Sie sind auf Seite 1von 7

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO

Roll No.

Total Questions: 50 Time: 1 hr.

CLASS

8 sof national science olympiad

Level-2

SET-2
Guidelines for the Candidate
1. You will get additional ten minutes to fill up information about your-
self on the OMR Sheet, before the start of the exam.
2. The Question Paper comprises two sections, Science (45 Questions)
and Achievers Section (5 Questions).
Each question in Achievers Section carries 3 marks, whereas all
other questions carry one mark each.
3. All questions are compulsory. There is no negative marking. Use of
calculator is not permitted.
4. Write your Name, Roll No. and Class clearly on the OMR Sheet
and do not forget to sign it.
5. There is only one correct answer. Choose only ONE option for an answer.
6. To mark your choice of answer by darkening the circles in the OMR
Sheet, use an HB Pencil or a Blue/Black ball point pen only. E.g.
Q.16 : Raj goes to school on a bicycle. Which of these safety rules he
should follow?
A. He should give signals before taking turns.
B. He should keep to the right of the road.
C. He should cross the road by using zebra crossing.
D. All of these.
As the correct answer is option A, you must 16. A B C D
darken the circle corresponding to option A
in the OMR Sheet.
7. Rough work should be done in the blank space provided in the booklet.
8. Return the Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
end of the exam.
Copyright 2015 MTG Learning Media (P) Ltd. No part of this publication may be reproduced, transmitted, in any form or by any means,
electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without the prior permission of the Publisher. Ownership of an ebook does
not give the possessor the ebook copyright. All disputes subject to Delhi jurisdiction only.
science

1. The given Figure shows a uniform beam balanced at its 6. Match column I with column II and select correct
centre point which has an object weighing 30 N placed options from the given codes.
20 cm from its midpoint on the left.
Column I Column II
(p) 1 atm (i) 760 torr
(q) 1 Pascal (ii) 1.013 bar
(r) 760 mm of Hg (iii) N m2
(s) Dyne cm2 (iv) 101Nm2
A. P(i), (ii) Q(iv) R(iii) S(ii), (iii)
The beam will be balanced by applying a force of
B. P(i), (ii) Q(ii), (iv) R(iii) S(iv)
A. 30 N downwards, 10 cm from centre on left. C. P(i), (ii) Q(iii) R(i), (ii) S(iv)
B. 30 N downwards, 30 cm from centre on left. D. P(iv) Q(i) R(ii) S(iii)
C. 20 N upwards, 20 cm from centre on right.
D. 20 N downwards, 30 cm from centre on right. 7. Which of the following is/are the application(s) of
ultrasonic waves
2. Which of the following statements is correct. A. Detect flaws in metal structures
A. Rolling friction is greater than sliding friction B. Detect kidney stone.
B. Kinetic friction is less than static friction C. Detection of air craft, submarines etc.
C. To increase the friction objects are given streamlined D. All of these
shape
8. The diagram below is of a human ear. Identify the parts
D. Normal force is equal to maximum dynamic
P, Q, R and S suspectively.
friction

3. A force of 5 N acts on a area of 50 cm2 then pressure in


pascal will be
A. 1000 Pa
B. 0.1 Pa
C. 10 Pa A. Pinna, Auditory canal, Cochlea, Auditory nerve
D. 100 Pa B. Pinna , Cochlea, Auditory, Canal, Auditory nerve
C. Pinna, Auditory nerve, Cochlea, Auditory canal
4. It is difficult for a horse to pull the cart during first
D. Pinna, Eardrum, Auditory Nerve, Auditory canal
few steps because.
A. No friction acts after body comes in motion 9. Fill in the blanks by choosing correct option.
B. Limiting friction is greater than dynamic friction The (i) of a sound, depends on rapidity of its
C. Air friction is greater during first few steps of (ii) . The (iii) of vibrating body is number
motion. of vibrations per unit time. The (iv) of a sound
D. Sliding friction is greater than rolling friction dependson the amplitude of vibrations.

5. Read the given statements and mark correct option. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A. Pitch Frequency Loudness Vibrations
Statement 1 : An object appears to be heavier at
B. Pitch Frequency Vibrations Loudness
poles than at equator
C. Pitch Vibrations Frequency Loudness
Statements 2 : The gravitational force at the poles D. Frequency Vibrations Loudness Pitch
is less than at equator.
10. In the solution of water, when current is passed, the
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is
hydrogen and oxygen ions separates. The hydrogen
correct Explanation of statement 1
ions gets accumulated on the cathode. The reason for
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 deposit on a negative electrode is
is is not the correct Explanation of statement 1.
A. Hydrogen ion in positively charged
C. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.
B Hydrogen is negative charge
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false
C. It is characteristic of acidulated of water.
D. None of these.

2 Class-8 | Level 2
11. Which of the following statements is incorrect. 17. ________ refracts light that enters the eye and helps to
A. Electrons move from positive electrode to negative focus light into the retina.
electrode. A. Sclera B. Aqueous humour
B. A positively charged particle has higher electric C. Cornea D. Optic lens
potential than a negatively charged particle
C. Pure water can be used as an electrolyte in the 18. A lens forms a blurred image of an object on a screen.
process of electrolysis To focus image on screen,
D. The byproducts of electrolyte of impure water are
hydrogen and oxygen.

12. In the process of electrolysis. If electric current is


passed through a copper sulphate solution the copper
deposits on electrode connected to _________.
A. Positive terminal of the battery A. Use a lens of longer focal length of same
B. Negative terminal of the battery position
C. Any one terminal either positive or negative B. Move an object towards the lens and screen.
D. None of these C. Move the screen away from the lens
13. When we remove a woollen cloth in dark, we will see D. Use a smaller object at same position.
spark and hear a cracking sound these are due to
19. The axis of the earth is inclined to the orbital plane at
A. Static electricity an angle of ________.
B. Dynamic electricity
A. 66.5 B. 23.5
C. Earthing
C. 65.6 D. 22.5
D. Atmospheric electricity
20. Pickles are stored in a glass container instead of metal
14. The point from which the Earthquake waves originate
container because
is known as
A. Of acidic nature of pickles
A. Epicenter B. Stress B. Of basic nature of pickles
C. Seismic or fault zone D. None of these C. They are neutral in nature
15. The diagram shows a ray of light reflected at a plane D. Does not depend on the material of the container.
mirror. Which pair of the angle of incidence and angle 21. Inexhaustible natural resources are
of reflection is correct.
A. Unlimited in quantity in nature
B. Limited in quantity in nature
C. Not exhausted by human activities
D. Both A and C.

22. Read the given statements and mark the correct


Angle of Incidence Angle of Reflection option.
A. 75 75
Statement 1 : Cooking oil and wood do not catch
B. 15 15
fire on their own at room temperature.
C. 30 30 Statement 2 : Combustible substance cannot catch
D. 15 30 fire or burn as long as its temperature is higher than
its ignition temperature.
16. A ray of light is incident on a horizontal plane mirror A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2
at an angle of incidence 60. At what angle should a is the correct explanation of statement 1.
second plane mirror be inclined to horizontal mirror B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2
so that reflected ray from the horizontal mirror is is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
reflected by second mirror horizontally? C. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.
A. 60 B. 30 D. Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
C. 75 D. 90

Class-8 | Level 2 3
23. Match the items given in column I with the items A. 100 g weight tied with cotton thread will break
given in column II. readily while 50 g weight tied with nylon thread
Column I Column II will not break.
(a) Nylon (i) Carpets B. 50 g weight tied with cotton thread will break
(b) Rayon (ii) Blankets readily while 50 g weight tied with nylon thread
(c) Polyester (iii) Ropes will not break.
(d) Acrylic (iv) Film C. 100 g weight tied with cotton thread will break
A. (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i) readily while 100 g weight tied with nylon thread
B. (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii) will not break.
C. (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv) D. 50 g weight tied with cotton thread will break
D. (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii) readily while 100 g weight tied with nylon thread
will not break.
24. The only metal which exists in liquid state at room
temperature is 31. Cultivation of crops involves several activities
A. Oxygen B. Mercury undertaken by farmers over a period of time. These
activities called agricultural practices require different
C. Sulphur D. Sodium
agricultural implements. Select the correct sequence
25. Nowadays, which of the following petroleum products of using different implements for various agricultural
is used in metalling of the roads? practices.
A. Bitumen B. Coal tar A. Seed drill, Compost, Trowel, Plough, Sickle, Jute
C. Coke D. Coal bags
26. The rubbing surface of safety match contains B. Cultivator, Seed drill, Biofertilisers, Drip irrigation,
Trowel, Harvester, Silos.
A. White phosphorus
C. Hoe, Rahat system, NPK-fertilisers, Seed drill,
B. Powdered glass and little red phosphorus Graneries, Combine
C. Antimony trisulphide and potassium chlorate D. Moat, Seed drill, Compost, Combine 2, 4-D, Sickle,
D. White phosphorus and little red phophorus. Jute bags.
27. Which of the following is used for non-stick coating on 32. Use the given dichotomous key and select the correct
cookwares?
option.
A. Teflon B. Polyester
I. (a) They are simple plant-like organisms, that
C. Aluminium D. PVC have cell wall and chlorophyll Go to II (a)
28. Vineet kept a copper vessel in the humid air for long. (b) They are link between living and non-living
He observed Go to II (b) and III (b)
A. Green coating due to the formation of Cu(OH)2 II. (a) They make their own food by photosynthesis
and CuCO3 Go to III (a)
B. Black coating due to the formation of CuO (b) They use energy of host cell for reproduction P
C. No change in the copper vessel III. (a) They can be unicellular or multicellular Q
D. Green coating due to the formation of CuS. (b) R infect bacteria and S affects
vegetables.
29. Select the incorrect statement. P Q R S
A. CNG is less polluting, thus it is used as a fuel for A. Rhizopus Fucus Adeno Tobacco
transport vehicles. virus mosaic
B. Petroleum is also called as 'black gold'. virus
C. Coal when burnt in air produces mainly carbon B. Giardia Agaricus Penicillium Vibrio
dioxide gas. Cholerae
C. Trypanosoma Laminaria Influenza Lacto-
D. Naphthalene balls are obtained from coal tar.
virus bacillus
30. To compare tensile strength of fibre cotton and nylon, D. Virus Spirogyra Bacterio- Tobacco
Kritika took 50 cm of each fibre and tied one end of it phage mosaic
with the hook of an iron stand one by one. Weights of virus
50 g and 100 g were tied on the other end of the thread
. What did she observed?

4 Class-8 | Level 2
33. Read the given statements each with one or two blanks (ii) Used for producing biogas by decomposing animal
in it. waste.
P. (i) provides support and strength to plant (iii) Causes anthrax disease in humans and cattle.
cell. A. Protozoa B. Bacteria
Q. In plants, (ii) are called dictyosomes. C. Virus D. Fungi
R. (iii) are non-membranous cell organelle and
contains (iv) as main constituent. 38. Sakshi wants to see microscopic view of the organelle
S. (v) are absent in animal cell and (vi) help which serves as transport channels for materials to
in osmoregulation. pass through and is involved in protein synthesis.
Select the option which correctly fills some of the Which labelled part will her teacher focus to make
blanks in these statements. a microscopic view of the organelle ?

A. (i)-Cell membrane, (iii)-Ribosomes, (iv)-RNA


B. (ii)-Golgi complex, (iv)-RNA, (vi)-Vacuoles
C. (iii)-Ribosome, (iv)-DNA, (v)-Plastids
D. (i)-Cell wall, (iv)-Protein, (vi)-Mitochondria

34. Match column I (agricultural practices) with column


II (words to unscramble) and select the correct option
from the given codes.
Column I Column II
(i) The process of loosening (a) HSERTNGIH
and turning of soil A. P B. Q
(ii) Separation of grain from (b) EDINWEG C. R D. S
harvested crop
(iii) Process of removing (c) ILITNGL 39. Read the given statements and select the correct
unwanted plants from option.
the field Statement 1 : Nucleus of the cell can be compared
(iv) Separation of grain from (d) WNNOGNIW to brain in animals.
chaff Statement 2 : Nucleus contains genes responsible
A. (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d) for transmission of characters from parents to
B. (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c) offspring.
C. (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2
D. (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
is the correct explanation of statement 1.
35. Atlas 66, a wheat variety having high protein content B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2
has been developed by _______. is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
A. Genetic modification C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
B. Hydridisation D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
C. Green revolution 40. Study the given classification chart carefully and
D. Biofortification identify the categories of threatened species.
36. What are the consequences of indiscriminate cutting Threatened species
down of trees?
A. It results in lowering rainfall
B. It exposes less fertile layer of soil by eroding humus Species not Species likely Species exist in
rich top soil. likely to to move to small number
C. It reduces water absorption capacity of soil. survive and endangered and is localised
will soon category in to certain
D. All of these. become near future. geographical
extinct. area.
37. Microorganisms are both useful and harmful to the
mankind. Read the given statements and identify the K
associated microbe. J L
J K L
(i) Used for curdling of milk to make cheese. A. Extinct in wild Vulnerable Rare

Class-8 | Level 2 5
B. Critically Endangered Vulnerable 43. Which among the following statements is incorrect?
endangered A. In earthworms, each organism carries both male and
C. Endangered Vulnerable Rare female gonads.
D. Endangered Rare Critically
B. The penis of male transfers the sperm into the
endangered vagina of female.
41. Some species are found exclusively in a particular area C. Hormone of adrenal gland controls the
and do not occur naturally anywhere else. Asiatic lion metamorphosis in frogs.
is one such example and is found in ________. D. In Amoeba, only one parent produces new cells.
A. Gir forest 44. Which among the following graph shows level of
B. Jim Corbett National Park dissolved oxygen (X ) and bacterial population (Y )
C. Pachmarhi Wildlife Sanctuary in river, polluted by run off from industries and crop
D. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve fields.

42. Observe the given flowchart carefully regarding the


formation of offspring.

A. B.

C. D.


Select the option which correctly identifies the 45. Which of the following causes marble cancer?
chromosomal composition of (i), (ii), (iii) or (iv)
A. Depletion of ozone layer by chlorofluorocarbons
A. (i) - 44 + XX (iii) - 44 + XY, (iv) - 46 + XX resulting in increasing amount of UV rays reaching
B. (ii) - 44 + XY, (iii) - 44 + XY, (iv) - 44 + XX the earth.
C. (i) - 46 + XX, (ii) - 46 + XY, (iv) - 44 + XX B. Increased concentration of CO 2 in atmosphere
D. (i) - 23 + XX, (ii) - 23 + XY, (iii) - 23 + XY resulting in global warming.
C. Acid rain containing nitric acid formed by reaction
of nitrogen dioxide with water vapour.
D. All of these.

Achievers section

Direction (46 to 47) : Read the following passage and answer 46. What should be the minimum distance between the
the questions. source of sound and reflecting body for formation of
Echo.
Sound can be reflected or absorbed. Surface reflect sound,
A. 9 m B. 17 m
whether they are far or near. Sometimes sound are absorbed.
C. 25 m D. 31 m
Soft surface are better absorbers of sound whereas hard
surface are better reflectors of sound. The sound heard after 47. An Echo is heard after 0.4s, when a person fires a cracker
reflection from a rigid obstacle i.e., cliff, hillside, wall of 192.8 m away from a high building. What is speed of
a building etc. is called Echo. sound

6 Class-8 | Level 2
A. 96.4 m s1 B. 48.2 m s1 B. Autotrophic should be replaced by mixotrophic.
C. 964 m s1 D. 482 m s1 C. Cilia should not be replaced as it is correctly
mentioned.
48. Reema observed that reactions take place in all the
D. Contractile vacuole should be replaced by an oral
given beakers.
groove.

50. Refer to the given figure showing human endocrine


system and select an incorrect statement regarding it.

What could we conclude?


f
A. Q is more reactive than R but less reactive than
P.
g
B. R is less reactive than Q but more reactive than P.
C. R and Q both are more reactive than P but Q is
less reactive than R. h
D. P is more reactive than Q but less reaction than R.
i
49. Read the given paragraph in which few wors have
been italicised. Select the incorrect option regarding
A. Endocrine gland 'd ' controls secretion of gland 'i'.
them.
B. Hormone secreted by 'h' controls sexual characters
Euglena is a slipper-shaped, unicellular protozoan
in females.
commonly found in water. It is a autotrophic animal.
C. Glands 'f ' and 'g' together comprise master
Its cell membrane is covered all over by hair like cilia,
endocrine gland and their hormones control growth
which help animal to swim. There is a contractile
and behaviour.
vacuole into which food and water are directed by
cilia. D. Hormone secreted by 'e' controls body
metabolism.
A. Euglena should be replaced by Paramecium.

Class-8 | Level 2 7

Verwandte Interessen