Minds Nest Review Center

MYCOLOGY AND VIROLOGY EXAM

Gallen Vince A. Domingo, RMT

Name: _______________________________________________________ Score: __________

I. VIROLOGY: Read the instructions per cluster of items carefully.

For items 1 15: Match the virus with its associated infection. Write the letter of the correct
answer before the number.

1. Rubivirus a. Smallpox
2. Parvovirus b. Chickenpox
3. EBV c. Yellow Fever
4. HIV d. Rabies
5. Morbillivirus e. Measles (rubeola)
6. Lyssavirus f. Rubella
7. Flavivirus g. AIDS
8. Variola Major h. Hand-foot-mouth disease
9. Togavirus i. infectious mononucleosis
10. HHV-6 j. Warts
11. Coxsackie A virus k. Adult T cell leukemia
12. Pneumovirus l. Respiratory syncytial virus
13. Human T cell lymphotropic virus m. Roseola
14. Human papillomavirus n. Erythema infectiosum
15. VZV o. Equine encephalitis

For items 16 50: Encircle the letter of the correct answer.

16. Which virus family is characterized by a double-stranded RNA genome?

a. Retroviridae c. Picornaviridae
b. Reoviridae d. Togaviridae
17. The protein coat of the virus is known as the:
a. Virion c. Nucleocapsid
b. Capsid d. Envelope
18. Replication of RNA viruses typically occurs in the:
a. Nucleus c. ER
b. Golgi Apparatus d. Cytoplasm
19. The following statements regarding varicella and zoster are true except:
a. They are two diseases caused by one virus
b. Varicella is the primary illness, whereas zoster is the recurrent form of the
disease
c. They have same clinical picture
d. Varicella is a disease of children, whereas zoster is a disease of elderly and
immunocompromised patients
20. What is the largest RNA virus?
a. Picornavirus c. Flavivirus
b. Calicivirus d. Paramyxovirus
21. Which of the following is not a herpesvirus?
a. Roseola c. Adenovirus
b. Herpes simplex 2 d. Varicella zoster virus
22. Which influenza envelope proteins facilitate binding to host cells and fusion?
a. gp1b c. hemagglutinin
b. neuraminidase d. m2
23. The following diseases are characterized by maculopapular rash except:
a. Measles c. Herpangina
b. Exanthem subitum d. Erythema infectiosus

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24. The following statements about herpesviruses are true except:
a. All are DNA-viruses
b. All remain latent inside the human body after primary infection
c. All cause vesicular rash
d. There are eight human herpes viruses
25. A 3- year old child presents with symptoms of coryza, conjunctivitis, low-grade fever
and Kopliks spots. The causative agent of this disease most likely belongs to which
group of viruses?
a. Orthomyxovirus c. Picornavirus
b. Paramyxovirus d. Adenovirus
26. HHV-8 is associated with:
a. Fifth Disease c. Kaposis sarcoma
b. Roseola infantum d. Oral leukoplakia
27. The following statements about alphaviruses are true except:
a. Are responsible for transmitting the Eastern, Western and Venezuelan
Encephalitis
b. Transmitted exclusively by blood transfusions
c. Transmitted by insects including mosquitoes
d. Are RNA viruses
28. Owls eye cytological inclusions are characteristic of infection caused by:
a. HIV c. CMV
b. VZV d. HSV
29. Mosquitoes serve as vectors in all of the following viral diseases except:
a. Dengue fever c. West Nile virus
b. Hepatitis d. Yellow fever
30. The correct sequence of steps of viral replication is:
a. Assembly-Adsorption-Penetration-Release-Uncoating
b. Adsorption-Penetration-Assembly-Uncoating-Release
c. Penetration-Adsorption-Release- Uncoating-Assembly
d. Adsorption-Penetration-Uncoating-Assembly-Release
31. When specimen delay is anticipated, virology specimens are optimally maintained:
a. frozen immediately at -20oC
b. held at 4oC and snap-frozen to -70oC
c. incubated at 35oC
d. at room temperature
32. RNA viruses cause all the diseases listed below except:
a. Hepatitis B c. Ebola
b. Dengue d. Mumps
33. The disease known as sever acute respiratory syndrome is caused by a type of?
a. Coronavirus c. Papillomavirus
b. Rhinovirus d. Calicivirus
34. Which of the following is a DNA virus?
a. HAV c. HCV
b. HBV d. HDV
35. Cytomegalovirus isolation is best accomplished using:
a. Monkey kidney cells
b. A549 cells
c. Human embryonic fibroblasts
d. Embryonated hens eggs
36. What common antigen is cross-reactive in all human adenoviruses?
a. Hemagglutinin c. Hexon
b. Capsomere d. Fiber
37. What specimen should be collected from a patient suspected of enteroviral meningitis?
a. Stool c. CSF
b. Throat swab d. AOTA

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 38. German measles is caused by:
a. Rubella virus c. Varicella-zoster virus
b. Rubeola virus d. Vaccinia virus
39. What is an alastrim infection?
a. Measles c. Smallpox
b. Mild form of smallpox d. Chickenpox
40. The most common method for rapid electron microscopy examination is:
a. Negative staining c. Gram stain
b. Acid-Fast staining d. Periodic Acid Schiff stain
41. Which of the following is a DNA virus?
a. Togaviridae c. Orthomyxoviridae
b. Herpesviridae d. Retroviridae
42. Which of the following is the smallest RNA virus?
a. Togavirus c. Enterovirus
b. Rhabdovirus d. Paramyxovirus
43. A mature virus particle containing a nucleic acid core surrounded by a protein coat;
with or without an envelope is:
a. Genome c. Virion
b. Nucleocapsid d. Capsomer
44. Which of the following viruses causes acute central nervous system disease in humans
and animals?
a. Mumps c. Rabies
b. Measles d. Influenza
45. Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions are elementary bodies of the:
a. Poxvirus c. Papillomavirus
b. Herpesvirus d. Poliovirus
46. What virus is the most frequent cause of gastroenteritis in children during the winter
months?
a. Influenza viruses c. Hepatitis A virus
b. Rotavirus d. Adenovirus
47. What virus group contains a double-stranded, segmented RNA genome?
a. Parainfluenza virus c. Herpesvirus
b. Influenza virus d. Reovirus
48. Enteroviruses can be differentiated from rhinoviruses by:
a. Acid resistance c. Ether stability
b. Size determination d. Ribonuclease treatment
49. Forschheimer spots is a characteristic of which viral infection?
a. Measles c. Influenza
b. Rubella d. Mumps
50. Formerly known as salivary gland virus:
a. Variola Major c. Enterovirus
b. Cytomegalovirus d. Coronavirus

II. MYCOLOGY: Read the instructions per cluster of items carefully.

For items 51 55, match the dimorphic fungus with its description. Write the letter of the correct
answer beside the number.

a. Blastomyces dermatitidis
b. Sporothrix schenkii
c. Coccidioides immitis
d. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
e. Histoplasma capsulatum

51. Small cigar-shaped yeast cells at 37oC and small, oval conidia arranged singly or as
flowerettes

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 52. Thick-walled, large-celled, single-budding yeast cells at 37oC and piriform conidia
attached to septate hyphae at 25oC
53. Small, budding yeast cells at 37oC and large, thick-walled tuberculate macroconidia at
25oC
54. Thick-walled, round spherules on direct examination and thick-walled septate, barrel
shaped arthroconidia at 25oC
55. Large, round, multibudding yeast cells at 37oC and small, septate, branched hyphae
with chlamydoconidia at 25oC

For items 56 63: Match the common name of the disease with the clinical name if the disease.
Write the letter of the correct answer beside the number.

56. Darlings Disease a. Paracoccidioidomycosis

57. Valley Fever b. Oral candidiasis
58. Chicago Disease c. Aspergillosis
59. South American Blastomycosis d. Blastomycosis
60. Mycotic Mycetoma e. Pseudoallescheriasis
61. Farmers Lung Disease f. Histoplasmosis
62. Thrush g. Coccidioidomycosis
63. Balanitis h. Candidiasis of the penis

For items 64 100: Encircle the letter of the correct answer.

64. Fungal cultures should be held and observed for growth for at least:
a. 72 hours c. 1 month
b. 1 week d. Coronavirus
65. The type of asexual spore produced by simple budding off from the mother cell is a:
a. Ascospore c. Chlamydospore
b. Blastospore d. Sporangiospore
66. Conidia are:
a. Asexual spores c. Vegetative spores
b. Sexual spores d. Sporangiospore
67. Chlamydospores that grow within the hyphae are referred as:
a. Intercalary c. Spiral
b. Terminal d. Sessile
68. Coenocytic Hyphae is a synonym for:
a. Septate Hyphae c. Pseudohyphae
b. Aseptate Hyphae d. Arthroconidia
69. What is the stain in Aman medium?
a. Methylene blue c. Prussian blue
b. Cotton blue d. Bromthymol blue
70. Which fungus medium is used for the primary isolation and maintenance of fungal
cultures?
a. Rice Agar c. Cornmeal Agar
b. Saboraud Dextrose Agar d. Staibs Medium
71. Which of the following media stimulates the production of chlamydospores?
a. Urease Test Medium c. Czapeks Agar
b. Cornmeal Agar d. Brain-Heart Infusion Agar
72. Tinea unguium is a dermatophyte infection of the:
a. Beard c. Feet
b. Nail plates d. Palm of hand
73. Which of these organisms is the usual cause of white piedra?
a. Trichosporon beigelii c. Piedraia hortae
b. Microsporum canis d. Malassezia furfur
74. Which of these organisms is the usual cause of black piedra?
a. Trichosporon beigelii c. Microsporum canis
b. Piedraia hortae d. T. schoenleinii

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75. A positive result for the hair-baiting test is:
a. The production of germ tubes
b. The production of the red pigment
c. V shaped penetration of the hair shaft
d. The production of a brown pigment
76. Which of the following produces small, very slow growing coloniesand has favic
chandeliers?
a. Trichophyton tonsurans
b. Trichophyton schoenleinii
c. Epidermophyton floccosum
d. Microsporum canis
77. Which statement is NOT true?
a. Trichophyton mentagrophytes is urease positive.
b. Trichophyton mentagrophytes penetrates the hair shaft.
c. Trichophyton rubrum is urease positive.
d. Trichophyton rubrum does not penetrate the hair shaft.
78. Which of the following is diagnostic of chromoblastomycosis?
a. Flowerette conidia c. Sclerotic body
b. Asteroid body d. Germ tube
79. Which of the following is the result of antigen-antibody reaction in cases of
sporotrichosis?
a. Sclerotic body c. Sleeve conidia
b. Flowerette conidia d. Asteroid body
80. A presumptive identification of Candida albicans can be made by checking the ability
of the organism to produce what structure with serum:
a. Blastospores c. Pseudohyphae
b. Germ tube d. Chlamydospores
81. In older mold cultures of Sporothrix schenkii, single conidia borne along the sides of
the hyphae are referred to as:
a. Cigar-shaped c. Asteroid body
b. Flowerette d. Sleeve
82. The tissue phase of Histoplasma capsulatum characteristically shows:
a. Pseudohyphae with blastospores
b. Yeast cells within macrophages
c. Yeast forms with multiple buds
d. Tuberculate chlamydospores
83. Which of the following is/are dimorphic fungi?
a. Histoplasma capsulatum c. choices A and B
b. Blastomyces dermatitidis d. NOTA
84. Which microscopic method is preferred to examine nails, sin, or hair?
a. Saline mount c. India Ink
b. KOH preparation d. Giemsa stain
85. Which of the following has a capsule?
a. Candida albicans c. Cryptococcus neoformans
b. Geotrichum candidum d. Blastomyces dermatitidis
86. What is the Latin name that corresponds to athletes foot?
a. Tinea corporis c. Tinea cruris
b. Tinea barbae d. Tinea pedis
87. What is the causative agent of athletes foot?
a. Microsporum c. Trichophyton
b. Candida albicans d. Coccidioides immitis
88. Most incidents of human sporotrichosis arise following what event?
a. Inhalation of spores
b. A puncture or scratch wound
c. Consumption of contaminated food
d. The bite of a tick

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89. What type of fungal infection involves the stratum corneum and the upper dermis?
a. Systemic c. Superficial
b. Cutaneous d. Subcutaneous
90. A fungus that grows as a mold at 35-37oC and a mold at 25oC is described as:
a. Eumycotic c. Dimorphic
b. Monomorphic d. Yeasts
91. Fungus with spaghetti and meatballs appearance in microscopy
a. Aspergillus fumigatus c. Sporothrix schenkii
b. Candida albicans d. Malassezia furfur
92. Which of the following is/are anthrophilic?
a. Microsporum audouinii c. Microsporum gypseum
b. Microsporum canis d. AOTA
93. Hairs infected with these dermatophytes fluoresce under Woods Lamp:
a. Trichophtyon rubrum
b. Trichophtyon tonsurans
c. Microsporum canis
d. Epidermophyton floccosum
94. Macroconidi are usually:
a. Unicellular c. Square
b. Multicellular d. Rectangular
95. Which of the following techniques best maintains the microscopic morphology of the
fungus?
a. Tease mount c. Slide culture
b. Cellophane preparation d. India Ink
96. Causative agent of Tinea Nigra Palmaris
a. Fonsecae pedrosoi c. Acrotheca
b. Cladosporum werneckii d. Pseudoallescheria boydii
97. Causative agent of Gilchrists Disease:
a. Blastomyces dermatitidis
b. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
c. Coccidioides immitis
d. Histoplasma capsulatum
98. Causative agent of San Joaquin Valley Fever
a. Blastomyces dermatitidis
b. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
c. Coccidioides immitis
d. Histoplasma capsulatum
99. The exoantigen test is a/an:
a. Indirect passive agglutination test
b. Microscopic immunodiffusion test
c. Neutralization test
d. Rocket electrophoresis technique
100. Fungus with characteristic brown-black colonies on Niger Seed agar:
a. Coccidioides immitis
b. Candida albicans
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Fonsecae pedrosoi

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