Sem VI REV

SETSQUARE ACADEMY
Degree Engineering (MU)

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
T.E. SEMESTER VI
Question Paper Set
(May 2015 - December 2016)
CONTENTS
Sr. No. Subject Page No.

1. Metrology and Quality Engineering 14
2. Machine Design I 5 12
3. Mechanical Vibration 13 19
4. Thermal and Fluid Power Engineering 20 24
5. Mechanics 25 29
6. Finite Element Analysis 30 36
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T.E.SEM VI - MQE 1
METROLOGY QUALITY ENGINEERING
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MAY 2015
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JP-Con.:8506-15 (REVISED COURSE) QP Code : 4989
(3 Hours) [Total Marks : 80]
N.B. : (1) Question No. 1 is compulsory.
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(2) Solve any three out of remaining questions.
(3) Assume suitable data if required and mention if clearly.
(4) Figures to the right indicate marks.
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1. (a) State and explain any one most primitive length standards used in measurements. State reasons why 5
these standards were replaced by optical/length standards. 5
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(b) What are objectives of quality control. 5
(c) Enlist and explain characteristics of a good comparator. 5
(d) Draw and explain various surface roughness symbols. 5
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2. (a) Explain following terms with suitable diagram 10

(i) Basic size (ii) Fundamental deviation (iii) Grades of tolerance
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(iv) maximum and minimum metal conditions (v) Allowance.
(b) Derive necessary expression to calculate the best wire diameter. With the help of suitable diagram 10
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explain three wire method used in screw thread measurements.

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3. (a) Explain construction and working of laser interferometer. 10

(b) How will you maintain compromise between quality and cost. 10
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4. (a) Explain following concepts with sutiable diagrams 10
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(i) importance of surface conditions (ii) Roughness and waviness (iii) Ra value
(b) Explain use of X & R charts in quality control. 10
5. (a) Explain construction and working of Parkinson's Tester. EM 10

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(b) A certain product is given 100% inspection as it is manufactured and the resultant data are 10
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summarised by the hour, in following table 16 hrs of data is recorded. Calculate the central line and
variable control limits of P chart using 3-sigma control limits and indicate the values that are out of control.
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Hour Inspected No. of units inspected Number of units outside specifications

1 48 5
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2 36 5
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3 50 0
4 47 5
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5 48 0
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6 54 3
7 50 0
8 42 1
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9 32 5
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10 40 2
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11 47 2
12 47 4
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13 46 1
14 46 0
15 48 3
16 39 0
SETSQUARE ACADEMY 2
6. Write short notes on : 20

(a) Tool naker's microscope (b) 3D co-ordinate measuring machine
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(c) OC curves (d) Doube sampling plans.
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DECEMBER 2015
MD-Con.:7325-15 (REVISED COURSE) QP Code : 6254
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(2) Attempt any three questions out of the remaining five questions.
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(3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
1. (a) Differentiate between precision and accuracy. 5
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(b) What do you mean by quality of design? 5

(c) What do you mean by waviness and roughness? 5
(d) Explain advantages and limitations of pneumatic comparators. 5
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2. (a) Explain Taylors Principle of Gauge design with suitable example. 10

(b) Explain principle, construction and working of Parkinson's Gear Tester. 10
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3. (a) Explain principles of interference. How flatness can be checked with the help of optical interferometer. 10
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(b) How will compromise between quality and cost. Explain different types of cost of quality with suitable 10
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examples.
4. (a) Explain following terms with respect to surface roughness parameters: 10

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(i) Ra (ii) Rz (iii) RMS

(b) Control Chart for X and R are kept on the weight in kilograms of a colour pigment for a batch process. 10
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After 25 subgroups with subgroup size of 4
X 52.08 kg R 11.82
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Assuming process is in state of control, Compute the X and R chart central line and control limits. 10
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(For subgroup size of 4, A2 = 0.729 D4 = 2.282 D3 = 0 d2 = 2.059)
5. (a) Explain two wire method used in screw thread measurement 10

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(b) Explain various modern SQC tools. 10

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6. (a) Explain single and double samplings plans. Also Explain concept of OC curves. 10
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(b) Explain construction and working and applications of 3D coordinate measuring machine. 10
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MAY 2016
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Con.:8156-16 (REVISED COURSE) QP Code : 601000

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(2) Attempt any three questions from remaining questions.

(3) Assume suitable data if necessary and mention the same clearly.
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1. (a) Explain principles of interference 5

(b) Explain objectives of quality control. 5
(c) Differentiate between roughness and waviness. 5
(d) Differentiate between precision and accuracy 5
T.E.SEM VI - MQE 3
2. (a) Explain different types of fits. Also Explain Taylor's principle of gauge design. 10
(b) Explain following terms with respect to gear measurement. 10
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(i) Measurement using rollers (ii) Gear tooth comparator
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3. (a) With the help of suitable diagram explain construction and working of Laser Interferometer 10
(b) Explain different type of quality costs. 10
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4. (a) With reference to Surface roughness -parameters explain following terms. 10
(i) Ra (ii) Ry (iii) Rz (iv) RMS value
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(b) Do you agree with following statement? If yes why? If not why? Justify your views If all points in X 10
and R chart lies within UCL (Upper Control Limit) and LCL (Lower Control limit, all parts should be
accepted.
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5. (a) Explain there wire method in screw thread measurement 10
(b) Explain in brief modern SQC tools 10
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6. (a) Sketch typical OC curve and also explain following terms- 10

(i) Acceptable Quality Level (AQL) (ii) Producer's Risk (iii) Consumer's Risk
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(b)
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Explain principle of working, construction, and applications of Profile Projector. 10
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DECEMBER 2016
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(REVISED COURSE) QP Code :601002

N.B. (1) Question No. 1 is compulsory.
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(2) Solve any three out of remaining questions.

(3) Assume suitable data if required and menion it clearly
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(4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
1. (a)
(b)
Define wavelength standard and state the significance of using it.
Explain the structure of Quality circle. EM 5
5
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(c) What do you mean by OC curves? Explain 5

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(d) What are the errors in the threads. 5
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2. (a) What is comparator? Explain any one type of mechanical comparator. 10

(b) Briefly explain Taylor's principle of Gauge design. Whay sometimes it is desirable to differ from 10
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Taylor's principle?
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3. (a Define Interferometry. Explain Laser Interferometer with neat sketch. 10

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(b) Following data was obtained during a surface finish determination test- 10
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Sampling length 0.85 mm

Vertical magnification 4800
Horizontle magnification 120
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Areas above the datum Line 112,114,60,100 mm2

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Areas below datum line 88,99,110,75, mm2

Find the CLA value of the surface.
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4. (a) What is CMM? Explain the types of CMM with neat sketches 10
(b) Explain the use of R chart and c chart in Quality circle. 10
SETSQUARE ACADEMY 4
5. (a) The table given below shows the number of defectives found in inspection of 10 lots of 100 items each. 10
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Lot No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
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No. of 6 3 1 4 3 0 11 5 2 3
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defectives
(i) Determine the control limits for P chart and state whether the process is in control?
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(ii) If the point that goes outside the control limits is analysed and estimated, what will be the value of
new control limits and revised fraction defectives?
(b) Explain Parkinson Gear Tester with neat diagram. 10
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6. Write short notes on:- 20
(a) Limit Gauges (b) Roughness Symbols (c) Cause and Effect diagram (d) Categories of costs
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T.E.SEM VI - MD-I 5
MACHINE DESIGN - I
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MAY 2015
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JP-Con.:9310-15 (REVISED COURSE) QP Code : 4993
N.B. : (1) Question No. 1 is compulsory
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(2) Answer any three from the remaining five questions
(3) Use of recommended Design data book is permitted.
(4) Use your judgment for unspecified data, if any.
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1. Solve any four of the followings:
(a) What do you understand by following designations of materials 5
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(i) FG350 (ii) 40C8 (iii) FeE400 (iv) 30Ni4Cr1 (v) 40Cr1Mo28
(b) Explain the modes of failures in the mechanical components. 5
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(c) Why factor of safety is necessary in the design of mechanical components? Discuss the important 5
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factors influencing the selection of factor of safety.
(d) Curved beams cannot be designed by applying the simple bending theory of straight beams. Justify 5
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the statement.
(e) What is surging of springs? What remedial measures you will suggest to avoid the surging? 5
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2. (a) Design a spigot-socket type cotter joint to transmit an axial load of 42 kN. Select appropriate 14
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materials for its components and draw its neat sketch showing major dimensions on it.
(b) State the following theories of failure and state the relation between yield strength in shear and the yield 6
strength for each of the theory.
(i) Maximum shear stress theory (ii) Octahedral shear stress theory
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SETSQUARE ACADEMY 6
3. (a) State the assumptions made in the analysis of curved beams. 4

(b) Design a single start square threaded screw for a C-clamp shown in figure. The maximum force 16
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exerted by the clamp is 5 kN. Use the following data:
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(i) yield strength of the screw material = 390 N/mm2
(ii) shear strength of the nut and body material = 230 N/mm2
(iii) coefficient of the screw friction = 0.14 (iv) coefficient of the collar friction = 0.16
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(v) mean collar radius = 8 mm (vi) factor of safety = 3
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(vii) permissible bearing pressure = 12 N/mm
(viii) distance between axis of the handle and nut surface, l = 150 mm
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LH
Handle
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Screw
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x x
Nut
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y y
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100 w
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Also, design the I-section as shown by the side of figure, taking web = flange = 4t, where t - thickness
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of flange and web of the I-section of the clamp body.
4. (a) Explain Soderberg diagram and derive equation for a factor of safety based on this concept. 10
(b) The most critical point of component made of steel C40 is subjected to the following variable stresses. 10
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Determine the factor of safety based on Soderberg criterion and Octahedal shear theory.
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x varies from +12 to 10 N/mm2 y varies from +14 to +6 N/mm2 and

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xy varies from +10 to 10 N/mm2
5. (a) A shaft is supported by two bearings placed 1.5 m apart. A 450 mm diameter flat belt pulley is mounted 16
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at a distance of 350 mm to the right of LH bearings and drives a pulley directly below it with the help
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of flat belt having tension on the tight side of 2.8 kN. Another V-groove pulley 300 mm p.c.d. is placed
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300 mm to the left of RH bearing and is driven with the help of electric motor and V-belt. The motor is
placed horizontally in front. The angle of contact of both the pulley is 180 and = 0.25 the angle of V
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groove is 35. Select suitable material for the shaft and determine the diameter of the shaft.
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What will be the diameter of the shaft, if it is a hollow shaft with ratio i 0.5
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Which one will you prefer? Comment on it.
T.E.SEM VI - MD-I 7
(b) Explain the working of split-muff coupling with neat sketch 4
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6. (a) A helical coil compression spring is to be subjected to a maximum force of 4600 N with a 14
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corresponding deflection of 58 mm. The spring is to operate over a 40 mm diameter rod.
Determine the wire diameter and number of active turns. Also, decide other details such as free length,
pitch, helix angle etc. Check for the solid stress for the material of the spring as follows:
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2000 1200
Su 0.17
N / mm 2 , Sys 0.17 N / mm 2 and G = 79300 N/mm2.
d d
(b) Explain any three different types of Keys. 3
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(c) What is spring index of a helical spring? Discuss the significance of it in the design of if. 3
DECEMBER 2015
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MD-Con.8403-15 (REVISED COURSE) QP Code : 6296
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(2) Attempt any THREE questions from the remaining.
(3) Assumption made should be clearly stated.
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(4) Use of PSG Design Data Book is permitted.
1. (a) Find outer diameter of the cylinder made of GCI- FG300 using Lames equation if the maximum 5
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internal pressure is 30MPa, FOS is 2 and internal diameter is 250mm.
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(b) State different theories of failure and explain any two in details. 5
(c) Explain overhauling and self-locking of Screw. 5
(d) Derive an expression for deflection of helical spring of circular wire. 5
2. (a) Design a knuckle joint to withstand a tensile load of 25KN if the permissible stresses are 56MPa in 15
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tension, 40 MPa in shear and 70 MPa in compression.
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(b) Show that the efficiency of a self-locking screw is less than 50 percent. 5
3. (a) Determine the size of the circular bar using Soderberg equation with FOS = 2.5 if it is subjected to 8
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tensile force varying 300KN to 550KN. It is made of carbon steel 35C8 with yt = 320N/mm2 and
ut = 600 N/mm2.
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(b) Select a standard hook of trapezoidal cross section to lift a load of 110KN and find the stress 8
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induced at critical cross section.

(c) Explain different methods to reduce stress concentration. 4
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4. (a) A steel shaft is supported at bearing A and B 750mm apart. A spur gear having PCD 400mm is located 16
150mm to the right of LH bearing and a pinion with PCD 120mm is mounted 350mm to the left of RH
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bearing. The gear is drive by the pinion located vertically below, while the pinion transmits power to
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another gear horizontally to the right. Using allowable shear stress 60MPa, determine the diameter of
the shaft. The shaft transmitting 10 KW at 200 rpm. Shock and Fatigue factor in bending and torsion
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are 2.0 and 1.5 respectively.

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(b) Explain different types of keys with neat sketches 4

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5. (a) Design a Clamp coupling for mild steel shaft transmitting 40 KW at 100 rpm. Coefficient of friction 10
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between the muff and the shaft surface is 0.3 and number of bolts connecting two halves are six. The
allowable shear stress in the shaft and coupling bolts are 40 MPa and 70 MPa resp.
SETSQUARE ACADEMY 8
(b) A Bracket is supported by means of 6 bolts of 200mm 60KN 10

same size as shown. Determine the diameter
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of the bolts if the maximum shear stress is
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150MPa. 75
75
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6. (a) Explain manufacturing consideration in design 6
(b) Explain the terms : (i) Neeping of spring (ii) Surge in spring 6
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(c) A laminated spring 500 mm long and 40 mm wide is held together at the centre by a band 85 mm wide. 8
If the thickness of each leaf is 10 mm, find the number of leaves required to carry a load of 5400N.
Assume maximum working stress of 280MPa.
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If the two of the leaves extend the full length of the spring, find the deflection of the spring. The young
modulus for the spring material is 210GPa.
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MAY 2016
(REVISED COURSE) QP Code : 601100
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(2) Answer any three from the remaining five questions
(3) Use of recommended PSG Design data book is permitted.
(4) Use your judgment for unspecified data, if any.
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1. Answer any four of the fallowings: 20
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(a) Suggest with justification the suitable materials for the following components:
(i) Flat-belt pulley (ii) lathe bed (iii) Connecting rod in I.C. engine
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(b) Explain the difference between the bearing pressure and the contact stress with suitable examples.
(c) What is service factor? State its significance.
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(d) Explain the following theories of failures:
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(i) Maximum normal stress theory (ii) Octahedral shear stress theory
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(e) Why square threads are used for power transmission and V-threads for fasteners?
(f) Explain the S-N curve for fatigue life.
2. (a) A knuckle joint is subjected to an axial load of 140 kN Design the knuckle joint taking the load to be 12
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uniformly distributed over the pin in the eye and uniformly varying over the portion of pin in forks. Use
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the following data :

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Allowable tensile and compressive stress = 85 N/mm2

Allowable shear stress = 45 N/mm2
Allowable crushing stress = 150 N / mm2
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Thickness of eye = 1.5 Pin diameter

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Total fork thickness = eye thickness

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T.E.SEM VI - MD-I 9
(b) A bracket is riveted to a 200 mm 50 kN 8

column by 6 rivets of equal size
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as shown in figure. It carries a
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load of 50 kN at a distance
of 200mm from the centre of 75 mm
the column. If the maximum
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shear stress in the rivet is
limited to 150 MPa.,
determine the diameter of 75 mm
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the rivet.
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50 mm 50 mm
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3. (a) An open S link made of plain carbon steel 7
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55C8 (Syt = 399 N/mm2) is shown in figure. Calculate the 4d
dimensions of the link, if the factor of safety is 6.
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A A 900 N
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8d
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B B
900 N
4d
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(b) A Machine press screw as shown in figure is subjected to an

axial force of 40 kN. Overhang of horizontal member of frame
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unit
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4t B B
is 400 mm and height of screw is 500 mm.
6t X X
(i) Select the suitable material and stresses for screw, nut and
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frame. (ii) Design screw and nut, (iii) Check the screw A A
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for buckling failure. (iv) Determine the dimensions of cross- 400
section of horizontal member of frame.
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500
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SETSQUARE ACADEMY 10
4. (a) A 50 mm diameter solid shaft is welded to a flat plate as 10

shown in figure. If the size of the weld is 15 mm, find the 10 kN
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maximum normal and shear stress in the weld. 200 mm
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50 mm
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(b) The most critical point of component made of steel C40 is subjected to the following variable stresses. 10
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Determine the factor of safety based on Soderberg criteron Octahedral shear stress theory.
x varies from +12 to 10 N/mm2 y varies from +14 to +6 N/mm2 and
xy varies from +10 to 10 N/mm2
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Determine the factor of safety based on Soderberg criterion and Octahedral shear theory.
5. (a) Design the hollow shaft from the strength and rigidity considerations with following data: 12
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Power to be transmitted = 50 kW at 1440 r.p.m.

Ratio of inner to outer diameter = 0.5
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Overhang = 250 mm
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Bending load = 18 kN
Permissible angle of twist = 0.5
Select suitable material.
(b) A 16 10 mm2 cross section parallel key is to be used to transmit 55 kW power at 1440 r.p.m. from 8
a shaft of 40 mm diameter. The key is made of plain carbon steel with yield strength of 300 N/mm2.
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If the required safety margin is 3, determine the key length.
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6. (a)
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A helical compression spring is subjected to a load varying from zero to a maximum of a 9 kN with
corresponding deflection of 90 mm. Considering average service with and spring steel having ultimate
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tensile stress, Sut = 2000/d0.16 N/mm2 and G = 80 103 N/mm2, determine:
(i) wire diameter and mean coil diameter; (ii) total number of coil;
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(iii) free length, pitch and helix angle; and (iv) check for solid stress.
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(b) A semi-elliptic leaf spring consists of two extra full length leaves and eight graduated leaves, including
the master leaf. The centre to centre distance between the two eyes of the spring is 1.1m. The maximum
force acting on the spring is 12 kN and the Width of each leaf is 60 mm. The spring is pre-stressed so
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as to equalize stresses in all leaves. If the stress induced corresponding to maximum load is equal to
350 N/mm2 and modulus of elasticity of leaf spring is 200 GPa. Determine:
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(i) The thickness of leaves; 4

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(ii) The deflection of spring at maximum load; and 3

(iii) The initial nip. 3
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T.E.SEM VI - MD-I 11
DECEMBER 2016
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(2) Solve any three questions from the remaining five questions.
(3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
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(4) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
(5) Use of design data book is permitted.
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1. Solve any four questions from following.
(a) What are the three different modes of failures of mechanical component? 5
(b) What is self locking and overhauling in screw jack? 5
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(c) What are the assumptions made in design of weld joint? 5
(d) What are the different types of coupling? 5
(e) What are the different types of springs? What are their different materials? 5
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2. (a) A knuckle joint subjected to an axial pull of 80 KN. Select suitable material and design and draw the 16
joint.
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(b) What is cotter? Why taper is provided on the cotter? 4

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3. (a) A C-clamp is subjected to a clamping force of 4 KN. Maximum distance between jaws is 30 mm. 16
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Distance between screw axis and frame axis is 100 mm.
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(i) Select appropriate materials and stresses for screw, nut and frame.
(ii) Design screw and nut.
(iii) Check screw for buckling failure.
(iv) Determine dimensions of cross section of frame.
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(b) Discuss on various types of threads used for power screw. 4
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4. (a)
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Design a flexible coupling of pin bush type construction for connecting a reduction gear shaft to a
stone crusher shaft. The unit is driven by 30 KW, 720 rpm motor through 5:1 reduction.
Choose suitable material and their design stresses for the parts of coupling.
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(b) A steel plate subjected to a force of 5kN and fixed to a channel P = 5kN 10
by means of three identical bolts, as shown. The bolts are
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1 2 3
made of plain carbon steel 45C8 and the factor of safety is 3.
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Find the size of the bolts.

200mm
30 75 75 30
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All dimensions are in mm

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5. (a) Design the hollow shaft from the strength and rigidity consideration with the following data: 12
(i) Power to be transmitted = 60 KW at 1440 r.p.m.
(ii) Ratio of inner to outer diameter = 0.5
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(iii) Overhang = 250 mm

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(iv) Bending load = 20 KN

(v) Permissible angle of twist = 0.5
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Select suitable material.

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(b) What is stress concentration? What are the various causes of stress concentration? Discuss the various 8
methods to reduce the effect of stress concentration.
6. (a) A helical compression spring is subjected to a load varying from zero to maximum of 9 KN, with 12
corresponding deflection of 90 mm. Considering average service and spring steel having ultimate
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tensile strength u = 2000/d0.16 N/mm2, where d is diameter of spring wire in mm and
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G = 80000 N/mm2. Determine
(i) Write diameter and coil diameter. (ii) Total numbers of coil
(iii) Free length, pitch and helix angle, (iv) Check for solid stress
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(b) Explain neeping of the leaf spring with neat sketch. 4
(c) Discuss the materials and practical applications for the various types of springs. 4
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T.E.SEM VI - MV 13
MECHANICAL VIBRATION
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MAY 2015
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JP-Con.10218-15 (REVISED COURSE) QP Code : 4995
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(2) Answer any three questions from remaining five.
(3) Assume suitable data if required.
(4) Answer to questions showed be poupsed and written together.
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1. Answer any four of the following: 20
(a) A spring-mass system has a natural period of 0.25 second. What will be the new period of the Spring
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constant is : (i) increased by 60% and (ii) decreased by 30%?
(b) A viscously damped spring-mass-damper systems has mass of 10 kg, damping coefficient of
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150 N-s/m,and spring stiffness of 1000 N/m. Determine the values of the damping ratio, damped
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natural frequency logarithmic Decrement
(c) Two masses of 1kg each are inter connected by a spring of stiffness 10 N/m. Estimate the natural
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frequencies and draw their corresponding mode shapes.

(d) A mass is suspended from a spring of stiffness 5000 N/m and is subjected to a harmonic force of
amplitude 100 N and a frequency of 10Hz. The amplitude of the forced motion of the mass is found
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to be 20 mm. Find value of the mass.
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(e) Explain with a neat sketch, the principle of vibration measuring instruments.
(f) A rotating unbalance system consists of a disc of mass 2 kg. which is eccentric to the axis of shaft by
2mm. Adding two counter masses of 1 kg, each at an axial distance of 1cm. and 2 cm. respectively
from either side of the disc, the system is completely balanced. Find the radial location of the counter
masses if all the masses lie in the same axial plane.
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2. (a) The block Shown has a mass M and slides over two rollers x(t) 10
having mass m and radius r each. The stiffness of the spring is
k. The second roller is pivoted to a light and stiff rod which is
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connected to the block at the other end. It the block has a
harmonic motion x(t), determine the system's undamped natural
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frequency.
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(b) Show that the inertia effect of a shaft of mass moment of inertia Js can be taken into effect by adding 5
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1/3rd of its value to the mass moment of inertia of the disc J fitted at its end, in order to compute the
natural frequency of the system.
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(c) Define Whirling Speed. Derive the equation for the critical speed of a light shaft with a single disc 5
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without damping.
3. (a) Explain with a neat sketch, the effect of forcing frequency and damping factor on Displacement 4
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Transmissibility.
(b) An instrument with mass 13 kg is to be isolated from aircraft engine vibrations ranging from 1,800 to 8
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2,300 cycles per minute. What should be the stiffness of an isolator for at least 65% isolation? Assume
SE
that the damping ratio is 0.045.

(c) Consider the wing vibration model as shown in the following figure. Using the vertical motion of point 8
attachment of the springs and the rotation of this point, determine the equations of motions using
Y
Lagrange's method. G indicates the centre of mass and e denotes the distance between the point of
EM
Y
rotation and centre of mass. Ignore the gravitational force.
t
EM
AD
k1
k2
AC
G
(t)
e
D
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x(t)
(a) (b)
4. (a) Determine the frequency of transverse vibration of the beam shown in figure below using Dunkerley's 10
UA
CA
and Rayleigh's energy methods. Deflection at A: due to 1000 N at A = 1.52mm, due to 1000 N at
B = 1.37 mm. 1000 N 1000 N
SQ
A B
22 cm 22 cm
T
EA
(b) Derive the equivalent system 10
SE
2k
parameters for the following
figure, taking x as the L
generalized coordinate. 3
Y
AR
Slender bar
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L of mass m
x
3
c
r
AD
Rigid
k
massless
L Thin disk of
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link
3 mass m no slip
AC
5. (a) A 2 kg mass connected to a spring of stiffness 1 kN/m has a dry sliding friction force of 2 N. As the 5
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mass oscillates, its amplitude decreases 22cm, How long does this take?
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(b) Explain why only a part of the unbalance force in reciprocating mass is balanced by revolving mass. 5
UA
Derive the resultant unbalance primary force if c% balancing is achieved.

(c) An accelerometer with mass 0.01 kg and a damping ratio 0.707 is to be designed. What should be 10
undamped natural frequency of the system so that the measurement error never exceeds 2%? The
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vibration signal, which is to be measured,can have a frequency as high as 200Hz.

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6. (a) The natural frequency and the damping ratio of a vibrometer are 6 Hz and 0.22 Hz, respectively. 10
T
What is range of frequencies for the measurement error to be below 3%?

SE
(b) Four pulleys are equally spaced along a shaft and each has an out of balance mass at the same radius. 10
The out of balance mass in second pulley is 3 kg and the third and fourth out of balance masses are at
75 and 200 to it. Determine the masses in the first, third and fourth pulleys and also-the angle of the
first mass relative to second if complete balance is to be obtained.
T.E.SEM VI - MV 15
DECEMBER 2015
Y
EM
Y
(2) Answer any Three questions from remaining Five
(3) Assume sutaible data wherever required, justify the same
AD
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(4) Answer to questions showed be grouped and written together
1. (a) Find the natural frequency of a half solid cylinder of a mass m O 10

AC
and radius r when it is displaced from
r
the equilibrium position and released as shown in Figure. G
RE
D
(b) Using Newton's second law of motion find the-natural K1 10
UA
CA
frequency of vibration of a spring mass system
arranged on an inclined plane as shown in Figure. m
K2
SQ
EA
SE
2. (a) A 35 kg block is attached to a spring of stiffness 1.7 105 N/m. Coefficient of friction between the 9
block and surface on which it slides is 0.11. The block is displaced 10 mm from equilibrium and
released (i) what is amplitude of motion at the end of first cycle? (ii) How many cycles of motion
occurs?
Y
(b) A rotor of mass moment of inertia 2.5 Kg. m2 is to be attached at the end of a 60 cm circular steel shaft 8
AR
EM
(G = 80 109 N/m2). What is the range of shaft diameters such that the torsional frequency of the
system is between 100 and 200 Hz.
(c) Explain the terms (i) Peak Amplitude (ii) Peak Frequency 3
AD
3. (a) All the natural frequency of the system shown in Figure, exist below 2 rad/sec. Find all the natural 14
QU
frequencies and draw mode shapes. m = 1kg, K= 1N/m

AC
K K K K K
m m m m
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(b) How is the critical speed of the shaft determined 6

TS
4. (a) How do you find the response of a viscously damped system under rotating unbalanced? 10
UA
(b) A machine of mass 50 Kg operates at 1200 rpm . Find the maximum stiffness of an isolator that
provides 75 percent isolation. Assume that damping ratio of the isolator is 7 percent.
SQ
5. (a) A spring mass damper system, having an undamped natural frequency of 100 Hz and a damping 10
SE
constant of 20 N-s/m, is used as an accelometer to measure the vibration of a machine operating at a

T
speed of 3000 rpm. If the actual acceleration is 10 m/s2 and the recorded acceleration is 9 m/s2, find
the mass and the spring constant of accelerometer.
SE
(b) Use Lagrange's equation to derive the differential equations governing the motion of the system, using 10
x1 and x2 as generalised coordinates. Assume the disc of mass m and radius r rolls without slip.
Y
x1 x2
EM
Y
K 2K
m
K a
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AD
AC
6. (a) Four pulleys are equally spaced along a shaft and each has an out of balance mass at the same radius. 10
D
RE
The out of balance mass in second pulley is 3 Kg and third and fourth out of balance masses are at
72 and 220 to it. Determine the masses in the first , third and fourth pulleys and also the angle of
the first mass relative to second. If the complete balance is to be obtained.
UA
CA
(b) Explain vibration based condition monitoring and fault diagnosis in rotating machine. 5
(c) explain the balancing of V- engine. 5
SQ
MAY 2016
T

EA
SE

(2) Answer any three questions from remaining questions.
Y
1. Attempt any 4 of the following:
AR
EM
(a) Briefly explain the steps involved in vibration analysis. 5
(b) Compare Viscous and Coulomb dampings. Mention at least 5 points of difference. 5
(c) Draw Displacement vs. Time plots for Overdamped, Critically-damped, Underdamped and 5
AD
Undamped cases, all superimposed to a common scale. Comment on the nature of time period of
oscillations for increasing values of damping.
QU
(d) Explain the meaning of Vibration isolation and Transmissibility. List at least 4 vibration isolation 5
AC
materials.
(e) Compare Vibrometer and Accelerometer on the basis of the following: parameters of measurement, 5
mass of device, natural frequency of device, practical applicability and error estimation.
(f) Explain why an unbalanced rotating mass on a shaft cannot be balanced completely by using a single 5
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balancing mass in a different transverse plane. What is the minimum number of balancing masses
TS
required if they are to be attached in different transverse planes, so that the system is completely
UA
balanced?
2. (a) Figure below shows a mass consisting of concentric attached k 10

SQ
cylinders. Derive the natural frequency of undamped free vibrations. m, J

SE
0
r
o
T
R
SE

T.E.SEM VI - MV 17
(b) One of the solution forms for free underdamped 1 d.o.f. vibration systems is given as: 5
0 t
Y
x(t) Ae sin( d t ) where displacement amplitude A and phase angle are unknown constants.
Given initial disturbances in the form of displacement x0 and velocity v0, derive the expressions for
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A and .
(c) Define whirling speed. Derive the equation for the critical speed of a light shaft with a single disc 5
without damping.
AD
EM
3. (a) Draw a plot of Magnification Factor versus Frequency Ratio curves for various Damping Factor 5
values. Write the expression consisting of the three parameters. State the conclusions that may be drawn
AC
from the plot.
(b) 40 N at 20 cm, 30 N at 40 cm and 20 N at 60 cm from the fixed end are the loading on a cantilever. 15
The deflection under 20 N due to all the loads is 5 mm. Find the natural frequency of the system.
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D
What would be the new frequency if 20 N is added at 20 cm from the fixed end? Also, compare the
new frequency obtained using Dunkerley's method.
UA
Note: The deflection at section i due to unit load at section j is given by-
CA
Si2 (3S j Si )
U ij for Si < Sj, Uij = Uji
SQ
Constant
4. (a) Using Lagrange's method, derive the equations of motion x 10

T
k1 k2
EA
for the following system. l m
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(b) An air-conditioner weighs 200 kg. and is driven by a motor at 500 r.p.m. What is the required static 10
deflection of an undamped isolator to achieve 80% isolation?
Y
AR
EM
5. (a) Find a single equivalent damping constant for the l3
10
following cases:
l2
(i) when three dampers are parallel
l1
AD
(ii) when three dampers are in series
(iii) when three dampers are connected to a
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Pivot
rigid bar (as shown in figure below) and x 1 C2 x 2 C x 3
C1
AC
3
the equivalent damper is at site c1.
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(b) A vibrometer having a natural frequency of 4 rad/s and damping ratio of 0.2 is attached to a structure 10
that performs a harmonic motion. If the difference between the maximum and minimum recorded
TS
values is 8 mm, find the amplitude of motion of the vibrating structure when its frequency is 40 rad/s.
UA
6. (a) A 10-kg mass is connected to a spring of stiffness 3,000 N/m and is released after giving an initial 10
displacement of 100 mm. Assuming that the mass moves on a horizontal dry surface, determine the
SQ
position at which the mass comes to rest. Assume the coefficient of friction between the mass and the
SE
surface to be 0.12.
T
(b) Investigate the state of primary and secondary balancing of four stroke cycle, four cylinder engine with 10
a firing order I-II-III-IV.
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DECEMBER 2016
Y
EM
Y
(2) Answer any three questions from remaining questions
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AD
1. Solve any Four:

AC
(a) A single DOF system consists of a mass of 20 kg and a spring of stiffness 4000 N/m. The amplitude 5
of successive cycles are found to be 50, 45, 40, 35,... mm. Determine the nature and magnitude of
damping force and frequency of damped vibrations.
D
RE
(b) For the system shown in Figure, the characteristic of the dashpot is such that 5
when constant force of 49 N is applied to the mass its velocity is found
245 H/m C
to be constant at 0.12 m/sec.
UA
CA
(a) Determine the value of C
(b) Would you expect the complete system to be periodic or aperiodic? 15 kg
SQ
(c) A vertical spring mass system has a mass of 0.5 kg and an Initial deflection of 0.2 cm. Find the spring 5
stiffness and natural frequency of the system.
T
(d) Prove that an undamped measuring Instrument will show a true response for frequency ratio 5
EA
SE
(/n) = 1/ 2 .
(e) Explain what do you mean by the term 'Critical Speed' of rotating shaft? Derive necessary formulae 5
for undamped system.
2. (a) Three rail bogies are connected by two springs of stiffness 40 105 N/m each as shown In Figure. 10
Y
AR
The mass of each bogey is 20 103 kg Determine the frequencies of vibration. Neglect friction
between the wheels and the rails.
x1 x2 x3 EM
AD
K K K
m m m
QU
AC
(b) The sphere of diameter D floats half submersed in water. If sphere is depressed slightly and released. 10
Determine the period of vibration. What is time period if D = 1m.
RE
3. (a) Derive the equivalent system parameters 2K 10

of the following Figure, taking x as the
TS
generalized coordinate. l/3

Slender bar
UA
of mass m
x C
l/3 r
SQ
SE
Rigid K
l/3 massless
Link Thin disc
T
of mass m
SE
(b) A 400 kg tumbler with a 0.45 kg-m rotating unbalance operates at speeds between 400 and 600 rpm. 10
If the tumbler is placed on an elastic foundation of stiffness 1 106 N/m and damping ratio 0.1, What
is the maximum steady state amplitude of the tumbler over its operating range? For what speeds will
steady state amplitude of the tumbler be less than 1.9 mm?
T.E.SEM VI - MV 19
4. (a) A vehicle has a mass of 1200 kg. The suspension system has a spring constant of400 kN/m and 10
damping ratio 0.5. If the vehicle speed is 100 km/hr, determine the displacement amplitude of vehicle.
Y
The road surface varies sinusoidally with an amplitude of 0.05 m and wavelength of 6m.
EM
Y
(b) An aircraft radio weighing 118N is to be isolated from engine vibrations ranging in frequency from 10
1600 to 2200 rpm. What static deflection must the isolator have for 85% isolation?
AD
EM
5. (a) A 12 cylinder aero engine drives an air screw through gearing. The air 14 screw runs at 0.6 times the 14
speed of the engine. The shaft from the engine to the pinion is 1000 mm and of 70 mm diameter. The
screw shaft is 650 mm long and 90 mm in diameter. The mass moment of inertia of engine and air
AC
screw are 0.5 kg-m2 and 15 kg-m2 respectively. Neglecting the inertia of gear and shafts, determine
the frequency of torsional vibrations. Also suggest suitable location of the gears to avoid adverse
effect of torsional vibrations. Assume modulus of rigidity 80 GN/m2.
RE
D
(b) Explain the balancing of v-engine. 6
6. (a) The reciprocating masses of first three cylinders of four cylinder engine are 4.1, 6.2 and 7.4 12
UA
CA
tonnes respectively. The Centre lines of three cylinders are 5.2 m, 3.2 m and 1.2m from the fourth
cylinder. If the cranks for all cylinder are equal, determine the reciprocating mass of 4th cylinder and
angular position of crank such that the system is completely balanced for the primary force and couple.
SQ
If the crank radius 80 cm, connecting rod 3.8 m, and speed of engine 75 rpm, find the maximum
unbalanced secondary force and crank angle at which it occurs.
T
(b) Find out natural frequency of system shown in Figure, x1 x2 8

EA
K
SE
m1 = 10 kg, m2 = 15 kg and k = 320 N/m by Lagrange's

m1 m2
equation.
Y
AR
EM
AD
QU
AC
RE
TS
UA
SQ
SE
T
SE
THERMAL AND FLUID POWER ENGINEERING
Y
MAY 2015
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Y
JP-Con.:11001 (REVISED COURSE) QP Code : 4998
N.B. : (1) Question no. 1 is compulsory.
EM
AD
(2) Attempt any THREE from question no. 2 to 6.
(3) Use of steam table is permitted.
AC
1. Solve any Four 20
(a) What is meant by Jet Propulsion? Explain.
(b) Write a short note on: Classification of water turbine.
AD
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(c) Explain briefly the governing system of a Kaplan turbine.

(d) Differentiate water tube boilers with fire tube boilers.
UA
(e) With neat sketch explain the working of closed cycle gas turbine plant.
2. (a) Explain the working of a Once through boiler with the help of a neat sketch. 8
SQ
(b) A 4500 kW gas turbine generating set operates with two compressors stages; the overall pressure 12
AC
ratio is 9:1. A high pressure turbine is used to drive the compressors, and a low pressure turbine
drives the generator. The temperature of the gases at entry to the high pressure turbine is 625C and
T
the gases are reheated to 625C after expansion in the first turbine. The exhaust gases leaving the low
SE
pressure turbine are passed through a heat exchanger to heat air leaving the high pressure stage
compressor. The compressors have equal pressure ratios and inter-cooling is complete between the
stages. The air inlet temperature to the unit is 20C. The isentropic efficiency of each compressor stage
RE
is 0.8 and the isentropic efficiency of each turbine stage is 0.85, the heat exchanger thermal ratio is
0.8. A mechanical efficiency of 95 % can be assumed for both the power shaft and compressor turbine
Y
shaft. Neglecting all pressure losses and changes in kinetic energy calculate:
EM
(i) the thermal efficiency (ii) work ratio of the plant (iii) the mass flow in kg/s
Neglect the mass of the fuel and assume the following: Cp = 1.005 kJ/kg K, and = 1.4
UA
AD
3. (a) Derive the expression for the condition for maximum blade efficiency in Parson's reaction turbine. 10
(b) A boiler generates 7.5 kg of steam per kg of coal burnt at a pressure of 11 bar, from feed water
having a temperature of 70C. The efficiency of the boiler is 75 % and factor of evaporation is 1.15,
AC
specific heat of steam at constant pressure is 2.3 kJ/kg K. Calculate:

(i) Degree of superheat and temperature of steam generated;
Q
(ii) Calorific value of coal in kJ/kg (iii) Equivalent evaporation in kg of steam per kg of coal
RE
4. (a) Obtain the expression for the force exerted by a jet of water on a fixed curved plate when jet strikes 4
TS
at the center of a symmetrical curved plate.

UA
(b) Explain the function of following in Reaction water turbine: 6

(i) Guide vane (ii) Scroll casing (iii) Draft tube
(c) A single stage steam turbine is supplied with steam at 5 bar, 200C at the rate of 50 kg/min. It expands 10
SQ
into a condenser at a pressure of 0.2 bar. The blade speed is 400 m/s. The nozzles are inclined at an
SE
angle of 20 to the plane of the wheel and the outlet blade angle is 30. Neglecting friction losses,
T
determine power developed, blade efficiency and stage efficiency.

SE
5. (a) Discuss and explain: Methods to improve efficiency of a gas turbine. 6

T.E.SEM VI - TFPE 21
(b) The three jet Pelton turbine is required to generate 10,000 kW under a net head of 400 m. The blade 10
angle at outlet is 15 and the reduction in the relative velocity while passing over the blade is 5 %. If the
Y
overall efficiency of tho wheel is 80 %, Cv = 0.98 and speed ratio = 0.46, then find: (i) the diameter of
EM
Y
the jet, (ii) total flow in m3/s and (iii) the force exerted by a jet on the buckets.
(c) What are the effects of friction in a nozzle? Define nozzle efficiency, coefficient of velocity. 4
AD
EM
6. (a) Explain the working of a turboprop engine by means of a sketch. What are its advantages, limitations 10
and applications?
(b) In a hydroelectric generating plant, there are four similar turbines of total output 220 MW. Each turbine 6
AC
is 90 %, efficient and runs at 100 rpm under a head of 65 m. It is proposed to test the model of the
above turbine in a flume where a discharge is 0.4 m3/s under a head of 4 m. Determine the size (scale
ratio) of the model. Also calculate the model speed and power results expected from the model.
RE
AD
(c) Write a short note on boiler mountings. 4
DECEMBER 2015
UA
MD-Con.:10375-15 (REVISED COURSE) QP Code : 6381

SQ

AC
T
SE
1. Solve any Five 20

(a) Give differences between ram jet and pulse jet.
(b) Explain the function of draft tube with neat diagram.
RE
(c) What are the limitations of pelton wheel turbine?

(d) Define the following terms for a turbine:
Y
(i) Stage efficiency (ii) Blade efficiency
EM
(e) Differentiate between high pressure and low pressure boilers.
(f) Make a list of any five boiler mountings and write down their functions.
UA
AD
2. (a) Derive the expression for the force exerted by a jet of water of velocity V and area A on a plate when: 8
(i) Plate is vertical (ii) Plate is inclined at .
(b) The following data was recorded during a test performed on a boiler, economizer and a superheater. 12
AC
Steam generated = 5000 kg/hr at 14 bar pressure; Mass of coal burnt = 660 kg/hr; Calorific value of
coal = 29500 kJ/kg; Temperature of feed water at entry and exit of economizer = 30C and 130C
Q
resp.; Temperature of steam leaving the superheater = 320C; Dryness fraction of steam leaving the
RE
boiler = 0.95; Cp (superheated steam) = 2.3 kJ/kg K; Cp (water) = 4.18 kJ/kg K. Calculate
(i) Factor of evaporation (ii) Overall efficiency of the plant
TS
(iii) The percentage of available heat utilized in the boiler, economizer and superheater. Hence
UA
determine percentage of heat lost.
3. (a) With neat sketch explain the working of closed cycle gas turbine plant and discuss the advantages of 8
SQ
closed cycle over open cycle gas turbine plant.

SE
(b) The following particulars refer to a single row impulse turbine: 8

Mean diameter of blade ring = 2.5 m; speed = 3000 rpm; nozzle angel = 20; ratio of blade velocity to
T
steam velocity = 0.4; blade friction factor = 0.8; blade angle at exit = 3 less than that at inlet; steam
SE
flow = 36,000 kg/hr. Draw velocity diagram for moving blade and estimate (i) power developed;
(ii) blade efficiency; and (iii) steam consumption in kg/kW hr.
(c) With neat sketch explain the principle of operation of Turbofan engine. 4
4. (a) Derive the expression for Maximum discharge through steam nozzle. 6
(b) A gas turbine unit receives air at 100 kPa and 300 K and compresses it adiabatically to 620 kPa with 10
Y
efficiency of the compressor 88 %. The fuel has heating value of 44180 kJ/kg and the fuel/air ratio is
EM
Y
0.017 kg fuel/kg air. The turbine internal efficiency is 90 %. Calculate the compressor work, turbine
work and thermal efficiency.
(c) Draw general layout of a reaction turbine plant and explain various heads on turbine. 4
EM
5. (a)
(b) AD
Explain the working of any one type of high pressure boiler with the help of neat sketch.
A single jet pelton turbine operates a 10,000 kW generator. The generator efficiency is 92%, turbine 12
8
AC
efficiency is 86%, turbine head is 350 m, coefficient of nozzle velocity is 0.98, speed ratio is 0.46 and
jet ratio is approximately 12 Find the size of jet, mean diameter of runner, synchronous speed, specific
speed of turbine and bucket dimensions.
AD
RE
6. (a) Explain turbojet engine with neat diagram. What are the advantages & disadvantages of turbojet engine?10
(b) The nozzles of an impulse turbine are supplied with superheated steam at 10 bar, 250C. The steam 10
UA
leaves the nozzles at a pressure of 1.0 bar. The steam consumption for the turbine is 16 kg/kW hr
when it develops 225 kW. If the throat diameter is 0.8 cm, determine the number of nozzles required
and exit diameter of the nozzle, assuming that the 10% of the total heat drop is lost in overcoming the
SQ
AC
friction in the divergent portion only. Neglect the velocity of approach.
T
MAY 2016
SE

RE

Y
1. Solve any four: 20
(a) What is the function of blow off cock? Where is it located?
EM
UA
(b) What are the functions of guide vanes in water reaction turbine?
(c) What is cavitation and what are its causes? How will you prevent the cavitation in hydraulic machine?
AD
(d) State the fundamental differences between jet propulsion and rocket propulsion.
(e) Define and explain degree of reaction as applied to steam reaction turbine.
AC
2. (a) Sketch and explain velocity compounded impulse steam turbine showing pressure and velocity along 8
Q
the axis.
(b) In a gas turbine plant, the pressure ratio, through which air at 15C is compressed, is 6. The same air 12
RE
is then heated to a maximum permissible temperature of 750C first in a heat exchanger which is 75%
TS
efficient, and then in the combustion chamber. The same air at 750C is expanded in two stages such
UA
that expansion work is maximum. The air is reheated to 750C after the first state. Determine the cycle
thermal efficiency, the work ratio and the net shaft work per kg of air. The efficiencies may be assumed
to be 80% and 85% for the compressor and turbine respectively.
SQ
SE
3. (a) What are high pressure boilers and how do they differ in construction and working from ordinary 8
boilers?
T
(b) A Pelton wheel is to be designed for a head of 60 m when running at 200 rpm. The Pelton wheel 8
SE
develops 95.6 kW shaft power. The velocity of the buckets = 0.45 times the velocity of the jet,
overall efficiency = 0.85 and co-efficient of the velocity is equal to 0.98. Calculate diameter of jet,
diameter of wheel and number of buckets on the wheel.
(c) Compare the constructional features and operating performance of turboprop and turbojet engines. 4
T.E.SEM VI - TFPE 23
4. (a) Prove that for a Brayton cycle gas turbine optimum pressure ratio for maximum work output is given 6
Y

T 2( 1)
by rp max
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Tmin
(b) The following data was recorded during a trial on steam boiler: 6
Pressure of steam = 12 bar, mass of feed water = 4500 kg/hr, temperature of feed water = 75C,
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EM
dryness fraction of steam = 0.96, coal used = 490 kg/hr, calorific value of coal = 35700 kJ/kg,
ash and unburnt coal collected in ash pit = 2% by mass, moisture in coal = 4% by mas, calorific value
AC
of ash and unburnt coal = 13500 kJ/kg, mass of dry flue gases = 18.57 kg/kg of coal, temperature of
flue gases = 300C, boiler house temperature = 16C, specific heat of flue gases = 0 97 kJ/kg K.
Draw the heat balance sheet of the boiler per kg of coal consisting of heat utilized to generate steam,
heat carried away by dry tlue gases, heat lost in ash and unburnt coal and unaccounted heat losses.
RE
AD
(c) Steam is expanded in a set nozzles from 10 bar and 200C to 1.5 bar. Are the nozzles convergent or 8
convergent-divergent? Find the minimum area of the nozzles to flow 2 kg/s of steam. Assume the
UA
expansion of steam is isentropic. The heat loss from the nozzle is 17 kJ/kg of steam flow. Take
coefficient of discharge as 0.98. Velocity at inlet, throat and exit are 90, 480 and 550 m/s respectively.
Calculate the dryness fraction and the area at exit.
SQ
5. (a)
AC
Obtain an expression for the work done per second by water on the runner of a Pelton wheel. Hence 10
derive an expression for maximum efficiency of the Pelton wheel.
T
(b) At a stage in a reaction turbine, the mean blade ring diameter is 1 m and turbine runs at 500 rpm. The 10
SE
blades are designed for 50% reaction with exit angle 30 and inlet angle 50. The turbine is supplied
with steam at the rate of 60,000 kg/hr and stage efficiency is 85% Determine power output, specific
enthalpy drop in the stage in kJ/kg and percentage increase in relative velocity.
RE
6. (a) Explain the construction and working of a Ramjet engine. 8
Y
(b) Define unit quantities: Unit speed, Unit power and Unit discharge 6
EM
(c) Differentiate between Kaplan and Propeller turbines, radial and axial flow turbines? 6
UA
DECEMBER 2016
AD
AC
(2) Answer any three questions from remaining questions

Q

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1. Solve any five 20

TS
(a) Explain the principle of working of an impulse turbine.

UA
(b) How are hydraulic turbine classified

(c) Define specific speed and state its significance.
(d) How is a gas turbine plant modeled as air standard Brayton cycle? Write the assumptions clearly.
SQ
(e) What is the role of fusible plug in Boiler?

SE
(f) Explain working of turbojet Engine?

T
2. (a) Explain the construction and working of Babcock Wilcox boiler. 8

SE
(b) The nozzles of a turbine are supplied with saturated steam at 10 bar, 523K. The steam leaves the 12
nozzle at a pressure of 1.0 bar. Tne steam consumption for turbine is 16 kg/kWh, when it develops
225 kW. If the throat diameter is 0.8 cm, determine the number of nozzle required and exit diameter of
nozzles, assuming that 10% of the total heat drop is lost in overcoming the friction in the divergent part
only. Neglect the velocity of approach
3. (a) The following observations were made on a boiler plant during one hour test: Steam Pressure = 20 bar 10
Steam Temperature = 260C Steam generated = 37500 Kg Temperature of water entering the
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economizer = 15C Temperature of water leaving the economizer = 90C Fuel used = 4400 Kg
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Calorific value of fuel = 33000 KJ / Kg Calculate:
(i) The equivalent evaporation per kg of fuel it
(ii) Thermal efficiency of plant
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AD
(iii) The percentage heat energy of the fuel energy utilized by the economiser
(b) A pelton wheel is receiving water from a penstock with a gross head of 510 m. One third of gross 10
head is lost in friction in the penstock. The rate of flow through the nozzle fitted at the end of the
AC
penstock is 2.2 m3/s. The angle of deflection of the jet is 165. Determine:
(i) The power given by water to the runner,
(ii) Hydraulic efficiency of the Pelton wheel. Take Cv = 1.0 and speed ratio = 0.45
AD
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4. (a) Parson reaction turbine running at 400 rpm with 50% reaction develops 75 kW per kg of the steam. 10
The exit angle of the blade is 20 and the steam velocity is 1.4 times the blade velocity. Determine
UA
blade velocity and blade inlet angle,

(b) Derive an expression for maximum hydraulic efficiency of a pelton wheel. 10
SQ
5. (a)
AC
A hydro-turbine is required to give 25 MW at 50 m head 90 r.p.m. runner speed. The laboratory 10
facilities available, permit testing of 20 kW model at 5 m head. What should be the model runner
T
speed and model to prototype scale ratio?

(b) In a gas turbine plant the intake pressure and temperature are 1 bar and 18C respectively. The air is 10
SE
compressed to the pressure of 4.1 bar by a compressor, whose isentropic efficiency is 80%. The
temperature of the gas, whose properties may assumed to resemble with those of air, is raised to
RE
645C in the combustion chamber where there is a pressure drop of 0.1 bar. Expansion to
atmospheric pressure then occurs. If the thermal efficiency of the plant is to be 19%, what must be
Y
the isentropic efficiency of turbine? The mass of the fuel may be neglected.
6. Solve any four

EM 20
UA
(a) Distinguish between water tube boiler and Fire tube boiler.
(b) What is cavitation? How can it be avoided in reaction turbine
AD
(c) Write merits and demerits of Gas turbine.
(d) Explain the working of reheat gas turbine plant with the help of a T-s diagram.
AC
(e) Draw the velocity triangle for 50% reaction turbine and write the expression for maximum work done
and blade efficiency.
Q
RE
TS
UA
SQ
SE
T
SE
T.E.SEM VI - MTRX 25
MECHATRONICS
Y
MAY 2015
EM
Y
AD
EM
(2) Attempt any three questions out of remaining five questions.
AC
1. Solve any four 20
(a) Define mechatronics and explain factory automation, home and office automation with examples.
(b) Distinguish between pneumatic, hydraulic and electrical actuators with its applications.
RE
D
(c) Describe the principle of operation of a D.C. motor.
(d) Explain in brief various elements of CNC machine.
UA
(e) What is voice coil actuator?
CA
(f) Explain Universal Asynchronous Receiver and Transmitter (UART).
SQ
2. (a) How heat dissipation in DC motor is influenced by velocity profile and coupling ratio. 8
(b) Two double acting hydraulic cylinders A and B are selected for an industrial application. Draw electro 12
electrohydraulic circuit for the sequence of operation (A+B+ delay B A) using 4/3 way double
T
EA
solenoid as the final directional control valve.
SE
3. (a) Describe possible speed control strategies of A.C. Induction motors. 8

(b) Discuss on voltage-torque characteristics of D.C. motor. 8
(c) Explain Autonomous Mobile Robot with its applications. 4
Y
AR
4. (a) Explain data acquisition system and supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA). 8
EM
(b) A Process tank shown in Figure is sequenced to V1 (Solenoid 12
mix liquid fertilizer according to following operated water valve)
sequence of operation. (i) A start push button is Motor
AD
pressed to start the operation and V1 is being Level
operated to open in order to fill tank up to a switch A
QU
preset level sensed by level switch A. (ii) As the

AC
Level
tank fills, a level switch A closes NO contact to switch B V2 (Solenoid
energize the stirrer motor to start automatically operated
water valve)
and operate for 5 sec to mix the fluid, (iii) When
RE
stirrer motor stops, the solenoid operated water valve V2 is energized to empty the tank, (iv) When
tank is completely empty, the level switch B opens and de-energizes solenoid operated water valve
TS
V2 (v) A Stop button is pressed to stop operation. Draw PLC ladder diagram to achieve the above
UA
sequence of operation.
5. (a) What is the difference between parallel and series interface. 4

SQ
SE
(b) How data loggers are used in data acquisition system. 4

(c) Two double acting cylinders A and B are selected for industrial automation. 12
T
The motion of sequence A + B +(rapid approach) B+(slow feed) B A Draw Pneumatic circuit
SE
diagram and step displacement diagram. Select 5/2 way final directional control valves.
6. (a) Explain the basic principle of piezoelectric drives and give its applications. 8
(b) Explain the working principle of stepper motor and describe its various types along with its 12
applications.
DECEMBER 2015
Y
EM
Y
N.B. : (1) Question No.l is compulsory.
(2) Attempt any three questions out of remaining five questions.
(3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
EM
AD
1. Solve any four 20

AC
(a) With a neat block diagram explain the architecture of a mechatronics system.
(b) Distinguish between pneumatic, hydraulic and electrical actuators with its applications.
(c) Describe the principle of operation of a D.C. motor.
D
RE
(d) Explain Autonomous Mobile Robot with its applications.

(e) With a neat sketch explain working principle of comb drive actuator.
(f) What is the difference between parallel and series interface.
UA
CA
2. (a) How heat dissipation in DC motor is influenced by velocity profile and coupling ratio. 8
(b) Two double acting cylinders A and B are selected for an industrial application. Draw electro 12
SQ
pneumatic circuit for the sequence of operation (A+B+B delay A) using 4/3 way double solenoid as
the final directional control valve.
T
EA
SE
3. (a) Describe possible speed control strategies of A.C. Induction motors. 10

(b) With neat sketch explain the constructional feature and working of relief valve used in hydraulic system 5
(c) Explain in brief various elements of CNC machine. 5
4. (a) Explain Universal Asynchronous. Receiver and Transmitter (UART). 4
Y
(b) With neat diagram illustrate the working of Filter-Regulator-Lubricator (FRL) unit in a pneumatic system. 4
AR
(c) Explain the working principle of stepper motor & describe its various types along with its applications. 12
5. (a)
(b)
EM
Explain data acquisition system and supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA).
Two double acting cylinders A and B are selected for industrial automation. The motion of sequence
8
12
AD
(AB)+ B+ A Draw Pneumatic circuit diagram and step displacement diagram. Select 5/2 way final
QU
directional control valves, Note that Cylinders A and B are moving simultaneously for the forward stroke.
AC
6. (a) Explain impedance matching for a part of electromechancial system that consists of transmission of 8
power using motor-gear drive system.
(b) A fluid mixer is used to mix two fluids with a vibrating 12
RE
machine, as per the machine sketch shown in Figure. Fluid mixed

TS
The vibration machine is operated by a double acting

UA
pneumatic cylinder. The double acting cylinder is

extended initially and when a pushbutton is pressed, the Base plate
mixer mounted on a vibrating table moves down Piston
SQ
completely by retracting the cylinder and then executes

SE
an up and down motion between the retracted position

and the center position of the cylinder. The vibrating
T
5/2 double
time is adjusted for 10s; after that the cylinder is switched solenoid valve
SE
OFF automatically. Three electrical limit switches, one Y1 Y2

at the center of cylinder position and other two at end
positions, are used to control the strokes. Draw PLC
ladder diagram to achieve the above sequence of operation.
MAY 2016
Y
EM
Y
N.B.: (1) Question No.1 is compulsory
(2) Attempt any three questions out of remaining five questions
(3) Figures to right indicate full marks
AD
EM
(4) Assume suitable data if necessary.
(5) Notations carry usual meaning.
AC
1. (a) Explain Universal Asynchronous Receiver and Transmitter (UART) 5
(b) With a neat block diagram explain the architecture of a mechatronic system. 5
(c) Write short note on supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) 5
RE
D
(d) Write short notes on (i) Harmonic drive (ii) Data loggers 5
2. (a) With neat sketch explain the constructional feature and working of pressure relief valve used in 5
UA
CA
hydraulic system
(b) Explain the central theme of velocity profile optimization of DC motor. 5
(c) Explain with neat sketch principle of operation of AC induction motor. 10
SQ
3. (a) Two double acting pneumatic cylinders A, B are selected for an industrial application. The sequence of 12
T
movement for piston of the cylinder is proposed as below

EA
SE
A+ Delay B+ Delay (AB)

Develop the electropneumatic circuit using 5/2 double solenoid as final directional control valves. The
piston motions mentioned in bracket is simultaneous.
(b) Explain impedance matching for a part of electromechancial system that consists of transmission of 8
power using motor-gear drive system.
Y
AR
4. (a) Explain input and output components (typically sensors, actuators and motors) used in Wireless 10
(b)
Surveillance Balloon
EM
With neat diagrams illustrate the working of Filter-Regulator Lubricator (FRL) unit in a pneumatic
system
5
AD
(c) Explain with neat sketch working principle of DC motor 5
QU
AC
5. (a) With schematic representation explain the mechatronic system typically used in robot for firefighting 10
application (typically highlight the selection of motor, sensors and switches. Also discuss their
interfacing.
(b) Describe possible speed control strategies of A.C. Induction motors. 5
RE
(c) Write a short note on servo amplifier for DC motors 5

TS
UA
SQ
SE
T
SE
6. (a) A process control system illustrated in Control valve 10

Figure is used to fill the bottle and
Y
convey the same. The outlet valve is
EM
Y
opened to fill the bottle as when the L1 Controller
limit switch senses the presence of the
bottle and is closed automatically when
L2 Set point
EM
AD
the photosensor produces the signal as
when the bottle is filled. The level of
water in the tank is maintained through outlet Valve Photosensor
AC
a control valve. Develop a PLC ladder
logic diagram for this control
application.
D
RE
UA
CA
Limit switch
Conveyor Motor
SQ
(b) Write short note on (i) Piezoelectric drive (ii) Voice-coil actuator 10
T
DECEMBER 2016
EA
SE

(2) Attempt any THREE questions from remaining
(3) All questions carry equal marks.
Y
(4) Answer to each new question should be started on a fresh page.
AR
(5) Figure in brackets on the right hand side indicate full marks.
1.
(6)
(a)
Assume suitable data if necessary.
Witha block diagram explain a Mechatronics Design process.

EM 4
AD
(b) Explain Inertia matching with a sketch. 4
QU
(c) Explain procedure for selection of actuator. 4

AC
(d) Explain procedure for Cantilever beam vibration control using piezo sensors. 4
(e) Draw properly labeled sketch of a torque development process in three phase motor and explain. 4
2. (a) Explain heat dissipation in DC motor and Derive an equation for thermal modeling in DC motor. 10
RE
(b) Explain Piezoelectric drives with neat sketch. State its applications. 10
TS
UA
3. (a) Two double acting pneumatic cylinders A, B are selected for an industrial application. The sequence of 10
movement for cylinder is as indicated below -
(AB)+ Delay (5sec) (AB)
SQ
Draw the electropneumatic circuit using 5/2 double solenoid as final directional control valves.
SE
(b) Explain with diagram procedure for interfacing motor drive with microcomputer system. 10
T
4. (a) Explain Stepper motor performance characteristics with neat sketch. 10

SE
(b) Explain with a block diagram Multichannel Data Acquisition systems (DAQs). State its benefits. 10
5. (a) Write PLC ladder logic diagram as per the operational sequence given below figure. 10
Y
Valve Hydraulic lid press
EM
Y
8 7 6
AD
EM
5
9 4
Paint 10 3
1 2
Robot
AC
Rotary table
RE
D
Outgoing
conveyor
UA
CA
Input
conveyor
An explanation of the operational sequence is as follows:
SQ
Step 1: The sequence begins by pressing the start button I:1/1 in rung 0. As output O:2/0 becomes
energized, the rung becomes latched and corresponding contacts in rungs 1,3,5, 6, and 9 close. The
T
system becomes de-energized by pressing the stop button 1:1/0 in rung 0.

EA
Step 2: The closure of the start button also causes rung 1 to latch. By energizing output O:2/1 in rung 1,
SE
both conveyor belts begin running. When an empty can from the input conveyor enters the slot in
position 1, it activates a limit switch that turns rung 2 True. As the output of rung 2 energizes, it creates a
False condition at Examine- Off contact O:2/2, rung 1 unlatches, and the conveyor belts stop. Rung 3 is
now in the True condition.
Y
Step 3: When rung 3 becomes True, its output causes a valve to open and paint pours into an empty
AR
can at position 9. As the paint fills the can, a strain gauge measures the weight and sends a voltage,
EM
which is proportional to the weight of the paint, to an analog-to-digital module in the PLC. The A/D
converter module produces a proportional digital value at address 1:6.0. This digital value is compared
using the EQU instruction on rung 4. Source A of the EQU instruction is the weight of the paint and
AD
source B is the program constant of 128.
Step 4: When the paint can fills to 128 ounces, the values at source A and source B of the EQU
QU
instruction are the same, which energizes the rung and turns on B3/0. The corresponding Examine-Off
AC
(B3/0) on rung 3 becomes False and shuts off the valve. Also, the B3/0 contact on rung 6 energizes the
rung, causing a robotic arm to place a lid on the can. When sensor I:1/4 in rung 6 detects the placement
of the lid, it causes the rung to latch, starting a motor that rotates the table.
RE
Step 5: As the table and incremental encoder rotate, the up-counter C5:0 in rung 8 increments.
TS
After 72 pulses, the accumulator equals the preset value. The DN output of die counter then sets,
UA
causing the corresponding Examine-Off contact in rung 6 to become False. The result is that the rung
unlatches and the rotary motor stops.
(b) Draw a block diagram representing Car engine management system. 10
SQ
SE
6. Write Short Note on (ANY FOUR) 20

(a) Accumulator (b) Selection of a PLC system
T
(c) Fire fighting robot. (d) Comb drive

SE
(e) Mechatronics systems in factory and business applications

FINITE ELEMENT ANALYSIS
Y
MAY 2015
EM
Y
N.B. : (1) Question 1 is Compulsory
EM
AD
(2) Solve any three from remaining five
(3) Figures to right indicate full marks
(4) Assume suitable data if necessary
AC
1. (a) Explain Pre and post processing in FEM. 5
(b) Derive shape function for ID quadratic element in natural co-ordinates. 5
D
RE
(c) Explain the significance of Jacobian matrix. 5

(d) Explain Convergence of results. 5
UA
CA
2. (a) Solve the following differential Equation using Galerkin Method. 10
d2 y dy
SQ
2
3x 6y 0 0 < x < 1.
dx dx
Boundary Conditions are: y(0) = 1, y'(l) = 0.1
T
Find y(0.2) and compare with exact solution.

EA
SE
(b) For the given, steel blocks supporting rigid plates shown P = 20KN
in figure, determine displacement matrix and stresses in Rigid Plate
each element.
Take: Al.
500 mm
Properties Steel Aluminium Brass
Y
Steel Steel
AR
2
C/S Area (mm ) 200 370 370
EM
500 mm Brass
E (N/mm2) 2 105 7 104 8.8 104
AD
3. (a) What do you mean by consistent and lumped mass matrices? Derive the same for linear bar element. 10
(b) Consider the truss shown in figure. Given E = 210 GPa 1000mm
QU
2
and cross section area A = 1 cm for each element.
AC
Determine: (i) Displacement at each node.(ii) Stresses

induced in each element.(iii) Reaction at supports
RE
30 45
10KN
TS
20KN
UA
4. (a) It is required to carry out one dimensional structural analysis of a circular bar of length L fixed at one 10
end and carries a point load P at other end. Find the suitable differential equation with required
SQ
SE
boundary condition (justify) and solve it by using Rayleigh - Ritz method for two linear element.
T
SE
T.E.SEM VI - FEA 31
(b) A composite wall consists of three materials, as 10

shown in figure. The outer temperature T0 = 20C.
Y
Convection heat transfer takes place on the inner K2
EM
H, T
Y
surface of the wall with T = 800C and T0 = 20C
K1 K3
h = 30 W/m2C. Determine temperature
distribution in the wall.
AD
EM
K1 = 25 W/mC K2 = 30 W/mC
K3 = 70 W/mC
AC
0.3 m 0.2 m 0.15 m
5. (a) The nodal coordinate of the triangular element are as shown in Y 10

RE
D
3 (4,6)
figure. At the interior point P, the x-coordinate is (4.5) and
N1 = 0.3. Determine N2, N3 and y-coordinate of point P.
UA
CA
P
2(7,4)
SQ
1(2,3)
X
T
EA
(b) For a CST element the nodal displacement vector QT = [0,0,0,0,2,0.1] mm. Find the element stress. 10
SE
Take E = 200GPa, plate thickness t = 5 mm and Poisson's ratio = 0.3
6. (a) What are serendipity elements? Derive and graphically represent interpolation functions for 8 nodded 10
Quadrilateral elements.
(b) Find the natural frequency of axial vibrations of a bar of uniform cross section of 20mm2 and length 1m. 10
Y
AR
Take E = 2 105 N/mm2 and p = 8000 kg/m3. Take two linear elements.
MD-Con.:12057-15
DECEMBER 2015
(REVISED COURSE)
EM QP Code : 6470
AD
QU
(2) Attempt any four questions from remaining FIVE.

AC

RE
1. Attempt any four of following:

TS
(a) Explain applications of FEA in various fields. 5

UA
(b) State different types of Boundary conditions. 5

(c) Explain with sketches types of elements. 5
(d) Explain Shape function graphically for one dimensional Linear and quadratic element. 5
SQ
(e) Explain Gauss Elimination Method using an example. 5

SE
2. (a) Solve following differential equation 12

T
d2 y dy
SE
2
3x 6y 0 0 < x < 1.
dx dx
BCs: y (0) = 0 and y' (1) = 0.1: Find y(0.2) using variational method and Compare with exact solution
(b) Evaluate following integral l (3x x) dx 8
Y
1
Using (i) Newton Cotes Method using 3 sampling points. (ii) Three points Gauss Quadrature
EM
Y
r W1 W2 W3 W4 r 1 W1
1 1 1 0.00 2.00
EM
2
3
1/2
1/6 AD 1/2
4/6 1/6
2
3
0.5773
0.00
1.00
0.8889
AC
4 1/8 3/8 3/8 1/8 0.7746 0.5556
3. (a) Find the natural frequency of axial Vibrations of a bar of uniform cross section of 20 mm2 and length 10
D
RE
1 m. Take, Take, E = 2 105 N/mm2 and = 8000 kg/m3. Consider two linear elements.
(b) Using Direct Stiffness method, determine the nodal 2 KN-m 10
UA
CA
displacements of stepped bar shown in figure.
Take, G = 100 GPa.
100 80 50
SQ
3 KN/m
T
450 400 500

EA
All lengths are in mm
SE
4. (a) Explain Lumped and consistent mass matrix. 6

(b) Analysis the plane truss for nodal displacement, element stresses P1 14
P2
and strains. Take, P1 = 5 KN, P2 = 2 KN, E = 180 Gpa,
Y
A = 6 cm2 for all elements .
AR
0.4m
EM
AD
0.6m
QU
d2 y
10x 2 5; 0 x 1
AC
5. (a) Solve following differential equation 12

dx 2
BCs: y(0) = y (l) = 0. Using Rayleigh-Ritz method, mapped over entire domain using one parameter
method
RE
(b) Find the shape function for two dimensional eight noded element. 8
TS
6. (a) Coordinates of nodes of a quadrilateral element are as shown 10

UA
(2,3) (4,3)
in the figure below. Temperature distribution at each node is 4 3
computed as T1 = 100C, T2 = 60C, T3 = 50C and P (2.5,2.5)
SQ
T4 = 90C compute temperature at point P (2.5, 2.5).

SE
1 (2,2) 2 (4,2)
T
(b) What are the h and p versions of finite element method? 7

SE
(c) Convergence requirement. 3

T.E.SEM VI - FEA 33
MAY 2016
Y
EM
Y
(2) Answer any three out of the remaining five questions.
AD
EM
(4) Assume any suitable data wherever required but justify the same.
(5) Illustrate the answers with sketches wherever required.
(6) Answer to the questions should be grouped and written together.
AC
1. Write the short notes on (ANY FIVE): 20
(a) Pre-Processing, Processing and Post-Processing in FEA
RE
D
(b) Sub parametric, Iso-parametric and super parametric element in FEA.
(c) Geometric and Forced boundary condition.
(d) Advantages and limitations of the FEM.
UA
CA
(e) Write element matrix equation in the following fields. Explain each term properly.
(i) ID steady state, heat transfer by conduction (ii) ID, steady state steady flow of fluid in a pipe
(f) Sources of Error in FEA.
SQ
2. (a) Solve the following differential equation using Galerkin Method 10

T
EA
d du
(x 1) x 2 ; 3 x 5
SE

dx dx
Boundary conditions: u(5) = 10 and u' (3) = 5
Compare the answers with exact solution at x = 4 and 5.
(b) Compute the temperature at point P (2.5, 2.5) (2,3) (4,3) 10
Y
using natural coordinates system for quadrilateral
AR
element shown in the figure.
EM
P
Take: T1 = 100C, T2 = 60C
T3 = 50C, T4 = 90C
AD
QU
(2,2) (4,2)
AC
3. (a) A copper fin of diameter 20mm, length 60mm and thermal conductivity is 100 W/m C and is 15
RE
exposed to ambient air at 30C with a heat transfer coefficient 25 W/m2C. If one end of the fin is
TS
maintained at temperature 500C and other end is at 200C. Solve the following differential
UA
equation for obtaining the temperature distribution over the length of a fin.
d 2
kA. hp 0 = Temperature difference = Tx-Ta.
dx 2
SQ
SE
Use Rayleigh-Ritz method, mapped over general element, taking Lagranges linear shape functions
and two linear elements.
T
Write all the steps clearly. Compare your answer with exact at x = 20,40 mm
SE
(b) What do you mean by consistent and lumped mass matrices? Derive the same for linear bar element. 5
4. (a) Find the natural frequency of axial vibration of a bar having cross sectional area as 30 104 m2, 1 m 10
length with left end fixed. Take E = 2 1011 N/m2. Density of the material is 7800 Kg/m3. Take two
Y
linear elements.
EM
Y
(b) Analyze the truss completely for Y 10
displacement and stress as shown in
figure. Take : E = 2 105 MPa.
EM
AD
ELEMENT AREA, mm2 LENGTH, m
1 32.4
1 20 6 5 KN
AC
2
2 20 3
D
RE
UA
5. (a) Using FEM, analyze the taper bar as shown in figure. 10
CA
The cross sectional area to the left and right is equal to
80 mm2 and 20 mm2. Take length of bar is equal to
SQ
60 mm, Take E = 210 GPa. 500 N

T
EA
SE
(b) Evaluate the shape function and prove its Y

3
property, for triangular element as shown in (4,7)
figure. Also sketch the variation of shape
function for each node.
Y
AR
1 EM
(7,3.5)
AD
(1.5,2)
QU
X
AC
6. (a) Determine the displacement at nodes by using the principle of minimum potential energy and find the 10
RE
support reaction.
k3
TS
k4
UA
k1
200 KN
k2
SQ
SE
100 KN
Use, K1 = 100 N/mm, K2 = 300 N/mm, K3 = 150 N/mm, K4 = 200 N/mm.
T
(b) A CST element has nodal coordinates (10, 10), (70, 35) and (75, 25) for nodes 1, 2 and 3 10
SE
respectively. The element is 2 mm thick and is of material with properties E = 70 GPA. Poission's ratio
is 0.3. After applying the load to the element the nodal deformation were found to be u1 = 0.01 mm,
v1 = 0.04 mm, u2 = 0.03 mm, v2 = 0.02 mm, u3 = 0.02 mm, v3 = 0.04 mm. Determine the strains
ex, ey, exy and corresponding element stresses.
T.E.SEM VI - FEA 35
DECEMBER 2016
Y
EM
Y
(2) Answer any three out of the remaining five questions.
AD
EM
(4) Assume any suitable data wherever required but justify the same.
(5) Illustrate the answers with sketches wherever required.
(6) Answer to the questions should be grouped and written together.
AC
1. Write the short notes on: 20
(a) Principle of Minimum Potential Energy
RE
D
(b) Explain the significance of Jacobian matrix.
(c) Types of Boundary Conditions
(d) Sources of error in FEM
UA
2. (a)
CA d2
Solve the following differential Equation using Galerkin Method. 2 cos x 0 0 x 1 10
SQ
dx
Boundary Conditions are: (0) = 0, (1) = 0. Find (0.25), (0. 5) and (0.75). Compare your
answer with exact solution.
T
EA
(b) Figure shows the beam of uniform 50 KN 10
SE
25 KN/m
rectangular cross section 10 cm 12 cm,
subjected to point load and uniformly
A B C D
distributed load. Young's modulus is 2 MPa
and Poisson's ratio is 0.3. Determine the
Y
deflections and slopes. 2m 1m 2m
AR
3. (a) EM
Consider the steady laminar flow of a viscous fluid through a long circular cylindrical tube. The
governing equation is
15
AD
1 d dw P0 PL
r 0
QU
r dr dr L
AC
where w is the axial (i.e.; z) component of velocity, is the viscosity, and 0 is the gradient of pressure
(which includes the combined effect of static pressure and gravitational force). The boundary
conditions are
RE
dw
r 0, w(R 0 ) 0
TS
dr r 0
UA
Using the symmetry and two linear elements, determine the velocity field and compare with the exact
solution at the nodes:
SQ
2
0 R 02 r
SE
w (r) 1
4 R 0
T

SE
(b) Derive shape function for ID linear element in natural co-ordinates. 5

4. (a) The circular rod depicted in Figure has an outside diameter of 60 mm, length of 1 m, and is perfectly 10
insulated on its circumference. The left half of the cylinder is aluminum, for which kx = 200 W/mC
Y
and the right half is copper having kx = 389 W/mC. The extreme right end of the cylinder is
EM
Y
maintained at a temperature of 80C, while the left end is subjected to a heat input rate 4000 W/m2.
Using four equal-length elements, determine the steady-state temperature distribution in the cylinder.
EM
AD
Al Cu
qin AC qout
1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 5
0.25 m 0.25 m 0.25 m 0.25 m
D
RE
(b) Analyze the truss completely for 5 KN 10

displacement, stress and strain as shown
UA
CA
in figure. Take: Area of each
member = 350 mm2, E = 200GPa. (500, 500) 15 KN
T SQ
EA
SE
(0, 0) (1000, 0)
1000
Y
AR
5. (a) Find nodal displacement and element stress

for the bar as shown in figure using FEM.
400
EM
AD
Take E = 200 GPa. 250 2
2
mm
mm
QU
75KN
3.5mm
AC
300mm
200mm 200mm
(b) A CST element has nodal coordinates (10,10), (70,35) and (75,25) for nodes 1, 2 and 3 10
RE
respectively. The element is 2 mm thick and is of material with properties E = 70 GPA. Poission's ratio
is 0.3. After applying the load to the element the nodal deformation were found to be u1 = 0.01 mm,
TS
v1 = 0.04 mm, u2 = 0.03 mm, v2 = 0.02 mm, u3 = 0.02 mm, v3 = 0.04 mm. Determine the strains
UA
ex ,ey, exy and corresponding element stresses.
6. (a) Consider a uniform cross section bar of length L 10

SQ
SE
made up of a material whose Yong's modulus

and density are given by E and . Estimate the L
T
natural frequencies of axial vibration of the bar

SE
using both consistent and lumped mass matrices.

(b) Coordinates of the nodes of finite element are given by P (4,0) and Q (8,0). Find the expression of x in 10
terms of when:
(i) Third node R is taken at (6,0) (ii) Third node R is taken at (5, 0)
Comment on the result.
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SETSQUARE ACADEMY

Degree Engineering (MU)

Sr. No. Subject Page No.

As per the Revised Syllabus effective from Academic Year 201415

To Download Entire Question Paper Set Visit:

METROLOGY QUALITY ENGINEERING

2. (a) Explain following terms with suitable diagram 10

explain three wire method used in screw thread measurements.

3. (a) Explain construction and working of laser interferometer. 10

4. (a) Explain following concepts with sutiable diagrams 10

5. (a) Explain construction and working of Parkinson's Tester. EM 10

Hour Inspected No. of units inspected Number of units outside specifications

6. Write short notes on : 20

1. (a) Differentiate between precision and accuracy. 5

(b) What do you mean by quality of design? 5

2. (a) Explain Taylors Principle of Gauge design with suitable example. 10

4. (a) Explain following terms with respect to surface roughness parameters: 10

(i) Ra (ii) Rz (iii) RMS

5. (a) Explain two wire method used in screw thread measurement 10

(b) Explain various modern SQC tools. 10

Con.:8156-16 (REVISED COURSE) QP Code : 601000

N.B. : (1) Question No. 1 is compulsory.

(2) Attempt any three questions from remaining questions.

1. (a) Explain principles of interference 5

6. (a) Sketch typical OC curve and also explain following terms- 10

(REVISED COURSE) QP Code :601002

(2) Solve any three out of remaining questions.

(c) What do you mean by OC curves? Explain 5

2. (a) What is comparator? Explain any one type of mechanical comparator. 10

3. (a Define Interferometry. Explain Laser Interferometer with neat sketch. 10

Sampling length 0.85 mm

Areas above the datum Line 112,114,60,100 mm2

Areas below datum line 88,99,110,75, mm2

3. (a) State the assumptions made in the analysis of curved beams. 4

of flange and web of the I-section of the clamp body.

x varies from +12 to 10 N/mm2 y varies from +14 to +6 N/mm2 and

xy varies from +10 to 10 N/mm2

(b) Explain the working of split-muff coupling with neat sketch 4

N.B. : (1) Question No. 1 is compulsory.

(4) Use of PSG Design Data Book is permitted.

tension, 40 MPa in shear and 70 MPa in compression.

induced at critical cross section.

are 2.0 and 1.5 respectively.

(b) Explain different types of keys with neat sketches 4

(b) A Bracket is supported by means of 6 bolts of 200mm 60KN 10

(3 Hours) [Total Marks : 80]

N.B. : (1) Question No. 1 is compulsory

the following data :

Allowable tensile and compressive stress = 85 N/mm2

Thickness of eye = 1.5 Pin diameter

Total fork thickness = eye thickness

(b) A bracket is riveted to a 200 mm 50 kN 8

(b) A Machine press screw as shown in figure is subjected to an

4. (a) A 50 mm diameter solid shaft is welded to a flat plate as 10

Power to be transmitted = 50 kW at 1440 r.p.m.

(i) The thickness of leaves; 4

(ii) The deflection of spring at maximum load; and 3

(b) What is cotter? Why taper is provided on the cotter? 4

Find the size of the bolts.

All dimensions are in mm

(iii) Overhang = 250 mm

(iv) Bending load = 20 KN

Select suitable material.

frequencies and draw their corresponding mode shapes.