EMC by Test-king

Number: E10-002
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 14.0

Exam code: EMC E10-002

Exam name: Cloud Infrastructure and Services v2 Exam

Version 14.0

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Exam A

QUESTION 1
What is a function of the control layer of a cloud infrastructure?

A. Configuring resource pools

B. Pooling resources
C. Communicating across computer systems
D. Providing workflows for executing tasks

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
Which layer of a cloud infrastructure includes tools that optimize resource utilization?

A. Virtual layer
B. Physical layer
C. Orchestration layer
D. Service layer

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
Which EMC product offers customers a choice of hypervisor, compute system, and network technology?

A. VSPEX
B. Vblock
C. VPLEX
D. VNX

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Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
An organization plans to migrate an application that has loosely coupled components.

Which migration strategy is suitable for such an application?

A. Hybrid
B. Forklift
C. Functional
D. Compatible

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
In which chargeback model do consumers commit up-front on their required cloud resources for the committed period?

A. Fixed cost
B. Pay-as-you-go
C. Subscription by peak usage
D. User-based

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
Which role in a cloud provider organization is responsible for understanding consumer needs and industry trends to drive an effective product strategy?

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A. Service manager
B. Account manager
C. Cloud architect
D. Service operations manager

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
An organization wants to leverage the infrastructure resources in their existing data center and transform it to a cloud infrastructure.

Which type of deployment is suitable for this transformation?

A. Brownfield
B. Private cloud
C. Public cloud
D. Greenfield

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
Which encapsulation function is performed by an iSCSI Host Bus Adapter?

A. SCSI data into IP packets

B. SCSI data into FC frames
C. SCSI data into FCIP frames
D. Both SCSI data and FC frames into IP packets

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)

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Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
In a FC SAN, which FC port type does an N_Port connect to?

A. F_Port
B. N_Port
C. E_Port
D. G_Port

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
What describes the operation of the write-through cache in a block-based storage system?

A. Data is placed in the cache.

Data is written to the disk.
An acknowledgement for the write is sent.
B. Data is placed in the cache.
An acknowledgement for the write is sent immediately.
Data is later written to the disk.
C. Data is written directly to the disk without being placed in the cache.
An acknowledgement for the write is sent.
D. Data is written directly to the disk.
An acknowledgement for the write is sent immediately.
Data is later placed in the cache.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 11
A compute system is configured to access data from a block-based storage system over a network.

What must be true about the file system?

A. It is managed by the computer system.

B. It is managed by the storage system.
C. It is part of the storage area network.
D. It is managed by the object-based storage device node.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
What is a capability of an object-based storage system?

A. It automatically detects and repairs corrupted objects.

B. It uses multiple object IDs for each object for high security.
C. It consolidates block and file access in one storage platform.
D. It has a single file system spanning all object-based storage device nodes.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
Which encapsulation function is performed by a Fibre Channel Host Bus Adapter?

A. SCSI data into FC frames

B. FC frames into IP packets
C. Ethernet frames into FC frames
D. FC frames into Ethernet frames

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Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
An organization is using a shared file system to manage virtual machine (VM) files.

Which statement is true about the file system?

A. It enables VM files to be stored on remote file servers.

B. It is installed on the local storage of the computer system.
C. It enables multiple hypervisors to write to a VM file concurrently.
D. It is installed on the guest operating system of each VM.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
What is provided by an uplink NIC used in a virtual machine network on a physical compute system running a hypervisor?

A. Connectivity between a virtual switch and a physical Ethernet switch

B. Connectivity between a virtual switch and physical NICs
C. Inter-switch links (ISLs) between virtual switches
D. Connectivity between a virtual switch and virtual NICs

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16

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When virtual machines (VMs) are running on a compute cluster, what functionality is provided by a hypervisor's native file system?

A. Automated locking of VM files

B. Pool of running VMs to be shared among hypervisors
C. Pool of virtual disks to be shared among running VMs
D. VM namespace resolution

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 17
What is enabled by cache tiering?

A. Tiering between DRAM cache and solid state drives

B. Creation of a large capacity secondary cache using hard disk drives
C. Creation of a large capacity secondary cache only using DRAM cache
D. Tiering between hard disk drives and DRAM cache

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
Which resource management technique identifies and eliminates redundant copies of memory pages?

A. Memory page sharing

B. Dynamic memory page allocation
C. Memory page ballooning
D. Static memory page allocation

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 19
When using a memory page sharing technique, what happens when a virtual machine tries to update the shared memory page?

A. A private copy of the page is created.

B. A new shared memory page is created.
C. The page is overwritten.
D. The page is partially updated.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 20
What is a benefit of server-flash cache technology?

A. Provides performance acceleration for read-intensive workloads

B. Eliminates the need to have cache in storage systems
C. Improves data migration from one storage system to another
D. Eliminates the need for hyper-threading-enabled processors

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 21
Which solution would improve the performance of an application with a high number of read requests to SAN storage systems?

A. Server-flash cache technology

B. Virtual storage provisioning
C. Dynamic memory allocation

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D. Hyper-threading

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 22
What is the effect of network broadcast traffic reaching the configured network storm control threshold on a switch port?

A. Broadcast traffic is blocked. Subsequent broadcast frames are dropped for a specific interval.
B. Broadcast traffic is allowed partially, maintaining the traffic rate below the threshold level.
C. Switch port bandwidth increases automatically to accommodate the traffic.
D. The switch port is disabled. Administrator intervention is required to enable it.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 23
An administrator has configured storage pool rebalancing on a storage system.

What is the effect of adding new disk drives to the pool?

A. Data is restriped across all the disk drives in the storage pool.
B. Data on the old drives is completely copied to the new drives.
C. Data is restriped, but only across the old drives in the storage pool.
D. Data is rebalanced across the old drives in the storage pool.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 24
Dynamic virtual machine (VM) load balancing across storage volumes is enabled.

Which parameter is used to intelligently place newly created VMs on a storage volume?

A. I/O load on the storage volume

B. Type of the storage volume
C. Location of the storage volume
D. Size of the storage volume

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 25
Consider a virtual machine (VM) with 2 GB memory capacity and 1200 MHz processing power as its lower bounds, and 4 GB memory capacity and
2400 MHz processing power as its upper bounds.

What is the effect on the VM if the memory capacity or processing power available to the VM is less than 2 GB and 1200 MHz respectively?

A. The VM will not power on using this configuration.

B. The VM will run with degraded performance.
C. The VM will allow only a few applications to run.
D. The VM will allow only one operating system to be installed.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 26
Which EMC product provides a solution for software-defined storage?

A. ViPR
B. Vblock

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C. VMAX
D. VSPEX

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 27
What is used to prioritize the latency-sensitive network traffic in order to provide better network service in comparison to less critical network traffic?

A. Quality of Service
B. Traffic shaping
C. Network storm control
D. Multipathing

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 28
What is a benefit of hyper-threading?

A. Improved processor utilization

B. Reduced processor cost
C. Concurrent execution of multiple threads
D. Pool processors across compute systems

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 29
Which statement characterizes the software-defined approach for managing resources?

A. Abstracts the underlying infrastructure components and separates the management functions from the infrastructure components
B. Provides a framework to list services, attributes of services, service-level commitments, terms and conditions for service provisioning, and prices of
services
C. Provides the automated arrangement, coordination, and management of various system functions in a cloud infrastructure to manage cloud services
D. Specifies a set of component functions that can be called from a software component to interact with other software components

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 30
What is a benefit of personalizing a cloud portal?

A. Meets the security and compliance needs to order and manage services
B. Optimizes the utilization and deployment time of cloud services
C. Enhances the portability and interoperability across clouds
D. Eliminates the possibility of manual errors during portal configuration

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 31
What principle is supported by Representational State Transfer (REST)?

A. Resource manipulation using resource representation

B. Stateful interaction between service requestor and service provider
C. Resource identification using XML
D. Encapsulation of XML files in the HTTP header

Correct Answer: A

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 32
What operation is supported by Representational State Transfer (REST)?

A. Service requestor performs actions on a resource by using the resource representation.

B. Service provider programmatically integrates and sequences HTTP methods used to manipulate resources.
C. Service requestor encapsulates the body of a REST message in an XML file and transfers the file over IP.
D. Service provider stores the application state to keep track of all resource manipulations.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 33
What information is included in the service request issued by a cloud portal to the orchestration layer?

A. Request ID, subscription ID, user's choices

B. Request ID, erasure code, World Wide Name
C. User's choices, iqn, service template
D. Subscription ID, erasure code, iqn

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 34
What is a function of the management interface of cloud services?

A. Enables consumers to control their use of rented services

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B. Presents functional content of a service for computing
C. Provides a standard to develop a service enablement roadmap
D. Sequences system functions programmatically

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 35
What is a benefit of defining a service template?

A. Provides guidelines to create workflows for service orchestration

B. Helps consumers understand service policies, pricing, and SLAs
C. Provides control and visibility into the service enablement roadmap
D. Translates an organization's service strategy into a balanced scorecard

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 36
What is included in service templates?

A. Service structure and service attributes

B. Service assets and service level agreement
C. Service offerings and service contract
D. Service components and service catalog

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 37
What is a service contract?

A. An agreement between provider and consumer that states the terms of service usage
B. An agreement between provider and supplier that describes the service template specifics
C. An agreement between provider and consumer that lists the conditions for greenfield service deployment
D. An agreement between provider and supplier that states the terms and conditions of a balanced scorecard

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 38
What is a benefit of the discovery operation in a cloud?

A. Provides visibility into service assets

B. Organizes the service portfolio in an inventory
C. Detects and corrects security attacks
D. Identifies existing vulnerabilities in a cloud

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 39
Which activity is carried out during the service operation phase of the cloud service lifecycle?

A. Discovering the service assets

B. Establishing the billing policy
C. De-provisioning the service instance
D. Assessing service requirements

Correct Answer: A

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 40
Which activity is carried out during the service termination phase of the cloud service lifecycle?

A. De-provisioning the service instance

B. Asking for the service contract
C. Establishing the billing policy
D. Providing the final service assessment report

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 41
In which phase of the cloud service lifecycle are service instances de-provisioned?

A. Service termination
B. Service creation
C. Service operation
D. Service planning

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 42
What is a benefit of service orchestration?

A. Reduced service provisioning time

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B. Enhanced service portability across clouds
C. Improved conformity to service contract
D. Automated service portfolio management

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 43
What could be a reason for a consumer-initiated service termination?

A. The service performance is not acceptable.

B. The consumer violates terms of the contract.
C. The service provider exits from the cloud business.
D. The contract agreement terminates naturally.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 44
What needs to be considered before performing the discovery activity in a cloud?

A. Frequency of information collection

B. Terms of service contract
C. Impact on service catalog
D. Impact on workflow structure

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 45
In which step of the service enablement roadmap is the existing IT infrastructure transformed to deliver the required cloud services?

A. Build
B. Plan
C. Understand
D. Enable

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 46
Which activity is carried out during the `Plan' step of the service enablement roadmap?

A. Analyzing the gap between existing IT capability and expected IT capability

B. Understanding the business value that the services can bring
C. Optimizing the cloud infrastructure and services to an evolving business strategy
D. Transforming the existing IT infrastructure to deliver services as planned

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 47
Which factors should be considered when establishing a billing policy for cloud services?

A. Provider's business goals and service-specific pricing strategy

B. Provider's chargeback requirement and personalization policy
C. Service level objectives and service termination policy
D. Service enablement roadmap and de-provisioning strategy

Correct Answer: A

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 48
Which statement describes the service portfolio management function?

A. Defining the suite of service offerings that aligns to the provider's strategic business goals
B. Maintaining deployed services to ensure that service levels are delivered as committed
C. Creating an inventory of service assets that provides information about asset configurations
D. Meeting the required capacity demands for all services in a cost effective and timely manner

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 49
What is a function of financial management?

A. Provide necessary business cases for investment

B. Evaluate quality and cost of supplied products against the SLA
C. Procure capacity in the most cost-effective manner
D. Meet availability needs with a justifiable return on investment

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 50
What is a function of supplier management?

A. Reassess contract prior to renewal

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B. Plan for investments and IT budget
C. Map consumers to service assets
D. Correct problems in supplied products

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 51
Which management process involves approving requests for expanding resource pools in a cloud?

A. Change management
B. Capacity management
C. Configuration management
D. Incident management

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 52
What helps in analyzing the utilization and the consumption of resources by service instance?

A. Monitoring
B. Personalizing
C. Service catalog management
D. Availability management

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 53
What is a characteristic of cloud service management?

A. Adopting automation and workflow orchestration

B. Enabling IT asset-specific management
C. Separating management processes from service design
D. Abstracting cloud service requirements and SLA

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 54
What is a function of service asset and configuration management?

A. Maintain information on configuration items

B. Review and approve configuration changes
C. Monitor non-compliance with configuration policies
D. Store configuration errors in a known-error database

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 55
Which VMware product automates performance, capacity, and configuration management?

A. vCenter Operations Management Suite

B. vCloud Hybrid Service
C. vCenter Site Recovery Manager
D. IT Business Management Suite

Correct Answer: A

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 56
Which EMC product discovers infrastructure components and detects changes in component status?

A. Smarts
B. VSPEX
C. RecoverPoint
D. Mozy

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 57
What is an accurate statement about reporting?

A. It provides current status and historical trends.

B. It displays a personalized functional interface.
C. It presents service instances to consumers in real-time.
D. It organizes potential performance problems.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 58
A service is offered to a consumer from 9 A.M. to 6 P.M. Monday through Saturday. The service experiences four hours of downtime during one week.

What is the availability of the service for that week?

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A. 90.52%
B. 92.59%
C. 95.26%
D. 97.28%

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 59
What is an accurate statement about an active/active service availability zone configuration?

A. It provides a lower recovery time objective (RTO).

B. The zones must be connected over a FC network.
C. The zones must be located more than 200 km apart.
D. It has reduced bandwidth requirements for replication across zones.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 60
What is the role of a proxy server in an image-based backup solution?

A. Performs backup operations by using the virtual machine snapshot

B. Stores backup media for a virtual machine backup
C. Creates the snapshot for the virtual machine to be backed up
D. Transfers data directly from the guest OS to the backup device

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 61
A cloud service provider plans to implement data deduplication in their backup environment. The service provider has a network bandwidth and storage
space constraint.

Which deduplication method should be deployed by the service provider?

A. Source-based
B. Target-based
C. Post-process
D. In-line

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 62
Which statement is true about virtual machine (VM) snapshots?

A. A snapshot holds only changed blocks.

B. A single delta disk file is used for all the snapshots of a VM.
C. A snapshot provides a zero recovery point objective.
D. A parent virtual disk is not required for recovery from a snapshot.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 63
What is an advantage of asynchronous remote replication?

A. Replicates data across any geographic location without impacting response time
B. Provides near zero recovery point objective

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C. Saves network bandwidth by replicating only deduplicated data
D. Ensures source LUN and replica have identical data at all times

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 64
A provider offers a 24x7 online service to consumers. The service experiences three hours of downtime during one week.

What is the availability of the service for that week?

A. 90.5%
B. 92.5%
C. 95.2%
D. 98.2%

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 65
What is the correct sequence of steps in asynchronous remote replication?

A. Step 1: Compute system writes data to source.

Step 2: Write is immediately acknowledged to compute system.
Step 3: Data is transmitted to the replica (target).
Step 4: Target acknowledges back to source.
B. Step 1: Compute system writes data to source.
Step 2: Data is transmitted to the replica (target).
Step 3: Target acknowledges back to source.
Step 4: Write is immediately acknowledged to compute system.
C. Step 1: Compute system writes data to source.
Step 2: Write is immediately acknowledged to compute system.
Step 3: Target acknowledges back to source.

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 Step 4: Data is transmitted to the replica (target).
D. Step 1: Compute system writes data to source.
Step 2: Data from source is replicated to replica (target).
Step 3: Target acknowledges back to source.
Step 4: Source acknowledges write complete to the compute system.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 66
What is the correct sequence of steps in synchronous remote replication?

A. Step 1: Compute system writes data to source.

Step 2: Data from source is replicated to replica (target).
Step 3: Target acknowledges back to source.
Step 4: Source acknowledges write complete to the compute system.
B. Step 1: Compute system writes data to source.
Step 2: Write is immediately acknowledged to compute system.
Step 3: Target acknowledges back to source.
Step 4: Data is transmitted to the replica (target).
C. Step 1: Compute system writes data to source.
Step 2: Data is transmitted to the replica (target).
Step 3: Source acknowledges write complete to the compute system.
Step 4: Target acknowledges back to source.
D. Step 1: Compute system writes data to source.
Step 2: Write is immediately acknowledged to compute system.
Step 3: Data is transmitted to the replica (target).
Step 4: Target acknowledges back to source.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 67
Which EMC product enables the backing up of data directly from VMAX storage to a Data Domain system?

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A. ProtectPoint
B. SRDF
C. RecoverPoint
D. ViPR

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 68
Which product can automatically restart virtual machines on another hypervisor in a cluster when a physical compute system in the cluster fails?

A. VMware HA
B. VMware Storage vMotion
C. VMware vMotion
D. VMware FT

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 69
What could be a possible cause for the degradation in the performance of virtual machines (VMs) during a guest-level backup operation?

A. Backup agent running inside VMs consumes additional resources.

B. VM snapshot created for the backup consumes additional resources.
C. VMs move into read only mode during backup operations.
D. VMs move into sleep mode during backup operations.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 70
What is graceful degradation of an application?

A. Application maintains limited functionality even when some of the modules are not available.
B. Application can accept all requests from users but responds to only high priority requests.
C. Application retries the service that is temporarily down and makes it available to users.
D. Application automatically restarts on another virtual machine and provides full functionality.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 71
An administrator plans to perform scheduled maintenance of a computer system in a cluster. There are multiple virtual machines (VMs) running a cloud
service on the computer system.

Which solution enables the administrator to perform maintenance without service interruption?

A. VM live migration
B. VM backup
C. VM hardening
D. VM template

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 72
A storage system is configured with erasure coding. The data is divided into 10 data fragments and three coding fragments. Each fragment is stored on
a different disk drive in the storage system.

What is the maximum number of disk drive failures the storage system can tolerate without data loss in this implementation?

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A. 3
B. 7
C. 10
D. 13

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 73
A storage system is configured with erasure coding. The data is divided into eight data fragments and four coding fragments. Each fragment is stored
on a different disk drive in the storage system.

What is the maximum number of disk drive failures the storage system can tolerate without data loss in this implementation?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 12

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 74
What is a benefit of stretching a compute cluster across service availability zones in a cloud environment?

A. Enables dynamic workload balancing across zones

B. Provides high security for compute systems across zones
C. Reduces bandwidth requirements for replication across zones
D. Reduces the possibility of disasters occurring in one of the zones

Correct Answer: A

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 75
Which process ensures that users are who they claim to be?

A. Authentication
B. Authorization
C. Auditing
D. Phishing

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 76
When configuring an authentication mechanism using Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP), where should the CHAP secret be
configured?

A. Initiator and target

B. Initiator only
C. Target only
D. Application server

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 77
What does CHAP use to enable initiators and targets to authenticate each other?

A. A secret code

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B. OpenID
C. OAuth
D. Permissions

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 78
Which technique of an intrusion detection and prevention system relies on a database that contains known attack patterns, and scans events against it?

A. Signature-based detection
B. Anomaly-based detection
C. Device-based detection
D. Plug-in-based detection

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 79
Which Fibre Channel switch mechanism logically segments node ports within a fabric into groups and enables communication with each other within the
group?

A. Zoning
B. LUN masking
C. Fabric binding
D. Port binding

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 80
Which type of zoning reduces the risk of WWPN spoofing on a Fibre Channel network?

A. Port-based
B. WWPN-based
C. Mixed
D. eui-based

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 81
A cloud service provider is concerned about the security risks due to velocity-of-attack.

What can the cloud service provider deploy to mitigate the impact of this attack?

A. Containment mechanisms
B. Role-based access control
C. Multi-factor authentication
D. Shredding data-at-rest

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 82
Who maintains the credential information of consumers when an OpenID mechanism is deployed?

A. Identity provider only

B. Service provider only
C. Consumer and service provider

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D. Service provider and identity provider

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 83
What is an OpenID mechanism?

A. An open standard for authentication in which a service provider uses authentication services from an identity provider
B. An open authorization mechanism that allows a client to access protected resources from a resource server on behalf of a resource owner
C. A network authentication protocol that provides strong authentication for client/server applications by using secret-key cryptography
D. A mechanism that examines data packets traversing a network and compares them to a set of filtering rules

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 84
An organization has a private cloud infrastructure. They want to leverage the capabilities of a public cloud by using the hybrid cloud model.

Which virtual private network (VPN) connection method will enable them to establish a secure connection to the public cloud?

A. Site-to-site VPN connection

B. Remote access VPN connection
C. User access VPN connection
D. Global access VPN connection

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 85
A cloud service provider is concerned about an attacker gaining access to consumers' confidential information by compromising the password
database.

Which security mechanism should the cloud service provider deploy to mitigate the risk due to this attack?

A. Multi-factor authentication
B. Data shredding
C. Strong authorization
D. Malware protection software

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 86
Which process enables a cloud service provider to ensure that external laws and regulations are being adhered to and that the adherence can be
demonstrated?

A. Compliance management
B. Governance
C. Auditing
D. Risk management

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 87
What enables a cloud service provider to determine if a requirement to keep the data of consumers segregated from each other is being met?

A. Security audit
B. Authentication
C. Authorization

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D. Privacy control

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 88
Which mechanism in a Fibre Channel SAN prohibits a disabled switch port from being used, even after a switch reboot?

A. Persistent port locking

B. Fabric binding
C. Port binding
D. Port-type locking

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 89
Which mechanism in a Fibre Channel SAN prevents illegitimate host connections by rejecting WWPN logins?

A. Port binding
B. Fabric binding
C. Persistent port locking
D. Port-type locking

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 90
An attacker eavesdrops on a network to capture a consumer's credentials, which can be used to hijack the consumer's account.

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Which mechanism should the cloud service provider deploy to mitigate the risk of an account hijacking attack?

A. Multi-factor authentication
B. Firewall
C. Access control list
D. Encrypting data-at-rest

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 91
Which image represents the correct sequence of steps in an OAuth mechanism?

A.

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B.

C.

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D.

A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 92
Which entities are involved in the OAuth mechanism?

A. Resource owner, resource server, client, authorization server

B. Resource owner, resource server, client, application server
C. Resource client, resource server, owner, authentication server
D. Resource client, resource server, owner, application server

Correct Answer: A

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 93
Which image represents the correct sequence of steps in a Kerberos mechanism?

A.

B.

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C.

D.

A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 94
Which RAID type uses parity to protect against data loss?

A. RAID 3
B. RAID 0
C. RAID 1
D. Nested

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 95
Which protocol is most commonly used for compute-to-computer communication?

A. TCP/IP
B. FC
C. FCIP
D. iSCSI

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 96
Which document specifies the quality and reliability of Cloud services?

A. Service Level Agreement

B. Regulatory Compliance Document
C. Service Charge Rate Specification

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D. Service Termination Agreement

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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