Form Number : Paper Code : 1001CM370715006

Hindi

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

(Academic Session : 2015 - 2016)

NEET-II BOOSTER COURSE

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL - 2016
Test Type : PART TEST # 06 Test Pattern : NEET
TEST DATE : 02 - 07 - 2016
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1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat
only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination
and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.


2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.

3
180
720
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5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.


1

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 Pre-Medical : NEET-II B0OSTER COURSE/02-07-2016
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1. The electric field strength in EM wave is 1.

4
10 V/m. The magnitude of magnetic field strength 104V/m
(in tesla) will be :-
(1) 104 (2) 3 1012 (1) 104 (2) 3 1012
(3) 3.3 104 (4) 3.3 105 (3) 3.3 104 (4) 3.3 105
2. A very small groove is made in the earth, and a particle 2.
m0
R R
of mass m0 is placed at distance from the centre.
2 2
Find the escape speed of the particle from that place.

4GM 2GM 4GM 2GM

(1) (2) (1) (2)
R R R R

GM 11GM GM 11GM
(3) (4) (3) (4)
4R 4R 4R 4R
3. Water is flowing through two horizontal pipes of 3.
different diameters which are connected together.
The diameters of the two pipes are 3 cm and 6 cm 3
6
respectively. If the speed of water in narrower 4
2.0 104
pipe is 4 m/sec and the pressure is 2.0 104 pascal,

:-
then the speed of water in the wider pipe is :-
(1) 4
(1) 4 m/sec
(2) 2 m/sec (2) 2
(3) 1 m/sec (3) 1
(4) 16 m/sec (4) 16
4. Two wires made up of the same material are of 4.
equal lengths but their radii are in the ratio 1 : 2.
1 : 2
On stretching each of these two strings by the

same tension, the ratio between the fundamental
frequencies is :- :
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 4 : 1 (1) 1 : 4 (2) 4 : 1
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2

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5. Two thin discs each of mass M and radius r are 5.
M
r
attached as shown in figure, to form a rigid body.
The rotational inertia of this body about an axis
perpendicular to the plane of disc B and passing

B
through its centre is :-
:-

B A B A

(1) 2Mr2 (2) 3Mr2 (1) 2Mr2 (2) 3Mr2

(3) 4Mr2 (4) 5Mr2 (3) 4Mr2 (4) 5Mr2

6. An air bubble of 1 cm radius is rising at a steady rate 6. 1.5

1
of 2.00 mm/sec through a liquid of density 2 /
1.5 gm per cm3. Neglect density of air. If g is
g


1000 cm/sec2, then the coefficient of viscosity of the
1000 /
2
,
:-
liquid is :-
(1) 0.166 103 poise (2) 166 103 poise (1) 0.166 103 (2) 166 103
(3) 1.66 103 poise (4) 16.6 103 poise (3) 1.66 103 (4) 16.6 103
7. Two opens organ pipes of length 50 cm and 7. 50 cm 50.5 cm
50.5 cm produce three beats. Then, the velocity
:-
of sound is :-
(1) 30 m/s (2) 300 m/s (1) 30 m/s (2) 300 m/s
(3) 303 m/s (4) 606 m/s (3) 303 m/s (4) 606 m/s
8. The length of a metal wire is 1, when the tension 8.
1
T1
in it is T1 and is 2 when the tension is T2. The
2
T2
unstretched length of the wire is :-
:-
1 2 1 2
(1) 1 2 (2) (1) 1 2 (2)
2 2

1T2 2 T1 1T2 2 T1 1T2 2T1 1T2 2T1

(3) (4) (3) T2 T1 (4) T2 T1
T2 T1 T2 T1
9. A wire can be broken by applying a load of 200 N. 9. 200
The force required to break another wire of the
same length and same material, but double in
:-
diameter, is :-
(1) 200 N (2) 400 N (1) 200 N (2) 400 N
(3) 600 N (4) 800 N (3) 600 N (4) 800 N
10. A clock which keeps correct time at 20C has a 10. 20C
pendulum rod made of brass. How many seconds
0C
will it gain or lose per day when temperature falls
to 0C? ( = 18 106/C) :-
? ( = 18 106/C) :-
(1) 155.5 s (2) 15.55 s (1) 155.5 s (2) 15.55 s
(3) 25.55 s (4) 18.55 s (3) 25.55 s (4) 18.55 s

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11. A thermally insulated vessel contains an ideal gas 11.
(molecular mass) M
of molecular mass M and ratio of specific heats

. It is moving with speed v and is suddenly v
brought to rest. Assuming no heat is lost to the
surroundings, its temperature increases by :-
( 1) ( 1)
?
(1) Mv 2 (2) Mv 2
2( 1)R 2R ( 1) ( 1)
(1) Mv 2 (2) Mv 2
2( 1)R 2R
Mv 2 ( 1)
(3) (4) Mv 2 Mv 2 ( 1)
2R 2R (3) (4) Mv 2
2R 2R
12. If Cp and Cv denote the specific heat of nitrogen
12. Cp Cv,
at constant pressure and constant volume
respectiely, then :-

:-
(1) Cp Cv = 28/R (2) Cp Cv = R/28 (1) Cp Cv = 28/R (2) Cp Cv = R/28
(3) Cp Cv = R/14 (4) Cp Cv = R (3) Cp Cv = R/14 (4) Cp Cv = R
13. Given diagram shows an ideal gas taken from 13.
state 1 to 2 through optional paths, A, B, C . Let A, B, C
1
2
Q, W and U represent the heat supplied to the gas,

Q, W U
work done by the gas, and the internal energy of
the gas, respectiely, then which of the following

conditions is true?
?

A A
2 2
B B
1 P 1
P
C C

O V O V

(1) QA < QB < QC (1) QA < QB < QC

(2) WA > WB > WC (2) WA > WB > WC
(3) U1 U2 = QA WA (3) U1 U2 = QA WA
(4) QA WA < QB WB < QC WC (4) QA WA < QB WB < QC WC
14. Two wires are made of the same material and have 14.
the same volume. However wire 1 has cross- 1
A
2
sectional area A and wire 2 has cross-section area

3A F
1
3A. If the length of wire 1 increases by x on
applying force F, how much force is needed to x
2
stretch wire 2 by the same amount?
(1) F (2) 4 F (3) 6 F (4) 9 F (1) F (2) 4 F
(3) 6 F (4) 9 F
15. If T is the surface tension of soap solution, then 15.
T
the amount work done in increasing diameter of
D 2D
a soap bubble from D to 2D is :-

:-
(1) 2 D2T (2) 4 D2T
2
(1) 2 D2T (2) 4 D2T
(3) 6 D T (4) 8 D2T
(3) 6 D2T (4) 8 D2T
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 Pre-Medical : NEET-II B0OSTER COURSE/02-07-2016
16. Water rises to a height h in a capillary at the 16.
h
surface of earth. On the surface of the moon the
height of water column in the same capillary will

:-
be:-
1 1
(1) 6h (2) h (3) h (4) Zero (1) 6h (2) h (3) h (4)
6 6
17. If the maximum velocity and maximum 17.
acceleration of a particle executing SHM are
equal in magnitude, the time period will be :-
:-
(1) 1.57 sec (1) 1.57
(2) 3.14 sec (2) 3.14
(3) 6.28 sec (3) 6.28
(4) 12.56 sec (4) 12.56
18. In a step-up transformer, turn ratio is 8 : 1. 18.
8 : 1
A 60Hz, 120 volt input is connected with its
60
120
primary coil. Load resistance in secondary coil
104
is 104Find current in secondry coil.
(1) 96 A (2) 0.96 A
(1) 96 A (2) 0.96 A
(3) 9.6 A (4) 96 mA (3) 9.6 A (4) 96 mA
19. If a dielectric slab is inserted in capacitor then 19.
brightness of bulb will :-

R C R C

Bulb Bulb

E=E0sint E=E0sint

(1) Will increase (1)

(2) will decrease (2)
(3) will remain the same (3)
(4) first increases then decreases (4)
20. Two thermometers X and Y have ice points 20.
X
Y
15
marked at 15 and 25 and steam points marked 25
75 125
as 75 and 125 respectively. When thermometer

X 60
X measures the temperature of a bath as 60 on it,
what would thermometer Y read when it is used Y
?
to measure the temperature of the same bath ?
(1) 60 (2) 75
(1) 60 (2) 75
(3) 100 (4) 90
(3) 100 (4) 90
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21. In the cyclic process shown on the P V diagram, 21. P V
the magnitude of the work done is :
:

P P

P2 P2

P1 P1

V V
O V1 V2 O V1 V2

2 2
P2 P1 P2 P1
(1) (1)
2 2

2 2
V2 V1 V2 V1
(2) (2)
2 2

(3) (P P1) (V2 V1) (3) (P P1) (V2 V1)
4 2 4 2
(4) (P2V2 P1V1) (4) (P2V2 P1V1)
22. An ideal gas expands isothermally from a volume 22.
V1 V2
V1 to V2 and then compressed to original volume V1

V1 adiabatically. Initial pressure is P1 and final
pressure is P3. The total work done is W. Then P1 P3
W
(1) P3 > P1, W > 0 (1) P3 > P 1,
0 W >
(2) P3 < P1, W < 0 (2) P3 < P 1,
0 W <
(3) P3 > P1, W < 0 (3) P3 > P 1,
0 W <
(4) P3 = P1, W = 0 (4) P3 = P 1,
0 W =
23. Three processes form a thermodynamic cycle as 23.
P-V
shown on P-V diagram for an ideal gas. Process 1 2
(300K)
1 2 takes place at constant temperature (300K).
Process 2 3 takes place at constant volume.
2 3
During this process 40J of heat leaves the system. 40
3 1
Process 3 1 is adiabatic and temperature T3 is

T3 275 K
3 1
275K. Work done by the gas during the process
3 1 is

(1) -40J (2) -20J (3) +40J (4) +20J (1) -40J (2) -20J
(3) +40J (4) +20J
24. The volume of a metal sphere increases by 0.15 % 24.
24C
when its temperature is raised by 24C.The 0.15%
coefficient of linear expansion of metal is :
:
(1) 2.5 105 /C (2) 2.0 105 /C (1) 2.5 105 /C (2) 2.0 105 /C
(3) 1.5 105 /C (4) 1.2 105 /C 5
(3) 1.5 10 /C (4) 1.2 105 /C

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25. A cyclic process ABCA is shown in PT diagram. 25. ABCA, PT
When presented on PV, it would be PV

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

26. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygen and 26. T

2
4
4 moles of argon at temperature T. Neglecting all
vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the
system is
(1) 4 RT (2) 15 RT
(1) 4 RT (2) 15 RT
(3) 9 RT (4) 11 RT (3) 9 RT (4) 11 RT
27. The ratio of specific heats () of a ideal gas is 27.
()
given by :-
1 R
1 R (1) (2) 1
(1) (2) 1 R CV
R CV 1
1 CP
CP
CP CP
(3)
CP R
(4) All of these (3) (4)
CP R
28. Four molecules of a gas have speeds 1, 2, 3 and 28.
1, 2, 3 4 km/sec
4 km/sec. The value of root mean square speed
of the gas molecules is :-

15 15 30 15 15 30
(1) (2) 15 (3) (4) (1) (2) 15 (3) (4)
2 2 2 2 2 2
29. A carnot engine with its cold body at 17C has 29.
17C
50% effficiency. If the temperature of its hot body 50%
145C
is now increased by 145C, the efficiency
becomes:-
(1) 55 % (2) 60 % (3) 40 % (4) 45 % (1) 55 % (2) 60 % (3) 40 % (4) 45 %
30. A monoatomic gas is supplied heat Q very slowly 30.
keeping the pressure constant. The work done by Q
the gas will be :-
2 3 2 3
(1) Q (2) Q (1) Q (2) Q
3 4 3 4
2 3 2 3
(3) Q (4) Q (3) Q (4) Q
5 5 5 5
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 Pre-Medical : NEET-II B0OSTER COURSE/02-07-2016

31. In a bicycle the radius of rear wheel is twice the 31.

radius of front wheel. If rF and rr are the radius,
rF
rr
F
F and r are the speeds of top most points of r
wheel, then :
(1) r = 2F (2) F = 2r
(1) r = 2F (2) F = 2r
(3) F = r (4) F > r (3) F = r (4) F > r
32. Two rings of radius R and nR having different 32.
R nR
masses and made up of same wire have the ratio
of moment of inertia about an axis passing

1:8
n
through centre as 1 : 8. The value of n is :
(1) 2 (2) 2 2 (3) 4 (4) 1/2 (1) 2 (2) 2 2 (3) 4 (4) 1/2
33. Dependence of disturbances due to two waves on 33.
time is shown in the figure. The ratio of their

I1/I2
intensities I1 / I2 will be:
2
2

1
1 y
y
t
t

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2

(3) 4 : 1 (4) 16 : 1 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 16 : 1
34. The extension in a string, obeying Hooke's law, is 34.
x
x. The speed of sound in the stretched string is v.
v
If the extension in the string is increased to 1.5x, 1.5 x
:
the speed of sound will be:
(1) 1.22 v (2) 0.61 v
(1) 1.22 v (2) 0.61 v
(3) 1.50 v (4) 0.75 v
(3) 1.50 v (4) 0.75 v
35. A car P approaching a crossing at a speed of 35. P
10 /
10 m/s sounds a horn of frequency 700 Hz when
40
40 m in front of the crossing. Speed of sound in 700
air is 340 m/s. Another car Q is at rest on a road 340 /
Q
which is perpendicular to the road on which car

P is reaching the crossing (see figure). The driver
(
)
Q P
of car Q hears the sound of the horn of car P when
he is 30 m in front of the crossing. The apparent
30
frequency heard by the driver of car Q is
Q

40m Crossing 40m Crossing

P P
30 m 30 m

Q Q

(1) 700 Hz (2) 717 Hz (1) 700 (2) 717

(3) 1000 Hz (4) 679 Hz (3) 1000 (4) 679
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 Pre-Medical : NEET-II B0OSTER COURSE/02-07-2016
36. The load versus elongation graph for four wires 36.
of the same material and same length is shown
in the figure. The thinnest wire is represented by
:-
the line
D
C
D

load
C B
load

B A

A
O elongation
O elongation
(1) OA (2) OB
(1) OA (2) OB (3) OC (4) OD (3) OC (4) OD
37. In a U-tube experiment, a column AB of water 37. U-
AB
CD
is balanced by a column CD of oil, as shown
in the figure. Then the relative density of oil is:-
:-

C C
oil A oil A
h1 h2 h1 h2
B B
D D
water water

h2 h1 h2 h1
(1) h (2) h (1) h (2) h
1 2 1 2

(h1 h 2 ) h2 (h1 h 2 ) h2
(3) (4) (h h ) (3) h1 (4) (h h )
h1 1 2 1 2

38. A wooden block with a coin placed on its top floats 38.
in water as shown in figure. and h are as shown.
h
After some time the coin falls into the water
then :- :-

Coin Coin

h h

(1) decrease and h increase (1)

h

(2) increase and h decrease (2)

h

(3) Both & h increase (3) h

(4) Both & h decrease (4) h

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 Pre-Medical : NEET-II B0OSTER COURSE/02-07-2016
39. Pressure at the bottom of a tank of water is 3P, 39.
3P
P
where P is atmospheric pressure. If water is drawn
out till the level of water is lowered by one fifth, 1/5

then the pressure at the bottom of the tank is :-
:-
(1) 2P (2) 13P/5 (3) 8P/5 (4) 4P/5 (1) 2P (2) 13P/5 (3) 8P/5 (4) 4P/5
40. An incompressible liquid flows through a 40. (incompressible)
horizontal tube as shown in the figure. Then, the
v
velocity v of the fluid is :-
:-

m/s m/s
1.5 1.5
v2 = v2 =
2 2
etre etre
A metre2 v1 = 3.0 m/s Am A metre2 v1 = 3.0 m/s Am
1.5A 1.5A
met 2 met 2
re re
v v

(1) 3.0 m/s (2) 1.5 m/s (1) 3.0 (2) 1.5
(3) 1.0 m/s (4) 2.25 m/s (3) 1.0 (4) 2.25
41. A tank of height 5 m is full of water. There is a 41.
hole of cross sectional area 1 cm2 in its bottom. 1 2

The initial volume of water that will come out
from this hole per second is
(1) 103 m3/s (2) 104 m3/s (1) 103 m3/s (2) 104 m3/s
(3) 10 m3/s (4) 102 m3/s (3) 10 m3/s (4) 102 m3/s
42. A ball rises to surface at a constant velocity in a 42.
liquid whose density is 4 times greater than that
4
of the material of the ball. The ratio of the force

of friction acting on the rising ball and its weight
is :
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 4 (1) 3 : 1 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 4
43. Two drops of equal radius are falling through air 43.
5
with a steady velocity of 5cm/s. If the two drops
coalesce, then its terminal velocity will be
1 1 1
1
(1) 4 5 cm/s
3
(2) 4 cm/s 3 (1) 4 5 cm/s
3
(2) 4 cm/s 3

1 2 1 2
(3) 5 3 4 cm/s (4) 4 3 5 cm/s (3) 5 3 4 cm/s (4) 4 3 5 cm/s
44. Two capillaries of same material but of different 44.
radii are dipped in a liquid. In one of the capillary
the liquid rises to a height of 22 cm and in other 22
66
to 66 cm. The ratio of their radii is :- :-
(1) 9 : 1 (2) 1 : 9 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 3 (1) 9 : 1 (2) 1 : 9 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 3
45. The excess pressure inside an air bubble of radius 45.
r
r just below the surface of water is p1. The excess
p1
pressure inside a drop of the same radius just
p2

outside the surface is p2. If T is surface tension,
then T
(1) p1 = 2p2 (2) p1 = p2 (1) p1 = 2p2 (2) p1 = p2
(3) p2 = 2p1 (4) p2 = 0, p1 0 (3) p2 = 2p1 (4) p2 = 0, p1 0

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46. In which of the following arrangement the order is 46.
not according to the property indicated in bracket:-
:-
(1) Al+3 < Mg+2 < Na+ < F (Ionic size) (1) Al < Mg < Na+ < F (
+3 +2
)
(2) B < C < N < O (1st IP) (2) B < C < N < O (1st IP)
(3) I < Br < F < Cl (EA) (3) I < Br < F < Cl (EA)
(4) Li < Na < K < Rb (Metallic character) (4) Li < Na < K < Rb (
)

47. Which of the following statement is not correct :- 47.

:-
(1) Ionic mobality of Na+(aq) is greater than (1) Na+(aq) Mg2+ (aq)
Mg2+(aq)
(2) The EA of 'F' atom is more than 'Cl' atom
(2) 'F'
EA, 'Cl'
(3) Second IP of 'B' atom is greater than that of
'C' atom (3) B IP, 'C' IP
(4) IE of O is less than that of 'O' atom (4) 'O'
O
48. Which of the set of species have same hybridisation 48.
state but different shapes :-
:-
(1) NO2+, NO2, NO2 (2) ClO4, SF4, XeF4 (1) NO2+, NO2, NO2(2) ClO4, SF4, XeF4
+ +
(3) NH4 , H3O , OF2 (4) SO42,PO43, ClO4 (3) NH4+, H3O+, OF2(4) SO42,PO43, ClO4
49. Which of the following statement is wrong :- 49.
:-
(1) No inert gas is present in 7th period
(1) 7th
(2) 3rd period contains 18 elements
(2) 3rd
18
(3) 1st period contains two non metals
(4) In pblock, metal, nonmetal and metalloids (3)
are present (4) p
50. Which of the following is non-polar bond :- 50.
:-
(1) CH (2) NH (3) FF (4) OH (1) CH (2) NH (3) FF (4) OH
51. Number of and bonds present in 51. CH3 CH CH C CH
CH3 CH CH C CH are -

:-
(1) 10, 3 (2) 10, 2 (3) 9, 2 (4) 8, 3 (1) 10, 3 (2) 10, 2 (3) 9, 2 (4) 8, 3
52. Correct order of extent of overlapping is :- 52. :-
(1) 1s1s < 2s2s < 2s2p (1) 1s1s < 2s2s < 2s2p
(2) 2p2p (axial) < 2p2p (colateral) (2) 2p2p () < 2p2p ( )
(3) 1s1s > 2p2p (axial) > 2s2p > 2s2s (3) 1s1s > 2p2p () > 2s2p > 2s2s
(4) 1s1s > 2s2p > 2s2s > 2p2p (axial) (4) 1s1s > 2s2p > 2s2s > 2p2p ()
53. Which of the following molecular geometry is not 53.
sp3
produced by sp3 hybridisation :-
:-
(1) Triangular planar (2) See-Saw (1) (2)
(3) T-shape (4) Linear (3) T- (4)
54. Which atom has pseudo inert gas configuration:- 54.
:-
(1) Zn+2 (2) Cu+ (1) Zn +2
(2) Cu +

(3) Pd (4) All (3) Pd (4)

55. Which pair has same bond angles : 55.
:
(a) BF3, BCl3 (b) PO43, SO42 (c) BF3, PF3 3 2
(a) BF3, BCl3 (b) PO4 , SO4 (c) BF3, PF3
+ +
(d) NO2, N2O (e) N3, NO2 (d) NO2, N2O (e) N3, NO2
Correct option are :- :-
(1) a, b, d (2) b, d (1) a, b, d (2) b, d
(3) b, c, d (4) a, d, e (3) b, c, d (4) a, d, e
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 Pre-Medical : NEET-II B0OSTER COURSE/02-07-2016
56. Which of the following molecule has highest 56.
dipole moment :- :-
(1) BCl3 (2) NH3 (1) BCl3 (2) NH3
(3) PCl5 (4) H2O (3) PCl5 (4) H2O
57. Which one of the following solution has 57. 27C
maximum vapour pressure at 27C temperature:-
(1) 1 M Na2SO4 (2) 1 M AlCl3 (1) 1 M Na2SO4 (2) 1 M AlCl3
(3) 1 M KBr (4) 1 M MgCl2 (3) 1 M KBr (4) 1 M MgCl2
58. What will be the osmotic pressure of 0.03 N 58.
0.03 N 27C
solution of Aluminium sulphate solution at 27C?
90%
If in solution salt dissociation is 90% :-

:-
(1) 0.566 atm (2) 0.677 atm (1) 0.566 atm (2) 0.677 atm
(3) 3.399 atm (4) 4.064 atm (3) 3.399 atm (4) 4.064 atm
59. The density of 2 M MgBr 2 solution is 59. MgBr2 2M
1.2
1.2 gm per ml. then molality of solution is :-
(1) 1.67 m (2) 2.4 m (1) 1.67 m (2) 2.4 m
(3) 5.43 m (4) 3.16 m (3) 5.43 m (4) 3.16 m
60. What will be the amount of ice separated on 60. 400
40
cooling solution of 40 gm ethylene glycol in 9.3C
400gm water upto 9.3C ?
( Kf = 1.86 K Kg
1
)
(Kf for water is 1.86 K Kg mol1)
(1) 177.78 gm (2) 129.03 gm
(1) 177.78 gm (2) 129.03 gm
(3) 222.22 gm (4) 270.97 gm (3) 222.22 gm (4) 270.97 gm

61. A first order reaction has the rate constant 61.

102
1

102 sec1. If the initial concentration of reactant

1M
1
is 1 M then what will be the rate of reaction after
1 minute ?
(1) 2.6 103 mol L1sec1
(1) 2.6 103 mol L1sec1
(2) 3.7 103 mol L1sec1
(2) 3.7 103 mol L1sec1
(3) 5.5 103 mol L1sec1
(3) 5.5 103 mol L1sec1
(4) 1.9 103 mol L1sec1 (4) 1.9 103 mol L1sec1

62. What is the order of reaction' for A + B C 62.

A + B C

[A] [B]
Observation [A] [B] Rate of reaction
1 0.1 0.1 2 103 mol L 1sec1 1 0.1 0.1 2 103 L1sec1

2 0.2 0.1 0.4 102 mol L1sec1 2 0.2 0.1 0.4 102 L1sec1
3 0.1 0.2 1.4 102 mol L1sec1 3 0.1 0.2 1.4 102 L1sec1

(1) 1/2 (2) 2.83 (1) 1/2 (2) 2.83

(3) 3.0 (4) 3.8 (3) 3.0 (4) 3.8

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63. Which of the following statements is incorrect :- 63.
:-
(1) For elementary reactions the order of reaction (1)
and molecularity are identical
(2) For rate determining step the order and (2)
molecularity are identical
(3) Catalyst does not affect H (Heat of reaction) (3) H
of a chemical reaction
(4) The activation energy of reaction decreases (4)
with increase in temperature
64. Which of the following statement is not correct 64.
for Lyophilic sols - -
(1) They do not require electrolytes for stability (1)
(2) They show reversibility
(3) Their viscosity is almost similar to viscosity (2)
of dispersion medium (3)
(4) Their surface tension is usually lower than
that of dispersion medium (4)
65. The newman projection formula of most stable 65. 3-
conformation of 3-Hydroxypropanal is :-
:-
(1) Gauche (2) Anti (1) (2)
(3) Fully eclipsed (4) Partially eclipsed (3) (4)
66. Which of the following compounds are optically 66.
:-
active :- CH3 Cl Cl
(I) (II)
CH3 Cl Cl CH3 H H
(I) (II)
CH3 H H
H H
H H (III) CH C=C=C
(III) CH C=C=C 3 CH3
3 CH3
(1) (I)
(III) (2) (1)
(II)
(1) (I) and (III) (2) (1) and (II)
(3) (II) and (III) (4) (I), (II) and (III) (3) (II)
(III) (4) (I), (II)
(III)
67. Which of the following pair of structure does not 67.
represent resonating structure :-
O OH O OH
(A) & (A) &

(B) & (B) &

(C) & (C) &

(1) (A) & (B) (2) (B) & (C) (1) (A)
(B) (2) (B)
(C)
(3) (A) & (C) (4) (A), (B) & (C) (3) (A)
(C) (4) (A), (B)
(C)

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68. Arrange following in their basic strength order :- 68.
:-

(I) (II) (I) (II)

(III) (IV) (III) (IV)

(1) IV > III > II > I (2) I > II > III > IV (1) IV > III > II > I (2) I > II > III > IV
(3) II > I > III > IV (4) II > I > IV > III (3) II > I > III > IV (4) II > I > IV > III
69. Which of the following is most stable carbanion:- 69.
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2

(1) (2) (1) (2)

CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3

CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2

(3) (4) (3) (4)

OCH3 OCH3
OCH3 OCH3

70. What will be major product if propane is reacted 70.

HNO2
with vapour of HNO2 at high temperature :-
:-
(1) CH3CH2CH2NO2 (2) CH3CHCH3 (1) CH3CH2CH2NO2 (2) CH3CHCH3
NO2 NO2
(3) CH3CH2NO2 (4) CH3NO2 (3) CH3CH2NO2 (4) CH3NO2
2 3 Al O
NBS Al2O3 NBS
71. n-Heptane

P
[1 mole]
Q 71. n-Heptane
P
[1 mole]
Q
Product Q will be :- Q
:-
(1) Benzyl bromide (2) O-Bromo toluene (1) (2) O-
(3) m-Bromo toluene (4) p-Bromo toluene (3) m-
(4) p-
72. DBr
CH3CHCH=CH 2 Product (Major) 72. CH3CHCH=CH 2
DBr

CH 3 CH 3
Product will be :-
:-
Br Br D Br Br D
(1) CH3CCH CH 3 (2) CH3CHCH CH 2 (1) CH3CCH CH 3 (2) CH3CHCH CH 2
CH3 D CH3 CH3 D CH3

Br Br D Br Br D
(3) CH2CCH 2CH 2D (4) CH2CCH2CH3 (3) CH2CCH 2CH 2D (4) CH2CCH2CH3
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

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H /
73. CH2=CHCH2CH3 Major product 73. CH2=CHCH2CH3 H /

Identify major product in above reaction :-
:-
(1) CH3C=CH2 (1) CH3C=CH2
CH3 CH3
(2) CH3CH=CHCH3 (2) CH3CH=CHCH3
(3) CH3CH2CH2CH3 (3) CH3CH2CH2CH3
(4) CH3CH2CH=CH2 (4) CH3CH2CH=CH2
74. Which of the following can not react with Bayer's 74.
reagent :- :-
(1) Benzene (2) Allyl chloride (1) (2)
(3) Acetylene (4) (1) & (2) Both (3) (4) (1) (2)

75. Br / CCl Br / CCl

2 4
75. 2 4

Major product will be :-

:-
Br Br

(1) (2) (1) (2)

Br Br

Br Br Br Br

Br Br Br Br
Br Br
(3) (4) (3) (4)
Br Br

Cl NaNH 2 CH 3 Cl
Cl NaNH2 CH 3 Cl
76. CH3CH2 CH
[Excess]
P Q 76. CH3CH2 CH
[
]
P Q
Cl Cl
Q will be :- Q
:-
(1) CH3CH2CCH (1) CH3CH2CCH
(2) CH3CCCH3 (2) CH3CCCH3
(3) CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl (3) CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl
(4) CH2=CHCH=CH2 (4) CH2=CHCH=CH2
NaIO 4 NaIO 4
77. CH3C=CHCH3
KMnO 4 / 77. CH3C=CHCH3
KMnO / 4
CH3 CH3
Product will be :-
:-
(1) CH3COOH + CH3CH2COOH (1) CH3COOH + CH3CH2COOH
(2) CH3CHO + CH3CH2COOH (2) CH3CHO + CH3CH2COOH
(3) CH3CHO + CH3CCH3 (3) CH3CHO + CH3CCH3
O O
(4) CH3COOH + CH3CCH3 (4) CH3COOH + CH3CCH3
O O
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78. The total number of benzene derivatives with 78. C6H3Cl3
molecular formula C6H3Cl3 is :- :-
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5 (3) 4 (4) 5
KOH NBS KCN KOH NBS KCN
79. C3H 7I (alco.)
Q R CH2=CHCH2CN 79. C3H 7I (alco.)
Q R CH2=CHCH2CN
(P) (P)

P can be :- P
:-
(1) CH3CH(I)CH3 (2) CH3CH2CH2(I) (1) CH3CH(I)CH3 (2) CH3CH2CH2(I)
(3) CH3=CHCH2I (4) (1) & (2) both (3) CH3=CHCH2I (4) (1) (2)
dil. H2SO 4 dil. H 2SO 4
80. CH3CCH Hg 2
(P) 80. CH3CCH Hg 2
(P)

(1) BH 3 ,THF (1) BH 3 ,THF

CH3CCH
(2) H2O2
(Q) CH3CCH
(2) H 2O 2
(Q)
P and Q can be differentiated by :-
P
Q
(1) 2,4-DNP (2) NaHSO3 (1) 2,4-DNP (2) NaHSO3
(3) NaOI (4) All (3) NaOI (4)
HCN HCN
81. CH3CCH2COOH X Y 81. CH3CCH2COOH X Y
OH OH
O O
Y is :- Y :-
CH 3 CH 3
CH3 OH CH3 OH
(1) CH C (2) OH (1) CH C (2) OH
3 CN 3 CN
CN CN
CH3 OH CH3 OH
(3) C H C CN (4) CH3CCH2CN (3) C H C CN (4) CH3CCH2CN
2 5 2 5
O O
H2O/H H2O/H
Y ; Y :-
C 6H5OH C 6H5OH
82. CH3CN X H
Y ; Y is :- 82. CH3CN X H
O O O O
(1) COC2H5 (2) CC2H5 (1) COC2H5 (2) CC2H5

O O O O
(3) OCC2H5 (4) OCCH3 (3) OCC2H5 (4) OCCH3

83. Which is most reactive for SN1 :- 83. SN1

:-
Cl Cl Cl Cl

(1) (2) (1) (2)

OCH3 NO2 OCH3 NO2

Cl Cl Cl Cl

(3) (4) (3) (4)

CH3 Cl CH3 Cl

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84. Acidic property of phenol can be explained when 84.
it is reacted with :-
:-
(1) NaOH (1) NaOH
(2) NaHCO3 (2) NaHCO3
(3) Na (3) Na
(4) (1) & (3) both (4) (1) (3)

Cl Cl

NaOH CH2Cl NaOH CH2Cl

85. & Pr
P Q ; Q is :- 85. & Pr
P Q ; Q :-

NO2 NO2

(1) O 2N O (1) O 2N O

(2) O2N CH2O (2) O2N CH2O

(3) O2N OCH2 (3) O2N OCH2

(4) O 2N OH (4) O 2N OH
CH2 CH2

(1) KOH(aq.) (1) Ca(OH) 2 (1) KOH(aq.) (1) Ca(OH) 2

86. CH3CCl3
(2) H
P
(2)
Q 86. CH3CCl3
(2) H
P
(2)
Q

Q is :- Q :-
(1) CH3CH=CHCH=O (1) CH3CH=CHCH=O

CH3 CH3
(2) CH3C=CHCCH3 (2) CH3C=CHCCH3
O O

(3) CH3CH=O (3) CH3CH=O

(4) CH3COCH3 (4) CH3COCH3

OH OH

87. Conc. HNO3

Product is :- 87. Conc. HNO3

:-

(1) onitrophenol (1) onitrophenol

(2) p-nitrophenol (2) p-nitrophenol
(3) m-nitrophenol (3) m-nitrophenol
(4) Picric acid (4) Picric acid
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O O
H2 N NH2 H 2 N NH2
88. X
CH3COC 2H 5 88. CH3COC2H 5 X

O O
H2 N NH2 H 2 N NH2
Y
CH 3CC 2H5 CH 3CC 2H5 Y

X & Y are :- X
Y
:-

(1) X = CH 3COC2H 5 , Y = H3CCC 2H5 (1) X = CH 3COC2H 5 , Y = H3CCC 2H5

NNH2 NNH2 NNH2 NNH2

(2) X = CH3CNH 2 , Y = H3CCC 2H5 (2) X = CH3CNH 2 , Y = H3CCC 2H5

O NNH2 O NNH2

(3) X = CH3CNHNH 2 , Y = H3CCC 2H5 (3) X = CH3CNHNH 2 , Y = H3CCC 2H5

O NNH2 O NNH2

(4) X = CH 3CC 2H5 , Y = H3CCC 2H5 (4) X = CH 3CC 2H5 , Y = H3CCC 2H5
NNH2 NNH2 NNH2 NNH2

O O
Zn Hg Zn Hg
89. HCl
89.
HCl

The above reaction is :-

(1) Finkelstein reaction (1)
(2) Williamson's synthesis (2)
(3) Clemmen's reduction (3)
(4) Schotten Bauman reaction (4)
90. Which is incorrect for given reaction sequence :- 90.
:-
(1) CH 3MgBr 2,4 DNP (1) CH 3MgBr 2,4 DNP
CH3CN
(2) H2 O
X Y CH3CN
(2) H 2 O
X Y

(1) X = CH3CCH3 ; (1) X = CH3CCH3 ;

O O

NO2 NO2
H 3C H 3C
Y= C=NNH Y= C=NNH
H3 C H3 C
NO2 NO2

(2) Y is formed as red-organge precipitate (2) Y

(3) Y is formed by nucleophilic addition (3) Y
elimination mechanism
(4) None (4)

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91. Which one of the following is a correct 91. ?
statement ? (1)
(1) Antheridiophores and archegoniophores are
(2)
present in pteridophytes
(2) Origin of seed habit can be traced in
pteridophytes (3)
(3) Pteridophyte gametophyte has a protonemal

and leafy stage
(4) In gymnosperms female gametophyte is free (4)
living
92. A nitrogen fixing microbe associated with Azolla 92.


in rice-fields is :-
(1) Frankia (2) Tolypothrix (1) (2)
(3) Spirulina (4) Anabaena (3) (4)
93. Read the following five statements (A E) and 93.
(A E)
answer as asked next to them :-
(A) In Equisetum the female gametophyte is (A)
retained on the parent sporophyte

(B) In Ginkgo male gametophyte is not
independent (B)

(C) The sporophyte in Riccia is more developed (C)


than that in Polytrichum
(D) Sexual reproduction in - Volvox is isogamous (D)

(E) The spores of slime molds lack cell walls
(E)
Which of the above statements is/are
correct ?

?
(1) A, B, C (2) Only B (1) A, B, C (2) B
(3) D, E (4) A, B, D (3) D, E (4) A, B, D
94. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly 94.
matched? (1)
- RNA
(1) Viroids - RNA
(2)
(2) Mustard - Synergids
(3) Ginkgo - Archegonia (3)
(4) Salvinia - Prothallus (4)

95. Why the deuteromycetes are called as fungi 95.
?
imperfecti? (1)
(1) Only asexual or vegetative phases of these
fungi are known
(2)
(2) Their mycelium is septate and branched
(3) They help in mineral cycling (3)
(4) The deuteromycetes members may be (4)
saprophytes or parasites.
96. Which of the following is responsible for peat 96.
formation ?
(1) (2)
(1) Marchantia (2) Riccia
(3) Funaria (4) Sphagnum (3) (4)

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97. Pick up the wrong statement : 97.
:
(1) Nuclear membrane is present in Monera (1)
(2) Cell wall is absent in Animalia (2)
(3) Protista have photosynthetic and heterotrophic (3)
modes of nutrition
(4) Some fungi are edible (4)
98. In which group of organisms the cells walls form 98.
two thin overlapping shells which fit together ?
(1) Slime moulds (1)
(2) Chrysophytes (2)
(3) Euglenoids (3)
(4) Dinoflagellates (4)
99. Which one of the following is not an inclusion 99.
body found in prokaryotes ?

(1) Cyanophycean granule (1)
(2) Glycogen granule (2)
(3) Polysome (3)
(4) Phosphate granule (4)
100. Which of the following is not a component of 100.
?
innate immunity ? (1) (2)
(1) Interferons (2) Phagocytes
(3) Skin (4) Lymphocytes (3) (4)
101. HIV infects :- 101. HIV
:-
(1) Macrophage and neutrophil (1)
(2) Neutrophil and T-killer cells (2)
T-
(3) Macrophage and T-helper cells (3)
T-
(4) T-helper cells and Eosinophils (4) T-

102. 102.

Which of the components of following options

correctly applies to structural formula shown in
the above diagram ?

(1)
(1) Opium plant Unripe fruit Analgesic
action
(2) CVS
(2) Hemp plant Inflorescence Effects on
CVS
CNS
(3)
(3) Coca plant Dopamine CNS
inhibition stimulation
(4)
(4) Datura plant Atropine Hallucinations

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103. Which of the following is not correct reagarding 103.

benign and malignant tumor ?

Benign Malignant
tumor tumor
(1)
(1) Slow growth Rapid growth
(2)

(2) Invasive Non invasive
(3) Metastasis Metastasis (3)
absent present
(4) Less damage More damage (4)
104. Mark the correct statement :- 104.
:-
(a) Yoga has been practised to achieve physical (a)
health only
(b) Infectious diseases are very common and (b)
everyone of us suffers from these at

sometime or other
(c) AIDS
(c) AIDS is an infectious disease
(d) Cancer is non-infectious disease (d) Cancer
(e) Healthy persons bring economic prosperity (e)
(1) a, b and c (2) b, c, d and e (1) a, b
c (2) b, c, d
e
(3) c and d (4) a, b, c, d and e (3) c
d (4) a, b, c, d
e
105. Guttation shows :- 105.
(1) Atmospheric pressure (1)
(2) Vapour pressure (2)
(3) Root pressure (3)
(4) Diffusion pressure deficit (4)
106. Climacteric respiration is associated with :- 106.
:-
(1) Seed germination (2) Fruit ripening (1) (2)
(3) C4plant (4) CAMplant (3) C4 (4) CAM
107. Which of the following is catalysed in the last step 107.
of Kreb's cycle ?
(1) Glucose (2) Fumerate (1) (2)
(3) Malate (4) Pyruvate (3) (4)
108. In photosynthesis, significance of photolysis of 108.
water is, in :-
(1) Reduction of NADP (1) NADP
(2) Oxidation of NADP (2) NADP
(3) Oxidation of FAD (3) FAD
(4) Reduction of NAD (4) NAD
109. Induction of cell division and delay in senescence 109.
is due to :-
?
(1) Auxin (2) Abscisic Acid (1) (2)
(3) Cytokinins (4) Gibberellins (3) (4)

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110. Which force is mainly concerned with lifting of 110.
water in plants ?
(1) Osmosis (2) Imbibition (1) (2)
(3) Cohesion (4) Capillary force (3) (4)
111. Apoenzyme is:- 111.
(1) protein (2) carbohydrate (1) (2)
(3) vitamin (4) amino acid (3) (4)
112. Light reaction in stroma lamellae of the 112.
chloroplast results in the formation of :-
(1) NADPH2 (2) ATP + NADPH2 (1) NADPH2 (2) ATP + NADPH2
(3) ATP (4) O2 (3) ATP (4) O2
113. In leaves of C4 plants, malic acid synthesis during 113. C4
CO2
CO2 fixation occurs in :-
(1) Bundle sheath (1)
(2) Mesophyll (2)
(3) Epidermis (3)
(4) Phloem cells (4)
114. Kranz anatomy can be observed in leaves of :- 114.
(1) Sorghum (2) Spinach (1) (2)
(3) Mustard (4) Tulip (3) (4)
115. Differentiation of shoot is controlled by :- 115.
(1) High auxin : cytokinin ratio (1) :
(2) High cytokinin : auxin ratio (2) :
(3) High gibberellin : auxin ratio (3) :
(4) High gibberellin : cytokinin ratio (4) :
116. Stomata of a plant open due to :- 116.
(1) Influx of potassium ions in gaurd cells (1)
(2) Efflux of potassium ions from guard cells (2)
(3) Influx of hydrogen ions in guard cells (3)
(4) Influx of calcium ions in guard cells (4)
117. One set of a plant was grown at 12 hours day and 117.
12
12
12 hours night period cycles and it flowered while
in the other set night phase was interrupted by
flash of light and it did not produce flower. Under
which one of the following categories will you place
this plant?
(1)
(1) Darkness neutral
(2)
(2) Day neutral
(3) Short day (3)
(4) Long day (4)
118. In glycolysis, during oxidation electrons are 118.
removed from :-
(1) Glyceraldehyde3phosphate (1) 3
(2) NAD+ (2) NAD+
(3) Molecular oxygen (3)
(4) ATP (4) ATP

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119. Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has 119.
A
B
A
osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3 atm and
8 atm,
3 atm
diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. Cell B has osmotic 5 atm
B
10 atm,
pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure 7 atm and diffusion 7 atm
3 atm
pressure deficit 3 atm. The result will be :-
(1) Equilibrium betwee the two (1)
(2) Movement of water from cell A to B (2)
A B
(3) Movement of water from cell B to A (3)
B A
(4) No movement of water (4)
120. In which one of the following processes CO2 is 120. CO
2

not released ?
(1) Aerobic respiration in plants (1)
(2) Aerobic respiration in animals (2)
(3) Alcoholic fermentation (3)
(4) Lactate fermentation (4)
121. Indicator of water pollution :- 121.
(1) E. Coli (2) Chlorella (1) E. Coli (2) Chlorella
(3) Beggiatoa (4) Ulothrix (3) Beggiatoa (4) Ulothrix
122. Carbon monooxide is harmful because :- 122. :-
(1) It forms stable compound with haemoglobin (1)
(2) It blocks mitosis (2)
(3) It is mutagenic (3)
(4) It causes defoliation (4)
123. Temperature variation in Pacific ocean in present 123.
time is called :-
(1) Cyclone effect (1)
(2) ElNino effect (2)
(3) Green house effect (3)
(4) Gaudikov's effect (4)
124. Sewage purification is performed by :- 124.
(1) Microbes (2) Fertilisers (1) (2)
(3) Antibiotics (4) Antiseptics (3) (4)
125. Main reason of disturbance of biological 125.
diversity :- (1)
(1) Green house effect
(2) Hunting (2)
(3) Soil erosion (3)
(4) Destruction of natural habitats (4)
126. Best method to preserve the wild relatives of 126.
plants:-
(1) By growing them in natural habitats (1)
(2) Gene library (2)
(3) By storing seeds (3)
(4) Cryopreservation (4)
127. Concentration of DDT is highest in :- 127. DDT
(1) Primary consumer (2) Producers (1) (2)
(3) Top consumer (4) Decomposers (3) (4) Decomposers
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128. The plant having the largest flower is :- 128.
(1) Total stem parasite (1)
(2) Epiphyte (2)
(3) Total root parasite (3)
(4) Partial stem parasite (4)
129. According to forestory comission report-1997 the 129.
(1997)
total forest cover of India :-
(1) 11% (2) 19.5% (3) 17% (4) 18.7% (1) 11% (2) 19.5% (3) 17% (4) 18.7%
130. Nitrogen fixing bacteria converts :- 130.
(1) N2 NH3 (2) NH4+ Nitrates (1) N2 NH3 (2) NH4+ Nitrates
(3) NO2 NO3 (4) NO3 N2 (3) NO2 NO3 (4) NO3 N2
131. Main reason of water bloom in rivers, lakes, sea 131.
etc. is:-
(1) Brown algae and green algae (1) Brown algae and green algae
(2) Cyanobacteria and dinoflagellates (2) Cyanobacteria and dinoflagellates
(3) Eichornia (3) Eichornia
(4) Fishes (4) Fishes
132. Maximum DDT in birds feeding on ? 132.
DDT

(1) Fishes (2) Meat (3) Insects (4) Seeds (1) (2) (3) (4)
133. Which one produce gas by decomposing the gobar 133.
(Dung) in gobar gas:- (1)
(1) Fungus
(2)
(2) Virus
(3) Methanogenic bacteria (3)
(4) Algae (4)
134. In which type of the forest, humus is formed by 134.
the dry and dead leaves ?
:-
(1) Coniferous forest (2) Deciduous forest (1) (2)
(3) Tundra forest (4) Alpine (3) (4)
135. "Kaziranga" is related to :- 135.
:-
(1) Tiger (2) Rhinoceros (1) (2)
(3) Birds (4) Lion (3) (4)
136. Increase in BOD of water reservoir is due to :- 136. BOD
(1) Algae (2) Soil (1) (2)
(3) Moss (4) Waste product (3) (4)
137. Most stable ectosystem is : 137. :
(1) Desert (2) Ocean (1) (2)
(3) Mountains (4) Forest (3) (4)
138. Which of the following plant is found in 138.
Mangroove forest ? (1) (2)
(1) Shorea robusta (2) Rhizophora
(3) Tectona grandis (4) Pinus (3)
(4)
139. In biotic community which is most important to 139.
sustain life :-
(1) Soil moisture (2) Soil acidity (1) (2)
(3) Green food (4) Day length (3) (4)

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140. Which of the following biome shows minimum 140.
mean annual precipitation and minimum mean
:-
annual temperature ? (1)
(1) Arctic and alphine tundra
(2)
(2) Coniferous forest
(3) Temperate forest (3)
(4) Grassland (4)
141. Roots of black walnut (juglans nigra) secrete a 141. (
)
chemical juglone which is toxic to other plants
like apple, alfa alfa etc. This kind of interaction
is :- :-
(1) Amensalism (2) Mutualism (1) (2)
(3) Protocooperation (4) Brood parasitism (3) (4)
142. According to Robert Constanza, the ________ 142.
________
accounts for about 50 percent :- 50%
:-
(1) Soil formation (2) Nutrient cycling (1) (2)
(3) Recreation (4) Climate regulation (3) (4)
143. World-summit on sustainable agriculture held in 143. 2002 _____
2002 in _____ :- :-
(1) Johannesburg (2) Kyoto (1) (2)
(3) Rio de janeiro (4) Copenhagen (3) (4)
144. Sal, Teak, Tendu, Khair and Chiraunji are the 144.
common trees of which of the following Indian
:-
biomes :-
(1)
(2)
(1) Tropical rain forest (2) Deciduous forest
(3) Taiga (4) Savanna (3) (4)
145. The components of the ecosystem are seen to 145.
function as a unit when we consider the :-
:-
(1) Productivity (1)
(2) Energy flow (2)
(3) Decomposition and Nutrient cycling (3)
(4) All of the these (4)
146. Electrostatic Precipitator (ESP) can remove :- 146.
(ESP)
(1) SO2 (1) SO2
(2) SPM (2)
(SPM)
(3) CO (3) CO
(4) Methane (4)
147. Which of the following is not an effect of global 147.
warming?
(1) Severe climatic changes (1)
(2) La nina
(2)
(3) Increase in average annual temperature of
earth (3)
(4) High efficiency of C4 plants (4) C4
148. The pH of acid rain is lesser than :- 148.
pH ______
:-
(1) 4.8 (2) 3.8 (3) 5.6 (4) 6.5 (1) 4.8 (2) 3.8 (3) 5.6 (4) 6.5

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149. In which of the following biogeochemical cycles, 149.
atmospheric phase is absent/negligible?
?
(1) Nitrogen (2) Sulphur (1) (2)
(3) Phosphorus (4) Carbon (3) (4)
150. How many of the following are incorrect :- 150.

:-
(A) Noise is a air pollutant (A)
(B) Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic (B)
converter should use unleaded petrol.
(C) CNG burns more efficiently unlike diesel and (C)
CNG
petrol.
(D) 0.1% impurity makes water unfit for human (D) 0.1%
use.
(E) COD values are always higher than BOD (E) COD BOD
values.
(F) Agriculture induces algal bloom in nearby (F)
water bodies.
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
151. ________ are relatively easy to remove from 151. ________
domestic sewage :-
:-
(1) Sand and floating debrish (1)
(2) Fecal matter and bacteria (2)
(3) Cloth and paper (3)
(4) Nitrate and sodium (4)
152. ____ and ____ are the most important climatic factors 152. ____ ____
that regulate decomposition through their effect on
the activities of soil microbes :-
:-
(1) Edaphic, Temperature (1)
,
(2) Moisture, Topography (2) ,
(3) Temperature, Moisture (3) ,
(4) pH, Chemical composition of deteritus (4) pH,
153. Eutrophication increases the rate of :- 153.

:-
(1) Biological magnification (1)
(2) Succession of water bodies (2)
(3) Pyrolysis (3)
(4) Global warming (4)
154. Match the following :- 154.
:-

Column-A Column-B
-A
-B
1. NO 3 w. Black foot 1. NO3 w.
2. Hg x. Blue baby 2. Hg x.
3. Arsenic y. Minamata 3. y.
4. Copper z. Uremia 4. z.
(1) 1(y), 2(x), 3(w), 4(z) (1) 1(y), 2(x), 3(w), 4(z)
(2) 1(x), 2(y), 3(w), 4(z) (2) 1(x), 2(y), 3(w), 4(z)
(3) 1(w), 2(y), 3(x), 4(z) (3) 1(w), 2(y), 3(x), 4(z)
(4) 1(z), 2(x), 3(y), 4(w) (4) 1(z), 2(x), 3(y), 4(w)
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155. Ecosystems need a constant supply of energy to 155.
synthesise the molecules they require to
(1) increase the photosynthetic efficiency (1)
(2) reduce respiratory loss (2)
(3) counteract the universal tendency toward (3)
increasing disorderliness.
(4) Control the worst impacts of predation. (4)
156. "A" are biotic factors of one area, while "B" are 156. "A"
"B"
biotic factors of another area, "C" is :- , "C"
:-

A C B A C B

(1) Ecocline (1)

(2) Littoral zone (2)
(3) Ecotone (3)
(4) Thermocline (4)
157. The use of ______ is crucial to disposal of hospital 157.
______
waste :-
:-
(1) Sanitary land fills (2) Polyblend (1)
(2)
(3) Open burning (4) Incinerators (3) (4)
158. Desert lizard manage to keep their body 158.
temperature fairly constant by :-
:-
(1) Physiological means (1)
(2) Behavioural means (2)
(3) Morphological means (3)
(4) Diapause (4)
159. According to which one of the following plots 159.
with more species show less year to year variation
in total biomass ?
(1) Rivet popper hypothesis (1)
(2) Tilman (2)
(3) IUCN (3)
(4) JFM (4)
160. Which of the following is correct for top 160.

consumers ? (A)
(A) They keeps prey populations under control.
(B)
(B) They maintains prey species diversity at
community level.
(C) They exhibits a great level of assimilation (C)
efficiency, respiratory loss with prudent
nature.

Option :- :-
(1) A (2) A, B (3) A, C (4) A, B, C (1) A (2) A, B (3) A, C (4) A, B, C

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161. Which one of the following cause of biodiversity 161.
loss, is because of mutualism ?
(1) Habitat fragmentation (1)
(2) Over exploitation (2)
(3) Co-extinctions (3)
(4) Alien species invasions (4)
162. Match the following :- 162.
:-

Column-A Column-B
-A
-B

1. Cotton J. Anthracosis 1. J.
2. Coal K. Itai-itai 2. K.
-
3. Iron L. Byssinosis 3. L.
4. Cadmium M. Siderosis 4. M.

(1) 1(L), 2(J), 3(M), 4(K) (1) 1(L), 2(J), 3(M), 4(K)
(2) 1(J), 2(K), 3(L), 4(M) (2) 1(J), 2(K), 3(L), 4(M)
(3) 1(M), 2(J), 3(K), 4(L) (3) 1(M), 2(J), 3(K), 4(L)
(4) 1(L), 2(M), 3(J), 4(K) (4) 1(L), 2(M), 3(J), 4(K)
163. Endemism is related with, which of the following 163.
in-situ strategy :-
:-
(1) Zoological parks (1)
(2) National parks (2)
(3) Wild life sancturies (3)
(4) Hot spots (4)
164. Recognising the deleterious affects of O 3 164.
depletion, on international treaty known as the
1987
______ was signed in 1987 to control the emission
______
of ODSs :-
:-
(1) IPCC (1) IPCC
(2) Kyoto protocol (2)
(3) Montreal protocol (3)
(4) Insecticide act (4)
165. Which of the following can not be considered as 165.



a strategy of zero waste procedure :-
(1) Open burning (1)
(2) Sanitary land filling (2)
(3) Use of polyblend (3)
(4) Recycling of e-waste (4) e -
166. Euro II are emission norms for reducing :- 166.
II _____
:-
(1) O3 and NOx (1) O3 NOx
(2) SPM and CO (2) SPM CO
(3) CO2 and H2S (3) CO2 H2S
(4)
(4) Sulphur and aromatic hydrocarbons

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167. Study the given statements carefully and give the 167.
answer. (A)
(A) Bark is a nontechnical term that refers to all
tissues exterior to the cork cambium (B)
(B) Phellum, phellogen and phelloderm are
collectively called pericarp (C)
(C) In the dicot stem vascular cambium is
completely secondary in origin (D)
(D) In dicot stem endodermis cells are rich in starch
grains and the layer is also called starch sheath.
Options :- :-
(1) A, B-correct; C, D-incorrect (1) A, B-; C, D-
(2) A, C-correct ; B, D-incorrect (2) A, C- ; B, D-
(3) A, B, C - correct; D-incorrect (3) A, B, C-; D-
(4) A, B, C-incorrect ; D-correct (4) A, B, C- ; D-
168. Presence of water cavities, vascular bundles are 168.
surrounded by sclerenchymatous bundle sheath,
parenchymatous ground tissue, conjoint, collateral
and closed vascular bundles are characters of :-
(1) Dicot stem (2) Monocot stem (1) (2)
(3) Dicot root (4) Monocot root (3) (4)
169. In which of the following gynoecium is 169.
monocarpellary ? (1) (2)
(1) Gram (2) Mustard
(3) Tulip (4) Chinarose (3) (4)
170. Select erroneous pair :- 170.
(1) Trimerous flower - Allium cepa -
(1)
(2) Swollen placenta - Makoi (2) -
(3) Zygomorphic flower - Iberis amara (3) -
(4) Axile placentation - Radish (4) -
171. Match column-I with column-II & choose right 171. -I
-II

option :-

Column-I Column-II
-I
-II (
)
(Type of vascular bundle) (Example) (
)

(i) conjoint, collateral, (a) stem of (i) (a)

open Dracaena (ii)
(b)
(ii) conjoint, bicollateral, (b) stem of
open cucurbits (iii) (c)
(iii) Amphicribal (c) stem of dicot
(iv) Amphivasal (d) ferns rhizome (iv) (d)

Option :- :-
(1) (i)-b, (ii)-c, (iii)-d, (iv)-a (1) (i)-b, (ii)-c, (iii)-d, (iv)-a
(2) (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-c, (iv)-d (2) (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-c, (iv)-d
(3) (i)-d, (ii)-a, (iii)-b, (iv)-c (3) (i)-d, (ii)-a, (iii)-b, (iv)-c
(4) (i)-c, (ii)-b, (iii)-d, (iv)-a (4) (i)-c, (ii)-b, (iii)-d, (iv)-a

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172. Which of the following statements are incorrect? 172.

?
(i) Polar nuclei are situated in the central cell (i)
above the egg apparatus.
(ii) Chara is a dioecious plant (ii)
(iii) Pollen tube releases the two male gametes into (iii)
the cytoplasm of synergids.
(iv) Chasmogamous flowers produce assured (iv)
seed-set even in the absence of pollinators.
(1) i, ii (2) Only iii (1) i, ii (2) iii
(3) i, ii, iv (4) ii, iv (3) i, ii, iv (4) ii, iv
173. In the post fertilizational changes within the ovule, 173.
..........
the oospore forms the ..........
(1) Endosperm (1)
(2) Embryo (2)
(3) Nucellus (3)
(4) Perisperm (4)
174. Which of the following play an important role in 174.
guiding the pollen tube into the synergid ?
?
(1) Obturators (1)
(2) Filiform apparatus (2)
(3) Antipodals (3)
(4) Raphe (4)
175. In how many of the following plants, endosperm 175.
will be completely consumed by developing
embryo before seed maturation :-
:-
Wheat, Coconut, Pea, Castor, Rice, Groundnut,
Beans, Maize.
(1) Five (2) Four (1) (2)
(3) Two (4) Three (3) (4)
176. Which of the following event is not involved in 176.
post fertilisation events ?
?
(1) Endosperm and embryo development (1)
(2) Maturation of ovule into seed (2)
(3) Maturation of ovary into friut (3)
(4) Formation of gametes (4)
177. Due to discovery of which of the following in 177.
1980
1980, the evolution was termed as RNA world :- RNA
(1) m - RNA , t - RNA, r - RNA synthesise proteins (1) m - RNA , t - RNA, r - RNA
(2) In some viruses RNA is genetic material (2)
(3) RNA has enzymatic property (3) RNA
(4) RNA is not found in all cells (4) RNA

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178. Which of the following is closest relative of man:- 178.
(1) Chimpanzee (2) Gorilla (1) (2)
(3) Orangutan (4) Gibbon (3) (4)
179. Which of the following is correct order of the 179.
evolutionary history of man :-
(1) Peking man, Homo sapiens, Neanderthel man,
(1)
Cromagnon man
(2) Peking man, Neanderthal man, Homo sapiens
(2)
Cromagnon man
(3) Peking man, Hedalberg man,Neanderthal man, (3)
Cromagnon man
(4) Peking man, Neanderthal man, Homo sapiens (4)


Hedalberg man
180. Forecoming generations are less adaptive than 180.
their parental generation due to :-
(1) Natural selection (2) Mutation (1) (2)
(3) Genetic drift (4) Adaptation (3) (4)

Your moral duty is to prove that

is

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in NEET-II 2016

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /

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