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NARAYANA IIT ACADEMY

INDIA
Sec:Sr.IIT-Z (IZ) CO-SPARK REVISION CTMM-6
Dt: 10-01-15

Name of the Student: ___________________ I.D. NO:


IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball

Point Pen. Use of

pencil is strictly prohibited.

2. The test is of 3 hours duration.

3. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.

4. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and

Maths having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4

(four) marks for correct response.

5. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 4 for correct

response of each question. (1/4) (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating

incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made

if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.


Narayana IIT Academy 10-01-15_Sr.IIT-Z (IZ) CO-
SPARK_JEE MAIN_CTM-6

6. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response

in any question

will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted

accordingly as per

instruction 5 above.

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Narayana IIT Academy 10-01-15_Sr.IIT-Z (IZ) CO-
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PHYSICS
1. A diatomic ideal gas is heated at constant volume until the pressure is doubled and
again heated at constant pressure until its volume is doubled. The average molar heat
capacity for the whole process is :
13R 19 R 23R 17 R
1) 2) 3) 4)
6 6 6 6
2. Two plane mirrors are joined together as shown in figure. Two point objects O 1 and O2
are placed symmetrically such that AO1 = AO2. The image of the two objects is
common if :

1) = 60 2) = 90 3) = 30 4) = 45
3. A half-wave rectifier is used to convert n Hz a.c into d.c, then the number of pulses
per second present in the rectified voltage is
1) n 2) n/2 3) 2n 4) 4n
4. Which of the following logic gates the given truth table represents

A B Y
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 0

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Narayana IIT Academy 10-01-15_Sr.IIT-Z (IZ) CO-
SPARK_JEE MAIN_CTM-6

1) XOR gate 2) NOR gate 3) AND gate 4) OR gate


5. In the figure shown find the total magnification after two successive reflections first on
M1 & then on M2

1) +1 2) 2 3) +2 4) 1
6. The gate represented by the block diagram is :

B Y

1) AND 2) NOT 3) NAND 4) NOR


7. Half-life of a radioactive substance A is two times the half-life of another radioactive
substance B. Initially the number of nuclei of A and B are N A and N B respectively.
After three half lives of A number of nuclei of both are equal. Then the ratio N A / N B is:
1) 1/4 2) 1/8 3) 4/1 4) 8/1
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8. A uniform rod of length L is moved with constant velocity V in a uniform magnetic


field over the rails as shown in fig. Which of the following directions represents the
direction of magnetic force on an electron moving along the rod.( Uniform magnetic
field is into the plane of the paper).
B

R V

1) 2) 3) 4)
9. On an X temperature scale, water freezes at 125.0 o X and boils at 375.0o X. On a Y

temperature scale, water freezes at 70.0o Y and boils at 30.0o Y. The value of

temperature on X-scale to the temperature of 50.0o Y on Y-scale is :

1) 455.0o X 2) 125.0o X 3) 1375.0o X 4) 1500.0o X


10. The current through a coil of self inductance L 2mH is given by I t 2 e t at time t.
How long it will take to make the emf zero?
1) 1 s 2) 2 s 3) 3 s 4) 4 s

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Narayana IIT Academy 10-01-15_Sr.IIT-Z (IZ) CO-
SPARK_JEE MAIN_CTM-6

11. The voltage applied to an X-ray tube is 18KV. The maximum mass of photon emitted
by the X-ray tube will be:

1) 2 X 1013kg 2) 3.2 X 1036kg 3) 3.2 X 1032kg 4) 9.1 X 1031kg


12. In a photoelectric experiment, with light of wavelength , the fastest electron has speed

3
v. If the exciting wavelength is changed to the speed of the fastest emitted electron
4

will become
3 4 3 4
1) v 2) v 3) less than v 4) greater than v
4 3 4 3

13. P-T diagram is shown below then choose the corresponding V-T diagram

1) 2) 3) 4)

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14. A heavy nucleus having mass number 200 gets disintegrated into two small fragments
of mass number 80 and 120. If binding energy per nucleon for parent atom is 6.5 MeV
and for daughter nuclei is 7 MeV and 8 MeV respectively, then the energy released in
the decay will be:
1) 200 MeV 2) 220 MeV 3) 220 MeV 4) 180 MeV
15. Switch S is closed for a long time, and at t = 0 it is opened, then :

LV 2
1) total heat produced in resistor R after opening the switch is R2
1 LV 2 R1
2) total heat produced in resistor R1 after opening the switch is 2
2 R R1 R2
1 R2LV 2
3) heat produced in resistor R1 after opening the switch is 2 R1 R2 R 2
4) no heat will be produced in R1.
16. A vertical rod of length l is moved with constant velocity v towards East. The vertical
component of the earth's magnetic field is B and the angle of dip is . The induced
e.m.f. in the rod is:
1) B l v cot 2) B l v sin 3) B l v tan 4) B l v cos
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17. All electrons ejected from a surface by incident light of wavelength 200 nm can be
stopped before travelling 1 m in the direction of uniform electric field of 4 N/C. The
work function of the surface is :
1) 4 eV 2) 6.2 eV 3) 2 eV 4) 2.2 eV
18. Which of the following frequencies will be suitable for beyond the horizon
communication using sky waves?
1) 10 KHz 2) 10 MHz 3) 1 GHz 4) 1000 GHz
19. In a uniform magnetic field of induction B a wire in the form of a semicircular loop of
radius r rotates about the diameter of the circle with constant angular frequency . The
axis of rotation is perpendicular to the field . If the total resistance of the semicircular
loop is R, the mean electric power generated per period of rotation is :
B r 2 ( B r 2 ) 2 ( B r ) 2 ( B r 2 ) 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
2R 8R 2R 8R
20. A circuit containing capacitors C1 and C2 as shown in the figure are in steady state with
key K1 closed and K2 is opened. At the instant t = 0, if K 1 is opened and K2 is closed
then the maximum current in the circuit will be :

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SPARK_JEE MAIN_CTM-6

1 3
1) 1 A 2) 2
A 3) 2A 4) 2
A

21. One mole of an ideal gas is taken from state A to state B by three different processes,
a) ACB (b) ADB (c) AEB as shown in the P V diagram. The heat absorbed by the gas
is:
P B

C D E

A V

1) greater in process (b) then in (a) 2) the least in process (b)


3) the same in (a) and (c) 4) less in (c) then in (b)
22. In the figure shown, the image of a real object O is formed at point I. AB is the
principal axis of the mirror, the mirror must be:

1) concave & placed towards right of I


2) concave & placed towards left of I
3) convex & placed towards right of I
4) convex & placed towards left of I
23. If the ratio of the intensity of two coherent sources is 4 then the visibility

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SPARK_JEE MAIN_CTM-6

[(ImaxImin)/(Imax+Imin)] of the fringes is

1) 4 2) 4/5 3) 3/5 4) 9
24. Interference fringes were produced using a light of wavelength 4800 A0 in a double slit
arrangement. When sheet of uniform thickness of refractive index 1.6 (relative to air) is
placed in the path of light from one of the slits, the central fringe moves some distance.
This distance is equal to the width of 30 interference bands. The thickness (in m ) of
sheet is:
1) 90 2) 12 3) 14 4) 24
25. Electrons with energy 80 keV are incident on the tungsten target of an X-ray tube.

K shell electrons of tungsten have 72.5 keV energy. X-rays emitted by the tube

contain only:

1) a continuous X-ray spectrum (Bremsstrahlung) with a minimum wavelength of

0
0.155 A

2) a continuous X-ray spectrum (Bremsstrahlung) with all wavelengths

3) the characteristic X-ray spectrum of tungsten

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SPARK_JEE MAIN_CTM-6

4) a continuous X-ray spectrum (Bremsstrahlung) with a minimum wavelength of

0
0.155 A and the characteristic X-ray spectrum of tungsten

26. In a L-R growth circuit, inductance and resistance used are 1 H and 20 respectively. If
at t = 50 millisecond, current in the circuit is 3.165 A then applied direct current emf is:
1) 200 V 2) 100 V
3) 50 V 4) Data is insufficient to find out the value.
27. A bulb is rated at 100V, 100W, it can be treated as a resistor. Find out the inductance of
an inductor (called choke coil) that should be connected in series with the bulb to
operate the bulb at its rated power with the help of an source of 200V and 50 Hz.
2 3
1) 3
H 2) 100 H 3)
H 4)
H

28. The value of current in two series LCR circuits at resonance is same when connected
across the same sinusoidal voltage source. Then:
1) both circuits must be having same value of capacitance and inductor
2) in both circuits ratio of L and C will be same
3) for both the circuits XL/XC must be same at resonance frequency
4) both circuits must have same impedance at all frequencies.
29. The secondary coil of an ideal step down transformer is delivering 500 watt power at
12.5 A current. If the ratio of turns in the primary to the secondary is
5: 1, then the current flowing in the primary coil will be :
1) 62.5 A 2) 2.5 A 3) 6 A 4) 0.4 A
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30. A particle of mass M at rest decays into two particles of masses m1 and m2 having non-

zero velocities. The ratio of the de-Broglie wave lengths of the particles 1 / 2 is:

1) m1 / m2 2) m2 / m1 3) 1 4) m2 / m1

MATHEMATICS
2 4
31. The value of Sec 2 Sec 2 Sec 2 is
7 7 7
1) 22 2) 24 3) 26 4) 28
32. Let f n 2 cos nx n N , then f 1 f n 1 f n equals
1) f n 3 2) f n 2 3) f n 1 f 2 4) f n 2 f 2
33. The number of solutions of the equation x3 x 2 2 x sin x 0 in 2 , 2 is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
n
34. The number of positive integral values of n satisfying the equation sin cos
2n 2n 2
is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
1 ab 1
1
bc 1
1 ca 1
35. If a b c 0 , then the value of cot cot cot is
a b b c c a
1) 0 2) 3) 4) 2
1 x 1 x 2
36. If x 1 , then cos 1 x cos 1
2 2

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1) 2 cos 1 x 2) 2 cos 1 x 3) 0 4)
4 4
37. The remainder when 2147 1 divided by 343 is
1) 0 2) 48 3) 102 4) 342
38. In a triangle ABC, if the median AD makes an angle with AC and AB = 2AD then
sin
1) sin A 2) sin B 3) sin C 4) 2sin A
39. If D is a point of the base BC of an isosceles triangle ABC such that AD is
perpendicular to AC, then a =
1 sin A 1 cos A
1) 2b 2) 2b cos B 3) AD AD 4)
cos B sin B
40. If x1 , x2 , x3 ,.....xn are in A.P. whose common difference is , then the value of
sin [sec x1 sec x2 sec x2 sec x3 ..... sec xn 1 sec xn ] =

1) sin n 2) sin(n 1) 3) sin(n 1) 4) cos(n 1)


cos xn cos x1 cos xn cos x1 cos xn cos x1 cos xn cos x1

10
1 3r
41. Sum of the series 1
r
Cr
10
r
2 r is
r 0 2 2
2 110
210 1 220 1 220 1
1) 2) 3) 20 4)
220 220 2 220
n n
1 r
42. If an n
Cr
, then n equals
r 0 r 0 Cr

n n
1) an 2) an 3) nan 4) n 1 an
2 4
43. If 2sinx cos2x = 1, then cos2x + cos4x is equal to
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1) 1 2) -1 3) 5 4) 5

44. The sum of the factors of 9! Which are odd and are of the form 3m 2 , where m is a
natural number is
1) 40 2) 45 3) 51 4) 44
45. The remainder when x 1! 2! 3! 4! .... 100! is divided by 240, is
1) 153 2) 33 3) 73 4) 187
n

46. Sum of the series r


r 1
2
1 r ! is

1) n 1 ! 2) n 2 ! 1 3) n n 1 ! 4) n 1 ! 1
47. The number of ways of selecting 4 cards of an ordinary pack of playing cards so that
exactly 3 of them are of the same denomination is
1) 2496 2) 13C3 4C3 48 3) 52C3 48 4) 2296
48. If three six-faced fair dice are thrown together, the probability that the sum of the
numbers appearing on the dice is 16 is
1) 1/36 2) 1/11 3) 1/2 4) 5/36
49. Out of 21 tickets marked with numbers 1,2, ....,21, three are drawn at random without
replacement. The probability that these numbers are in A.P. is
10 9 14 13
1) 2) 3) 4)
133 15 261 261

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SPARK_JEE MAIN_CTM-6

50. While shuffling a pack of playing cards, four are accidently dropped. The probability
that the cards that are dropped are one from each suit is
1 2197 1 2197
1) 2) 3) 4)
20825 20825 256 499800

51. The number of points inside or on the circle x 2 y 2 4 satisfying


tan 4 x cot 4 x 1 3sin 2 y is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
52. If m is a natural number such that m 5 , then the probability that the quadratic

1 m
equation x 2 mx 0 has real roots is?
2 2

1)1/5 2) 2/3 3) 3/5 4) 1/5

53. The least number of times a fair coin must be tossed so that the probability of getting at

least one head is at least 0.95 is

1) 5 2) 6 3) 7 4) 12
54. If three positive real numbers a, b, c are in A.P. such that abc = 4, then the minimum

possible value of b is

1) 23/2 2) 22/3 3) 21/3 4) 25/2


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SPARK_JEE MAIN_CTM-6

1 1 1 2 1 1 1
55.
If 2 2 2 .... upto , then value of 2 2 2 .... up to is
1 2 3 6 1 3 5

2 2 2 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 6 8 12
1
If an 1 1 a for n 1 and a3 a1 , then a2001 equals
2001
56.
n

1) -1 2) 1 3) 0 4) 2
57. If a, b, c are real and a b , then the roots of the equation

2 a b x 2 11 a b c x 3 a b 0 (are)

1) real and equal 2) real and unequal

3) purely imaginary 4) Cannot be decided

58. Let a > 0, b > 0 and c > 0. Then both the roots of the equation 2ax 2 3bx 5c 0 .

1) are real and negative 2) have negative real parts

3) have positive real parts 4) Cannot be decided

59. Let , be the roots of x 2 x p 0 and , be the roots of x 2 4 x q 0 . If , , ,

are in G.P. then the integral values of p and q respectively, are

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SPARK_JEE MAIN_CTM-6

1) -2, -32 2) -2, 3 3) -6, 3 4) -6, -32

60. If a b c d , then the equation 3 x a x c 5 x b x d 0 has

1) real and distinct roots 2) real and equal roots

3) purely imaginary roots 4) Non real roots

CHEMISTRY
61. Which alkene will give only optically active product upon catalytic hydrogenation
H 2 / Pd ?

1) 2) 3) 4)
62. Predict the product of the reaction of 1-pentyne and excess HCl in the presence of

hydrogen peroxide.

1) 1,1- dichloropentane 2) 1,2-dichloropentane

3) 2,2-dichloropentane 4) 2-chloro-1-pentene

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aAjor
Narayana IIT Academy 10-01-15_Sr.IIT-Z (IZ) CO-

K
C
O elctroysiM
SPARK_JEE MAIN_CTM-6


; Major-product (A) is:

63.

C O

64.
1) 2)
gS2O
C
H
4
3) 4)
What is the major organic product of the following reaction?

O H
O
H H H
H
O
O
65.
a b c
1)

HN
O
H
N 2) 3) 4)

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SPARK_JEE MAIN_CTM-6

Compare rate of EAS :

1) a b c 2) a c b 3) b a c 4) c a b

C
l AlC3
66. Cumene
C
l AlC3
is prepared by :

H 1) 2)

3) 4) All of these
67. Which of the following isomeric hexachlorocylohexanes is least reactive in

lC
ClC
lC
l lC
ClC
lC
l
-dehydrochlorination on treatment with strong base?

1) 2)

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lC
ClC
lC
l
SPARK_JEE MAIN_CTM-6

3) 4) All three are equally reactive


68.
B
r
Compare rate of reaction with Ag NO3 :

B
r B
r
i) ii) iii)

1) i iii ii 2) i ii iii 3) iii i ii 4) ii i iii

2
O
C
H XmolesofHBr
O
H
69.

value of (x ) is

1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

70.

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hC
P H
SPARK_JEE MAIN_CTM-6
2 P
h
hC
P H
1)

3
2)
PtC
hO
EH
3


O
2 h
C
H It?
3) 4)
71.
ea
H What are the major products from the following reaction ?


IC
H
2O
O
H C
H
2I
1)

O
C
H
2O
I 2)

O
C
H
2IOH
3) 4)
72. Which of the following reactions can be used to prepare 3-methyl-3-hexanol,

32O
C
H H
C
32C
H
23

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C
H O
32CH
2C 2H3 1.C
2H.HOr C
3O
H 23 1.C
2C
H 2H.HO
SPARK_JEE MAIN_CTM-6

g
M
33B
2M
33gB
r

1)
3O
C
H 3 1.C
2C
H 32
H.H3O
2C
H
2MgB r
2)


O
t H3O
E 3) 4) all of these

73.

O
H
Product obtained in above reaction are:
O
EtOH CH 3 CHO

1) ,
O 2)
O
,

CH 3CO2 H

3) , 4) EtOH,

O
74.
10%NaOH,2O
What is the product of the following reaction?

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H
OO
O
H
O
1)
H
OO
2) H
O
O

O
CpHH
3) 4)
75.
4H.52
3N
What is the product of the following reaction?

C
HH
3N C
H
N
3
C
H
O
H
N
3
H
O
N
H
2

1) 2) 3) 4)
76. Which of the following compounds is the least reactive towards nucleophilic acyl
substitution?

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O
R
C
N H
O
R
C
H
O
R
C
l

O
O
R
C
C
R
SPARK_JEE MAIN_CTM-6

2 3

iO 2iO
iOHNO H
1) 2) 3) 4)
77.
M
eO H
The Keq values in HCN addition to following aldehydes are in the order:

1) i ii iii 2) ii iii i 3) iii ii i 4) ii i iii


78. O
H
H
O
O Heat
H
O
What is the product of the following reaction?

OO
HO
H ? O
H
O
H
O
1)
O 2) OO
H
3) 4)
79. What is the product of the following reaction?
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O

H18 H
2O ?
SPARK_JEE MAIN_CTM-6

H
O
18C
H 22O
22C
H C18H H
O
18C
H
22C
H O
22C
H
1)
H
O C
2H
2C
2HO
18H
2C 2)

3) 4) All of these

O
H
N
H
2
N
C
l
80. Consider
O
2 X
H
h
e
r
;X
i
s
: the reaction

O
H
2N
N
H
O
H
2N
N
H

1) O
H 2) O
H

N

3) 4)
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81.

O
C
N
15H
C
H
O
C
N
H
Which of the following is most reactive towards Hoffmann bromamide reaction?
2 O
3 C
N
H
O
C
H
2
3
O
C
N
H
2 N
O
2
2

2
1) 2) 3) 4)
N
H
C
2
HN
H
82.

21
m
olle

H
C
Product formed in the reaction is:

N
H

C
H
3C
2
N
l

N
H3C
lC
2

H
N
H
2 N
H
2
C
HN
H
3C
2
l

N
H
N
H
3C
l
2

1) 2) 3) 4)

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83.
N
H
O
2O
HH N
H
O
2O
H
What is the major structure of aspartic acid present at pH = 7 in aqueous solution
having PKa1=2.10, PKa2=3.86 and PKa3=9.82?

1) N
H
O
3O
2) N
H
O
2O

3) 4)
84. Which of the following compounds is a nonreducing sugar?

1) i 2) ii 3) iii 4) iv

85. Which of the following pair will form same osazone?


1) D-Glucose, D-Allose 2) D-Glucose, D-Altrose

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3) D-allose, D-Altrose 4) D-Fructose, D-Galactose


86. In elastomer, intermolecular forces are:
1) Nil 2) Weak 3) Strong 4) Very strong
87. Which of the following polymer, not having C - C bond formation during
polymerisation.
1) Teflon 2) Bakelite 3) Natural rubber 4) Buna-s
88. Absolute alcohol cannot be obtained by simple fractional distillation because:
1) Pure C2 H 5OH is unstable
2) C2 H 5OH do not form hydrogen bonds with water
3) Boiling point C2 H 5OH is very close to that of water
4) Constant boiling azeotropic mixture is formed with water
89. Histamine stimulates the secretion of pepsin and hydrochloric acid and antihistamines
are used to prevent the action of histamines. Among the following which are
antihistamines?

2NO
1) Ranitidine 2) Terfenadine 3) Brompheniramine 4) All of these
H SO
N
H
R
90.
Above drug is an example of:
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Narayana IIT Academy 10-01-15_Sr.IIT-Z (IZ) CO-
SPARK_JEE MAIN_CTM-6

1) Sulpha drug 2) Morphine 3) Analgesic 4) Tranquilizer

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