Planning Commission was set up on March
15, 1950 under the chairmanship J.L. Nehru, First Five Year Plan (1951-56)
by a resolution of Union Cabinet. It was based on Harrod-Domar Model.
It is an extra-constitutional, non-statutory Community Development Program was
body. launched in 1952.
It consists of Prime Minister as the ex-officio Two- fold objectives were there:
Chairman, one deputy-Chairn appointed by o To correct the disequilibrium in the
the PM and some full time members. economy caused by 3 main problems-
The tenure of its members and deputy influx of refugees, severe food shortage
chairman is not fixed. There is no defi and mounting inflation.
definition of its members also. They are o To initiate a process of all-round balanced
appointed by the Government on its c development to ensure a rising national
discretion. The number of members can also income and a steady improvement in
change according to the wishes of Government. living standards.
Functions Emphasized on agriculture, price stability,
power & transport.
Assessment of material, capital & human
resources of the country. It was more than a success, because of good
harvests in the last two years.
Formulation of plans for the most effective &
balanced utilization of countrys resources. Second Five Year Plan (1956-61)
To determine the various stages of planning Also called Mahalanobis Plan after its chief
and to propose the allocation of resources on architect. It was based on 1928 Soviet Model
the priority basis. of Feldman.
To act as an advisory body to the Union Its emphasis was on economic stability.
Government. Agriculture target fixed in the first plan was
To evaluate from time to time the progress almost achieved. Consequently, the agriculture
achieved in every stage of the plan and also to sector got low priority in the second five year
suggest remedial measures. plan.
To advise the Centre and the State Its objective was rapid industrialization,
Governments from time to time on special particularly basic and heavy industries such
matters referred to the Commission. as iron and steel, heavy chemicals like
nitrogenous fertilizers, heavy engineering and wealth.

machine building industry. Relied heavily on foreign aid (IMF).
Besides, the Industrial Policy of 1956 Complete failure due to unforeseen
emphasized the role of Public Sector and misfortunes, viz. Chinese
accepted the establishment of a socialistic aggression (1962), Indo-Pak war
pattern of the society as the goal of economic (1965), severest drought in 100 years
policy. (1965-66).
Advocated huge imports which led to Three Annual Plans (1966-69)
emptying of funds leading to foreign loans. It
Plan holiday for 3 years. The
shifted basic emphasis from agriculture to
prevailing crisis in agriculture and
industry far too soon. During this plan, price
serious food shortage necessitated
level increased by 30%, against a decline of
the emphasis on agriculture during
13% during the First Plan.
the Annual Plans.
Third Five Year Plan (1961-66) During these plans a whole new
At its conception time, it was felt that Indian agricultural strategy involving
economy has entered a take-off stage. wide-spread distribution of High-
Therefore, its aim was to make India a self- Yielding Varieties of seeds, the
reliant and self-generating economy. extensive use of fertilizers,
Also, it was realized from the experience of exploitation of irrigation potential
first two plans that agriculture should be given and soil conservation was put into
action to tide-over the crisis in
the top priority to suffice the requirements of
agricultural production.
export and industry.
During the Annual Plans, the
The other objectives of the plan included the
economy basically absorbed the
expansion of basic industries, optimum
shocks given during the Third Plan,
utilization of countrys labour power and
making way for a planned growth.
reducing the inequalities of income and
General Science
INVENTIONS AND DISCOVERIS

Invention Year Inventor Country
Acetylene gas 1862 Berthelot France
Adding machine 1642 Pascal France
Adhesive tape, Scotch 1930 Richard Drew U.S.A.
Aeroplane 1903 Orville & Wilbur Wright U.S.A.
Air Conditioning 1902 Carrier U.S.A.
Airplane, jet engine 1939 Ohain Germany
Airship (non-rigid) 1852 Henri Giffard France
Aerosol spray 1926 Erik Rotheim Norway
Artificial Heart 1957 Willem Kolff Netherlands
Atomic Bomb 1945 J. Robert Oppenheimer U.S.A.
Atomic numbers 1913 Moseley Britain
Atomic theory 1803 Dalton Britain
Automatic rifle 1918 John Browning U.S.A.
Bakelite 1907 Leo H. Baekeland Belgium
Ballistic missile 1944 Wernher von Braun Germany
Balloon 1783 Jacques & Joseph Montgolfier France
Ball-Point Pen 1888 John J. Loud U.S.A.
Barometer 1644 Evangelista Torricelli Italy
Battery (Electric) 1800 Alessandro Volta Italy
Bicyle 1839-40 Kirkpatrick Macmillan Britain
Bicycle Tyres (Pneumatic) 1888 John Boyd Dunlop Britain
Bifocal Lens 1780 Benjamin Franklin U.S.A
Bleaching Powder 1798 Tennant Britain
Bunsen Burner 1855 R. Willhelm von Bunsen Germany
Burglar Alarm 1858 Edwin T. Holmes U.S.A.
Calculus 1670 Newton Britain
Camera, Kodak 1888 Walker Eastman U.S.A.
Canned food 1804 Appert France
Car (Steam) 1769 Nicolas Cugnot France
Car (Petrol) 1888 Karl Benz Germany
Carburetor 1876 Gottlieb Daimler Germany
Cassette, Audio 1963 Philips Co. Holland
Cassette, Videotape 1969 Sony Japan
Celluloid 1861 Alexander Parkes Britain
Cement (Portland) 1824 Joseph Aspdin Britain
Chemotherapy 1909 Ehrlich Germany
Chronometer 1735 John Harrison Britain
Cinema 1895 Nicolas & Jean Lumiere France
Clock (Mechanical) 1725 I-Hsing & Liang Ling-Tsan China
Clock (Pendulum) 1656 Christian Huygens Netherlands
Cloning, DNA 1973 Boyer, Cohen U.S.A.
Cloning, Mamma, 1996 Wilmut, et al U.K.
Compact disc 1972 RCA U.S.A.
Compact disc player 1979 Sony, Philips co Japan, Netherlands
Computer, laptop 1987 Sinclair Britain
Computer, mini, 1960 Digital Corp. U.S.A.
Crossword Puzzle 1913 Arthur Wynne U.S.A.
CT scan 1973 Hounsfield Britain
Diesel Engine 1895 Rudolf Diesel Germany
Disc Brake 1902 Dr.F. Lanchester- Britain
Disc, video 1972 Philips Co. Holland
DNA, Structure 1951 Crick-UK, Watson-US, W iikins-UK
Dyriamo 1832 Hypolite Pixii France
Electric Flat Iron 1882 H.W. Seeley U.S.A.
Electric Lamp 1879 Thomas Alva Edison U.S.A.
Electric Motor (DC) 1873 Zenobe Gramme Belgium
Electric Motor (AC) 1888 Nikola Tesla, U.S.A.
Electric Iron 1882 Henry W. Seely U.S.A.
Electric Washing machine 1906 Alva J. Fisher U.S.A
Electro-Magnet 1824 William Sturgeon Britain
Electron 1897 Tnomson.J - Britain
Electroplating 1805 Luigi Brugnatelli Italy
Electronic Computer 1824 Dr. Alan M. Turing Britain
Facsimile Machine 1843 Alexander Bain Britain
Fibre optics 1955 Kepany Britain
Film (moving outlined) 1885 Louis Prince France
Film (taiking) 1922 J. Engl, J. Mussolle & H. Vogt Germany
Film (musical sound) 1923 Dr Le de Fo;est U.S.A.
Frequency Modulation (FM) 1933 E.H. Armstrong U.S.A.
Frisbee 1948 Fred Morrisson U,S.A.
Fountain Pen 1884 Lewis E. Waterman U.S.A.
Galvanometer 1834 Andre-Marie Ampere France
Glider 1853 Sir George Cayley Britain
Gramophone 1878 Thomos Alva Edison U.S.A.
Helicopter 1924 Etienne Oehmichen France
HIV 1984 Martagnier French
Holography 1947 Denis Gason Britain
Hydrogen bomb 1952 Edward Teller U.S.A.
Intelligence testing 1905 Simon Binet French
Jet Engine 1937 Sir Frank Whittle Britain
Laser 1960 Theodore Maiman U.S.A.
Launderette 1934 J.F. Cantrell U.S.A.
Lift (Mechanical) 1852 Elisha G. Otis U.S.A.
Lighting Conductor 1752 Benjamin Franklin U.S.A.
Locomotive 1804 Richard Trevithick Britain
Logarithms 1614 Napier Britain
Loom, power 1785 E. Cartwright Britain
Loudspeaker 1900 Horace Short Britain
Machine Gun 1718 Richard Gatling Britain
Magnetic Recording Tape 1928 Fritz Pfleumer Germany
Match, Safety 1826 John Walker Britain
Microphone 1876 Alexander Graham Bell U.S.A.
Microprocessor 1971 Robert Noyce & Gordon Moore U.S.A
Microscope, comp. 1590 Z. nssen Netherlands
Microwave Oven 1947 Per -y LeBaron Spencer U.S.A.
Motor cycle 1885 G. Daimler Germany
Movie Projector 1893 Thomas Edison U.S.A.
MR! 1971 Danradian U.S.A.
Neon Lamp 1910 Ge urges Claude France
Neutron - 1932 Chadwicrt Britain
Neutron bomb 1958 Samuel Cohen U.S.A.
Photocopier 1938 Carlson U.S.A.
Photoelectric cell 1893 Julius Elster, Hans F. Geitel Germany
Photo film, celluloid 1893 Reichenbach U.S.A.
Photo film , Transparent 1884 Goodwin Eastman U.S.A.
Photography (on metal) 1826 J.N. Niepce France
Photography (on paper) 1835 W.H. Fox Talbot Britain
Photography (on film, 1888 John Carbutt U.S.A.
Piano 1709 Cristofori Italy
Pistol, revolver 1836 Colt U.S.A.
Plutonium fission E940 Kennedy, Whal, Seabolg, Segre U.S.A.
Printing (rotary) 1846 Richard Hoe U.S.A.
Printing (Web) 1865 William Bullock U.S.A.
Proton 1919 Rutherford N. Zealand
Quantum Theory 1900 Plank Germany
Radar 1922 A.H. Taylor & Leo C. Young U.S.A.
Radiocarbon dating 1947 Libby U.S.A.
Radio Telegraphy 1864 Dr. Mohlon Loomis U.S.A.
Radio Telegraphy (Trans Atlantic 1901 Marconi Italy
Rayon 1883 Sir Joseph Swan Britain
Razor (electric) 1931 Ccl. Jacob Scnick U.S.A.
Razor (Safety) 1895 King C. Gillette U.S.A.
Refrigerator 1850 James Harrison, Alexander catlin U.S.A.
Relativity Theory 1905 Einstein Germany
Rubber (latex foam) 1928 Dunlop Rubber Co. Britain
Rubber (Tyres) 1846 Thomas Hancock Britain
Rubber (Vulcanised) ,1841 Charles Goodyear U.S.A.
Rubber (Waterproof) 1823 Charles Macintosh Britain
Safety Pin 1849 Walter Hunt U.S.A.
Safety razor 1903 King Camp Gillette U.S.A.
Seat belt 1959 Volvo Sweden
Ship (steam) 1775 I.C. Perier France
Ship (turbine) 1894 Hon. Sir C. Parsons Britain
Skyscraper 1882 W.Le Baron Jenny U.S.A.
Slide Rule 1621 William Oughtred Britain
Spinning Frame 1769 Sir Richard Arkwright Britain
Spinning Jenny 1764 James Hargreaves Britain
Spinning Mule 1779 Samuel Crompton Britain
Steam Engine 1698 Thomas Savery Britain
Steam Engine (Piston) 1712 Thomas Newcomen Britain
Steam Engine (Condenser) 1765 James Watt Britain
Steel (Stainless) 1913 Harry Brearley Britain
Stethoscope 1819 Laennec French
Submarine 1776 David Bushnell U.S.A.
Super Computer 1976 J.H.Van Tassel U.S.A.
Synthesiser 1964 Moog U.S.A.
Tank 1914 Sir Ernest D. Swington Britain
Tape recorder 1899 Fessenden Poulsen Denmark
Telegraph 1787 M. Lammond France
Telegraph Code 1837 Samuel F.B. Morse U.S.A.
Telephone, Cellular 1947 Bell Labs U.S.A.
Telephone (Imperfect) 1849 Antonio Meucci Italy
Telephone (Perfected) 1876 Alexander Graham Bell U.S.A.
Telescope 1608 Hans Lippershey Netherlands
Television (Mechanical) 1926 John Logie Baird Britain
Television (Electronic) 1927 P.T. Farnsworth U.S.A.
Television, colour 1928 John Logie Baird Britain
Transformer 1831 Michael Faraday Britain
Transistor 1948 Bardeen, Shockley & Brattain U.S.A.
Transistor radio 1955 Sony Japan
Uranium Fission, Atomic reactor 1942 Szilard Fermi U.S.A.
Vacuum Cleaner, elec. 1907 Spangler U.S.A.
Video tape 1956 Charles Ginsberg U.S.A.
Velcro (hook-and-loop-fastener 1948 Georges de Mestral Switzerland
Washing Machine (elec.) 1907 Hurley Machine Co. U.S.A.
Watch 1462 Bartholomew Manfredi Italy
Welder (electric) 1877 Elisha Thomson U.S.A.
Windmill 600 Persian corn grinding
Wireless (telegraphy) 1896 G. Marconi Italy
X-ray 1895 W.K. Roentgen Germany
Zip Fastener 1891 W.L. Judson U.S.A.
Solved Papers
SOLVED PAPER 1
SSC (10+2) LEVEL

DATA ENTRY OPERATOR & LDC EXAM
First Sitting Held on : 04.12.2011
PART -I Directions (10-18): In each of the following questions,

GENERAL INTELLIGENCE select the one which is different from the other three
responses
Directions (1-9): In each of the following questions,
10. (a) Eye (2) Hand
select the related word/letters/ number from the given
(c) Nose (d) Ear
alternatives.
11. (a) A (b) O
1. Necklace: Adornment: :? (c) I (d) N
(a) Medal : Decoration(b) Bronze : Medal
12. (a) MNP (b) PQS
(c) Scarf : Dress (d) Window : House
(c) WXZ (d) GHK
2. AL : CN :: DA:?
(a) BL (b) AA 13. (a) 4 (b) 25
(c) 146 (d) 625
(c) HR (d) FC
14. (a) 32-42 (b) 48-58
3. ABC : ZYX :: CBA :?
(c) 96-106 (d) 86-78
(a) XYZ (b) BCA
(c) YZX (d) XZY 15. (a) Grapes (b) Pomegranate
(c) Cardamom (d) Mango
4. AZBY : ZAYB :: CXDW :?
16. (a) water (b) pool
(a) AYBZ (b) EVFU
(c) lake (d) pond
(c) BYAZ (d) XCWD
17. (a) 58-85 (b) 96-69
5. 25:81 ::36:?
(c) 38-83 (d) 47-73
(a) 121 (b) 93
(c) 65 (d) 103 18. (a) DABC (b) PMNO
(c) ZWXY (d) IDEF
6. Black : White: : up :?
19. Arrange the following words according to
(a) Opposite (b) Disappointment
English Dictionary.
(c) Wall (d) Down
(a) slunk (b) slung
7. Book : Author: : Statue :? (c) slump (d) slum
(a) Mason (b) Painter (a) (d), (c) , (b), (a) (b) (c) , (b), (d), (a)
(c) Sculptor (d) Calligrapher (c) (c), (a), (d), (b) (d) (a), (b), (c), (d)
8. 292: 146: : 582 :? Directions (20-21): In each of the following questions,
(a) 272 (b) 286 which one of the given responses would be a meaningful
(c) 291 (d) 292 order of the following words in ascending order ?
9. 6:18::4:?_
20. (a) Plant (b) Food
(a) 10 (b) 8
(c) Seed (d) Leaf
(c) 6 (d) 4
(e) fruit
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2 Solved Papers
(a) (e), (d), (c), (b), (a) (b) (c), (b), (d), (e), (a) U M E R N B
(c) (c), (a), (d), (e), (b) (d) (a), (c), (e), (d), (b) 1 2 3 4 5 6
21. (a) Gold (b) Silver (a) 5,1,2,6,3,4 (b) 2,3,4,5,1,6
(c) Platinum (d) Diamond (c) 3,4,2,5,6,1 (d) 5,6,1,3,4,2
(a) (d), (a), (b), (c) (b) (c), (d), (a), (b) 30. If LIBERALIZATION is coded as 3425613
(c) (b), (a), (c), (d) (d) (a), (b), (c), (d) 4918470, then AERATION can be coded
as
22. Which one set of letters when sequentially
(a) 15168470 (b) 15186471
placed at the gaps in the given letter series -
(c) 15618470 (d) 51618471
shall complete it ?
31. Akhilesh is taller than Sheebu. Aman is not
d _ n _ _ _ nndm _n as tall as Akhilesh but is taller than Tejinder.
(a) ndmnm (b) mdnmn Sheebu is also not as tall as Aman but is
(c) mndmn (d) dmnnm taller than Tejinder. Who is the tallest?
Directions (23-26): In each of the following questions, (a) Akhilesh (b) Sheebu
choose the correct alternative from the given ones that (c) Aman (d) Tejinder
will complete the series. 32. From the given alternatives, select the word
23. 9,16, 25, 36, ?, 64 which cannot be formed using the letters of
(a) 56 (b) 49 the given word?
(c) 80 (d) 72 EMBOSSMENT
24. 3,5,8,13,21,34,55,?. (a) BOSS (b) TOMB
(a) 34 (b) 55 (c) STEM (d) MATS
(c) 21 (d) 89 33. Some equations are solved on the basis of a
25. AZBY C ?? certain system. On the same basis, find out
(a) XD (b) WE the correct answer for the unsolved
(c) DX (d) EW equation
26. YXW, UTS, QPO, MLK, ? 6 8 2 = 268, 1 2 3 = 312, 9 7 5 = ?
(a) LMN (b) JIH (a) 957 (b) 579
(c) KJI (d) IHG (c) 795 (d) 597
27. Find the wrong number in the given series. 34. Select the correct combination of
4131, 1377, 461, 153, 51 mathematical signs to replace * signs and
to balance the given equation.
(a) 461 (b) 153
4 * 6 * 6 * 2 * 20
(c) 1377 (d) 51
(a) + = (b) + =
28. A prisoner introduced a boy who came to (c) + = (d) + =
visit him to the jailor as Brothers and
35. If REPUBLIC can be written as CRIELPBU,
sisters I have none, he is my fathers sons
then how CULCUTTA can be written ?
son. Who is the boy ?
(a) ACTUTLUC (b) UEPUEAA
(a) Nephew (b) Son
(c) NHENHJJS (d) ATTUCLUC
(c) Cousin (d) Uncle
36. Which of the following interchange of signs
29. A group of alphabets are given with each
would make the given equation correct ?
being assigned a number. These have to be
unscrambled into a meaningful word and (12 6) + 3 7 = 42
correct order of letters may be indicated from (a) and (b) 6 and 7
the given responses. (c) + and + (d) 12 and 3
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Solved Papers 3
Directions (37- 38): In each the following questions, (a) Only I and IV follow
select e missing number from the given ponses. (b) Only II and III follow
(c) Either II or III follows
37. 14 22 37
(d) Either II or IV follows
04 06 03
42. One statement is given followed by two
05 03 05
conclusions I and II. You have to consider
61 135 ? the statements to be true even if they seem to
(a) 120 (b) 112 be at variance from commonly known facts.
(c) 116 (d) 555 You are to decide which of the given
38. 64 25 81 conclusions if any, follow from the given
36 49 16 statement Indicate your answer.
14 12 ? Statement
(a) 13 (b) 26 Metals expand when heated.
(c) 97 (d) 15
Conclusions
39. Raman starts walking in the morning facing
I. Non-metals do not expand when heated.
the Sun. After sometime, he turned to the
II. All things which expand when heated,
left. Later again he turned to his left. At what
direction is Raman moving now ? are metals.
(a) East (b) West (a) Only conclusion I follows.
(c) South (d) North (b) Only conclusion II follows.
40. Mohan travelled from point A straight to (c) Both conclusions I and lI follow
B at a distance of 8 m. He turned right and (d) Neither conclusion I nor II follow
walked 4m, again turned to his right and 43. Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a
walked 8 m. Finally he turned to his right row facing East, C is between Wand E,
and walked 3 m. How far he was from his B is just to the right of E but left of `D, F
starting point? is not at the right end. Who is between B
(a) 8m (b) 3m and C ?
(c) 1 m (d) 4 m (a) A (b) D
41. Two statements are given followed by four (c) E (d) F
conclusions 1,11, and IV. You have to
44. A solid cube of 4 inches has been painted
consider the statements to be true even if
Red, Green, and Black on pair of opposite
they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts. You are to decide which of the faces. It has been cut into one inch cubes.
given conclusions, if any, follow from the How many cubes have only one face painted
given statements. Indicate your answer. that too only red ?
Statements (a) 4 (b) 8
1. All dogs are books (c) 16 (d) 24
2. All books are pictures. 45. Which answer figure will complete the
Conclusion pattern in the question figure?
I. All dogs are pictures. Question Figure
II. All books are dogs .
III. All pictures are dogs.
IV. Some pictures are books.
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Answer Figures MATRIX - I

0 1 2 3 4
0 E F G H I
1 H I E F G
2 F G H I E
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 1 E F G H
46. Which of the answer figures is exactly the
mirror image of the given figure, when the 4 G H I E F
mirror is held on the line AB ? MATRIX - II
Question Figure 5 6 7 8 9
5 L M N O P
A
6 O P L M N
7 M N O P L
B 8 P L M N O
Answer figures 9 N O P L M
(a) 66, 30, 95 (b) 85, 00, 95
(c) 86, 00, 95 (d) 65, 00, 95
49. Select the answer figure in which the
question figure is hidden/ embedded.
(a) (b) (c) (d) Question Figures
47. Which one of the following diagrams best
depicts the relationship among Fishes,
Snakes and Birds Answer Figures
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
48. A word is represented by only one set of (a) (b) (c) (d)
numbers as given in any one of the 50. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown
alternatives. The sets of numbers given in below in the question figures. From the given
the alternatives are represented by two answer figures, indicate how it will paper
classes of alphabets as in two matrices given when opened?
below. The columns and rows of Matrix I Question Figures
are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix
II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from
these matrices can be represented first by its
row and next by its column, e.g. : F can be Answer figures
represented by 01, 13, 32, etc. and N can be
represented by 57, 69, 95, etc. Identify the
set for the word PEN.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Solved Papers 5
PART II Directions (61-65): In the following questions, out of

ENGLISH LANGUAGE the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses
the meaning of the given word.
Directions (51-55): In the following questions, some
61. Elastic
parts of the sentences have errors and some have none.
(a) rubbery (b) flexible
Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The
(c) expensive (d) exciting
number of that part is your answer. If there is no error,
then your answer is (d)i.e. No error. 62. Vacillate
(a) waver (b) never
51. There are (a)/ no poetries (b)/in my book. (c) quiver (d) queer
(c)/ No error (d)
63. Impeccable
52. That house (a)/is built of (b)/ stones. (c)/ (a) perfect (b) fair
No error (d) (c) faultless (d) criminal
53. He as well as (a)/ you like (b)/ to go. (c)/ No 64. Impediment
error (d)
(a) clear (b) ailment
54. Very soon (a)/ I realised (b)/ that he is at (c) incapable (d) obstruction
fault. (c)/ No error. (d)
65. Advance
55. Santosh lives (a)/ by the principals (b)/ he (a) reduce (b) halt
professes. (c)/ No error (d) (c) progress (d) extend
Directions (56-60): In the following questions, Directions (66-70): In the following questions, choose
sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested
for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of 66. Dormant
the four. (a) acute (b) active
(c) able (d) ablaze
56. The headmaster congratulated Rajan _
getting the merit scholarship. 67. Chivalrous
(a) for (b) about (a) gallant (b) dastardly
(c) with (d) on (c) amorous (d) defiant
57. Smallpox has been eradicated _ India. 68. Erudite
(a) in (b) from (a) illiterate (b) crude
(c) within (d) out of (c) boring (d) ignorant
58. The police offered a___for information about 69. Despair
the stolen money. (a) sneer (b) compliment
(a) reward (b) award (c) irony (d) hope
(c) profit (d) prize 70. Transparent
59. There is no possibility of______coming late. (a) translucent (b) opaque
(a) they (b) their (c) clear (d) sharp
(c) them (d) theirs Directions (71-75): In the following questions, four
60. His friend_____unexpectedly. alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase. Choose the
(a) returned to (b) comeback alternative which best expresses the meaning of the
(c) turned up (d) get down idiom/ phrase.
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71. At ones beck and call 78. He should not had ignored his friend.
(a) to attend a call (a) should not have (b) should have not
(b) to be helped by someone (c) should not has (d) No improvement
(c) to be useful to someone 79. The judge asked the lawyer to be consistent
(d) to be dominated by someone with proof in the case.
72. To explore every avenue (a) corroboration (b) testimony
(a) to search all streets (c) evidence (d) No improvement
(b) to scout the wilderness 80. Raju requested me to his birthday party
(c) to find adventure tomorrow.
(d) to try every opportunity (a) indulged (b) invited
73. A red letter day (c) inspired (d) No improvement
(a) a dangerous day in ones life Directions (81- 85): In the following questions, out of
(b) a sorrowful day in ones life the four alternatives, choose the one which can be
(c) an important or joyful occasion in ones substituted for the given words/sentence.
life
(d) both a dangerous and sorrowful day in 81. Pertaining to horses
ones life (a) equine (b) equestrian
74. To have something up ones sleeve (c) equinox (d) equation
(a) to hide something in the sleeve 82. One who cannot be corrected
(b) to play a magician trick (a) incurable (b) incorrigible
(c) to have a secret plan (c) hardened (d) vulnerable
(d) to play hide and seek 83. Difficult or impossible to read
75. On the spur of the moment (a) illogical (b) illegible
(a) to act at once (c) ineligible (d) legible
(b) to ride a horse in a race 84. An unexpected piece of good fortune
(c) to act deliberately (a) Turnstile (b) Windfall
(d) to act at the appointed time (c) Philanthropy (d) Benevolence
Directions (76-80): In the following questions, a part 85. Those who go on to someone elses land
of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given without the owners permission
alternatives to the bold part at (a), (b) and (c) which (a) delinquents (b) trespassers
may improve the sentence. Choose the correct (c) offenders (d) culprits
alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your Directions (86-90): In the following questions. groups
answer is (d). of four words are given. In each group, one word is
76. Enlightenment were a state of relaxed correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
awareness. 86. (a) desiccation (b) dessication
(a) had (b) has (c) desiccasion (d) deziccation
(c) is (d) No improvement
87. (a) nigardlely (b) niggardly
77. I complimented him for his success in the
(c) nigardly (d) nigardly
examination.
(a) about (b) on 88. (a) relinquish (b) relenquish
(c) at (d) No improvement (c) relinqeush (d) relinquesh
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Solved Papers 7
89. (a) ecspectation (b) expactation PART III

(c) expectation (d) expectasion QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
90. (a) assimilation (b) asimillation
101. Of the three numbers, the sum of the first
(c) assimillation (d) asimilation two is 55, sum of the second and third is 65
Directions (91-100): In the following passage, some and sum of third with thrice of the first is
of the words have been left out. First read the passage 110. The third number is
over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in (a) 25 (b) 30
the blanks with the Help of the alternatives given. (c) 35 (d) 28
PASSAGE 102. Among the numbers 2, 3 9, 4 16 5 32 , the
(Question Nos. 91 to 100) greatest one is
Even during that cold winter afternoon, the
postman was slowly pushing his bicycle up the hill (a) 2 (b) 3
9
5
that led out to the village. He used to walk very (91) (c) 4
16 (d) 32
because there was a lot of ice on the ground. He had
103. The sum of the numerator and denominator
only one letter to (92), this was for an (93) lady who
of a positive fraction is 11. If 2 is added to
leved at the (94) of the hill. Everyone (95) her
both numerator and denominator, the
grandmother:. She had lived alone (96) since her
fraction is increased by 1/24. The difference
daughter had emigrated (97) Australia many years (98).
of numerator and denominator of the
She (99) used to invite the postman for a cup of tea
fraction is
(100) he read her letters.
(a) 5 (b) 3
91. (a) briskly (b) slowly (c) 1 (d) 9
(c) fast (d) leisurely 104. The expression 26n 42n, where n is a natural
92. (a) post (b) handover number is always divisible by
(c) deliver (d) give (a) 15 (b) 18
93. (a) ancient (b) important (c) 36 (d) 48
(c) old (d) illiterate 105. The sum of a pair of positive integers is 336
94. (a) foot (b) top and their H.C.F. is 21. The number of such
(c) end (d) mouth possible pairs is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
95. (a) called (b) named
(c) branded (d) designated 106. The difference between the exterior and
interior angles at a vertex of a regular
96. (a) even (b) ever polygon is 150. The number of sides of the
(c) about (d) all polygon is
97. (a) for (b) about (a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 24 (d) 30
(c) in (d) to 107. Each edge of a regular tetrahedron is 3 cm,
98. (a) since (b) after then its volume is
(c) before (d) away 9 2
99. (a) always (b) rarely (a) c.c. (b) 27 3 c.c.
4
(c) frequently (b) occasionly
100. (a) always (b) while 4 2
(c) c.c. (d) 9 3 c.c.
(c) sometimes (d) often 9
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108. A toy is in the form of a cone mounted on a 114. A can do a work in 21 days. B is 40% more
hemisphere. The radius of the hemisphere efficient than A. The number of days
and that of the cone is 3 cm and height of required for B to finish the same work alone
the cone is 4 cm. The total surface area of the is
toy (a) 10 (b) 12
(c) 15 (d) 18
22
(taking p = ) is 115. A discount series of 10%. 20% and 40% is
7
equal to a single discount of
(a) 75.43 sq. cm. (b) 103.71 sq. cm. (a) 50% (b) 56.8%
(c) 85.35 sq. cm. (d) 120.71 sq. cm. (c) 70% (d) 70.28%
109. The respective heights and volumes of a 116. In a shop, shirts are usually sold at 40%
hemisphere and a right circular cylinder are above the cost price. During a sale, the
equal, then the ratio of their radii is shopkeeper offers a discount of 10% off the
(a) 2: 3 (b) 3 :1 usual selling price. If he manages to sell 72
shirts for Rs. 13,608, then his cost price per
(c) 3: 2 (d) 2 : 3
shirt, in Rs. is
110. The four equal circles of radius 4 cm drawn (a) 210 (b) 150
on the four corners of a square touch each (c) 149 (d) 125
other externally. Then the area of the portion 117. If A : B = 4:9andA : C = 2 : 3, then (A + B) : (A
between the square and the four sectors is + C) is
(a) 9 (p 4) sq. cm. (a) 16 (p 4) sq. cm. (a) 15: 13 (b) 10 : 13
(c) 9 (4 - p ) sq. cm. (d) 16 (4 - p ) sq.cm. (c) 13: 1 0 (d) 13: 15
111. Two adjacent sides of a parallelogram are 118. Two vessels A and B contains acid and
of lengths 15 cm and 18 cm. If the distance water in the ratio 4 : 3 and 5 : 3 respectively.
between two smaller sides is 12 cm, then Then the ratio in which these mixtures to be
the distance between two bigger sides is mixed to obtain a new mixture in vessel C
(a) 8 cm (b) 10 cm containing acid and water in the ratio 3 : 2
(c) 12 cm (d) 15 cm is
112. A metal pipe is 21 cm long and its exterior (a) 5 : 8 (b) 7 : 8
diameter is 8 cm. If the thickness of the pipe (c) 7 : 5 (d) 4 : 7
is 1 cm and the metal weighs 8 gm/cm the 119. The batting average for 40 innings of a
weight of the pipe cricket player is 50 runs. His highest score
exceeds his lowest score by 172 runs. If these
22
two innings are excluded, the average of the
(in kg.) is use p =
7 remaining 38 innings is 48 runs. The
(a) 3.696 (b) 3.669 highest score of the player is
(c) 3.966 (d) 3.699 (a) 165 runs (b) 170 runs
113. 2 men and 3 women can do a piece of work (c) 172 runs (d) 174 runs
in 10 days while 3 men and 2 women can 120. Five years ago, the average age of P and Q
do the same work in 8 days. Then, 2 men was 25. The average age of P, Q and R today
and 1 woman can do the same work in is 25. Age of R after 5 years will be
(a) 12 days (b) 12 days. (a) 15 (b) 20
(c) 13 days (d) 13 days (c) 40 (d) 35
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Solved Papers 9
121. Some toffees are bought at the rate of 11 for (a) 22 (b) 33
Rs. 10 and the same number at the rate of 9 (c) 40 (d) 45
for Rs 10. If the whole lot is sold at one rupee
per toffee, find the gain or loss %. 1
129. If x + = 2 and k is real, then the value of
(a) Gain 2% (b) Loss 2% x
(c) Loss 1 % (d) Gain 1 %
1
122. If the cost price of 25 articles is equal to the x17 + is
x19
selling price of 20 articles, then the gain
(a) 1 (b) 0
percentageis
(c) 2 (d) 2
(a) 20% (b) 22.5%
(c) 25% (d) 27.5% 130. If x2 + y2 4x 4y + 8 = 0, then the value of x
- y is
123. Shelf A has 4/5 of the number of books that
(a) 4 (b) 4
shelf B has. If 25% of the books in A are
(c) 0 (d) 8
transferred to B and then 25% of the books 3 3 3
from B are transferred to A, then the 131. If a b c 3abc = 0, then
percentage of the total number of books that (a) a = b= c (b) a + b + c = 0
A will have is (c) a + c = b (d) a = b + c
(a) 25 (b) 50 132. In D ABC, O is the centroid and AD, BE, CF
(c) 75 (d) 100 are three medians and the area of D AOE
124. A vessel has 60 litres of solution of acid and = 15 cm2, then area of quadrilateral BDOF is
water having 80% acid. How much water (a) 20 cm2 (b) 30 cm2
be added to make it a solution in which acid (c) 40 cm2 (d) 25 cm2
forms 60% ? 133. The radius of two concentric circles are 9
(a) 48 litres (b) 20 litres cm and 15 cm. If the chord of the greater
(c) 36 litres (d) None of these circle be a tangent to the smaller circle, then
125. A man rows 40 km upstream in 8 hours and the length of that chord is
a distances of 36 km downstream in 6 hours. (a) 24 cm (b) 12 cm
Then speed of stream is (c) 30 cm (d) 18 cm
(a) 0.5 km/hr (b) 1.5 km/hr 134 O and C are respectively the orthocentre and
(c) 1 km/hr (d) 3 km/hr circumcentre of an acute-angled triangle
126. The difference between simple and PQR. The points P and 0 are joined and
compound interest on a certain sum of produced to meet the side QR at S. If PQS =
money at 5% p.a. for 2 years is Rs. 160. Find 60 and QCR = 130, then RPS =
the sum. (a) 300
(a) Rs. 64,000 (b) Rs. 60,000 (b) 350
(c) Rs. 40,000 (d) Rs. 48,000 (c) 100 (d) 604
135. The length of a chord of a circle is equal to
1 1
127. If x + = 2, find the value of 8 x3 + 3 . the radius of the circle. The angle which this
2x x chord subtends in the major segment of the
(a) 48 (b) 88 circle is equal to
(c) 40 (d) 44 (a) 30 (b) 45
128. If x = 2 21/3 + 22/3, then the value of x3 6x2 (c) 60 (d) 90
+ 18x + 18 is
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136. In D ABC, AD is the internal bisector of LA,

meeting the side BC at D. If BD = 5 cm, BC = 2+ 3
(a) 1 (b)
7.5 cm, then AB : AC is 2 3
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 0 (d) 2
(c) 4 : 5 (d) 3 : 5
137. If sin a + cos b = 2 (0 b < a 90), then sin Directions (142- 146): Read the following graph and
answer questions 142 to 146.
2a + b
= Trade Deficit of a Country in Crores of Rupees
3
4200
a a
3600
(a) sin (b) cos
2 3
3100
2800
2600
2600
a 2a
2200
(c) sin (d) cos
2100
3 3
138. If cos4 q sin 4 q = 2/3, then the value of 2
cos2 q 1 is
(a) 0 (b) 1 1987-88
1988-89
1989-90
1990-91
1991-92
1992-93
1993-94
1994-95
2 3
(c) (d)
3 2
139. The value of cot 10 . cot 20 . cot 60 . cot 70 142. The deficit in 1993-94 was roughly how
. cot 80 is many times the deficit in 1990-91 ?
(a) 1 (b) 1 (a) 1.4 (b) 1.5
(c) 2.5 (d) 0.5
1 143. Percentage increase in deficit in 1993-94 as
(c) 3 (d)
3 compared to deficit in 1989-90 was
(a) 200 (b) 150
140. At a point on a horizontal line through the
(c) 100 (d) 2100
base of a monument, the angle of elevation
of the top of the monument is found to be 144. In which of the following years, the percent
increase of deficit was highest over its
preceding year?
such that its tan gent is 1 . On walking 138 (a) 1992-93 (b) 1990-91
5
metres towards the monument the secant of (c) 1993-94 (d) 1988-89
the angle of elevation vation is found to be 145. The ratio of the number of years, in which
the trade deficit is above the average deficit,
193 to those years in which the trade deficit is
. The height of the monument (in
12 below the average deficit, is
metre) is (a) 3 : 5 (b) 5 : 3
(a) 35 (b) 49 (c) 4 : 4 (d) 3 : 4
(c) 42 (d) 56 146. The deficit in 1992-93 was approximately
how many percent of the average deficit?
141. If sin a sec (30 + a) = 1 (0 < a < 60), then the
(a) 150 (b) 140
value of sin a + cos 2a is
(c) 125 (d) 90
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Solved Papers 11
Directions (147 - 150): Study the following table and answer questions 147 to 150
Employees
Source of K L M N O
income of (in `)
Salary 12,000 6,000 21,000 9,000 12,000
Bonus 2,400 1,200 4,500 2,400 3,000
Overtime 5,400 2,100 6,000 5,100 6,000
Arrears 6,000 5,400 12,000 4,200 7,500
Miscellaneous 1,200 300 1,500 300 1,500
Total 27,000 15,000 45,000 21,000 30,000
147. The employee who has minimum ratio of 152. Kesari, the Newspaper was started by
income from arrears to income from salary (a) G.K. Gokhale (b) B. G. Tilak
is (c) Sardar Patel
(a) K (b) L (d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(c) M (d) N 153. When was the Indian Constitution adopted?
148. The employee who earns maximum bonus (a) 15th August, 1947
in comparison to his total Income. (b) 26th November, 1949
(a) M (b) N (c) 26th January, 1950
(c) L (d) K (d) 2nd October, 1952
149. The employee who has maximum 154. Which one of the following is the smallest
percentage of his salary out of the total endocrine gland in human body ?
income. (a) Adrenal (b) Thyroid
(a) K (b) L (c) Pituitary (d) Pancreas
(c) M (d) O 155. Double is a_______data type.
150. The income from overtime is what percent (a) primitive (b) user defined
of the income from the arrears in case of (c) system defined (d) local
employees in category O ? 156. Yellow spots on citrus leaves is due to the
(a) 80 (b) 75
deficiency of:
(c) 25 (d) 20
(a) Zinc (b) Magnesium
PART IV (c) Boron (d) Iron
GENERAL AWARENESS 157. Rangaswami Cup is associated with
(a) Wrestling
151. Cost of production of the producer is given (b) Football
by: (c) Hockey (d) Golf
(a) sum of wages paid to labourers.
(b) sum of wages and interest paid on 158. The working of a rockets based on the
capital. principle of:
(c) sum of wages, interest, rent and (a) Conservation of momentum
supernormal profit. (b) Conservation of mass
(d) sum of wages, interest, rent and normal (c) Conservation of energy
profit. (d) Conservation of angular momentum
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159. Which one of the following is a Wild Life (c) Flt. Lt. Nivedita Choudhary
Sanctuary ? (d) Flt. Lt. Rajika Sharma
(a) Jaldapara (b) Garumara 168. While computing national income estimates,
(c) Corbett (d) Chapramari which of the following is required to be
160. The river which is used for inland observed?
waterways in India is . (a) The value of exports to be added and the
(a) Ganga (b) Cauveri value of imports to be subtracted
(c) Mahi (d) Luni (b) The value of exports to be subtracted and
161. The atmospheric layer closest to the earth the value of imports to be added
is: (c) The value of both exports and imports
(a) Mesosphere (b) Hydrosphere to be added
(c) Troposphere (d) Ionosphere (d) The value of both exports and imports
162. Yellow Revolution is associated with the to be subtracted
production of 169. If the Prime Minister of India submits his
(a) Poultry (b) Gold resignation to the President, it will mean the
(c) Sunflower (d) Oil seeds resignation of the
163. Under the Indira Gandhi National Old Age (a) Prime Minister only
Pension Scheme, the amount of pension for (b) Prime Minister and the Cabinet
those above 80 years has been increased per Ministers
month from ` 200 to (c) Entire Council of Ministers
(a) ` 300 (b) ` 400 (d) Prime Minister, Cabinet Ministers and
(c) ` 500 (d) `1000 the Speaker
164. The state which has recently overtaken 170. A fuse wire is made of:
Karnataka for the top rank in the production (a) an alloy of tin and copper
of bio-fertilisers is (b) an alloy of tin and lead
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Gujarat (c) an alloy of tin and aluminium
(c) Maharashtra (d) Punjab (d) an alloy of nickel and chromium
165. The upper house of the State Legislature in 171. Iltutmish established a centre of learning at
India is called (a) Multan (b) Kolkata
(a) Legislative Council (c) Alwar (d) Patna
(b) Legislative Assembly 172. The energy that can harness heat stored
(c) Executive Council below the earths surface is known as ;
(d) Governor - in - Council (a) thermal energy
166. Maximum number of sugar factories are (b) nuclear energy
located in (c) tidal energy
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu (d) geothermal energy
(c) Bihar (d) Assam 173. The temperature of boiling water in a steam
167. The All Women Expedition Team of the engine may be high because
Indian Air Force which scaled the Mount (a) there are dissolved substances in water
Everest some time back was headed by (b) there is low pressure inside the boiler
(a) Sqn. Ldr. D. Panda (c) there is high pressure inside the boiler
(b) Sqn. Ldr. Nirupama Pandey (d) the fire is at very high temperature
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Solved Papers 13
174. Konark which has famous Sun God 183. An instrument used to measure humidity
Temple with wonderful specimens of is:
Hindu architecture lies in the state of: (a) Anemometer (b) Hygrometer
(a) Orissa (b) Gujarat (c) Thermometer (d) Pyrheliometer
(c) Karnataka (d) Madhya Pradesh 184. Fat can be separated from milk in a cream
175. AGMARK is a guarantee of standard separator because of:
(a) quality (b) quantity (a) Cohesive force
(c) weight (d) size (b) Gravitational force
176. Vector of Kala-azar is (c) Centripetal force (d) Centrifugal force
(a) Anopheles mosquito 185. The market price is related to
(b) Culex mosquito (a) very short period (b) short period
(c) Tse-Tsefly (d) Sand fly (c) long period (d) very long period
177. The World Day to Combat Desertification is 186. The airways company acquired by South
observed every, year on: Indias Sun Group is
(a) 4th May (b) 17th June (a) Go Air (b) IndiGo
(c) 14th August (d) 3rd October (c) Spice Jet (d) Jet Airways
178. In case no party enjoys absolute majority in 187. India is a secular state because in our
the Legislative Assembly of a state, the country:
Governor will go by (a) state has no religion
(a) the advice of former Chief Minister (b) religion has been abolished
(b) the advice of the Prime Minister (c) state patronises a particular religion
(c) the advice of the President of India (d) None of these
(d) his own discretion 188. Who was the mother of Mahavira ?
179. The planet that takes 88 days to make one (a) Yashoda (b) Trishala
revolution of the sun is (c) Jameli (d) Mahamaya
(a) Mercury (b) Saturn 189. Equilibrium price is the price when
(c) Jupiter (d) Mars (a) supply is greater than demand
180. The chief raw material used for (b) supply is less than demand
manufacturing Rayon is (c) demand is very high
(a) Nylon (b) Cellulose (d) supply is equal to demand
(c) Silicon (d) Radium and 190. The Third battle of Panipat was fought in
Argon the year
181. Giddha is a form of dance associated with (a) 1526 A. D. (b) 1556 A. D.
the state of (c) 1761 A.D. (d) 1776 A.D.
(a) Punjab 191. Which of the following years has been
(b) Himachal Pradesh ranked as one of the three warmest years ?
(c) Haryana (a) 2006 (b) 2008
(d) Rajasthan (c) 2009 (d) 2010
182. The gas used to dilute oxygen for breathing 192. Cadmium pollution is associated with
by deep sea divers is (a) Minamata disease
(a) Neon (b) Argon (b) Black foot disease
(c) Nitrogen (d) Helium (c) Dyslexia (d) Itaiitai
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14 Solved Papers
193. The Great Bath of Indus Valley Civilization 197. Gas released during Bhopal tragedy was
is found at; (a) Sodium isothiocyanate
(a) Harappa (b) Mohenjodaro (b) Potassium isothiocyanate
(c) Ropar (d) Kalibangan (c) Ethyl isothiocyanate
194. Who invented Helicopter? (d) Methyl isothiocyanate
(a) Cockrell (b) Brequet 198. National Botanical Garden is located at
(c) Otis (d) Frank Whittle (a) Shimla (b) Kolkata
(c) Lucknow (d) Bengaluru
195. Most of the computers available today are
(a) 3rd generation computers 199. October and November months give more
(b) 4th generation computers rainfall to
(c) 5th generation computers (a) Malwa Plateau
(b) Chota Nagpur Plateau
(d) 6th generation computers
(c) Eastern Hills
196. Bleaching powder is prepared by passing (d) Coromandal Coast
(a) Chlorine over slaked lime
200. Which one of the following is considered as
(b) Oxygen over slaked lime natures radar ?
(c) Carbon dioxide over slaked lime (a) Hippopotamus (b) Pigeon
(d) Chlorine over quick lime (c) Vulture (d) Owl
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (ac)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31.(a) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49.(c) 50. (d)
51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (b) 56. (d) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (c)
61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (c) 66. (b) 67. (d) 68. (a) 69. (d) 70. (b)
71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (c) 74. (c) 75. (a) 76.(c) 77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (c) 80. (b)
81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (b) 85. (b) 86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (a) 89. (c) 90. (a)
91.(b) 92. (c) 93. (c) 94. (b) 95. (a) 96. (b) 97. (d) 98. (c) 99. (a) 100. (b)
101. (c) 102. (b) 103. (c) 104. (d) 105. (c) 106. (c) 107.(a) 108. (b) 109. (c) 110. (d)
111. (b) 112. (a) 113. (b) 114. (c) 115. (b) 116. (b) 117. (c) 118. (b) 119. (d) 120. (b)
121. (c) 122. (c) 123. (b) 124. (b) 125. (a) 126. (a) 127. (c) 128. (c) 129. (c) 130. (c)
131. (d) 132. (b) 133. (a) 134. (b) 135. (a) 136. (a) 137. (b) 138. (c) 139. (c) 140. (c)
141. (a) 142. (b) 143. (c) 144. (d) 145. (a) 146. (c) 147. (d) 148. (b) 149. (c) 150. (a)
151. (d) 152. (b) 153. (b) 154. (c) 155. (a) 156. (b) 157. (c) 158. (a) 159. (c) 160. (a)
161. (c) 162. (d) 163. (c) 164. (a) 165. (a) 166. (a) 167. (b) 168. (a) 169. (c) 170. (b)
171. (d) 172. (d) 173. (c) 174. (a) 175.(a) 176. (d) 177. (b) 178. (d) 179. (a) 180. (b)
181. (a) 182. (d) 183. (b) 184. (d) 185. (a) 186. (c) 187. (a) 188. (b) 189. (d) 190. (c)
191. (d) 192. (d) 193. (b) 194. (b) 195. (b) 196. (a) 197. (d) 198. (b) 199. (d) 200. (b)
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36
SOLVED PAPER
Solved Papers 15
SSC (10+2) LEVEL

First Sitting Held on : 11.12.2011
PART I Directions (10-18): In each of the following questions,

GENERAL INTELLIGENCE select the one which is different from the other three
responses :
10. (1) Pen (b) Crayon
select the related word/ letters /number from the given
(c) Eraser (d) Pencil
alternatives.
11. (a) Moon (b) Mars
1. Defy : Obey: : Rest : ? (c) Venus (d) Jupiter
(a) Lazy (b) Idle 12. (a) Democracy (b) Parliament
(c) Labour (d) Work (c) Uncivil (d) Election
2. Water : Swim: : Land 13. (a) B (b) C
(a) Walk (b) Stand (c) D (d) E
(c) Sit (d) Move
14. (a) EBD (b) IFH
3. Patient : Doctor : : (c) QNO (d) YVX
(a) Student : Advisor (b) Scissor : Iron
15. (a) QRST (b) BECD
(c) Apple : Knife (d) Nurse : Surgeon
(c) FIGH (d) LOMN
4. AN : BO : : CP : ?
16. (a) 10 (b) 26
(a) DQ (b) FS
(c) 24 (d) 21
(c) DS (d) FQ
17. (a) 22-30 (b) 44-36
5. DDW : ECV :: FBU : ?
(c) 52-62 (d) 77-85
(a) GAW (b) GAV
(c) VAG (d) GAT 18. (a) 78-87 (b) 49-94
(c) 96-68 (d) 56-65
6. BCDZ : CDEV :: DEFT : ?
(a) FFGQ (b) EGFR 19. Arrange the following words according to
(c) EFGP (d) EFGS English Dictionary.
(a) Banal (b) Banana
7. 196 : 169 : :81 : ?
(c) Banish (d) Bandage
(a) 64 (b) 72
(e) Bandit
(c) 100 (d) 144
(a) (a), (c), (b), (d), (e)
8. 30: ?: : 130: 222 (b) (a), (b), (d), (c), (e)
(a) 30 (b) 40 (c) (a), (b), (d), (e), (c)
(c) 66 (d) 68 (d) (a), (c), (b), (e), (d)
9. 4, 16,4 : 2, 4, 2 : : ? : 3, 9, 3
(a) 6, 9, 6 (b) 9, 81, 9
which one of the given responses would be a meaningful
(c) 9, 27, 9 (d) 9, 18,9
order of the following words in ascending order ?
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16 Solved Papers
20. (a) Atomic Age (b) Metallic Age (a) Aunt (b) Sister
(c) Stone Age (d) Alloy Age (c) Daughter (d) Mother
(a) (a), (c), (d), (b) (b) (c), (b), (d), (a) 29. F has less money than H but more than G. E
(c) (b), (c), (a), (d) (d) (d), (c), (b), (a) has more than F but less than H. Who is the
21. (a) Cure (b) Doctor poorest?
(c) Disease (d) Diagnosis (a) F (b) E
(5) Medicine (c) H (d) G
(a) (b), (d), (c), (5), (a) 30. From the given alternatives select the word
(b) (c), (b), (d), (5), (a) which cannot be formed using the letters of
(c) (d), (b), (c), (5), (a) the given word.
(d) (d), (c), (b), (a), (5) (a) SEPTUM (b) RECTUM
22. Which one set of letters when sequentially (c) CUSTOM (d) SPECT
placed at the gaps in the given letter series 31. A group of alphabets are given with each
shall complete it ? being asigned a number. These have to be
a _ cdd _bed _abe _ dab _ unscrambled into a meaningful word and
(a) baddc (b) abddc correct order of letters may be indicated from
(c) badcd (d) bdadc the given responses.
Directions (23-26): In each of the following questions, U B A N R
a series is given, with one/two term missing. Choose 1 2 3 4 5
the correct alternative from the given ones that will (a) 1 4 2 3 5 (b) 1 5 2 3 4
complete the series. (c) 4 1 5 3 2 (d) 5 3 4 2 1
23. Y, S, U, O, Q, ? ? 32. APPRECIATION is coded as 177832419465.
(a) NO (b) LM How will you code PERCEPTION?
(c) J K (d) H I (a) 7382379465 (b) 7392378465
24. EAC, GCE, IEG, ? (c) 7292378465 (d) 7383297465
(a) JHI (b) KGI 33. Select the correct combination of
(c) JGI (d) KIJ mathematical signs to replace * signs and
25. 1, 9, 25, ?, 81 to balance the given equation.
(a) 36 (b) 49 16 * 2 * 24 * 3 * 6
(c) 64 (d) 28 (a) + = (b) + =
26. 3, 6, 12, 21, ?, 48 (c) + = (d) =
(a) 31 (b) 33 34. Some equations are solved on the basis of a
(c) 34 (d) 38 certain system. On the same basis, find out
27. Find the wrong number in the given series. the correct answerr for the unsolved
3, 6,11, 16, 27, 38. equation.
(a) 6 (b) 38 6 9 2 = 926, 3 2 1 = 213, 0 4 8 = ?
(c) 16 (d) 27 (a) 840 (b) 48
28. Showing a man a woman said, his (c) 84 (d) 480
brothers father is the only son of my 35. Which interchange of signs will make the
grandfather. How is the woman related to following equation correct?
the man? 30 6 + 4 + 2 3 = 7
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Study Kit for SSC Combined Graduate Level
Examination (Tier- II)
Our Objectives:
Firstly to cover 100% SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) Tier - II examination syllabus.
Secondly to compile all the required study materials in one place, so to save the precious time of the
aspirants. Further, in this study kit we have incorporated all available study material in the market,
also we have included material of standard Books meant for SSC CGL preparation. This is in the
interest of candidate so that they need not to study separate material for every section.
Our Strategy:
Content of every section of the syllabus is developed after a thorough research of last year Question
Papers.
Every section and every chapter is covered with overview of chapter along with exercise and practice
set.
The Study Kit is available in English only.

http://sscportal.in/community/study-kit/cgl-tier-2
Solved Papers 17
(a) + and (b) and + just to the right of E but left of D. F is not at
(c) and (d) and the right end. Who is at the right end?
Directions (36-37): In each of the following questions, (a) D (b) B
select the missing number from the given responses. (c) E (d) C
42. A solid cube of 4 inches has been painted
36. 16 4 4 red, green and black on pair of opposite
81 3 27 faces. It has been cut into one inch cubes.
? 25 5 How many cubes have only Red and Green
(a) 97 (b) 12 faces?
(c) 125 (d) 30 (a) 4 (b) 8
(c) 16 (d) 24
37. 6 4 5 43. One statement is given followed by two
3 6 5 conclusions I and II. You have to consider
the statements to be true even if they seem to
2 3 4
be at variance from commonly known facts.
36 72 ? You are to decide which of the given
conclusions, if any, follow from the given
(a) 100 (b) 175
statements. Indicate your answer.
(c) 125 (d) 120
Statement
38. A taxi driver commenced his journey from a
point and drove 10km towards North and Many people feel nervous when giving a
turned to his left and drove another 5 km. talk before a group.
After waiting to meet one of his friends, he Conclusions
turned to his right and continuted to drive I. Many people can talk confidently before
another 10 km. He has covered a distance of a group.
25 km so far but in which direction he now II. Very few people can talk confidently
may be? before a group.
(a) North (b) East (a) Only I follows
(c) West (d) South (b) Only II follows
39. Sita cycled 8 km southward from her home (c) Neither I nor II follows
turned right and cycled 5 km, turned right (d) Both I and II follow
and cycled 8 km, turned left and cycled 10 44. Two statements are given followed by four
km. How many kms will she have cycle to conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to
reach straight home? consider the statements to be true even if
(a) 8 km (b) 10 km they seem to be at variance from commonly
(c) 15 km (d) 13 km known facts. You are to decide which of the
40. If in a code MASTER is written as SAMRET given conclusions, if any, follow from the
then how CARROT be written in the same given statements. Indicate your an swer.
code? Statements
(a) RACTOR (b) RCATRO (i) Blue is Black and some Black is red.
(c) RCATOR (d) ARMTOR (ii) All red is Green but not Yellow
41. Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a Conclusions
row facing East. C is between A and E. B is I. Some Blue is Green.
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18 Solved Papers
II. No Black is Yellow. Question Figure

III. Some Black is not Yellow. A
IV. No Black is Green.

(a) Only I and II follow
(b) Only II and IV follow Answer Figures
(d) Only I, II and IV follow
45. Which answer figure will complete the
pattern in the question figure? (a) (b) (c) (d)
Question Figure 49. Which one of the following diagrams best
depicts the relationship among Honey-bee,
Insect and Housefly?
Answer Figures
(a) (b) (c) (d)

50. A word is represented by only one set of
(a) (b) (c) (d) numbers as given in any one of the
46. Select the answer figure in which the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in
question figure is hidden/embedded. the alternatives are represented by two
Question Figure classes of alphabets as in two matrices given
below. The columns and rows of Matrix I
are numbered from 0 to 3 and that of Matrix
II are numbered from 4 to 7. A letter from
Answer Figures these matrices can be represented first by its
row and next by its column, e.g., A can be
represented by 00, 12, 21, etc. and T can be
(a) (b) (c) (d) represented by 02, 10, 23, etc. Identify the
47. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown set for the word LAMB.
below in the question figures. From the given MATRIX - I
answer figures, indicate how it will appear 0 1 2 3
when opened? 0 A M T I
Question Figures 1 T I A M
2 1 A M T
3 M T I A
Answer Figures MATRIX - II
4 5 6 7
4 E B L U
(a) (b) (c) (d) 5 L U E B
48. Which of the answer figure is exactly the 6 U E B L
mirror image of the given figure, when the
7 B L U E
mirror is held on the line AB?
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Solved Papers 19
(a) 75, 21, 13, 45 (b) 46, 12, 23, 57 60. He drained what was left_____ his drink.
(c) 67, 33, 31, 66 (d) 46, 32, 01, 74 (a) from (b) in
(c) of (d) off
PART II Directions (61-65): In the following questions, out of
ENGLISH LANGUAGE the four alternatives, choose the one which best
Directions (51-55): In the following questions some expresses the meaning of the given word.
parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. 61. Irresolute
Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The (a) undecided (b) angry
number of that part is your answer. If there is no error, (c) ignorant (d) firm
then your answer is (d) i.e. No error. 62. Frugal
51. This custom (a)/ has come down (b)/ since (a) economical (b) delicate
times immemorial. (c) / No error. (d) (c) splendid (d) hungry
52. This letter will reach him (a)/ before he left 63. Motive
(b)/ for Delhi. (c)/ No error. (d) (a) reason (b) occasion
53. We stayed for (a)/ a short time (b) / in the (c) intention (d) preparation
hotel. (c)/ No error. (d) 64. Pity
54. Students are prohibited (a)/ to bring cycles (a) offence (b) mercy
(b)/ into the college. (c)/ No error. (d) (c) kindness (d) joy
55. Unless you are careful, (a)/ you are bound 65. Quash
to make mistake (b)/ in your work. (c)/ No (a) question (b) pledge
error. (d) (c) reject (d) slash
Directions (56-60): In the following questions, Directions (66-70): In the following questions, choose
sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested 66. Quiet
for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of (a) strong (b) noisy
the four and indicate it as your answer. (c) incomplete (d) violent
56. The aim of education is to____the best in 67. Vague
students. (a) clear (b) dull
(a) bring on (b) bring in (c) unknown (d) shady
(c) bring about (d) bring out 68. Incredible
57. I have known him_______along time. (a) believable (b) possible
(a) since (b) for (c) imaginable (d) enjoyable
(c) before (d) from 69. Inevitable
58. I wish I__________her to clean the room. (a) avoidable (b) unnecessary
(a) have asking (b) have asked (c) inseparable (d) uncertain
(c) asked (d) had asked 70. Humility
59. He always takes full ______of the mistakes (a) dignity (b) cruelty
made by his friends. (c) anger (d) pride
(a) benefit (b) advantage Directions (71-75): In the following questions, four
(c) profit (d) use alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase printed in
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20 Solved Papers
bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best 79. Why do you prefer the theatre than the
expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. cinema?
(a) for (b) against
71. As a businessman, my father always
(c) to (d) No improvement
maintained that his transactions constituted
an open book. 80. He is the only man I know who can laugh at
(a) an account book always open himself.
(b) a book of open confessions (a) whose (b) whom
(c) an opening for new ventures (c) which (d) No improvement
(d) straight forward and honest dealings Directions (81-85): In the following questions, out of
72. The project advanced by leaps and bounds. the four alternatives, choose the one which can be
(a) rapidly (b) slowly substituted for the given words/sentence.
(c) sharply (d) simply 81. Place where wine is made
73. She is too fond of her own voice. (a) bakery (b) cloakroom
(a) loves singing (c) tannery (d) brewery
(b) very selfish 82. A paper written by hand
(c) does not listen properly to anyone else (a) handicraft (b) handiwork
(d) very talkative (c) manuscript (d) thesis
74. Indian police is, on the whole, high handed 83. The art of preserving skin of animals, birds
in dealing with citizens. and fish
(a) kind (b) overbearing (a) taxonomy (b) taxidermy
(c) prompt (d) adept (c) topology (d) seismology
75. I take exception to your statement that I am 84. Related to moon
bad tempered. (a) solar (b) moony
(a) do not agree (b) feel unhappy (c) lunar (d) honeymoon
(c) object (d) feel angry
85. The plants and vegetation of a region
Directions (76-80): In the following questions, a part (a) flora (b) fauna
of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given (c) landscape (d) environment
alternatives to the bold part at (a), (b) and (c) which
Directions (86-90): In the following questions, groups
may improve the sentence. Choose the correct
of four words are given. In each group, one word is
alternative. In case no improvement is needed your
correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
answer is (d).
86. (a) systamatically (b) systematically
76. My foot is paining.
(c) systematicaly (d) systimatically
(a) aching (b) ailing.
(c) hurting (d) No improvement 87. (a) erthiness (b) earthines
(c) earthhiness (d) earthiness
77. The light went out while I read,
(a) was reading (b) am reading 88. (a) truely (b) truly
(c) had read (d) No improvement (c) truily (d) trueily
78. She said me about her holiday in Kerala. 89. (a) allienate (b) aliennate
(a) told about (c) alienatte (d) alienate
(b) said about 90. (a) vacilliation (b) vasillation
(c) told me about (d) No improvement (c) vacillation (d) vacilation
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Solved Papers 21
Directions (91-100): In the following passage, some the larger one is five times than the smaller
of the words have been left out. First read the passage one. Then the ratio of the larger to smaller
over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill one is
in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. (a) 2 : 1 (b) 3 : 2
(c) 3 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
PASSAGE
(Question Nos. 91 to 100) 102. The largest number among 2, 3 3, 4 4 is
The true elixir of life near to our hands is the
(a) 2 (b) 3
3
commonest of all liquids, plain water. It has 91 a role of
vast significance in 92 the course of earths history (c) 4 4 (d) All are equal
and 93 to play the leading role in the 94 of life on the 103. A got married 8 years ago. As 1 persent age
surface of our 95 . Indeed, there is nothing here which
96 so much to the beauty of the 97 as water, be it just 1
is 1 times his age at the time of marriage.
a little 98 trickling over the rocks or a 99 pond by the 4
way side where animals100 their thirst.
1
91. (a) done (b) played As sons age is times his present age.
10
(c) created (d) developed His sons age in years, is
92. (a) shaping (b) solving (a) 2 (b) 3
(c) preventing (d) uplifting (c) 4 (d) 5
93. (a) decides (b) continues 104. When an integer K is divided by 3, the
(c) prepares (d) refuses remainder is 1, and when K + 1 is divided
94. (a) movement (b) drama by 5, the remainder is 0. Of the following, a
(c) scene (d) future possible value of K is
95. (a) star (b) constellation (a) 62 (b) 63
(c) planet (d) sea (c) 64 (d) 65
96. (a) deduces (b) adds 105. A farmer has 945 cows and 2475 sheep. He
(c) detracts (d) brightens farms then into flocks, keeping cows and
97. (a) countryside (b) river sheep separate and having the same
(c) humanbeings (d) skies number of animals in each flock. If these
flocks are as large as possible, then the
98. (a) river (b) stream
maximum number of animals in each flock
(c) waterfalls (d) well
and total number of flocks required for the
99. (a) dirty (b) short purpose are respectively
(c) huge (b) little (a) 15 and 228
100. (a) complete (b) quench (b) 9 and 380
(c) pamper (d) destroy (c) 45 and 76 (d) 46 and 75
106. The number of sides in two regular polygons
PART III
are in the ratio 5 : 4 and the difference
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE between each interior angle of the polygons
101. From each of the two given unequal is 6. Then the number of sides are
numbers, half the smaller number is (a) 15, 12 (b) 5A
subtracted. Then, of the resulting numbers, (c) 10, 8 (d) 20, 16
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22 Solved Papers
107. If the length of each side of a regular 113. B and C can complete a piece of work in 12
tetrahedron is 12 cm, then the volume of the days, C and A can do it in 8 days. All the
tetrahedron is three can do it in 6 days. A and B together
(a) 144 V-2 cu. cm. (b) 72 f cu. cm. can complete it in
(c) 8, cu. cm. (d) 12 J cu. cm. (a) 4 days (b) 6 days
108. If the radii of the circular ends of a truncated (c) 8 days (d) 10 days
conical bucket which is 45cm high be 28 cm 114. A can do a work in 9 days, if B is 50% more
and 7 cm, then the capacity of the bucket in efficient than A, then in how many days can
B do the same work?
22
cubic centimetre is uses use p = (a) 13.5 (b) 4.5
7 (c) 6 (d) 3
(a) 48510 (b) 45810 115. The successive discounts of 10% and 20%
(c) 48150 (d) 48051 are equivalent to a single discount of
109. A cone, a hemisphere and a cylinder stand (a) 30% (b) 28%
on equal base and have the same height. (c) 25% (d) 27%
Their volumes are in the ratio 116. A dealer marks his goods at 40% above the
(a) 1: 3: 2 (b) 2: 3: 1 cost price and allows a discount of 20% on
(c) 1: 2: 3 (d) 3: 1: 2 the marked price. The dealer has a
110. A metal wire when bent in the form of a (a) loss of 20% (b) gain of 25%
square encloses an area 484 cm2. If the same (c) loss of 12% (d) gain of 12%
wire is bent in the form of a circle, then
b+ a
117. If 120% of a is equal to 80% of b, then
(taking x = p = 22 ) its area is b-a
7 is equal to
(a) 308 cm2 (b) 506 cm2 (a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 600 cm2 (d) 616 cm2 (c) 7 (d) 8
111. Sides of a parallelogram are in the ratio 5 : 4. 118. The ratio of spirit and water in two
Its area is 1000 sq. units. Altitude on the mixturers of 20 litre and 36 litre is 3 : 7 apd
greater side is 20 units. Altitude on the 7 : 5 respectively. Both the mixtures are
smaller side is mixed together. Now the ratio of the spirit
(a) 30 units (b) 25 units and water in the new mixture is
(c) 10 units (d) 15 units (a) 25: 29 (b) 9 : 10
112. A circus tent is cylindrical up to a height of 3 (c) 27: 29 (d) 27: 31
m and conical above it. If its diameter is 119. The average of n numbers x1, x2 is x . Then
105m and the slant height of the conical part
n
is 63 m, then the total area of the canvas
required to make the tent is
the value of ( xi - x ) is equal to i=1
t =1
22 (a) n (b) 0
take p = (c) nx (d) x
7
(a) 11385 m 2
(b) 10395 m2 120. The average of six numbers is 32. If each of
(c) 9900 m2
(d) 990 m2 the first three numbers is increased by 2 and
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Solved Papers 23
each of the remaining three numbers is 127. If x2 + 2 = 2x, then the value of x4 x3+ x2 + 2
decreased by 4, then the new average is is
(a) 35 (b) 34 (a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 31 (d) 30 (c) l (d) 2
121. The cost price : selling price of an article is
a : b. If b is 200% of a then the percentage of 1 1 1
profit on cost price is 128. If 2x = 3y= 6 z then x y z is equal to

(a) 75% (b) 125%
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 100% (d) 200%
122. A person sells 400 mangoes at the cost price 3
(c) (d) - 1
of 320 mangoes. His percentage of loss is 2 2
(a) 10 (b) 15
(c) 20 (d) 25 1 1 1
129. If = + ( x 0, y 0, x y ) then, the
123. A person ordered 4 shirts of brand A and x+ y x y
some shirts of brand B. The price of one shirt value of x3 y3 is
of brand A was twice that of brand B. When (a) 0 (b) 1
the order was executed, it was found that (c) l (d) 2
the numbers of the two brands has been 130. For real a, b, c if a2 + b2 + c2 ab + bc + ca, then
interchanged. This increased the bill by 40%.
The ratio of the number of brand A shirts to a+c
value of is
that of brand B shirts in the original order b
was (a) 1 (b) 2
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 3 (d) 0
(c) 1: 4 (d) 1 : 5 131. If x = a (b c), y = b (c a) and z = c (a b), then
124. A litre of pure alcohol is added to 6 litres of
3 3 3
30% alcohol solution. The percentage of x y z
water in the solution is + + =
a b c
(a) 50% (b) 65%
(c) 60% (d) 40%
(a) xyz (b) 3 xyzabc
125. A man can row 30 km downstream and 3abc
return in a total of 8 hours. If the speed of 3xyz xyz
the boat in still water is four times the speed (c) abc (d)
of the current, then the of the speed current abc
is 132. In a quadrilateral ABCD, with unequal sides
(a) 1 km/hour (b) 2 km/hour if the diagonals AC and BD intersect at right
(c) 4 km/hour (d) 3 km/hour angles, then
126. The difference between the simple and (a) AB2 + BC2 = CD2 + DA2
compound interest on a certain sum of (b) AB2 + CD2 = BC2 + DA2
money for 2 years at 4% per annum is Rs.1. (c) AB2 + AD2 = BC2 + CD2
Find the sum. (d) AB2 + BC2 = 2(CD2 + DA2)
(a) Rs .630 (b) Rs. 620 133. The tangents are drawn at the extremities of
(c) Rs. 625 (d) Rs. 635 a diameter AB of a circle with centre P. If a
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24 Solved Papers
tangent to the circle at the point C intersects

the other two tangents at g and R, then the 1
(a) (b) 3
measure of the QPR is 3
(a) 45 (b) 60 (c) 1 (d) undefined
(c) 90 (d) 180 140. Two poles of equal heights are standing
134. Let O be the in-centre of a triangle ABC and opposite to each other on either side of a
D be a point on the side BC of DABC, such road which is 100m wide. From a point
that OD ^ BC. If BOD = 15, then ABC= between them on road, angles of elevation
(a) 75 (b) 45 of their tops are 30 and 60. The height of
(c) 150 (d) 90 each pole in metre, is
135. AB is a chord to a circle and PAT is the (a) 25 3 (b) 20 3
tangent to the cir cle at A. If BAT = 75 and
(c) 28 3 (d) 30 3
BAC = 45, C being a point on the circle,
then ABC is equal to 141. If sec2q + tan2q = 7, then the value of q when
(a) 40 (b) 45 0 q 90 is
(c) 60 (d) 70 (a) 60 (b) 30
136. D is any point on side AC of DABC. If P, Q, X, (c) 0 (d) 90
Yare the midpints of AB, BC, AD and DC Directions (142-146): The bar diagram given below
respectively, then the ratio of PX and QY is shows the productions (in the unit of thousand pieces)
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1 of three types of biscuits by a company in the five
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 2 : 3 consecutive years. Study the diagram and answer the
following questions 142 to 146
1
137. If 2cosq sinq = (0 < q < 90) the value
2 Glucose biscuit
50 Cream Cracker biscuit
of 2 sinq + cosq is Salted biscuit
45
1 40
35
(a) (b) 2 35
2 27.5
30
30
30
30
30
27.5
25
22.5
22.5
25
22.5
25
3 2
20
20
20
(c) (d)
12.5
2 3 15
10
sin q + cos q 5
138. If = 3, then the value of sin4q
sin q - cos q 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997
Years
cos4q is
142. The percentage drop in the number of
1 2 glucose biscuits manufactured from 1994 to
(a) (b)
5 5 1995 is
(a) 10 (b) 15
3 4
(c) (d) (c) 25 (d) 20
5 5
143. The difference (in the unit of thousand
139. The value of tan l . tang tan3. tan4 ... pieces) between the total number of cream
tan87. tan88. tan89 is cracker biscuits manufactured in the years
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Solved Papers 25
1993, 1995 and 1997 and the total number 145. The production of all the three types of
of the biscuits of same type in the years 1994 biscuits was maximum in the year
and 1996 is (a) 1995 (b) 1994
(a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 1996 (d) 1993
(c) 30 (d) 20 146. The ratio of production of glucose biscuits
144. Total production of all the three types of and total production of biscuits in that year
biscuits was the least in the year was maximum in
(a) 1993 (b) 1997 (a) 1994 (b) 1993
(c) 1996 (d) 1995 (c) 1996 (d) 1997
Directions (147-150 : Study the following table which shows the number of studetns appeared and passed in
diffeent streams in a University and answer the questions given below it
Engineering Medical Management Commerce

Year App Pass App Pass App Pass App Pass
eared eared eared eared
2001 324 289 469 246 96 69 1467 1310
2002 356 312 430 364 74 62 1246 1129
2003 284 212 384 326 124 102 1387 1176
2004 310 246 395 298 106 92 1180 1074
2006 380 286 466 405 78 63 1375 1207
147. Approximately what per cent of students PART IV

appearing in medical, passed in 2003 ? GENERAL AWARENESS
(a) 75% (b) 85%
(c) 78% (d) 88% 151. Which one of the following is not included
148. Approximately what per cent of total while estimating national income through
students appearing in 2004, appeared in income method?
commerce stream? (a) Rent (b) Mixed incomes
(a) 55.3% (b) 64.4% (c) Pension
(c) 52.5% (d) 59.3% (d) Undistributed profits
149. The number of students appearing in all 152. Taxation is a tool of
streams was minimum in the year (a) Monetary policy (b) Fiscal policy
(a) 2002 (c) Price policy (d) Wage policy
(b) 2003 153. Globalisation means
(c) 2004 (a) Integration of economy
(d) 2006 (b) Integration of financial market
150. The number of students passing in all (c) Integration of the domestic economy
streams was maximum in the year. with the world economy
(a) 2001 (b) 2005 (d) Integration of the various sectors of
(c) 2006 (d) 2004 economy
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26 Solved Papers
154. Which is the artificial port of India? 164. Who was the regent of Akbar in his early
(a) Kandla (b) Mangalore days ?
(c) Chennai or Madras (a) Abul Fazl (b) Bairam Khan
(d) Haldia (c) Tansen. (d) Todarmal
155. The Nobel Prize was instituted by the 165. Before assuming the office of the Sultan of
country Delhi Balban was the Prime Minister of
(a) USA (b) UK Sultan
(c) Russia (d) Sweden (a) Nasir-ud-din
156. Which of the following motion is related (b) Qutub-ud-din-Albak
with the Union Budget ? (c) Bahrem Shah
(a) Adjournment (b) Censure (d) Aram Shah
(c) Cut (d) None of the above 166. Which one of the following is known as the
157. Directive Principles of State Policy in the brown coal?
Indian Constitution were taken from the (a) Anthracite (b) Bituminous
Constitution of (c) Coke (d) Lignite
(a) Britain (b) Ireland 167. Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) is at
(c) USA (d) Canada (a) Thiruvananthapuram
158. As per Indian Constitution, the Right to (b) Mumbai
Property is a (c) Hyderabad
(a) Fundamental Right (d) Bengaluru
(b) Natural Right 168. Which one of the following is known as the
(c) Legal Right (d) Moral Right Pearl City?
159. The success of democracy depends upon the (a) Kandla (b) Tuticorin
(a) Right to criticise (c) Kochi (d) Hyderabad
(b) Right to association 169. Madhya Pradesh is the largest producer of
(c) Right to personal liberty (a) Cotton (b) Oil-seeds
(d) Right to property (c) Pulses (d) Maize
160. Who is the Chairman of Planning 170. Which planet in our solar system is nearly
Commission? as big as the earth ?
(a) President (b) Prime Minister (a) Mercury (b) Mars
(c) Finance Minister (d) Vice-President (c) Venus (d) Pluto
161. In 1937, the Congress formed ministries in 171. In onion the edible part is
(a) 7 states (b) 9 states (a) Leaf (b) Root
(c) 5 states (d) 4 states (c) Stem (d) Flower
162. Kalinga war took place in the year 172. Mushroom cultivation is not useful in
(a) 261 BC (b) 263 BC (a) Biogas production
(c) 232 BC (d) 240 BC (b) Biological control of crop diseases
163. The Akaal Takht was built by (c) Recycling of agricultural wastes
(a) Guru Ramdas (d) Preventing cancer
(b) Guru Teg Bahadur 173. The Drone in honey bee are
(c) Guru Hargovind (a) Fertile male (b) Fertile female
(d) Guru Nanak (c) Sterile male (d) Sterile female
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Solved Papers 27
174. Of which tissue nails, hoofs and horns are (a) Mainframes (b) Mini computers
made of (c) Microcomputers (d) None of the above
(a) Cutide (b) Chitin 182. What is the process of defining tables called?
(c) Keratin (d) Tunicin (a) Data definition
175. Haemoglobin has highest affinity for (b) Data Normalisation
(a) Oxygen (b) Carbon dioxide (c) Index definition
(c) Carbon monoxide (d) Nitrogen (d) Data administration
176. Which chromosomal combination is 183. The chief source of naphthalene is
responsible for maleness in man ? (a) Coaltar (b) Diesel
(a) XO (b) XXX (c) Charcoal (d) Camphor
(c) XX (d) XY 184. Why is water not suitable for putting out a
177. The Newtons First Law is also called as petrol fire ?
(a) Law of moments (b) Law of inertia (a) The oxygen content of water is isolated
(c) Law of energy by petrol and thus it helps in burning
(d) Law of momentum (b) Petrol is too inflammable to be
178. If we want to calculate the pressure of a extinguished by water
liquid at the bottom of a vessel, the quantity (c) The heat required for combustion of
which is not required to determine it, is petrol is very low
(a) Height of the liquid column (d) Water, being heavy, slips below petrol
(b) Surface area of the bottom of the vessel which thus remains in contact with air
(c) Density of the liquid and burns
(d) Acceleration due to gravity at the bottom 185. Milk is
of the vessel (a) Emulsion (b) Suspension
179. The water from a hand pump is warm in (c) Foam (d) Gel
winter because 186. The chemical substance present in bones
(a) Our body is cold in winter and the water and teeth is
appears to be warm (a) Calcium phosphate
(b) The temperature inside the earth is (b) Calcium chloride
higher than the atmospheric (c) Calcium sulphate (d) Calcium borate
temperature 187. Social forestry is
(c) The pumping process causes friction (a) growing different types of plants
which warms up the water together on private land
(d) Inside water comes out and absorbs heat (b) management of forest by cooperative
from the environment societies
180. A water tank appears shallower when it is (c) growing one type of plant in government
viewed from top due to owned land
(a) rectilinear propagation of light (d) growing and management of useful
(b) reflection plants on government owned land
(c) total internal reflection 188. Which of the following exhibits
(d) refraction unidirectional flow in an ecosystem ?
181. Small and cheap computers built into (a) Light (b) Energy
several home appliances are of which type? (c) Water (d) Biomass
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28 Solved Papers
189. Maximum permissible concentration of 195. How many new Duranto Trains are
copper in drinking water in mg/L is proposed to be introduced as per the
(a) 0.01 (b) 0.05 Railway Budget 2011-12 ?
(c) 1.0 (d) 2.0 (a) 5 (b) 7
190. Earth Summit was held in (c) 9 (d) 10
(a) Chicago (b) Adelaide 196. According to the latest data of the Planning
(c) London (d) Rio de Jeneiro Commission, poverty based on the formula
191. Who invented Penicillin ? suggested by the Tendulkar Committee in
(a) William Harvey (b) Louis Pasteur 2009-10 has declined to
(c) Alexander Fleming (a) 36% (b) 32%
(d) Edward Jenner (c) 28% (d) 24%
192. The coins of which of the following reveal 197. After ONGC, OTC, NTPC and SAIL, the
their love for music ? Navratna PSU which was awarded
(a) Mauryas (b) Nandas Maharatna status is
(a) HAL (b) GAIL
(c) Guptas (d) Cholas
(c) Coal India Ltd (d) BHEL
193. Who of the following won the Wimbledon
198. Which of the following registers the highest
2011 Womens Singles title ?
dnsity in the country as per Census 2011?
(a) Maria Sharapova (b) Petra Kvitova
(a) Delhi (b) Chandigarh
(c) Venus Williams (d) Serena Williams
(c) Puducherry (d) West Bengal
194. The Vice-President Hamid Ansari presented
199. On June 9, 2011 India successfully flight
the prestigious Sangeet Natak Akademi
tested
fellowships and awards for the year 2010
(a) Agni-I (b) Agni-II
on July 22, 2011. Who of the following
(c) Prithvi-II (d) Akash
received award in the field of music ?
(a) Chhanu Lal Mishra 200. Right to Education became a fundamental
right on
(b) Malabika Mitra
(a) March 15, 2010 (b) April 1, 2010
(c) Atamjit Singh
(c) July 17, 2010 (d) October 10, 2010
(d) T. K. Murthy
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Solved Papers 29
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (a)
41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (a) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (c)
61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (a) 69. (a) 70. (b)
71. (d) 72. (a) 73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (c) 76. (a) 77. (a) 78. (c) 79. (c) 80. (d)
81. (d) 82. (c) 83. (b) 84. (c) 85. (a) 86. (b) 87. (d) 88. (b) 89. (d) 90. (c)
91. (b) 92. (a) 93. (b) 94. (a) 95. (c) 96. (b) 97. (c) 98. (b) 99. (c) 100. (b)
101. (c) 102. (b) 103. (c) 104. (c) 105. (c) 106. (a) 107. (a) 108. (a) 109. (c) 110. (d)
111. (b) 112. (a) 113. (c) 114. (c) 115. (b) 116. (d) 117. (a) 118. (c) 119. (b) 120. (c)
121. (c) 122. (c) 123. (b) 124. (c) 125. (b) 126. (c) 127. (a) 128. (a) 129. (a) 130. (b)
131. (c) 132. (b) 133. (c) 134. (c) 135. (c) 136. (b) 137. (c) 138. (c) 139. (c) 140. (a)
141. (a) 142. (c) 143. (b) 144. (a) 145. (a) 146. (b) 147. (b) 148. (d) 149. (c) 150. (b)
151. (c) 152. (b) 153. (c) 154. (c) 155. (d) 156. (c) 157. (b) 158.(c) 159. (c) 160. (b)
161. (a) 162. (a) 163. (c) 164. (b) 165. (a) 166. (d) 167. (a) 168. (d) 169. (c) 170. (c)
171. (c) 172. (b) 173. (a) 174. (c) 175. (a) 176. (d) 177. (b) 178. (b) 179. (b) 180. (d)
181. (c) 182. (a) 183. (a) 184. (d) 185. (a) 186. (a) 187. (b) 188. (b) 189. (c) 190. (d)
191. (c) 192. (c) 193. (b) 194. (a) 195. (c) 196. (b) 197. (c) 198. (a) 199. (c) 200. (b)
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We will dispatch 12 Test papers along with OMR sheets to your given postal address.
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30
SOLVED PAPER Solved Papers
SSC (10+2) LEVEL

Second Sitting Held on : 11.12.2011
PART-I Directions (10- 18): Select the one which is different

GENERAL INTELLIGENCE from the other three responses
10. (a) Pen (b) Marker
Directions (1-9): Select the related word/letters/number
(c) Paper (d) Pencil
from the given alternatives.
11. (a) ABDG (b) CDFI
1. Horse : Hoof : : ? (c) EFHK (d) GHJK
(a) Man : Foot (b) Dog : Black 12. (a) Graph (b) Chart
(c) Paise : Rupee (d) Pen : Pencil (c) Model (d) Drawing
2. LO : PK :: IR : ? 13. (a) 73 (b) 53
(a) GT (b) SH (c) 87 (d) 67
(c) MN (d) FU
14. (a) Peak (b) Mountain
3. Night : Morning :: ? : Night (c) Hillock (d) Valley
(a) Noon (b) Forenoon
15. (a) 919-949 (b) 646-686
(c) Afternoon (d) Evening
(c) 828-848 (d) 434 464
4. QTU :: LM :: BEF : ?
16. (a) NML (b) OPQ
(a) PSZ (b) CFH
(c) X W V (d) H G E
(c) WZA (d) UXB
17. (a) E (b) 1
5. 6524: 6465: : 9638: ?
(c) O (d) V
(a) 9825 (b) 9736
(c) 9697 (d) 9579 18. (a) 24-47 (b) 38-61
(c) 74-98 (d) 54-77
6. 64 : 144 : : 256 : ?
(a) 16 (b) 32 19. Arrange the following words according to
(c) 400 (d) 336 English Dictionary.
(A) gargle (B) garden
7. 08 : 28 : : 15 : ?
(C) garbo (D) garnish
(a) 63 (b) 65
(E) garland
(c) 126 (d) 124
(a) (B), (C), (D), (A), (E)
8. ACEG : ZXVT : : HJLM : ? (b) (C), (B), (A), (E), (D)
(a) QOMK (b) SRPO (c) (C), (B), (D), (E), (A)
(c) RPNL (d) SQON (d) (D), (C), (B), (A), (E)
9. Oxygen : Burn : : Carbondioxide : ?
Directions (20 - 21): Which one of the given responses
(a) Isolate (b) Foam
would be a meaningful order of the following words in
(c) Extinguishes (d) Explode
ascending order ?
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Solved Papers 31
20. (A) Vegetable (B) Market 29. Which of the following interchanges of
(C) Cutting (D) Cooking signs would make the given equation
(E) Food correct ?
(a) (A), (B), (D), (D), (E) 5 + 6 + 3 12 2 = 17
(b) (B), (A), (C), (D), (E) (a) and (b) and
(c) (C), (A). (B), (E), (D) (c) + and (d) + and
(d) (E), (B), (A), (C), (D) . 30. If SPANK is coded as PSNAK then how will
21. (A) Honey (B) Flower THROW be coded ?
(C) Honey Bee (D) Wax (a) HTO RW (b) HTWOR
(a) (A), (C), (D), (B) (c) HTWRO (d) HTROW
(b) (B), (A), (D), (C) 31. Some equations are solved on the basis of a
(c) (B), (C), (A), (D) (d) (D), (C), (B), (A) certain system. On the same basis, find out
22. Which one set of letters when sequentially the correct answer for the unsolved
placed at the gaps in the given letter series equation.
shall complete it ? 5 + 3 + 7 = 573; 6 + 3 + 9 = 693;
_bb_c_bg_b_g 6 + 4 + 8 = 684; 9 + 4 + 5 = ?
(a) cbgbc (b) cgbcb (a) 594 (b) 945
(c) cgbcc (d) gbcbb (c) 459 (d) 954
Directions (23-26): Choose the correct alternative from 32. If Anil runs less fast than Sunil and Sunil
the given ones that will complete the series. runs as fast but not faster than Suraj, then
23. 169,144,121,100, ? Suraj runs:
(a) 99 (b) 74 (a) As fast as Anil
(c) 81 (d) 101 (b) Faster than Sunil
(c) Faster than Anil
24. FLU, GMV, HNW, IOX, ? (d) Less fast than Anil
(a) JYP (b) WYP
33. Select the correct combination of
(c) WPY (d) JPY
mathematical signs to replace * signs and
25. A,P,C,Q,E,R,G, ? , to balance the given equation
(a) SI (b) H I
16 * 4 * 3 * 4 * 13
(c) IS (d) T J
(a) = (b) + =
26. 5, ? , 23, 47, 95, 191. (c) + = (d) =
(a) 13 (b) 10
34. If BANGALORE is written as 987685432,
(c) 17 (d) 11
how is ELLORA written in the same code ?
27. From the given alternatives select the word (a) 245538 (b) 255438
which cannot be formed using the letters of (c) 245348 (d) 254538
the given word. EDUCATIONAL 35. A group of alphabets are given with each
(a) NATIONAL (b) NEAT being assigned a number. These have to be
(c) DEAN (d) LION unscrambled into a meaningful word and
28. Find the wrong number in the given series. correct order of letters may be indicated from
20, 40, 200, 400, 2000, 4000, 8000 the given responses.
(a) 200 (b) 2000 EOCNA
(c) 8000 (d) 4000 12345
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32 Solved Papers
(a) 3 4 5 2 1 (b) 2 3 1 5 4 Assumptions :

(c) 4 3 1 2 5 (d) 1 3 2 5 4 (I) Most of the deaths among rich people
36. Looking at a photograph a person said I are due to heart attacks.
have no brother or sister but that mans (II) Poor people do not have heart attacks.
father is my fathers son. At whose (a) Only
photograph was the person looking at ? (a) is implicit
(a) His sons (b) His nephew (b) Only (II) is implicit
(c) His fathers (d) His own (c) Both (I) and (II) are implicit
(d) Neither (I) nor (II) is implicit
Directions (37-38): Select the missing number from
the given responses. 42. Mohan starts from point A and walks 1 km
towards south, turns left and walks 1 km.
37. 5 4 9 6 Then turns left again and walks 1 km. Now
7 5 2 4 which direction he is facing?
1 3 4 5 (a) East (b) West
35 60 72 ? (c) North (d) SouthWest
(a) 116 (b) 136 43. A solid cube of 4 inches has been painted
(c) 120 (d) 126 red, green and black on pair of opposite
38. 64 36 2 faces. It has been cut into one inch cubes.
81 25 4 How many cubes have only two faces
painted ?
144 16 ?
(a) 8 (b) 16
(a) 6 (b) 8
(c) 3 (d) 16 (c) 24 (d) 32
39. Mitan travelled 12 kms southward, then 44. Three statements are given followed by four
turned left and travelled 10 kms, then turned conclusions. (I), (II), (1II) and (IV). You have
left and travelled 12 km. How far was Mitan to consider the statements to be true even if
from the starting point ? they seem to be at variance from commonly
(a) 8 km (b) 10 km known facts. You are to decide which of the
(c) 12 km (d) 14 km given conclusions, if any, follow from the
40. Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a given statements. Indicate your answer.
row facing East. C is between A and E, Statements
B is just to the right of E but left of D, F (1) All dogs are rats.
is not at the right end. Which pair is sitting (2) All rats are crows.
by the side of, D? (3) All crows are parrots.
(a) CE (b) FA Conclusions
(c) EB (d) FD (I) All dogs are parrots.
41. The question below has a statement (II) Some parrots are dogs.
followed by two assumptions. You have to (III)Some crows are dogs.
decide whether the assumption is implied (IV)All rats are dogs.
in the statement. Indicate your answer. (a) Only (I) and (Il) follow
Statement (b) Only (I), (II) and (III) follow
Rich people are more prone to have heart (c) Either (II) or (IV) follow
attacks. (d) Either (I) or (II) or (lll) follow
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Solved Papers 33
45. Which answer figure will complete the Answer Figures

pattern in the question figure ?
Question Figure
(a) (b) (c) (d)
49. A word is represented by only one set of
numbers as given in any one of the
Answer Figures alternatives. The sets of numbers given in
the alternatives are represented by two
classes of alphabets as in two matrices given
below. The columns and rows of Matrix I
(a) (b) (c) (d) are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix
46. Select the answer figure in which the II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from
question figure is hidden/embedded. these matrices can be represented first by its
row and next by its column, e.g., A can be
Question Figure
represented by 55, 67, 86, etc and R can be
represented by 04, 23, 30, etc. Identify the
set for the word DOOR.
Matrix I
Answer Figures
0 1 2 3 4
0 F O M S R
1 S R F O M
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 O M S R F
47. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown
3 R F O M S
below in the question figures. From the given
answer figures, indicate how it will appear 4 M S R F O
when opened? Matrix II
Question Figures 5 6 7 8 9
5 A T D l P
6 I P A T D
7 T D I P A
Answer Figures
8 P A T D I
9 D I P A T
(a) 69, 44, 20, 43 (b) 76, 01, 44, 24
(a) (b) (c) (d) (c) 95, 20, 44, 12 (d) 57, 13, 32, 23
48. Which of the answer figure is exactly the 50. Which one of the following diagrams best
mirror image of the given figure, when the depicts the relationship among horses,
mirror is held on the line AB? parrots and birds ?
Question Figure
A
B
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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34 Solved Papers
PART-II 60. If I dont_____advantage of this platform,

ENGLISH LANGUAGE then how dare I be a film maker ?
(a) make (b) take
Directions (51-55): In the following questions, some (c) bring (d) find
parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Directions (61 - 65): In the following questions, out of
Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The the four alternatives, choose the one which best
number of that part is your answer. If there is no error, expresses the meaning of the given word.
then your answer is (d) i.e. No error.
61. meticulous
51. Due to the heavy rains (a)/ the ship (a) correct (b) clean
drowned (b)/ in the middle of the ocean. (c) methodical (d) painstaking
(c)/ No error (d)
62. abundant
52. Death of (a)/ his only son (b)/ made Mohan (a) sufficient (b) plentiful
desolate. (c)/ No error (d) (c) significant (d) vibrant
53. He fell heavily (a)/ and this caused (b)/ him 63. anticipate
great pain. (c)/ No error (d) (a) antagonise (b) expect
54. When I met him (a)/ the couple of days back (c) accept (d) hope
(b)/ he was writing a new book. (c)/ No 64. restrict
error (d) (a) curtail (b) prohibit
55. In his old age, (a)/ a person is likely to get (c) retain (d) retail
(b)/ more weak day by day. (c)/ No error (d)
65. tremendous
Directions (56 - 60): In the following questions, (a) awesome (b) remarkable
sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an (c) considerable (d) excessive
appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested
Directions (66 - 70): In the following questions, choose
for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of
the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
the four and indicate it as your answer.
66. make
56. Our teacher_____several points before the
(a) liberate (b) break
exams.
(c) emancipate (d) bind
(a) cleared off (b) cleared away
(c) cleared up (d) cleared out 67. praise
(a) heckle (b) accuse
57. Let me give you___.
(a) an advise (b) any advice (c) hate (d) scold
(c) some advice (d) some advises 68. terminate
58. The cart was driven____bullocks. (a) hasten (b) depart
(a) with (b) off (c) begin (d) change
(c) to (d) by 69. rapidly
59. Simon_____very polite at the moment, (a) lazily
because he wants to make a good (b) secretly
impression. (c) slowly (d) firmly
(a) was being 70. successor
(b) has been (a) failure (b) loser
(c) is behaving (b) is being. (c) predecessor (d) predator
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Solved Papers 35
Directions (71 - 75): In the following questions, four quality of India____

alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase printed in (a) popular (b) remarkable
the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses (c) famous (d) No improvement
the meaning of the idiom/ phrase. 79. He is addicted to alcohol and exerts a bad
71. The officer called for an explanation from influence for his family.
the cashier for the shortage of cash. (a) on (b) in
(a) asked (b) begged (c) about (d) No improvement
(c) served a notice (d) demanded 80. Kalidasa is the Shakespeare of India.
72. The actress took cue from her .brother and (a) Shakespeare (b) a Shakespeare
became successful. (c) like Shakespeare (d) No improvement
(a) some help (b) a hint Directions (81-82): In the following questions, out of
(c) some money (d) learnt acting the four alternatives, choose the one which can be
73. We wanted the gift to be a sur prise for my substituted for the given words/sentence.
mother, but my sister gave the game away. 81. Book giving information about every branch
(a) lost the game of knowledge
(b) gave out the secret (a) Directory (b) Dictionary
(c) gave away the gift (c) Encyclopaedia (d) Dissertation
(d) withdrew from the plan
82. Member of a tribe that wanders from place
74. Let us have a heart to heart talk to solve this to place with no fixed home
problem. (a) Vagabond (b) Nomad
(a) good talk (b) emotional talk (c) Wanderer (d) Truant
(c) frank talk (d) loving talk
83. Fit to be chosen
75. His speech fell short on the audience. (a) Eligible (b) Capable
(a) had no effect (c) Suitable (d) Valuable
(b) moved the audience
84. An animal or plant living in or upon another
(c) impressed the audience
(a) master (b) dependant
(d) was quite short
(c) insect (d) parasite
Directions (76 - 80): In the following questions, a part 85. Sum of money to be paid for freeing a person
of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given from captivity
alternatives to the bold part at (a), (b) and (c) which (a) Ransom (b) Compensation
may improve the sentence. Choose the correct (c) Tribute (d) Penalty
alternative. In case no improvement is needed your
answer is (d). Directions (86 - 90): In the following questions, groups
of four words are given. In each group, one word is
76. He said that he saw him last year, to discuss correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
the documents.
(a) met (b) had seen 86. (a) Skaleton (b) Sekeleton
(c) seen (d) No improvement (c) Skelaton (d) Skeleton
77. Them shoes are mine. 87. (a) Mischeivous (b) Mischevous
(a) Those (b) That (c) Mischievous (d) Mischivous
(c) Their (d) No improvement 88. (a) Defenitly (b) Definately
78. Unity in diversity is the most noticeable (c) Definitely (d) Defenitely
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36 Solved Papers
89. (a) Exhilirate PART III

(b) Exhilarate QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
(c) Exhiliret (d) Exhilerate
101. If x, y are acute angles, 0 < x + y < 90 and sin
90. (a) Maintenance (b) Maintanance
(2x 20) = cos (2y + 20), then the value of
(c) Maintenence (d) Maintanence
tan (x + y) is
Directions (91 - 100): In the following passage, some
of the words have been left out. First read the passage 1 3
(a) (b)
over and try understand what it is about. Then fill in 3 2
the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.
(c) 3 (d) 1
Twenty million years ago, our immediate ancestors
102. The ratio of the angles A and B of a non-
probably still lived in the trees. After we came (91)
square rhombus ABCD is 4 : 5, then the value
from the trees, we evolved an upright (92); our hands
of C is
were more useful, being (93).We possessed agility and
(a) 50 (b) 45
an excellent binocular (94). We had, in course of time, (c) 80 (d) 95
(95) many of the preconditions required for (96) tools.
103. A straight line parallel to BC of AABC
Moreover, there was now a real (97) in possessing a
intersects AB and AC at points P and Q
large brain and (98) communicating complex thoughts.
respectively. AP = QC, PB= 4 units and AQ
Anyway, other things (99) equal, it is better to be smart
= 9 units, then the length of AP is
(100) to be stupid. (a) 25 units (b) 3 units
91. (a) across (b) under (c) 6 units (d) 6.5 units
(c) into (d) down 104. If x + y = a and xy = b2, then the value of x3
92. (a) posture (b) position x2y xy2 + y3 in terms of a and b is
(c) pose (d) posterior (a) (a2 + 4b2) (b) a3 3b2
93. (a) free (b) tight (c) a 4b
3 2
(d) a3+3b2
(c) loose (d) lazy 105. From a right circular cylinder of radius 10
94. (a) vision (b) skill cm and height 21 cm, a right circular cone
(c) tools (d) ability of same base radius is removed. If the volume
95. (a) lost (b) acquired of the remaining portion is 4400 cm3, then
(c) demanded (d) forgotten the height of the removed cone (taking p =
22/7) is
96. (a) making (b) doing
(a) 15 cm (b) 18 cm
(c) sharpening (d) breaking
(c) 21 cm (d) 24 cm
97. (a) use (b) pride
106. I is the incentre of D ABC, ABC = 60 and
(c) advantage (d) right
ACB = 50. Then BIC is
98. (a) in (b) about (a) 55 (b) 125
(c) upon (d) on (c) 70 (d) 65
99. (a) was (b) being 107. If (3a + 1) + (b 1) + (2c 3)2 = 0, then the
2 2
(c) been (d) are value of (3a + b + 2c) is equal to

100. (a) not (b) rather (a) 3 (b) -1
(c) than (d) unless (c) 2 (d) 5
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Solved Papers 37
108. Among the following num bers (a) 5 cm (b) 10 cm

(c) 15 cm (d) 20 cm
6
12, 4, 5, 3 the least one is
3 4
(a)
6
12 (b) 3
4 x 1 1
116. If 2
= , value of x + is
2x + 5x + 2 6 x
(c) 54 (d) 3
109. A trader marks his goods45% above the cost 1
(a) 2 (b)
price and gives a discount of 20% on the 2
marked price. The gain % on goods he makes
1
is (c) - (d) 2
(a) 15 (b) 14 2
(c) 29 (d) 16 117. Each internal angle of regular polygon is
110. The simplified value of (see x sec y + tan x two times Its external angle. Then the
tan y)2 (sex x tan y + tan x sec y)2 is number of sides of the polygon is
(a) 1 (b) 0 (a) 8 (b) 6
(c) sect x (d) 1 (c) 5 (d) 7
111. Speed of a boat is 5 km per hour in still water 118. The perimeterof a rhombus is 40 cm and the
and the speed of the stream is 3 km per hour. measure of an angle is 60, then the area of
If the boat take 3 hours to go to a place and it is
come back, the distance of the place is (a) 100 3 cm2 (b) 50 3 cm2
(a) 3.75 km (b) 4km (c) 160 3 cm
- 2
(d) 100 cm2
(c) 4.8 km (d) 4.25 km 119. The ratio of the areas of the incircle and the
112. The single discount equivalent to the circumcircle of a square is
discount series of 20%,10% and 5% is (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 3
(a) 11.66% (8) 31.6% (c) 3 : 4 (d) 4 : 5
(c) 31.66% (d) 32% 120. The ratio of the sum to the LCM of two
113. If xy (x + y) = 1, then the value of natural numbers is 7 : 12. If their HCF is 4,
then the smaller number is
1 (a) 20 (b) 16
3 3
- x 3 - y 3 is
x y (c) 12 (d) 8
(a) 0 (b) l 121. sin 5 + sin 6 +... + sin 284 + sin2 85 = ?
2 2
(c) 3 (d) 2 1 1
114. Two vessels A and B contain acid and water (a) 39 (b) 40
2 2
mixed in the ratio 2 : 3 and 4 : 3. In what
ratio must these mixtures be mixed to form 1
a new mixture containing half acid and half (c) 40 (d) 39
2
water ?
(a) 5 : 7 (b) 1 : 2 122. ABCD is a cyclic trapezium such that AD
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 7 : 5 || BC, if ABC = 70, then the value of
115. The base of a right pyramid is a square of BCD is
side 40 cm long. If the volume of the pyramid (a) 60 (b) 70
is 8000 cm3, then its height is . (c) 40 (d) 80
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123. A man sells 320 mangoes at the cost price of to its 52%; the ratio of the first number to the
400 mangoes. His gain percent is second number is
(a) 15 (b) 20 (a) 6 : 5 (b) 5 : 3
(c) 25 (d) 10 (c) 5 : 4 (d) 4 : 5
124. The value of the expression 131. If the sum of the two numbers is 120 and
their quotient is 5, then the difference of the
( a - b )2 ( b - c )2 ( c - a )2 two numbers is
+ + is
( b - c )( c - a ) ( a - b )( c - a ) ( a - b )( b - c ) (a) 115 (b) 100
(c) 80 (d) 72
132. The ratio of height and the diameter of a
(a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 2 right circular cone is 3 : 2 and its volume is
3
125. A can do a certain job in 12 days. B is 60% 1078 cc, then (taking p = 22/7) its height is
(a) 7 cm (b) 14 cm
more efficient than A. To do the same job B
(c) 21 cm (d) 28 cm
alone would take
(a) 7 days (b) 8 days 133. A person sold an article at 20% profit on the
(c) 10 days (d) 7 days selling price. Afterwards, when the cost
price reduced by 10%, then he also reduced
126. An ore contains 25% of an alloy that has
the selling price by 10%. His percentage of
90% iron. Other than this, in the remaining
profit on cost price will be
75% of the ore, there is no iron. To obtain 60 (a) 30 (b) 25
kg of pure iron, the quantity of the ore (c) 22.5 (d) 12.5
needed, in kgs. is approximately
(a) 250.57 (b) 266.67 2x - y 1 3x - y
134. If = , then value of is.
(c) 275.23 (d) 300 x + 2y 2 3x + y
127. If sinq + cosecq = 2, then value of sin100q +
cosec100q is equal to 1 3 4
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1
(a) 1 (b) 2 5 5 5
(c) 3 (d) 100 135. A girl was asked to multiply a number by
128. A telegraph post is bent, at a point above the
ground due to storm. Its top just meets the 7 , instead she divided the number by 7
8 8
ground at a distance of 83 f metres from its
foot and makes an angle of 30, then the and got the result 15 more than the correct
height of the post is result. The sum of the digits of the number
(a) 16 metres (b) 23 metres was
(a) 4 (b) 8
(c) 24 metres (d) 10 metres
(c) 6 (d) 11
129. A number when divided by 91 gives a
136. The average age of 45 persons is decreased
remainder 17. When the same number is
by 1/9 year when one of them having 60
divided by 13, the remainder will be
years is replaced by a new comer. Then the
(a) 0 (b) 4 age of the new comer is
(c) 6 (d) 3 (a) 45 years
130. When 60% of a number is subtracted from (b) 55 years
another number, the second number reduces (c) 59 years (d) 49 years
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Solved Papers 39
137. There are in all, 10 balls; some of them are money must be
red and the others white. The average cost (a) Rs. 35,000 (b) Rs. 41,000
of all balls is Rs. 28. If the average cost of red (c) Rs. 40,000 (d) Rs. 45,000
balls is Rs. 25 and that of white balls is Rs. 140. A right circular cylinder and a cone have
30, the number of white balls is equal base radius and equal heights. If their
(a) 3 (b) 5 curved surfaces are in the ratio 8 : 5, then
(c) 6 (d) 7 the radius of the base to the height are in the
138. Either 8 men or 17 women can paint a house ratio
in 33 days. The number of days required to (a) 2 : 3 (b) 4 : 3
paint three such houses by 12 men and 24 (c) 3 :4 (d) 3 : 2
women working at the same rate is 141. The tangents at two points A and B on the
(a) 44 (b) 43 circle with centre 0 intersect at P; if in
(c) 34 (d) 66 quadrilateral PAOB, AOB : APS = 5 : 1,
139. The difference between simple and then measure of APS is
compound interest on a sum of money at (a) 30 (b) 60
5% p.a. for 2 years. is Rs.100. The sum of (c) 45 (d) 15
Directions (142-146): Read the following graph and answer the questions.
Result of Annual Examination in a High School (All data in %) (Success being considered)
Scale 1 Unit = 1 cm
120 Boys
Girls
110
Result of Annual Exam in Percentage
100
90
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
V IV VII VIII IX X
Classes
142. In which pair of classes are the results of 143. In which class is the failure of boys the
girls and boys in inverse proportion? lowest or nil?
(a) V and X (b) VI and IX (a) X (b) IX
(c) VI and VIII (d) VII and X (c) VIII (d) VII
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144. In which class is the result of the girls more cars during the year 2003 ?
than the average result of the boys for the (a) P (b) Q
school? (c) R (d) S
(a) VIII (b) X 150. There was a continuous increase in
(c) IX (d) VI production of which type of cars during the
145. In which class is the result of boys less than period 1999 to 2004 ?
the overall average result of the girls ? (a) P (b) Q
(a) VII (b) VIII (c) R (d) S
(c) IX (d) X
146. In which class is the difference between the PART IV
result of girls and that of boys maximum ? GENERAL AWARENESS
(a) V (b) VII 151. The five year plan that gave priority to heavy
(c) VIII industry was
(d) X (a) Second (b) First
Directions (147 - 150): The following table shows (c) Seventh (d) Fourth
production of cars (in thousands) in a company from 152. The Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowships
1999 to 2004. Study the table and answer the questions. and awards for the year 2010 were
presented by the Vice President on July 22,
Year 2011. Who of the following received award
1999 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004
Type in the field of dance?
P 8 20 16 17 21 6 (a) Chhanu Lai Mishra
Q 16 10 14 12 12 14 (b) Malabika Mitra
(c) Atamjit Singh (d) T.K. Murthy
R 21 14 16 15 13 8
153. Who acts as the Chairman o the State
S 4 6 10 16 20 31 Planning Board ?
T 25 18 19 30 14 27 (a) Governor (b) Chief Minister
Total 74 71 75 90 80 86 (c) Leader of the Opposition
(d) Speaker
147. In which year; the total production of cars 154. Air bladder in fish acts as
of types P and Q together was equal to the (a) Accessory respiratory organ
total production of cars of types R and S (b) Hydrostatic organ
together? (c) Both accessory respiratory organ and
(a) 2000 (b) 2001 hydrostatic organ
(c) 2003 (d) 2004 (d) Primary respiratory organ
148. In which year, the production of all types of 155. Which of the following is called Blue
cars taken together was approximately equal Planet ?
to the annual average of the total production (a) Saturn (b) Earth
during the period 1999 to 2004? (c) Jupiter (d) Mars
(a) 1999 (b) 2001 156. Which one of the following glands is
(5) 2003 (d) 2004 responsible for secretion of sex hormons ?
149. The production of which type of cars was (a) Adrenal gland (b) Thyroid gland
25 % of the total production of all types of (c) Pituitary gland (d) Sebaceous gland
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Solved Papers 41
157. In cauliflower plant the useful part is (a) Paints (b) Wood burning
(a) Underground stem (c) Acid Plants (d) Domestic sewage
(b) Root 167. A stone is dropped from the roof of a house
(c) Young inflorescence towards the ground. The kinetic energy of
(d) Leaves the stone will be maximum
158. Aurobindo was arrested in connection with (a) just after it is dropped
(a) Alipore Bomb Case (b) when it is just on the halfway
(b) Kolhapur Bomb Case (c) just before it touches the ground
(c) Lahore Conspiracy Case (d) when it touches the ground
(d) Kakori Case 168. Which states name was changed sometime
159. For a ray of light to suffer total internal back?
reflection it has to pass from (a) Jharkhand (b) Orissa
(a) glass to water (b) water to glass (c) West Bengal (d) Andhra Pradesh
(c) air to water (d) air to glass 169. The latest and the largest Shipyard set up
160. Which of the following is an example of a with Japanese collaboration is
database manager? (a) Hindustan Shipyard in
(a) Organizer (b) Paradox Vishakhapatnam
(c) Quattro Pro (d) Corel Draw (b) Kochi Shipyard
161. If lime water is kept in the air, it turns milky (c) Garden Reach Workshops at Kolkata
due to presence of (d) Mazagaon Dock at Mumbai
(a) Carbondioxide (b) Nitrogen 170. Income and consumption are
(c) Oxygen (d) Sulphurdioxide (a) inversely related (b) directly related
162. What are the signals that inform the (c) partially related (d) unrelated.
operating system that some activity has 171. Which of the following Public
taken place called? Undertakings has not been conferred with
(a) Informers (b) Interrupts `Maharatna Status?
(c) Events (d) Handlers (a) SAIL (b) BHEL
163. Name the Prime Minister who brought about (c) ONGC
a thaw in India-China relations by signing (d) Coal India Limited
the Line of Actual Control. 172. Who is known as the Indian Bismarck?
(a) Lai Bahadur Shastri (a) Vallabhai Patel
(b) P.V. Narashima Rao (b) Subhash Chandra Bose
(c) Chandrasekhar (d) V. P. Singh (c) Bhagat Singh
164. Manchester of South India is (d) Bal Gangadhara Tilak
(a) Coimbatore (b) Madurai 173. Which one of the four regions above the
(c) Bengaluru (d) Chennai earth has smallest height (km.) ?
165. The acid stored in batteries is (a) Stratosphere (b) Mesosphere
(a) Sulphuric acid (c) Thermosphere (d) Troposphere
(b) Nitric acid 174. Which state of India shows the lowest
(c) Hydrochloric acid (d) Acetic acid population as per Census 2011 ?
166. Heavy metal pollution of water is caused (a) Manipur (b) Tripura
by (c) Puducherry (d) Sikkim
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175. Rail Bandhu is 183. A black body can absorb radiations of :

(a) Website of each railway division (a) lower wavelengths only
(b) the onboard medical officer in every (b) intermediate wavelengths only
train to attend to medical emergencies (c) higher wavelengths only
(c) security guard in every A. C. coach of (d) all wavelengths
Rajdhani/Shatabdi and A.C, Duronto 184. Which one of the following is having elastic
Express demand ?
(d) an onboard magazine of Indian (a) Electricity (b) Medicines
Railways to be available in Rajdhani/ (c) Rice (d) Match boxes
Shatabdi/A.C. Duronto Express 185. What growth rate of Indian economy has
176. Which one of the following ceased to be a been projected by IMF for 2011-12?
fundamental right under the Constitution? (a) 9.5% (b) 9%
(a) Right to Education (c) 8.2% (d) 8.6%
(b) Right to work (c) Right to property 186. Stone Cancer occurs due to :
(d) Right to Equality before Law (a) Acid rain (b) Global warming
177. The inert gas which is substituted for nitrogen (c) Radioactivity (d) Bacterial action
in the air used by deep sea divers for 187. The only Hindu Courtier of Akbar who
Breathing is: accepted Din-i-Ilahi was
(a) Neon (b) Argon (a) Todermal (b) Birbal
(c) Krypton (d) Helium (c) Tansen (d) Man Singh
178. Coffee Research Institute of India is located 188. The chemical which is used in art and craft
at and can cause anemia and leukemia is
(a) Yercaud (b) Wayanad (a) Benzene (b) Dioxine
(c) Coorg (d) Coimbatore (c) Phthalate (d) Aldrin
179. How many major sea ports are there in 189. Who of the following was the winner of
India? Wimbledon 2011 mens singles title ?
(a) 6 (b) 9 (a) Rafael Nadal (b) Novak Djokovic
(c) 10 (d) 12 (c) Robert Lindstedt (d) Roger Federer
180. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected 190. Asbestos is formed of
for a term of (a) Calcium and Magnesium
(a) Two years (b) Four years (b) Copper, Zinc and Manganese
(c) Five Years (d) Six Years (c) Lead and iron
181. When was National emergency imposed by (d) Calcium and Zinc
the President of India on the grounds of 191. Which Party was established by Subhash
internal disorder ? Chandra Bose after he came out of Indian
(a) 1962 (b) 1965 National Congress ?
(c) 1971 (d) 1975 (a) Indian National Army
182. Which one of the following is an example (b) Republican Party
for Monopoly ? (c) Forward Block
(a) SPIC (b) Indian Railways (d) Socialist Party
(c) HMT 192. The Rama Krishna Mission was established
(d) Hindustan Unilever Limited by:
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(a) Vivekananda (b) Rama Krishna is most likely to occur

(c) M.G. Ranade (d) period of completion of one schizogony
(d) Keshab Chandra Sen cycle of malarial parasite inside a red
193. The year of accession of Kanishka to throne blood cell
was 197. Which of the following Mughal emperors is
(a) 108 AD (b) 78 AD credited with composition of Hindi songs ?
(c) 58 AD (d) 128 AD (a) Babar (b) Akbar
194. Total number of muscles present in our body (c) Jahangir (d) Shahjehan
is 198. WTO came into existence in the year
(a) 565 (b) 656 (c) 665 (d) 556 (a) 1977 (b) 1985
195. Which of the plant products is used in (c) 1995 (d) 1950
leather industry ? 199. Hydraulic machines work under the
(a) Resin (b) Mucilage Principle of
(c) Latex (d) Tannin (a) Newtons Law (b) Joules Law
196. The duration 19-21 days refers to : (c) Pascals Law (d) Floatation Law
(a) incubation period of hens egg 200. Who invented aeroplane ?
(b) average life-span of a red blood cell in (a) Orville Wright and Wilbur Wright
humans (b) Sir Frank Whittle
(c) the period of menstrual cycle soon after (c) Michael Faraday
menstruation, during which fertilisation (d) Christian Huygens
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13.(c) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (d) 49. (d) 50. (b)
51. (b) 52. (a) 53. (c) 54. (b) 55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (b)
61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (b) 65. (b) 66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (c) 70. (c)
71. (b) 72. (d) 73. (b) 74. (c) 75. (a) 76. (b) 77. (a) 78. (b) 79. (a) 80. (d)
81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (d) 85. (a) 86. (d) 87. (c) 88. (c) 89. (b) 90. (a)
91. (d) 92. (a) 93. (a) 94. (a) 95. (b) 96. (a) 97. (b) 98. (a) 99. (b) 100. (c)
101. (d) 102. (b) 103. (c) 104. (c) 105. (c) 106. (b) 107. (a) 108. (c) 109. (d) 110. (d)
111. (c) 112. (b) 113. (c) 114. (a) 115. (c) 116. (b) 117. (b) 118. (b) 119. (a) 120. (c)
121. (b) 122. (b) 123. (c) 124. (b) 125. (a) 126. (b) 127. (b) 128. (c) 129. (b) 130. (d)
131. (c) 132. (c) 133. (b) 134. (b) 135. (d) 136. (b) 137. (c) 138. (c) 139. (c) 140. (c)
141. (a) 142. (b) 143. (c) 144. (c) 145. (a) 146. (c) 147. (c) 148. (c) 149. (d) 150. (d)
151. (b) 152. (a) 153. (b) 154. (c) 155. (b) 156. (c) 157. (c) 158. (a) 159. (a) 160. (a)
161. (a) 162. (d) 163. (a) 164. (b) 165. (a) 166. (a) 167. (c) 168. (b) 169. (a) 170. (b)
171. (b) 172. (a) 173. (d) 174. (d) 175. (d) 176.(c) 177. (d) 178.(-) 179. (d) 180. (d)
181. (d) 182. (b) 183. (d) 184. (a) 185. (*) 186. (a) 187. (b) 188. (d) 189. (b) 190. (a)
191. (c) 192. (a) 193. (b) 194. (b) 195. (d) 196. (c) 197. (d) 198. (c) 199. (c) 200. (a)
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