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KISHORE VAIGYANIK PROTSAHAN YOJANA - 2014

Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 100

STREAM - SA
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
The Test Booklet consists of 80 questions.
There are Two parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part
is as under for each correct response.

MARKING SCHEME :
PART-I :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 1 to 15 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 16 to 30 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 31 to 45 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 46 to 60 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.

PART-II :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 61 to 65 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 66 to 70 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 71 to 75 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 76 to 80 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.

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A-14(A), Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota-324005 (Raj.)

Tel.:(0744) 2428664, 2428666, 2423406, 3205261, 3205262 Fax: 2423405


Email: admin@vibrantacademy.com Website : www.vibrantacademy.com
YEAR-2014 (KVPY-STREAM-SA)
PART-A (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS

1. Let r be a root of the equation x 2 + 2x + 6 = 0. The value of (r + 2) (r + 3) (r + 4) (r + 5) is equal to .


(A) 51 (B) 51 (C) 126 (D) 126

2. Let R be the set of all real numbers and let f be a fucntion R to R such that

1
f ( x ) + x + f (1 - x ) = 1, for all x R . Then 2f(0) + 3f(1) is equal to.
2

(A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 4

13 + 23 + ..... + (2n )3
3. The sum of all positive integers n for which is also an integer is.
12 + 22 + ..... + n 2
(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 15 (D) Infinite

4. Let x and y be two 2-digit numbers such that y is obtained by reversing the digits of x. Suppose they
also satisfy x2 y2 = m2 for some positive integer m. The value of x + y + m is.
(A) 88 (B) 112 (C) 144 (D) 154

5. Let p(x) = x2 5x + a and q(x) = x2 3x + b, where a and b are positive integers. Suppose
HCF(p(x),q(x)) = x 1 and k(x) = LCM (p(x), q(x)). If the coefficient of the highest degree term of k(x) is
1, the sum of the roots of (x 1) + k(x) is.
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7

6. In a quadrilateral ABCD, which is not a trapezium, it is known that DAB = ABC = 60 . Moreover,,

CAB = CBD . Then.


(A) AB = BC + CD (B) AB = AD + CD (C) AB = BC +AD (D) AB = AC + AD

7. A semi-circle of diameter 1 unit sits at the top of a semi-circle of diameter 2 units. The shaded region
inside the smaller semi-circle but outside the larger semi-circle is called a lune. The area of the lune is.

p 3 3 p 3 p 3 p
(A) - (B) - (C) - (D) -
6 4 4 24 4 12 4 8

8. The angle bisectors BD and CE of a triangle ABC are divided by the incentre I in the rators 3 : 2 and 2 :1
respectively. Then the ratio in which I divides the angle bisector through A is.
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 11 : 4 (C) 6 :5 (D) 7 : 4

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9. Suppose S1 and S2 are two unequal circles; AB and CD are the direct common tangents to these
circles. A transverse common tangent PQ cuts AB in R and CD in S. If AB = 10, then RS is .

(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 11

10. On the circle with center O, points A,B are such that OA = AB. A point C is located on the tangent at B to
the circle such that A and C are on the opposite sides of the line OB and AB = BC. The line segment AC
intersects the circle again at F. Then the ratio BOF : BOC is equal to:

(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 3 (C) 3 : 4 (D) 4 : 5

11. In a cinema hall, the charge per person is Rs.200. On the first day, only 60% of the seats were filled. The
owner decided to reduce the price by 20% and there was in increase of 50% in the number of spectators
on the next day. The percentage increase in the revenue on the second day was
(A) 50 (B) 40 (C) 30 (D) 20

12. The population of cattle in a farm increases so that the difference between the population in year n+2 and
then in year n proportional the population in year n + 1. If the populations in year 2010, 2011 and 2013
were 39, 60 and 123, respectively, then the population in 2012 was
(A) 81 (B) 84 (C) 87 (D) 90

13. The number of 6-digit numbers of the form ababab (in base 10) each of which is a product of exactly 6
distinct primes is
(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 13 (D) 15

14. The houses on one side of a road are numbered using consecutive even numbers. The sum of the
numbers of all the houses in that row is 170. If there are at least 6 houses in that row and a is the number
of the sixth house, then
(A) 2 a 6 (B) 8 a 12 (C) 14 a 20 (D) 22 a 30

15. Suppose a2, a3, a4, a5, a6, a7 are are integers such that

5 a2 a 3 a 4 a 5 a 6 a 7
= + + + + +
7 2! 3! 4! 5! 6! 7!
where 0 a j < j for j = 2,4,5,6,7. The sum a2 + a3 + a4 + a5 +a6 + a7 is
(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 11

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PHYSICS
16. In the follwing displacement (x) vs time (t) graph, at which among the points P,Q, and R is the object's
speed increasing?

(A) R only (B) P only (C) Q and R only (D) P,Q,R

17. A box, when hung from a spring balance shows a reading of 50 kg. If the same box is hung from the same
spring balance inside an evacuated chamber, the reading on the scale will be
(A) 50 kg because the mass of the box remains unchanged
(B) 50 kg because the effect of the absence of the atmosphere will be indentical on the box and the spring
balance
(C) Less than 50 kg because the weight of the column of air on the box will be absent
(D) More than 50 kg because the atmospheric buoyancy force will be absent

18. Two possitively charged spheres of masses m 1, and m 2, are suspended from a common point at the ceiling
by identical insulating massless strings of length l. Charges on the two spheres are q1 and q2, respectively.
At equilivrium both strings make the same angle q with the vertical. Then
(A) q1m1 = q2m2 (B) m1 = m 2 (C) m1 = m 2sin q (D) q2m 1 = q1m 2.

19. A box when dropped from a certain height reaches the ground with a speed v. When it skides from rest from
the same height down a rough inclined plane inclined at in angle 45 to the horizontal, it reaches the ground
with a speed v/3. The coefficient of sliding friction between the box and the plane is (acceleration due to
gravity is 10 ms-2)

8 1 2 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9 9 3 3

20. A thin paper cup filled with water does not catch fire when placed over a flame. This is because
(A) The water cuts off oxygen supply to the paper cup
(B) Water is an excellent conductor of heat
(C) The paper cup does not become appreciably hotter than the water it contain
(D) Paper is a poor conductor of heat

21. Ice is used in a cooler in order to cool its contents. Which of the following will speed up the cooling process
(A) Wrap the ice in a metal foil (B) Drain the water from the cooler periodically
(C) Put the ice as a single block (D) Crush the ice

22. The angle of a prism is 60. When light is incident at an angle of 60 on the prism, the angle of emergence
is 40. The angle of incidence i for which the light ray will deviate the least is such that
(A) i < 40 (B) 40 < i < 50 (C) 50 < i < 60 (D) i > 60

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23. A concave lens made of material of refractive index 1.6 is immersed in a medium of refractive index 2.0.
The two surfaces of the concave lens have the same radius of curvature 0.2 m. The lens will behave as a
(A) Divergent lens of focal length 0.4m (B) Divergent lens of focal length 0.5 m.
(C) Convergent lens of focal length 0.4 m. (D) Convergent lens of focal length 0.5 m

24. A charged particle, initially at rest at O, When released follows atrajectory as shown. Such a trajectory is
possible in the presence of

(A) Electric field of constant magnitude and varying direction


(B) Magnetic field of constant magnitude and varying direction
(C) Electric field of constant magnitude and constant direction
(D) Electric and magnetic fields of constant magnitudes and constant directions which are parallel to each
other

25. Two equal charges of magnitude Q each are placed at a dictance d apart. Their electrostatic energy is E. A
third charge -Q/2 is brough midway betway these two charges.The electrostatic energy of the system is
now
(A) -2E (B) -E (C) 0 (D) E

26. A bar magnet falls with its north pole pointing down through the axis of a copper ring. When viewed from
above, the currecnt in the ring will be
(A) Clockwise while the magnet is above the plane of the ring and counter clockwise while below the plane
of the ring
(B) Counter clockwise throughout
(C) Counter clockwise while the magnet is above the plane of the ring, and clockwise while below the plane
of the ring
(D) Clockwise throughout.

27. Two identical bar magnets are held perpendicular to each other with a certain separation, as shown below.
The area around the magnets is divided into four zones

Given that there is a neutral point it is located in


(A) Zone I (B) Zone II (C) Zone III (D) Zone IV

28. A large number of random snap shots using a camera are taken of a particle in simple harmonic motion
between x = -x0 and x = +x0 with origine x = 0 as the mean position. A histogram of the total number of times
the particle is recorded about a given position (Event no.) would most closely resemble

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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29. In 1911, the physicist Ernest Rutherford discovered that atoms have a tiny, dense nucleus by shooting
pisitively charged particles at a very thin gold foil. A key physical property which led Rutherford to use gold
that it was
(A) Electrically conducting (B) Highly malleable
(C) Shiny (D) none-reactive

30. Consider the following statements


(i) All isotopes of an element have the same number of neutrons
(ii) Only one isotope of an element can be stable and non-radioactive
(iii) All elements have isotops
(iv) All isotopes of Carbon can form chemical compounds with Oxygen-16
The correct option regarding an isotope is
(A) (iii) and (iv) only (B) (ii), (iii) and (iii) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (D) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

CHEMISTRY
31. The isoelectronic pair is
(A) CO, N2 (B) O2, NO (C) C2, HF (D) F2, HCL

32. The numbers of lone pairs and bond pairs in hydrazine are, respectively
(A) 2 and 4 (B) 2 and 6 (C) 2 and 5 (D) 1 and 5

33. The volume of oxygen at STP required to burn 2.4 g of carbon completely is
(A) 1.12 L (B) 8.96L (C) 2.24 L (D) 4.48L

34. The species that exhibits the highest Rf value in a thin layer chromatogram using a nonpolar solvant on a
silica gel olate is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

35. The number of C-C sigma bonds in the compound

(A) 16 (B) 17 (C) 18 (D) 11

36. If the radius of the hydrogen atom is 53 pm, the radius of the He+ ion is closest to
(A) 108 pm (B) 81 pm (C) 27 pm (D) 13 pm

37. The diamagnetic species is


(A) NO (B) NO2 (C) O2 (D) CO2

38. The pH of 0.1 M aqueous solutions of NaCl, CH3COONa and NH4Cl will follow the order
(A) NaCl < CH3COONa < NH4Cl (B) NH4Cl < NaCl < CH3COONa
(C) NH4Cl < CH3COONa < NaCl (D) NaCl < NH4Cl < CH3COONa

39. At room temperature the average seed of Helium is higher than that of Oxygen by a factor of
(A) 2 2 (B) 6/ 2 (C) 8 (D) 6

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40. Ammonia is NOT produced in the reaction of
(A) NH4Cl with KOH (B) AIN with water (C) NH4Cl with NaNO2 (D) NH4Cl with Ca (OH)2

41. The number of isomers which are ethers and having the molecular formula C 4H10O, is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

42. The major product of the reaction of 2-butene with alkaline KMnO4 solution is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

43. Among the compounds I-IV, the compound having the lowest boiling point is

OH

(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV

44. Of the following reactions


(i) D G = 250 kJ mol
o -1

(ii) D G = -100 kJ mol


o -1

(iii) D Go = -150 kJ mol-1


(iv) D G = 150 kJ mol
o -1

the reaction with the largest equilibrium constant is


(A) (i) (B) (ii) (C) (iii) (D) (iv)

45. The first ionization inthalpies for three elements are 1314, 1680, and 2080 kJ mol-1, respectively. The
correct sequence of the elements is
(A) O,F, and Ne (B) F, O and Ne (C) Ne, F and O (D) F, Ne and O

BIOLOGY
46. Individuals of one kind occupying a particular geographic area at a given time are called
(A) Community (B) Population (C) Species (D) Biome

47. What fraction of the assimilated energy is used in respiration by the herbivores
(A) 10 percent (B) 60percent (C) 30 percent (D) 80 percent

48. Athletes are often trained at high altitude because


(A) Training at high altitude increase muscle mass
(B) Training at high altitude increases the number of red blood cells
(C) There is less change of an injury at high altide
(D) Athles sweat less at high altidute

49. In human brain two hemispheres are connected by bundle of fibers which is known as
(A) Medulla oblongata (B) Cerebrum (C) Cerebellum (D) Corpus callosum

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50. Which one of the following hormones is produced by the pancreas
(A) Prolactin (B) Glucagon (C) Leutinizing hormone (D) Epinephrine
51. The stalk of a leaf is derived from which one of the following types of plant tissue?
(A) Sclerenchyma (B) Paranchyma (C) Chlorenchyma (D) Collenchyma
52. Which of the following muscle types CAN NOT be used valuntarily
(A) Both striated and smooth (B) Both cardiac and striated
(C) Both smooth and cardiac (D) Cardiac, striated and smooth
53. The pulmonary artery carries
(A) deoxygenated bood to the lungs (B) Oxygenated bood to the brain
(C) Oxygenated blood to the lungs (D) Deoxygenated blood to the kidney
54. Both gout and kidney stone formation is caused by
(A) Calcium oxalate (B) Uric acid (C) Creatinine (D) Potassium chloride
55. The auditory nerve gets its input from which of the following?
(A) The sense cells of the cochlea (B) Vibration fo the last ossicle
(C) Eustachian tube (D) Vibration of the tympanic membrane
56. Which of the following organelles contain circular DNA
(A) Peroxisomes and Mitochondria (B) Mitochondria and Glgi complex
(C) Chloroplasts and Lysosomes (D) Mitochondria and chloroplast
57. A reflex action does NOT involve
(A) Neurons (B) Brain (C) Spinal cord (D) Muscle fiber
58. Which one of the follwing options is true in photsynthesis
(A) CO2 is oxidized and H2O is reduced (B) H2O is oxidized and CO2 is reduced
(C) Both CO2 and H2O are reduced (D) Both CO2 and H2O are oxidized
59. Human mature red blood cells (RBCs) do NOT contain
(A) Iron (B) CYtoplasm (C) Mitochondria (D) Haemoglobin
60. A person was saved from poisonous snake bite by antivenom injection. Which of the following immunity
explains this form of protection?
(A) Naturally acquired active immunity (B) Artificially acquired active immunity
(C) Naturally acquired passive immunity (D) Artificially acquired passive immunity
PART-II
Two Mark Questions

MATHEMATICS
61. Let a,b,c be non-zero real numbers such that a+b+c = 0; let q = a 2 +b2+c2 and r = a4 + b4 + c 4
Then
(A) q2 < 2r always (B) q2 = 2r always
(C) q > 2r always
2
(D) q2 - 2r can take both positive and negative value
62. The value of
1947
1

n 0 2 + 21947
n

is equal to

487 1946 1947 1948


(A) 1945 (B) 1947 (C) 1947 (D)
2 2 2 21947

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63. The number of integers a in the interval [1,2014] for which the system of equations

x2 y2
x + y = a, + =4
x -1 y -1

has finitely many solutions is


(A) 0 (B) 1007 (C) 2013 (D) 2014

64. In a triangle ABC with A = 90, P is a point on BC such that PA : PB = 3:4. If AB = 7 and AC = 5,
then BP : PC is
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 4 : 3 (C) 4 : 5 (D) 8 : 7

65. The number of all 3-digit numbers abc (in base10) for which (abc) + (ab) + (bc)+ (ca) + a + b + c
= 29 is.
(A) 6 (B) 10 (C) 14 (D) 18

PHYSICS

66. A uniform square wooden sheet of side a has its center of mass located at point O as shown in the figure on
the left. A square portion of side b of this sheet is cut out to produce and L-shaped sheet as shown in the
figure on the right.

The center of mass of the L-shaped sheet lies at the point P (in the diagram) when
(A) a/b = ( 5 -1)/2 (B) a/b = ( 5 +1)/2 (C) a/b = ( 3 -1)/1 (D) a/b = ( 3 +1)/2

67. A machine is blowing spherical soap bubbles of different raddi filled with helium gas. It is found that if
the bubbles have a radius smaller than 1 cm, then they sink to the floor in still air. Larger bubbles float in
the air. Assume that the thickness of the soap film in all bubbles is uniform and equal. Assume that the
density of soap solution is same as that of water (= 1000 kgm -3). The density of helium inside the
bubbles and air are 0.18 kg m-3 and 1.23 kg m-3, respectively. Then the thickness of the soap film of the
bubbles is (note 1 m m = 10-6m)
(A) 0.50 m m (B) 1.50 m m (C) 7.00 m m (D) 3.50 m m

68. An aluminum piece of mass 50g initially at 300 C is dipped quickly and taken out of 1kg of water,
initially at 30 C. If the teperature of the aluminum piece be 160 C, what is the temperature of the water
then (Specific heat capacities of aluminum and water are 900 JKf -1K-1 and 4200Jkg-1K-1, respectively)
(A) 165C (B) 45 C (C) 31.5 C (D) 28.5 C

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69. A ray of light incident paralled to the base PQ of an isosceles right-angled triangular prism PQR suffers
two successive total internal reflections at the faces PQ and QR before emerging reversed in direction
as shown

If the refractive index of the material of the prism is m , then

(A) m > 5 (B) 3 < m< 5 (C) 2 <m< 5 (D) m < 2

70. Consider the circuit shown below where all resistors are of 1k W

If a current of magnitude 1 mA flows through the resistor marked X, what is the potential difference
measured between point P and Q?
(A) 21V (B) 68V (C) 55V (D) 34V

CHEMISTRY

71. 10 moles of a mixture of gydogen and oxygen gases at a pressure of 1 atm at constant volume and
temperature, react to form 3.6 g of liquid water. The pressure of the resulting mixture will be closest to
(A) 1.07 atm (B) 0.97 atm (C) 1.02 atm (D) 0.92 atm

72. The amonia evolved from 2g of a compound in Kjeldahl's estimation of nitrogen neutralizes 10 mL of 2 M
H2SO4 solution. The weight percentage of nitrogen in the compound is
(A) 28 (B) 14 (C) 56 (D) 7

73. Complete reaction of 2.0 g of calcium (at. wt. = 40) with excess HCL produces 1.125 L of H2 gas.
Complete reaction of the same quantity of another metal "M" with excess HCL produces 1.85 L of H2 gas
under indentical conditions. The equivalent weight of "M" is closest to
(A) 23 (B) 9 (C) 7 (D) 12

74. A compound X formed after heating coke with lime react with water to give Y which on passing over red-
hot iron at 873 produces Z. The compound Z is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

75. In the following reaction sequence


Vibrant Academy (I) Pvt. Ltd. "A-14(A)" Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota (Raj.) Ph. 0744-2423406 [11]
X and Y are, respectively

(A) and

(B) and

(C) and

(D) and

BIOLOGY

76. In which of the following cellular compartment(s) do respiratory reactions occur?


(A) cytoplasm and endoplasmic reticulum (B) Mitochondria and Golgi complex
(C) Mitochondria and cytoplasm (D) Mitochondria only

77. A women heterozygous for color blindness marries a clolor blind man. What be the ratios of carrier
daughters, color blind daughters, normal sons and color blind sons in F1 generation?
(A) 1:2:2:1 (B) 2:1:1:2 (C) 1:1:1:1 (D) 1:1:2:2

78. Two semi-permeable bags containgn 2% sucrose placed in two beakers, 'P' containing water and 'Q'
containing 10% socrose. Which one of the following outcomes is true?
(A) Bag in 'P' becomes flaccid due to exosmosis (B) Bag in 'P' becomes turgid due to endosmosis
(C) Bag in 'Q' becomes turgid due to endosmosis (D) Concentration of su-
crose remain unchanged both

79. Children suffering from phenylketonuria are given food low in phenylalanine and supplemented with
tyrosine. This is because they.
(A) Are unable to utilize phenylalanine (B) Do not require phenylalanine
(C) Have increased tyrosine anabolism (D) Have increased tyrosine catabolism

80. Two bottles were half filled with water from Ganga ('P') and kaveri ('Q') and kept under indentical airtight
conditions for 5 days. The oxygen was determined to be 2% in bottle ('P') and 10% in bottle ('Q'). What
could be the cause of this difference?
(A) Ganga is more polluted than Kaveri (B) Both the rivers are equally polluted
(C) Kaveri is more polluted than Ganga (D) Kaveri has more minerals than Ganga

Vibrant Academy (I) Pvt. Ltd. "A-14(A)" Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota (Raj.) Ph. 0744-2423406 [12]
KISHORE VAIGYANIK PROTSAHAN YOJANA - 2015
Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 100

STREAM - SA
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
The Test Booklet consists of 80 questions.
There are Two parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part
is as under for each correct response.

MARKING SCHEME :
PART-I :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 1 to 15 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 16 to 30 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 31 to 45 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 46 to 60 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.

PART-II :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 61 to 65 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 66 to 70 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 71 to 75 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 76 to 80 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.

VIBRANT ACADEMY (India) Private Limited


A-14(A), Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota-324005 (Raj.)

Tel.:(0744) 2428664, 2428666, 2423406, 3205261, 3205262 Fax: 2423405


Email: admin@vibrantacademy.com Website : www.vibrantacademy.com
YEAR-2015 (KVPY-STREAM-SA)
PART-A (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS

1. Two distinct polynomial f(x) and g(x) are defined as follows:

f ( x) x 2 + ax + 2 ; g ( x) x2 + 2x + a

If the equation f (x) 0 and g (x) 0 have a common root then the sum of the roots of the equation

f ( x ) + g ( x) 0 is

1 1
(A) - (B) 0 (C) (D) 1
2 2

2. if n is the smallest natural number such that n + 2n + 3n + .... + 99n is a perfect square, then the

number of digits in n 2 is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) more than 3

3. Let x, y, z be positive reals. Which of the following implies x y z?

(I) x3 + y3 + z 3 3xyz

(II) x 3 + y 2 z + yz 2 3 xyz

(III) x 3 + y 2 z + z 2 x 3xyz

(IV) ( x + y + z )3 27 xyz
(A) I, IV only (B) I, II, IV only (C) I, II and III only (D) All of them

4. In the figure given below, a rectangle of perimeter 76 units is divided into 7 congruent rectangles.

y y y y
x x

y y
x x x

What is the perimeter of each of the smaller rectangles?


(A) 38 (B) 32 (C) 28 (D) 19

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5. The largest non-negative integer k such that 24k divides 13! is.
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

6. In a triangle ABC, points X and Y are on AB and AC, respectively, such that XY is parallel to BC,
Which of the two following always hold? (Here [PQR] denotes the area of triangle PQR.)
(I) [BCX] = [BCY].
(II) [ACX] [ABY] = [AXY] [ABC]
(A) Neither (I) nor (II) (B) (I) only
(C) (II) only (D) both (I) and (II)

7. Let P be an interior point of a triangle ABC. Let Q and R be the reflections of P in AB and AC,
respectively. IF Q, A,R are collinear then A equals.
(A) 30 (B) 60 (C) 90 (D) 120

8. Let ABCD be a square of side length l, and G a circle passing through B and C, and touching AD.
The radius of G is

3 1 1 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8 2 2 8

9. Let ABCD be a square of a side length l, Let P,Q,R,S be points in the interiors of the sides

3 3
AD,BC,AB, CD, respectively, such that PQ and RS intersect at right angles. If PQ then RS
4
equals

2 3 3 2 +1
(A) (B) (C) (D) 4 - 2 2
3 4 2

10. In the figure given below, If the areas of the two regions are equal then which of the following is
true?

45

2y 2y 45
y y 45
45
x x 2x

(A) x y (B) x 2y (C) 2x y (D) x 3y

11. A man standing on a railway platform noticed that a train took 21 seconds to cross the platform (this
means the time elapsed from the moment the engine enters the platform till the last compartment
leaves the platform) which is 88 meters long, and that it took 9 seconds to pass him. Assuming that
the train was moving with uniform speed, what is the length of the train in metres?
(A) 55 (B) 60 (C) 66 (D) 72

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1
12. The least positive integer n for which
3
n +1 - 3 n < is
12
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9

13. Let n > 1 be an integer. Which of the following sets of numbers necessarily contains a multiple of
3?

(A) n19 - 1, n19 + 1 (B) n19 , n38 - 1

(C) n 38 , n 38 + 1 (D) n 38 , n19 - 1

14. The number of distinct primes dividing 12!+13!+14! is


(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8

15. How many ways are there to arrange the letters of the word EDUCATION so that all the following
three conditions hold?
- the vowels occur in the same order (EUAIO);
- the consonants occur in the same order(DCTN);
- no two consonants are next to each other.
(A) 15 (B) 24 (C) 72 (D) 120

PHYSICS

16. In an experiment, mass of an object is measured by applying a known force on it, and then mea-
suring its acceleration. IF, in the experiment, the measured values of applied force and the mea-
sured acceleration are F 10.0 0.2 N and a 1.00 0.01 m/s2 , respectively, the mass of the
object is
(A) 10.0 Kg (B)10.0 0.1 Kg (C) 10.0 0.3 Kg (D) 10.0 0.4Kg

17. A hollow tilted cylindrical vessel of negligible mass rests on a horizontal plane as known. The
diameter of the base is a and the side of the cylinder makes an angle q with the horizontal. Water is
then slowly poured into the cylinder. The cylinder topples over when the water reaches a certain height h,
given by.

a
(A) h 2a tan q (B) h a tan 2 q (C) h a tan q (D) h tan q
2

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18. An object at rest at the origin begins to move in the +x direction with a uniform acceleration of 1 m/s 2
for 4 s and then it continues moving with a uniform velocity of 4 m/s in the same direction. The x t
graph for objects motion will be

x x

(A) (B)

4s t 4s t

x x

(C) (D)

4s t 4s t

19. If the axis of rotation of the earth were extended into space then it would pass close to
(A) the moon
(B) the sun
(C) the pole star
(D) the centre of mass of all the planets in the solar system.

20. Methane is a greenhouse gas because


(A) it absorbs longer wavelengths of the electromagnetic spectrum while transmitting shorter wavelengths
(B) it absorbs shorter wavelengths of the electromagnetic spectrum while transmitting longer wave-
lengths
(C) it absorbs all wavelengths of the electromagnetic spectrum.
(D) it transmits all wavelengths of the electromagnetic spectrum.

21. A parachutist with total weight 75 kg drops vertically onto a sandy ground with a speed of 2 ms -1 and
comes to a halt over a distance of 0.25m. The average force from the ground on her is close to.
(A) 600 N (B) 1200 N (C) 1350 N (D) 1950 N

22. The beta particles of a radioactive metal originate from.


(A) the free electrons in the metal
(B) the orbiting electrons of the metal atoms
(C) the photons released from the nucleus.
(D) the nucleus of the metal atoms.

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23. An optical device is constructed by fixing three identical convex lenses of focal lengths 10 cm each
inside a hollow tube at equal spacing of 30 cm each. One end of the device is placed 10 cm away
from a point source. How much does the image shift when the device is moved away from the source
by another 10 cm?
(A) 0 (B) 5 cm (C) 15 cm (D) 45 cm

24. An isosceles glass prism with angles 40 is clamped over a tray of water in a position such that the
base is just dipped in water. A ray of light incident normally on the inclined face suffers total inter-
nal reflection at the base. If the refractive index of water is 1.33 then the condition imposed on the
refractive index m of the glass is

(A) m < 2.07 (B) m > 2.07 (C) m < 1.74 (D) m > 1.74

25. A point source of light is moving at a rate of 2 cm-s -1 towards a thin convex lens of focal length 10 cm
along its optical axis. When the source is 15 cm away from the lens the image is moving at
(A) 4 cm-s-1 towards the lens (B) 8 cm-s -1 towards the lens
(C) 4 cm-s -1 away from the lens (D) 8 cm-s -1 away from the lens

26. A light bulb of resistance R 16W is attached in series with an infinite resistor network with identical
resistances r as shown below. A 10 V battery derives current in the circuit. What should be the value of r
such that the bulb dissipated about 1 W of power.

R
r r r

10V r r r

(A) 14.8W (B) 29.6W (C) 7.4W (D) 3.7W

27. A ball is launched from the top of Mt. Everest which is at elevation of 9000 m. The ball moves in
circular orbit around earth. Acceleration due to gravity near the earths surface is g. The magnitude
of the balls acceleration while in orbit is
(A) close to g/2 (B) zero
(C) much greater than g. (D) nearly equal to g.

28. A planet is orbiting the sun in an elliptical orbit. Let U denote the potential energy and K denote the
kinetic energy of the planet at an arbitrary point on the orbit. Choose the correct statement.
(A) K <|U | always (B) K >|U | always
(C) K |U | always (D) K | U | for two positions of the planet in the orbit.

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29. One mole of ideal gas undergoes a linear process as shown in figure below. Its temperature ex-
pressed as a function of volume V is.

P0V V P0V V 2
P0V0 P0V 1 - 1 -
(A) (B) (C)
R (D)
R V0
R R V0

30. The international space station is maintained in a nearly circular orbit with a mean altitude of 330 km
and a maximum of 410 km. An astronaut is floating in the space stations cabin. The acceleration of
astronaut as measured from the earth is.
(A) zero
(B) nearly zero and directed towards the earth
(C) nearly g and directed along the line of travel of the station
(D) nearly g and directed towards the earth.

CHEMISTRY

31. The percentage of nitrogen by mass in ammonium sulphate is closest to (atomic masses H = 1, N =
14, O = 16, S = 32)
(A) 21% (B) 24% (C) 36% (D) 16%

32. Mendeleevs periodic law states that the properties of elements are a periodic function of their
(A) reactivity of elements (B) atomic size
(C) atomic mass (D) electronic configuration

33. Maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the subshell with azimuthal quantum
number l = 4, is
(A) 10 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 18

34. The correct order of acidity of the following compounds is

OCH3 NO2

COOH COOH COOH


(1) (2) (3)

(A) 1 > 2 > 3 (B) 1 > 3 > 2 (C) 3 > 1 > 2 (D) 3 > 2 > 1

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35. Reaction of 2-butane with acidic KMnO 4 gives
(A) CH3CHO (B) HCOOH (C) CH 3CH2OH (D) CH 3COOH

36. The gas released when baking soda is mixed with vinegar, is
(A) CO (B) CO 2 (C) CH4 (D) O 2

37. The element which readily forms an ionic bond has the electronic configuration.

(A) 1s 2 2s 2 2 p 3 (B) 1s 2 2s 2 2 p1 (C) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 2 (D) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3s1

38. The major products of the following reaction

ZnS ( s ) + O2 ( g ) heat


are
(A) ZnO and SO2 (B) ZnSO 4 and SO 3 (C) ZnSO 4 and SO 2 (D) Zn and SO 2

39. If Avogadros number is A0, the number of sulphur atoms present in 200 mL of 1N H 2SO 4 is
(A) A0/5 (B) A0/2 (C) A0/10 (D) A0

40. The functional group present in a molecule having the formula C 12O9 is
(A) carboxylic acid (B) anhydride (C) aldehyde (D) alcohol

41. A sweet smelling compounds formed by reacting acetic acid with ethanol in the presence of hydro-
chloric acid is
(A) CH3COOC2H5 (B) C2H5COOH (C) C2H5COOH 3 (D) CH3OH

42. Among Mg, Cu, Fe, Zn, the metal that does not produce hydrogen gas in reaction with hydrochloric
acid is.
(A) Cu (B) Zn (C) Mg (D) Fe

43. The maximum number of isomeric ethers with the molecular formula C 4H10O is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

44. The number of electrons required to reduce chromium completely in Cr 2O 72 to Cr3+ in acidic
medium, is
(A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 2

45. At constant pressure, the volume of a fixed mass of a gas varies as a function of temperature as
shown in the graph.

The volume of the gas at 300 C is larger than that at 0C by a factor of


(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) 2
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BIOLOGY

46. Excess salt inhibits growth in pickles by


(A) endosmosis (B) exosmosis (C) oxidation (D) denaturation

47. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that are used by biotechnologists to


(A) cut DNA at specific base sequences (B) join fragments of DNA
(C) digest DNA from the 3 end (D) digest DNA from the 5 end

48. Enzyme X extracted from the digestive system hydrolyses peptide bonds. Which of the following are
probable candidate to be enzyme X ?
(A) Amylase (B) Lipase (C) Trypsin (D) Maltase

49. A person with blood group AB has


(A) antigen A and B on RBCs and both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in plasma
(B) antigen A and B on RBCs but neither anti-A and anti-B antibodies in plasma
(C) no antigen on RBCs but both anti-A and anti-B antibodies present in plasma
(D) antigen A on RBCs and antibodies in plasma

50. Glycolysis is the breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid. How many molecules of pyruvic acid are
formed from one molecule of glucose?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

51. The process of transfer of electrons from glucose to molecular oxygen in bacteria and mitochondria
is known as
(A) TCA cycle (B) Oxidative phosphorylation
(C) Fermentation (D) Glycolysis

52. Which one of the following cell types is a part of innate immunity?
(A) Skin epithelial cells (B) B cells
(C) T lymphocytes (D) Liver cells

53. Deficiency of which of the following vitamins can cause impaired blood clotting?
(A) Vitamin B (B) Vitamin C (C) Vitamin D (D) Vitamin K

54. Which one of the following is detrimental to soil fertility?


(A) Saprophytic bacteria (B) Nitrosomes
(C) Nitrobacter (D) Pseudomonas

55. In W hich one of the following phyla is the body segmented?


(A) Porifera (B) Platyhelminthes (C) Annelida (D) Echinodermata

56. Widal test is prescribed to diagnose.


(A) Typhoid (B) Pneumonia (C) Malaria (D) Filaria

57. Which, among grass, goat, tiger and vulture, in a food chain, will have the maximum concentration of
harmful chemicals in its body due to contamination of pesticides in the soil?
(A) Grass since it grows in the contaminated soil
(B) Goat since it eats the grass
(C) Tiger since it feed on the goat which feeds on the grass
(D) Vulture since it eats the tiger, which in turns eats the goat, which eats the grass.

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58. Considering the average molecular mass of a base to be 500 Da, what is the molecular mass of a
double stranded DNA of 10 base pairs?
(A) 500 Da (B) 5kDa (C) 10 kDa (D) 1 kDa

59. Which of the following pairs are both polysaccharides?


(A) Cellulose and glycogen (B) Starch and glucose
(C) Cellulose and fructose (D) Ribose and sucrose

60. Which one of the following is a modified leaf?


(A) Sweet potato (B) Ginger
(C) Onion (D) Carrot

PART-II
Two Marks Questions

MATHEMATICS

61. A triangular corner is cut from a rectangular piece of paper and the resulting pentagon has sides 5, 6,
8, 9, 12 in some order. The ratio of the area of the rectangle is

11 13 15 17
(A) (B) (C) (D)
18 18 18 18

62. For a real number x, let [x] denote the largest integer less than or equal to x, and let {x} = x [x].
The number of solutions x to be equation [x]{x} = 5 with 0 x 2015 is
(A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 2008 (D) 2009

63. Let ABCD be a trapezium with AD parallel to BC. Assume there is a point M is interior of the segment
BC such that AB = Am and DC = DM. Then the ratio of the area of the trapezium to the area of
triangle AMD is.
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) not determinable from the data

64. Given are three cylindrical buckets X,Y,Z whose circular bases are of radii 1,2,3 units, respectively,
Initially water is filled in these buckets upto the same height. Some water is then transferred from Z
to Z so that they both have the same volume of water. Some water is then transferred between X
and Y so that they both have the same volume of water. If h y,hz denote the heights of water at this

hy
stage in the buckets Y,Z, respectively, then the ratio equals.
hz

4 9 81
(A) (B) 1 (C) (D)
9 4 40

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65. The average incomes of the people in two villages are p and Q, respectively. Assume that P Q .A
person moves from the first village to the second village. The new average incomes are P and Q ,
respectively. Which of the following is not possible?

(A) P' > P and Q' > Q (B) P ' > P and Q ' < Q
(C) P' P and Q' Q (D) P' < P and Q' < Q

PHYSICS
66. A girl sees through a circular glass slab(refractive index 1.50 of thickness 20 mm and diameter 60 cm
to the bottom of a swimming pol. Refractive index of water is 1.33. The bottom surface of the slab is in
contact with the water surface.

The depth of swimming pool is 6m. The area of bottom of swimming pool that can be seen through the
slab is approximately.
(A) 100 m 2 (B) 160 m 2 (C) 190 m 2 (D) 220 m 2

67. 1 Kg of ice at 20C is mixed with 2 Kg of water at 90C . Assuming that there is no loss of energy
to the environment, what will be the final temperature of the mixture? (Assume latent heat of ice =
334.4 KJ/Kg, specific heat of water and ice are 4.18 kJ/(kg.K) and 2.09kJ/(kg.K), respectively.)
(A) 30C (B) 0C (C) 80C (D) 45C

68. A rigid body in the shape of a V has two equal arms made of uniform rods. What must the angle
between the two rods be so that when the body is suspended from one end, the other arm is horizon-
tal?

1 1 1 1
(A) cos -1 (B) cos -1 (C) cos -1 (D) cos -1
3 2 4 6
69. A point object is placed 20 cm left of a convex lens of focal length f = 5 cm (see the figure). The lens
is made to oscillate with small amplitude A along the horizontal axis. The image of the object will also
oscillate along the axis with.

(A) amplitude A/9, out of phase with the oscillations of the lens
(B) amplitude A/3, out of phase with the oscillations of the lens
(C) amplitude A/3, in phase with the oscillations of the lens
(D) amplitude A/9, in phase with the oscillations of the lens
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70. Stokes law states that the viscous drag force F experience by a sphere of radius a, moving with a
speed v through a fluid with coefficient of viscosity h , is given by F 6phav
If this fluid is flowing through a cylindrical pipe of radius r, length l and a pressure difference of P across
its two ends, then the volume of water V which flows through the pipe in time t can be written as

a
v p
k h brc
t l
Where k is a dimensionless constant. Correct values of a,b and c are
(A) a = 1, b = 1, c = 4 (B) a = 1, b = 1, c = 4
(C) a = 2, b = 1, c = 3 (D) a = 1, b = 2, c = 4

CHEMISTRY

71. When 262 g of xenon (atomic mass = 131) reacted completely with 152 g of fluorine (atomic mass =
19), a mixture of XeF 2 and XeF 6 was produced. The molar ratio XeF2 : XeF6 is :
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 4 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 3

72. Reaction of ethanol with conc. Sulphuric acid at 170C produces a gas which is then treated with
bromine in carbon tetrachloride. The major product obtained in this reaction is :
(A) 1,2-dibromoethane (B) ethylene glycol
(C) bromoethane (D) ethyl sulphate

73. When 22.4 L of C4H8 at STP is burnt completely, 89.6 L of CO2 gas at STP and 72 g of water are
produced. The volume of the oxygen gas at STP consumed in the reaction is closest to :
(A) 89.6 L (B) 112 L (C) 134.4 L (D) 22.4 L

74. The amount of Ag (atomic mass = 108) deposited at the cathode when a current of 0.5 amp is passed
through a solution of AgNO 3 for 1 hour is closest to :
(A) 2 g (B) 5 g (C) 108 g (D) 11 g

75. The major product of the reaction is :

+
H /H2O
Product

OH
OH OH

HO
I II III IV

(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV

BIOLOGY
76. Genomic DNA is digested with Alu I, a restriction enzyme which is a four base-pair cutter. What is the
frequency with which it will cut the DNA assuming a random distribution of bases in the genome :
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/24 (C) 1/256 (D) 1/1296
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77. If rice is cooked in a pressure cooker on the Siachen glacier, at sea beach, and on Deccan plain,
which of the following is correct about the time taken for cooking rice :
(A) Gets cooked faster on the Siachen glacier
(B) Gets cooked faster at sea beach
(C) Gets cooked faster on Deccan plain
(D) Gets cooked at the same time at all the three places.

78. A few rabbits are introduced in an un-inhabited island with plenty of food. If these rabbits breed in the
absence of any disease, natural calamity and predation, which one of the following graphs best
represents their population growth :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

79. What is the advantage of storing glucose as glycogen in animals instead of as monomeric glucose :
(A) Energy obtained from glycogen is more than that from the corresponding glucose monomers
(B) Glucose present as monomers within the cell exerts more osmotic pressure than a single
glycogen molecule, resulting in loss of water from the cells
(C) Glucose present as monomers within the cell exerts more osmotic pressure than a single
glycogen molecule, resulting in excess water within the cells
(D) Glycogen gives more rigidity to the cells.

80. A line is drawn from the exterior of an animal cell to the centre of the nucleus, crossing through one
mitochondrion. What is the minimum number of membrane bilayers that the line will cross :
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 8 (D) 6

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KISHORE VAIGYANIK PROTSAHAN YOJANA - 2016
Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 100

STREAM - SA
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
The Test Booklet consists of 80 questions.
There are Two parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part
is as under for each correct response.

MARKING SCHEME :
PART-I :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 1 to 15 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 16 to 30 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 31 to 45 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 46 to 60 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.

PART-II :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 61 to 65 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 66 to 70 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 71 to 75 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 76 to 80 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.

VIBRANT ACADEMY (India) Private Limited


A-14(A), Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota-324005 (Raj.)

Tel.:(0744) 2428664, 2428666, 2423406, 3205261, 3205262 Fax: 2423405


Email: admin@vibrantacademy.com Website : www.vibrantacademy.com
YEAR-2016 (KVPY-STREAM-SA)
PART-A (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS

1. Suppose the quadratic polynomial P(x) = ax2 + bx + c has positive coefficients a, b,c in arithmetic progression
in that order. If P(v) = 0 has integer roots a and b. then a + b + ab equals
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 14

2. The number of digits in the decimal expansion of 165516 is


(A) 16 (B) 17 (C) 18 (D) 19

3. Let t be real number such that t2 = at + b for some positive integers a and b. Then for any choice of positive
integers a and b, t3 is never equal to
(A) 4t + 3 (B) 8t + 5 (C) 10t + 3 (d) 6t + 5

4. Consider the equation (1 + a + b) 2 = 3(1 + a2 + b2). where a,b are real numbers. Then

(A) there is no solution pair (a, b)


(B) there are infinitely many solution pairs (a, b)
(C) there are exactly two solution pairs (a,b)
(D) there is exactly one solution pair (a, b)

5. Let a1, a2,....., a100 be non-zero real numbers such that


a1 + a2 + ...... + a100 = 0
Then
100 100

(A) a 2
i =1
i
ai
> 0 and a
i =1
i 2 - ai < 0

100 100

(B) a 2
i =1
i
ai
0 and a
i=1
i 2- ai 0

100 100

(C) a 2
i =1
i
ai
0 and a
i=1
i 2 - ai 0

100 100

(D) the sign of a 2


i =1
i
ai
or a
i =1
i 2 - ai depends on the choice of a s
i

6. Let ABCD be a trapezium, in which AB is parallel to CD. AB = 11. BC = 4. CD = 6 and DA = 3, The distance
between AB and CD is

(A) 2 (B) 2.4


(C) 2.8 (D) not determinable with the data

7. The points A, B, C, D, E are marked on the circumference of a circle in clockwise direction such that
ABC = 130 and CDE = 110. The measure of ACE in degrees is
(A) 50 (B) 60 (C) 70 (D) 80

8. Three circles of radii 1. 2 and 3 units respectively touch each other externally in the plane. The circumradius
of the triangle formed by joining the centers of the circles is
(A) 1.5 (B) 2 (C) 2.5 (D) 3

9. Let P be a point inside a triangle ABC with ABC = 90, Let P1 and P2 be the images of P under reflection
in AB and BC respectively. The distance between the circumcenter of triangles ABC and P1PP2 is
AB AP + BP + CP AC AB + BC + AC
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 2 2

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10. Let a and b be two positive real numbers such that a + 2b 1. Let A1 and A2 be respectively, the areas of

A1
circles with radii ab3 and b2. Then the maximum possible value of A is
2

1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
16 64 16 2 32

11. There are two candles of same length and same size. Both of them burns at uniform rate. The first one
burns in 5 hours and the second one burns in 5 hours. Both the candles are lit together. After how many
minutes the length of the first candle is 3 times that of the other?
(A) 90 (B) 120 (C) 135 (D) 150

12. Consider a cuboid all of whose edges are integers and whose base is a square. Suppose the sum of all its
edges is numerically equal to the sum of the areas of all its six faces. Then the sum of all its edges is
(A) 12 (B) 18 (C) 24 (D) 36

13. Let A1, A2,... , Am be non-empty subsets of {1,2,3, ........100} satisfying the following conditions :
(1) the numbers |A1|, |A2|,... , |Am| are distinct :
(2) A1, A2,.... , Am are pairwise disjoint.
(Here |A| denotes the number of elements in the set A.)
Then the maximum possible value of m is
(A) 13 (B) 14 (C) 15 (D) 16

14. The number of all 2-digit numbers n, such that n is equal to the sum of the square of digit in its tens place
and the cube of the digit in units place is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4

15. Let f be a function defined on the set of all positive integers such that f(xy) = f(x) + f(y) for all positive
integers x,y. If f(12) = 24 and f(8) = 15. the value of f (48) is
(A) 31 (B) 32 (C) 33 (D) 34

PHYSICS
16. A person walks 25.0 north of east for 3.18 km. How far would she have to walk due north and then due east
to arrive at the same location?
(A) towards north 2.88 km and towards east 1.34 km.
(B) towards north 2.11 km and towards east 2.11 km
(C) towards north 1.25 km and towards east 1.93 km
(D) towards north 1.34 km and towards east 2.88 km.

17. The length and width of a rectangular room are measured to be 3.95 = 0.05 in and 3.05 = 0 05 m.
respectively, The area of the floor is

(A) 12.05 0.01 m2 (B) 12.05 = 0.005 m 2 (C) 12.05 = 0.34 m 2 (D) 12.05 = 0.40 m 2

18. A car goes around uniform circular track of radius R at a uniform speed v once m every t seconds. The
magnitude of the Centripetal acceleration is ac. If the car now goes uniformly around a larger circular track
of radius 2R and experiences a centripetal acceleration of magnitude 8ac. then its time period is
(A) 2T (B) 3T (C) T2 (D) 32 T

19. The primary and the secondary coils of a transformer contain 10 and 100 turns, respectively, The primary
coil is connected to a battery that supplies a constant voltage of 1,5 volts. The voltage across the secondary
coil is
(A) 1.5 V (B) 0.15 V (C) 0.0 V (D) 15 V

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20. Water falls clown a 500.0 m shaft to reach a turbine which generates electricity. How much water must fall
per second in order to generate 1,00 109 Watts of power? (Assume 50 % efficiency of conversion and
g = 10 ms 2)
(A) 250 m 3 (B) 400 m3 (C) 500 m3 (D) 200 m 3

21. The diagram below shows two circular loops of wire (A and B) centred on and perpendicular to the x-axis.
and oriented with their planes parallel to each other. The y-axis passes vertically through loop A (dashed
line). There is a current lB in loop B as shown, Possible actions which we might perform on loop A are:

(i) Move A to the right along x axis closer to B


(ii) Move A to the left along x axis away from B
(iii) As viewed from above, rotate A clockwise about y axis
(iv) As viewed from above, rotate A anticlockwise about y axis
Which of these actions will induce a current in A only in the direction shown.
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Only(i) and (iv) (D) Only (ii) and (iii)

22. A rigid boll rolls without slipping on a surface shown below.

Which one of the following is the most likely representation of the distance travelled by the ball vs time
graph?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

23. In an experiment, setup A consists of two parallel wires which carry currents in opposite directions as
shown in the figure. A second setup B is identical to setup A. Except that there is a metal plate between the
wires.

Let FA and FB be the magnitude of the force between the two wires in setup A and setup B. respectively.
(A) F A > FB 0 (B) FA < FB (C) FA = FB 0 (D) FA > F B = 0

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24. In the circuit wire 1 is of neglibible resistance. Then

(A) Current will flow through wire 1 if e1 e2


(B) Current will flow through wire 1 if e1 /R1 e2 /R2
(C) Current will flow through wire 1 if (e1 + e2)/ (R1 + R2) (e1 e2)/ (R1 R2)
(D) No current will flow through wire 1.
25. The radius of a nucleus is given by r0 A1/3 where r0 = 1.3 1015 m and A is the mass number of the nucleus.
The Lead nucleus has A = 206. The electrostatic force between two protons in this nucleus is approximately
(A) 102N (B) 107N (C) 1012N (d) 1017 N
26. A hollow lens is made of thin glass and in the shape of a double concave lens. It can be filled with air. water
of refractive index 1,33 or CS2 of refractive index 1,6. It will act as a diverging lens if it is
(A) filled with air and immersed in water.
(B) filled with water and immersed in CS2
(C) filled with air and immersed in CS2.
(D) filled with air and immersed in water,

27. A stone thrown down with a speed u takes a time t1 to reach the ground, while another stone, thrown
upwards from the same point with the same speed, takes time t 2. the maximum height the second stone
reaches from the ground is
(A) 1/2 gt1 t2 (B) (g/8) (t1 t2)2 (C) g8 (t1 t2)2 (D) 1/2 gt22

28. An electric field due to a positively charged long straight wire at a distance r from it is proportional to r1 in
magnitude. Two electrons are orbiting such a long straight wire in circular orbits of radii 1 A and 2 A. The
ratio of their respective time periods is
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 4 : 1

29. Two particles of identical mass are moving in circular orbits under a potential given by V(r) = Kr n. where K
is a constant. If the radii of their orbits are r 1, r2 and their speeds are v1 : v2, respectively, then
(A) v12 r1n = v22 r2n (B) v12 r1n = v22 r2n (C) v12 r1 = v22 r2 (D) v12 r12.n = v22 r22n

30. Mercury is often used in clinical thermometers. Which one of the following properties of mercury is not a
reason for this?
(A) The coefficient of the thermal expansion is large.
(B) It is shiny.
(C) It is a liquid at room temperature,
(D) It has high density.
CHEMISTRY
31. One mole of one of the sodium salts listed below, having carbon content close to 14.3%, produces 1 mole of
carbon dioxide upon heating (atomic mass Na = 23, H = 1, C = 12, O = 16). The salt is
(A) C2H5COONa (B) NaHCO3 (C) HCOONa (D) CH3COONa

32. Among formic acid, acetic acid, propanoic acid and phenol, the strongest acid m water is
(A) formic acid (B) acetic acid (C) propanoic acid (D) phenol

33. According to Graham's Law, the rate of diffusion of CO, O2, N2 and CO2 follows the order :
(A) CO = N2 > O2 > CO2 (B) CO= N2 > CO2 > O2
(C) O2 > CO = N2 > CO2 (D) CO2 > O 2 > CO = N2

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34. The major product formed when 2-butene is reacted with O3 followed by treatment with Zn/H2O is
(A) CH3COOH (B) CH3CHO (C) CH3CH2OH (D) CH2 = CH2

35. The IUPAC name for the following compound is

(A) 2-propylhex-1-ene (B) 2-butylpent-1-ene


(C) 2-propyl-2-butylethene (D) propyl-1-butylethene

36. The major products obtained in the reaction of oxalic acid with conc. H2SO4 upon heating are
(A) CO, CO2, H2O (B) CO, SO2, H2O (C) H2S, CO. H2O (D) HCOOH, H2S, CO

37. LiOH reacts with CO2 to form Li2CO3 (atomic mass of Li = 7). The amount of CO2 (in g) consumed by 1 g of
LioH is closest to
(A) 0.916 (B) 1.832 (C) 0.544 (D) 1.088

38. The oxidation number of sulphur is 4 in


(A) H2S (B) CS2 (C) Na2SO2 (D) Na2SO3

39. Al2O3 reacts with


(A) only (B) water (C) only alkalis (D) both acids and alkalis

40. The major product formed in the oxidation of acetylene by alkaline KMnO4 is
(A) ethanol (B) acetic acid (C) formic acid (D) oxalic acid

41. In a closed vessel. an ideal gas at 1 atm is heated from 27C to 327c. The final pressure of the gas will
approximately be
(A) 3 atm (B) 0.5 atm (C) 2 atm (D) 12 atm

42. Among the elements Li, N, C and Be one with the largest atomic radius is
(A) Li (B) N (C) C (D) Be
43. A redox reaction among the following is
(i) CdCl2 + 2 KOH Cd(OH)2 2 KCl (ii) BaCl2 + K2SO4 BaSO4 + 2 KCl
(iii) CaCO3 CaO CO2 (iv) 2 Ca + O2 2 CaO
(A) (i) (B) (ii) (C) (iii) (D) (iv)
44. The electronic configuration which obeys Hunds rule for the ground state of carbon atom is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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45. The graph that depicts Einsteins photoelectric effect for a monochromatic source of frequency about the
threshold frequency is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

BIOLOGY

46. What is the length of human DNA containing 6.6 109 bp ?


(A) 22 mm (B) 0.22 mm (C) 2.2 m (D) 22 m

47. The Diptheria, Pertussis, Tetanus (DPT) vaccine consists of


(A) live attenuated strains of Diptheria, Pertussis. Tetanus
(B) toxoid of Diptheria, Tetanus, and heat killed whole cells of Pertussis
(C) whole cell lysate of Diptheria. Pertussis. Tetanus
(D) heat killed strains of Diptheria. Pertussis. Tetanus

48. Which of the following is NOT an enzyme ?


(A) Lipase (B) Amylase (C) Trypsin (D) Bilirubin

49. The pH of the avian blood is maintained by


(A) HCO3 (B) H2PO4 (C) CH3COO (D) Cl

50. Podocyte layer that provides outer lining to the surface of glomerular capillaries are found in
(A) bowmans capsule (B) loop of Henle (C) renal artery (D) ureter

51. If a dsDNA has 20% adenine. what would be its cytosine content ?
(A) 20% (B) 30% (C) 40% (D) 80%

52. Which one of the following is incapable of curing Pellagra ?


(A) Niacine (B) Nicotine (C) Nicotinamide (D) Tryptophan

53. In Escherichia coli, how many codons code for the standard amino-acids?
(A) 64 (B) 60 (C) 61 (D) 20

54. Bombyx mori (silk worm) belongs to the order


(A) Lepidoptera (B) Diptera (C) Hymenoptera (D) Coleoptera

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55. The source of mammalian hormone Relaxin is
(A) ovary (B) stomach (C) intestine (D) pancreas
56. Which one of the following animals is a connecting link between reptiles and mammals ?
(A) Platypus (B) Bat (C) Armadillo (D) Frog
57. What is the number of chromosomes in an individual with Turners syndrome ?
(A) 44 (B) 45 (C) 46 (D) 47
58. Chipko movement in the year 1974 in Garhal Himalayas involved
(A) Protecting tigers
(B) preventing soil erosion by planting trees
(C) preventing pollution by closing down industries
(D) hugging trees to prevent the contractors from felling them
59. Which of the following amino acids is NOT involved in gluconeogenesis ?
(A) Alanine (B) Lysine (C) Glutamate (D) Arginine
60. Which of the following entities causes syphilis ?
(A) Treponema pallidum (B) Neisseria gonorrhoea
(C) HIV (D) Hepatitis B
PART-II
Two Mark Questions
MATHEMATICS

61. Suppose a is a positive real number such that a5 a3 + a = 2


(A) a6 < 2 (B) 2 < a6 < 3 (C) 3 , a6 < 4 (D) 4 s a6
62. Consider the quadratic equation nx2 + 7 n x + n = 0. where n is a positive integer. Which of the following
statements are necessarily correct ?
I. for any n. the roots are distinct.
II. There are infinitely many values of n for which both roots are real.
III. the product of the roots is necessarily an integer.
(A) III only (B) I and III only (C) II and III only (D) I. II and III

63. Consider a semicircle of radius 1 unit constructed on the diameter AB and let O be its centre. Let C be a
point on AO such that AC : CO = 2 : 1 Draw CD perpendicular to AO with D on the semicircle. Draw OE
perpendicular to AD with E on AD. Let OE and CD intersect at H. Then DH equals

1 1 1 5 -1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 3 2 2

64. Let S1 be the sum of areas of the squares whose sides are parallel to coordinate axes. Let S2 be the sum of
areas of the slanted squares as shown in the figure. Then S1/S2 is

1
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D)
2

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65. If a 3-digit number is randomly chosen. What is the probability that either the number itself or some
permutation of the number (which is a 3-digit number) is divisible by 4 and 5 ?

1 29 11 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
45 180 60 4

PHYSICS
66. Which one of the following four graphs best depict the variation with x of the moment of inertia I of a uniform
triangular lamina about an axis parallel to its base at a distance x from it :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

67. A rectangular block is composed of three different glass prisms (with refractive indices 1 , 2 and 3) as
shown in the figure below. A ray of light incident normal to the left face emerges normal to the right face.
Then the refractive indices are related by

(A) 12 + 22 = 232 (B) 12 + 22 = 32 (C) 12 + 32 = 222 (D) 22 + 32 = 212

68. A uniform metal plate shaped like a triangle ABC has a mass of 540 gm. The length of the sides AB. BC. and
CA are 3 cm. 5 cm and 4 cm. respectively. the plate is pivoted freely about the point A. What mass must be
added to a vertex, so that the plate can hang with the long edge horizontal ?
(A) 140 gm at C (B) 540 gm at C (C) 140 gm at B (D) 540 gm at B

69. A 20 gm bullet whose specific heat is 5000 J/ (kg C) and moving at 2000 m/s plunges into a 1.0 kg block
of wax whose specific heat is 3000 J/ (kg C). Both bullet and wax are at 25C and assume that (i) the
bullet comes to rest in the wax and (ii) all its kinetic energy goes into heating the wax. Thermal temperature
of the wax in C is close to
(A) 28.1 (B) 31.5 (C) 37.9 (D) 42.1

70. A V shaped rigid body has two identical uniform arms. What must be the angle between the two arms so
that when the body is hung from one end the other arm is horizontal ?
(A) cos1 (1/3) (B) cos1 (1/2) (C) cos1 (1/4) (D) cos1 (1/6)

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CHEMISTRY

71. In the following reaction, X, Y and Z are

(A) X = CH3Cl ; Y = anhydrous AlCl3 ; Z = HNO3 + H2SO4


(B) X = CH3COCl ; Y = anhydrous AlCl3 ; z = HNO3 + H2SO4
(C) X = CH3Cl ; Y = conc. H2SO4 ; Z = HNO3 + H2SO4
(D) X = CH3Cl ; Y = dil. H2SO4 ; Z = HNO3

72. 2,3- Dibromobutane can be converted to 2-butyne in a two-step reaction using


(A) (i) HCl and (ii) NaH (B) (i) alcoholic KOH and (ii) NaNH2
(C) (i) Na and (ii) NaOH (D) (i) Br2 and (ii) NaH

73. Given
NO(g) + O3(g) NO2 (g) + O2 (g) DH = 198.9 kJ/Mol
O3 (g) 3/2 O2 (g) DH = 142.3 kJ/mol
O2 (g) 2O (g) DH = + 495.0 kJ/mol
The enthalpy change (DH) for hte following reaction is
NO(g) + O(g) NO2 (g)
(A) 304.1 kJ/mol (B) + 304.1 kJ/mol (C) 403.1 kJ/mol (D) + 403.1 kJ/mol

74. A 1.85 g sample of an arsenic-containing pesticide was chemically converted to AsO43 (atomic mass of As
= 74.9) and titrated with Pb2 to form Pb3 (AsO4)2. If 20 mL of 0.1 M Pb2+ is required to reach the equivalence
point the mass percentage of arsenic in the pesticide sample is closest to
(A) 8.1 (B) 2.3 (C) 5.4 (D) 3.6

75. When treated with conc. HCl. MnO2 yield a gas (X) which further reacts with Ca(OH)2 to generate a white
solid (Y). the solid Y reacts with dil. HCl to produce the same gas X. The solid Y is
(A) CaO (B) CaCl2 (C) Ca(OCl)Cl (D) CaCO3

BIOLOGY

76. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm Hg at the sea level. Which of the following ranges is nearest to the
partial pressure of CO2 in mm Hg?
(A) 0.30 0.31 (B) 0.60 0.61 (C) 3.0 3.1 (D) 6.0 6.1

77. A breeder crossed a pure bred tall plant having white flowers to a pure bred short plant having blue flowers.
He obtained 202 F1 progeny and found that they are all tall having white flowers. Upon Selfing these F 1
plants. he obtained a progeny of 2160 plants. Approximately. How many of these are likely to be short and
having blue flowers ?
(A) 1215 (B) 405 (C) 540 (D) 135

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78. Match the different types of heart given in column A with organisms given in the column B. Choose the
correct combination.
Column A Column B
(P) Neurogenic heart (i) Human
(Q) Bronchial heart (ii) King crab
(R) Pulmonary heart (iii) Shark

P Q R
(A) ii iii i
(B) iii ii i
(C) i iii ii
(D) ii i iii

79. Given below are the four schematics that describe the dependence of the rate of an enzymatic reaction on
temperature. Which of the following combinations is true for thermophilic and psychrophilic organisms ?

(A) P and P (B) P and S (C) P and R (D) R and R

80. Match the enzymes in Group I with the reaction in Group II select the correct combination.
Group I Group II
(P) Hydrolase (i) Inter conversion of optical isomers
(Q) Lyase (ii) Oxidation and reduction of two substrates
(R) Isomerase (iii) Joining of two compounds
(S) Ligase (iv) Removal of a chemical group from a substrate
(v) Transfer of a chemical group from one substrate to another

P Q R S
(A) iv ii iii i
(B) v iv i iii
(C) iv i iii v
(D) i iv v ii

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KISHORE VAIGYANIK PROTSAHAN YOJANA - 2014

STREAM - SA
ANSWER KEY
Que s Ans Que s Ans Que s Ans Que s Ans

1 C 21 A 41 B 61 B

2 C 22 B 42 D 62 A

3 A 23 B 43 C 63 D

4 D 24 A 44 C 64 A

5 D 25 B 45 A 65 D

6 D 26 C 46 B 66 B

7 B 27 B 47 A 67 D

8 B 28 B 48 B 68 C

9 C 29 B 49 D 69 D

10 B 30 A 50 B 70 D

11 D 31 A 51 D 71 B

12 B 32 B 52 C 72 A

13 C 33 D 53 A 73 D

14 C 34 A 54 B 74 A

15 B 35 B 55 A 75 A

16 A 36 C 56 D 76 C

17 D 37 D 57 B 77 C

18 B 38 B 58 B 78 B

19 A 39 A 59 C 79 A

20 B 40 C 60 D 80 A

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PART-I
One Mark Questions

MATHEMATICS
1.
Sol. r be a root r2 + 2r + 6 = 0 ...................(1)
now (r+2) (r+3) (r+4) (r+5)
= (r2 + 5r +6) (r2 + 9r + 20)
= (3r) (7r + 14) using (i)
= 21 (r2 + 2r)
= -126 using (i)
Ans. (C)

2.
1
Sol. Given f(x) + (x+ ) f (1-x) = 1 ................(1)
2
but x = 0
1
f (0) + f (1) = 1
2
2f (0) + f (1) = 2 ...............................(2)
put x = 1 in (1)
3
f (1) + f (0) = 1
2
2f (1) +3 f (0) = 2 .............................(3)
Solving (2) & (3) we have
F(0) = 2 & f (1) = -2
\ 2f(0) + f (1) = 4-6 = -2
Ans. (C)
2
13 + 23 + ..... + (2n )3 2n(2n + 1) 6
3. .
12 + 22 + ........ + n 2 2 n( n + 1)(2n + 1)
6n(2n + 1)
=
n +1
12n 2 + 6 n 12( n 2 - 1) + 6( n + 1) + 6
=
n +1 n +1
6
=I+
n +1
6
If the given terms is an intiger, then must be an integer
n +1
n = 1,2,5
Sum = 8
Ans. (A)
4. X ab or x = 10 a + b
y ba or y = 10 b + a
Now x2 - y2 = (10a +b)2 - (10 b + a)2
= 99 (a2 - b2)
= 32 x 11(a + b) (a b) ------ (1)
According of Q
(a + b)(a b) = 11 and a b = 1
a + b = 11 and a b = 1

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a = 6, b = 5
Hence
x = 65
y = 56
and m = 33 x + y + m = 154
Ans. (D)

5.
Sol. \ HCF = x 1
p(x) = x2 5x + a
= x2 5x + 4
= (x 1) (x 4) ..........(1)
and q(x) x2 3x + b = x 2 3x + 2
= (x 1) (x 2) ..........(2)
k(x) = (x 1) (x 2) (x 4)
Hence
(x 1) + R(x) = (x 1) + (x 1) (x 2) (x 2) (x 4)
= (x 1) (x 3)2
Hence sum of roots = 7
Ans. (D)

6. Construction: complete the equilateral DAPB

DABC ~ DBPD
x -a b
= x=a+b
x x
AB = AD + BC
Ans. (C)

7.

Sol.

area of sector OACB = r q = 1 p = p


2

2 2 3 6
p
area of shaded region area of DOAB
6

p 3
-
6 4
Hence area of line = Area of semi-circle area of shaded region

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1 1 p 3
2

= p - -
2 2 6 4

3 p p
= + -
4 8 6

3 p
= - .
4 24
Ans. (B)
8.
AI b+c
Sol. Q ........ (1)
IF a
BI a + c 3
Q = = ........(2)
ID b 2
CI a + c 2
Q = =
IE c 1
a + b = 2c .......(3)
(2) 2a + 2c = 3b using to
2a + a + b = 3b using (3)
3a = 2b
3
b a .........(4)
2
Now again (3) 2c = a + b
3
=a+ a
2
5
c+ a
4
1 5
a+ a
Hence AI b + c 2 4 11
= = =
IF a a 4
Ans. (B)

9.

Sol.

\ RP = RA = 10 - a RS = 10 - a + b ...... (1)
Also SQ = SD = 10 - b RS = 10 - b + a .......(2)
(1) and (2) a = b , Hence RS = 10
Ans. (C)
10.

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Sol.

1. DAOB is equilatrual (AOB = OAB = OBA = 60)


2. DOBC is right angled isosceles (OBC = 90)
3. DABC is isosceles (BAC = BCA = 15)
4. OAC = 60 - CAB = 45
5. DAOF is right angled isosceles (AOF = 90, OFA = 45)
6. BOF = 90 - AOB = 30
7. DOBC is right angled isosceles (BOC = 45)
BOF 30 2
\ = =
BOC 45 3

Ans. (B)
11.
Sol. Let total seats = 100
on first day,
Ticket price = 200
sneots ful = 60%
60
= 100 = 60
100
\ Revenue = 60 200
R1 = 12000
On second day
Tricked price = 200 20% of 200
20
= 200 - 200
100
= 200 40 = 160
Scents full 60 + 50% of 60
50
= 60 + 60
100
= 60 + 30 = 90
Revenue = 160 90
R2 = 14400
R2 - R1
% Increase is Revenue = 100
R1

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14400 - 12000
= 100
12000
2400
= 100
1200
= 20%

Ans. (D)

12.
Sol. year Population
2010 39
2011 60
2012 x
2013 123
According to Q
x - 39 = k (60) & 63 = kr
63
x - 39 = .63
x
x 2 - 39 x = -(60)(63) = 0
x = 84 & - 40
Ans(B)
13. N = ab ab ab
1< a 9 0<b9 a, b I
N = 10 a + 10 b + 10 a + 10 b + 10a + b
5 4 3 2

= (10 4 + 10 2 + 1)(10a + b )
= (10 2 + 10 + 1)(102 - 10 + 1) (10a + b )
= 3 37 13 7(10a + b ) ......... (1)
then 10a + b = P1 P2 p1,p2 prime and 10 10a + b 99
a b 10a + b
1 0 10 = 2 5
2 2 22 = 2 11
3 4 34 = 2 17
3 8 38 = 2 19
4 6 46 = 2 33
5 5 55 = 5 11
5 8 58 = 2 29
6 2 62 = 2 31
7 4 74 = 2 37
8 2 82 = 2 41
8 5 85 = 5 17
9 4 94 = 2 47
9 5 95 = 5 19

Ans(C)
14. Sol. Let house no are a , a , + 2, a + 4, a + 6, a + 8, a + 10,.....
a + 10 = a a = a - 10 ............ (1)
House no. will be (+)
a = a - 10 > 0
a > 10
a 12 as a is each too ...........(2)
n
Now Sn = 2a + ( n - 1)d
2

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n
170 = 2a + (n - 1)(2)
2
= n(a + ( n - 1))
= n(a - 10 + n - 1)
= n(a - 11 + n )
n 2 + n(a - 11) - 170 = 0

(11 - a ) (a - 11)2 + 680


n= ..........(3)
2
Qn 6

(11 - a ) (a - 11)2 + 680


6
2
800
a .........(4)
24
From (2) and (4) 12 a 32
Now checking through (3) for a = 12, 14,.....;
we have a = 18, n = 10 and Sn = 170
Hence options
Ans(C)
15.
5 2520 a 2 + 840 a 3 + 210 a 4 + 42 a 5 + 7 a 6 + a 7
Sol. 7 7

2520a2 + 840a3 + 210a4 + 42a5 + 7a6 + a7 = 3600


Let a2 = a3 = a4 = 1 a5 = 0 a6 = 4 a7 = 2
Ans(B)
PHYSICS
16.
Sol. |slope| is increasing at point R
Ans. (A)
17.

Sol. No Bnoycncy force in vaccum


Ans. (D)
18.

Sol.

F
tanq = (F same)
mg

1
tan q a
m

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\ m1 = m2
Ans. (B)

19.

Sol. Case-1
v 2gh
Case-2
DU + DkE = w f

1 2gh
-mgh + m = -m mgh
2 9

8
m
9
Ans. (A)
20. Ans. (B)

21. Ans. (A)

22.

Sol. For min deviatom


i=e

A
r1 = r2 =
2
\ r1 = r2 = 30

For minimum devation i should lie between 40 to 50


Ans. (B)
23.

Sol.

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1 1.6 1 1
= - 1 +
F 2 0.2 0.2
0.4 1
=-
2 0.1
F = 0.5 divorcing lens
Ans. (B)

24. Sol. In option B it will not move, in option C & D path will be straight line.
Ans. (A)
25.
kQ 2
Sol. mi = =E
d -Q / 2
Q
Q

kQ 2 k ( -Q )2 k - Q 2
mf = + +
d d d

kQ 2
=- = -E
d
Ans. (B)
26. Sol.Useing lenz's law upper face first become North pole then south pole

Ans. (C)
27. Ans. (B)

28. In SHM particle comes 2 times at every position in 1 oscillation, so actual histogram may be option (A)
but since at it random snap shots so it should be option (D)
Ans. (D)

29. Ans. (B)

30. Ans. (A)

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CHEMISTRY
31.

Sol. CO & N2 are isoelectronic

Ans. (A)
32.

Sol. HYDRAZINE N2H4

LP = 2
BP = 5
Ans. (B)
33.

Sol. C (s ) + O2 ( g ) CO2 (g )
moles = 1mole 1mole 1mole
weight = 12gm 32gm 44gm
12gm of C require 1 mole of O2
1
\ 2.4gm of C will recquire 2.4 mole of O2
12
22.4 2.4
volume of 2.4/12 mole O2 at STP = litre
12
4.48 litre

Ans. (D)
34.
Sol. Nonpolar substance will have high Rf value as solvent is nonpolar therefore option (A) will have high Rf value
as it have low dipole moment.
Ans. (A)

35. Ans. (A)

36.
RH n 2
Sol. rn
Z
53 n 2
rHe+
Z
53 12
= = 27 approx.
2
Ans. (C)

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37. Ans. (D)

38.

Sol. NH 4Cl acidic Salt (PH < 7)


NaCl Neutral Salt (PH = 7)
CH3COONa Basic salt (PH > 7)

Ans. (B)

39.
1
Sol. average speed a
M

VHe 32 MO2
= =
VO2 4 M He

= 8 =2 2
Ans. (A)

40.
Sol. NH 4Cl + NaNO2 NaCl + N2 + 2H 2O
Ans. (C)

41.
Sol. CH 3 - O - CH2 - CH 2 - CH3
CH 3 - CH 2 - O - CH 2 - CH3

Ans. (B)
42.

Sol.

Oxidation
Ans. (D)
43.

Sol. I,II & IV compound form H bond III do not form HBond
Ans. (C)
44.

Sol. DG = -RT ln K eq
Ans. (C)
45.

Sol. As we move from left to right in period ionisaton energy increases.


Ans. (A)

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BIOLOGY
46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (B) 49. (D) 50. (B) 51. (D) 52. (C)
53 (A) 54. (B) 55. (A) 56. (D) 57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (C)
60. (D)

PART-II
Two Mark Questions

MATHEMATICS
61. a + b + c = 0, a,b,c R 0
a2 +b2 +c2 + 2(ab + bc +ca) = 0
q = a2 +b2 +c2, r = a 4 + b4 +c4
r = q2 - 2(a2b2 +b2c2 +c2a2)
r = q2 -2[(ab + bc + ca)2 - 2abc(a + b + c)]
r = q2 - 2 (q2 / 4)
r = q2 / 2
ANS - B
1947
1 974 487
62. Total1945
terms = 1948
n 0 2 + 2
4 1947
2 1947
2
1 1 1
+ = 1947
T1 = 1 + 21947 1947
21947 + 2 2 2 2
Similarly & \
1947
1 974 487
= =
2 + 2
n 0
4 1947
2 1947
21945
ANS - A
63. x+y=a ...............(1)
2 2
x y
+ =4 ...............(2)
x -1 y -1
x=a-y
put in equation (2)
2
a-y y2
=4+
a - y -1 y -1
(a -y)2 (y-1) + y2(a-y-1) = 4 (a-y-1) (y-1)
y2 (2-a) +y(a2-2a) + 4a - 4 -a2 = 0
D0

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(a2 - 2a)2 - 4(2 - a)(4a - 4 -a2) 0
(a2 - 2a)2 - 4(a - 2)(a2 - 4a + 4) 0
a2(a - 2)2 - 4(a - 2)(a - 2)2 0
(a - 2)2 [a2 - 4a + 8] 0
{D < 0 +ive}
(a - 2)2 0

a R Q a [1,2014]
ANS -D

64.

Equation of line AB is
x y
+ =1
7 5
a
Let P [a , 5(1 - )]
7
on solving 16(PA)2 = 9(PB)2
7 2 5
P[ , ]
3 3
Let BP : PC = l : 1
then l = 2
BP:PC = 2 : 1
ANS - (A)

65. abc + ab + bc + ca + a + b + c = 29
ab (c + 1) +b (c + 1) + a(c + 1) + c + 1 = 30
(a + 1) (b +1) (c+1) = 30
9 a 1 0 b, c 9 a,b,c I
Then no of sol. = 18
ANS - (D)
PHYSICS
66.
Sol. Finaly com at p
A 1X1 + A 2 X2
Xam = A1 + A 2

(a - b)
a (a - b) + b(a - b)(a - b + b / 2)
(a-b) = 2
a a-b + a-b b

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2
a a
\ - -1= 0
b b
a 1+ 5
b 2
Ans. (B)

67. Weight = F0
4pr2t r W g + 4/3pr3 r g = 4/3 pr3 r air g
Ne
\ t = 3.5 um
Ans. (D)

68. Heat lost = heat gas


0.05 x 900 x (300 - 160) = 1 x 4200 x (T - 30)
T = 31.5
Ans. (C)

69.

45 + r > C
also 45 - r > C
90 > C
Q m > 2
Ans (D)

70.

Using KCL
At point A
Current is 3mA
At point C
Current is 8 mA
At point E
Current is 21 mA
At point G
Current through GH is
34 ma
\ VPQ = VGH = i RGH
= 34 V
Ans. (D)

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CHEMISTRY
71.

Sol. 2H 2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) 2H 2O( l )
0.2 mole 0.1 mole 0.2 mole

moles of gas remainting = 9.7


at consiant (T) & (V)
n1 p1
n2 p2

10 1
= & p2 = 0.97
9.7 p2

Ans. (B)
72.

Sol.

mmol of NH3
millimole of H2SO4 = = 20
2
mmol NH3 = mmol of N = 40
40 14 560
WN = = = 0.56 g
1000 1000
0.56
% of N = 100 = 28
2
Ans. (A)
73.

Sol. 1.125L of H2 produced by 0.1 eqvivalent of metal


0.1 1.85
1.85L a of H2 will be produced by eqvivalents
1.125
\ No of gram eqvivalent of metal
2 2
= =
Eqvivalent weight x

0.1 2
\ 1.85 =
1.125 x

x 12.16
Ans. (D)
74.

Sol. CaO + C CaC2 + CO2


CaC2 + H 2O HC CH + Ca(OH )2

Re d Hot
3HC CH
Fe
Ans. (A)

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KISHORE VAIGYANIK PROTSAHAN YOJANA - 2015

STREAM - SA
ANSWER KEY

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PART-I
One Mark Questions
MATHEMATICS

1. f ( x) x 2 + ax + 2
g ( x) x2 + 2x + a
Here a common Roat then
2
1 a a 2 2 1
=
1 2 2 a a 1

= a = 2, 3
f ( x ) + g ( x) 2 x 2 + ( a + 2) x + a + 2
- (a + 2) 1
Sum of roots = if a = 3 then sum =
2 2

2. n + 2n + 3n + .. + 99n
n (1 + 2 + 3 + + 99)
(99)(100)
n = 9 25 22 n is a perfect square when n = 22
2
Number of digits in n = 3

3. For option (3) if x = z = 1 and y = 2 then option (3) is right.


So by option (3) we cant say x = y = z. Remaining options implies x = y = z

4. Let Sides of Rectangle are x & y


Then
5x + 6 y 76
4y = 3x
After solving we get y = 6 , x = 8
Perimeter = 2 (x + y) = 28

5. 24 k ( 23 3) k
Exponent of 2 in 13!

13 13 13
2 + 2 2 + 23 10
Exponent of 3 in 13!

13 13
3 + 32 5

So (2 3 3) 3 So K = 3

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A

X Y
6.

B C

DBCX DBCY (Obvious)


Same base and same height
Now Let A(O) , AB b, AC c
So AX l b , AY l c
1 r r
DACX l | bc |
2
1 r r
DABY l | b c |
2
1 2 r r
DAXY l | b c |
2
1 r r
DABC | bc |
2

A Q
R

P
7.

B C
So from Diagram
q + q + f + f 180
A q+f 90

D(0, 1)
C(1, 1)
r
r
P(r, 1/2)
8.

A B(1, 0)
(0, 0)

PC = r

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PC 2 = r2
2
1
(r 1) + - 1
2 r2
2
1
1 2r + 0
4
5
r
8

D(0, 1) S(d, 1)
C(0, 1)

P(0, a) Q(1, c)
9.

A(0, 0) R(b, 0) B(1, 0)

PQ ^ RS

c-a b-d - (1)

3 3
PQ
4
27
PQ 2
16
27
1 + (a - c) 2 .. (2)
16
RS (b - d ) 2 + 1 (3)
By equation (1), (2) and (3)

3 3
RS
4

2y
10. y

x x

1 7
A1 x 2 y + ( y + 2 y)x xy
2 2

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y2/2
A K B
2
45 y A = y /2

O 45 C
m 2y D
2
y /2 y y 45 2
y /2
45
G E
y H F y
HF = 2x - 2y y2

y2
A2 4 + (2 x - 2 y ).2 y + y 2
2
A1 A2
x = 2y

Railway Station

11.

Train

9v + 88 = 21v
12v = 88
88
V=
12
88
Required = 9V = 9 66
12

1
12. (n + 1)1/ 3 - (n)1/ 3 <
12
1
(n + 1)1/ 3 < (n)1/ 3 +
12
Cube Both side are get

1 1727
(n1/ 3 ) n1/ 3 + >
12 432
So n = 8 only possible least positive integer

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13. If n = 3m then n 19 is multiple of 3
If n = 3m + 1 or 3m + 2 then n38 1 is multiple of 3 by binomial expansion

14. 121!+131!+141!
121!(1 + 13 + 14 13)
121
! 196
Which is only divided by possible distinct primes
2,3,5,7,11

15. first arrange EUAIO 1

| E | U | A | I | O | 6
For consonant C4 15
6
C4 (1)
PHYSICS

16. F = Ma
f
M
a
DM 100 Df Da
100 + 100
M f a
0.2 0.01
+
10 1
DM 0.03 10
\ M 10 0.3 kg

a/2
Center
of mass

h/2

17.

mg

h
tan q 2
a/2
h a tan q

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18. v=0+1t
dx
t
dt
dx t dt
x t 2 . Parabolic (1)

dx
=4
dt
dx 4dt
x t .. Linear (2)

Pole Star

Earth

19.

1
21. 02 2 2 - 2a
4
a = 8m/s2
aT = 10 + 8 = 18m/s2
f = ma
= 75 18
= 1350 N

22. R

10 c m 30 cm 30 cm 20 cm
10 + 30 + 30 + 20 = 90 cm
O I
F = 10 cm F = 10 cm F = 10 cm

23. 20 cm 30 cm 30 cm 10 cm

20 + 30 + 30 + 10 = 90 cm
O I

No Shift in image
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24. 40
40 40

1.33 sin 90 m. sin 40


1.33 1
= m
sin 40 0
1.33
= m
3/ 5
1.33 5
= m
3
= m 2.07
= m > 2.07 (For TIR)

dv - v 2 du
25.
dt u 2 dt
1 1 1
& +
v F u

1 1 1
+
V 10 - 15
1 3- 2
v 30
v = 30 cm
2
dv 30
2
dt 15
= 8 cm/s away from lens

v2
26. Pbulb = i2R
R
v2
1
16
VB = 4 V
1 i 2 16
1
IB = Amp.
4
1
6 req (equivalent of groups of r)
4
Where
req .r
req r+
req + r

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mv 2
27. mg ' (where g is nearly equal to g)
r

28. Total energy must be less than zero and as potential energy is negative so answer is A

- P0
29. P V + P0 . (1)
V0
&
PV nRT (2)

P0V V
\T 1 -
R V0

CHEMISTRY
31. Ammonium sulphate (NH4)2 SO 4 =
28 100 28 100
% of nitrogen = @ 21.21%
36 + 96 132

32. Mendeleevs periodic law states that properties of elements are periodic function of their atomic
masses.

33. Total number of electrons = 2(2l+1) = 18

OCH3 NO2

34.
COOH COOH COOH
(A) (B) (C)

(B) OCH3 exerts +M effect destabilizes the conjugate base of the acid.
(C) NO2 exerts M effect and stabilizes the conjugate base of the acid

KMnO4 / H +
35. CH3 CH = CH CH3 2CH3COOH

36. NaHCO3( s ) + CH 3COOH ( l ) CO2 ( g ) + H 2O( l ) + CH 3COO - ( aq ) + Na + ( aq )

37. Metals form ionic bond as they have low ionization energies.
1s2 2s 2 2p6 3s1 : Sodium metal

38. 2ZnS ( s ) + 3O2 ( g ) heat



2 ZnO( s ) + 2SO2( g )

39. Avogadros number = A 0


Normality = n t Molarity
1=2M
1
M= mol L-1
2
1
Moles of H2SO4 = 0.2 = 0.1 moles
2
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Normality = 1; Volume = 200 ml (0.2 litre)
Moles of hydrogen = 0.2 moles
Moles of sulphur = 0.1 moles
Atoms = 0.1 A0

O
O C O

C C O

O
40. C C O

O C O
O

+
CH 3 - C - OH + HOC 2 H 5
H
CH 3 - O - OC 2 H 5
41. || ||
O O
Ethyl acetate

42. Metals having more standard reduction potential than H + /H 2(g) cant produce H2(g) in acidic me-
dium.

43. C 4 H10O CH 3 - CH 2 - CH 2 - O - CH 3
CH 3 - CH - O - CH 3
|
CH 3
CH 3 - CH 2 - O - CH 2 - CH 3

44. Cr2 O 72 - + 14H + + 6e - 2Cr 3+ + 7H 2 O

45. From graph.:

500

V
250

0C 300C
T
T1 = 0C V1 = 250
T2 = 300 V2 = 500
V2
2
V1

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BIOLOGY

46. Due to hypertonic solution outside the bacterial cell, bacteria will die by plasmolysis

47. Restriction endonucleases cut ds DNA from specific base sequence (Palindromic sequence)

48. Trypsin is proteolytic enzyme.

49. Person with blood group AB having both A and B antigens in membrane of his RBC but lacks antibod-
ies (a, b) in his plasma.

50. In glycolysis one mol. Glucose (C 6H12O6) froms two mol. Of pyruvic acid (CH 3COCOOH)

51. ETS or electron transport system is also known as oxidative phosphorylation.

52. Skin, mucus membranes and phagocytes are part of innate immunity.
53. Vit. K is useful in synthesis of prothrombin and fibrinogen is liver which are necessary for blood
clotting.
54. Pseudomonas is denitrifying bacterium
55. Annelids show metameric segmentation.
56. Typhoid is caused by Salmonella typhi which is diagnosed by widal test.
57. It is due to biomagnifications.

58. 1 Base = 500 Da, ds DNA having 10 BP or 20 bases, thus 20 500 10kDa

59. Cellulose is polymer of b , D-glucose and glycogen of a , D-glucose. Glucose, fructose and ribose are
monosaccharides.
60. Onion is bulb forms by fleshy scaly leaves sweet potato and carrot (root), Ginger rhizome (stem)

PART-II
Two Marks Questions

MATHEMATICS

61.

Angle of Rectangle = 12 9

1
Area of pentagon = 12 9 - 3 4
2
12 9 - 6
12 9 - 6 17
Required =
12 9 18

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62. {x} = x [x]
[x]{x} = 5 f 0
If =5
0<f<1
Possible solutions

5 5 5
6 + , 7 + ,........, 2014 + 2009
6 7 2014

B a a m(a, b) (a+c,b)
C(a+2c, b)
(a, b)
b
63.

A D(a+c, 0)
a c

1
(a + c) + 2(a + c) b
2 3
Required = 1
(a + c )b
2

z
x

64. h h h

1 2 3

V= ph p4h p9 h .. stage (1)


5ph 4ph 5ph .. stage (2)
4.5ph 4.5ph 5ph ... stage (3)

9ph
4p.h y p9h z 5ph
2
9h 5
hy hz h
8 9
hy 9h 5h
/
hz 8 9
81
40
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m

65.
Q
Let number of peoples in two villages are n and m respectively
So nP P(n 1) = (m + 1)Q mQ
n(P P) + P = m(Q Q) + Q

PHYSICS

66. For maximum possible area


I should be 90
4
1 sin90 = sinr
3
3
sin r '
4
3
tan r '
7
2
3
Total base area p 6 + 0.3 160m 2
7

67. mi si (DT ) + mi L + mi .sw (T - 0) mw sw (90 - T )


1 2.09(20) + 1 334.4 + 1 4.18 T 2 4.18 (90 - T )
T = 60 30 = 30 C

68. m1r1 + m2 r2 0
mr1 mr2
r1 r2
l l
cos q - l cos q
2 2
3l l
cos q
2 2
1
cos q
3

1 1 1
69. +
v 20 5
20
v cm
3

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+ v2
Dxi Dxo
u2
A
Dxi out of phase with lens
9
Hence (A) is correct

a
V p b c
70. h r
t l
L3T -1 ( ML-2T -2 ) a Lc ( ML-1T -1 ) b
a+b=0
- 2a - b + c 3
- 2a - b -1
c = 4, a = 1, b = 1
Ans (A) is correct

CHEMISTRY

71. Xe + F2 XeF2 + XeF6


262 152
a mole b mole
131 38
= 2 mole 4 mole
Let a mole XeF2 form and b mole XeF6 form
Apply POAC
a 1 + b 1 2 .. (1)
2a + 6b 8 .. (2)
After solving eq. (1) & (2)
a = 1 mole & b = 1 mole

CH 3 - CH 2 - OH Conc
CH 2
.H 2 SO 4
CH 2
Br2
CH 2 - CH 2
170 CCl
Ethene 4
| |
Br Br
72.
1,2 - Dibromoethene

73. C 4 H8 + 6O 2 4CO 2 + 4H 2 O
22.4 lit 89.6 lit. 72 g
At S.T.P. at S.T.P.
72
1 mole 4 mole 4mole
18
For complete combustion of 1 mole C4H8
6 mole O2 required
n O2 6 mole

VO2 6 22.4
VO2 134.4 lit.

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E
74. W I t
96500
108
W 0.5 3600 2gm
96500

75.

OH

+
H /H 2O

Mechanism electrophilic addition reaction of alkenes.

+ + H
H H2O: +
O OH
H

BIOLOGY

76. Alu, I is a restriction endonuclease which is a four base pair cutter its frequency is 1/256 BP, while
frequency of 6 cutter Bam HI, ECORI is 1/4096.

77. Rice cooked faster at sea level than high altitude.

78. In absence of disease, natural calamity and predation growth of rabbit is exponential.

79. Glucose maintaining high osmotic pressure inside cell.

80.

1 2 3

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KISHORE VAIGYANIK PROTSAHAN YOJANA - 2016

STREAM - SA
ANSWER KEY

Q. No Key Q. No Key Q. No. Key Q. No Key


1 C 21 A 41 C 61 C
2 C 22 D 42 A 62 B
3 B 23 C 43 D 63 C
4 D 24 D 44 A 64 A
5 A 25 A 45 C 65 *
6 B 26 D 46 C 66 A
7 B 27 B 47 B 67 C
8 C 28 B 48 D 68 C
9 C 29 A 49 A 69 C
10 B 30 D 50 A 70 A
11 D 31 B 51 B 71 A
12 C 32 A 52 B 72 B
13 A 33 A 53 C 73 A
14 C 34 B 54 A 74 C
15 D 35 A 55 A 75 C
16 D 36 A 56 A 76 A
17 C 37 A 57 B 77 D
18 C 38 D 58 D 78 A
19 C 39 D 59 B 79 D
20 B 40 D 60 A 80 B

*2 mark credit for all candidates

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